REVIEWER CWE 2
a. Shade (color) translucency qualities
1. This is done when obtaining the respiratory rate of the patient a. The patient is asked to exhale several times
of the ofof the oof Of the esthetic veneer would be unacceptable b. The ceramic veneer
b. The patient is confirmed that the
would fracture as a
respiratory rate is being measured and
result of insufficient
asked to breathe normally.
porcelain bulk
c. The patent is not informed that the
c. The ceramic veneer
respiratory rate is being measured to
would fracture as a
avoid false results.
result of the
d. The stethoscope is used to get the
insufficient support
repertory rate.
from underlying metal
2. One way to localizing an impacted 23 is to
d. Any of the above are
perform two radiographic exposures. To the first exposure, periapical bitewing or panoramic techniques may be done. The second exposure is an occlusal projection. What is this technique? a. Tube- shift method b. Clark’s technique c. Sandwich technique d. Right angle technique 3. A proper treatment sequence would include the following to what order? 1 – complete diagnosis and treatment plan
correct. 5. In a completed monoplane denture arrangement, a. Maxillary anterior teeth may exhibit a small degree of vertical overlap in relation to the mandibular anterior teeth when an orthognathic orthognathic ridge relationship exists. b. The degree of
2 – control of pain
horizontal overlap of
3 – prophylaxis and home care instructions instructions
maxiallary posterior teeth to mandibular
4 – temporization of deep carious lesion lesi on 5 – restorations placed
teeth must be small regardless of ridge relationship
a. 1,2,3,4,5
c. Central fossae areas of
b. 2.4,1,3,5
maxillary molars are
c. 3,2,1,4,5
always aligned over
d. 2,3,4,1,5
the mandibular crest
4. Under- reduction of the labial/buccal wall of
of the ridge line
a porcelain-fused-metal preparation would result in an inferior retainer because
d. Inadequate buccal overlap of maxillary posterior teeth in
relation to mandibular
b. Tooth 16
posterior teeth may
c. Tooth 26
result to cheek biting
d. Tooth 37
6. A high survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp until on
10. In a radiograph, the alveolar bone proper is represented by:
the gingival 1/3 of the abutment tooth
a. Periodontal space
indicated that
b. Lamina dura a. The angle of cervical
c. Lamina cribiformis
convergence is small b. The angle of cervical
d. Periodontal ligaments 11. A class 2 MO in a maxillary first molar is
convergence is small
prepared for amalgam. The rubber dam is in
c. The abutment tooth
place. During the preparation, a mechanical
be reconstructed
exposure occurs. The best procedure is to
d. Clasp design of choice
a. Cauterize the exposure
is bar clasp
with silver nitrate
7. Prior to obturation, gutta percha is
b. Treat the exposure
immersed in ____ for disinfection
with formocresol
a. 2% sodium
c. Extirpate the pulp
hypochlorite for 15
d. Place calcium
minutes b. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite for 30
hydroxide 12. Tooth 1_ ready for obturation when, EXCEPT
seconds
a. Tooth is asymptomatic
c. 10% sodium
b. Pericapical
hypochlorite for 5
radiolucency has
seconds
disappeared
d. 5.25% sodium
c. Absence of sinus tract
hypochlorite for 1 minute 8. Why advise the patient “DO NOT DISTURB
d. Canal is reasonably dry 13. Insufficient freeway space is most likely to cause a. Shortening of the face
THE WOUND”?
a. Might induce bleeding
b. Ridge resorption
b. Might cause infection
c. Elongated face
c. May stimulate
d. Poor esthetic
salivation d. May dislodge suture 9. If the patient has cellulitis on the upper portion of the cheek of the right side of the
14. The following are true regarding minor connector design, except, a. Must be rigid b. Must engage an
face secondary to acute dentoalveolar
undercut low on the
abscess which of the following teeth with
tooth
extensive caries is the probable cause? a. Tooth 46
c. Present minimal interface to the tongue
d. Should cover the
c. Left side and viewed
minimum of gingival
looking from the
tissue possible.
lingual aspect of the
15. A teenager has been referred for diagnosis
teeth
of _ tooth with decay cavity lesion prior to
d. Right side and viewed
restoration. Results from the diagnostic test
looking from the
are as follows: Thermal/EPT: Mild to
lingual aspect of the
moderate transient response; degree of
teeth
awareness of slight pain subsides almost
19. In a fairly large buccal cavity in a
immediately after removal of stimulus;
mandibular first premolar, the axial wall
Percussion: negative (-); radiograph, clearly
should be
delineated root canal; negative resorption;
a. Flat bucco-lingualy
intact lamina dura. What is your pulpal
b. Concave mesio-distally
diagnosis?
c. Convex mesiodistally a. Necrotic pulp b. Acute apical periodontitis c. Symptomatic
d. Convex bucco-lingualy 20. Occlusal reduction for the buccally titled mandibular first molar with a good contact with opposing upper molar is about
irreversible pulpitis
a. 1 mm
d. Reversible pulpitis
b. 2.5mm
16. The forcep that is used to elevate or luxate
c. 2 mm
and extract a single tooth a. Cowhorn forceps b. Ronguer
d. 3 mm 21. Which of the following may compromise complete denture retention and stability?
c. Bayonet forceps
a. Wide buccal shelf in
d. Elevators
mandibular arch
17. What is the normal range for the pulse
b. Long gentle slope of
rate?
palate a. 50-100 bpm
c. High v shaped palatal
b. 60-80 bpm
vault
c. 16-20 bpm
d. Absence of well-
d. 10-20 bpm
defined mylohyoid
18. Following the ADA recommendation of labial mounting / reading techniqur, the
ridge 22. When surveying a diagnostic cast, the
radiographs corresponding to the left side
selection of a suitable antero-posterior tilt
of the mouth is place on this side of the
is to
mount.
a. Indicate the greatest a. Left side is viewed as if
available support for
facing the patient
the denture
b. Right side and viewed
b. Provide relative
as if facing the patient
parallelism among
proximal tooth
a. Use the stethoscope,
surfaces
place is over the wrist
c. Provide suitable
and count for one full
reciprocation for
minute or thirty
retentive clasp arms
seconds (to be
d. Eliminates soft tissue
multiplied by 2)
undercuts in the
b. Palpate the radial
retromylohyoid areas
artery at the wrist
23. A tapered and pointed instrument intended
(side of the thumb)
to laterally place gutta percha for insertion
and measure for one
ofaccessory gutta percha cones
full minute or thirty
a. Plugger
seconds (multiply the
b. Spreader
reading by 2)
c. Peso reamer
c. Palpate the radial
d. Barbed broach
artery at the wrist
24. The type of suture mostly for single tooth
(side of the little
extraction with socket intact
finger)
a. Interrupted suture
d. Palpate the radial
b. Uninterrupted suture
artery at the wrist
c. Mattress suture
(side of the little
d. Figure of 8
finger) and measure
25. A 15 year old patient has a class 2 lesion.
for 10 seconds then
There are no missing teeth. Oral hygiene and occlusion are good. The cavity
multiply by 6 27. This is done to determine whetehr the
preparation can be limited to the proximal
periapcial radiolucencies of mandibular
areas if
incisors of a middle age female patient is a. Facial and lingual CSM
due to chronic periapical inflammation or
can be extended on
the first stage of periapical cemental
self-cleansing areas
dysplasia
b. Carious lesion does not
a. Perform percussion
undermine the
test, the teeth in
marginal ridges
cemental dysplasia are
c. Caries does not undermine the marginal ridge d. Lesion is incipient where a microsurgical procedure can be done 26. When obtaining the pulse rate using the
tender to percussion b. Check vitality of the teeth, the teeth in cemental dysplasia is vital c. Perform trans illumination, light may
wrist of the patient, which of the following
be reflected in the
is applicable?
alveolar areas due to
resorption in cemental
d. Contact between the
dysplasia
mesial connector and
d. Aspirate the fluid in
adjacent tooth is
the periapex of the affected teeth and perform culture test to
desirable 31. A false negative (-) reading of pulp to an electric pulp tester means that the pulp is
check for the
a. Non – vital
microorganism causing
b. Vital
the cemental dysplasia
c. Vital but patient is
28. A patient complains of sensitivity a few days
unresponsive to
after cementation of a fixed partial denture with polycarboxylate cement. Hat is most
electric pulp tester d. Non – vital but patient
likely cause?
is responsive to a. Irritation from the cement b. …. Retainer
electric pulp tester. 32. The instrument used to grasp delicate gingival tissues to prevent from damaging
c. Premature occlusion
a. Mosquitic
d. An open margin
b. Tissue forcep
29. Which of the following combinations of artificial teeth should not be used in complete maxillary and mandibular dentures?
c. Hemostat d. All of the above 33. A reddish cauliflower-like growth of pulp tissue through and around a carious
a. Anterior – plastic, posterior – porcelain b.
exposure which is due to chronic irritation occurring in young pulp
Anterio – porcelain,
a. Reversible pulpitis
posterior – plastic
b. Chronic hyperplastic
c. Anterior – plastic, posterior – plastic d. Anterior – porcelain, posterior – porcelain 30. All of the following statements related to RPI clasp assembly are false except a. Proper depth of rest seat may require and amalagam or a direct filling gold restoration b. Box – like rest seat is desirable to promote stability of prosthesis c. Rest may be placed on the distal aspect of occlusal surface
pulpitis c. Necrotic pulp d. Pulp polyp 34. When the images, are elongated on the first exposure, this can be corrected on the second exposure by a. Increasing the vertical angulation b. Placing the central ray perpendicular to the curvature of the arch c. Decreasing the vertical angulation d. B and C 35. Approximately 1 month, following the placement of a large mesio-occluso-distal
amalagam with deep proximal boxes, the
irritation could be due
patient experiences definite pain in the
to trauma from hard
region of the tooth. The probable cause for
food
the pain is
b. Determine the precise a. Moisture
area of the base to be
contamination of the
relieved by using
amalagam causing
disclosing material
delayed expansion
c. Examine occlusion
b. An undetected c.
since occlusal
exposure of pulp horn
discrepancies may
An open contact due
cause tissue irritation
to faulty matrix
d. Remove dentures and
application
apply topical
d. Gingival excess 36. Aesthetics is an important consideration when deciding betweenfixed or a
anesthetic ointment 39. The most acceptable method to achieve adequate root canal debridement is to
removable partial denture for which of the
a. Obtain clean shavings
following?
of the canal a. Kennedy class I
b. Achieve glassy smooth
b. Kennedy class II
walls of canal
c. Kennedy class III
c. Attain a clean
d. Kennedy class IV
irrigating solutions
37. To improve the accuracy of the rubber base impression the following are done, except a. Impression material is
d. None of the above 40. Why advice the patient, “DO NOT SMOKE FOR 12 HOURS”?
injected into the sulcus
a. May cause irritation
area
b. Might delayed healing
b. Area is kept free of moisture and debris c. Loaded tray is seated first from posterior
c. Might cause infections d. May induce bleeding 41. This is the formulation of a strategy to solve the dental problems of the patient
and then seated
a. Diagnosis
forward
b. Treatment plan
d. Tray is removed slowly after impression is completed 38. Before relieving an area of the denture base which appears to be related to an area of mucosal irritation
c. Case analysis d. Prognosis 42. In evaluating bone resorption, which type of radiograph is better to use? a. A radiograph with high contrast
a. Be certain that the patient has worn the denture because the
b. A radiograph with increased density
c. A radiograph with short scale of contrast d. A radiograph with low contrast
47. The minimum required thickness of the Cavit as inter- appointment temporary seal to ensure proper seal and fracture resistance
43. Which of the following factors is of great
a. 3 mm
importance in selecting a restorative
b. 2 mm
material for class 5 on the facial surface of a
c. 1 mm
mandibular premolar?
d. 1.5 mm
a. Reaction of gingival tissue b. Ease of manipulation c. Resistance to stress d. Esthetics 44. While processing denture base, internal porosities are likely to occur because of, except,
48. Suturing is ideally done by a. Suturing the attached to the unattached b. Labiolingual when working on the mandible c. Suturing the unattached to the
a. Sudden increase in temperature b. Failure to put separating medium c. Too rapid heating d. Lack of packing pressure 45. As part of the preliminary oral rehabilitative phase of removable partial denture
attached d. Suturing the thicker to the thinner tissue 49. Which of the following the most common error in recording blood pressure? a. Applying the blood pressure cuff toot tightly b. Applying the blood
therapy, an isolated lower second premolar
pressure cuff too
should ideally be
loosely a. Extracted b. Used for support only c. Used as preliminary abutment d. Splinted to a canine with a fixed prosthesis
46. For posterior abutments with acceptable
c. Overinflating the blood pressure cuff d. Under-inflating the blood pressure cuff 50. A radiograph shows the proximal areas of the mandibular incisors are overlapping. Clinically, there is no overlapping of the
crown to root ratios, average crown length
teeth. Which of the following caused the
and normal esthetic requirements, the
overlapping of the contact areas?
retainer of choice is a: a. All porcelain crown b. Partial veneer crown c. Ceramic bounded to metal crown d. All metal crown
a. Excessive vertical angulation b. Inadequate vertical angulation c. Incorrect horizontal angulation
d. Incorrect positioning of the mandibular arch
54. The following are used as basis when registering centric relation except
51. If following placement of a metallic
a. Occlusion of upper and
restoration, the tooth remains sensitive to
lower occlusion rims at
heat, cold and pressure after occlusal
correct vertical
adjustment, the dentist should
relation
a. Remove the
b. Position of the condyle
restoration and place a
in the glenoid fossa
sedative temporary
c. Location of the
restoration
articular disk
b. Initiate endodontic
d. Condylar inclination
therapy c. Grind the opposing
with the disk 55. An electric pulp tester elicits a response at
tooth to free it from
higher current than normal if the tooth
any occlusal contact
being tested has
d. Tell the patient to put
a. Acute pulpitis
up with the discomfort
b. Chronic pulpitis
and it will eventually
c. Hyperemia
go away
d. Pus-filled canal
52. The preformed crown is reseated repeatedly to the prepared tooth during relining
56. What is the logical treatment of an infected tooth indicated for extraction? a. Anti-biotic treatment
a. To prevent excessive monomer in irritating the gingiva b. To prevent excessive resin from setting into the proximal undercuts c. To avoid
then extraction b. Try RCT first before extraction c. Immediate extraction d. Elevate then extract 57. In a patient with good oral hygiene and no periodontal involvement, how far will be the alveolar crest from the CEJ?
contamination of the
a. Greater than 2.5 mm
resin to saliva
b. 0.5 – 1. 0 mm
d. To prevent excessive
c. 1.0 – 1.5 mm
heat to build up that
d. 1.5 – 2.5 mm
can be detrimental to the pulp 53. Borders of major connector adjacent to gingival crevices should be no closer than
58. Routine radiographic examination revealed a radiopaque area at approximately the bifurcation area of the tooth 37. The radiograph processed very well and there is
a. 10 mm
no exposure error. Clinical examination
b. 7-10 mm
revealed no visible pathology on the tooth.
c. 4-6mm
What do you think is this?
d. 2-3 mm
a. Cementicle
b. Denticle
b. Impingement of the
c. Enamel pearl d. Pulp stone
gingival tissue c. Inaccuracy of the
59. When a calcium hydroxide is used in a
master cast which may
dentin ledge to be restored with amalgam,
necessitate redoing of
a cavity varnish should be applied ____ of
the final impression
calcium hydroxide
d. May cause pain upon
a. Prior to placement b. Before and after placement
function 63. What is the best emergency management reversible pulpitis?
c. After placement
a. Prescribe analgesics
d. No reason to apply
b. Completely remove
cavity varnish 60. When recording the orientation relation, the condyle rods of the fascie type of the facebow are approximately: a. Below the orbit b. ½ inch in front of the
pulp c. Sedate pulp d. Adjust occlusion 64. Which of the following is the target when performing the Gow-Gates Technique? a. Medial aspect of the
opening of the ear
mandible
along the Frankfort
approximating the
plane
lingual
c. ½ mm in front of the
b. Retromolar triangle
opening of the ear
after palpating the soft
along the Frankfort
tissue
plane
c. Sigmoid notch coming
d. At the maxillary
from the contralateral
occlusion rim 61. Indication excess pressure on the basal
side d. Lateral side of the
seats by the denture base may be best determined at the initial placement appointment by
condylar neck 65. What is the normal range of the pulse rate a. 50 -100 bpm
a. Use of PIP
b. 60-80 bpm
b. Using indelible pencil
c. 16- 20 bpm
marks c. Using occlusion wax d. Tissue irritation areas 62. What is the complication that may happen if inter-abutment alignment is not maintained?
d. 10-20 bpm 66. A patient needs periapical radiographic examination of tooth 34 where is the placement of the film if the patient has mandibular torus? a. Film is placed between
a. May cause sensitivity of the prepared tooth
the torus and the tongue
b. Film is placed on top of
d. Maxillary teeth before
the torus
mandibular teeth and
c. Film is placed on top of
posterior before
the tongue d. Periapical exposure is not possible, it is
anterior 70. What is likely to produce fracture in an anterior porcelain pontic facing?
better to perform
a. Great vertical overlap
occlusal technique
of teeth
67. The pulpal wall of the disto-lingual cavity
b. Detrimental chewing
prep slopes as it terminates axially. The
habits
main purpose of this is
c. Incorrect design of
a. Pulp protection
cast backing
b. To make a deeper
d. Incorrect selection of
cavity for retention c. To make a deeper cavity for resistance d. Extension for prevention
facing type 71. This test allows the clinician to determine pulp vitality when all the diagnostic methods failed, sensitivity or pain to this test is an indication of pulp vitality?
68. The ideal crown restoration for an RPD
a. Test cavity
abutment can be carved to satisfy all
b. Electric pulp test
requirments of support, stabilization and
c. Percussion test
retention without compromise except for
d. Selective anesthesia
esthetics if:
72. After doing mandibular block, patient a. ½ crown
shows difficulty in closing the eyelid and the
b. Full cast crown
side of injection. This could be probably
c. Porcelain veneer
caused by
d. Inlay
a. Anesthesia of the
69. What is the usually recommended
motor branch of
sequence for the extractions?
mandibular nerve
a. Mandibular teeth
b. Anesthesia of facial
before maxillary teeth
nerve within parotid
and posterior before
gland
anterior
c. Allergic response to
b. Mandibular teeth
anesthetic
before maxillary teeth and anterior before posterior c. Maxillary teeth before
d. Low injection site 73. A patient who is under care of a physician for hypertension will undergo restorative procedure on proximal caries of tooth 17.
mandibular teeth and
The following precautionary measures
anterior before
should be observed during the treatment
posterior
except,
a. Monitor the blood pressure b. Reduce stress and
76. Double pour technique for cast and die fabrication a. Provides a second cast
anxiety during the
for checking occlusal
procedure
relationship
c. Avoid using retraction
b. Provides a removable
cord containing epinephrine
die to facilitate waxing c. Facilitates mounting
d. Treat the patient as a normal patient since
on articulator d. Assures greater
he/she is under the care of a physician 74. Preformed crown used in condensing class IV cavities is provided with a vent to
accuracy 77. What pulpal or periapical diagnosis may be treated in a single visit? a. Symptomatic
a. Provide an exit for an excess composite
irreversible pulpitis b. Symptomatic apical
b. Having a good proximal contour
periodontitis c. Chronic apical
c. Prevent cervical overhang d. Prevent underfeeding 75. A 52 year old woman requests removal of a painful mandibular 2nd molar. Her medical history is unremarkable, except that she takes 20mg prednisone daily for erythema multiforme. How do you treat this patient? a. Have patient
periodontitis d. Acute apical absecess 78. The following are criteria pertinent to the fabrication of an acceptable temporary record base except a. It must be constructed on a final cast b. It must be constructed on a preliminary cast
discontinue the
to preserve the
prednisone for 2 days
accuracy of the final
prior to the extraction
cast
b. Give steroid
c. Its construction must
supplementation and
include the entire
remove the tooth with
vestibular fold portion
local anesthesia and
of the cast
sedation c. Instruct the patient to take 3g of amoxicillin one hour prior to extraction d. No special treatment is necessary prior to extraction
d. Either a or b 79. Which of the following is not valid cri terion of incisal rest design? a. The deepest portion (mesio distally) is toward the center of the tooth
b. Sharp line angles are
c. Is of little significance
desirable
and the evaluation of
c. Contact area is not
the vertical dimension
involved in the
of occlusion because it
preparation
is subject to variation
d. Small bevels are
d. Must always be
placed labially and
greater than the
lingually
vertical dimension of
80. During dental extraction, the ____ could be placed into the maxillary sinus a. Buccal root of 2 nd premolar b. Palatal root of 2nd
occlusion 83. While taking a radiographic exposure, you did not place the central beam on the film in the patient’s mouth. What will show on
the resulting film?
molar
a. Fore shortening
c. Palatal root of 1st
b. Overlapping
molar
c. Cone cut
d. Mesiobuccal root of 1st molar 81. Flash removal to the finish line is required to
d. Elongation 84. The obturation technique can be used in most clinical situations and provides for length control during compaction. A
a. Prevent overextended
disadvantage is that it may not fill canal
margin that cause
irregularities as well as other techniques
tissue recession
a. Warm vertical
b. Prevent premature
compaction
contacts that cause
b. Thermoplastic
sensitivity to the tooth
technique
c. Prevent resin from
c. Cold lateral
setting into undercuts
compaction
d. Prevent damage to the pulp 82. When the vertical dimension of occlusion is
d. Single cone technique 85. A primary factor in developing the outline form for a composite resin restoration on
evaluated for the edentulous patient at the
the proximal surface of an anterior tooth is
occlusion resin stage of denture
the
construction, the vertical dimension of rest a. Should be equal to the vertical dimension of occlusion b. May exceed the vertical dimension of occlusion if aesthetics are enhanced
a. Position of the contact b. Relationship of the adjacent tooth c. Aesthetics required d. Extent of caries involvement 86. A patient presents with a periapical abscess of maxillary 2nd molar. Despite giving PSAN and MSAN block and palatine injection pain
is still experienced while attempting to
b. Size of gutta percha
extract the tooth. What is the probable
which has resistance
cause for the pain?
to removal or tug back
a. Injections should have
c. Size of gutta percha
been supplemented
which reaches the
with infraorbital block
working length and has
b. The pH of the abscess
tug back
prevented adequate
d. Always the same size
anesthesia c. Higher concentration of vasoconstrictor
as IAF 90. Undercuts in cavity preparation are created in
should have been used
a. Dentin only
d. Injections should have
b. Enamel only
been supplemented
c. Both enamel and
with sedation
dentin
87. The first radiographic evidence of apical
d. Enamel, dentin and
pathology following acute pulpitis is a. Rarefaction of alveolar bone b. Inflammation of periodontal tissues c. Condensation of alveolar bone
cementum 91. Which of the following maxillary partial edentulous arches does not generally require record bases and occlusion reams (or framework) for an accurate face bow record a. Kennedy class I
d. Thickening of periodontal space 88. A mesio-occlusal rest is provided on a
modification 1 b. Kennedy class II c. Kennedy class III
terminal abutment of a distal extension base rpd as part of direct retainer for the
modification 1 d. Kennedy class II
following reason/s
modification 2
a. Easier to prepare b. Aesthetically more acceptable c. More of the residual ridge is utilized for support d. All of the above 89. Master cone is
92. A patient presents with localized, fluctuant swelling associated with tooth 28. Patient complains of extreme pain on biting. You open the tooth and establish good drainage. You should also consider a. Prescribing saline rinse b. Relieving occlusion c. Incising and draining
a. The gutta percha size equal to or larger than the IAF
soft tissue d. All of the above 93. The diagnostic procedure is performed to facilitate the examination of tooth’s
proximal surfaces.
94. When recording the orientation relation,
and prescribe
the condyle rods of the fascia type of face
analgesics
bow are approximately
d. Open tooth for
a. Below the orbit
drainage and leave
b. ½ inch in fornt of the
open
opening of the ear
97. A 50 year old man has a maxillary 2nd molar
along the Frankfort
as the only remaining posterior tooth on
plane
that side and has served as an abutment.
c. ½ mm in front of the opening of the ear
Extracting this tooth requires caution to prevent
along the Frankfort
a. The patient’s
plane
swallowing the tooth
d. At the maxillary
b. Removing the floor of
occlusion rim
the maxillary sinus
95. A patient with serious infection of dental
with the tooth
origin has eyelid and periorbital ___, ptosis
c. Pushing palatal root
and paresis of the 3rd, 4th and 5th cranial
into the nasal cavity
nerves. A differential diagnosis must include
d. Post-operative ostelitis
a. Superior temporal
98. The tentative midline on the maxillary
space infection
occasion rim can be determined by
b. Ludwig’s infection
a. Referring to the
c. Cavernous sinus
midline of the nose
thrombosis
b. Extending a vertical
d. Maxillary sinusitis
line from the lingual
96. You have completed all the biomechanical
frenum to the
preparation of the root canal of 11. The
occlusion rim
patient returns in 24 hours with severe pain
c. Projecting a line from
to biting on 11. You open the tooth and
the midline of the
upon taking radiograph, you find that your
uvula through the
final file size (#55) is right at the
middle of the anterior
radiographic apex. What should you do?
nasal spine onto
a. Enlarge the canal 1 or
maxillary occlusion rim
2 sizes, irrigate and
d. Bisecting the face with
close tooth
an imaginary line and
b. Enlarge canal 2 or 3
projecting it onto
sizes to remove any
maxillary occlusion
pulpal remnants
rim.
c. Decrease working
99. The instrument used to remove bone or to
length , open irrigate
reshape bone if needed after extraction?
and close the tooth,
a. Bone file
reduce the occlusion
b. bone ronguers c. forceps
d. all of the above 100. These are the vital signs that should be observed and recorded during thorough examination a. pulse rate, temperature, BP and bleeding time b. pulse rate, BP, height and weight c. pulse rate, temperature, BP and respiratory rate d. pulse rate, BP, respiration and bleeding time
