Ophthalmology MCQs With Answer

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university

Ophthalmology MCQs Questions Bank With answer

1


CONJUNCTIVA Dr Osama shalaby 1- Conjunctival injection is characterized by the following except: a-Bright red colour. b-Movable.

c-Not affected by vasoconstrictors.

C

d-Individual vessels are easily distinguished. 2- One of these is not manifested by ciliary injection: a-Corneal ulcer

b-Viral conjunctivitis.

B

c-Acute congestive glaucoma. d-Acute iridocyclitis. 3- Persistent unilateral conjunctivitis is usually due to: a-Purulent conjunctivitis. b-Chronic dacryocystitis. c-Mucopurulent conjunctivitis. d-Foreign body.

B

4- In ophthalmia neonatorum, all are true except:

a-Caused by birth trauma.

A

b-Frequently caused by gonococcal infection. c-Maternal infection plays a role. d-Silver nitrate drops were used as a prophylaxis. 5- All the following can be caused by chlamydial infection except: a-Ophthalmia neonatorum b-Trachoma. c-Inclusion Conjunctivitis.

d-Central corneal ulcer.

D

6- These organisms can be seen normally in the conjunctiva: a-Koch- Weeks bacillus. b-Pneumococci.

c-Corynobacterium xerosis.

C

d-Corynobacterium diphtheria. 7- Most common organism in purulent conjunctivitis is: a-Pneumococci. b-Streptococci. 2


c-Gonococci. d-Herpes simplex virus.

C

8- Subconjunctival hemorrhage is not caused by: a-Trauma.

b-Mucopurulent conjunctivitis.

b

c-Adenoviral infection. d-Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis. 9- Which is true about vernal conjunctivitis : a-Always unilateral.

b-Usually occurs in young boys.

b

c-Antibiotic drops are the main therapy. d-Main symptom is foreign body sensation. 10- Patient presented with itching, lacrimation, excoriation and macerated outer canthus, the claimed organism is: a-Morax Axenfeld diplobacillus. a b-Haemophylus influenza. c-Pnumococci.. d-Koch- Weeks diplobacillus. 11- Old asthmatic hypertensive patient, presented with severe red eye after acute attack of cough, most propably may be due to: a-Corneal abrasion. b-Acute conjunctivitis. c

c-Spontaneous subconjunctival hemorrhage. d-Acute iritis. 12- All are sure signs of trachoma except: a-Arlt’s line.

b-Papillae of upper tarsal conjunctiva.

b

c-Herbert’s Pits. d-Expressible follicles. 13- Itching is common with: a-Spring catarrh. b-Trachoma. c-Mucopurulrnt conjunctivitis. d-Corneal ulcer.

a

14- The secretions of spring catarrh are rich in: 3


a-Eosinophils.

a

b-Neutrophils. c-Basophils. d-Lymphocytes. 15- Pinguecula is: a-Fatty degeneration. b-Hyaline degeneration.

c-Elastoid hyaline degeneration.

c

d-Elastoid degeneration. 16- Giant papillary conjunctivitis can be caused by the following except: a-Artificial prosthesis. b-Spring catarrh. c-Contact lens wear. d

d-Acute conjunctivitis. 17- Topical treatment used for phlyctenular conjunctivitis is: a-Antibiotic drops. b-Vasoconstrictor drops.

c-Corticosteroid drops.

c

d-Antiviral drops. 18- These may cause pterygium, except: a-Exposure to ultra violet rays.

b-Viral infection.

b

c-Pinguecula. d-Living in tropical area. 19- Patient had a pterygium, excised since one month, and starts to see double vision, this may be due to: a-Medial rectus weakness. b-Lateral rectus paralysis.

c-Symblepharon formation

c

d-Recurrence. 20- These treatments are useful in preventing the recurrence after pterygium excision except:

a-Topical antibiotics. b-Topical corticosteroids. c-Beta irradiation.

a

4


d-5 FU eye drops. 21- Which of the following is specific for the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis? a-Eye redness

b-Itching c-Foreign body sensation d-Excessive lacrimation

b

********************************************************************** EYE LID Dr Osama shalaby 22-A patient suffered from acute onset of facial palsy, the first line of treatment is:

a-Frequent ocular lubrication. b-Lateral tarsorrhaphy c-Topical corticosteroids. d-Levator muscle resection.

a

23- The levator palpebrae superioris is inserted into the following structures except: a-Skin of upper eye lid b-Upper border of tarsus

c-Bulbar conjunctiva d-Medial orbital margin & medial palpebral ligament

c

24- Rolling in of the lower lid margin can be due to: a-Thermal injury of lid skin b-Facial palsy

c-Trachoma

c

d-Ophthalmoplegia 25- The most important examination in case of congenital ptosis is: a-The state of extraocular muscles b-Fundus examination

c-Amount of levator function

c

d-Pupillary light reflex

26- Stye is an acute suppurative inflammation of: a-Meibomian glands b-Accessory lacrimal glands

c-Zeiss glands of the lash follicles

c 5


d-Lid margin 27- A female patient C / O diffuse hyperemic lid margin with multiple grayish yellow crustations covering the lashes. The best treatment is: a-Epilation of affected lashes b-Electrolysis

c-Hot fomentations and local antibiotics

c

d-Systemic corticosteroids 28- In recurrent squamous blepharitis you should: a-Give long acting corticosteroids b-Give long acting antibiotics

c

c-Correct any refractive errors d-Give maintenance dose of vitamins. 29- Chalazion is defined as: a-Acute suppurative inflammation of meibomian glands b-Chronic suppurative inflammation of meibomian glands

c

c-Chronic inflammatory lipogranuloma of meibomian glands. d-Chronic non granulomatous inflammation of meibomian glands 30- Chalazion can cause the following complications except: a-Irrigular astigmatism b-Mechanical ptosis

c-Anterior uveitis d-Internal hordeolum

c

31- A male patient is C / O chronic eye lid redness and frequent loss of lashes. The most propable diagnosis is a-Cicatricial entropion b-Squamous blepharitis c

c-Ulcerative blepharitis d-Active trachoma 32- A case presented with hypermic lid margin, matting of eye lashes, yellow crustations. The treatment include all the following except: a-Local lid hygeine b-Rubbing the lid margin by antibiotic ointment

c-Elctrolysis

c

d-Systemic antibiotic 33- Epilation of maldirected lashes is indicated in: 6


a-When the number is less than four b-When the lashes are close together

c-In presence of acute corneal ulcer

c

d-In cases of high refractive error. 34- Congenital ptosis may be associated with the following congenital anomalies except: a-Blepharophimosis b-Telecanthus c-Epicanthus d

d-Naso lacrimal duct obstruction. 35- Complications of congenital causes include the following except: a-Ocular torticollis. b-Amblyopia.

c-Complicated cataract.

c

d-Anbormal head posture. 36- Lagophthalmos can be caused by the following except: a-Hyperthyroidism. b-Facial palsy.

c-Severe entropion

c

d-Lid coloboma. 37- The commonest cause of bilateral ptosis is: a-Horner syndrome. b-Third nerve palsy.

c-Congenital

c

d-Mechanical. 38- Lid splitting and everting sutures is an operation used for the correction of: a-Pure trichiasis of the upper eye lid.

b-Trichiasis and entropion of the upper eye lid. c-Ectropion of the lower eye lid. d-Paralytic entropion of the lower eye lid.

b

39- All these are true about ulcerative blepharitis except: a-Can cause madarosis. b-Can be complicated by ulcerative keratitis.

c-Can be caused by Morax Axenfeld bacillus.

c

d-Can be treated by antibiotics.

7


40- A 65 ys old patient had recurrence of chalazion after removal from the same site two times. The best management is: a-Systemic antibiotic and steroids.

b-Excision and histopathological evaluation. c-Excision and curette evacuation. d-Excision and cautery of the edges.

b

41- A patient has about 10 maldirected localized lashes of the upper eye lid. The treatment of choice is: a-Snellen’s operation.

b-Lid splitting and cryo application. c-Epilation d-Weiss procedure.

b

42- Fasaenella operation for ptosis is carried out in cases with: a-Severe ptosis. Levator action less than 5 mm. b-Moderate ptosis. Levator action 5-8 mm.

c-Mild ptosis. Levator action more than 8 mm.

c

d-None of above. 43- Incision and curette of chalazion should be.

a-Vertical. b-Horizontal. c-Any shape. d-circular.

a

44- Grey line indicates a tissue plane between:

a-Skin muscle layer & tarsus conjunctival layer. b-Tarsus & canjunctiva. c-Skin & meibomian glands. d-Palpebral conjunctiva & meibomian gland orifices.

a

45- Ankyloblepharon is : a-The adhesion of the lids. b-The adhesion between palpebral and bulbar canjunctiva.

c-The adhesion of the margins of the two lids.

c

d-All of the above. 46- Glands of Zeis are: a-Modified sweat glands.

b-Modified sebaceous glands.

b

c-Modified meibomian glands. 8


d-None of above. 47- Levator palpebrae is inserted into: a-Upper border of the tarsus. b-Skin of upper lid. c-Upper fornix.

d

d-All of above. 48- Hordeolum externum is an acute suppurative inflammation of:

a-Gland of Zeis. b- Gland of Moll. c- Gland of Wolfring. d- Gland of Krause.

a

49- All of the following types of entropion are known except: a-Spastic entropian. b-Senile entropion.

c-Paralytic entropion. d-Cicatricial entropion.

c

50- The amount of normal levator function is : a-5 mm. b-8 mm. c-25 mm.

d-13 mm .

d

51- In brow suspension operation of ptosis, the best suspension material is :

a-Fascia lata. b-Supramid. c-Prolene. d-Silicone.

a

53- All of the following are the causes of lagophthalmus except: a-Facial nerve palsy. b-Proptosis. c-Lid fibrosis.

d- Third nerve paralysis.

d

*********************************************************************** OCULAR TRAUMA Dr Osama shalaby 9


54- A 30 ys old patient was subjected to face burn with strong acid, two months later he presented with watering and inability to close his left eye. The explanation of this may be: a-Mechanical ectropion. b-Cicatricial ectropion. c-Paralytic ectropion. b d-Corneal ulcer. 55- A patient subjected to vertical lid wound, he is unable to to close his eye properly. This condition can lead to: a-Corneal scarring

b-Exposure keratopathy. c-Vascularized corneal scar. d-Corneal pannus.

b

56- The first line of treatment in acid burn of the eye is: a-Eye patching.

b-Immediate wash with plain water. c-Instilling local antibiotic drops. d-Neutralization of the acid with alkali.

b

57- A 10 ys old boy, received blunt ocular trauma by tennis ball to his right eye, you will expect to have: a-Hypopion ulcer. b-Blood staining of the cornea.

c-Hyphema.

c

d-Tractional retinal detachment. 58- A patient had penetrating eye injury in the right eye, the first aid management is: a-Washing with plain water.

b-Sterile eye bandage. c-Application of antibiotic ointment. d-Instilling atropine eye drops.

b

59- A patient is C / O monocular diplopia after blunt ocular trauma, the following could cause this except: a-Sublaxated lens. b-Iridodialysis.

c-Traumatic hyphema.

c

d-Incipient immature cataract. 11


60- A patient had blunt ocular trauma, now he is C / O severe visual defect, the cause of this may be due to: a-Anteflexion of the pupil.

b-Berlin’s edema. c-Conjunctival chemosis. d-Angle recession.

b

61- Blunt ocular trauma commonly results in: a-Blue dot cataract. b-Anterior subcapsular cataract.

c-Posterior subcapsular cataract.

c

d-Coronary cataract. 62- A patient with a history of blunt trauma to the left eye C / O double vision that disappears on covering the left eye & persists on covering the right eye. Examination of this patient would reveal: a-Miotic pupil. b-Ectropion uveae.

c-Pupil showing lens equator.

c

d-Dilated pupil. 63- Trauma to the eye cannot cause: a-Vitreous hemorrhage. b-Macular edema.

c-Central retinal vein occlusion.

c

d-Retinal breaks. 64- A patient had blunt ocular trauma & C / O double vision that disappears on covering either eye. The cause might be: a-Orbital hematoma. b-Corneal edema.

c-Orbital blow out fracture.

c

d-Iridodialysis. 65- A aptient had history of blunt ocular trauma 3 months ago, now is C / O severe headache due to increased intraocular pressure.the most important diagnistic tool is: a-Automated field of vision . b-Manual field of vision.

c-Gonioscopic examination.

c

d-Fundus examination. 11


66- A patient with recent history of ocular trauma & C/ O blurry vision.ocular motility was normal, the most needed investigation is: a-Ocular ultrasound. b-Fluorescein angiography. c-Field of vision. d

d-Performing CT brain. 67- Etiology of sympathetic ophthalmia is: a-Viral

b-Allergic c-Bacterial d-None

b

68- Prodromal symptoms of sympathetic ophthalmia is: a-Pain b-Redness

c-Photophobia d-lacrimation

c

69- Sympathetic ophthalmia is rarely seen in: a-Corneo scleral wounds b-PECCE.

c-Acute suppuration

c

d-Iris encarceration. 70- Retained Intra Orbital FB may not be removed if a-Sterile & inert b-Mild visual affection c-Its removal will affect the vision.

d-All of the above.

d

71- Metallic IOFB can be localized by the following methods except a-Limbal ring & X ray b-CT scan c-US

d-MRI

d

72- Pathognomonic sign of IOFB a-Corneal wound

b-Root in the iris c-Traumatic cataract 12


d-hyphema

b

73- In siderosis bulbi, iron gets: a-Deposited in membranes b-Combined with cell proteins

c-Both

c

d-None 74- The following iris lesions caused by blunt trauma except: a-Aniridia b-Anteflexion c-Retroflection

d-Heterochromia iridum

d

75- The weakest part of the eye affected by blunt trauma is:

a-Canal of Schlemm b-Muscle insertion c-Equator d-Lens zonules

a

76- Blunt trauma coming down & out, the sclera ruptures: a-Down & out. b-Up & out.

c-up &in

c

d-Down & in. 77- Worker with arc light is exposed to:

a-UVR corneal burn. b-Infra red heat burn. c-Gamma radiation. d-X ray radiation.

a

78- Which of the following conditions does NOT require emergency ophthalmological management? a-Anterior uveitis b-Acute angle-closure glaucoma

c-Orbital floor fracture

c

d-Orbital cellulitis 79- Solar viewing during an eclipse can cause: a-Corneal ulcer b-Orbital cellulitis 13


c-Macular burn

c

d-Retinal tear 80- Patient had right maxillary tumours treated successfully with multiple doses of radiotherapy, after that he noted dramatic decrease of visual acuity of the right eye, the explanation of this may be due to:

a-Complicated cataract. b-Anterior uveitis. c-Central retinal vein thrombosis. d-Acute congestive glaucoma.

a

81- Which of the following is not advised in the early management of a patient with hyphema? a-Admission to hospital.

b-Cycloplegics.

b

c-IOP lowering agents. d-None of the above. *********************************************************************** Error of refraction Dr Moataz Sabry 82-All of the following are true about the nodal point of the eye except:

a-Rays undergo refraction b-Lies just anterior to the posterior pole of the lens c-Optic and visual axis intersect at the nodal point d-Optical center of the eye.

a

83-In Emmetropia parallel rays come to a focus: a-Behind the retina. b-Infront of the retina.

c-On the retina.

c

d-Might be all of the above. 84-The term Ametropia refers to: a-Myopia b-Hypermetropia c-Asigmatism

d

d-All of the above. 85-All of the following is true about Angle alpha except: 14


a-Angle between optic and visual axes.

b-Always positive in myopia. c-Lies at the nodal point of the eye. d-More than 5 degrees in hypermetropia.

b

86-In hypermetropia parallel rays come to a focus: a-On the retina

b-Behind the retina c-Infront of the retina. d-All of the above.

b

87-All of the following is true about hyperopic eye except: a-Small axial length.

b-Deep anterior chamber.

b

c-Flat cornea d-Positive angle alpha. 88-The term manifest hypermetropia means:

a-Hypermetropia without atropine. b-Hypermetropia with atropine. c-Hypermetropia with ciliary muscle paralysis. d-Hypermetropia corrected by accommodation.

a

89-In myopia parallel rays come to a focus: a-On the retina b-Behind the retina

c-Infront of the retina.

c

d-All of the above. 90-All of the following is true about myopic eye except:

a-Small axial length. b-Deep anterior chamber. c-Steep cornea d-High refractive power.

a

91-All of the following is true about progressive myopia except: a-Starts at younger age.

b-Stabilizes around the age of 18 years old. c-Reaches higher degrees. d-Associated with retinal complications.

b

92-All of the following are types of myopia except: 15


A-Simple myopia.

b-Facultative myopia. c-Congenital myopia. d-Progressive myopia.

b

93-Progressive myopia might be associated with the following except: a-Tigroid fundus.

b-Pseudo-papillitis. c-Myopic crescent d-Posterior staphyloma.

b

94-All of the following is true about astigmatism except:

a-Parallel rays come to a point focus on the retina. b-Might be regular or irregular. c-Might be congenital of postoperative. d-All of the above.

a

95-Astigmatism with rule is: a-Less common than against the rule.

b-Vertical meridian more curved. c-Horizontal meridian more curved. d-None of the above.

b

96-All of the following is true about irregular astigmatism except:

a-Could be corrected with glasses. b-Could be corrected with rigid lenes. c-Occurs with corneal opacities. d-Occurs with keratoconus.

a

97-In glasses for simple regular astigmatism we use:

a-Sphero-cylindrical lenses. b-Cylindrical lenses. c-Convex lenses. d-Concave lenses.

a

98-In glasses for compound regular astigmatism we use: a-Sphero-cylindrical lenses.

b-Cylindrical lenses. c-Convex lenses. d-Concave lenses.

b

99-All of the following is correct about anisometropia except: 16


a-Difference in refraction between both eyes.

b-Best corrected with glasses.

b

c-Might lead to amblyopia. d-Might be congenital. 100-The following are factors affecting the onset of presbyopia: a-Age b-Refractive error. c-Preferred working distance.

d

d-All of the above. *********************************************************************** Eye Systemic Diseases Dr. Ahmed Lotfy 101-Snow flakes cataract is found in cases with  a) gout  b) rheumatoid arthritis

 c) diabetes mellitus

c

 d) hypothyroidism 102-Bitemporal hemianopia is due to  a) cavernous sinus thrombosis

 b) pituitary gland tumours

b

 c) orbital apex syndrome  d) pineal body tumour 103-Hyperglycemia may cause  a) index hypermetropia

 b) index myopia

b

 c) axial hypermetropia  d) axial myopia

104-Bitot,s spots may be caused by  a) vernal keratoconjunctivitis

 b) vit A deficiency

b

 c) vit B deficiency  d) trachoma 105-Thyroid orbital myopathy affects 17


 a) the lateral rectus then the superior rectus muscles

b

 b) the inferior rectus then the medial rectus muscles  c) the medial rectus then the superior rectus muscles 106-Termination of pregnancy in cases of eclampsia is indicated when  a) there is microangiopathy

 b) there is vaso dilatation

b

 c) there is retinal infarction and exudative retinal detachment  107-Scleral show and upper lid retraction may be caused by  a) Horner syndrome

 b) Hyperthyroidism

b

 c) entropion 108-Right optic nerve atrophy and left papilledema may be caused by  a) Right occipital lobe mass  b) Left occipital lobe mass

 c) Right frontal lobe mass

c

 d) Left frontal lobe mass

Glucoma Dr. Tarek Ragaey 109-Which of the following is TRUE concerning the intraocular pressure? a. It varies during the day with a peak in the early morning b. Normal value is 10-21 mmHg c. It can be normal in patients with glaucoma E d. A and B only e. All of the above 110-Which of the following is not a sign of acute angle-closure glaucoma: A. Constricted, rounded pupil B. Shallow anterior chamber C. Ciliary congestion D. High intraocular pressure a E. Corneal epithelial edema 111-An early sign of congenital glaucoma is : 18


A. Amblyopia B. Corneal edema C. Leukocoria D. Ptosis

b

112-All of the following are true concerning open angle glaucoma except: A. IOP above 25 mm Hg. B. Cup/disc ratio of 0.8 C. Visual fields are normal D. Parents has glaucoma c 113-Secondary angle closure glaucoma may be associated with all of the following except: A. Intumescent cataract B. Uveitis C. Pigmentary glaucoma c D. Anterior lens dislocation

114-The procedure of choice after medical control of acute angle closure glaucoma is: A. Laser iridotomy B. Goniotomy a C. cyclophotocoagulation 115-Pigmentary glaucoma is characterized by all of the following except: A. Iris transillumination defect B. Krukenberg spindle\ C. The anterior chamber angle is closed c D. High Intraocular pressure 116-All of the following are signs of congenital glaucoma except: A. The cornea is enlarged B. Habb`s striae C. The anterior chamber is shallow c D. IOP is usually high

117-The color of the pupil in Acute congestive glaucoma is: A. Yellow B. Jet black C. Grayish white

E 19


D. Brown E. Greenish blue 118-Neovascular glaucoma is due to all of the following except : A. Proliferative Diabetic retinopathy B. CRVO C. Chronoic uveitis D. Mature senile cataract 119-Goniotomy is Indicated in: A. POAG after failure of medical treatment B. Narrow angle glaucoma after failure of LPI C C. Congenital glaucoma with clear cornea and diameter less than 13 mm. D. Congenital glaucoma with corneal cloudiness.

120-Epiphora, photophobia and blepharospasm in a newly born infant occurs in: A. Congenital naso-lacrimal duct obstruction. B. Ocular inflammation (e.g. uveitis) C. Corneal injury (e.g. abrasion) E D. Congenital glaucoma E. All of the above 121-All of the following are causes of lens induced glaucoma except: A. lens-protein glaucoma (phacolytic, macrophage-induced ) B. Phacoanaphylactic C. Intumescent cataract D. Lens dislocation E E. Nuclear sclerosis 123-Trabeculectomy is indicated in: A. POAG after faliure of medical tretment B. Narrow Angle Glaucoma after faliure of LPI C. Congenital glaucoma after failure of goniotomy and trabeculotomy D. All of the above 124-RING scotoma is a characteristic field defect in: A. Severe primary open angle glaucoma B. Retinitis pigmentosa C. Pitutary adenoma D. All of the above E. A and B

D

E

21


125- All these drugs decrease aqueous production except: A. Timolol B. Prostaglandins B D. Acetazolamide E. NONSELECTIVE α -ADRENERGIC AGONISTS 126-Interventions to decrease the IOP in patients with acute angle closure glaucoma include: A. Acetazolamide B. Mannitol C. Laser peripheral iridotomy E D. Pilocarpine eye drops E. All of the above ***********************************************************************

CORNEA Dr Waleed A. Allam

127- If the average radius of curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea is 8 mm, a radius of 8.2 mm in all meridia results in:

a-Myopia. b-Hypermetropia. c-Simple myopic astigmatism. B d-Compound hypermetropic astigmatism. e-No changes. ……………………………………………………………………………………………... 128- The cornea represents …………. of the total diopteric power of the eye. a-1/2 b-3/4 c-2/3 d-4/5 e-Non of the above. ………………………………………………………………………………………… 129- Descemet’s Membrane is characterized by: a-Easily destroyed, and can regenerate. b-Easily destroyed, and never regenerates. E 21


c-Resistant to destruction, and can regenerate. d-Resistant to destruction, and never regenerates. e-Non of the above. …………………………………………………………………………………………… 130- The substantia propria of the cornea proper receives its blood supply from: a-Medial and lateral palpebral arteries. b-Anterior ciliary arteries. c-Circulus arteriosus major. E d-Circulus arteriosus minor.

e-Non of the above. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 131- the corneal touch reflex involves the following cranial nerves: a-II and III. b-II and IV. c-V and III. d-V and VI. E

e-V and VII. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 132- The corneal light reflex depends on the following, except: a-Healthy tear film. b-The convex mirror property of the cornea.

c-Corneal nerve fibers are demyelinated.

C

d-Intact corneal epithelium. e-The corneal epithelium is non-keratinized. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 133- Corneal transparency results from the following anatomical factors, except: a-The cornea is devoid of blood vessels. b-The cornea is devoid of lymphatic vessels. D c-The corneal nerve fibers are demyelinated. d-The corneal epithelium is non-keratinized simple columnar epithelium. e-The stromal lamellae are regularly arranged. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 134- The direct and immediate consequence of corneal endothelial injury is: a-Corneal vascularization.

b-Corneal edema. c-Corneal hyposthesia. d-Corneal scarring. B e-Corneal ulcer. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 135- The following bacteria can invade an intact corneal epithelium:

a-Gonococci. b-Pneumococci.

A 22


C-Streptococci. d-Staphylococci. e-Pseudomonas. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 136- The following fungus is able to invade an intact corneal epithelium: a-Candida albicans. b-Aspergillus niger. c-Actinomyces bovis. d-Rhizops nigricans. E

e-Non of the above. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 137- Symptoms of corneal involvement include the following, except: a-Lacrimation. b-Pricking pain. c-Blepharospasm. D

d-Corneal edema. e-Photophobia. 138- Ciliary injection is characterized by the following, except:

a-Thick, dilated, tortuous blood vessels. b-Involves the 4 mm circumlimbal area. c-Violecious color. d-Not constricted by adrenaline drops. A e-Accompanies severe intra-ocular infections. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 139- The following facts are true about hypopyon in a case of typical hypopyon corneal ulcer, except: a-Contains large molecular weight proteins.

b-Contains Pneumococci. c-Contains fibrin. d-May elevate the IOP. B e-Indicates associated iridocyclitis. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 140- A patient with central corneal nebula was able to see uncorrected vision of 6/36. If this is a central macula instead, the vision would be: a-6/12 b-6/18 c-6/24 d-6/36 E

e-6/60 …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 141- Leucoma non-adherent is one of the complications of perforating corneal ulcers that may occur in: 23


a-Healed central Descematocele.

b-Small central perforation with no iris prolapse. c-Central dendritic corneal ulcer. B d-Dense central KPs. e-Non of the above. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 142- Fluorescein stain helps diagnose perforating corneal ulcers complicated with fistula formation. Fluorescein will stain: a-Floor of the ulcer. b-Edges of the ulcer.

c-Aqueous humor. d-Dead epithelium. e-Corneal stroma.

C

…………………………………………………………………………………………….. 143- Non-specific treatment of corneal ulcers should include the following, except: a-Mydriatic cycloplegic drops. b-Pain medications.

c-Antibiotics. d-Eye bandage. C e-Heat application. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 144- The following bacteria is responsible for typical hypopyon corneal ulcers: a-Gonococci.

b-Pneumococci. c-Streptococci. d-Staphylococci. B e-Pseudomonas. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 145- Descematocele formation is uncommon with: a-Gonococci.

b-Pneumococci. c-Streptococci. d-Staphylococci. B e-Pseudomonas. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 146- The following are primary non-infective corneal ulcers, except: a-Atheromatous corneal ulcers. b-Neuroparalytic corneal ulcers.

c-Phlyctenular corneal ulcers. d-Keratomalacia.

C 24


e-Mooren’s ulcers. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 147- Pain is a constant feature in corneal ulcers. Pain is most in: a-Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers. b-Herpetic corneal ulcers.

c-Acanthameba corneal ulcers.

C

d-Lagophthalmos corneal ulcers. e-Neuroparalytic corneal ulcers. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 148- Pain is a constant feature in corneal ulcers. Pain is least in: a-Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers. b-Herpetic corneal ulcers.

c-Acanthameba corneal ulcers. d-Lagophthalmos corneal ulcers. e-Neuroparalytic corneal ulcers. 149- Corneal hyposthesia is one of the diagnostic signs of:

C

a-Herpetic corneal ulcers. b-Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers. c-Atypical hypopyon corneal ulcers. A d-Acanthameba corneal ulcers. e-Mooren’s ulcers. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 150- Coagulated (pyramidal) hypopyon is a sign of: a-Herpetic corneal ulcers. b-Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers.

c-Atypical hypopyon corneal ulcers.

C

d-Acanthameba corneal ulcers. e-Mooren’s ulcers. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 151- The following corneal ulcers usually start near the limbus, except: a-Fascicular ulcer. b-Typical trachomatous ulcer.

c-Typical hypopyon ulcer. d-Mooren’s ulcer. C e-Marginal ring ulcer. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 152- Lagophthalmos corneal ulcers usually start at:

a-The lower third of the cornea. b-The middle third of the cornea. c-The upper third of the cornea. d-The center of the cornea. e-Anywhere allover the cornea.

A

25


…………………………………………………………………………………………….. 153- Typical trachomatous corneal ulcers usually start at: a-The lower third of the cornea. b-The middle third of the cornea.

c-The upper third of the cornea. d-The center of the cornea. C e-Anywhere allover the cornea. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 154- Topical steroids are contraindicated in the following conditions, except: a-Typical hypopyon corneal ulcers. b-Fungal corneal ulcers. c-Dendritic corneal ulcers.

d-Herpetic interstitial keratitis.

D

e-Acanthameba corneal ulcers. 155- Non-inflammatory corneal ectasia include: a-Keratectasia.

b-Keratoconus. c-Keratomalacia. B d-All of the above. e-Non of the above. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 156- Pseudocornea is a term used to describe: a-Keratectasia. b-Keratoconus. c-Keratomalacia. D

d-Total anterior staphyloma. e-Non of the above. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 157- Typically, progressive keratoconus leads to the following, except: a-Frequent change of glasses. b-Progressive irregular astigmatism.

c-Progressive hypermetropia.

C

d-Fleisher ring. e-Vogt stria. …………………………………………………………………………………………….. 158- Keratoconus can be managed by the following, except: a-Glasses. b-Rigid contact lenses.

c-LASIK. d-Intracorneal ring segments. e-Penetrating keratoplasty.

C

26


*********************************************************************** MCQs Prof Dr. Ashraf EL-Desouky Single answer pattern True and false pattern Take care of every word in the statement

159-The leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide; • • • • •

a-Senile cataract b-Age related macular degeneration c-Glaucoma d-Diabetic retinopathy

E

e-trachoma

160-The term “mature cataract” means

• a-A nuclear cataract present more than 10 years • b-A posterior subcapsular cataract that reduces visual acuity to 6/60 or worse C • c-A cortical cataract that involves the entire cortex • d-An anterior subcapsular cataract that causes capsular wrinkling.

161-Criteria of mature senile cataract a-Visual acuity HM b-Absent RR c-Absent iris shadow d-All of the above

D

162-Topical steroids are contraindicated in corneal ulcers except:

• • • •

a-Phlectenular fasicular ulcer b-Dendritic ulcer c-Typical hypopyon ulcer d-Atypical hypopyon ulcer

A

163-The commonest sign of Graves’ disease

• a-Exophthalmos • b-Lid retraction

B 27


• c-Diplopia • d-Conjunctival chemosis • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • • •

164-Acute proptosis may be due to a-Trauma b-Orbital cellulitis c-Rhabdomyosarcoma d-All of the above

D

165-Enophthalmos may be due to a-Trauma b-Cachexia c-Post radiotherapy d-Secondaries of breast scirrhus carcinoma e-All of the above

E

166-The commonest cause for night blindness a-Congenital b-Vitamine A deficiency c-Nuclear cataract d-Retinitis pigmentosa e-Liver diseases

A

167-The only staphyloma with normal IOP is a-Partial anterior staphyloma b-Ciliary staphyloma c-Intercalary staphyloma d-Equatorial staphyloma e-Posterior staphyloma

E

168-Ectropion of the upper eyelid may be  a-Senile  b-Paralytic  c-Congenital  d-Non of the above

D

169-Episcleritis is similar to phlycten clinically but differs in being 28


 a-tender  b-flat  c-Pigmented  d-multiple

A

170-Pneumococci can cause  a-Acute dacryocystitis  b-Chronic dacryocystitis  c-Atypical hypopyon ulcer  d-Ulcerative blepharitis

B

171-Staphyloococci can cause  a-Acute dacryocystitis  b-stye  c-Atypical hypopyon ulcer  d-Ulcerative blepharitis  e-All of the above • • • •

E

172-Etiology of ptrygium a-Neoplastic b-Infection c-Inflammation d-degenerative

D

173-Endogenous septic focus may cause All except : • • • •

A-Phlycten B-Hypopyon ulcer C-Iridocyclitis D-Metastatic endophthalmitis

B

174-Optic nerve head in glaucomatous optic atrophy has all except; • • • •

A-Large deep cup B-Interrupted retinal vessels C-Waxy yellow colour D-Overhanging margins

C

29


• • • • • • • • • • • •

175-Doctor sees nothing & patient sees nothing in A-Papillitis B-Papilloedema C-Retrobulbar neuritis (toxic amblyopia) D-All of the above

C

176-Which of the following ttt is used for optic neuritis A-prednisolon B-Observation C-Antibiotics D-Atropine

A

177-Papilloedema leads to: A-Rapid deterioration of vision B-Amaurosis Fugax C-Pain on eye movements D-Early loss of color vision

B

178-Papilloedema leads to the following Feild changes: • • • •

A-Nasal step B-Arcuate scotoma C-Cocentric contraction of peripheral Feild D-Enlarged blind spot

D

179-All are correct except Consecutive optic atrophy occurs in: • A-Degenerative myopia • B-Chorioretinitis • C-CRAO • D-CRV thrombosis

D

180-Afferent pupillary defect occurs in: All except • A-Papillitis • B-Hysteria

B

31


• C-Optic atrphy • D-Retrobulbar neuritis • • • • •

• • • • • • • •

• • • •

181-In a baby with watery eyes which may be the cause; A-Congenital NLD obstruction B-Buphthalmos C-Viral conjunctivitis D-Corneal abrasion E-All of the above

E

182-Rapid painful loss of vision; in all except A-AACG B-Blunt trauma C-Alkali burn D-CRAO

D

183-CILIARY INJECTION; In all except; A-AACG B-CORNEAL ULCEER C-ANTERIOR UVEITIS D-EPISCLERITIS

D

184-All the following are signs of lens sublaxation except; A-Phakodenesis B-Iridodnesis C-Irrigular anterior chamber D-Intact all zonule

D

185-All of the following are lens induced glaucoma except; • • • •

A-Phaco morphic glaucoma B-Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma C-Phacolytic glaucoma D-Neovascular glaucoma

D

31


186-The eye more susceptible to AACG

• • • •

A-Hypermetropic eye B-Myopic eye C-Astigmatic eye D-Aphakic eye

• • • •

A-Gonioscopic examination B-Fundus examination C-Tonometry D-Visual field examination

A

187-In an acute angle closure glaucoma’ the choice of surgery is decided after

• • • • • • • • • • • •

A

188-All of the following are the characteristics of glaucomatus cup except

A-Large deep cup B-Overhanging margins C-Retinal vessels appear broken at the margin D-Lamina criprosa is not visible

D

189-Acetazolamide lowers IOP by A-Decreased aquous production B-Increased aquous drainage C-Lower episcleral venous peressure D-All of above

A

190-B. Blockers lower IOP by A-Decreased aquous production B-Increased aquous drainage C-Lower episcleral venous peressure D-All of above

A

191-Pre auricular lymphadenopathy Occurs with the following conjunctivitis

• A-Vernal keratoconjunctivitis • B-Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis • C-Viral conjunctivitis

C

32


• D-Angular conjunctivitis • • • • •

192-Tremulous iris can be seen in: A-Aphakia B-Sublaxation of the lens C-Hypermature cataract D-Posterior dislocation of the lens E-All of above

E

193-Posterior polar cataract markedly affects vision because: • • • •

A-Its shadow lies on the macula B-Close to the nodal point C-It matures early D-It blocks the pupillary area

B

194-Nuclear cataract changes the refraction of the eye into • • • •

• • • •

A-Myopia B-Hypermetropia C-Astigmatism D-No change

A

195-Most common cause of diminution of vision after phakoemulsificatio is A-Cystoid macular edema B-Posterior capsule opacification C-Corneal decompansation D-Retinal detachment

B

196-The best treatment for Posterior capsule opacification

• • • •

A-Surgical excision B-Laser opening C-Surgical polishing D-Leave alone

B

33


• • • •

197-The type of laser used to treat Posterior capsule opacification A-Yag laser B-Argon laser C-Diode laser D-Excimer laser

A

198-All of the following types of entropion are known except • • • •

A-Spastic entropion B-Senile entropion C-Paralytic entropion D-Cicatricial entropion

C

199-All of the following are causes of lagophthalmos except • • • •

A-Facial nerve palsy B-Proptosis C-Cicatricial ectropion D-Third nerve paralysis

D

200-Corneal ulcers can occur with the following CN disorders • • • •

• • • •

A-VII CN palsy B-III CN affections C-VI CN paralysis D-IV CN paralysis

A

201-Ectropion of the upper lid most commonly; A-Spastic ectropion B-Senile ectropion C-Paralytic ectropion D-Cicatricial ectropion

D

201-Munson’ sign in:

 A-Corneal fistula  B-Corneal dystrophy  C-Keratoconus

C

34


 D-Corneal facet

202-In corneal edema; all are true except;  A-There is increase in corneal diameter  B-There is increase in corneal thickness  C-Cloudy cornea  D-Epthelial bullae  E-Predispose to Corneal vascularization

A

203-Corneal damage with trachoma is due to:  A-trichiasis  B-dryness  C-Lagophthalmos and exposure  D-All of the above

D

204-Double staining pattern of the cornea is characteristic for:  A-Fungal corneal ulcer  B-Herpetic corneal ulcer  C-Exposure keratopathy  D-Acanthaembic corneal ulcer

B

205-Corticosteroids is given in:  A-Bacterial corneal ulcer  B-Herpetic corneal ulcer  C-Fasicular phlyctenular ulcer  D-Stromal fungal keratitis

C

206-Tarrsorraphy is essential in:  A-Bacterial corneal ulcer  B-Viral corneal ulcer  C-Exposure keratopathy  D-Traumatic corneal ulcer

C

207-Blood staining of the cornea is due to:  A-Hyphema  B-Hyphema with rise of IOP  C-Corneal edema  D-Corneal FB

B

208-The pupil in acute Ant. Uveitis is:  A-Constricted 35


 B-Dilated  C-Festooned  D-Vertically oval

A

209-Infective corneal ulcers include all except:  A-Bacterial corneal ulcer  B-Fungal corneal ulcer  C-Mooren’s ulcer  D-Viral corneal ulcer

C

210-In treating bacterial corneal ulcer all are true except:  A-Antibiotics drops  B-Vitamin A,C  C-Mydriatics and cycloplegics drops  D-Corticosteroids drops

D

211-All of the following are non-specific signs in conjunctivitis except  A-Subconjunctival hemorrhage  B-Papillae  C-Follicles  D-pseudomembranes

C

212-In buphthalmos we should exclude all of the following • Except  A-Retinoblastoma  B-Megalocornea  C-High myopia  D-Babies of diabetic mothers

D

213-In buphthalmos which of the following is a late presentation  A-Lacrimation and sneezing

B 36


 B-Optic cupping  C-Enlarged hazy cornea  D-Flattened sublaxated lens

214-In a patient with HM vision, visual feild can be tested by;  A-Projection of light  B-Cofrentation test  C-Automated perimetry  D-Bjerrum screen

A

215-Which of the following is not a test for visual feild  A-Projection of light  B-Cofrentation test  C-Automated perimetry  D-Bjerrum screen  E-Percepton of light

E

216-Which of the following is not a test for visual feild  A-Projection of light  B-Cofrentation test  C-Automated perimetry  D-Bjerrum screen  E-Percepton of light

E

217-Glaucoma inversus can occur in  A-Post sublaxated lens  B-Post dislocated lens  C-Intumescent cataract  D-Anterior dislocated lens

D

Glaucoma Inversus

• Glaucoma inversus occurs with lens sublaxation or dislocaton caused by pupillary block induced by anteriorly displaced lens or herniated vitreous • • • • •

218-TTT is directed at relieving the pupillary block.

A-Iridectomy is indicated B-Cycloplegics are helpful C-IOP lowering medications are employed D-Miotics are not helpful E-Surgical lens removal may be indicated in some cases 37


219-Glaucoma inversus can be treated by:  A-Pilocarpine + anti-inflammatories  B-Pilocarpine + beta blockers  C-Atropine  D-cyclocryotherapy

C

220-Phakomorphic Glaucoma is;  A-Induced by intumescent cataract  B-Induces pupillary block  C-A closed angle secondary glaucoma D-Urgent cataract extraction is indicated  E-All of the above

E

221-Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex, In all except  A-Retinoblastoma  B-PHPV  C-Coat’s disease  D-Toxocara  E-MM choroid

• • • •

E

222-Third C nerve innervate all except A-Superior oblique muscle B-Levator palpebre muscle C-Inferior oblique muscle D-Medial rectus muscle

A

223-Horner’s syndrome  A-Ptosis + myosis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis  B-Ptosis + mydriasis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis A  C-lagophthalmos + myosis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis  D-diplopia + myosis + enophthalmos + anhydrosis

224-Diplopia due to right 6 CN palsy

• A-Increases on looking to • B-To the right

38


• C-To the left • D-Up • E-down • • • • • • • • • • • • •

B

225-Diplopia due to right 4 th CN palsy A-Disappear on covering ; D B-Right eye C-Left eye D-Either one 226-The commonest cause of crossed eyes in the first year of life A-Infantile esotropia B-Accomodative esotropia A C-Six CN palsy D-Duane’s syndrome 227-convergent squint may be due to: A-Infentile esotrpia B-Accommodative esotropia E C-Six N. palsy D-Graves’ disease E-All of the above Glaucoma Inversus Dr Ashraf EL-Desouky

Glaucoma Inversus Glaucoma inversus occurs with lens sublaxation or dislocaton caused by pupillary block induced by anteriorly displaced lens or herniated vitreous TTT is directed at relieving the pupillary block. Iridectomy is indicated Cycloplegics are helpful IOP lowering medications are employed Miotics are not helpful Surgical lens removal may be indicated in some cases *************************************** MCQ model Dr Ashraf EL-Desouky MCQs

39

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university 1.Doctor sees nothing& patient sees nothing in a) Papillitis b) Papilloedema c) toxic amblyopia (retrobulbar neuritis) d) All of the above e) Non of the above 2.Papilloedema lead to: a) Rapid deterioration of vision b) Primary optic atrophy c) Pain on eye movements d) Enlarged blind spot e) Colored halos

3. Afferent pupillary defect occurs in all except a) Papillitis b) Hysteria c) Orbital abscess d) Optic atrphy e) Retrobulbar neuritis

C

D

B

4. Convergent squint may be due to:

a) b) c) d) e)

Infentile esotrpia Accommodative esotropia Six N. palsy Graves’ disease All of the above

5.All the following are signs of lens sublaxation except; a) Phakodenesis b) Iridodnesis c) Irrigular anterior chamber d) High astigmatic error e) Intact all zonule

6.All of the following are symptoms of Retinal Detachment except; a) Floaters b) Flashes of light c) Failing vision d) Field defect e) Ciliary injection

E

E

E

7.In acute angle closure glaucoma’ the choice of surgery is decided after a) Gonioscopic examination b) Fundus examination A c) Tonometry d) Visual field examination e) Dark room test f) 8.Enophthalmos may be caused by a) Blunt orbital trauma b) Schirrus carcinoma of the breast metastasis E c) Cachexia d) Radiotherapy close to orbital region e) all of the above

9.Beta Blockers lower IOP mainly by

41

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university a) b) c) d) e)

Decreased aquous production Increased aquous drainage Lower episcleral venous peressure All of above Increase suprachoroidal aquous outflow

C

10.Pre auricular lymphadenopathy occurs with the following conjunctivitis a) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis b) Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis D c) Viral conjunctivitis d) Angular conjunctivitis e) Ocular cicatricial pemphigoid

11.All of the following are causes of lagophthalmos except a) Facial nerve palsy b) Proptosis c) Cicatricial ectropion d) Third nerve paralysis e) Thyroid Associated orbitopathy

12.In corneal edema, all is true except a) There is increase in corneal diameter b) There is increase in corneal thickness c) Cloudy cornea d) Predispose to Corneal vascularization e) Wrinkled Descmet’ membrane Good Luck

*********************************************************************** Tanta University Faculty of Medicine Under graduate mid year exam. May, 2007 MCQs

All questions are to be attempted Time allowed one hour Select only one answer 1.Doctor sees nothing& patient sees nothing in f) Papillitis g) Papilloedema h) Retrobulbar neuritis (toxic amblyopia) i) All of the above 2.Which of the following treatment is used for optic neuritis a) Prednisolon I.V. b) Observation c) Pilocarpine 2% A d) Atropine 1% 3.Papilloedema lead to: f) Rapid deterioration of vision g) Primary optic atrophy h) Pain on eye movements D i) Optic disc edema more than 3 D 4. Afferent pupillary defect occurs in all except f) Papillitis g) Hysteria h) Optic atrphy G i) Retrobulbar neuritis 5.Rapid painful loss of vision occurs in all except

41

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university a) Acute angle closure glaucoma b) Blunt trauma c) Alkali burn d) CRAO 6.All the following are signs of lens sublaxation except; f) Phakodenesis g) Iridodnesis h) Irrigular anterior chamber i) Intact all zonule

D

I

7.All of the following are symptoms of Retinal Detachment except; f) Musca Volitants g) Flashes of light h) Deterioration of vision I i) Sever ocular pain 8.The eyes susceptible to angle closure glaucoma are: a) Hypermetropic eye b) Myopic eye c) Astigmatic eye A d) Pseudophakic eye 9.In acute angle closure glaucoma’ the choice of surgery is decided after g) Gonioscopic examination h) Fundus examination A i) Tonometry j) Visual field examination 10.All of the following are the characteristics of glaucomatus cup except a) Large deep cup b) Overhanging margins c) Retinal vessels appear broken of at the margin D d) Lamina criprosa is not visible 11.Enophthalmos may be caused by f) Blunt orbital trauma g) Schirrus carcinoma of the breast metastasis h) cachexia i) all of the above 12.Beta Blockers lower IOP mainly by f) Decreased aquous production D g) Increased aquous drainage h) Lower episcleral venous peressure i) All of above 13.Pre auricular lymphadenopathy occurs with the following conjunctivitis f) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis g) Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis h) Viral conjunctivitis C i) Angular conjunctivitis 14.Tremulous iris can be seen in: a) Aphakia b) Hypermature cataract D c) Posterior dislocation of the lens d) All of above 15.Posterior polar cataract markedly affects vision because: a) Its shadow lies on the macula b) Close to the nodal point B c) It matures early d) It blocks the pupillary area 16.Nuclear cataract changes the refraction of the eye into a) Myopia b) Hypermetropia A c) Astigmatism

42

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university d) No change 17.Most common cause of diminution of vision after ECCE is a) Cystoid macular edema b) Posterior capsule opacification B c) Corneal decompansation d) Retinal detachment 18.The best treatment for Posterior Capsule Opacification a) Surgical excision b) Laser opening c) Surgical polishing B d) Leave alone 19.The type of laser used to treat Posterior Capsule Opacification a) Yag laser b) Argon laser c) Diode laser d) Excimer laser 20.All of the following types of entropion are known except a) Spastic entropion b) Senile entropion C c) Paralytic entropion d) Cicatricial entropion 21All of the following are causes of lagophthalmos except f) Facial nerve palsy g) Proptosis h) Cicatricial ectropion D i) Third nerve paralysis 22.Ectropion of the upper lid most commonly; a) Spastic ectropion b) Senile ectropion c) Paralytic ectropion D d) Cicatricial ectropion 23.Munson’ sign occurs in: a) Corneal fistula b) Corneal dystrophy C c) Keratoconus d) Corneal facet 24.In corneal edema, all is true except f) There is increase in corneal diameter g) There is increase in corneal thickness A h) Cloudy cornea i) Predispose to Corneal vascularization 25.Double staining pattern of the cornea is characteristic for: a) Fungal corneal ulcer b) Herpetic corneal ulcer B c) Exposure keratopathy d) Acanthaembic corneal ulcer 26.Topical Corticosteroids are contraindicated except in: a) Bacterial corneal ulcer b) Herpetic corneal ulcer C c) Fasicular phlyctenular ulcer d) Stromal fungal keratitis 27.Tarrsorraphy is essential in: a) Bacterial corneal ulcer b) Viral corneal ulcer c) Exposure keratopathy C d) Traumatic corneal ulcer 28.Blood staining of the cornea is due to: a) Hyphema b) Hyphema with rise of IOP c) Corneal edema

43

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university d) Corneal FB 29 All are infective corneal ulcers except a) Typical hypopion ulcer b) Atypical hypopion ulcer C c) Fasicular ulcer d) Dendritic corneal ulcer 30. all the following muscles are supplied by Oculomotor nerve except: a) Superior oblique muscle b) Inferior oblique muscle c) Inferior rectus muscle d) Levator palpebre muscle

A

Good Luck

MCQsmodel 2 Ophthalmologic manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis may include all of the following, except A. Secondary Sjögren's syndrome with sicca complex B. Scleritis C. Episcleritis D. Corneal melts E. Ischemic optic atrophy You examine a 2-week-old infant and find a dense congenital cataract in the left eye. By what age should the patient be referred for surgical evaluation?

A) 2 weeks B) 6 months C) 12 months D) 24 months E) 36 months Correct is A What is the shape of pupil in acute iridocyclitis a.oval and dilated b.small and irregular c.large and round d.none B Drug of choice in angular conjunctivitis is a. Oxytetracycline, b. Chlormycetin,

44

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university c. Ciprofloxacin, d. Gentamycin A Type of discharge in spring catarrh is a. Ropy white discharge, b. Purulent discharge, c. Mucopurulent discharge, d. Orange fluorescent discharge. A Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of acute congestive glaucoma a.atropine b.pilocarpine c.timolol d.dorzolamide A Second sight is seen in a. Lental sclerosis, b. Morgagnian, c. Nuclear cataract, d. Cortical cataract. C Rosette shaped cataract is a feature of a.concussion injury b.diabetes mellitus c.Congenital Rubella d. Wilson's Disease The Correct Answer is B Contusion cataract is usually stellate or rosette-shaped involving the axial posterior lens capsule

4) After cataract refers to : a) Refractive error following cataract surgery b) Opacity following ECCE

B

c) A complication following ICCE d) Intraocular implants after cataract extraction

45


5) Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis is : a) Bilateral & recurrent b) Associated with watery colorless secretion

A

c) Persists throughout life d) Topical steroids are the mainstay of therapy 6) Which of the following is a cause of unilateral amblyopia? a) Uremia b) Meningitis c) Hysteria

D

d) High anisometropia 7) A vitreous aspirate has been collected in an emergency at 9 pm. What advice you like to give to the staff on duty regarding the overnight storage of the sample: a) The sample should be kept at 4 Degrees C b) The sample should be incubated at 37 Degrees C

B

c) The sample should be refrigerated in deep freezer. . d) The sample should be refrigerated for the initial 3 hours and then incubated at 37 Degrees C 8) A 20 yr old man complains of difficulty in reading the news paper with his right eye, 3 wks after sustaining a gunshot injury to his left eye. The most likely diagnosis is a) Macular edema b) Sympathetic ophthalmia

B

c) Optic nerve avulsion d) Delayed Vitreous hemorrhage 9) A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occuring with the onset of hot weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with raised polygonal areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is: a) Trachoma b) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis c) Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

D

d) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis 10) A patient is on follow up with you after enucleation of a painful blind eye. After enucleation of the eyeball, a proper sized artificial prosthetic eye is advised after a postoperative period of: 46


a) about 10 days b) About 20 days

D

c) 6 - 8 wks d) 12 - 24 wks 11) A patient using contact lens develops corneal infection. Laboratory diagnosis of acanthamoeba keratitis was established. The following is the best drug for treatment: a) Propamidine b) Neosporine c) Ketoconazole

A

d) Polyhexamethylene biguanide 12) Hereditary retinoblastomas develop the following chromosomal deletion: a) 13q14 . b) 13p14

A

c) 14p13 d) 14q13 13) A 1 yr old child having leucocoria was detected to be having a unilateral, large retinoblastoma filling half the globe. Current therapy would involve: a) Enucleation b) Chemotherapy with local dyes c) Direct Laser Ablation using photodynamic cryotherapy

A

d) Scleral radiotherapy followed by chemotherapy 14) Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as: a) Iridocyclitis b) Polyarteritis nodosa

C

c) Phlyctenular conjunctivitis d) Giant cell arteritis 15) In a patient with AIDS chorioretinitis is typically caused by: a) Cytomegalovirus b) Toxoplasma gondii c) Cryptococcus neoformans

A

d) Histoplasma capsulatum 47


16) The operation of plication of inferior lid retractors is indicated in: a) Senile ectropion b) Senile entropion c) Cicatricial entropion

B

d) Paralytic entropion 17) Fasanella Servat operation is specifically indicated in: a) Congential ptosis b) Steroid induced ptosis

D

c) Myasthenia gravis d) Horner's syndrome 18) A lady wants LASIK surgery for her daughter. She asks for your opinion. All of the following things are suitable for performing LASIK except: a) Myopia of -4D b) Age of 15 years c) Stable refraction for 1 yr

B

d) Corneal thickness of 600 microns 19) A child has got a congenital cataract involving the visual axis which was detected by the parents right at birth. This child should be operated: a) Immediately b) At 2 months of age c) At 1 yr of age when the globe becomes normal sized

A

d) After 4 yrs of age when the entire ocular and orbital growth become normal 20) Vortex vein invasion is commonly seen in: a) Retinoblastoma b) Malignant melanoma c) Optic nerve glioma

B

d) Medullo-epitheliomas 1. The corneal epithelium is : a- Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. b- Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. c- Tall columnar epithelium. d- Cuboidal epithelium.

B

48

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university 2. One of these factors contributes to corneal transparency: a- Regular arrangement of stromal collagen fibrils. b- Intact epithelium and endothelium. c- Normal I.O.P. d- All of above.

A

3. Endothelial cell layer of the cornea are examined by : a- Ophthalmoscope. b- Gonioscope. c- Specular microscope. d- Skiascopy.

C

4. Corneal diameter is measured by: a- Slit lamp. b- Caliper & Ruler. c- Keratometry. d- Retinoscopy.

B

5. Corneal thickness is measured by: a- Pachymetry. b- Biometry. c- Keratometry. d- Perimetry. 6. Corneal power and curvature is measured by: a- Topography. b- Keratometry. c- Slit lamp biomicroscopy. d- Both A & B.

A

D

7. Only one organism of the following can invade normal corneal epithelium : a- Psuedomonas. b- Gonococcus. c- Staphylococcus. B d- Pneumococcus. 8. Healing of corneal ulcer results into an opacity because: a- New fibres are not regularly arranged. b- B.M is not regenerated. c- None of above. d- All of above.

D

9. The type of corneal opacity that affects vision more is : a- Diffuse nebula. b- Diffuse macula. c- Dense leucoma. d- None of them. 10. Pseudo - cornea is formed of: a- All corneal layers. b- Three layers namely epithelium, stroma & endothelium. c- Stromal layer with epithelium. d- Only epithelial layer.

B

49


11. The followings are true about hypopyon except: a- It is leucocytosis due to bacterial toxins. b- It is fluid & cells. c- It is absorbed with therapy. d- It is infected fluid containing pus cells.

D

12. Ulcer serpens is caused by : a- Staphylococci. b- Streptococci. c- Pneumocucci. d- Gonococci.

C

13. Steroids are indicated topically in : a- Hypopyon ulcer. b- Dendritic ulcer. c- Mycotic ulcer. d- Disciform keratitis.

D

14. Mooren's ulcer is : a- Degenerative ulcer. b- Infective ulcer. c- Auto immune ulcer. d- Neuroparalytic ulcer.

C

15. The reservoir of infection in herpes zoster ophthalmicus is: a- Ciliary ganglion. ' b- Gasserian ganglion; c- Superior cervical ganglion. d- Inferior cervical ganglion. 16. Fleischer's ring on the corneal epithelium is seen in : a- Keratoglobas. b- Keratoconus. c- Keratomalacia d- Anterior staphyloma. 17. In advanced keratoconus, the best treatment is : a- Penetrating keratoplasty. b- Soft Contact lenses. c- Hard contact lenses. d- Refractive surgery.

B.

A

18. In recurrent neuroparalytic keratitis the best treatment is : a- Antibiotic drops & ointment.. b- Artificial tears. c- Tarsorrhaphy. C d- Closure of lacrimal puncta. 19. Small peripheral corneal perforation leads to: a- Corneal fistula. b- Anterior polar cataract. c- Peripheral anterior synechia. d- Anterior staphyloma.

C

20. A patient with corneal ulcer noticed sudden cessation of pain & relieve of other symptoms. The possible occurrence is: a- Complete cure. b- Perforation.

51

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university c- Endophthalmitis. d- Corneal fistula.

A

1. The corneal epithelium is : a- Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. b- Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. c- Tall columnar epithelium. d- Cuboidal epithelium. 2. One of these factors contributes to corneal transparency: a- Regular arrangement of stromal collagen fibrils. b- Intact epithelium and endothelium. c- Normal I.O.P. d- All of above. 3. Endothelial cell layer of the cornea are examined by : a- Ophthalmoscope. b- Gonioscope. c- Specular microscope. d- Skiascopy. 4. Corneal diameter is measured by: a- Slit lamp. b- Caliper & Ruler. c- Keratometry. d- Retinoscopy. 5. Corneal thickness is measured by: a- Pachymetry. b- Biometry. c- Keratometry. d- Perimetry. 6. Corneal power and curvature is measured by: a- Topography. b- Keratometry. c- Slit lamp biomicroscopy. d- Both A & B. 7. Only one organism of the following can invade normal corneal epithelium : a- Psuedomonas. b- Gonococcus. c- Staphylococcus. d- Pneumococcus. 8. Healing of corneal ulcer results into an opacity because: a- New fibres are not regularly arranged. b- B.M is not regenerated. c- None of above. d- All of above. 9. The type of corneal opacity that affects vision more is : a- Diffuse nebula. b- Diffuse macula. c- Dense leucoma. d- None of them. 10. Pseudo - cornea is formed of: a- All corneal layers. b- Three layers namely epithelium, stroma & endothelium.

51

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university c- Stromal layer with epithelium. d- Only epithelial layer.

11. The followings are true about hypopyon except: a- It is leucocytosis due to bacterial toxins. b- It is fluid & cells. c- It is absorbed with therapy. d- It is infected fluid containing pus cells.

12. Ulcer serpens is caused by : a- Staphylococci. b- Streptococci. c- Pneumocucci. d- Gonococci. 13. Steroids are indicated topically in : a- Hypopyon ulcer. b- Dendritic ulcer. c- Mycotic ulcer. d- Disciform keratitis. 14. Mooren's ulcer is : a- Degenerative ulcer. b- Infective ulcer. c- Auto immune ulcer. d- Neuroparalytic ulcer. 15. The reservoir of infection in herpes zoster ophthalmicus is: a- Ciliary ganglion. ' b- Gasserian ganglion; c- Superior cervical ganglion. d- Inferior cervical ganglion. 16. Fleischer's ring on the corneal epithelium is seen in : a- Keratoglobas. b- Keratoconus. c- Keratomalacia. d- Anterior staphyloma. 17. In advanced keratoconus, the best treatment is : a- Penetrating keratoplasty. b- Soft Contact lenses. c- Hard contact lenses. d- Refractive surgery. 18. In recurrent neuroparalytic keratitis the best treatment is : a- Antibiotic drops & ointment.. b- Artificial tears. c- Tarsorrhaphy. d- Closure of lacrimal puncta. 19. Small peripheral corneal perforation leads to:

52

Ophthalmology MCQs ……………………………………………………….…. Tanta university a- Corneal fistula. b- Anterior polar cataract. c- Peripheral anterior synechia. d- Anterior staphyloma. 20. A patient with corneal ulcer noticed sudden cessation of pain & relieve of other symptoms. The possible occurrence is: a- Complete cure. b- Perforation. c- Endophthalmitis. d- Corneal fistula.

retinitis pigmentosa : a) it is usually bilateral b)usually hereditary. c)causes cataract d)causes tunnel vision. e)related to usher syndrome . answers all are true 2) regarding retinoblastoma : a)amaurotic cat reflex is seen . b)divergent squint is the most common manifestation. c)pseudorosette is specific feature . d)pseudohypopyon is usual manifestation e)it is usually calcified . answers amaurotic cat reflex yellow or white pupillary reflex classically noted by parents convergent squint is seen and the second most common manifestation of disease .neither pseudorosette nor homer wright rosette are specific of disease .specificity is related with 2 F flexner rosette and fleuters. pseudohypopyon is the rare maifestation of the disease .in 75% cases calcification is seen on x ray . 3) Central retinal vein occlusion: a)most common cause in elderly is diabetes . b)in younger age group facial erysiplas can do it c)90 day galucoma can occur . d) loss of vision is not as rapid as in retianl artery occlusion e)typical fundual picture is thunder blood fundus. answers all are true . 4) regarding management of retinoblastoma : a) in stage 1 @ 2 enuclation is done b)in stage exentration of orbit is done. c)cobalt radiotherapy. d)chemotherapy based on cyclophosphamide vincristine and adrimycin. e)photocoagulation by argon laser. answer all are true best mneumonic is ERCP ENCULEATION EXENTRATION RADIOTHERAPY CHEMOTHERAPY CRYOTHERAY PHOTOCOAGULATION. 5)REGARDING ELECTRORETINOGRAM A) there are three wave pattern . b) a wave is negative . c) c wave is positive deflection. d) b wave is generated from the neural layer . e) show charactersitic pattern in retinitis pigmentosa.

53


54

Ophthalmology MCQs With Answer

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