Eye lid All of the followings are types of neurogenic ptosis except: A- blepharophimosis syndrome B- third nerve palsy C- Horner's syndrome D- Marcus Gunn jaw winking syndrome
Which of the followings are sweat glands related to lash follicles: A- Zeis glands B- Meibomian glands C- Goblet cells D- Moll's glands
Epicanthus is a congenital skin fold over the medial canthus which produces A- pseudoproptosis B- ture esotropia C- pseudoptosis D- pseudostrabismus
The skin of the eyelid is red and macerated especially at the outer and inner canthi in case of: A- parasitic blepharitis B- ulcerative blepharitis C- angular blepharitis D- squamous blepharitis
Presence of a second row of lashes arising from or slightly behind the Meibomian glands orifices is called: A- distichiasis B- trichiasis C- rubbing lashes D- entropion
Congenital dystrophic ptosis is characterized by: A- compensatory chin elevation in severe bilateral cases B- all of the above C- usually poor levator function D- unilateral or bilateral ptosis
Rolling in of the upper lid margin most commonly is due to A- Ophthalmoplegia. B- Trachoma. C- Thermal injury of lid skin D- Facial palsy
Facial palsy may result in all of the followings except: A- Exposure keratopathy B- Paralytic ectropion C- Neurogenic ptosis. D- Lagophthalmos.
Chalazion can cause the following complications except: A- Mechanical ptosis B- Irregular astigmatism C- Internal hordeolum D- Anterior uveitis
Ectropion of the upper eyelid may be: A- Senile B- paralytic C- congenital D- None of the above
Staphyloococci can cause: A- All of the above B- stye C- Ulcerative blepharitis D- Atypical hypopyon ulcer
All of the followings are types of entropion except: A- Spastic B- Cicatricial C- Paralytic D- Senile
All of the followings are causes of lagophthalmos except: A- Cicatricial ectropion B- Proptosis C- Facial nerve palsy D- Third nerve paralysis
Ectropion of the upper lid is most commonly: A- Senile ectropion B- Spastic ectropion C- Cicatricial ectropion D- Paralytic ectropion
The levator palpebrae superioris is inserted into the following structures except: A- Medial orbital margin & medial palpebral ligament B- Upper border of tarsus C- Bulbar conjunctiva D- Skin of upper eye lid
Hordeolum externum is an acute suppurative inflammation of: A- Gland of Krause B- Gland of Moll C- Gland of zies D- Gland of Wolfring
Conjunctiva Patient had a pterygium, excised since one month, and starts to see double vision, this may be due to: A- Corneal perforation B- Symblepahron formation C- Secondary infection D- Lateral rectus paralysis
All the following can be caused by chlamydial infection except: A- Angular conjunctivitis B- Ophthalmia neonatorum C- Inclusion conjunctivitis D- Trachoma
The leading cause of preventable blindness in Egypt: A- Diabetic retinopathy B- Glaucoma C- Senile cataract D- Trachoma
Etiology of pterygium is: A- Inflammation B- Infection C- Neoplastic
D- Degenerative
Endogenous septic focus may cause All except : A- Hypopyon ulcer B- Iridocyclitis C- Phlycten D- Metastatic endophthalmitis
Corneal damage in trachoma is due to: A- Dryness B- Trichiasis C- All of the above D- Lagophthalmos and exposure Most common organism in purulent conjunctivitis is: A- Gonococci B- Pneumococci C- Herpes simplex virus D- Streptococci
All of the followings are sure signs of trachoma except: A- Herbert's pits B- Arlt's line C- Detection of intracytoplasmic basophilic inclusion bodies D- Papillae of upper tarsal conjunctiva
Which of the following is specific for the diagnosis of allergic conjunctivitis? A- Excessive lacrimation B- Itching C- Foreign body sensation D- Eye redness
Bitot's spots may be caused by: A- Vit B deficiency B- Vit A deficiency C- Trachoma D- Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Conjunctival injection is characterized by the following except: A- Individual vessels are easily distinguished B- Bright red color C- Movable D- Not affected by vasoconstrictors
Lacrimal system Congenital watery eye may result from all the followings except: A- Corneal birth injury B- Congenital glaucoma C- Congenital cataract D- Congenital nasolacrimal obstruction
Treatment of acquired chronic dacryocystitis is: A- None of the above B- DCR C- Systemic antibiotics D- Probing
Persistent unilateral conjunctivitis is usually due to: A- Purulent conjunctivitis B- Spring catarrh C- Mucopurulent conjunctivitis D- Chronic dacryocystitis
In a baby with watery eyes which of the followings may be the cause? A- Corneal abrasion B- Buphthalmos C- All of the above D- Congenital NLD obstruction
Cornea Double staining pattern of the cornea is characteristic for: A- Acanthameobic corneal ulcer B- Exposure keratopathy C- Fungal corneal ulcer D- Herpetic corneal ulcer
All of the followings are used as a specific treatment for herpetic keratitis except: A- Acyclovir B- Trifluorothymidine C- Vorioconazole D- Vidarabine
The corneal touch reflex involves the following cranial nerves:
A- V and III B- II and IV C- V and VII D- II and III
Small peripheral corneal perforation leads to: A- Anterior staphyloma B- Anterior synechia C- Corneal fistula D- Anterior polar cataract
In corneal edema; all of the followings are true except: A- Predispose to corneal vascularization B- There is increase in corneal diameter C- There is increase in corneal thickness D- Epithelial bullae
Infective corneal ulcers include all of the followings except: A- Bacterial corneal ulcer B- Viral corneal ulcer C- Fungal corneal ulcer D- Mooren's ulcer
In treating bacterial corneal ulcer all of the followings are true except: A- Mydratics and cycloplegics B- Antibiotic drops C- Corticosteroid drops D- Vitamin A,C
The corneal epithelium is : A- Non keratinized stratified squamous epithelium B- cuboidal epithelium.
Sclera The only staphyloma with normal IOP is: A- Posterior staphyloma B- Equatorial staphyloma C- Ciliary staphyloma D- Intercalary staphyloma
Episcleritis is similar to phlycten clinically but differs in being: A- tender B- Multiple C- Flat D- Pigmented
Ciliary injection can be found In all of the followings except: A- AACG B- Corneal ulcer C- Episcleritis D- Anterior uveitis
Crystalline lens In senile cataract, iris shadow may be found in: A- All of the above B- mature senile cataract C- hypermature senile cataract D- Intumescent cataract
The crystalline lens derives nutrition by: A- Limbal blood vessels B- Retinal arteries C- Diffusion from aqueous D- All of the above
Extensive congenital cataract is treated by: A- a and b B- Cataract extraction as soon as possible C- Follow up D- Glasses
The leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide: A- Age related macular degeneration B- Glaucoma C- Diabetic retinopathy D- Senile cataract
The term “mature cataract” means: A- A cortical cataract that involves the entire cortex B- An anterior subcapsular cataract that causes capsular wrinkling C- A posterior subcapsular cataract that reduces visual acuity to /6/6 or worse D- A nuclear cataract present more than 06 years
Criteria of mature senile cataract: A- Visual acuity HM B- Absent iris shadow C- Absent RR D- All of the above
All the following are signs of lens sublaxation except: A- Phakodenesis B- Intact all zonule C- Irregular anterior chamber D- Iridodenesis
Tremulous iris can be seen in: A- Sublaxation of the lens B- posterior dislocation of the lens C- Aphakia D- All of the above E- Hypermature cataract
Posterior polar cataract markedly affects vision because: A- Its shadow lies on the macula B- It blocks the pupillary area C- Close to the nodal point D- It matures early
Nuclear cataract changes the refraction of the eye into: A- Myopia B- Hypermetropia C- Astigmatism D- No change
Most common cause of diminution of vision after phakoemulsification is: A- Corneal decompansation B- Posterior capsular opacification C- Cystoids macular edema D- Retinal detachment
The best treatment for Posterior capsule opacification: A- Surgical excision B- YAG laser capsulotomy C- Surgical polishing D- Leave alone
The type of laser used to treat Posterior capsule opacification:
Glaucoma Which of the following field defects occurs in primary open angle glaucoma? A- Roenne's nasal step B- bitemporal hemianopia C- none of the above D- homonymous hemianopia
Which of these is a predisposing factor of primary angle closure glaucoma? A- retinitis pigmentosa B- Aphakia C- high hypermetropia with shallow anterior chamber D- intumescent cataract
Field of vision may be tested by: A- Automated perimetry B- Confrontation test C- All of the above D- Projection of light
Which of the followings is a type of lens induced angle closure glaucoma? A- Phacomorphic glaucoma
Vision is usually poor in infants with buphthalmos due to: A- Corneal opacification B- Progressive myopia C- All of the above D- Optic nerve damage
All of the following are true concerning open angle glaucoma except: A- Normal angle of anterior chamber B- IOP usually above 22 mmHG C- Cup/disc ratio of 6.0 or larger D- Visual fields are normal
The cause of decreased visual acuity in acute congestive glaucoma is: A- Glaucomatous optic atrophy B- Increased intra ocular pressure C- Complicated Cataract D- Corneal edema
Which of the following is not a test for visual field: A- Projection of light B- Confrontation test
C- Perception of light D- Automated perimetry
Optic nerve head in glaucomatous optic atrophy has all except: A- Interrupted retinal vessels B- Large deep cup C- Waxy yellow colour D- Overhanging margins
All of the followings are lens induced glaucoma except: A- Neovascular glaucoma B- Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma C- Phacolytic glaucoma D- Phaco morphic glaucoma
Which of the followings is more susceptible to primary angle closure glaucoma? A- Hypermetropic eye B- Astigmatic eye C- Myopic eye D- Aphakic eye
In an acute angle closure glaucoma, the choice of surgery is decided after: A- Tonometry B- Visual field examination
C- Fundus examination D- Gonioscopic examination
All of the following are the characteristics of glaucomatous optic disc cupping except: A- Lamina criprosa is not visible B- Retinal vessels appear broken at the margin C- Overhanging margins D- Large deep cup
In buphthalmos, which of the followings is a late presentation: A- Flattened sublaxated lens B- Lacrimation C- Enlarged hazy cornea D- Optic disc cupping
In a patient with HM vision, visual field can be tested by: A- Projection of light B- Automated perimetry C- Bjerrum screen D- Confrontation test
Which of the following is not a test for visual field? A- Automated perimetry B- Confrontation test
C- Perception of light D- Projection of light
Glaucoma inversus can occur in: A- Intumescent cataract B- Anterior dislocated lens C- Post sublaxated lens D- Post dislocated lens
Glaucoma inversus can be treated by: A- Pilocarpine + beta blockers B- cyclocryotherapy C- Pilocarpine + anti-inflammatories D- Atropine
Phakomorphic Glaucoma is: A- All of the above B- Induces pupillary block C- Induced by intumescent cataract D- A closed angle secondary glaucoma E- Urgent cataract extraction is indicated
Which of the following is TRUE concerning the intraocular pressure? A- All of the above B- can be normal in patients with glaucoma
C- Normal value is 06-20 mmHg D- It varies during the day with a peak in the early morning E- A and B only
Which of the following is not a sign of acute angle-closure glaucoma: A- Shallow anterior chamber B- Ciliary congestion C- Constricted, rounded pupil D- Corneal epithelial edema E- High intraocular pressure
An early sign of congenital glaucoma is : A- Leukocoria B- Amblyopia C- Corneal edema D- Ptosis
Secondary angle closure glaucoma may be associated with all of the following except: A- Pigmentary glaucoma B- Intumescent cataract C- Uveitis D- Anterior lens dislocation
The procedure of choice after medical control of acute angle closure glaucoma is:
Pigmentary glaucoma is characterized by all of the following except: A- Iris transillumination defect B- The anterior chamber angle is closed C- Krukenberg spindle D- High Intraocular pressure
All of the following are signs of congenital glaucoma except: A- IOP is usually high B- The cornea is enlarged C- Habb's stria D- The anterior chamber is shallow
The color of the pupil in Acute congestive glaucoma is: A- Grayish white B- Jet black C- Yellow D- brown E- Greenish blue
Neovascular glaucoma is due to all of the following except: A- CRVO
Goniotomy is Indicated in: A- Congenital glaucoma with corneal cloudiness B- POAG after failure of medical treatment C- Narrow angle glaucoma after failure of LPI D- Congenital glaucoma with clear cornea and diameter less than 01 mm
Epiphora, photophobia and blepharospasm in a newly born infant occurs in: A- Congenital naso-lacrimal duct obstruction B- Ocular inflammation (e.g. uveitis) C- All of the above D- Congenital glaucoma E- Corneal injury (e.g. abrasion)
All of the following are causes of lens induced glaucoma except: A- Intumescent cataract B- lens-protein glaucoma (phacolytic, macrophage-induced) C- Lens dislocation D- Phacoanaphylactic E- Nuclear sclerosis
Trabeculectomy is indicated in:
A- Congenital glaucoma after failure of goniotomy and trabeculotomy B- Narrow Angle Glaucoma after faliure of LPI C- All of the above D- POAG after faliure of medical treatment
Double arcuate scotoma is a characteristic field defect in: A- Severe POAG B- A and B C- All of the above D- Retinitis pigmentosa E- Pituitary adenoma
Interventions to decrease the IOP in patients with acute angle closure glaucoma include: A- Mannitol B- All of the above C- acetazolamide D- Laser peripheral iridotomy E- Pilocarpine eye drops
Uveal tract All of the followings are signs of acute iridocyclitis except: A- Muddy iris B- Aqueous flare C- Keratic precipitate (KPs) D- Exudative RD
Complications of anterior uveitis include: A- All of the above B- Occlusio pupillae C- Cyclitic membrane D- Band shaped keratopathy
Choroidal inflammation as Harada disease may result in: A- Exudative retinal detachment B- None of the above C- Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment D- Tractional retinal detachment
The pupil in acute Ant. Uveitis is: A- Dilated B- Vertically oval C- Constricted D- Festooned
Pupil & Visual pathway & Optic nerve Afferent pupillary defect is found in all of the followings except: A- Optic atrophy B- Papillitis C- Mature senile cataract D- Total retinal detachment
A 03 years old female with unilateral large regular pupil and absent light reflex but tonic near reflex. This condition is: A- A and C B- Marcus-Gunn pupil C- Argyll Robertson pupil D- Adie's pupil
The site of lesion that cause Argyll Robertson pupil is A- Optic nerve B- Third nerve palsy C- Crossing nasal fibers in the optic chiasma D- Crossing midbrain fibers
The pupil in Horner’s syndrome is A- A and B B- None of the above C- Small D- Responds normally to light and near
All of the following cause mydriasis except: A- Third nerve palsy B- Adie's pupil C- Horner's syndrome D- Mydriatic eye drops
In Horner's Syndrome all of the following is right except: A- Anhydrosis B- Ptosis C- Miosis D- Exophthalmos
Bitemporal hemianopia is due to: A- Pituitary gland tumors B- Orbital apex syndrome C- Cavernous sinus thrombosis D- All of the above
All of the followings are true about papillaedema except: A- vision is preserved in early cases B- the condition is commonly bilateral C- afferent pupillary defect is found in early stage D- visual field shows enlarged blind spot
Afferent papillary defect occurs in all the following except: A- Retrobulbar neuritis B- Primary optic atrophy C- Early papilledema D- Papillitis
Doctor sees nothing (no signs can be detected) & patient sees nothing (marked diminution of vision) in: A- Retrobulbar neuritis (toxic amblyopia) B- All of the above C- Papillitis D- Papilledema
Which of the following ttt is used for optic neuritis: A- Antibiotics B- prednisolone C- Atropine D- Observation
Papilloedema leads to: A- Rapid deterioration of vision B- Pain on the eye movement C- Early loss of color vision D- Amaurosis fugax
Papilloedema leads to the following Feild changes: A- Arcuate scotoma B- Nasal step C- Concentric contraction of peripheral field D- Enlarged blind spot
Consecutive optic atrophy occurs in all of the following conditions except: A- CRV thrombosis B- CRAO C- Chorio-retinitis D- Degenerative myopia
Afferent pupillary defect occurs in all of the followings except: A- Retrobulbar neuritis B- Optic atrophy C- Papillitis D- Hysteria
Retina Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy is characterized by: A- Rubeosis iridis B- Vitreous hemorrhage C- Microaneurysms D- Neovascularization
Retinitis pigmentosa is characterized by: A- Attenuated retinal vessels B- All of the above C- Retinal pigmentary changes D- Tubular field
Causes of tractional retinal detachment include: A- penetrating posterior segment trauma B- proliferative diabetic retinopathy C- retinopathy of prematurity D- all of the above
Vitreous hemorrhage results in: A- Rapid painless visual loss B- Gradual visual loss C- Rapid painful visual loss D- Sudden painful visual loss
Late signs of central retinal artery occlucion include: A- Cherry red spot at the macula B- Optic disc edema C- None of the above D- Consecutive optic atrophy
Signs of non proliferative diabetic retinopathy include:
A- vitreous or subhyaloid hemorrhage B- All of the above C- Neovascularization D- microaneurysms and retinal hemorrhage
All of the followings are true about central retinal vein occlusion except: A- Causes rapid painful diminution of vision B- May be ischaemic or non ischaemic C- More common in diabetic, hypertensive and old aged patients D- Fundus picture shows dilated and tortuous veins with retinal hemorrhages
All these are signs of recent central retinal vein occlusion except: A- Dilated tortuous veins B- Retinal hemorrhages C- Consecutive optic atrophy D- Optic disc edema
Common risk factors for progression of diabetic retinopathy are: A- Repeated pregnancy B- Presence of hyperlipidemia C- All of the above D- Uncontrolled hypertension
Rapid painful loss of vision may occur in all of the followings except: A- AACG
B- CRAO C- Blunt trauma D- Alkali burn
All these are causes of tubular vision except: A- Primary optic atrophy B- Advanced stage of chronic simple glaucoma C- CRAO with cilio-retinal sparing D- Retinitis pigmentosa
Strabismus Essential infantile esotropia is characterized by: A- Oblique muscle dysfunction B- All of the above C- Large angle of esotropia D- Cross fixation
Characters of 6th nerve palsy include: A- Limited abduction B- All of the above C- Esotropia D- Diplopia
Third nerve innervates all of the followings except: A- Medial rectus muscle
Diplopia due to right 6th cranial nerve palsy Increases on looking to: A- Down B- Up C- To the right D- To the left
Diplopia due to right 4th cranial nerve palsy disappears on covering: A- Right eye B- Left eye C- Either eye
The commonest cause of squint in the first year of life is: A- Essential infantile esotropia B- Accomodative Esotropia C- Sixth cranial nerve palsy
Orbit All of the followings are clinical findings in dysthyroid orbitopathy except: A- Eye lid retraction B- Edematous red tender eye lid swelling C- Bilateral proptosis
D- Myopathy of EOM
The commonest sign of Graves’ disease: A- Lid retraction B- Conjunctival chemosis C- Diplopia D- Exophthalmos
Acute proptosis may be due to: A- Orbital cellulitis B- Surgical emphysema C- Orbital hematoma D- All of the above
Enophthalmos may be due to: A- Trauma B- All of the above C- Post radiotherapy D- Secondaries of breast scirrhus carcinoma
The most common cause of proptosis in adults is: A- Dysthyroid orbitopathy B- Orbital cellulitis C- Orbital tumors D- None of the above
Patient with dysthyroid orbitopathy may suffer from diminution of vision due to: A- EOM fibrosis B- Soft tissue involvement C- Exposure keratopathy
Management of bacterial orbital cellulitis should include: A- Parentral broad spectrum antibiotics B- All of the above C- Hospitalization D- Monitoring of optic nerve functions
Which of the followings is a life threatening complication of bacterial orbital cellulitis? A- CRAO B- Raised IOP C- Cavernous sinus thrombosis D- Exposure keratopathy
Errors of Refraction In hypermetropia, parallel rays come to a focus: A- In front of the retina B- Behind the retina C- On the retina D- All of the above
Spherocylinderical lenses are indicated for the correction of: A- Myopia B- Compound myopic astigmatism C- Hypermetropia D- Simple myopic astigmatism
Causes of myopia : A- Decrease Corneal curvature B- Post. Lens dislocation C- Decrease R.I of the lens D- Increase A-P axis of the eye
Which of the following is a type of myopia A- Facultative B- Simple C- manifest D- Latent
Which of the following is a sign of high myopia
A- Large globe B- Shallow AC C- Bright red reflex D- Narrow angle
Myopia can be treated by : A- LASIK surgery B- All of the above C- Concave minus lens glasses D- Soft contact Lens E- None of the above
Treatment of Hyperopia includes : A- Clear lens extraction B- R.K ( radial keratotomy) C- All of the above D- Concave glasses E- None of the above
Types of regular astigmatism are : A- Simple B- None of the above C- Compound D- Mixed E- All of the above
The term Ametropia refers to: A- Astigmatism B- Hypermetropia C- Myopia D- All of the above
All of the following is true about myopic eye except: A- High refractive power B- Steep cornea C- Small axial length D- Deep anterior chamber
All of the following is true about irregular astigmatism except: A- Occurs with keratoconus B- Could be corrected with glasses C- Occurs with corneal opacities D- Could be corrected with rigid lenes
Unilateral aphakia can be corrected by: A- None of the above B- +06 diopters ordinary glasses C- Contact lens D- Laser capsulotomy
The LASER used in corneal refractive surgeries is: A- Argon laser B- YAG laser C- CO2 laser D- Excimer laser
Regular astigmatism includes all of the followings except: A- Simple myopic astigmatism B- Mixed astigmatism C- Advanced Keratoconus D- Simple hyperopic astigmatism
Early cases of keratoconus can be treated by: A- RGP contact lens B- Penetrating keratoplasty C- Deep lamellar keratoplasty D- None of the above
Ocular trauma The immediate emergency treatment of chemical injury to the eye is: A- Search for the suitable antidote B- Topical antibiotics C- Topical steroids D- Immediate copious irrigation
Enophthalmos, diplopia and limitation of ocular movements after blunt ocular trauma are due to: A- Orbital blow-out fracture B- iridodialysis C- Orbital hematoma D- Lens sublaxation
Blood staining of the cornea is due to: A- Corneal edema B- Corneal FB C- Hyphema with rise of IOP D- Hyphema
The first line of treatment in acid burn of the eye is: A- Immediate wash with plain water B- Instilling local antibiotic drops C- Eye patching D- Neutralization of the acid with alkali
Etiology of sympathetic ophthalmia is: A- None of the above B- Viral C- Auto-immune D- Bacterial
Ocular Tumours Retinoblastoma may be presented by all of the followings except: A- Leukocoria B- Secondary glaucoma C- Papilledema D- Strabismus
All these are clinical presentations of retinoblastoma except: A- Secondary glaucoma B- High myopia C- Strabismus D- Leucokoria
Amaurotic cat’s eye reflex occurs in all of the followings except: A- Malignant melanoma of the choroid B- PHPV C- Coat's disease D- Retinoblastoma
Which of the following is the most common presentation for retinoblastoma? A- Leucokoria B- Strabismus C- Proptosis D- Buphthalmos
Which of the followings is the most common pathological type of retinoblastoma? A- Exophytum B- Mixed C- Diffuse infiltrating D- Endophytum
Which of the followings pathological types of retinoblastoma grows towards the choroid? A- Endophytum B- Diffuse infiltrating C- Exophytum
Which of the followings is the least common pathological type of retinoblastoma? A- Endophytum B- Mixed C- diffuse infiltrating D- Exophytum
Which of the followings is the most common primary intraocular tumor in adult? A- Retinoblastoma B- Malignant melanoma of the choroid C- Choroidal hemangioma D- Malignant melanoma of the iris
Which of the following pathologies of the choroid is an indication for treatment with transpupillary thermotherapy? A- Detachment B- Melanoma C- nevus
Which of the following is the first line of management for choroidal nevus, suspected to be malignant melanoma? A- Laser photocoagulation B- Photodocumentation C- Transpupillary thermotherapy D- Cryotherapy
Retinoblastoma is thought to be caused by mutation in which of the following chromosomes? A- 01 B- 02 C- 00 D- 00
The most common rout of metastasis in retinoblastoma is: A- None of the above B- Optic nerve C- Regional lymph nodes D- Blood stream