A.
QUESTION BOOKLET Domain : Electrical Engineering INSTRUCTIONS
Roll Number Part - C: General Awareness and has 2 descriptive questions which carries 5 marks each.
Please read the following instructions carefully/ 1) Mark carefully your Roll Number and series of the paper on the OMR Answer Sheet and sign at the appropriate place. Write your Roll number on the question booklet.
2) Strictly follow the instructions given by the Centre Supervisor / Room invigilator and those given on the Question Booklet.
3) Please mark the right responses ONLY with a Blue/Black ball point pen.
4) Candidates are not allowed to carry any papers, notes, books, calculators, cellular phones, scanning devices, pagers etc. to the Examination Hall. Any candidate found using, or in possession of such unauthorized material, indulging in copying or impersonation or adopting unfair means, is liable to be summarily disqualified and may be subjected to penal action.
Part - D: relates to domain with 2 descriptive questions to be attempted which carries 10 marks each
7) Each objective question is followed by four responses. Your task is to choose the correct response and mark your response on the OMR Answer Sheet and NOT on the Question Booklet.
8) All questions are COMPULSORY. There will be NO NEGATIVE MARKING. 9) Completely darken the CIRCLE so that the alphabet inside the CIRCLE is not visible. Darken ONLY ONE CIRCLE for each answer as shown in the example below. The CORRECT and the WRONG method of darkening the CIRCLE on the OMR sheet are given below.
Coorect Method A 5) After finishing the examination, hand over the complete question booklet the OMR Answer Sheet and Subjective Answer Sheet. DO NOT carry the question booklet or any part of it, outside the examination room. Doing so, is a punishable offence.
6) The test is of objective & subjective type. This Question Booklet contains a total of 124 questions and the total time allotted is 3 hours. The written test consists of 4 Sections.
Part - A: General Awareness has 40 questions of 1 marks each
B
Wrong Method C
D
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
A
B
C
D
10) In view of the tight time span, do not waste your time on a question which you find to be difficult. Go on solving questions one by one and come back to the difficult questions at the end.
11) DO NOT make any stray marks anywhere on the OMR answer sheet. DO NOT fold or wrinkle the OMR answer sheet and the Subjective Response Sheets. Rough work MUST NOT be done on the answer sheet. Use your test booklet for this purpose.
Part - B: relates to domain with 80 questions to be attempted
1 (Elec.-A)
Part-A General Awareness (MCQs) 1.
2.
3.
Arrange the following Mughal emperors in chronological order: a. Akbar, Shah Jahan, Jahangir, Aurangazeb b. Akbar, Aurangazeb, Jahangir, Shah Jahan c. Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Aurangazeb d. Jahangir, Shah Jahan, Akbar, Aurangazeb a. c. c. d. The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ for annexation of protected states to the British Empire was the brainchild of __________________ a. Lord Cornwallis b. Lord Dalhousie c. Lord Wellesley d. Lord Mountbatten a. b. c. d. The modern districts of Tirunelveli, Madurai, Ramanad, etc were part of the territory ruled by the ___________________ a. Chera dynasty b. Chola dynasty c. Pallava dynasty d. Pandya dynasty
4.
a. b. c. d. Kalibangan, a site associated with the Harappan civilization, is situated in ____________ a. Rajasthan b. West Punjab in Pakistan c. Punjab in India d. Sind in Pakistan
5.
a. b. c. ( ) d. An area of knowledge the Vedic Aryans were not conversant in was _______________ a. Chemistry b. Surgery c. Mathematics d. Astronomy
6.
a. b. c. d. Which Tamil King had gone to the Himalayas to fetch a stone to make an idol of Goddess Kannaki? a. Senguttuvan b. Nedumcheran c. Kuttuvancheran d. Imayavaramban
7.
a. b. c. d. A social reformist organization in Lahore invited Dr B R Ambedkar in 1936, to deliver the presidential address. The manuscript of the speech did not receive the approval of the hosts. It later became a book called _______________ a. Annihilation of Caste b. Federation versus Freedom c. Buddha of Marx d. Pakistan or Partition of India
a. c.
b. d. 2 (Elec.-A)
8.
9.
Which of the following statements are not true of the Home Rule Movement? I. The demand was for self-government and not complete independence. II. The movement included promoting political education to build a base for self-government III. It did not achieve much impact or popularity. IV. The movement was the part of the Congress activity. a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. IV and I I. II. III. IV. a. I II b. II III c. III IV d. IV I Who said, ‘The British Empire is rotten to the core, corrupt in every direction and tyrannical and mean’? a. Mrs. Annie Besant b. W. Digby c. Sister Nivedita d. William Wedderburn
10.
a. b. c. d. India and Pakistan were partitioned under which of the following plans of the British colonial government? a. Mountbatten Plan b. Cripps Plan c. Chelmsford Plan d. Wavell Plan
11.
a. c. Who was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’? a. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan c. Firoz Gandhi
12.
13.
b. d. b. Vinoba Bhave d. Manilal Gandhi
a. b. c. d. The Vedanga consists of the following: a. Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish b. Kalp, Shiksha, Brahman, Vyakaran, Chhanda, Jyotish c. Kalp, Shiksha, Nirukta, Aranyak, Chhanda, Jyotish d. Kalp, Upanishad, Nirukta, Vyakaran, Chhanda a. b. c. d. The earliest available work of the Tamil Sangams is ___________________ a. Pattinappalai b. Tirumurugarruppadai c. Maduraikanchi d. Tolkappiyam a. c.
b. d.
3 (Elec.-A)
14.
15.
Which foreign traveller visited India during the Mughal period and left us an expert’s description of the Peacock Throne? a. Geronimo Verroneo b. ‘Omrah’ Danishmand Khan c. Tavernier d. Francisco Palsaert
a. b. c. d. The Constitution of India describes India as a ‘Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’. Prior to the 42nd Amendment in 1976, it was described as a ___________ a. ‘Sovereign Democratic Republic’ b. ‘Sovereign Socialist Republic’ c. ‘Sovereign Secular Republic’ d. ‘Secular Democratic Republic’
16.
a. b. c. d. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST? a. Article 337 b. Article 334 c. Article 338 d. Article 339
17.
a. 337 b. 334 c. 338 d. 339 Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List? a. Lok Sabha b. Parliament c. Rajya Sabha d. Legislative Council
18.
19.
a. b. c. d. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha’? a. S R Bommai vs Union of India AIR 1994 SC 1916 b. State of Kerala vs Union of India AIR 1957 SC 1361 c. State of West Bengal vs Union of India AIR 1999 SC 131 d. None of the above
a. AIR SC b. AIR SC c. AIR 1999 SC 131 d. In case the recommendation for imposing President’s Rule in a state is not approved by the Parliament, for how many months can the promulgation last? a. Four months b. Two months c. Three months d. Six months
a. c.
b. d.
4 (Elec.-A)
20.
21.
22.
In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj? a. District Sabha b. Gram Sabha c. Nagar Panchayat Sabha d. Zila Sabha a. b. c. d. What do we understand by the term ‘Government Bill’ in the Parliament? a. Bill presented by Ruling Party member b. Bill approved by the Government c. Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill d. A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament a. b. c. d. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency? a. Executive b. President c. Governor d. Prime Minister
23.
a. b. c. d. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period for the first time? a. Government of India Act 1938 b. The Indian Council Act 1861 c. Government of India Act 1919 d. Government of India Act 1935
24.
a. b. c. d. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’? a. Dr Babu Rajendra Prasad b. Dr S Radhakrishnan c. Abraham Lincoln d. Woodrow Wilson
25.
26.
a. b. c. d. Who has the powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.? a. Regional Election Commissioner b. Election Committee of Government c. Electoral Officer d. Election Commission (1) a. b. c. d. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published. a) The report must be a report of the ‘proceedings’ of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged.
5 (Elec.-A)
b) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or ‘Comment’. c) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice. d) All of the above
a) b) c)
27.
28.
29.
30.
expunged garbed
actuated
d) Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court? i. Delimitation of Constituencies ii. The allotment of seats to such Constituency a. i only b. ii only c. Both i & ii d. Neither of them i. ii. a. i b. ii c. i ii d. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognizing or de-recognizing a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party? a. Under Article 32 b. Under Article 229 c. As a Special leave petition d. As Public Interest Litigation
a. b. c. d. The central banking functions in India are performed by the _____________ a. Central Bank of India b. Reserve Bank of India c. State Bank of India d. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development a. b. c. d. The following item(s) is/are traded in the gilt-edged market: a. Precious metals like platinum and palladium b. Bullion (Gold and silver) c. Unlicensed guns understudy d. Government securities (gilt-edged market) a. b. c. understudy d.
6 (Elec.-A)
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
Devaluation of a currency means ______________ a. reduction in the value of a currency vis-a-vis major internationally traded currencies b. permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market c. fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with the movement in the value of a basket of pre-determined currencies d. fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultation with the IMF, the World Bank and major trading partners a. b. c. d. Development Expenditure of the Central Government does not include a. Defence Expenditure b. Expenditure on economic services c. Expenditure on social and community services d. Grants to states a. a. c. d. In the last decade, which of the following sectors has attracted the highest foreign direct investment inflows into India? a. Services sector b. Food processing c. Telecommunication d. Retail trade
a. b. c. d. The main role of State Financial Corporations in India is to provide financial assistance for the development of _____________ a. Agriculture b. Cottage industry c. Large scale industry d. Medium and small scale industries a. b. c. d. The major outcome of the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee was that guidelines were framed to _____________ a. govern entry of new private sector banks to make the banking sector more competitive b. reduce the freedom given to banks to rationalize their existing branch network c. setup more foreign exchange banks d. lend more easily for industrial development a.
36.
b. c. d. Indirect taxes contribute ________% of the revenue of India. % a. 74% b. 85% c. 63% d. 93%
7 (Elec.-A)
37.
38.
39.
40.
In India, rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes. Which of the following reason(s) account(s) for this? 1. A large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture 2. Prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products 3. Investment in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry a. 1 alone b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d.1, 2 and 3 1. 2. 3. a. I b. 1 2 c. 2 3 d.1, 2 3 Which of the following is responsible for formulating the fiscal policy in India? a. The Planning Commission b. The Ministry of Finance c. The Finance Commission d. The Reserve Bank of India a. b. c. d. Which of the following are the measures of Integrated Slum Development Programme adopted in India in the Eleventh Five Year Plan? 1. Creating and updating database on slums. 2. Using land as a resource for housing and shelter development for slum dwellers 3. Asking slum dwellers to apply for house loan from government. 4. Granting tenure security to slum dwellers. a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
1. 2. 3. 4. a. 1, 2 3 b. 1 2 c. 2 4 d. 1, 2 4 The total public sector outlay in the Eleventh Five Year Plan (Central, State and Union Territories) which is for the period 2007 – 2012 is estimated at about: a. Rs. 30 lakh crore b. Rs. 36 lakh crore c. Rs. 40 lakh crore d. Rs. 46 lakh crore
a. c.
b. d.
8 (Elec.-A)
Part-B Electrical Engineering (MCQs) 41.
The periphery of the armature divided by the number of poles of the generator is called as ___________? a. Back pitch b. Front pitch c. Pole pitch d. Resultant pitch
___________ a. 42.
a. 43.
45.
46.
Demagnetizing
b.
2.03mh 2.5 mh
b. 3.1mh d. 5h
A four pole lap wound generator has 56coils with 6 turns per coil. The speed is 1150rpm. What must be the flux per pole in order to generate 265V? coils coil rpm v a. 20.2mWb b. 19mWb c. 20.6mWb d. 2.5mWb Calculate the torque developed by a 440V d.c. motor having an armature resistance of 0.25Ω and running at 750rpm when taking a current of 60A? V d.c. armature 0.25Ω 750 rpm A a. 325N-m b. 320N-m c. 300N-m d. 155N-m A d.c. shunt motor operating on 220V supply takes an armature current of 20A and run at 800rpm. Its armature resistance is 1Ω. Calculate the additional resistance to be inserted in series with the armature to reduce its speed to 520rpm with same armature current.
v
1Ω
47.
48.
magnetizing
c. d. The below circuit has C1 = 0.5µF and if it has to pass 5000 cycles wave, then the value of inductor L = ? C1 = 0.5µF L __________ L=? 0.5µF
a. c. 44.
b.
c. d. By adding extra ampere-turns to the main field winding, the following effect can be neutralized? a. Demagnetizing effect b. Cross magnetizing effect c. Commutation d. None of the above ampere-turns
rpm
A
rpm
a. 3.5Ω b. 4.5Ω c. 5Ω d. 1Ω The frequency of voltage generated by an alternator having 4 poles and rotating at 1800rpm is _________ Hz. rpm _________ Hz. a. 60 b. 7200 c. 120 d. 450 If the angle of a four pole synchronous motor is 8 degrees (electrical), its value in mechanical degree is a. c.
0.25 2
b. 0.5 d. 4
9 (Elec.-A)
_________
49.
In a synchronous motor, damped winding is provided in order to a. Stabilize rotor motion b. Suppress rotor oscillation c. Develop necessary starting torque d. Both a and c
damped a.
50.
51.
b.
c. d. a b In a SCIM torque with auto starter is _______ times the torque with direct switching SCIM _______ a. k2 b. k d. 1/k c. 1/ k2 A 100 : 5 transformer is used in conjunction with a 5A ammeter. If the latter reach 3.5 A. Then the line current is 100 : 5 5A ammeter ammeter 3.5 A.
current
52.
a. 70A b. 35A c. 100A d. 5A An auto transformer having a transformation ratio of 0.8 supplies a load of 3kW. The power transformed conductively from primary to secondary is
3kw
_____
53.
a. 0.6kW b. 2.4kW c. 1.5kW d. 0.27kW The iron loss of a transformer at 400Hz is low. Assuming that eddy current and hysteresis losses vary as the square of flux density, the iron loss of a transformer at rated voltage but at 50Hz would be _______ watt. transformer 400Hz
50hz
54.
kW copper _______ kva a. 85KVA b. 82.3KVA c. 80KVA d. 100KVA A concentric cable has a conductor diameter of 1cm and an insulation thickness of 1.5cm. When the cable is subjected to test pressure of 33kV, the maximum field strength would be _________? cm cm kV _________ a. 47.6kV b. 45.5 kV c. 40 kV d. 10 kV The most economical value of the conductor radius of an 80kV cable having an insulation with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm is ___________? 60kv/cm ______ 80kV a. 1.33cm b. 2.5cm c. 1.8cm d. 1cm In case of m-derived low pass filters, the resonant frequency is to be chosen so that it is _________________? a. below the cut-off frequency b. above the cut-off frequency c. at the cut-off frequency d. All of the above m _________________ a. b. c. d. If Z11=2Ω, Z21=1Ω, Z12=1Ω, Z22=3Ω, then the determinant of the admittance matrix is ______? Z11=2Ω, Z21=1Ω, Z12=1Ω, Z22=3Ω ______ a. 5 b. 1/5 c. 1 d. 2 100KVA, 2
55.
56.
57.
58.
____
a. 80 b. 640 c. 1.25 d. 100 A 100KVA, 2 winding transformer has an iron loss of 1kW and a copper loss on normal output current of 1.5kW. The KVA loading at which the efficiency would be maximum is ________?
1.5kw
k
10 (Elec.-A)
59.
A series RLC circuit has a Q of 80 and a bandwidth of 160 cycles. Then the resonant frequency is __________Hz.
Q
RLC
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
______
a. 12800 b. 12720 c. 12880 d. 13880 A voltage e = 340sin 314t is applied to a resistor and the current is I = 42.5sin314t. Then the Ohmic value of the resistor is ___________? e = 340sin 314t I = 42.5sin314t
Ohmic ___________? a. 8Ω b. 6Ω c. 4Ω d. 3Ω Two coupled coils of L1 = 0.9H and L2 = 0.4H have a coupling coefficient k=0.8. Then the mutual inductance (M) 50. In a SCIM torque with auto starter is _______ times the torque with direct switching SCIM _______ (m) a. k2 b. k d. 1/k c. 1/ k2 Three wattmeter method of power measurement can be used to measure power in __________? a. Balanced Circuits b. Unbalanced circuits c. Both (a) and (b) d. Neither (a) nor (b) __________ a. b. c. d. The maximum energy stored in a capacitive circuit is ___________? capacitive ___________ a. W=CE2 b. W=C2E 2 d. 1/2C2E c. W=1/2CE Transient current in an RLC circuit is oscillatory when ___________? RLC oscillatory ___________ a. R=2(L/C) ½ b. R=0 d. R<2(L/C) 1/2 c. R>2(L/C) ½ A 50 C/S, 11kV generator is connected to a power system. The system reactance and capacitance per phase are 10mH and 0.02µF respectively. The maximum voltage across the contacts of the circuit breaker at an instant when it passes through zero is ______________? 50c/s, 11kv 10mH 0.02µF _____ a. 17.96kV b. 14.59kV c. 10.9kV d. 15kV The data for a three phase oil circuit breaker are as follows: Operating voltage = 11kV Rupturing capacity = 500mVA Normal current = 500A Time = 3seconds Then the rated symmetrical breaking current is _____________? a. 21.25kA(rms) b. 26.25kA(rms) c. 20.25kA(rms) d. 20kA(rms) kV
Rupturing
current
mVA A
3 a. c.
21.25kA(rms) 20.25kA(rms)
_____________?
b. 26.25kA(rms) d. 20kA(rms)
11 (Elec.-A)
67.
A zinc strip of width 0.4inch and of thickness 1 inch fuses when a current of 66A passes through it. Then the fusing current for a fuse of same width and double the thickness is ________________? inch 1 inch A current
________________
68.
a. 109A b. 115A c. 129A d. 60A The disadvantage of oil circuit breaker is _____________? a. that it is Inflammable b. that it forms an explosive mixture with air c. due to its composition, the oil has to be kept clear and then requires maintenance d. All of the above
_____________ a. b. c. 69.
d. When large currents are required it is necessary to use ___________? a. lap winding b. wave winding c. single layer winding d. lap and wave winding
______
a. 70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
b.
c. b. Six bulbs are connected in parallel across 110V. Each bulb is rated as 75W. The total current flow will be equal to ___________? 110V 75W
___________ a. 4.092A b. 9.7A c. 75A d. 110A Eddy current loss is proportional to ___________? ___________ a. f 2 b. f d. 1/f c. 1/f 2 If the network contains B branches and N nodes then the number of mesh current equations would be __________? B N __________ a. B - (N - 1) b. N - (B - 1) c. B – N – 1 d. (B + N) - 1 An electric motor is developing 10kW at a speed of 900rpm. Then the torque available at the shaft is _________________? 900rpm 10kW _________________? a. 106N-m b. 101N-m c. 95N-m d. 100N-m A lift of 250kg mass is raised with a velocity of 5m/s. If the driven motor has an efficiency of 85, then the input power of the motor is __________? 250kg 5m/s _________________? a. 14.45kW b. 12.25kW c. 11.25kW d. 15.5kW A generating station has a daily output of 280MWH and uses 500t (tons) of coal in the process. The coal releases 7MJ/kg when burnt. Then the overall efficiency of the station is ___________? 280MWH 500t (tons) 7mj/kg _________________? a. 28.8% b. 30% c. 45% d. 47.5%
12 (Elec.-A)
76.
The lamps in a set of Christmas tree lights are connected in series. If there are 20lamps and each lamp has a resistance of 25Ω then the total current taken from 240V supply is _________? 25Ω
240v
77.
______
a. 0.48A b. 0.5A c. 1.5A d. 2A Given the following circuit diagram, can you find the value of R ? R
10A
78.
2VR (A)
a. 0.5 ohms b. 10 ohms c. 2 ohms d. 2.5 ohms Given the below circuit, can you find the value of Rth? R
60ohm
26ohm
200V
79.
a. 50 ohms c. 40 ohms Find the value of I in the below circuit. I
40ohm
b. 60 ohms d. 0 ohms
-3A
2A
4A I
80.
a. –5A b. 5A c. 6A d. –6A At what frequency, the current leads the voltage by 300 in a series RL circuit with R = 8ohms and C = 30µF? RL R = 8ohms C = 30µF a. 1149 Hz b. 900 Hz c. 240 Hz d. 998 Hz 13 (Elec.-A)
81.
82.
83.
84.
A DC voltage is applied to a series RL circuit by closing a switch. The voltage across L is 100V at t = 0 and drops to 13.5 V at t = 0.02s. If L = 0.1h, the value of R is ______? RL L 100V at t 13.5 V at t = 0.02s. L = 0.1h R ______ =0 a. 10 ohm b. 5 ohm c. 0.1 ohm d. 0.5 ohm A series RL circuit having current i = 4.24 cos(5000t+450) has an input power of 180W. What would be the value of R ? RL i = 4.24cos (5000t+450) 180W. R a. 20 ohm b. 22.5 ohm c. 25 ohm d. 4 ohm The equivalent impedance of the couple circuit shown below is _____________?
circuit
_____________?
2ohm
2ohm
j5ohm
j5ohm
a. 1+ j5 b. 5 + j c. 4 + 12j d. 4 - 12j The equivalent capacitance value as viewed from the voltage source is ______________?
______
6F
2F
4F
4F
V 6F
85.
a. c. In a. c.
2.85F b. 2.8F 6F d. 6.5F a DC generator the generated emf is directly proportional to the _____________? field current b. pole flux number of armature parallel path d. number of dummy coils DC emf _____________?
a. 86.
b.
c. d. Meh coils Which one of the below statements about shunt field speed control method for DC shunt motor is False? a. It is based on the fact that motor speed is inversely proportional to the flux b. It gives constant hp characteristics to the motor c. It is very useful due to high I2R loss in the field rheostat d. It gives speed above the basic speed
DC
inversely
a. b. c.
rheostat
I2R
d. 14 (Elec.-A)
87.
ADC motor develops a torque of 200 Nm at 25 rps. At 20 rps it will develop a torque of _________________? ADC 25rps 20M, rps _____________ ? a. 200 Nm b. 160 Nm c. 250 Nm d. 128 Nm
88.
A 230 volt DC series motor is taking 50 amps. Resistance of armature and series field windings is 0.2 ohms and 0.1 ohm respectively. Then the brush voltage is ___________? amps 0.2 ohms
0.1 ohms
89.
90.
_____________?
a. 215 V b. 205 V c. 195 V d. 0 V A 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc shunt motor draws a current of 40A. When running at full load, the full load torque is ____? 14.92 kW, 400V, 400rpm dc 40A ____? a. 356 Nm b. 350 Nm c. 300 Nm d. 256 Nm The most efficient method of increasing the speed of a 3.75kW dc shunt motor is _______ method. a. armature control b. flux control c. ward Leonard d. tapped field control _____________ 3.75kW dc a.
91.
b.
c. d. The maximum efficiency of a 100KVA transformer having iron loss of 900kW and full load copper loss of 1600W occurs at _______ KVA?
100kva
92.
93.
900kw
_____________
94.
_____________?
B
A_____________
a. 50% b. 66% c. 33% d. 25% For eliminating seventh harmonic from the emf wave of an alternator, the fractional pitch must be __________?
alternator
96.
emf
_____________
a. 2/3 b. 5/6 c. 7/8 d, 6/7 The winding of the four phase alternator having 36 slots and a coil span of 1 to 8 is short pitched by _______ degrees.
_______
97.
____KVA
a. 24, 74 b. 60, 240 c. 204, 60 d. 200, 70 Two transformers A and B having equal outputs and voltage ratios but unequal percentage impedance of 4 and 2 are operating in parallel. Transformer A will be running overloaded by _______ ?
A
95.
1600w
a. 56.3 b. 133.3 c. 75 d. 177.7 If copper loss of a transformer at 7/8 full load is 4900W. Then its full load copper loss would be _____________? 7/8 4900W _____________? a. 5600W b. 6400W c. 375W d. 429W The no load voltage ratio in a single phase 50Hz, core type transformer is 1200/440. If the maximum flux is to be 0.075wb then the number of turns in each winding is ______, ______? 50Hz 1200/440 0.075wb
a. 140 b. 80 c. 20 d. 40 The effect of increasing load on a synchronous motor running with normal excitation is ___________. a. to increase both its Ia and pf b. to decrease its Ia and increase its pf c. to increase its Ia and decrease its pf d. to decrease both its Ia and pf
15 (Elec.-A)
excitation a.
98.
b.
pF
_____________
c. Ia pF d. Three phase alternators are invariably Y connected because ___________. a. magnetic losses are minimized b. less turns of wire are required c. smaller conductors can be used d. higher terminal voltage is obtained
alternators
_____________
a. 99.
Ia
b.
c. d. Find the most economical value of the conductor radius of a 80kV cable having an insulation with a voltage gradient of 60kV/cm.
80kV 60kV/cm a. 1.33cm b. 1.5cm c. 2cm d. 1cm 100. The minimum voltage at which the corona just becomes visible is called as _________? a. visual critical voltage b. disruptive critical voltage c. threshold voltage d. None of the above corona _____________ ? a.
b.
c. d. 101. The contacts used in the circuit breakers are usually made up of ____________? a. copper b. iron c. steel d. alumina
_____________? a. b. c. d. 102. The operating voltage of a three phase oil circuit breaker is 11kV; rupturing capacity is 500MVA and the normal current 500A, 3 seconds. Then the rated symmetrical breaking current is _____? 11kV rupturing MVA A current _____________? a. 26.25kA rms b. 25.25kA rms c. 25.75kA rms d. 20.15kA rms 103. The series and parallel system of speed control of series motors widely used in traction work gives a speed range of about __________? _____________?
a. 1 : 2 b. 1 : 3 c. 1 : 4 d. 1 : 6 104. The following relay is used for the production of transformers? a. Buchholz relay b. Induction relay c. Electro dynamic relay d. Solenoid a.
Buchholz
a.
a. d. Solenoid 105. A circuit delivers energy at the rate of 20W and the current is 10A. The energy of each coulomb of charge in the circuit is _________? 20W current 10A Coulomb _______? a. 2J b. 0.5J c. 20J d. 10J 106. A current of 5A flows in a resistor of resistance 8ohms.Then the heat dissipated in 30sec is ___________? a. c.
6000J 2400J
5A
8ohms
b. 3000J d. 1000J 16 (Elec.-A)
_____________?
107. A capacitor is made with seven metal plates connected as multi plate capacitor and separated by sheets of mica having a thickness of 0.3mm and a relative permittivity of 6. The area of one side of each plate is 500cm2. Then the capacitance value is ______?
0.3 mm 500cm2
_____________
a. 0531 μF b. 0155 μF c. 0122 μF d. 0512 μF 108. A 50μF capacitor is charged from a 200V supply. After being disconnected it is immediately connected in parallel with a 30μF capacitor which is initially uncharged. Then the potential difference across the combination is ___________? V 30μF A 50μF
uncharged a. 12 5V b. 120 V c. 200 V d. 100 V 109. Retardation test on a dc shunt motor is used to find the __________? a. a. friction loss b. b. copper loss c. c. stray loss d. d. iron loss
_____________?
_____________? a. 110.
111.
112.
b.
c. d. A three phase, three wire ABC system with a balanced load has effective line voltage 200v (minimum) and line current IA = 13.61/600.The total power is _____________? ABC v current IA = 13.61/600. _____________? a. 2887W b. 3087W c. 3000W d. 2500W Find the impedance corresponding to apparent power 3500VA, power factor 0.76lagging and effective current 18A. 3500VA 0.76lagging current A a. 10.8/40.540 ohms b. 12/50.5040 ohms c. 50.8/80.50 ohms d. 18/400 ohms When two resistors are connected in series the total equivalent is 90 ohms; when in parallel the equivalent is 20 ohm, then the value of each resistor will be ___________? ohms ohms
_____________
113.
a. 30, 60 ohms b. 35, 30 ohms c. 30, 30 ohms d. 10, 10 ohms A 4 pole dc generator runs at 750rpm and generates an e.m.f of 240V. The armature is wave wound and has 792conductors. If the total flux from each pole is 0.0145wb. The leakage coefficient is ________________? rpm V emf 792
0.0145wb _____________ conductors a. 1.2 b. 1.4 c. 0.2 d. 0 114. For a four pole, two layer dc lap winding with 20 slots and one conductor per layer, the number of commutators bars are _______? commutators _____________ a. 80 b. 20 c. 40 d. 160 115. If a charge of 25C passes a given point in a circuit in a time of 125ms, then the current in the circuit is __________? 25C 125ms current ____ ? a. 25 A b. 125 A c. 200 A d. 250 A
17 (Elec.-A)
116.
117.
A heater takes a current of 8A from a 240V source for 12hours. The energy consumed is __________? hours V A current _____________? a. 23 kW-h b. 25 kW-h c. 24kW-h d. 96kW-h A coil of Cu wire has a resistance of 200ohm when its mean temperature is zero degree. The value of resistance at its mean temperature is _______? ohm
_____________?
118.
a. 200 ohm b. 260 ohm c. 268. 5 ohm d. 274 ohm An inductor coil is connected to a supply of 250V at 50Hz and takes a current of 5A the coil dissipates 750W, the power factor is ________________?
250v
50Hz
5A
750W
_____________ a. 0.6 lag b. 0.8 lag c. 0.9 lag d. Unity 119. A coil of 1kohm resistance and 0.15 h inductance is connected in parallel with a variable capacitor across a 2V, 10 KHz ac supply. Then the capacitance of a capacitor when the supplied current is minimum is ____________? 0.15h 2v 10khz ac 1kohm
________
a. 1.69nF b. 1.7nF c. 2nF d. 2.5nF 120. A parallel network consists of branches A, B and C. If Ia = 10/-600A , Ib = 5/-300A and Ic = 10/900A. All phase angles being relative to supply voltage,then the total supply current is ______________? a. 9.0 A b. 9.4A c. 9.5 A d. None of the above
A,B,C
a. c.
9.0 A 9.5 A
IA=10/-600A. IB=5/-300A _____________ b. 9.4A d.
18 (Elec.-A)
IC=10/900A
Part-C General Awareness (Descriptive) 121. In the context of the recent fight against corruption, by Anna Hazare and team, answer the following questions. i. Write in 4 -5 lines about Anna Hazare especially his real name, birthplace, year of birth and then about his profession (during his early 20's) and finally about the awards that he received from the Government of India. ii. Mention the other team members' names of Anna Hazare and mention in one line about their current (or past) professions. iii. What is the other name for Jan Lokpal Bill and what is its main purpose? iv. What are the 3 demands (as on 25th August 2011) set aside by Anna Hazare and team that it urges the government must approve as part of the Jan Lokpal Bill?
i ii iii iv 122. In the background of one of the biggest terrorist attacks on India, in particular the one that happened on Mumbai in the year 2008, answer the following questions. i. Mention the date on which this attack was made by the terrorists and which was the terrorist group that was behind it. ii. Mention any five places that were attacked on this day. iii. Mention atleast 3 (of the 4) police personnel's name and their designation who were killed during the fight against these terrorists.
i ii iii
Part-D Electrical Engineering (Descriptive) 123. A 110 V shunt generator has a full-load current of 100 A, shunt field resistance of 55 ohms and constant losses of 500 W. If F.L. efficiency is 88%, find the armature resistance. Assuming the voltage to be constant at 100 V, calculate the efficiency at half F.L. and at 50% overload. Find the load current corresponding to maximum efficiency. V A W 88% V 124. A 4 pole, 3-phase 50 Hz induction motor has rotor resistance of 0.03 ohm and reactance of 0.15 ohm respectively per phase. Calculate the speed at maximum torque. What resistance is to be added to give ¾ maximum torque at starting? Hz 0.03 ohm 0.15 ohm
19 (Elec.-A)
