B737-300/500 System Review Questions
Airplane General
Secti
1. Is there a speed limit for the outboard landing lights? NO 2. Crewmember life vests can only be inflated using CO2 cartridges? False 3. Are the flashlights charged off the aircraft electrical system? NO 4. The nose wheel taxi light will automatically extinguish with gear retraction? False 5. What type classification are the cargo compartments? Class C 6. Where is the water tank located and how many gallons does it hold? Behind the aft cargo compartment, 20 gallons 7. How is the water system pressurized? Air from the APU or engine #1 8. Must the battery be on to illuminate the position lights? Yes 9. If normal electrical power is lost what cockpit lights will be available from the BAT BUS? Standby compass Dome lights Floodlights Warning lights 10. Will the loss of one AC Bus remove all cabin lights? NO 11. When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically? 28 volt DC bus #1 fails or the loss of AC power 12. Do the emergency lights charge in the ARM position? YES 13. Does the battery have to be on to read the crew O2 pressure on the flight deck? Yes 14. What is the approach category for the B-737? Category C except for Circling, which is Cat D 15. Which B-737’s are approved for ETOPS? 700-800-900 series 16. What is the maximum runway slope? +/- 2% 17. What is the maximum takeoff tailwind component? 10kts 1
18. What is the maximum operating altitude? 37,000’ 19. What is the maximum takeoff / landing altitude? 8,400’ 20. What are the maximum flight operating latitudes? 73 degrees north and 60 degrees south 21. What is the minimum quick turn time should the landing weight exceed the charted value? 53 minutes then check the thermal plugs 22. What is the maximum severe turbulent air penetration speed? Climb and descent 280kts or .73M Cruise TURB N1 setting If severe turbulence is encountered below 15,000’ and below max landing weight the airplane may be slowed to 250kts 23. What is the indication for an un-locked cargo door? FWD / AFT cargo door annunciation light and master caution 24. How many Megaphones are installed on the 737? 2 25. If a passenger cabin PSU O2 compartment fails to open can it be opened manually? YES 26. How can you shut off the O2 to the crew mask when it is not stowed in the box? Close the left side stowage door and slide the test/reset switch 27. What is the maximum tire speed? 195kts 28. What is the recommended crosswind component? Takeoff 35kts Wet ru runway 23kts Slush 16kts Snow co covered 21kts 29. When are rolling takeoffs recommended? When crosswinds exceed 20kts 30. What is the recommended crosswind component for landing? Dry 35kts Wet 35kts Slush 20kts Snow co covered 35kts 31. How many portable Oxygen bottles should be on board? At least one for each flight attendant 32. How long will the passenger O2 generators last? 12 minutes and cannot be shut off 33. How long will the PBE provide O2? 15-30 minutes depending on the users work rate 2
34. What is the operating life of the emergency radio beacon? Where is it located? 100 hours Just inside the main cabin door opposite the flight attendant jump seat 35. Which lights are not tested during the lights test? Marker Beacon A/T A/P NAV/COMM frequencies Fire related Transponder code MCP lights Clock LCD
3
Air Systems
Sec
36. Where does external air enter the pneumatic manifold? Right of the isolation valve 37. How is potable water pressurized? From the left side of the pneumatic manifold 38. On the ground what is the proper indication of the Ram Door position lights? RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights illuminated 39. When are the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN lights extinguished? In-flight or flaps fully retracted 40. Illumination of the DUCT OVHT means what? Duct has over heated and mix valves are driven full cold i. Requires a reset 41. What’s the maximum differential pressure allowed by a pressure relief valve? 8.65psi i. 2 pressure relief valves installed 42. What’s the maximum takeoff differential pressure? .125psi 43. Where is the main outflow valve located? On the belly of the aircraft aft of the main cargo compartment 44. Where are the pressure relief valves located? 2 located on either side of the main outflow valve 45. What does the PACK TRIP OFF light indicate? An overheat condition exists in the cooling cycle of the pack; causes pack valve to close automatically. Mix valve will then drive to full cold 46. What does the left WING BODY OVHT light indicate? What about the right? There’s a leak in the bleed air duct i. LEFT: L engine strut, L inboard wing leading edge, L air conditioning bay, keel beam, or bleed duct from APU ii. RIGHT: R engine strut, R inboard wing leading edge, R air conditioning bay iii. WING BODY OVHT cannot be reset 47. With one pack not operating, when will the other pack automatically switch to HIGH AIR FLOW? In-flight with flaps up 48. AUTO FAIL light indicates what? DCPCS i. Loss of DC power ii. Controller fault iii. Excessive rate of cabin pressure change +/- 2000 ft/min iv. High cabin altitude 15,800’
i. ii. iii.
CPCS Loss of auto AC power Excessive rate of cabin pressure change +/- 1800 ft/min High cabin altitude 13,875’
49. When is the limitation on the DUAL BLEED light? When the APU and engine bleeds would permit a possible backpressure to the APU
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50. What powers the isolation valve? AC power 51. When does the FWD outflow valve close? When the recirculation fan is operating 52. How is engine bleed air temperature regulated? Engine fan air is ducted through the pre-cooler at a rate determined by the thermostatic pre-cooler valve 53. How many packs can the APU power on the ground? In-flight? 2 packs on the ground (only for heating) 1 pack in-flight 54. A temperature higher than the DUCT OVHT causes the appropriate pack valve to close and illuminate what light? Pack Trip off light 55. What powers the recirculation fans AC 56. What aural warning on the ground indicates an overheat in the E & E compartment? Call horn in the nose wheel well 57. When does the flow control valve open in-flight? . Un-pressurized . Pressurized with the cabin differential less than 2.5psi 58. How is the engine start valve powered? DC battery bus 59. What does the pressurization controller sense? Only psi 60. How is the DCPCS (digital cabin pressure controller system) outflow valve operated? Brushless DC motor 61. What schedule does the pressurization controller follow cabin altitudes? <28,000’ 7.45 >28,000’ 7.8 62. What is the maximum differential pressure? 8.65psi 63. What is the maximum cabin differential pressure for takeoff / landing? .125psi 64. What limitation is placed on when engine bleeds are on and the operation of both packs on high? Not for takeoff and landing 65. Duct pressure for max cooling is what? 20-25psi 66. Minimum duct pressure for two-pack operation from one bleed source? 20-25psi
5
Anti-ice and Rain
Section
67. What does an illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate? High pressure or high temp in the duct from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip 68. What does a dim WING ANTI ICE VALVE OPEN light indicate? Respective wing anti-ice control valve is OPEN with the switch selected ON 69. The engine anti-ice system does what? Heats the engine inlet cowl 70. Engine anti-ice valve is controlled and operated by? Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated 71. What is indicated when the engine anti-ice valve fails OPEN? The COWL VALVE OPEN light remains bright blue indicating a disagreement between switch and valve position, and an amber TAI indication illuminates on the CDS after a short delay 72. How many TAT probes are installed on the 737? One 73. Is the alternate static source heated? NO 74. How many pitot tubes are there? 6 75. What does the amber light mean on the pitot static panel? Not heated 76. On the ground when throttles are advanced to take off power and the wing anti-ice is selected on, the wing ant-ice valves close. TRUE, the switch must be cycled off then back on above 800’ AGL or acceleration height, whichever is higher 77. What are the icing limitations for climb and descent? Must be on for all operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated except during climb or cruise when the temperature is below –40C SAT 78. What part of the wing does the wing anti-ice heat? Slats 79. What windows in the cockpit are not heated? 3 L/R 80. How long must window heat be on prior to takeoff? 10 minutes 81. When do icing conditions exist? OAT on the ground or TAT airborne is below 10C AND in visible moisture (less than one mile on the ground), or standing water, ice, slush, or surface snow exists
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82. When must engine anti-ice be on? . All ground operations in icing conditions . All flight operations in icing conditions, except climb and cruise below -40C SAT . Prior to and during descent in all icing conditions . Engine ignition must be selected to CONT prior to and during anti-ice operations 83. When must wing anti-ice be selected ON? . All ground operations between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist . Do not operate wing anti-ice on the ground when OAT is above 10C . Do not use wing anti-ice as a substitute for de-icing / anti-icing 84. When must wing anti-ice not be used? During takeoff below 800’ AGL or acceleration height, whichever, is higher. 85. What is the source of bleed air for wing anti-ice? Pneumatic manifold after engine bleed valve 86. What happens when either thrust lever is moved beyond the takeoff-warning threshold with wing anti-ice operating on the ground? . Both wing anti-ice valves close, but the switch remains on . Light turns bright blue 87. When should the wipers not be used? On a dry windshield 88. When must the window heat be selected on? 10 minutes before takeoff 89. When must pitot heat be on? Prior to takeoff
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Auto flight 90. What will cause an A/P (auto pilot) to disengage? . Pushing either A/P disengage switch . TO/GA switch with a single A/P engaged below 2000’ RA . TO/GA after touchdown with both A/P in CMD . Pushing A/P engage switch
Se . Trim switch . Stab Trim A/P cutout switch . Either IRS system fail or FAULT light illuminated . Loss of electrical power . Respective HYD system
91. Which mode is FD mode and not A/P mode? Takeoff 92. Only one A/P can be engaged at a given time unless APP mode is engaged. TRUE 93. During pre-flight, the bank angle is set to 25 degrees. What does this affect? The VOR and HDG SEL only 94. What mode allows both A/P’s to be engaged? APP mode 95. At what speed is the A/T mode annunciated THR HOLD? 84kts 96. When does the A/T disengage after landing? 2 seconds 97. What is the minimum altitude for A/P engagement (climb and cruise)? 1000’ AGL 98. Does the F/D have landing flare capability? NO 99. In normal operation the FMC provides the A/T system with what limitations? N1 100.
On takeoff when does the F/D command 15 degrees nose up? 64kts
101.
What is displayed on the MCP display window when VNAV is engaged? Nothing
102.
A/T is available with FD________or A/P on or off. ON or OFF
103.
How is a single channel, speed trim fail condition recalled? Push either MASTER CAUTION annunciator panel
104.
What action is required to stop a runaway stabilizer trim? Move control column in opposite direction of runaway trim, which removes power to A/P trim switch and stab trim
105.
When does the main electric trim move faster? With flaps extended
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106.
During cruise in A/P A, how do you select A/P B? Select B and A will automatically trip off
107.
What mode engages automatically when ALT ACQ engages and a new MCP altitude is selected? VS
108.
What does VOR consider when capturing a selected course? Closure rate and intercept angle
109.
During take off with the F/D in TO/GA mode below 400’, roll commands what? Maintains wings level
110.
When is the F/D GA mode armed? Below 2000’ AGL
111.
What is the initial F/D GA pitch command during a two engine missed approach? 15 degrees nose up
112.
Is an A/P go-around available in a single A/P mode? NO
113.
What is displayed on the IAS/MACH display on a F/D go-around? SE goaround? Goes blank Displays target speed
114.
On takeoff when does the A/T annunciate THR HLD? 84kts
115.
After takeoff the A/T remains in THR HLD until when? What does it change to? 400RA and 18 seconds ARM
116.
For coupled singled channel approaches with electronic glide slope when must the A/P be selected off? Below 50 AGL
117.
May the aileron trim be used with the A/P engaged? NO
118.
What flap settings are approved for AUTOLAND? 30 and 40 with both engines operative
119.
What are the allowable headwind / crosswind / tailwind components for the use of AUTOLAND? 25 /15 /10
120.
May the AUTOLAND be used for over weight landings? Should not be
121.
May the A/P or A/T be used for approach if the respective RA is inoperative? NO
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Communications
section 5
122.
FA’s talk to pilots over what? The service interphone. Pilots communicate with each other on the flight interphone and to MX through a jack on the external power panel
123.
What frequency should be avoided on VHF COM #2 or #3? 120.0 MHZ
124.
Which is correct for the MASK position of the MASK-BOOM switch? Allows transmission over O2 mask’s microphone
125.
Where is the flight recorder located? Behind an access door in the in the aft cabin ceiling
126.
CVR is powered by? 115V AC . 30-minute loop
127.
The service interphone must be on for the pilots to communicate with the F/A’s False, maintenance uses this switch
128.
When should VHF #3 not be used for ATC communications? ACARS or audio entertainment system in use
129.
What frequency should not be used for primary communications on COMM #2 and #3 120.0 MHZ
130.
How many COMM radios are there? 3, (#3 used for ACARS, but can be used to transmit by putting freq into ACARS)
131.
What information does the flight recorder on the 737-300’s need? Flight# and date
132.
What does the TEST switch do for the flight recorder? Bypasses oil pressure requirement and fakes that the aircraft is airborne
133.
Where is audio heard when ALTERNATE position on audio panel is selected? Receives audio on headset only
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Electrical
Section 6
134. What is the function of the AUTO position of the STBY PWR switch with a loss of all generators? 6.6.21 Allow the BATT BUS to be the source of power for both busses INFLIGHT. 135.
How is the failure of the TR1 indicated with TR3 disconnect relay closed? 0 amps on the DC ammeter at TR1 position
136. What is the function of the OFF position of the BUSS XFR switch? Prevents closing of the BUS XFR relays i. Also opens the TR3 disconnect relay ii. Isolates the transfer busses 137. What is the normal power source for TR1 & TR2? AC XFR BUS 138. What is the normal source of power for the BAT BUS? TR3 139.
On the ground alternate power for the STBY BUS requires: STBY POWER switch on BAT position.
140. The GROUND SERVICE BUS is located where? Forward F/A panel 141.
Normal source of power for the AC XFER BUS? Respective GENERATOR BUS
142.
How does the TR3 disconnect relay function during an AP of FD ILS approach? The relay opens at glide slope capture. This isolates the DC BUSSES to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.
143.
How is the failure of TR1 indicated with the TR3 disconnect CLOSED? Will indicate 0 amps on the DC meter at the TR1 position
144. What is the alternate source of the BAT BUS? Hot BAT BUS 145.
CSD warning lights indicate what? An electrical problem
146. What is the function of the AC ground service BUS? Cabin lighting and battery charging 147.
If either the DC BUS 1 or #1 XFR BUS loses power, when will the respective standby busses automatically switch to the BAT BUS? In flight only
148. What CB’s can you not reset? Fuel boost pumps – LAV motor – Fuel Quantity 149.
All power sources to a GEN BUS must be connected manually TRUE 11
150.
GEN BUS 1 or 2 OFF illuminated indicates what? The GEN BUS is not being powered
151. What busses are powered from the battery following a loss of all generators? BAT BUS HOT BAT BUS Switched HOTT BAT BUS AC standby BAT Bus through the inverter 152. What is the maximum engine driven generator load? 125 AMPS 153. What is the maximum TR load? 65 amps / 50 amps on the ground without cooling
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Engines and APU
Section 7
154. What is the AUTO function of the PMC during climb? Maintains initial N1 climb thrust. 155. What electrical power source is required for APU start? Aircraft battery 156. Turning the BAT switch off in-flight will cause the APU to shutdown False…only on the ground. 157. When is starter cutout? 46% N2 RPM 158. What is the maximum engine start EGT? 725 159. What are the respective N1 high and low settings? High 32% Low 22% 160. Engine must be shut down if OIL TEMP exceeds? 165 161. What powers the fuel cross-feed valve? BAT BUS 162. With the BATT switch on, 23 volts, and APU switch set to START, there is no DC ammeter deflection for one minute. What should you do? . Select the APU switch OFF for 20 seconds and try again. Shutdown cycle wasn’t completed on the previous flight because the BAT switch was turned off before the shutdown sequence finished. 163. Will turning the BAT switch to off cause the APU to shutdown? Ground -Yes In-flight - No 164. When is the yellow band on the OIL Pressure valid? With takeoff thrust 165. What causes the APU over-speed light to illuminate? APU RPM exceeds Aborted APU start prior to reaching operating speed Over-speed test failure during APU shutdown 166. With the engine at normal operating idle and temperature the oil pressure must be? Above the red radial line 167. What does the REVERSER light indicate when on? The isolation valve or the thrust reverser control valve is not in the commanded position. Or the thrust reverser sleeve position sensors are I disagreement for more than 2 seconds. Or the autostow has been activated (usually lasts 10 seconds) Reverser commanded to stow and isolation valve did not close in 12 seconds then light illuminates indicating a malfunction has occurred.
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168. What does the LOW IDLE light indicate in-flight? You should be in high idle and your not. Always in high idle in-flight and changes to low idle 4 seconds after touchdown. i. Either engine speed below 25% N1 in-flight 169. How do you start the number one engine with external air? Open the isolation valve 170. When is high idle reduced to low idle? 4 seconds after touch down 171. What powers the ground position of the engine start switch? DC power from the battery bus 172. How are the thrust reversers powered? Hydraulically 173. When should the ignition be switched to flight? Air-starts Severe turbulence Moderate to severe icing Heavy precipitation or Hail 174. How are the igniters powered? Right – AC Standby bus Left – AC transfer bus 175. How is engine oil cooled . Fuel flow . Fuel oil heat exchanger 176. What is the APU max EGT? 760 C 177. What is the APU max continuous EGT? 710 C 178. What is the maximum altitude the APU may power a bleed and electrical? 10000’ 179. What is the maximum altitude that the APU may power a bleed? 17,000’ 180. What is the maximum altitude that the APU may power electrics? 35,000’ 181. What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU? 35,000’ 182. How many aborted starts are permitted for the APU on the Ground? 2 start attempts 4 minutes between starts 183. How many aborted starts are permitted for the APU in-flight? 4 start attempts maximum 4 minutes between starts 14
184. Above what altitude is successful APU starts not assured? 25,000’ 185. May reverse thrust be used in flight? NO 186. May takeoffs with assumed temperature reduced takeoff thrust be made with anti-skid inoperative? NO 187. When must engine ignition be on Take off Landing Engine anti-ice Heavy Rain 188. What is the maximum N1? 106% 189. What is the maximum N2? 105% 190. What is the maximum EGT for takeoff? (5 min) 930C 191. What is the maximum EGT for takeoff? (Transient 20 seconds) 931-940C 192. What is the maximum EGT for MAX CONT? 895C 193. What is the maximum EGT for START? 725C 194. What is the minimum oil pressure? 13psi 195. What is the maximum oil temperature? 165C 196. What is the maximum continuous oil temperature? 160C 197. What is the maximum allowable oil temperature 15 minute limit? 160-165C 198. May takeoffs with assumed temperature reduced thrust be made with PMC in OFF mode? NO 199. What limitations are placed on the PMC’s for takeoff? Either both must be ON or OFF 200. May takeoffs with assumed temperature reduced thrust be made with EEC in alternate mode? NO 201. What mode must the EEC’s be in for takeoff? ON or ALTERNATE 15
202. What is the minimum duct pressure for engine start? 30psi at sea level decreasing 1/2psi per 1000’ above sea level 203. What is the starter duty cycle for engine starts? 2 minutes on, 20 seconds off (first 2 starts) 3 minutes cooling required before 3rd and subsequent consecutive starts 204. Minimum oil quantity before engine start is? 3 gallons 205. At what temperature must the engine remain in idle for 2 minutes prior to changing thrust lever position? -35C
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Fire Protection
Section 8
206. What happens when the fire handle is pulled? . Closes main fuel shutoff Valve . Closes engine bleed air valve . Trips generator . Shuts off engine driven hydraulics . Disables thrust reverser . Arms fire bottle squib 207. How is the cargo compartment smoke detection system and extinguishing system powered? HOT BAT BUS 208. What does an illumination of the fire control panel FAULT lights indicate when no fire test is being performed? Both loops on one engine have failed in the dual loop position OR the selected single loop on an engine has failed 209. Which describes the wheel well fire warning system? #1 AC XFR BUS powers the single loop 210. What are the power sources for the engine fire detection and fire extinguishing BAT BUS – HOT BAT BUS 211. In flight what happens if a single engine fire loop fails during DUAL loop operation? The loop is automatically deselected and the fire warning capability is not lost on that engine. Goes into single loop operation. 212. Where are the discs for the APU fire bottle located? Yellow / Red, aft right side of fuselage 213. Bottle discharge light indicates what? Bottle has discharged 214. APU fire on the ground sends what signal to the wheel well? Intermittent horn and blinking red light 215. What five lights are on the fire fault test? MASTER CAUTION OVHT/DET annunciator Fault light APU DET INOP 216. What powers the fire bottle squibs? HOT BAT BUS 217. Will fire fault lights set off the Master Caution? NO 218. In a dual loop operation, what does the fault light mean? Both loops have failed 219. Is there a fault light for the wheel well loop? NO
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220. What time limit is placed on landing at the nearest suitable airport after activation of the cargo suppression system? 60 minutes 221. When must the cargo compartment smoke detector and fire suppression system be verified to be operational? Before carrying cargo 222. What is the engine fire extinguishing system pressure? 800psi at 70F
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Flight Controls
Section 9
223. Which statement is correct for the Mach Trim operation? Operates automatically above .615 Mach, moves the elevator 224. What is the function of the STAB TRIM CUTOUT switch? Shuts off the AP and MAIN ELEC TRIM motors 225. YAW DAMPER uses what hydraulic system? System B, and provides rudder deflection commands and turn coordination 226. Speed brakes in-flight: (limitation) Not to be used at RA less than 1000’ or with flaps beyond 15 degrees 227. What senses TE Flap asymmetry? TE FLAP position indicators . No asymmetry protection through alternate electrical 228. What ways will give you Standby Rudder? By manually selecting the STBY RUD; or positioning the Alternate flaps master switch to arm; or automatically when there’s a loss of system A or B with flaps extended and airborne; or wheel speed greater than 60kts 228. When do the flight spoilers extend on landing? Main wheel spin up 229. When do the ground spoilers extend on landing? On right main gear compression 230. When will all spoilers extend automatically if takeoff rejected? After wheel spin up to 60kts 231. How do you know if a single channel of the SPEED TRIM has failed? Press RECALL 232. The amber LE flaps transit light on the forward instrument panel is inhibited when the auto-slat system is moving the leading edge slats? TRUE 233. What happens at touchdown with all spoiler panels deployed and either throttle is advanced? Speed brake lever moves to the DOWN detent, ground and flight spoilers retract 234. Approaching a stall angle of attack, what does the Auto Slat system do? Automatically goes to FULL EXTEND position with TE FLAPS 1 – 5 degrees 235. What’s the maximum flap extend altitude? 20,000’ 236. What’s the Mach limit with the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated? .74 Mach 237. What does the FEEL DIF PRESS light indicate? The elevator feel computer sense either hydraulic system, or elevator feel pitot system fails, resulting in a differential pressure. 19
238. What does the MACH TRIM FAIL light indicate? Dual channel failure. Can be single channel failure but will only illuminate when master caution annunciator RECALL is activated. (Above .615 mach trim is working, if inop limited to .74M) 239. When does the elevator differential light deactivate? When flaps are extended 240. If the B flight control switch is moved from FLT to STBY, what does this do? . Opens up the STBY pump . Isolates the B system . Operates the STBY PUMP 241. The flight control low-pressure light illuminates while the STBY HYD pump is on; what does this mean? STBY pump is not getting pressure 242. What is the maximum flap extension altitude? 20,000’ 243. May the speed brake lever be extended beyond the flight detent? NO 244. What are the flap limit speeds? 1-230, 2-230, 5-225, 10-210, 15-195, 25-190, 30-185, 400158 245. What is the maximum airspeed for alternate flap operation? 230kts 246. When should the speed brakes not be deployed? RA below 1000’ Flaps extended beyond 15 degrees 247. What are the speed limits of the Mach Trim Fail? 280kts / .74Mach
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Flight Instruments Displays
Section 10
248. When the CA has the FD with VOR LOC selected and the A Autopilot engaged, where is he getting his signal from? . #1 VHF NAV radio, the FO with B autopilot engaged would be using #2 VHF NAV radio 249. What information does standby attitude indicator display? . Raw data only 250. Where does the Captains EADI get its information? Left IRS . Powered by AC STBY BUS 251. What is the maximum difference between CA and FO altitude displays for operation in RSVM? . 200’ 252. What is the static source for the standby altimeter? . Alternate static source 253. Where does the IVSI get its information on the 737-500 EFIS . Respective IRS
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Flight Management NAV
Section 11
254. Which AT modes allow the levers thrust levers to be repositioned manually? . ARM, THROTTLE HOLD 255. During takeoff with the FD in TO/GA mode, below 400’, roll commands will maintain wings level? . TRUE 256. What will TO/GA mode do for your heading during a go around? . Will give the last heading to maintain the ground track from the previous approach attempt. 257. What A/T thrust is generated during a FD go around when TO/GA is pressed once? . Reduced N1 and 1000 – 2000 fpm climb, pressed twice MAX go around power. 258. When does FMC speed mode engage? . VNAV 259. What info is lost and cannot be restored when in-flight and alignment of an IRS is lost? . Present position 260. How long will the R IRS operate on BAT power? . 5 minutes 261. Can the crew update the IRS in-flight? . NO 262. Left IRS is powered how? . AC STBY BUS 263. IRS performance uses what? . Latitude only 264. If you lose IRS in-flight do you lose TRACK and GROUND SPEED information? . YES 265. ON DC light during initial alignment means what? . It’s doing a DC power test, temporarily from the SWITCHED HOT BAT BUS 266. What does the Fault light indicate on the IRS panel? . A system fault, which affects the respective IRS ATT and / or NAV modes, has been detected. 267. What does the DC fail light mean? . Back-up DC power is not available
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Fuel
Section 12
268. What does a dim FUEL VALVE CLOSED light indicate? . Valve and switch agree . Fuel shutoff valve is closed 269. What assures that the center tank fuel is used before the main tank fuel with all boost pumps operating? . The center tanks check valves open at a lower differential pressure than the check valves in the #1 and #2 main tanks. 270. Auxiliary Fuel tanks feed first because? . It has higher pressure boost pumps 271. Which tanks can suction feed? What about loss of all generators? . Tank #1 to Engine #1 and Tank #2 to engine #2, same with loss of all GEN 272. If there’s no AC power on GEN BUSSES, the center fuel tank is no longer usable? . TRUE 273. Will there be a MASTER CAUTION for one FUEL LOW PRESS light in the #1 fuel tank? . No, will be indicated when recall is pushed. 274. How is the main fuel shutoff valve closed? . Fire Switch . Start lever cutoff . The valves are DC powered from the HOT BAT BUS 275. Minimum fuel tank temperature in flight when the freezing point of the fuel in the tank is -53C is what? . -45C 276. What is the maximum fuel tank temperature? . 49C 277. What is the minimum fuel tank temperature in-flight? . At least 3 degrees above the freezing point of the fuel being used or –45C whichever is higher. 278. What is the maximum random fuel imbalance? . 1000lbs 279. When must the fuel cross feed be in the OFF position? . Takeoff and landing 280. When must the center tank pumps switches not be placed in the ON position? . Below 1000lbs in the center tank except when de-fueling or transferring fuel . When both center FUEL PRESSURE lights illuminate . Personal are NOT available on the flight deck to monitor the low-pressure lights
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281. Must the center tank quantity gauge be operational to dispatch a flight with fuel in the center tank? . YES 282. What figure is used for fuel density? . 6.7lbs per gallon 283. May a fuel pump circuit breaker be reset if tripped? . NO 284. Where is the fuel tank temperature sensor located? . Left side fuel tank 285. What are the quantity of the wing, center, and aux fuel tanks? . 10,043lbs . 15.497lbs . 2620lbs 286. What do the fuel quantity indicators indicate? . Usable fuel 287. What is the minimum fuel required to be in each wing tank for operation of electric hydraulic pumps? . 1,676lbs
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Hydraulics
Section 13
288. A leak in the engine driven #2 HYD pump will drain the B system. . FALSE 289. What would be the first indication of a leak in the STBY hydraulic system? . System B quantity decreases 290. Alternate brakes are on what system? . System A 291. With a loss of hydraulic system A, the FEEL DIFF PRESSURE light illuminates. The elevatorfeel system is operative? . TRUE 292. How is the hydraulic fluid cooled? Is there a limitation? . Fuel . Minimum for ground operations of electric pumps is 1676lbs in the related tank 293. What action would extinguish an engine driven HYD LOW PRESS light? . Start the engine . Pull the respective engines fire switch 294. When is the STBY HYD LOW PRESS light armed? . When the standby pump has been selected or automatic standby function is activated 295. When is the STBY HYD LOW QUANTITY light armed? . Always 296. When does the STBY HYD come on? . Positioning either FLT control switch to STBY RUDDER . Positioning either ALT flaps master switch to ARM . Loss of SYS A or B HYD and flaps extended airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60kts 297. When are ground spoilers available? . Right main gear compression 298. PTU is driven by hydraulic pressure from system ( A ) and uses fluid from system ( B ) 299. What’s the power source for the system B ELEC 1 HYD PUMP? System A? . GEN BUS #1 . GEN BUS #2 300. What’s the first indication of a leak in the STBY hydraulic system? . The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates as the standby reservoir’s quantity decreases to zero. The system B level decreases and stabilizes at the standby interconnect line level (64%)
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301. What items are on the A hydraulic system? . Ailerons . Rudder . Elevator and Elevator Feel . Autopilot A . Landing Gear . Ground Spoilers . Inboard Flight Spoilers . Alternate Brakes . Normal Nose Wheel Steering . Thrust Reverser #1 . Power Transfer Unit
302. What items are on the B system? . Ailerons . Rudder . Elevator and Elevator Feel . Autopilot B . Landing Gear Transfer Unit . Trailing Edge Flaps . Outboard Flight Spoilers . Yaw Damper . Normal Brakes . Alternate Nose wheel Steering . Leading Edge Flaps and Slats . Auto Slats . Thrust Reverser #2
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Landing Gear
Section 14
304.
How is wheel rotation stopped during gear retraction? . Mains by hydraulic braking . Nose wheel by snubbers
305.
Auto Brakes may be disarmed after landing by? . Apply manual brakes, advancing thrust, moving speed-brake lever down. (Note: except in the first 3 seconds)
306. Which situation would cause ANTI-SKID INOP? Fault in the parking brake system . System malfunction or disagreement between parking brake lever and the parking brake shutoff valve 307.
In cruise Brake Pressure reads 0psi, system B pressure reads 3000psi, B quantity reads full, what’s wrong? . Loss of Brake Accumulator Pre-charge
308. What occurs during a rejected takeoff if between 60-90kts? . Auto brake disarm light illuminates, use of manual brakes is now in effect 309.
How do the Alternate Brakes engage? . Automatically
310. What does the illumination of the tire screen light indicate? . Tire screen is not secure 311. When the Aircraft is being towed, the _______ should be OFF or a steering lockout pin installed. . System A pressure 312.
How does the landing gear transfer unit work? . Automatically when engine #1 fails . Airborne, gear handle UP, either main LDG not up, engine #1 RPM drops below limit value
313. When do you use accumulator pressure for braking? . Loss of A and B systems 314.
In-flight, with the landing gear up, retarding one of the throttles to idle will cause the red GEAR lights to illuminate? . TRUE
315. When are AUTOBRAKES available? . Only on system B 316.
If both hydraulic systems are lost what will the tire pressure indicator read? 1000psi
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317.
Must we use RTO brakes if available? YES
318. When does the PTU come on? (Operates Auto Slats and LE Flaps) . Airborne . System B hydraulic pressure drops below limits . Flaps are less than 10 degrees but not up 319. What are the limitations for Gear operation? . Retract 235kts . Extend 270kts/.82 Mach . Extended 320kts/.82 Mach 320.
Must the AUTO BRAKES be used on every takeoff if operable? . YES
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321.
Warning Systems
Section 15
How is the GPWS glide slope deviation alert inhibited? . Press either BELOW G/S light when in the soft warning area
322. What are the stall warning components? . 2 computers and 2 shakers 323. How is the crew alerted if the cabin pressure altitude is >10,000’? . Intermittent horn (same as takeoff CONFIG warning!) 324. Wind shear aural warnings take precedence over other GPWS warnings? . TRUE 325. Can ILS soft warnings be cancelled pushing the G/S inhibit switch? . YES 326. What sets off the CONFIG warning? . Speed brake lever, TE Flaps, LE Flaps, Trim, Parking brake 327. May the terrain display be used for navigation? . NO 328. When are takeoffs with forward looking predictive wind shear warning alerts permitted? . NEVER 329. What are the limits of the clacker? . 340kts until 26,000’ . .82 Mach above 26,000’ 330. Name three ways to get the wheel well call horn in the nose wheel well: . IRS on DC power draining the battery . E&E compartment overheat . Press the ground call button 331. When does the Altitude acquisition alert activate? . 900’ before reaching the selected altitude . deviating more than 300’ from the selected altitude 332. When does the predictive wind shear mode operate automatically? . Below 1500’ AGL . One engine running . Transponder not in OFF or STBY 333. When will you get wind shear warnings on takeoff? . Below 90kts 334. What annunciations will cabin altitude above 10,000’ give you? . No lights, intermittent horn only 335. When can the MACH/AIRSPEED and stall warning systems be tested? . Only on the ground 336. When is the use of terrain awareness and terrain display functions prohibited? . When FMC is in IRS only operation, for takeoff if position verification has not been completed, when within 15NM and approaching to land at an airport not in the EGPWS terrain database. 29
