UP+LAE+Review+09+Final+Diagnostic+Exam+Sans+Abstract

The Fraternity The Sigma Rho Fraternity UP LAE Review ‘09

Exam No: _____

Mathematics 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Relax. This is is just a diagnostic exam. But answer it like the real thing. Do not begin unless told to do so. Only pens are allowed on top of the table. Scratch paper paper shall be provided. For each question, encircle the letter of the best answer. You have 40 minutes for this part of the exam. Enjoy.

1. Paolo has a total of ninety P20, P50, and P100-bills. She has three and a half times as many P50 as P20-bills, and one-half as many P100 as P20-bills. How much money does he have? a. P600 d. P4350 b. P1500 e. None of the above c. P2250 2. What number comes next in the following series? 4, 16, 36, 64, … a. 94 d. 100 b. 81 e. None of the above c. 64 3. The larger of two numbers is six more than six times the smaller number. The larger number is also 122 more than two times the smaller number. What is the smaller number? a. 180 d. 29 b. 116 e. None of the above c. 36 4. The measures of two angles in a trapezoid are in the ratio of 2:4. The measure of the larger angle is twentyfour degrees less than three times the smaller angle. What is the measure of the larger angle? a. 24 degrees d. 108 degrees b. 48 degrees e. None of the above c. 72 degrees 5. Two airline buses leave an airport at the same time in opposite directions. The first plane is traveling at 325 kph and the other at 275 kph. How long will it take for the planes to be 2,700 kilometers apart? a. 4 hours d. 4.5 minutes b. 270 minutes e. None of the above c. 5 hours


6. Jaypee calculated the total revenue for the night to be P54,540. A total of 540 tickets and souvenirs were sold. If a ticket cost P112 each and a souvenir costs P68, how many tickets were sold? a. 420 d. 120 b. 405 e. None of the above c. 135 7. Trinidad has a total of sixty P100, P200 and P500-bills. She has a total of P16,800. She has eight more P500 than P100-bills and eight fewer P500 than P200-bills. How many of P200-bill does she have? a. 12 d. 60 b. 20 e. None of the above c. 28 8. One angle in triangle ABC is 31 degrees. The difference between the measures of the other two angles is 63 degrees. What is the measure of each angle in triangle ABC? a. 31, 43, 106 d. 31, 74, 75 b. 31, 54, 95 e. None of the above c. 31, 63, 8 9. The ratio of adult tickets to student tickets for the play was 4:5. If the sum of the adult tickets and one half of the students tickets is 260, how many adult tickets were sold? a. 80 d. 200 b. 100 e. None of the above c. 160 10. Factor: a3 – 27 a. (a – 3)3 d. (a – 3)(a2 + 3a + 9) b. (a + 3)(a – 3) e. None of the above c. (a2 – 9)(a + 3) 11. The sum of the digits of a three-digit number is 12. The tens digit is two more than the ones digit. The hundreds digit is five less than three times the ones digit. What is the number? a. 642 d. 660 b. 453 e. None of the above c. 831 12. If Cyril were three times as old as he was five years ago, he will be sixty less than six times his current age. How old is Cyril? a. 60 d. 15 b. 30 e. None of the above c. 25


13. The Daily Bugle offers advertisement space at P98 a page printed in colored. How many pages would P2,450 buy? a. 35 d. 20 b. 30 e. None of the above c. 25 14. How much water should be added to one liter of pure alcohol to make a mixture of 50% alcohol? a. 1 liter d. 0.5 liters b. 2 liter e. None of the above c. 1.5 liters 15. What are two consecutive integers, such that seven times the larger minus three times the smaller is 95? a. 21 and 22 d. 23 and 24 b. 24 and 25 e. None of the above c. 22 and 23 16. Sixty-three more than four-fifths of a number equals 111. What is the number? a. 60 d. 32 b. 48 e. None of the above c. 54 17. The ratio of votes for Raf to votes for Jayson in an election is 13:5. There were a total of 1,530 votes. How many people voted for Jayson? a. 1105 d. 85 b. 680 e. None of the above c. 425 18. The sum of three positive consecutive integers is less than 346. What pair of numbers has the greatest sum? a. 111, 112, 113 d. 115, 116, 117 b. 103, 104, 105 e. None of the above c. 114, 115, 116 19. Simon is nine years older than Jairus. Simon is four times as old as Joter was three years ago. Joter is eighteen years younger than Marshall. How old is Jairus? a. 10 d. 28 b. 12 e. None of the above c. 19 20. Emarlu played a few games of bowling. In the third game he scored 80 more than in the second game. In the first game he scored 110 less than in the third game. His total score for the first two games was 208. If he wants an average score of 146, what must he score in the fourth game? a. 89 d. 199 b. 119 e. None of the above c. 177


21. Evaluate: 1 + 16 ÷ 2 • 8 – 10 a. –8 d. 0 b. 8 e. None of the above c. 53 22. Which of the following fractions has the greatest value? a. 3 / 7 d. 4 / 9 b. 8 / 13 e. None of the above c. 6 / 11 23. There are three consecutive even integers. Half the sum of the second and third numbers is 35. What are the integers? a. 69, 71, 73 d. 32, 34, 36 b. 38, 70, 72 e. None of the above c. 33, 35, 37 24. If 27 is added to a two-digit number, the original number will be reversed. The number is three less than four times the sum of its digits. What is the number? a. 25 d. 63 b. 36 e. None of the above c. 52 25. Tank drove to Alex's house at 45 kph. Neil's house is 28 kilometers away. Leia arrived at Neil's house at 4:27 PM. What time did she leave? a. 4:02 PM d. 3:52 PM b. 4:52 PM e. None of the above c. 5:02 PM 26. A rectangle, whose perimeter is 144 feet, has a length that is 6 feet longer than its width. What is the area of the rectangle? a. 4,752 ft2 d. 5,175 ft2 b. 5,616 ft2 e. None of the above 2 c. 5,184 ft

The Sigma Rho Fraternity Fraternity UP LAE Review ‘09

27. A rectangle and a square have the same area. The length of the rectangle is 48 inches more than two times its width. The length of a side of the square is 48 inches. The side of the square is 72 inches less than five times the width of the rectangle. What is the area of the rectangle and the square? a. 24 in2 d. 2304 in2 b. 48 in2 e. None of the above 2 c. 576 in 28. Evaluate: 2 2 + 90.5 + 21 + 2250 a. 22 d. 358 b. 15 e. None of the above c. 10 29. Arnold owns three houses and makes money by renting them out. He charges three times as much per month for the second house than for the first. The monthly rent for the third house is P2,610 less than the sum of the monthly rents for the first two houses. The first house was vacant for six months, but otherwise rents were received every month from the tenants of the three houses. Arnold had total rent receipts of P186,390 for the year. How much, per month, was the rent for the third house? a. P2,071 d. P6,300 b. P2,100 e. None of the above c. P5,790 30. Evaluate: | 4 – 5 | – | 3 – 5 | – | 3 – 4 | a. –2 d. 0 b. –1 e. None of the above c. 1

Do not go to the next page until told to do so. If you still have time to review your answers, then sh*t, you’re really damn smart.


Grammatical Reasoning 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

In case you didn’t know, “barokness” is a no no in law school. Do not begin unless told to do so. Only pens are allowed on top of the table. For each question, encircle the letter of the best answer. Only 20 minutes for this part of the exam boys and girls.

GRAMMAR 1. a. b. c. d. e.

The Lobo Corporation _____ its losses over the past seven years. (2) had been doubling has doubling has doubled had doubled None of the above

2. a. b. c. d. e.

I _____ to Ilocos and seen the exhibits at Marcos’ museum. (10) will go had been have been went None of the above

3. If Marshall had locked his car properly, it _____ stolen. (3) a. b. c. d. e.

was not would not have been would not be will not be None of the above

4. a. b. c. d. e.

_____ get tired of driving on the same route everyday? Had you ever Have you ever Are you ever Do you ever None of the above

5. a. b. c. d. e.

Neither Cyril nor the other janitors filed _____ income tax returns. (4) ours theirs their her None of the above

(7)


6. a. b. c. d. e.

_____ winning in spite of the odds inspired us all. (1) Your Him You He None of the above

7. a. b. c. d. e.

Almost all middle-born children place great importance on _____ peer group. (5) you his their our None of the above

8. a. b. c. d. e.

In my company, only officials are allowed _____ share option schemes. (6) to of with for None of the above

9. a. b. c. d. e.

The question of _____ we should condemn must be decided by next week. (8) who whom which that None of the above

10. a. b. c. d. e.

The majority of construction workers _____ college graduates. (9) was is are has been None of the above


IDENTIFYING ERRORS 11. He is not sure if he should buy the new car now or wait until he receives his a b c d next bonus. None of the above e 12. The Medical experts did not conclude that the negative side affects of the drug a b offset the drug’s positive benefits. None of the above c d e 13. Despite rising voter drive, there are still many city-dwellers who are not registered to a b c d vote. None of the above e 14. Over the past few decades, the mining industry had grown into a multi-billion peso a b industry that employs tens of thousands of laborers. None of the above c d e 15. Most of his subjects agree that it is reasonable for the representative a b to not acquiesce to the demands of the transit authority. None of the above c d e 16. One cannot perform multiple tasks simultaneously if he is easily distracted by a b c one’s sorroundings. None of the above d e 17. As he held open the door for her, she could not ignore the look on his eyes, a look that a aggravated her self-consciousness as they proceeded along the alley. None of the above b c d e 18. Reading widely in her field, making her self available to students for consultation, and a b her sophisticated research paid off for Professor Lobo; she was awarded tenure c d last year. None of the above e


19. Debating the anti-contraceptive bill was the first order of business for the House; to set a b c the calendar for the upcoming session was to follow. None of the above d e 20. Youth, as the Egyptians and other early civilizations knew, are best spent a b c as a time of learning and of recreation. None of the above d e SENTENCE IMPROVEMENT 21. It is highly desirable that you furnish evidence of your expenses before you submit your ending accounts. a. It is highly desirable that you should furnish evidence of your expenses b. It is highly desirable that you furnish evidence of your expenses c. You must furnish evidence of your expenses d. It is highly to be desired that you furnish evidences of your expenses e. None of the above 22. The best way to promote innovative thinking is not to promise financial rewards for ideas, but to ensure that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his contribution. a. b. c. d. e.

but to ensure that the person who makes the suggestion will be receiving recognition for his contribution but to ensure that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his contribution but rather ensure that suggestion-maker receives recognition for his contribution but rather by ensuring that the person making the suggestion receives recognition for his contribution None of the above

23. Only two out of every 150,000 chemical compounds proves useful in the field of pharmaceuticals, thus many research scientists spend their entire careers to investigate drugs that will never receive FDA approval. a. b. c. d. e.

many research scientists spend their entire career in the investigation of drugs many research scientists spend their entire careers to investigate drugs many research scientists investigate drugs in their entire careers many a research scientist spends his or her entire career investigating drugs None of the above


24. Among the many reasons for his loss in the election was his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding economic conditions, and his unjustifiable attack on his main rival. a. b. c d. e.

were his arrogant assumption that his constituents would be incapable of understanding economics was his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding economic conditions were his arrogant assumptions that his constituents were incapable of understanding economical conditions were his arrogant assumption that his constituents were incapable of understanding economic conditions None of the above

25. The government requires that these forms should be submitted before the end of the fiscal year. a. b. c. d. e.

that these forms be submitted these forms submission that these forms should be submitted for these forms to be submitted None of the above

26. In the early stages of learning a new language we learn more through listening and attempting to copy speech patterns and not through reading grammar books. a. b. c. d. e.

and attempts to copy speech patterns than through reading grammar books and attempting to copy speech patterns and not through reading grammar books and attempts at copying speech patterns than through reading grammar books and attempting to copy speech patterns than through reading grammar books None of the above

27. In the fine print at the end of the paper lies the clauses that make us liable for any expenses that result from civil unrest. a. b. c. d. e.

lies the clause that make us liable for any expenses that lies the clauses that make us liable for any expenses that lies the clauses that make us liable for any expenses which lie the clauses that makes us liable for any expenses which None of the above

28. Rembrandt’s early work has often been interpreted as being in sharp contrast with his later work, despite there is an essential continuity between the two. a. b. c. d. e.

with is later work, but with his later work, despite the fact that with his later work, despite with is later work, notwithstanding None of the above


29. Trying to keep his balance on the icy surface, the last competitor's ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow. a. b. c. d. e.

the last competitor caught the pole with the tip of her ski, and somersaulted into the soft snow the last competitor's ski-tip caught the pole and somersaulted into the soft snow the last competitor caught the pole with her ski-tip, which made her somersault into the soft snow the ski-tip of the last competitor caught the pole and somersaulted in the soft snow None of the above

30. If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than the garden, he might come up with a better display of leaves. a. b. c. d. e.

If the gardener were to sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than in the garden If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than the garden If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse instead of the garden If the gardener would sow the seeds in the greenhouse rather than the garden None of the above


Grammatical Reasoning 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

More “barokness” test for you. Do not begin unless told to do so. You only need pens. For each question, encircle the letter of the best answer. You have 30 minutes for this one

SYNONYMS 1. vituperative comments a. slanderous b. profitable c. constructive d. criticism e. None of the above

6. occlude the path a. obstruct b. presume c. pursue d. discover e. None of the above

2. scan the gestalt a. appearance b. summary c. pretense d. modification e. None of the above

7. vitiate the reputation a. debase b. promote c. suspect d. foster e. None of the above

3. place a malediction on the evildoers a. blight b. decree c. warrant d. proclamation e. None of the above

8. concept of gemeinschaft a. apportionment b. individual c. community d. pleasure e. None of the above

4. recommending a nostrum a. adjournment b. remedy c. explanation d. stalemate e. None of the above

9. pith of her argument a. abyss b. bottom c. quintessence d. benevolence e. None of the above

5. contretemps in the plan a. antagonists b. derision c. hindrance d. enticement e. None of the above

10. lack of compunction a. remorse b. determination c. trepidation d. poise e. None of the above


ANTONYMS 11. opprobrious decision a. excoriating b. favorable c. reckless d. ignominous e. None of the above

16. rescind the contract a. annul b. appraise c. sanction d. interpret e. None of the above

12. avoid being profligate a. multiply b. languid c. parsimonious d. beget e. None of the above

17. factious leadership a. unified b. fabricated c. truthful d. subjective e. None of the above

13. inimitable qualities a. exclusive b. estimable c. vile d. conventional e. None of the above

18. a saturnine expression on her face a. dejected b. jovial c. closed d. disconcerted e. None of the above

14. inchoate actions a. undeveloped b. countless c. unacceptable d. complete e. None of the above

19. obdurate criminals a. confused b. repentant c. hardened d. acquiescent e. None of the above

15. prolix manuscript a. succinct b. abundant c. scarce d. occasional e. None of the above

20. specious accusations a. capacious b. spurious c. misleading d. valid e. None of the above


ANALOGY (SINGLE) 21. malinger : ail :: flatter : a. malice b. resentment c. appreciate d. humanity e. None of the above

26. disease : pathologist :: tenet : a. student b. theologian c. teacher d. university e. None of the above

22. quaff : sip :: stride : a. run b. mince c. walk d. leg e. None of the above

27. period : stop :: caret : a. abbreviate b. emphasize c. insert d. seperate e. None of the above

23. proselytize : convert : digress :: a. reveal b. disclose c. condone d. deviate e. None of the above 24. excerpt : novel :: swatch : a. paper b. cloth c. sample d. watch e. None of the above 25. tyrant : just :: fraud : a. deception b. scrupulous c. hoaxer d. pretense e. None of the above

28. sanctuary : refuge :: coffer : a. wood b. protection c. valuables d. safety e. None of the above 29. siren : lure :: sphinx : a. perplex b. astound c. anger d. annoy e. None of the above 30. anesthetic : numbness :: sedative : a. pain b. migraine c. drowsiness d. anxiety e. None of the above


ANALOGY (PAIRED) 31. perspicacious : insight :: a. rapacious : magnanimity b. warm : temperature c. wealth : scarcity d. churlish : enmity e. None of the above

36. limerick : poem :: a. monologue : chorus b. book : novel c. waltz : tango d. aria : song e. None of the above

32. rust : corrosion :: a. vapor : flammability b. dew : condensation c. solution : precipitation d. mold : disinfection e. None of the above

37. color : spectrum :: a. sound : waves b. dimension : space c. cell : organism d. tone : scale e. None of the above

33. paltry : significance :: a. opulent : wealth b. banal : originality c. obique : familiarity d. redundant : discussion e. None of the above

38. misanthrope : people :: a. xenophobe : strangers b. miscreant : dogma c. patriot : country d. rebel : government e. None of the above

34. cogent : convince :: a. irrational : disturb b. dangerous : avoid c. generous : appreciate d. repugnant : repel e. None of the above

39. prattle : speak :: a. lane : stroll b. promenade : walk c. amble : scurry d. orate : listen e. None of the above

35. disguise : recognition :: a. infidelity : matrimony b. prevarication : statement c. espionage : diplomacy d. padding : damage e. None of the above

40. stygian : dark :: a. furtuitous : accidental b. reckless : threatening c. cataclysmic : doomed d. abysmal : low e. None of the above


SENTENCE COMPLETION 41. Pyridine is a colorless _____ liquid with a sharp choking odor, and therefore requires to be _____ stored in tightly-stoppered glass bottles to prevent the fumes from escaping. a. viscous … occasionally b. corrosive … instantly c. volatile … prudently d. viscid … unwittingly e. None of the above 42. Business forecasts usually prove reasonably accurate when the assumption that the future will be much like the past is _____; in times of major _____ in the business environment, however, forecasts can be dangerously wrong. a. satisfied… shifts b. questioned… surges c. specified… discontinuities d. contradicted… improvements e. None of the above 43. The actual _____ of Louis’ position was always _____ by his refusal to compromise after having initially agreed to negotiate a resolution a. logic … enhanced b. uncertainty … alleviated c. rigidity … betrayed d. outcome … foreshadowed e. None of the above 44. Politeness is not a _____ attribute of human behavior, but rather a central virtue, one whose very existence is increasingly being _____ by the faddish requirement to “speak one’s mind”. a. precious… repudiated b. superficial … threatened c. trivial… affected d. pervasive … undercut e. None of the above 45. That many of the important laws of science were discovered during experiments designed to _____ other phenomena suggests that experimental results are the _____ of inevitable natural forces rather than of planning. a. alter… adjuncts b. illuminate.. consequences c. analyze … foundations d. disprove… predecessors e. None of the above


46. Early _____ of hearing loss is _____ by the fact that the other senses are able to compensate for moderate amounts of loss, so that people frequently do not know that their hearing is imperfect. a. detection … complicated b. discovery … indicated c. development … prevented d. treatment … facilitated. e. None of the above 47. Non-violent demonstrations often create such tensions that a community that has constantly refused to _____ its injustices is forced to correct them: the injustices can no longer be _____. a. address … eliminated b. explain … discussed c. acknowledge … ignored d. decrease … verified e. None of the above 48. The functions of the hands, eyes, and brain are so _____ that using the hands during early childhood helps the child’s entire _____ development. a. enigmatic… psychological b. regulated… adolescent c. intertwined… perceptual d. unalterable… intellectual e. None of the above 49. While it is assumed that the mechanization of work has had a _____ effect on the lives of workers, there is evidence available to suggest that, on the contrary, mechanization has served to _____ some of the traditional roles of women. a. revolutionary… reinforce b. benign… revise c. dramatic… undermine d. debilitating… weaken e. None of the above 50. Although he was very strict with the students in the classroom, his envious colleagues were under the impression that the students _____ him because of his _____. a. deplored … ingenuity b. derided… indolence c. extolled… insolence d. revered… leniency e. None of the above


PARAGRAPH COMPLETION In an ___(51)___, two hundred mice of a strain that is ___(52)___ free of leukemia were given equal doses of radiation. Half of the mice were then allowed to eat their usual foods without ___(53)___, while the other half were given adequate but limited amounts of the same foods. Of the first group, fifty-five ___(54)___ leukemia; of the second, only three. 51. a. b. c. d. e.

account experiment analysis attempt None of the above

53. a. b. c. d. e.

restraint condition trepidation hydration None of the above

52. a. b. c. d. e.

usually normally very conceptually None of the above

54. a. b. c. d. e.

acknowledged infected established developed None of the above

A ___(55)___ critic has to ___(56)___ the particular content, unique structure, and special meaning of a work of art. And here she faces a ___(57)___. The critic must recognize the artistic element of uniqueness that requires subjective reaction; yet she must not be unduly ___(58)___ by such reactions. Her likes and dislikes are less ___(59)___ than what the work itself communicates, and her preferences may ___(60)___ her of certain qualities of the work and thereby prevent an adequate understanding of it. 55. a. b. c. d. e.

serious critical novice laconic None of the above

58. a. b. c. d. e.

strained objectified admired prejudiced None of the above

56. a. b. c. d. e.

comprehend esteem question admire None of the above

59. a. b. c. d. e.

biased attuned dictated important None of the above

57. a. b. c. d. e.

dilemma retribution gratefulness realization None of the above

60. a. b. c. d. e.

blind prevent relieve aid None of the above

BREAK!!! Don’t go to the next part until told to do so.


Logical Reasoning 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A test of common sense. Do not begin unless told to do so. Only pens are allowed on top of the table. For each question, encircle the letter of the best answer. You have 55 minutes for this part of the exam.

PREMISES/ASSUMPTIONS 1. Given: 1 out of 5 children catches colds everyday. I am going to teach a class of 40 children today. Statement: I have eight children sick with colds today. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 2. Given: The Senator has admitted to having an illicit affair and lying to his wife about it. Although the affair ended a few years ago, and the Senator and his wife are now reconciled, this fact disqualifies him from seeking higher public office. How could world leaders be expected to negotiate with a President who has admitted lying to his spouse? Statement: A person who could be dishonest in a personal situation is likely to tell a lie in public. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 3. Given: The best mentors never tell their apprentices what to write. They just try instead to establish an environment that is conducive to thorough and creative research, because training an apprentice through indoctrination is never as effective as encouraging him to develop his skills independently. Truly impressive scholarly work can be produced only by a student who feels that he is breaking new ground, or at least treating familiar ground in a new and original manner. Statement: An apprentice cannot create impressive scholarly work if he has been encouraged to create his own ideas. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption.


4. Given: In the prior year, Pics yielded a relatively high income from exactly two sources: his real estate brokerage company and his mutual funds market investments. Although Pics earns far more from his business than from his fund investments, the money he earns from the funds market is an important part of his income. Because of series of drops in the funds market, Pics will not earn as much from his investments this year. It follows then that Pics will make substantially less money this year than he did in the prior year. Statement: Increased net profits from Pics’ real estate brokerage business will not offset any loss in funds market income. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 5. Given: I will graduate in September. Statement: I will still be alive in September. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 6. Given: I think some of our universities should be less rigid than they are and professors should not oppress their students in an undemocratic spirit as some of them do. Yet, it is essential for professors to make clear what they expect of students. This is like giving a vine a pole on which to grow. Statement: All teachers are undemocratic in class. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 7. Given: What is the most evil– envy, hatred or malice? Statement: It is wrong to hate anybody. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption.


8. Given: The province’s new ordinance limiting the types of garbage that can be disposed of in trash fires violates our right as citizens. The fact that local environmental damage results from the burning of certain inorganic materials is not the primary issue. The real concern is the government’s flagrant disregard for the right of the individual to establish what is acceptable on his or her own property. Statement: Personal rights on one’s own property supersede any right or responsibility the government may have to protect a community from harm. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 9. Given: “I’m all for women having equal rights,” said Boxing Association president Manny Pacquiao. “But I repeat, women shouldn’t box because a boxer is and should be a man.” Statement: Men are born to be boxers. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption. 10. Given: Suppose that Cyril tells me that he has had a tooth extracted without an anesthetic, and I express my sympathy, and suppose that I am then asked, “How do you know that not having anesthetic hurt me?” I might reasonably reply, “Well, I know that it would have hurt me. I have been to the dentist and know how painful it is to have a toothy filled let alone taken out, without an anesthetic.” Statement: The speaker and Cyril have the same sort of nervous system and that under these conditions, the speaker would have felt considerable pain, just as Cyril had. a. The statement is an assumption. b. The statement is not an assumption.


DRAWING CONCLUSIONS 11. If Joter comes to the party, Cyril leaves the party. If Cyril leaves the party, either Raf or Louis asks Jen to dance. If Jen is asked to dance by either Raf or Louis and Cyril leaves the party, Jen accepts. If Jen is asked to dance by either Raf or Louis and Cyril does not leave the party, Jen does not accept. If Cyril does not leave the party, a. Louis asks Jen to dance. b. Raf asks Jen to dance. c. Joter does not come to the party. d. Jen refuses to dance with either Raf or Louis. e. None of the above 12. Empathetic acts make this world a better place. Condoling with the bereaved is a empathetic act. a. Therefore, giving sympathy makes people happier. b. Therefore, in times of sorrow, there is happiness. c. Therefore, condoling with the bereaved makes this world a better place. d. Therefore, we should be happy and make this world a better place. e. None of the above 13. The keys to economic stability are low interest rates and a high number of investments. There cannot be a high number of investments without low interest rates. Therefore, a. If there are low interest rates, then there are investments. b. A high number of investments is adequate to guarantee low interest rates. c. Sluggish economies with low interest rates have few investments. d. Sluggish economies with high interest rates have few investments. e. None of the above 14. If taxes and customs are reduced then inflation will rise, but if the budget is balanced then unemployment will increase. If the president keeps his election promises, then either taxes and customs are reduced or budget is balanced. Therefore, a. If inflation rises, then the president should balance the budget. b. If unemployment increases and inflation rises, then the president will not keep his election promises. c. If the president keeps his election promises, then either inflation will rise or unemployment will increase. d. The president should not keep his election promises. e. None of the above


15. Antifreeze lowers the melting point of any liquid to which it is added so that the liquid will not freeze in very cold weather. It is commonly used to maintain the cooling system in car radiators. Of course, the weather may become so cold that even antifreeze is not effective, but such a severe climatic condition rarely occurs in welltraveled places. a. Severe climatic conditions rarely occur. b. Antifreeze raises the melting point of some liquids. c. Antifreeze does not lower the melting point of certain liquids in extreme conditions. d. It is not often that many travelers who use antifreeze have their cooling systems freeze. e. None of the above 16. If God were willing to prevent evil, but unable to do so, He would be impotent. If He were able to prevent evil, but unwilling to do so, He would be malevolent. Evil can exist only if God is either unwilling or unable to prevent it. There is evil. If God exists, He is neither impotent nor malevolent. Therefore, a. God is omnipotent. b. God does not exist. c. God is unwilling to prevent evil. d. God is all-powerful. e. None of the above 17. During the year, researchers have reported the following: - Heavy coffee consumption can increase the risk of heart attack. - Drinking a cup of coffee in the morning increases feelings of well being and alertness. - Boiled coffee increases blood cholesterol levels. - Coffee may protect against cancer of the colon. If all these statements are true, which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from this information? a. Reducing coffee consumption will make people healthier. b. Reducing coffee consumption will make people feel better. c. People at risk of heart attack should limit their coffee drinking. d. People at risk of cancer should reduce their coffee consumption. e. None of the above 18. Goats make milk out of grass. Farmers take care of the goats that produce milk. Cheese is made of milk and milk is made of grass. a. Therefore, cheese is made by farmers. b. Therefore, goats are made of grass. c. Therefore, cheese and milk are made of grass. d. Conclusion cannot be drawn. e. None of the above


19. A recent study of cigarette smokers has shown that 50 percent of cancer patients who are heavy smokers of unfiltered cigarettes will die of the disease. For cancer patients who are light smokers of filter cigarettes, the percentage is 20 percent. Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the information above? a. There are more heavy smokers of unfiltered cigarettes than light smokers of filter cigarettes. b. More heavy smokers of unfiltered cigarettes die of cancer than light smokers of filter cigarettes. c. A heavy smoker of unfiltered cigarettes who has cancer is more likely to die than a light smoker of unfiltered cigarettes. d. A heavy smoker of unfiltered cigarettes who has cancer is more likely to die of the disease than a light smoker of filtered cigarettes who has cancer. e. None of the above 20. If it will either snow tomorrow or not, then weather predicting is an exact science. It will snow tomorrow. Therefore, a. It will not snow tomorrow. b. Weather predicting is an exact science. c. Weather cannot be predicted exactly. d. If it snows today, it will not snow tomorrow. e. None of the above INTERPRETATION A museum is presenting a series of exhibits of five artists: A, B, C, D, and E. - Only B and C will be featured in the first exhibit. - E and three others will be featured in the second exhibit. - Only A will be featured in the third exhibit. - More people will perform in the fourth exhibit than in the fifth exhibit. 22. Which of the following must surely be true? a. A, D, and E will be featured in the fifth exhibit. b. A and D will be featured in the second exhibit. c. All five artists will be featured in the fourth exhibit. d. Four artists will appear in the fifth exhibit. e. None of the above


23. For which of the following pairs of artists is it true that if one appears in an exhibit, the other must also appear? a. E and B b. E and C c. E and D d. B and C e. None of the above A company employee generates a series of five-digit product codes in accordance with the following rules: - The codes use the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, and 4, and no others. - Each digit occurs exactly once in any code. - The second digit has a value exactly twice that of the first digit. - The value of the third digit is less than the value of the fifth digit. 24. If the last digit of an acceptable product code is 1, it must be true that the a. first digit is 2 b. second digit is 0 c. third digit is 3 d. fourth digit is 4 e. fourth digit is 0 25. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code? a. The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 2. b. The digit 1 appears in some position before the digit 3. c. The digit 2 appears in some position before the digit 3. d. The digit 3 appears in some position before the digit 0. e. The digit 4 appears in some position before the digit 3. 26. If the third digit of an acceptable product code is not 0, which one of the following must be true? a. The second digit of the product code is 2. b. The third digit of the product code is 3. c. The fourth digit of the product code is 0. d. The fifth digit of the product code is 3. e. The fifth digit of the product code is 1.


27. Any of the following pairs could be the third and fourth digits, respectively, of an acceptable product code, EXCEPT: a. 0, 1 b. 0, 3 c. 1, 0 d. 3, 0 e. 3, 4 28. Which one of the following must be true about any acceptable product code? a. There is exactly one digit between the digit 0 and the digit 1. b. There is exactly one digit between the digit 1 and the digit 2. c. There are at most two digits between the digit 1 and the digit 3. d. There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 3. e. There are at most two digits between the digit 2 and the digit 4. Exactly three films—Greed, Harvest, and Limelight—are shown during a film club’s festival held on Thursday, Friday, and Saturday. Each film is shown at least once during the festival but never more than once on a given day. On each day at least one film is shown. Films are shown one at a time. The following conditions apply: - On Thursday Harvest is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day. - On Friday either Greed or Limelight, but not both, is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day. - On Saturday either Greed or Harvest, but not both, is shown, and no film is shown after it on that day. 29. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate description of the order in which the films are shown at the festival? a. Thursday: Limelight, then Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Harvest b. Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Greed, then Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed c. Thursday: Harvest; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Limelight, then Greed d. Thursday: Greed, then Harvest, then Limelight; Friday: Limelight; Saturday: Greed e. Thursday: Greed, then Harvest; Friday: Limelight, then Harvest; Saturday: Harvest 30. Which one of the following CANNOT be true? a. Harvest is the last film shown on each day of the festival. b. Limelight is shown on each day of the festival. c. Greed is shown second on each day of the festival. d. A different film is shown first on each day of the festival. e. A different film is shown last on each day of the festival.


31. If Limelight is never shown again during the festival once Greed is shown, then which one of the following is the maximum number of film showings that could occur during the festival? a. three b. four c. five d. six e. seven 32. If Greed is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown exactly twice, and Limelight is shown exactly once, then which one of the following must be true? a. All three films are shown on Thursday. b. Exactly two films are shown on Saturday. c. Limelight and Harvest are both shown on Thursday. d. Greed is the only film shown on Saturday. e. Harvest and Greed are both shown on Friday. 33. If Limelight is shown exactly three times, Harvest is shown exactly twice, and Greed is shown exactly once, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of the films that could be the first film shown on Thursday? a. Harvest b. Limelight c. Greed, Harvest d. Greed, Limelight e. Greed, Harvest, Limelight INFERENCES 34. Premises: Rochelle prefers Feature Writing to Editorial Writing. She likes Feature Writing, however, less than she likes Photography. She actually finds Photography preferable to any other college course, and she dislikes Physical Education more than she dislikes Differential Calculus. Statement: Rochelle likes Feature Writing better than she likes Differential Calculus. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises.


35. Premises: Lawyers are always free to consult law books. Physicians often look up cases in medical texts. Everyone should be allowed a similar freedom or reference. Statement: Therefore, students should be permitted to use their textbooks during examinations. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. 36. Premises: Nothing is perfect. Everything is imperfect. Statement: If nothing is not something, then given any individual thing whatever, it is not perfect. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. 37. Premises: There are at least three spies at a diplomatic reception. At least one spy knows the true identity of every other spy at the reception. At most, two spies know each other’s true identities. Statement: If a spy knows the true identity of another spy, that second spy in turn knows the true identity of the first. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. 38. Premises: If the Board approves the new proposal, the office will move to a new location immediately. If the office moves, five new supervisors will be appointed immediately. The Board approved the new proposal. Statement: No new supervisors were appointed. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises.


39. Premises: In Marshall and Joter’s class, everyone likes Constitutional Law or Persons or both. But Ces does not like Science. Statement: Anyone in class who does not like Persons likes Constitutional Law. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. 40. Premises: If the victim had money in his pockets, then robbery wasn’t the motive for the crime. But either robber or vengeance was the motive for the crime. The victim has money in his pockets. Statement: Therefore, vengeance must have been the motive for the crime. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. 41. Premises: Jen is dining at a Japanese restaurant. She will order either combination platter #5 or combination platter #8, but not both. If she orders combination platter #5, she will eat tekka maki. If she orders combination platter #8, she will eat ebi sushi. Statement: Jenny will eat either tekka maki or ebi sushi, but not both. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. 42. Premises: All women who have friends are happy. All women either have friends or are happy. Statement: Some women who have friends are not happy. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises.


43. Premises: A few mascots are sad. All mascots are always funny. Adults cannot be sad and funny at the same time. Statement: No sad mascots are adult. a. The statement follows the given premises. b. The statement does not follow the given premises. ARGUMENTS 44. An airline representative announced the introduction of a new pricing system that uses sophisticated computer technology. Based on up-to-the-minute information on sales, the system identifies and continually updates peak times of high demand and off-peak times of low demand, keeping prices high when demand is high and lowering prices to attract customers when demand is low. As a result, the airline anticipates that a large number of customers will choose to travel off-peak in order to experience savings, while those who wish to travel at peak times will enjoy greater availability due to higher prices. The airline therefore anticipates that the majority of customers will experience significant benefits as a result of the new system. Which one of the following indicates an error in the reasoning on the part of the airline? a. The airline displays naïve trust in the possibilities of technology. b. The airline’s conclusion rests on a result that would necessarily cancel out the anticipated benefit. c. The airline fails to factor in the cost of implementing the new system. d. The airline fails to establish the percentage of customers who would benefit from the change. e. None of the above


45. Ethicist: On average, animals raised on grain must be fed sixteen pounds of grain to produce one pound of meat. A pound of meat is more nutritious for humans than a pound of grain, but sixteen pounds of grain could feed many more people than could a pound of meat. With grain yields leveling off, large areas of farmland going out of production each year, and the population rapidly expanding, we must accept the fact that consumption of meat will soon be morally unacceptable. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the ethicist’s argument? a. Even though it has been established that a vegetarian diet can be healthy, many people prefer to eat meat and are willing to pay for it. b. Often, cattle or sheep can be raised to maturity on grass from pastureland that is unsuitable for any other kind of farming. c. If a grain diet is supplemented with protein derived from non-animal sources, it can have nutritional value equivalent to that of a diet containing meat. d. Although prime farmland near metropolitan areas is being lost rapidly to suburban development, we could reverse this trend by choosing to live in areas that are already urban. e. Nutritionists agree that a diet composed solely of grain products is not adequate for human health. 46. Self-confidence is a big factor in success. The person who thinks he can, will master most of the things he attempts. The person who thinks he can’t, may not try. The author of these statements would agree that: a. No task is too large. b. Success relies on effort. c. Trying is half the battle. d. Self-confidence is of most importance. e. None of the above 47. Yuka said, “All children I have met are friendly. Therefore, all children are friendly.” Which one of the following most closely parallels the logic of the above statement? a. I have eaten spinach three times and I got sick each time. Therefore, if I eat spinach again, I will get sick. b. Every professor I had in college was mean. Therefore, all professors are mean. c. All mansions are big. This house is small. Therefore, it is not a mansion. d. My height has increased each year for the past two years. Therefore, I will grow taller this year. e. None of the above


48. No one cheats on all the exams he takes. Some people cheat on most of the exams they take. Most cheat on some of the exams they take. Everyone has cheated on at least one exam he has taken. Cheating is wrong. Which one of the following is inconsistent with the preceding facts? a. There are more people who cheat on all their exams than those who never cheat at all. b. There are more people who cheat on some of their exams than those who cheat on most of their exams. c. The punishment of expulsion does not discourage people from cheating. d. Marie has never been caught cheating. e. None of the above 49. There is something irrational about our system of laws. Criminal law punishes a person more severely for having successfully committed a crime than it does a person who fails in an attempt to commit the same crime – even though the same evil intention is presented in both cases. But under civil law a person who attempts to defraud a potential victim but is unsuccessful is not required to pay damages. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument? a. There are more criminal laws on the books than there are civil laws on the books. b. The goal of criminal law is to punish the criminal, but the goal of civil law is to compensate the victim. c. Most persons who are imprisoned for crimes will commit another crime if they are ever released from prison. d. A person is morally culpable for evil thoughts as well as for evil deed. e. None of the above 50. Which of the following, if true, offers the strongest support of Mr. Doug’s statement? a. All the members of the hiring committee have agreed that intelligence, trustworthiness, determination, and forcefulness are important qualifications for the job. b. Mr. Doug holds exclusive responsibility for hiring new employees. c. Mr. Doug has known Ms. Wilson longer than he has known any of the other applicants. d. Ms. Tracey is a member of Mr. Dimple’s family. e. None of the above


51. Choose the most sound argument from each of the following sets of statements below. a. Knowledge is power and the use of power in a community should always be controlled and regulated. Therefore, knowledge belongs to that special ethical category of things which require special treatment and should be controlled with special rigor, and various sorts of knowledge should simply be just “off limits” altogether. b. It is never appropriate to restrict or regulate knowledge or information. For this is something sacred and sacrosanct. Like life or liberty, it is the subject of a fundamental and indefeasible right. c. Knowledge is not a special case of some sort. It is simply one good among others---which is subject to the same general sorts of socially motivated constrains to which we subject other goods and goals. d. Certain sorts of inquiries result in products whose use for evil purposes is so readily possible and so likely that it is best not to embark in this direction at all. Whatever benefit for knowledge might result in the way of abstract understanding is overshadowed by the predictable prospect of reprehensible applications. e. None of the above Mr. Doug: Ms. Tracey’s qualifications are ideal for the position. She is intelligent, forceful, determined and trustworthy. I suggest we hire her immediately. 52. You can use a bottle opener to open the new beer bottles. You do not need to use a bottle opener to open the new beer bottles. Which of the following most closely parallels the logic of these statements? a. I can move the sofa with my sister’s help. If my sister is not available, I’ll get a friend to help me. b. If you do not study you will fail the test. If you do study, you may fail the test. c. You must turn on the switch to light the lamp. If you turn on the switch, the lamp may not light. d. Every candidate I voted for in the election lost his race. I must learn to vote better. e. None of the above 53. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken Mr. Doug statement? a. Ms. Tracey is not interested in being hired. b. There are two other applicants whose qualifications are identical to Ms. Tracey’s. c. Ms. Tracey is currently working for a rival company. d. Mr. Doug is not speaking directly to the hiring committee. e. None of the above


Paul, a chemist, rides the train to work every day. On this day, he brought with him a package of several unstable chemicals contained in separate vials, which he double-checked to ensure they were tightly sealed to prevent contamination. The security guard checking the contents of passenger belongings allowed Paul into the train platform with his package without thoroughly asking him as to the nature of the package’s contents. The management of this local metro rail transit, meanwhile, had conspicuously posted warnings at strategic places of the terminal, prohibiting any passenger from bringing explosives or any other inflammable materials into the station. Should they have any, they should submit these to the train’s personnel so they could be kept in a safe place aboard the train and be given back at the passenger’s exit point. As everyone else went of to work, the platform was packed with passengers waiting for the train. When it finally arrived, people began pushing noisily at each other to get inside the oncoming train. Paul, with the package in his hands, got jostled about. When the train stopped and its doors opened, a guy pushed Paul forcefully from behind to get in, causing Paul to drop the package. There was a loud explosion as the chemicals mixed with each other and pandemonium broke loose. A woman who was carrying an antique vase, surprised by the loud bang, dropped her age-old possession. Shards of the glass vial, which scattered upon the explosion, entered the eyes of a man who stood near Paul so that the man needed medical attention. 54. Not knowing the results of his action, the guy should not be made to answer for any liability. a. The proposition is legally sound and may have basis in law. b. The proposition has no basis in law. 55. The management of the train station has a valid case against Paul for damages resulting from the explosion of the package he brought with him which he failed to surrender to train personnel as required given the unstable, unpredictable nature of the chemicals. a. The proposition is legally sound and may have basis in law. b. The proposition has no basis in law. 56. The woman cannot petition for relief in the value of the antique vase she lost against Roger. a. The proposition is legally sound and may have basis in law. b. The proposition has no basis in law. 57. If all complaints were filed against the management, they can refuse to pay for damages and counsel all claimants to seek relief from the security guard. a. The proposition is legally sound and may have basis in law. b. The proposition has no basis in law. 58. Paul should have no liability at all. a. The proposition is legally sound and may have basis in law. b. The proposition has no basis in law.

Do not go to the next page until told to do so. Review your answers before proceeding to the next test.


Reading Comprehension 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

A tip: Read everything before answering anything, Do not begin unless told to do so. Only pens are allowed on top of the table. For each question, encircle the letter of the best answer. You have 40 minutes for this part of the exam.

Passage 1

(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

(30)

For decades, there has been a deep rift between poetry academic settings; graduate writing programs in universities, for example, train students as poets or as writers and fiction in the United States, especially in of fiction, but almost never as both. Both poets and writers of fiction have tended to support this separation, in large part because the current conventional wisdom holds that poetry should be elliptical and lyrical, reflecting inner states and processes of thought or feeling, whereas character and narrative events are the stock-in-trade of fiction. Certainly it is true that poetry and fiction are distinct genres, but why have specialized education and literary territoriality resulted from this distinction? The answer lies perhaps in a widespread attitude in U.S. culture, which often casts a suspicious eye on the generalist. Those with knowledge and expertise in multiple areas risk charges of dilettantism, as if ability in one field is diluted or compromised by accomplishment in another. Fortunately, there are signs that the bias against writers who cross generic boundaries is diminishing; several recent writers are known and respected for their work in both genres. One important example of this trend is Rita Dove, an African American writer highly acclaimed for both her poetry and her fiction. A few years ago, speaking at a conference entitled “Poets Who Write Fiction,” Dove expressed gentle incredulity about the habit of segregating the genres. She had grown up reading and loving both fiction and poetry, she said, unaware of any purported danger lurking in attempts to mix the two. She also studied for some time in Germany, where, she observes, “Poets write plays, novelists compose libretti, playwrights


(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

(55)

write novels—they would not understand our restrictiveness.” It makes little sense, Dove believes, to persist in the restrictive approach to poetry and fiction prevalent in the U.S., because each genre shares in the nature of the other. Indeed, her poetry offers example after example of what can only be properly regarded as lyric narrative. Her use of language in these poems is undeniably lyrical—that is, it evokes emotion and inner states without requiring the reader to organize ideas or events in a particular linear structure. Yet this lyric expression simultaneously presents the elements of a plot in such a way that the reader is led repeatedly to take account of clusters of narrative details within the lyric flow. Thus while the language is lyrical, it often comes to constitute, cumulatively, a work of narrative fiction. Similarly, many passages in her fiction, though undeniably prose, achieve the status of lyric narrative through the use of poetic rhythms and elliptical expression. In short, Dove bridges the gap between poetry and fiction not only by writing in both genres, but also by fusing the two genres within individual works.

1. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? a. Rita Dove’s work has been widely acclaimed primarily because of the lyrical elements she has introduced into her fiction. b. Rita Dove’s lyric narratives present clusters of narrative detail in order to create a cumulative narrative without requiring the reader to interpret it in a linear manner. c. Working against a bias that has long been dominant in the U.S., recent writers like Rita Dove have shown that the lyrical use of language can effectively enhance narrative fiction. d. Unlike many of her U.S. contemporaries, Rita Dove writes without relying on the traditional techniques associated with poetry and fiction. e. Rita Dove’s successful blending of poetry and fiction exemplifies the recent trend away from the rigid separation of the two genres that has long been prevalent in the U.S.


2. Which one of the following is most analogous to the literary achievements that the author attributes to Dove? a. A chef combines nontraditional cooking methods and traditional ingredients from disparate world cuisines to devise new recipes. b. A professor of film studies becomes a film director and succeeds, partly due to a wealth of theoretical knowledge of filmmaking. c. An actor who is also a theatrical director teams up with a public health agency to use street theater to inform the public about health matters. d. A choreographer defies convention and choreographs dances that combine elements of both ballet and jazz dance. e. A rock musician records several songs from previous decades but introduces extended guitar solos into each one. 3. According to the passage, in the U.S. there is a widely held view that a. poetry should not involve characters or narratives b. unlike the writing of poetry, the writing of fiction is rarely an academically serious endeavor c. graduate writing programs focus on poetry to the exclusion of fiction d. fiction is most aesthetically effective when it incorporates lyrical elements e. European literary cultures are suspicious of generalists 4. The author’s attitude toward the deep rift between poetry and fiction in the U.S. can be most accurately described as one of a. perplexity as to what could have led to the development of such a rift b. astonishment that academics have overlooked the existence of the rift c. ambivalence toward the effect the rift has had on U.S. literature d. pessimism regarding the possibility that the rift can be overcome e. disapproval of attitudes and presuppositions underlying the rift 5. In the passage the author conjectures that a cause of the deep rift between fiction and poetry in the United States may be that a. poets and fiction writers each tend to see their craft as superior to the others’ craft b. the methods used in training graduate students in poetry are different from those used in training graduate students in other literary fields c. publishers often pressure writers to concentrate on what they do best d. a suspicion of generalism deters writers from dividing their energies between the two genres e. fiction is more widely read and respected than poetry


6. In the context of the passage, the author’s primary purpose in mentioning Dove’s experience in Germany (lines 32–36) is to a. suggest that the habit of treating poetry and fiction as nonoverlapping domains is characteristic of English-speaking societies but not others b. point to an experience that reinforced Dove’s conviction that poetry and fiction should not be rigidly separated c. indicate that Dove’s strengths as a writer derive in large part from the international character of her academic background d. present an illuminating biographical detail about Dove in an effort to enhance the human interest appeal of the passage e. indicate what Dove believes to be the origin of her opposition to the separation of fiction and poetry in the U.S. 7. It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to believe which one of the following? a. Each of Dove’s works can be classified as either primarily poetry or primarily fiction, even though it may contain elements of both. b. The aesthetic value of lyric narrative resides in its representation of a sequence of events, rather than in its ability to evoke inner states. c. The way in which Dove blends genres in her writing is without precedent in U.S. writing. d. Narrative that uses lyrical language is generally aesthetically superior to pure lyric poetry. e. Writers who successfully cross the generic boundary between poetry and fiction often try their hand at genres such as drama as well. 8. If this passage had been excerpted from a longer text, which one of the following predictions about the near future of U.S. literature would be most likely to appear in that text? a. The number of writers who write both poetry and fiction will probably continue to grow. b. Because of the increased interest in mixed genres, the small market for pure lyric poetry will likely shrink even further. c. Narrative poetry will probably come to be regarded as a sub-genre of fiction. d. There will probably be a rise in specialization among writers in university writing programs. e. Writers who continue to work exclusively in poetry or fiction will likely lose their audiences.


Passage 2 The two passages discuss recent scientific research on music. They are adapted from two different papers presented at a scholarly conference.

Passage A

(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

Did music and human language originate separately or together? Both systems use intonation and rhythm to communicate emotions. Both can be produced vocally or with tools, and people can produce both music and language silently to themselves. Brain imaging studies suggest that music and language are part of one large, vastly complicated, neurological system for processing sound. In fact, fewer differences than similarities exist between the neurological processing of the two. One could think of the two activities as different radio programs that can be broadcast over the same hardware. One noteworthy difference, though, is that, generally speaking, people are better at language than music. In music, anyone can listen easily enough, but most people do not perform well, and in many cultures composition is left to specialists. In language, by contrast, nearly everyone actively performs and composes. Given their shared neurological basis, it appears that music and language evolved together as brain size increased over the course of hominid evolution. But the primacy of language over music that we can observe today suggests that language, not music, was the primary function natural selection operated on. Music, it would seem, had little adaptive value of its own, and most likely developed on the coattails of language.


Passage B

(30)

(35)

(40)

(45)

(50)

(55)

(60)

Darwin claimed that since “neither the enjoyment nor the capacity of producing musical notes are faculties of the least [practical] use to man…they must be ranked amongst the most mysterious with which he is endowed.” I suggest that the enjoyment of and the capacity to produce musical notes are faculties of indispensable use to mothers and their infants and that it is in the emotional bonds created by the interaction of mother and child that we can discover the evolutionary origins of human music. Even excluding lullabies, which parents sing to infants, human mothers and infants under six months of age engage in ritualized, sequential behaviors, involving vocal, facial, and bodily interactions. Using face-to-face mother-infant interactions filmed at 24 frames per second, researchers have shown that mothers and infants jointly construct mutually improvised interactions in which each partner tracks the actions of the other. Such episodes last from one-half second to three seconds and are composed of musical elements—variations in pitch, rhythm, timbre, volume, and tempo. What evolutionary advantage would such behavior have? In the course of hominid evolution, brain size increased rapidly. Contemporaneously, the increase in bipedality caused the birth canal to narrow. This resulted in hominid infants being born ever-more prematurely, leaving them much more helpless at birth. This helplessness necessitated longer, better maternal care. Under such conditions, the emotional bonds created in the premusical mother-infant interactions we observe in Homo sapiens today—behavior whose neurological basis essentially constitutes the capacity to make and enjoy music—would have conferred considerable evolutionary advantage.

9. Both passages were written primarily in order to answer which one of the following questions? a. What evolutionary advantage did larger brain size confer on early hominids? b. Why do human mothers and infants engage in bonding behavior that is composed of musical elements? c. What are the evolutionary origins of the human ability to make music? d. Do the human abilities to make music and to use language depend on the same neurological systems? e. Why are most people more adept at using language than they are at making music?


10. Each of the two passages mentions the relation of music to a. bonding between humans b. human emotion c. neurological research d. the increasing helplessness of hominid infants e. the use of tools to produce sounds 11. It can be inferred that the authors of the two passages would be most likely to disagree over whether a. the increase in hominid brain size necessitated earlier births b. fewer differences than similarities exist between the neurological processing of music and human language c. brain size increased rapidly over the course of human evolution d. the capacity to produce music has great adaptive value to humans e. mother-infant bonding involves temporally patterned vocal interactions 12. The authors would be most likely to agree on the answer to which one of the following questions regarding musical capacity in humans? a. Does it manifest itself in some form in early infancy? b. Does it affect the strength of mother-infant bonds? c. Is it at least partly a result of evolutionary increases in brain size? d. Did its evolution spur the development of new neurological systems? e. Why does it vary so greatly among different individuals? 13. Which one of the following principles underlies the arguments in both passages? a. Investigations of the evolutionary origins of human behaviors must take into account the behavior of nonhuman animals. b. All human capacities can be explained in terms of the evolutionary advantages they offer. c. The fact that a single neurological system underlies two different capacities is evidence that those capacities evolved concurrently. d. The discovery of the neurological basis of a human behavior constitutes the discovery of the essence of that behavior. e. The behavior of modern-day humans can provide legitimate evidence concerning the evolutionary origins of human abilities. 14. Which one of the following most accurately characterizes a relationship between the two passages? a. Passage A and passage B use different evidence to draw divergent conclusions. b. Passage A poses the question that passage B attempts to answer. c. Passage A proposes a hypothesis that passage B attempts to substantiate with new evidence. d. Passage A expresses a stronger commitment to its hypothesis than does passage B. e. Passage A and passage B use different evidence to support the same conclusion.


Passage 3

(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

The World Wide Web, a network of electronically produced and interconnected (or “linked”) sites, called pages, that are accessible via personal computer, raises legal issues about the rights of owners of intellectual property, notably those who create documents for inclusion on Web pages. Some of these owners of intellectual property claim that unless copyright law is strengthened, intellectual property on the Web will not be protected from copyright infringement. Web users, however, claim that if their ability to access information on Web pages is reduced, the Web cannot live up to its potential as an open, interactive medium of communication. The debate arises from the Web’s ability to link one document to another. Links between sites are analogous to the inclusion in a printed text of references to other works, but with one difference: the cited document is instantly retrievable by a user who activates the link. This immediate accessibility creates a problem, since current copyright laws give owners of intellectual property the right to sue a distributor of unauthorized copies of their material even if that distributor did not personally make the copies. If person A, the author of a document, puts the document on a Web page, and person B, the creator of another Web page, creates a link to A’s document, is B committing copyright infringement? To answer this question, it must first be determined who controls distribution of a document on the Web. When A places a document on a Web page, this is comparable to recording an outgoing message on one’s telephone answering machine for others to hear. When B creates a link to A’s document, this is akin to B’s giving out A’s telephone number, thereby allowing third parties to hear the outgoing message for themselves. Anyone who calls can listen to the message; that is its purpose. While B’s link may indeed facilitate access to A’s document, the crucial point is that A, simply by placing that document on the Web, is thereby offering it for distribution. Therefore, even if B leads others to the document, it is A who actually controls access to it. Hence creating a link to a document is not the same as making or distributing a copy of that document. Moreover, techniques are


(45)

(50)

(55)

already available by which A can restrict access to a document. For example, A may require a password to gain entry to A’s Web page, just as a telephone owner can request an unlisted number and disclose it only to selected parties. Such a solution would compromise the openness of the Web somewhat, but not as much as the threat of copyright infringement litigation. Changing copyright law to benefit owners of intellectual property is thus ill-advised because it would impede the development of the Web as a public forum dedicated to the free exchange of ideas.

15. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? a. Since distribution of a document placed on a Web page is controlled by the author of that page rather than by the person who creates a link to the page, creating such a link should not be considered copyright infringement. b. Changes in copyright law in response to the development of Web pages and links are ill-advised unless such changes amplify rather than restrict the free exchange of ideas necessary in a democracy. c. People who are concerned about the access others may have to the Web documents they create can easily prevent such access without inhibiting the rights of others to exchange ideas freely. d. Problems concerning intellectual property rights created by new forms of electronic media are not insuperably difficult to resolve if one applies basic commonsense principles to these problems. e. Maintaining a free exchange of ideas on the Web offers benefits that far outweigh those that might be gained by a small number of individuals if a radical alteration of copyright laws aimed at restricting the Web’s growth were allowed. 16. Which one of the following is closest in meaning to the term “strengthened” as that term is used in line 8 of the passage? a. made more restrictive b. made uniform worldwide c. made to impose harsher penalties d. dutifully enforced e. more fully recognized as legitimate 17. With which one of the following claims about documents placed on Web pages would the author be most likely to agree? a. Such documents cannot receive adequate protection unless current copyright laws are strengthened. b. Such documents cannot be protected from unauthorized distribution without significantly diminishing the potential of the Web to be a widely used form of communication. c. The nearly instantaneous access afforded by the Web makes it impossible in practice to limit access to such documents. d. Such documents can be protected from copyright infringement with the least damage to the public interest only by altering existing legal codes. e. Such documents cannot fully contribute to the Web’s free exchange of ideas unless their authors allow them to be freely accessed by those who wish to do so.


18. Based on the passage, the relationship between strengthening current copyright laws and relying on passwords to restrict access to a Web document is most analogous to the relationship between a. allowing everyone use of a public facility and restricting its use to members of the community b. outlawing the use of a drug and outlawing its sale c. prohibiting a sport and relying on participants to employ proper safety gear d. passing a new law and enforcing that law e. allowing unrestricted entry to a building and restricting entry to those who have been issued a badge 19. The passage most strongly implies which one of the following? a. There are no creators of links to Web pages who are also owners of intellectual property on Web pages. b. The person who controls access to a Web page document should be considered the distributor of that document. c. Rights of privacy should not be extended to owners of intellectual property placed on the Web. d. Those who create links to Web pages have primary control over who reads the documents on those pages. e. A document on a Web page must be converted to a physical document via printing before copyright infringement takes place. 20. According to the passage, which one of the following features of outgoing messages left on telephone answering machines is most relevant to the debate concerning copyright infringement? a. Such messages are carried by an electronic medium of communication. b. Such messages are not legally protected against unauthorized distribution. c. Transmission of such messages is virtually instantaneous. d. People do not usually care whether or not others might record such messages. e. Such messages have purposely been made available to anyone who calls that telephone number. 21. The author’s discussion of telephone answering machines serves primarily to a. compare and contrast the legal problems created by two different sorts of electronic media b. provide an analogy to illustrate the positions taken by each of the two sides in the copyright debate c. show that the legal problems produced by new communication technology are not themselves new d. illustrate the basic principle the author believes should help determine the outcome of the copyright debate e. show that telephone use also raises concerns about copyright infringement 22. According to the passage, present copyright laws a. allow completely unrestricted use of any document placed by its author on a Web page b. allow those who establish links to a document on a Web page to control its distribution to others c. prohibit anyone but the author of a document from making a profit from the document’s distribution d. allow the author of a document to sue anyone who distributes the document without permission e. should be altered to allow more complete freedom in the exchange of ideas


Passage 4

(5)

(10)

(15)

(20)

(25)

(30)

(35)

(40)

In tracing the changing face of the Irish landscape, scholars have traditionally relied primarily on evidence from historical documents. However, such documentary sources provide a fragmentary record at best. Reliable accounts are very scarce for many parts of Ireland prior to the seventeenth century, and many of the relevant documents from the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries focus selectively on matters relating to military or commercial interests. Studies of fossilized pollen grains preserved in peats and lake muds provide an additional means of investigating vegetative landscape change. Details of changes in vegetation resulting from both human activities and natural events are reflected in the kinds and quantities of minute pollen grains that become trapped in sediments. Analysis of samples can identify which kinds of plants produced the preserved pollen grains and when they were deposited, and in many cases the findings can serve to supplement or correct the documentary record. For example, analyses of samples from Long Lough in County Down have revealed significant patterns of cereal-grain pollen beginning by about 400 A.D. The substantial clay content of the soil in this part of Down makes cultivation by primitive tools difficult. Historians thought that such soils were not tilled to any significant extent until the introduction of the moldboard plough to Ireland in the seventh century A.D. Because cereal cultivation would have required tilling of the soil, the pollen evidence indicates that these soils must indeed have been successfully tilled before the introduction of the new plough. Another example concerns flax cultivation in County Down, one of the great linen-producing areas of Ireland during the eighteenth century. Some aspects of linen production in Down are well documented, but the documentary record tells little about the cultivation of flax, the plant from which linen is made, in that area. The record of eighteenth-century linen production in Down, together with the knowledge that flax cultivation had been established in Ireland centuries before that time, led some historians to surmise that this plant was being cultivated in Down before the eighteenth century. But pollen analyses


(45)

(50)

(55)

indicate that this is not the case; flax pollen was found only in deposits laid down since the eighteenth century. It must be stressed, though, that there are limits to the ability of the pollen record to reflect the vegetative history of the landscape. For example, pollen analyses cannot identify the species, but only the genus or family, of some plants. Among these is madder, a cultivated dye plant of historical importance in Ireland. Madder belongs to a plant family that also comprises various native weeds, including goosegrass. If madder pollen were present in a deposit it would be indistinguishable from that of uncultivated native species.

23. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage? a. Analysis of fossilized pollen is a useful means of supplementing and in some cases correcting other sources of information regarding changes in the Irish landscape. b. Analyses of historical documents, together with pollen evidence, have led to the revision of some previously accepted hypotheses regarding changes in the Irish landscape. c. Analysis of fossilized pollen has proven to be a valuable tool in the identification of ancient plant species. d. Analysis of fossilized pollen has provided new evidence that the cultivation of such crops as cereal grains, flax, and madder had a significant impact on the landscape of Ireland. e. While pollen evidence can sometimes supplement other sources of historical information, its applicability is severely limited, since it cannot be used to identify plant species. 24. The passage indicates that pollen analyses have provided evidence against which one of the following views? a. The moldboard plough was introduced into Ireland in the seventh century. b. In certain parts of County Down, cereal grains were not cultivated to any significant extent before the seventh century. c. In certain parts of Ireland, cereal grains have been cultivated continuously since the introduction of the moldboard plough. d. Cereal grain cultivation requires successful tilling of the soil. e. Cereal grain cultivation began in County Down around 400 A.D. 25. The phrase “documentary record” (lines 20 and 37) primarily refers to a. documented results of analyses of fossilized pollen b. the kinds and quantities of fossilized pollen grains preserved in peats and lake muds c. written and pictorial descriptions by current historians of the events and landscapes of past centuries d. government and commercial records, maps, and similar documents produced in the past that recorded conditions and events of that time e. articles, books, and other documents by current historians listing and analyzing all the available evidence regarding a particular historical period

UP+LAE+Review+09+Final+Diagnostic+Exam+Sans+Abstract

Recommend Documents