Practice Test-03 of AIATS Medical-2015 (Code-A)

for

2015 Practii ce Pa Pract Pap er f o r

Test No. 3 (Co (Co d ee-A A) TO T OPI CS OF T HE TE T E ST

Physics Chemistry

Biology

Gravitation; Properties of Bulk Matter; Thermodynamics

Solid State, Solutions, Electrochemistry, Chemical Kinetics, Surface Chemistry

Anatomy of Flowering Anatomy Flowering Plants, Plants, Cell Structure Structure and and Function: Function: Cell theory theory and cell as the basic unit of life; Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell; Plant cell and animal cell; Cell envelope, env elope, cell membrane, cell wall; Cell organellesstructure and function; Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies, lysosomes, vacuoles; mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies; Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and function); Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus, Cell division; Cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis and their significance, Digestion and Absorption, Breathing and Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation

Test - 3 (Obj ectiv e) Code-A

Al l In di a Aakas h Test Seri es for Med ical -2015

[ PHYSICS] 1.

2.

Planets A and B have same average density. Radius of A is twice that of B. The ratio of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of A and B is (1) 2:1 (2) 1:2 (3) 1:4 (4) 4:1 If the area enclosed by earth's orbit in one year (3.5×107 s) is 7 × 1022 m 2, then find the ratio of earth's orbital angular momentum to its mass (1) 4 × 1015 m 2/s (2) 3 × 1015 m 2/s (3) 1015 m 2/s

3.

Gm r Gm 2r

(3) 4.

(2)

(4)

Gm 3r

A sample of gas follows process represented by PV2 = constant. Bulk modulus for this process is B, then which of the following graph is correct ? B

(2) V

 1 

1 (1) 

(2)

 (3)   1

1 (4)   1

The P-V diagram of 8 g of Helium gas for a certain process A  B is shown in figure. Heat given to the body during process A  B is

(4) V

V

The molar heat capacity of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoing process PV 1/2 = constant is 15 R 2

(2)

23 R 2

7 R (4) Zero 2 Two gases have same initial pressure, volume and temperature. They expand to the same final volume, one adiabatically and the other isothermally (1) The final pressure is greater for isothermal (2) The final temperature is greater for the isothermal process (3) The work done by the gas is greater for the isothermal process (4) All of these

(3)

7 (3) 6 (4) 1 An ideal gas absorbs Q heat in an isobaric process. If adiabatic exponent of the gas is , then what fraction of heat is used to perform work ?

B

(3)

(1)

(2) 2

V

B

6.

9.

B

(1)

5.

8.

1 Gm 2 r 4

For the given composite arrangement of two different materials at steady state. The ratio of temperature gradient is (symbols have their usual meanings)

(1) 5

(4) 2 × 1015 m 2/s

Two particles A and B of equal mass m each are separated by a distance r. If they are executing uniform circular motion due to their mutual gravitational attraction then orbital speed of B is (1)

7.

(1) 12P0V0

(2) 6P0V0

(3) 4P0V0 (4) 15P0V0 10. If a gas is compressed adiabatically, then (1) The internal energy of the gas increases (2) The internal energy of the gas decreases (3) The internal energy of the gas does not change (4) Work done by the gas is positive 11. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1% ? (Density of sea water = 10 3 kg/m3, bulk modulus of rubber = 9 × 10 8 N/m2, g = 10 m/s2) (1) 18 m (2) 90 m (3) 180 m (4) 9 m 2/16



12. Choose the incorrect statement, regarding the assumptions of kinetic theory of gases (1) Gas molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion (2) Gas molecules travel in a straight line (3) There is force of attraction between gas molecules (4) Volume of a molecule is neglected in comparison to volume of gas 13. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is P where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is P/2, the velocity of flow is ( = density of water)

(1)

v2 

P 

(2)

v2 

P 

(3)

v2 

2P 

(4)

v2 

2P 

(3)

g

2TL (4) T × L

17. 20 g of ice at 0°C mix with 30 g of water at 20°C. The final temperature of mixture is (latent heat of ice 80 cal/g, specific heat capacity of water 1 cal/g °C) (1) 10°C (2) 0°C (3) 20°C (4) 5°C 18. When a diatomic gas is allowed to expand at constant pressure, it does work of 280 J. Total heat supplied to the gas is equal to (1) 780 J (2) 880 J (3) 380 J (4) 980 J 19. Change in internal energy of the ideal gas in the process ABC is 30 J. Change in internal energy in the process CDA is P (kPa)

14. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material and same length is shown in the figure. The thickest wire is represented by the line

200

100

d a o L

D

0

C B A

O

Elongation

(1) OD (2) OC (3) OB (4) OA 15. A particle of mass m moving horizontally strikes the bob of a simple pendulum of mass m and length l. After the impact, particle sticks to the bob. If the compound mass just completes a vertical circle, then initial velocity of the particle is (1) mv2

(2)

mv 2

2

(1) (2)

TL

(4)

A

B

D

C

g

B

C

D

50

150

L

(cc)

P V1 V2

T

V1 = V2 V1 < V2

(2) (4)

> V2 V1  V2 V1

R from 3 earth's surface, the change in potential energy is (R = radius of earth, g = gravitational acceleration at earth surface)

21. If a body of mass m is sent to a height of

mgR 3

(2)

mgR 4

(3) mgR

(4)

3mgR 4

(1)

2TL g

V

(1) –40 J (2) –30 J (3) +30 J (4) +40 J 20. An ideal gas is undergoing two processes at constant volume V1 and V2 as shown in figure. Which of the following relation is correct?

(1) (3)

mv 2 4 16. A liquid film is formed over a frame ABCD as shown in figure. Wire CD can slide without friction. The mass to be hung from CD to keep it in equilibrium is (3) Zero

A

3/16



22. For the same area of cross-section and for a giv en load, the ratio of depression for beam of a square cross-section and circular cross-section is (1)

3 

(2)

 3

1 (4) 

(3) 1

23. A vessel contains liquid of density d as shown in figure, the gauge pressure at the point A is

2 2 (3) 9g

27. A tank is filled with water upto height H. There is a hole of area of cross-section A2 at the bottom of the tank ( A2 <<< A1 = Area of cross-section of the tank). If water is allowed to come out of hole at t = 0, then time after which water height in tank becomes H 3 A1  2H 2H     (1) A 3g  2  g

(1) Hdg (2) hdg (3) (H–h)dg (4) (H–h)dg cos 24. Two soap bubbles having diameter D 1 and D2 in vacuum, coalesce under isothermal conditions. The diameter of the new bubble is (1)

D1  D2 2

(2)

D12  D22 2

1 2 D1  D22 2 25. A straight capillary tube is immersed in water and the water rises to 5cm. If the capillary is bent as shown in figure, then the height of water column will be

(3)

D12  D22

29.

30.

31.

32.

22 (1) 2g

22 2 (2) 3g

A1  H H    (2) A 3g  2  g

A1  4H A1  H 4H  H (3) A  g  3g  (4) A  2g  6g    2  2  28. A point isotropic radiating source of power P is kept at centre of a spherical shell of radius r and thickness t (t <<< r ) . If coefficient of thermal conductivity of material of shell is K then the temperature difference across the shell is Pt Pt (1) (2) 3 4r k 4r 3k

(4)

(1) 5 cm (2) < 5 cm (3) > 5 cm (4) 5 cos  26. A U-tube is rotating with constant angular velocity  about a vertical axis xy as shown. The difference in the height of liquid column in two vertical limbs is (  = density of liquid)

22 (4) 6g

Pt P2 t (3) (4) 4r 2k 4r 2k A lake starts freezing when temperature goes below 0°C. The time taken to freeze first 2 mm, 4 mm, 6 mm, 8 mm are t1, t2, t3 and t4 respectively. Then (t2 – t1) : (t3 – t2) : (t4 – t3) is (1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 4 : 8 (3) 3 : 5 : 7 (4) 1 : 4 : 9 Let  be the angular speed of rotation of the earth at which an object kept on equator will feel weightless. The ratio of  to the present angular speed of rotation of the earth is approximately (1) 6 (2) 12 (3) 17 (4) 1 If the breaking stress of steel is 8 × 10 8 N/m 2 and the density of steel is 8 × 10 3 kg/m 3 then the greatest length of steel wire that can hang vertically without breaking is (take g = 10 m/s2) (1) 104 m (2) 103 m 2 (3) 10 m (4) 10 m Water is flowing through a horizontal tube of nonuniform cross-section. At a place the radius of the tube is 1 cm and the velocity of water is 4 m/s. The velocity of water where the radius of the pipe is 2 cm is (1) 0.5 m/s (2) 1 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s 4/16



33. The temperature at which oxygen molecules would have the same RMS speed as the hydrogen molecules would have at 27°C, is (1) 4800 K (2) 2400 K (3) 1200 K (4) 600 K 34. In a sudden expansion of an ideal diatomic gas, the pressure P and temperature T are related as P Tx, here x is equal to (1) 3.5 (2) 2.5 (3)

1 7

(4) 1.4

35. The intensity of radiation emitted by the sun has maximum value at a wavelength of 5000 Å and that emitted by a star is at 3500 Å. Assuming them to be black bodies, ratio of absolute temperature of the sun and the star is (1) 0.7 (2) 0.6 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.4 36. If a point mass m is placed at the centre of earth of mass M and radius R, then the magnitude of binding energy of the system would be (1)

1 GMm 2 R

(2)

3 GMm 4 R

1 GMm 3 GMm (4) 4 R 2 R 37. Two masses, m 1 = 2 kg and m 2 = 8 kg at an infinite distance apart are initially at rest. They start interacting gravitationally. When the separation between them becomes 1 m, the velocity of m 2 will be

(3)

(1) 4

G 5

(2) 3

(3) 2

G 5

(4)

G 5 G 5

38. Two satellites of equal masses revolve in the same sense around a heavy planet in circular orbit of radii R and 3R. Which of the following is correct ? (1) Ratio of period of revolution is 1: 3 3 (2) Ratio of their velocities is 3 : 1 (3) Ratio of their kinetic energy is 3 : 1 (4) All of these

 3 mole of a monatomic gas     2  with one mole of a diatomic gas     value of  for the mixture is

39. If

(1)

11 21

(2)

5 3  is mixed 7 5  , then the

29 19

19 11 (4) 29 31 40. Two mole monatomic gas absorb 50 cal isobarically. The change in internal energy of the gas is (1) 30 cal (2) 20 cal (3) 50 cal (4) 10 cal 41. Terminal velocity of small sized spherical body of mass m falling vertically in a viscous liquid is v. Find terminal velocity when spherical body of mass 8m made by the same material falling vertically in same liquid (1) v (2) 8v (3) 2v (4) 4v 42. Temperature difference between body and surroundings falls from 40°C to 20°C in 10 minute. Time interval in which the difference will fall from 20°C to 5°C is

(3)

(1) 20 minute

(2) 15 minute

(3) 10 minute (4) 30 minute 43. Temperature of a body increased by 25°C. Its rise of temperature in Fahrenheit scale is (1) 25 °F (2) 35 °F (3) 45 °F (4) 55 °F 44. Two metallic rods of equal length and diameter have thermal conductivities 3K and 4K. If they are joined in series, then the equivalent thermal conductivity of combination is 7K 2 24K (3) 7K (4) 7 45. A boat having a length of 3 m and breadth of 2 m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of man is

(1) 2K

(2)

(1) 60 kg (3) 72 kg

(2) 62 kg (4) 128 kg

5/16



[ CHEMISTRY] 46. The distance between two nearest neighbours in body centred cubic lattice of axial length a, is

be isolated because they do not have finite life times

3 a 2 2 3 a a (3) (4) 2 4 47. Which of the following interstitial site is formed when the three close packed spheres of one layer is put over three close packed spheres of the second layer, their positions being inverted w.r.t. each other? (1) Tetrahedral (2) Octahedral (3) Rhombohedral (4) Tetragonal

(3) Reaction mechanisms cannot have more than one intermediate

(1) a

(2)

48. Which of the following is incorrect? (1) The coordination number of each type of ions in CsCl crystal is 8 (2) A metal that crystallises in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12 (3) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells (4) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm (rNa  95 pm, rCl  181 pm) 49. The number of atoms in 100 g of a fcc crystal with density = 10.0 g/cm 3 and cell edge length equal to 200 pm is (1) 5 × 1024

(2) 5 × 1025

(3) 6 × 1023

(4) 2 × 1025

50. Which of the following is distance between two tetrahedral voids? a 2

(1)

3a 2

(2)

(3)

a 2

(4) All of these

51. Which of the following statements is true? (1) The existence of certain intermediates in a reaction mechanism can sometimes be proven because intermediates can sometimes be trapped and identified (2) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism cannot

(4) Intermediates in a reaction mechanism appear in the overall balanced equation for the reaction 52. Gaseous N2 O 5 decomposes according to the following equation 1 N2O5 (g)  2NO2 (g)  O2 (g) 2 N2 O5  k[N2O5 ] . The experimental rate law is t At a certain temperature the rate constant is k = 5 × 10 –4 sec –1. In how many seconds will the concentration of N 2O5 decrease to one-tenth of its initial value?

(1) 2 × 103 s

(2) 4.6 × 103 s

(3) 2.1 × 102 s

(4) 1.4 × 103 s

53. A and B are two different chemical species undergoing first order decomposition with rate constants kA and k B which are in the ratio of 3 : 2 respectively. If the initial concentration of A and B are in the ratio of [A] 0 : [B]0 = 3 : 2. What would be the ratio of [A] : [B] after three half lives of A? (1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 54. 0.9 gm of a hydrocarbon with molecular formula H2(CH2)n when dissolved in 180 gm of solvent freezes at 8.48°C. If freezing point of pure solvent is 9°C, then the formula of hydrocarbon (k f = 12) (1) C8H6 (2) C8H18 (3) C8H16 (4) C7H8 55. Select the correct statement (1) Freezing point, boiling point and vapour pressure are all colligative properties (2) The freezing point, boiling point and vapour pressure all decrease when a solute is dissolved in a solvent (3) Plots of freezing point depression versus molal concentration for ethyl alcohol, propyl alcohol and butyl alcohol dissolved in water will all be linear with different slopes (4) All are incorrect 6/16


56. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are 100 and 80 torr respectively. The total pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B would be (1) 20 torr (2) 36 torr (3) 88 torr (4) 180 torr 57. When you dissolve sugar in a glass containing ice and water in equilibrium, and assuming that no heat enters or leaves the system (1) Some of the ice should melt and the temperature of water/ice mixture should increase (2) Some of ice should melt and the temperature of the water/ice mixture should decrease (3) Some of the water should freeze and the temperature of the water/ice mixture should increase (4) Some of the water should freeze and the temperature of the water-ice mixture should decrease 58. x mole of KCl and y mole of BaCl 2 are both dissolved in 1 kg of water. Given that x + y = 0.1 and k f for water is 1.86 k/molal. What is the observed range of Tf if the ratio of x and y is varied? (1) 0.37° to 0.55° (2) 0.185° to 0.93° (3) 0.56° to 0.93° (4) 0.37° to 0.93° 59. If a 500 ml brine is electrolysed with a current of strength 0.5 A, how many seconds would it take for the pH of solution to rise to a value of 9? (1) 0.965 second (2) 0.663 second (3) 0.965 minute (4) 0.663 minute 60. The reaction occurring at the cathode during charging of lead storage battery is (1) Pb2+ + 2e –  Pb (2) Pb2+ + SO42–  PbSO4 (3) Pb  Pb 2+ + 2e – (4) PbSO4 + 2H2O  2PbO2 + 4H+ + SO42– + 2e – 61. Given the following information, rank the ‘activity’ of the metals as reducing agents. Cr reacts with NiBr 2 and CdBr 2, but not with ZnBr 2. Cd reacts with NiBr 2 but not with ZnBr 2 or CrBr 3. (1) Zn > Cr > Cd > Ni (2) Ni > Cr > Cd > Zn (3) Zn > Cr > Ni > Cd (4) Zn > Cd > Cr > Ni


62. The equation for one of the half reactions in a lead storage battery is PbO2  4H  SO4 2  2e  PbSO4  2H2 O

What happens to the properties of the electrolyte as this cell discharge? Density

pH

(1) Increase

Increase

(2) Increase

Decrease

(3) Decrease

Decrease

(4) Decrease

Increase

63. Ionic conductance of H+ and SO4 –2 at infinite dilution are x and y s cm 2 eq –1. Hence the equivalent conductance of H2SO4 at  dilution is (1) x + y

(2) 2x + y

(3) x + 2y

(4) x + 0.5y

64. According to adsorption theory of catalysis the reaction rate increases because (1) Adsorption produces heat which increases the rate of reaction (2) In the process of adsorption, the kinetic energy of the molecules increases (3) The concentration of reactants at the active centres becomes high due to adsorption (4) The activation energy of the reaction becomes high due to adsorption 65. The volume of gases H 2, CH 4, CO 2 and NH 3 adsorbed by 1 g of adsorbent at 288 K are in the order (1) H2 > CH4 > CO2 > NH3 (2) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2 (3) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4 (4) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2 66. Bleeding is stopped by application of ferric chloride. This is because (1) The blood starts flowing in opposite direction (2) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel (3) The blood reacts and forms a solid which seals the blood vessel (4) The blood is coagulated and thus the blood vessel is sealed 7/16



67. Gold number is a measure of the (1) Protective action by a lyophilic colloidal on lyophobic colloid (2) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid on lyophilic colloid (3) Number of milligram of gold in a standard red gold solution (4) Number of millimoles of lyophilic solution 68. The possible distance between two tetrahedral voids in CCP unit cell is (1)

a 2

(2)

3a 2

a (4) All of these 2 69. Choose the incorrect match (3)

(1) Freezing point of pure solvent : TQ (2) Boiling point of pure solvent : TR (3) Elevation in boiling point : T S – TR (4) Depression in freezing point : T R – TP 70. An electrolyte AB undergoes 50% dissociation and 50% dimerisation in solution then van’t Hoff factor (i) would be (1) 1.25 (2) 1 (3) 0.90 (4) 1.50 71. If ‘i’ is van’t Hoff factor and m is the number of solute particles obtained after the dissociation of 1 molecule then degree of dissociation ( ) is given by i1 (1) 1  1 m

(2)

i 1 m 1

c2 (1) 1  

c m2 (2) m2  1  mo     m 

c m2 (3) o  o    m m m

(4) All of these

73. In the equation m  mo  Ac1/2 , the constant ‘A’’ depends on (1) Nature of solvent (2) Temperature (3) Type of electrolyte (4) All of these 74. In the electrochemical cell, Cd + Sn+4  Cd+2 + Sn+2 Increase in the concentration of Sn +2 (1) Increasing the emf of cell (2) Decreasing the emf of cell (3) No change in emf of cell (4) Unpredictable 75. The degree of dissociation of first order reaction is given by (1) 1 + e –kt (2) e –kt (3) 1 – e –kt (4) ekt 76. The “collodion” solution is (1) 4% solution of picric acid in ether (2) 4% solution of starch in alcohol (3) 4% solution of nitrocellulose in a mixture of alcohol and ether (4) 4% solution of As 2S3 in dilute HCl 77. Which of the following is not a colloidal solution? (1) Froth (2) Butter (3) Pumice stone (4) Mixture of gases 78. In Fe0.93O, the percentage of Fe +3 by number is nearly (1) 15% (2) 10% (3) 20% (4) 25% 79. Which of the following is a molecular solid? (1) SiC (2) Diamond (3) AlN (4) I2 80. The point defect which is shown by AgBr(s) crystals is/are (1) Metal excess defect (2) Frenkel defect (3) Schottky def ect (4) Both (2) & (3) 81. Which of the following graph is correct for an ideal binary liquid solution containing nonvolatile solute?

i 1 i 1 (4) m 1 m 1 72. The degree of dissociation  can be approximated to the ratio of molar conductivity m at the concentration

(3)

m c to the limiting molar conductivity om as    o . m The dissociation constant for acetic acid can be represented as

Total V.P.

(1) XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1 8/16



86. Consider the following statements regarding electrochemical cell Zn(s)|Zn2(+)(aq) || Cu2(+)(aq)|Cu(s) I. Electrons move from Zn to Cu II. Concentration of Zn2(+) will increase and that of Cu2(+) will decrease when cell operates

Total V.P.

(2) XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1

Total V.P.

(3) XA=1

XA=0

XB=0

XB=1

(4) All are correct

82. Which of the following is correct about van’t Hoff factor of A, B & C? (1) iA > iB > iC (2) iA < iB < iC (3) iA > iB < iC (4) iA = iB = iC 83. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl using Pt electrode (1) pH of the solution will decrease (2) pH of the solution will increase (3) pH of the solution will remain constant (4) pH of solution may increase or decrease 84. Which of the following is intensive property? (1) Ecell (2) Eocell (3) Molarity (4) All of these 85. Which of the following graph is correct for Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

III. When cell becomes dead, Eocell  0 Choose the correct statement(s) (1) I, II & III (2) I & III (3) I & II (4) II & III 87. Match column I to column II Column-I Column II a. Osmosis (i) Movement of dispersed phase particles towards oppositely charged electrode b. Dialysis (ii) Movement of solvent particles through SPM towards concentrated solution side c. Electrophoresis (iii) Colloidal sol formation d. Peptisation (iv) Purification of colloids (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 88. Consider the following EMF diagram for Fe, 2.20V 0.77V Fe3    Fe 2   FeO24    o the value for EFeO24  /Fe2   will be

(1) 7.37 V (2) 3.685 V (3) 2.456 V (4) 1.843 V 89. Consider the following graph

Choose the incorrect statement(s) (1) Reaction is exothermic in forward direction i.e., H = –ve (2) Activation energy for forward reaction is x – y (3) Using catalyst will decrease H value of the reaction (4) All of these 90. If r is the radius of tetrahedral void and R is the radius of sphere forming ccp, then which of the following relation is correct considering that the ccp structure is not disrupted? (1) r = 0.414R (2) r = 0.314R (3) r = 0.732R (4) r = 0.225R 9/16



[ BIOLOGY] 91. Examine the figure given below and select the part correctly matched with its function/structure (D)

(C)

(A)

(B)

(1) Part (A): Ribosome-made up of 30S and 50S subunits (2) Part (C): RER - principally performs the function of packaging materials (3) Part (D) : Nuclear pore - passage through which movement of RNA takes place in one direction only (4) Part (B): SER - synthesis of steroidal hormones 92. In plasma membrane, quasi-fluid nature of lipid (1) Enables flip-flop movement of proteins (2) Is essential for endocytosis only (3) Enables lateral movement of proteins (4) Enables flip-flop as well as lateral movements of proteins 93. Which of the following combination is correct ? (1) Xenobiotics – Rough endoplasmic reticulum (2) Plasma membrane – 52% lipid of RBC (3) Mitochondria – Protein synthesis (4) Glyoxysomes – Photorespiration 94. Which of the following statement for eukaryotic flagellum is correct? (1) Basal body has nine pairs of doublets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules (2) It emerge from a centriole like structure called axoneme (3) In axoneme, central tubules are connected by bridge (4) It has a number of microfibrils running parallel to the long axis

95. Match the column I with column II Column I

Column II

a. Lysosomes (i) Cell inclusions b. Transosomes (ii) Carotenoids c. Raphides and cystolith (iii) Triple membrane bound organelle d. Chromoplast (iv) Cathepsin (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) 96. Disc-shaped structures present on the sides of centromeres in the chromosomes are called (1) Satellite (2) Chromatin (3) NOR (4) Kinetochores 97. M phase starts with the nuclear division, corresponding to the separation of daughter chromosomes and usually ends with (1) Division of cytoplasm (2) Telophase (3) G2 phase (4) Karyokinesis 98. Stage between the meiosis-I and meiosis-II is (1) Characterised by polymerisation of nucleotides (2) Short lived than preparatory phase of cell cycle (3) Called karyokinesis (4) Characterised by DNA as well as centriole duplication 99. If at the end of meiosis each daughter cell has four chromosomes, how many chromosomes would a diploid cell have in G 1 phase of cell cycle? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16 100. Primary oocyte of the human being contains (1) As many chromosomes as sperms (2) Haploid set of chromosomes (3) As many chromosomes as ovum (4) Diploid set of chromosomes 101. Which of the following stage is recognised by the dissolution of synaptonemal complex, so the recombined homologous chromosomes will start separating? (1) Metaphase II (2) Diakinesis (3) Diplotene (4) Pachytene 10/16



102. Read the following statements (a-c) carefully and find out the option (1-4) representing the correct sequence of events in amitotic division. a. A constriction appears in the cytoplasm. b. Nucleus of the cell elongates. c. A constriction appears in the nucleus which gradually deepens and divides the nucleus into two daughter nuclei. (1) c  a  b (2) b  a  c (3) b  c  a (4) a  c  b 103. Mark the correct statement (with respect to lateral meristem) (1) Secondary meristem producing primary permanent tissues (2) Intercalary meristem producing secondary permanent tissues (3) Cylindrical meristem producing the secondary tissues (4) Promeristem producing secondary permanent tissues 104. Match the column I with column II Column I

Column II

a. Xylem parenchyma (i) Absent in most of the monocots b. Sclereids (ii) Long cylindrical tubelike structure c. Phloem parenchyma (iii) Food and tannins d. Vessel (iv) Fruit walls of nuts (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) 105. In monocot leaf, mesophyll tissue (1) Is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma (2) Is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma (3) Possesses some bulliform cells (4) Is made up of parenchyma cells which lack chloroplasts 106. Which of the following occurs first during secondary growth in dicot root? (1) Primary meristem becomes active present below phloem (2) Cambium strips are formed secondarily from conjunctive tissue lying just below each phloem strand

(3) Cambium strips develop from pericycle opposite to protoxylem (4) A wavy ring of cambium develops 107. a. Annual rings are bands of secondary phloem and medullary rays. b. Wood of Cycas has vessels. c. Conjoint vascular bundles are found in leaves of sunflower and maize. Which of above statement(s) is/are correct ? (1) a and b are correct (2) b and c are correct (3) Only a is correct (4) Only c is correct 108. Choose the correct statement (1) Annual rings are formed by the activity of cork cambium (2) Fibres are abundant in secondary xylem and protophloem (3) Primary xylem does not show distinction into protoxylem and metaxylem (4) At certain regions, the cork cambium cuts off parenchymatous cells on the outer side instead of phellem 109. Which of the following is correct statement for intercalary meristems? (1) They lie at tip of root apex (2) They lie at base of stem always (3) They are short lived and consumed during primary growth (4) They are long lived and cause increase in length 110. Girdling experim ent cannot be performed in sugarcane plant because (1) Its stem is thin (2) Its vascular bundles are arranged in scattered manner (3) Its stem surface is coated with wax (4) Phloem is surrounded on all sides by xylem 111. Match the column I with column II Column I

a. b. c. d. (1) (3)

Papain Diffuse porous wood Lithocysts Ring porous wood a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

Column II

(i) Betula (ii ) Quercus (iii) Carica papaya (iv) Ficus leaf (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

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112. Match the following Column I

a. A – Cellulose, lignin, hemicellulose thickening. Column II

a. G1 phase (i) Longest phase of cell cycle b. M phase (ii) Synthesis of histone proteins c. S-phase (iii) Cell quiescence d. G0 phase (iv) Nuclear division (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 113. Choose the correct option for given diagram

b. Occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicotyledonous plants c. Simple permanent tissue d. May contain plastids. e. Dead mechanical tissue. (1) a, b and c

(2) b, c and d

(3) a, d and e

(4) a, c, d and e

117. In the vicinity of the guard cells few epidermal cells are specialised in their (1) Shape and size (2) Shape and colour (3) Size and thickening (4) Colour and secretion

(1) A – Meristematic tissue B – Differentiating tissue (2) A – Shoot apical meristem B – Axillary bud (3) C – Reproductive bud B – Leaf primordia (4) B – Differentiating vascular tissue A – Root apical meristem 114. How many from the given components are associated with gymnosperm and angiosperm respectively?

118. Choose odd one with respect to innermost layer of cortex in dicot root

Tracheids, Sieve tube, Sieve cells, Companion cells, Albuminous cells

(1) Endodermis  Pericycle  Starch sheath

(1) 2, 6

(2) 4, 3

(3) 3, 3

(4) 6, 2

(3) Presence of differential thickening (4) Presence of intercellular spaces 119. Choose correct sequence of layers/tissue from outer to towards the inner side in T.S. of dicot stem. (2) Starch sheath  Pericycle  Vascular bundles (4) Cortex  Pith  Vascular bundles

(1) Pulp, leaves, fruit wall, seed coat

120. Activity of cambium is controlled by (1) Physiological and environmental factors (2) Hormonal and external factors

(2) Pericarp, leaves, pulp, fruit wall

(3) Internal and external factors

(3) Pulp, leaves, seed coat, fruit wall

(4) More than one option is correct

(4) Seed coat, leaves, pulp, pericarp correct

(2) Possesses barrel shaped cells

(3) Hypodermis  Pericycle  Starch sheath

115. Choose the correct position of sclereids in the sapota, tea, pea, almond respectively.

116. For the given tissue, choose

(1) Single layered

option

121. During secondary growth in dicot root some part of vascular cambium originates from the tissue located_______ the phloem and a portion of pericycle tissue _____ the protoxylem. (1) Above, below

(2) Below, above

(3) Below, below

(4) Above, above

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122. How many parts are there in bacterial flagellum and amongst these, which is the longest portion respectively? (1) Two, hook

(2) Two, filament

(3) Three, filament

(4) Three, hook

123. Gas vacuole is present in

(1) A– Central sheath C– Intertriplet bridge (2) B– Plasma membrane D– Central microtubule (3) E– Radial spoke D– Incomplete microfilament

(1) Blue green algae (2) Purple photosynthetic bacteria (3) Green photosynthetic bacteria (4) More than one option is correct 124. Which of the following component of Gram negative bacteria is structurally similar to plants?

(4) B– Central sheath C– Interdoublet bridge 128. ER  A  Lysosome In the above given schematic representation of endomembrane system, choose the correct function associated with organelle labelled as ‘A’.

(1) Cell wall

(1) Post transcription RNA processing

(2) Capsule

(2) Glycosidation of protein

(3) Plastids

(3) Post translation protein modification

(4) Plasma membrane

(4) Glycosylation of lipids

125. Protein synthesised by RER is (1) Released in luminal compartment

129. Which of the following feature is centrosome?

(2) Modified in intercellular spaces

(1) Pericentriolar material

(3) Secreted without any modification

(2) Two cylindrical structures

(4) Processed in lysosome and centrioles

(3) Two centriole

126. How many of the given features are associated with mitochondria? 70S ribosome, divide by multiple fission, Outer and inner membranes have their own specific enzymes, enzymes for protein synthesis, single circular DNA molecule.

(1) Five

(2) Three

(3) Four

(4) Two

127. Choose the correct labelling for given diagram

not

associated with

(4) Lipid bilayer covering 130. One very short (p) arm and one very long (q) arm is found in _______ chromosome. (1) Submetacentric

(2) Metacentric

(3) Acrocentric

(4) Telocentric

131. Interphase nucleus possesses (1) Condensed chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear matrix, centrioles (2) Elaborate nucleoprotein fibres, sub-spherical nucleoli, stroma (3) Extended nucleoprotein fibre, nucleolus, nuclear matrix (4) Condensed chromatin, sub-spherical nucleoli, matrix

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132. Choose correct option for the stroma (A) and thylakoid (B) (1) A–Light reaction B–Dark reaction (2) A–Carbohydrate synthesis B–Dark reaction (3) A–Protein synthesis B–Light reaction (4) A–Dark reaction B–Protein synthesis 133. Food vacuole is formed by fusion of (1) Phagosome + Lysosome (2) Food vesicle + Ribosome (3) Phagosome + Centrosome (4) Food vesicle + Sphaerosome 134. During cell cycle the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication: a. Is metabolically active b. Involves cell growth c. Involves centriole duplication d. Involves chromosome replication Choose the correct option (1) a and b (2) a and c (3) b and c (4) c and d 135. Choose incorrect option with respect to cell cycle (1) Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic increase occurs continuously (2) DNA synthesis occurs during specific stage (3) Events are not under genetic control (4) Cell duplicates its genome once 136. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of transverse section of gut

A C B D E

Choose the option which is correct for the layers labelled as A, B, C, D and E (1) A – Serosa B – Longitudinal muscle layer C – Circular muscle layer D – Mucosa E – Submucosa (2) A – Mucosa B – Circular muscle layer C – Longitudinal muscle layer D – Submucosa E – Serosa (3) A – Serosa B – Circular muscle layer C – Longitudinal muscle layer D – Submucosa E – Mucosa (4) A – Serosa B – Longitudinal muscle layer C – Circular muscle layer D – Submucosa E – Mucosa 137. All of the following hormones are secreted by duodenum except (1) Gastrin (2) Secretin (3) GIP (4) Duocrinin 138. Find the i n c o r r e c t match with respect to composition of digestive juices (1) Gastric juice – Pepsin, erepsin, g astric lipase (2) Pancreatic juice – Trypsin, carboxypeptidases, ribonuclease (3) Succus entericus – Enterokinase, dipeptidase, sucrase (4) Saliva – Lingual lipase, -amylase 139. Which of the following is not related to Marasmus? (1) Subcutaneous fat is not preserved (2) Oedema is absent (3) Ribs become very prominent (4) Enlarged fatty liver 14/16


140.

incorrect statement with respect to saliva/salivary glands (1) Thiocyanate in saliva is antimicrobial (2) Mumps is a viral infection of parotid salivary glands (3) Submandibular or submaxillary salivary glands secrete maximum amount of saliva and provide their secretion by means of Wharton’s duct (4) Secretion of saliva is increased by sympathetic nervous system 141. Which of the following functions as true stomach in ruminants? (1) Abomasum (2) Rumen (3) Omasum (4) Both (1) and (2) 142. Consider the following a. Trypsin b. Carboxypeptidase c. Steapsin d. Amylopsin The enzyme/s not initially secreted as zymogen is/are (1) a only (2) a and b (3) c and d (4) d only 143. Select the incorrect statement with respect to Find the

Emphysema

(1) It is a chronic obstructive disease of lungs, causing irreversible, distension and loss of elasticity of alveoli (2) The alveolar sac remains filled with air even after expiration (3) Bronchodilators, antibiotics and oxygen therapy are used to treat emphysema. It can be cured permanently (4) Conditions of emphysema are mainly due to cigarette smoking 144. The epithelial lining of alveoli consist of two types of cells called as pneumocyte type - I and pneumocyte type - II. Type II pneumocytes (1) Are columnar epithelial cells (2) Form the site of gaseous exchange between alveolus and blood (3) Constitute about 95% of total number of cells (4) Secrete alveolar fluid and surfactant


145. Given below are the partial pressures (in mmHg) of oxygen and carbondioxide at different parts involved in diffusion in comparison to those in atmosphere. Respiratory Atmospheric Alveoli gas air

Body Blood Tissues (deoxyge- (Oxygenated) nated)

O2

159

B

40

D

40

CO 2

A

40

C

40

45

Choose the correct option with respect to the values of partial pressures (in mmHg) marked as A, B, C and D A

B

C

D

(1) 0.3 104 40 52 (2) 32 116 45 45 (3) 0.3 104 45 95 (4) 32 116 45 95 146. Which of the following is an unpaired cartilage of the human larynx? (1) Cartilage of santorini (2) Cricoid cartilage (3) Corniculate cartilage (4) Cuneiform cartilage 147. Normal expiration involves (1) Contraction of diaphragm (2) Contraction of abdominal muscles (3) Relaxation of phrenic muscles (4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles 148. Trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi at the level of (1) 2nd thoracic vertebrae (2) 5th thoracic vertebrae (3) 7th thoracic vertebrae (4) 10th thoracic vertebrae 149. Select the incorrect statement with respect to Lymph (1) It has more amount of CO 2 and wastes as that in plasma (2) It is a colourless fluid containing abundant lymphocytes which are responsible for immune responses of the body (3) It lacks proteins and RBCs (4) Like blood, lymph can also clot but slowly

15/16



150. During each cardiac cycle, the SAN generates action potential which stimulates both atria to undergo simultaneous contraction. The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricle by about (1) 60% (2) 30% (3) 40% (4) 75% 151. ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle. Mark the correct statement regarding specific electrical activity of the heart (1) The contraction of the ventricles start shortly after S-wave (2) The end of the T-wave marks the end of ventricular systole (3) QRS complex represents the return of ventricles from excited to normal state (4) T-wave represents repolarisation of atria 152. Read the following statements having four blanks A, B, C and D. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pumps out approximately A of blood which is called as

B . The first heart sound (lubb) is associated with the closure of C , whereas, the second heart sound ‘dup’, is associated with closure of D . The correct option for blanks A, B, C and D is A

B

(1) 5 litres Cardiac output (2) 5 litres Cardiac output (3) 70 ml Stroke volume

C

D

AV valves

Semilunar valves AV v alv es

Semilunar valves Tricuspid Semilunar and bicuspid valves valves (4) 70 ml Cardiac AV Semilunar output valves valves 153. Which of the following reaction/s is/are catalysed by brush border enzymes? a. Maltose

Maltase

b. Nucleosides c. Starch

Glucose + Glucose

Nucleosidases

Amylase

Sugar + Bases

Disaccharides

d. Nucleic acid Nucleases Nucleotides Choose the correct option (1) a only (2) a and b only (3) a, b and c only (4) a, b, c and d 154. Which gastric gland cells in humans produce factor essential for absorption of B 12? (1) Peptic cells

(2) Mucus neck cells

(3) Oxyntic cells

(4) Chief cells

155. Blood enters into liver through two sources. Which source supplies nutrient rich but deoxygenated blood from intestine to liver before it is delivered to the systemic circulation? (1) Hepatic artery

(2) Hepatic vein

(3) Hepatic portal vein (4) Mesenteric artery 156. If the incision is done in the small intestine in which order would the physician encounter the layers from outside to inside? a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Serosa d. Muscularis externa e. Muscularis mucosa (1) a - e - b - d - c (2) a - b - d - e - c (3) c - d - b - e - a (4) b - a - e - d - c 157. Which duodenal glands or cell secretion neutralise gastric acid and protects the lining of the duodenum? (1) Brunners gland (2) Parietal cells (3) Paneth cell (4) Oxyntic cells 158. When there is abnormal f requency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of faecal discharge, reducing the absorption of food it is called as (1) Diarrhoea (2) Constipation (3) Indigestion (4) Vomiting 159. Chymotrypsinogen of pancreatic juice is activated to chymotrypsin by (1) HCl (2) Enterokinase (3) Trypsin (4) Enterocrinin 160. Bohr’s effect promotes ___X___ and Haldane effect __Y___ (1) X – O2 dissociation Y – CO2 dissociation (2) X – O2 association Y – CO2 dissociation (3) X – CO2 association Y – CO2 dissociation (4) X – CO2 dissociation Y – O2 dissociation 16/16


161. Following is the oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve. Mark the conditions in which that curve will shift from A to B. n i b o l g o m e a h f o n o i t a r u t a s e g a t n e c r e P

Partial pressure of oxygen (mm Hg)

a. Increase in BPG. b. Increase in partial pressure of carbon dioxide. c. Low temperature. d. Increase in pH, blood becomes more alkaline. (1) a, b (2) b, c (3) c, d (4) a, d 162. Exchange of O 2 and CO 2 at the alveoli and tissues occur by diffusion. Rate of diffusion is dependent on a. The partial pressure gradients of O 2 (pO2) and CO2 (pCO2). b. Solubility of gases. c. Thickness of the diffusion surface. Choose the correct option (1) a only (2) a and b (3) b only (4) a, b and c 163. Which centre of respiration is primarily meant to limit inspiration and can moderate the functions of the respiratory rhythm centre? (1) Apneustic centre (2) Pneumotaxic centre (3) Dorsal respiratory group (4) Ventral respiratory group 164. In which of the following disease, alveolar walls are damaged alveoli remain filled with air even after expiration and there is no permanent cure for the disease? (1) Asthma (2) Emphysema (3) Pneumonia (4) Bronchitis


165. During expiration, how many barriers CO 2 cross in the course of journey from capillaries to alveoli? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Six 166. Occupational lung disease is characterised by (1) Collapsing of alveoli (2) Proliferation of fibrous tissue in the upper part of lungs (3) Accumulation of fluid in pleural cavity (4) Excessive secretion of mucus in alveoli 167. Which chamber of heart has thickest wall? (1) Right atrium (2) Left atrium (3) Right ventricle (4) Left ventricle 168. If the blood flow in the wall of heart is inadequate due to obstruction of coronary artery. In ECG the ST segment is depressed which disorder is the person is suffering from (1) Myocardial ischaemia (2) Angina pectoris (3) Heart failure (4) Myocardial infraction 169. Which of the following are thread like tendons of papillary muscles inserted upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid valve? (1) Trabeculae carneae (2) Columnae carneae (3) Chordae tendinae (4) Moderator band 170. In a normal ECG, waves of deflection are represented by symbol PQRST. Which of these waves have tallest upward deflection? (1) P wave (2) Q wave (3) T wave (4) R wave 171. In double circulation, there is a complete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. In this case part of blood enters to lungs for oxygenation. Blood will return to heart from lungs in (1) Right ventricle (2) Left ventricle (3) Right auricle (4) Left atrium 172. Which of the following statement is correct ? (1) Sinoatrial node is known as heart of heart (2) The disorder in the SA node is known as Stokes - Adam syndrome (3) The purkinje fibres have highest resting potential (4) The fall in the blood pressure causes stroke

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173. The intrapulmonary pressure becomes negative with respect to atmospheric pressure during (1) Normal quiet inspiration only (2) Normal quiet expiration only (3) Normal quiet inspiration and forced inspiration (4) Forced inspiration and expiration 174. If a molecule of CO2 released into the blood in your left toe is exhaled from your nose, it must pass through all of the following, except a. The pulmonary vein b. An alveolus c. The right atrium d. The right ventricle e. The trachea (1) a and d (2) c and d (3) Only a (4) Only b 175. The air from outside moves into the lungs when (1) Pulmonary volume decreases and intrapulmonary pressure increases (2) Pulmonary volume increases and intrapulmonary pressure decreases (3) Diaphragm becomes more arched due to relaxation of phrenic muscles (4) Ribs and sternum move downward and inward 176. Which of the following statements is true regarding the given figure?

(3) Volume of thorax is increased (4) Ribs and sternum are raised 177. In the following table of secretory products of the stomach, choose the incorrect option.

178. Which of the following is not a matching pair? (1) Kupffer cells – Phagocytic cells in liver (2) Peyer’s patches– Lymphoid tissue in ileum (3) Haustra – Outpouchings in wall of colon (4) Villi – Present in colon to maximise absorption of water, minerals and vitamins 179. The upper surface of the tongue has small projections called papillae which bear taste buds. Which of the following taste papillae are largest in size and present on the posterior side of tongue? (1) Foliate (2) Fungiform (3) Vallate (4) Filiform 180. Choose the set of enzymes which are functional in alkaline medium? (1) Lipase, aminopeptidase, rennin (2) Ptyalin, pepsin, trypsin (3) Amylopsin, lipase, carboxypeptidase (4) DNase, rennin, chymotrypsin

(1) Diaphragm is contracted (2) Diaphragm is relaxed







18/16

ANSWERS OF AIATS PRACTICE PAPER - 3 2015 CODE-A 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. 34. 35. 36.

(1) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (1) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (2) (1) (1) (2) (2) (4) (2) (3) (2) (1) (3) (3) (1) (4) (1) (3) (3) (3) (1) (2) (1) (1) (1) (4)

37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50. 51. 52. 53. 54. 55. 56. 57. 58. 59. 60. 61. 62. 63. 64. 65. 66. 67. 68. 69. 70. 71. 72.

(3) (4) (2) (1) (4) (1) (3) (4) (1) (2) (2) (2) (1) (4) (1) (2) (2) (2) (3) (3) (2) (1) (1) (4) (1) (4) (1) (1) (4) (4) (1) (4) (4) (1) (4) (4)

73. 74. 75. 76. 77. 78. 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. 87. 88. 89. 90. 91. 92. 93. 94. 95. 96. 97. 98. 99. 100. 101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108.

(4) (2) (3) (3) (4) (1) (4) (4) (3) (4) (2) (4) (4) (3) (2) (4) (4) (4) (4) (3) (3) (3) (2) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4) (3) (3) (3) (3) (2) (2) (4) (4)

109. 110. 111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120. 121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. 131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 143. 144.

(3) (2) (4) (2) (1) (3) (3) (2) (1) (4) (2) (4) (2) (3) (4) (4) (1) (3) (4) (3) (4) (3) (3) (3) (1) (1) (3) (4) (1) (1) (4) (4) (1) (3) (3) (4)

145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150. 151. 152. 153. 154. 155. 156. 157. 158. 159. 160. 161. 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. 168. 169. 170. 171. 172. 173. 174. 175. 176. 177. 178. 179. 180.

(3) (2) (3) (2) (3) (2) (2) (3) (2) (3) (3) (3) (1) (1) (3) (1) (1) (4) (2) (2) (3) (2) (4) (1) (3) (4) (4) (1) (3) (3) (2) (2) (4) (4) (3) (3)

Practice Test-03 of AIATS Medical-2015 (Code-A)

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