IELTS Listening Ultimate

‫فیپا‬

‫‪IELTS LISTENING Ultimate‬‬ ‫نویسنده اول‪ :‬امین برهانی‬ ‫نویسنده دوم‪ :‬سیده زهرا هاشمی‬ ‫ناشر‪:‬‬ ‫حروفنگاری‪:‬‬ ‫صفحهآرایی‪ :‬طرح و نشر هامون‬ ‫لیتوگرافی‪/‬چاپ‪/‬صحافی‪:‬‬ ‫نوبت چاپ‪ :‬اول ‪1394‬‬ ‫تیراژ‪:‬‬ ‫شابک‪:‬‬ ‫قیمت‪:‬‬

CONTENTS Overview of the IELTS Listening Test ...................................................................................... ii 1. Cambridge IELTS 1 (4 Tests) ................................................................................................. 1 2. Cambridge IELTS 2 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................... 18 3. Cambridge IELTS 3 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................... 35 4. Cambridge IELTS 4 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................... 53 5. Cambridge IELTS 5 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................... 72 6. Cambridge IELTS 6 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................... 86 7. Cambridge IELTS 7 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................. 102 8. Cambridge IELTS 8 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................. 119 9. Cambridge IELTS 9 (4 Tests) ............................................................................................. 136 10. Cambridge IELTS 10 (4 Tests) ......................................................................................... 152 11. The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS (8 Tests) ........................................................... 168 12. Official IELTS Practice Materials (1 Test) ...................................................................... 198 13. IELTS Testbuilder 1 (4 Tests)........................................................................................... 202 14. IELTS Testbuilder 2 (4 Tests)........................................................................................... 220 15. IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1 (5 Tests) .............................................................................. 236 16. IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2 (6 Tests) .............................................................................. 255 17. IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3 (7 Tests) .............................................................................. 278 18. Focusing on IELTS (4 Tests) ............................................................................................ 306 19. 404 Essential Tests for IELTS (4 Tests) ........................................................................... 323 20. Thomson Exam Essentials (6 Tests) ................................................................................. 341 21. IELTS on Track (4 Tests) ................................................................................................. 362 22. Preparation and Practice (3 Tests) .................................................................................. 381 23. Oxford IELTS Practice Tests (4 Tests) ............................................................................. 394 24. Action Plan for IELTS (1 Test) ......................................................................................... 410 25. Prepare for IELTS (5 Tests) ............................................................................................. 415 26. Barron's IELTS (4 Tests) .................................................................................................. 436 27. IELTS Help Now (5 Tests) ................................................................................................ 451 28. Collins Practice Tests for IELTS (4 Tests) ....................................................................... 470 29. IELTS for Academic Purposes (6 Tests) .......................................................................... 487 Answer Keys ........................................................................................................................... 514 i

Overview of the IELTS Listening Test Timing: Approximately 30 minutes (plus 10 minutes' transfer time) Questions: There are 40 questions. A variety of question types is used, chosen from the following: multiple choice, matching, plan/map/diagram labelling, form completion, note completion, table completion, flow-chart completion, summary completion, sentence completion, and short-answer questions. Section 1 is a conversation between two people set in an everyday social context (e.g. a conversation in an accommodation agency). Section 2 is a monologue set in an everyday social context (e.g. a speech about local facilities or a talk about the arrangements for meals during a conference). Section 3 is a conversation between up to four people set in an educational or training context (e.g. a university tutor and a student discussing an assignment, or a group of students planning a research project). Section 4 is a monologue on an academic subject (e.g. a university lecture). *Each section is heard once only. *A variety of voices and native-speaker accents is used. Skills assessed: A wide range of listening skills is assessed, including understanding of main ideas and specific factual information; recognizing opinions, attitudes and purpose of a speaker, and following the development of an argument. Marking: All IELTS marking takes place at the test center by trained markers and examiners. Markers are trained to understand the IELTS marking policy and are required to demonstrate that they are marking to standard before they are allowed to mark Listening and Reading papers. IELTS Listening paper contains 40 items and each correct item is awarded one mark; the maximum raw score a candidate can achieve on a paper is 40. Band scores ranging from Band 1 to Band 9 are awarded to candidates on the basis of their raw scores. Although all IELTS test materials are pretested and trialled before being released as live tests, there are inevitably minor differences in the difficulty level across tests. In order to equate different test versions, the band score boundaries are set so that all candidates’ results relate to the same scale of achievement. This means, for example, that the Band 6 boundary may be set at a slightly different raw score across versions. The table below indicates the mean raw scores achieved by candidates at various levels in Listening and provides an indication of the number of marks required to achieve a particular band score. Listening band score 4 4.5 5 5.5 6 6.5 7 7.5 8

Raw score out of 40 9 12 16 19 23 27 30 33 35 ii

Cambridge IELTS 1 (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Circle the appropriate letter. Example What has the woman lost?

B 1

a briefcase

C

a handbag

a suitcase

D

a wallet

What does her briefcase look like?

2

Which picture shows the distinguishing features?

3

What did she have inside her briefcase? A wallet, pens and novel B papers and wallet

4

C D

pens and novel papers, pens and novel

Where was she standing when she lost her briefcase?

Cambridge IELTS 1

1

5

What time was it when she lost her briefcase?

Questions 6-10 Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. PERSONAL DETAILS FORM Mary 6 ………………………………………………………………………. Flat 2 7 ……………………….. 8 ………………...………………………. Road

Name: Address:

Canterbury Telephone: 9 ……………………………………………………………………………………… Estimated value of lost item: 10 £ …………………………………………………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-21

Questions 11-13 Tick the THREE other items which are mentioned in the news headlines. NEWS HEADLINES A

Rivers flood in the north

Example B

Money promised for drought victims

C

Nurses on strike in Melbourne

D

Passengers rescued from ship

E

Passengers rescued from plane

F

Bus and train drivers national strike threat

G

Teachers demand more pay

H

New uniform for QANTAS staff

I

National airports under new management

2

Cambridge IELTS 1



Questions 14-21 Complete the notes below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces provided. The Government plans to give 14 $ ……………………………………. to assist the farmers. This money was to be spent on improving Sydney's 15 ………………………… but has now been re-allocated. Australia has experienced its worst drought in over fifty years. Farmers say that the money will not help them because it is 16 …………………………….. . An aeroplane which was carrying a group of 17 …………………………………. was forced to land just 18 ……………………………………. minutes after take-off. The passengers were rescued by 19 …………………………… . The operation was helped because of the good weather. The passengers thanked the 20 …………………………. for saving their lives but unfortunately they lost their 21 …………………………… .

SECTION 3

Questions 22-31

Questions 22-25 Circle the appropriate letter. Example The student is looking for the School of Fine Arts. A Economic History B © Economics. D

Accountancy.

22

The orientation meeting A took place recently. B took place last term. C will take place tomorrow. D will take place next week.

23

Attendance at lectures is A optional after 4 pm. B closely monitored. C difficult to enforce. D sometimes unnecessary.

Cambridge IELTS 1

3

24

Tutorials take place every morning. A twice a week. B three mornings a week. C three afternoons a week. D

25

The lecturer's name is Roberts. A Rawson. B Rogers. C Robertson. D

Questions 26-31 Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Course requirements: Tutorial paper:

A piece of work on a given topic. Students must:

  

26 …………………………………… for 25 minutes 27 ……………………………………

give to lecturer for marking

Essay topic: Usually 28 …………………………………….…………… Type of exam: 29 ………………………………………………………….… Library: Important books are in 30 …………………………………… Focus of course: Focus on 31 ………………………………………………………

SECTION 4

Questions 32-41

Questions 32-33 Circle the appropriate letter. 32 The speaker works within the Faculty of Science and Technology. A Arts and Social Sciences. B Architecture. C Law. D 33

4

The Faculty consists firstly of subjects. A degrees. B divisions. C departments. D Cambridge IELTS 1

Questions 34-36 Complete the notes in NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

The subjects taken in the first semester in this course are psychology, sociology, 34 ………………………………………………………………… and ……………………………………………………………….. .

Students may have problems with 35 ………………………………………………… and 36 ……………………………………………….. .

Questions 37-41 Circle the appropriate letter. 37

The speaker says students can visit her every morning. A some mornings. B mornings only. C Friday morning. D

38

According to the speaker, a tutorial is a type of lecture. A is less important than a lecture. B provides a chance to share views. C provides an alternative to groupwork. D

39

When writing essays, the speaker advises the students to research their work well. A name the books they have read. B share work with their friends. C avoid using other writers' ideas. D

40

The speaker thinks that plagiarism is a common problem. A an acceptable risk. B a minor concern. C a serious offence. D

41

The speaker's aims are to introduce students to university expectations. A introduce students to the members of staff. B warm students about the difficulties of studying. C guide students round the university. D

Cambridge IELTS 1

5


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. KATE

Quiet

Her first impressions of the town

Example

Type of accommodation

1

Her feelings about the accommodation

2

Her feelings about the other students

3

Name of course

Environmental Studies

Difficulties experienced on the course

4

Suggestions for improving the course

5

LUKI First type of accommodation

6

Problem with the first accommodation

7

Second type of accommodation

8

Name of course

9

Comments about the course

Computer room busy

Suggestions for improving the course

10

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. There are many kinds of bicycles available: racing touring 11 …………………………. ordinary

6

Cambridge IELTS 1

They vary in price and 12 ………………………………………… . Prices range from $50.00 to 13 ……………………………………… . Single speed cycles are suitable for 14 ………………………………….. . Three speed cycles are suitable for 15 ……………………………………………. . Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills and 16 ………………….… . Ten speed bikes are better because they are 17 ………………………………………. in price but 18 ………………………………………. . Buying a cycle is like 19 ………………………………………….. . The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of the 20 ……………………………. .

SECTION 3

Questions 21-32

Questions 21-24 Circle the correct answer. 21

At first Fiona thinks that Martin's tutorial topic is inappropriate. A dull. B interesting. C fascinating. D

22

According to Martin, the banana has only recently been cultivated. A is economical to grow. B is good for your health. C is his favourite food. D

23

Fiona listens to Martin because she wants to know more about bananas. A has nothing else to do today. B is interested in the economy of Australia. C wants to help Martin. D

24

According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from India. A England. B China. C Africa. D

Cambridge IELTS 1

7

Questions 25-30 Complete Martin's notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Commercially grown Banana plant Each banana tree produces 25 …………………… of bananas. On modern plantations in tropical conditions a tree can bear fruit after 26 ……………………………… . Banana trees prefer to grow 27 ………………………………………..………..….. and they require rich soil and 28 …………………………………………………….. . The fruit is often protected by 29 ………………………………… . Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other 30 ……………………………………………… .

Questions 31 and 32 Circle the TWO correct boxes. Consumption of Australian bananas A B C D E

SECTION 4

Europe Asia New Zealand Australia Other

Questions 33-41

Questions 33-35 Circle the correct answer. According to the first speaker: 33 The focus of the lecture series is on organising work and study. A maintaining a healthy lifestyle. B

8

Cambridge IELTS 1

C D

coping with homesickness. settling in at university.

34

The lecture will be given by the president of the Union. A the campus doctor. B

C D

a sports celebrity. a health expert.

C D

sensible eating. saving money.

According to the second speaker: 35

This week's lecture is on A campus food. B dieting.

Questions 36-39 Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. A balanced diet A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living. Vitamins in food can be lost through 36 …………………………………………. . Types of vitamins: (a) Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body. (b) Water soluble vitamins – not stored, so you need a 37 ………………………………… . Getting enough vitamins Eat 38 …………………………………………………………………………. of foods. Buy plenty of vegetables and store them in 39 ………………………………………………. . Questions 40-41 Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided.

Example

Try to avoid sugar, salt and butter

40 ………………………. …………………………… milk, lean meat, fish, nuts, eggs

41 ………………………….………. bread, vegetables and fruit

Cambridge IELTS 1

9


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-12

Questions 1-4 Circle the appropriate letter. Example How does the woman travel every day? by car B A on foot D ©

by bus by train

1

What are the parking regulations on campus? undergraduate parking allowed. A postgraduate parking allowed. B staff parking only allowed. C no student parking allowed. D

2

The administration office is in Block B. A Block D. B Block E. C Block G. D

3

If you do not have a parking sticker, the following action will be taken: wheel clamp your car. A fine only. B tow away your car and fine. C tow away your car only. D

4

Which picture shows the correct location of the Administration office?

10

Cambridge IELTS 1

Questions 5-10 Complete the application form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Application for parking sticker Name 5 ………………………………………………………… Address 6 Flat 13 ……………………………………………… Suburb 7 ……………………………………………………….. Faculty 8 ………………………………………………………… Registration number 9 ………………………………………….. Make of car 10 ……………………………….…………………. Questions 11-12 11

Cashier's office opens at

12

Where must the sticker be displayed? ………………………………………..

SECTION 2

A

12.15

B

2.00

C

2.15

D

4.30

Questions 13-23

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Date the museum was opened

13

The museum consists of a building and

14

Handicapped toilet door shows

Example

The Education Centre is signposted by

15

If you lose your friends, meet at the

16

Warning about The Vampire

17

How often are the tours of THE Vampire?

18

Person featured in today's video

19

The Leisure Gallery shows how Australian culture is influenced by

20

The Picture Gallery contains pictures by

21

Cost of family membership of the museum

22

Passengers and the Sea' includes a collection of

23

a wheelchair

Cambridge IELTS 1

11

SECTION 3

Questions 24-32


Mark is going to talk briefly about marketing new products. A pricing strategies. B managing large companies. C setting sales targets. D

25

According to Susan, air fares are lowest when they include weekend travel. A are booked well in advance. B are non-refundable. C are for business travel only. D

26

Mark thinks revenue management is interesting A complicated. B time-consuming. C reasonable. D

27

The airline companies want to increase profits. A benefit the passenger. B sell cheap seats. C improve the service. D

Questions 28-32 Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Two reasons for the new approach to pricing are: 28 ……………………………….. and 29 ……………………………………………….. . In future people will be able to book airline tickets 30 ………………………………….. . Also being marketed in this way are 31 ………………………….…………………. and 32 …………………………………………………………. .

SECTION 4

Questions 33-42

Questions 33-37 Complete the table. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SPACE MANAGEMENT RESEARCH METHOD

INFORMATION PROVIDED

Questionnaires

What customers think about 33 ……………………….

34 ……………………………………..

How customers move around supermarket aisles

Eye movement 35 ……………………………………..

The most eye-catching areas of the shop

Computer programs e.g. 36 ……………………………..

The best 37 ……………………… for an article in the shop

12

Cambridge IELTS 1

Questions 38-42 Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

A SUPERMARKET AISLE ENTRANCE First shelves – customers usually 38 …………………………… these.

EXIT Checkout – often used to sell 42 ……………….………...

AISLE Products placed here sell well particularly if they are placed 39 …………………...………. These areas are known as 40 ……………………..…..

Gondola end – prime position: used to launch new products

Gondola end – often find 41 …………..………. displayed here.

Cambridge IELTS 1

13


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-12

Questions 1-5 Circle the appropriate letter. Example

B

What has the woman lost?

Main Hall

C

Old Hall

Great Hall

D

Old Building

1

Where is the administration building?

2

How many people are waiting in the queue? A 50

B

100

C

3

What does the woman order for lunch?

4

What does the woman order to drink?

14

Cambridge IELTS 1

200

D 300

How much money does the woman give the man?

5

A $2.00

B $3.00

C $3.50

D $5.00

Questions 6-10 Complete the registration form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Name of student:

6 ……………………………..……………………………..

Address:

7 Flat 5/……………..……….……………………………..

Town:

8 ……………………..…………………………………….

Tel:

9 ………………………..………………………………….

Course:

10 ………………………………………………………….

Questions 11-12 11

What did the man buy for her to eat?

12 What must the students do as part of registration at the university? A Check the notice board in the Law Faculty. B Find out about lectures. C Organise tutorial groups. D Pay the union fees.

SECTION 2

Questions 13-21

Complete the table. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

STUDENT BANKING Recommended Banks

Location

Barclays

Realty Square

National Westminster

Example: Preston Park

Lloyds

City Plaza

Midland

13 …………………………………………………….

Note: May not be allowed all facilities given to resident students.

Cambridge IELTS 1

15

Funding Must provide 14 ………………………………………. I can support myself. Services will depend on personal circumstances and discretion of Bank Manager. Opening an account Take with me: 15 …………………………………………. and letter of enrolment. Recommended account: 16 ………………………………………………………………….. Bank supplies: 17 ……………………………………….. and chequecard which guarantees cheques. Other services Cashcard: (you can 18 ………………………………………. cash at any time.) Switch/Delta cards: (take the money 19 …………………………………….. the account.) Overdraft Must have 20 …………………………………………………………………….. Sometimes must pay interest. Opening time Most banks open until 21 ……………………………………………. during the week. Some open for a limited time on Saturdays.

SECTION 3

Questions 22-31

Questions 22-25 Complete the factsheet. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

FACTSHEET – Aluminium Cans

  

16

22 …………………………………… produced every day in the US – more cans produced than nails or 23 ………………………………………. each can weighs 0.48 ounces – thinner than two 24 ………………………………………………………………………… can take more than 90 pounds of pressure per square inch – over 25 …………………………………………… the pressure of a car tyre

Cambridge IELTS 1

Questions 26-31 Label the aluminium can. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SECTION 4

Questions 32-42

Complete the lecture notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Purpose of the mini lecture To experience 32 ……………………………………….

To find out about 33 ………………………………………………

The three strands of Sports Studies are: a Sports psychology b Sports 34 ……………………..…… c Sports physiology The psychologists work with

35 ……………………………...

They want to discover what

36 ……………………………...

b

Sports marketing looks at Sport now competes with Spectators want

37 ……………………………... 38 ……………………………... 39 ……………………………...

c

Sports physiology is also known as

40 ……………………………...

Macro levels look at

41 ……………………………...

Micro level looks at

42 ……………………………...

a

Cambridge IELTS 1

17


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

VIDEO LIBRARY APPLICATION FORM Example

Answer

Surname:

Jones

First names:

Louise Cynthia

Address:

Apartment 1,72 1 …………………………………… Street Highbridge

Post code: Telephone: Driver's licence number:

2 ……………………………… 9835 6712 (home) 3 …………………………………….. (work) 4 ……………………………………..

Date of birth:

Day: 25th Month: 5 …………………………… Year: 1977

Questions 6-8 Circle THREE letters A-F. What types of films does Louise like? Action A Comedies B Musicals C Romance D Westerns E Wildlife F Questions 9 and 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 9 10

18

How much does it cost to join the library? …………………………………………………………….. When will Louise's card be ready? …………………………………………………………….. Cambridge IELTS 2

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Expedition Across Attora Mountains Leader:

Charles Owen

Prepared a

11 ……………………………………………… for the trip

Total length of trip

12 …………………..……………………………………………

Climbed highest peak in

13 ……………………..…………………………………………

Questions 14 and 15 Circle the correct letters A-C. 14

What took the group by surprise? the amount of rain A the number of possible routes B the length of the journey C

15

How did Charles feel about having to change routes? He reluctantly accepted it. A He was irritated by the diversion. B It made no difference to his enjoyment. C

Questions 16-18 Circle THREE letters A-F. What does Charles say about his friends? He met them at one stage on the trip. A They kept all their meeting arrangements. B One of them helped arrange the transport. C One of them owned the hotel they stayed in. D Some of them travelled with him. E Only one group lasted the 96 days. F Questions 19 and 20 Circle TWO letters A-E. What does Charles say about the donkeys? He rode them when he was tired A He named them after places. B One of them died. C They behaved unpredictably. D They were very small. E Cambridge IELTS 2

19

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. TIM

JANE

Day of arrival

Sunday

21 ………………………

Subject

History

22 ………………………

Number of books to read

23 ………………………………

24 ………………………

Day of first lecture

Tuesday

25 ………………………

Questions 26-30 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 26

What is Jane's study strategy in lectures? ……………………………………………………………..

27

What is Tim's study strategy for reading? ………………………………………………………………

28

What is the subject of Tim's first lecture? …………………………………………………………….

29

What is the title of Tim's first essay? ………………………………………………………………

30

What is the subject of Jane's first essay? ……………………………………………………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Course Physical Fitness Instructor

Type of course: duration and level Example Six-month certificate

None

Sports Administrator

31 ………………………………

32 …………………………… in sports administration

Sports Psychologist

33 ………………………………

Degree in psychology

Physical Education Teacher

Four-year degree in education

Recreation Officer 20

Entry requirements

Cambridge IELTS 2

35 …………………………….

34 …………………………… None

Questions 36-40 Complete the table below. Write the appropriate letters A-G against Questions 36-40.

Job

Main role

Physical Fitness Instructor

36 ……………………..

Sports Administrator

37 ……………………..

Sports Psychologist

38 ……………………..

Physical Education Teacher

39 ……………………..

Recreation Officer

40 ……………………..

MAIN ROLES A

the coaching of teams

B

the support of elite athletes

C

guidance of ordinary individuals

D

community health

E

the treatment of injuries

F

arranging matches and venues

G

the rounded development of children

Cambridge IELTS 2

21


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Circle the correct letters A-C. Example Gavin moved into his apartment ……… two days ago. A two weeks ago. two months ago.

C 1

Gavin's apartment is located on the …… ground floor. A second floor. B third floor. C

2

The monthly rent for Gavin's apartment is ….. $ 615. A $ 650. B $ 655. C

Questions 3-6 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. ITEM

VALUE

3 ……………………………………………………………

$450

4 ……………………………………………………………

$1,150

Watches

$2,000

CDs and 5 ………………………………………………

$400

Total annual cost of insurance 6 $ ………………………………………………………………………………

22

Cambridge IELTS 2

Questions 7-10 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

INSURANCE APPLICATION FORM Mr Gavin 7 …………………………………………….. 8 …………………………………….. Biggins Street 9 ……………………………………………………………. 12th November 1980 Home: 9872 4855 10 …………………………………………………………

Name: Address: Date of Birth: Telephone: Nationality:

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Circle the correct letters A-D. Smith House was originally built as……….. A

a residential college.

B

a family house.

C

a university.

D

an office block.

Questions 12-14 Complete the explanation of the room number. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Room number:

12 ……………......... wing

N

2

34

13 …………….........

personal 14 …………….........

Questions 15-17 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 

Students need a front door key between 15 ……………..…… AND ……….………….. .



In an emergency, students should use 16 …………………………….………………...... .



Fees also cover some 17 ……………………………………………………………… charges. Cambridge IELTS 2

23

Questions 18-20 Complete the notice below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

HOUSE RULES 

No noise after 9 pm.



Smoking only allowed on 18 …………………………………………



No changes can be made to 19 …………………………………….

If you have any questions, ask the 20 …………………………….….

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Forms of media Print Pictures Audio (listening)

Audio-visual Electronic

Examples 

books



21 ……………………………………………………………………………..



22 ……………………………………………………………………………..



CDs



23 ……………………………………………………………………………..



film



24 ……………………………………………………………………………..



videos 25 ……………………………………………………………………………..

Questions 26-30 Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 26-30. According to the speakers, in which situation are the following media most useful? A B C 24

individual children five or six children whole class Cambridge IELTS 2

Example

Answer

pictures tapes computers videos books wall maps

26 27 28 29 30

SECTION 4

A ………………………………. ………………………………. ………………………………. ………………………………. ……………………………….

Questions 31-40

Questions 31 Circle the correct letter A-D. What percentage of the workforce were employed in agriculture in the mid 1900s? 3% A 10% B 20% C 50% D Questions 32 and 33 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Three factors contributing to the efficiency of the agricultural sector are ….….  50 – 60 years of intelligent state support   the quality of 32 ………………………………………… among those employed   the farmers' investment in 33 ……………………………………………………  Questions 34-39 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Region

North

East flat with 36 …………………..

West

Land

hilly with thin soil

rich soil

Climate

34 …………………. and ………………….

mixed

38 …………………. and ………………….

Farm type

small, family-run

commercial

average size 39 ……….. hectares

Produce

35 …………………. and ………………….

cereals and 37 ………………….

milk, cheese and meat

Question 40 Circle the correct letter A-C. Farmers have a strong sense of solidarity because ……. the media supports them. A they have a strong Union. B they have countrywide interests. C Cambridge IELTS 2

25


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Circle the correct letters A-C. Example The respondent is …..… 20-33 years old. A 34-53 years old. C

over 54 years old.

1

The respondent works in ….… the professions. A business. B other. C

2

The respondent has a salary of …… 0-£15,000 a year. A £15,000-£35,000 a year. B over £35,000 a year. C

3

The respondent watches TV for ……. relaxation. A entertainment. B information. C

4

Every day the respondent watches TV for…… 30 minutes-1 hour. A 1 hour-2 hours. B more than 2 hours. C

Questions 5-7 Choose TWO letters A-E. The respondent mainly watches TV …… 5 in the early morning. A around midday. B in the afternoon. C in the early evening. D at night E 6

26

On the new channel, the respondent would like to see more…. children's programmes. A documentaries. B local service programmes. C travel programmes. D health programmes. E Cambridge IELTS 2

7

The respondent would advise the new channel to ….…. spend more money on drama. A train their broadcasters to higher standards. B improve sound quality. C broadcast interviews with famous people. D talk more to customers. E

Questions 8-10 Circle the correct letters A-C. 8

The respondent feels that adverts should occur every …… 10 minutes. A 15 minutes. B 20 minutes. C

9

The respondent would like to attend special promotions if …… expenses are paid. A he is invited specially. B they are held locally. C

10

The respondent would like to receive ..…. no mail. A requested mail. B all mail. C

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Circle FOUR letters A-G. Which FOUR activities of the Union are mentioned by the speaker? A B C D E F G

raising money for good causes political campaigning running a newsagent's running a supermarket providing cheap tickets helping with accommodation providing catering services

Questions 15 and 16 Circle TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of the following can you get advice about from the Union? immigration A grants B medical problems C personal problems D legal matters E

Cambridge IELTS 2

27

Questions 17-20 Write the appropriate letters A-C against Questions 17-20. What are the locations of the following places in Radford? part of the Matro Tower building. A in the main square in the centre of the town. B some distance from the centre of the town. C Example The swimming pool the hi-tech fitness centre the ice rink the new cinema The Theatre Royal

17 18 19 20

SECTION 3

Answer C …………. …………. …………. ………….

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

DISSERTATION INFORMATION Hand-in date: 21 …………………………………………………………………………………………………………… Length: 22 …………………………………………………. to …………………………………………..……… words Extra programme offered on: 23 ……………………………………………………………………………………. Questions 24-26 Complete the table below.

DISSERTATION TIMETABLE Date

Action

31 January

Basic bibliography

7 February

24 ……………………………………

February- March

25 ……………………………………

26 ……………… to ……………

Write up work

21 May

Hand in work

28

Cambridge IELTS 2

Questions 27-30 What is Dr Simon's opinion on the following points? Tick column A Tick column B Tick column C

if he is in favour If he has no strong opinion either way if he is against A

B

C

27 Buying a computer 28 Reading previous year's dissertations 29 Using questionnaires as main research instrument 30 Interviewing tutors

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


The driest continent is …….. Australia. A Africa. B Antarctica. C

32

The evaporation rate in Australia is …… lower than Africa. A higher than Africa. B about the same as Africa. C

33

Rainfall in Australia hardly penetrates the soil because ..…. the soil is too hard. A the soil is too hot. B plants use it up. C

34

In sandy soils water can ……. evaporate quickly. A seep down to rock. B wash the soil away. C

35

Water is mainly pumped up for .…… people to drink. A animals to drink. B watering crops. C

36

Natural springs are located….. in unexplored parts of Australia. A quite commonly over all Australia. B in a few areas of Australia. C Cambridge IELTS 2

29

37

Underground water supplies….. 18% of Australia's water. A 48% of Australia's water. B 80% of Australia's water. C

Questions 38-40 Circle THREE letters A-E. Which THREE of the following uses of dam water are mentioned? A B C D E

30

providing water for livestock watering farmland providing water for industry controlling flood water producing hydro-electric power

Cambridge IELTS 2


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

MIC HOUSE AGENCY - REPAIRS Example

Answer

Name:

Paul SMILEY

Address:

Apartment 2, 1 ……………………………………….……, Newton

Length of lease:

one year

Date moved in:

2 ……………………………………………………………………..

Questions 3-9 Complete the table below. Write

A B C

if the repair will be done immediately. if the repair will be done during the following week. if the repair will be done in two or more weeks.

Item

Problem

When to be done

washing machine

leaking

Example A

cooker

3 …………………….

4 …………………….

windows

5 …………………….

B

6 ……………………

flickers

7 …………………….

8 …………………….

torn

9 …………………….

Question 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. Workman to call between 10 …………………….. and …………………………. . .

Cambridge IELTS 2

31

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Circle the correct letters A-C. 11

At Rainforest Lodge there aren’t any ..….. telephones or TVs. A newspapers or TVs. B telephones or newspapers. C

12

The guests are told to ..….. carry their luggage to the cabin. A go straight to the restaurant. B wait an hour for dinner. C

Questions 13-15 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. TOUR NAME

DETAILS

Orchid and Fungi

walking tour

Four-Wheel-Drive

tour to the 13 ………………………..

Fishing

to catch lunch

Crocodile Cruise

departs at 14 …………………… daily

15 …………………………………….

departs at sundown

Questions 16-20 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. What THREE items of clothing does the speaker recommend for the rainforest? 16

………………………………………………………………

17

………………………………………………………………

18

………………………………………………………………

Which TWO things in the rainforest does the speaker give a warning about? 19

…………………………………………………………………

20

…………………………………………………………………

32

Cambridge IELTS 2

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Circle the correct letters A-C. 21 These sessions with a counselor are …….. A compulsory for all students. B available to any students. C for science students only. 22

The counselor says that new students have to ….… spend more time on the college premises. A get used to working independently. B work harder than they did at school. C

23

John complains that the resource centre ….… has limited opening hours. A has too few resources. B gets too crowded. C

24

The counselor suggests to John that ……. most other students can cope. A he needs to study all the time. B he should be able to fit in some leisure activities. C

25

Before being able to help John the counselor needs to ….…. talk with some of his lecturers. A consult his tutor. B get more information from him. C

Questions 26-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. WRITING  Pay careful attention to the question  Leave time to 26 ………………………………………………….. LISTENING  Try to 27 ……………………………………………… lectures  Check notes with 28 …………………………………………….. READING  Choose topics of 29 ………………………………………………  Buy a good 30 ………………………………………………………

Cambridge IELTS 2

33

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


John was first interested in the subject because of something ..… he had witnessed. A he had read about. B he had experienced. C

32

The main research method was ……. interviews. A questionnaires. B observation. C

33

Which pie chart shows the proportion of men and women respondents?

34

How many respondents were there? 50-100 A 100-150 B 150-200 C

35

The most common type of road rage incident involved …… damage to property. A personal violence. B verbal abuse. C

Questions 36-40 Which group gave the following advice? Tick Column A Tick column B Tick column C

if it was mainly women. if it was mainly men. if it was both men and women. A

Example Don’t stop to ask directions. 36 Avoid eye contact with other drivers. 37 Inform someone of your likely arrival time. 38 Ensure car keys are ready when you return to the car. 39 Leave plenty of space when parking. 40 Keep all doors locked. 34

Cambridge IELTS 2



B

C


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Example Name of agent:

Answer Flagstone

Areas dealt with:

1 …………………….. north suburbs from 2 £ ………… to £ ………….. a month the area availability of 3 ……………………… garage West Park Road rent 4 £ …………………….. a month including 5 ………………..

Rent: Depends on:

Properties available:

Viewing arrangements: Need: Must:

SECTION 2

Tithe Road rent £380 a month including 6 ………………… rental meet at office on 7 …………… at 5.00 pm letter from bank reference from 8 …………………………… give 9 …………………………… notice of moving in give deposit of 10 ……………………… pay for contract

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11

Who is Mrs Sutton worried about? ……………………………………………………………..

12

What is the name for a group of family doctors working in the same building together? …………………………………………………………….. Cambridge IELTS 3

35

Questions 13–17 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Name of Health Centre

Number of doctors

Other information

Information about doctors Dr Jones is good with

Dean End

13 …………………….

Appointment system

16 …………………………..

15 ………………………

patients.

than South Hay

Dr Shaw is good with small children.

14 ……………………

South Hay

Building less modern

Dr Williams helps people

than Dean End

with 17………………………………

Question 18 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER. Doctors start seeing patients at the Health Centre from …………………….. o'clock. Question 19 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO groups of patients receive free medication? people over 17 years old A unemployed people B non-UK residents C people over 60 years old D pregnant women E Question 20 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER. The charge for one item of medication is about £ …………………………… .

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below. Write NUMBERS AND / OR NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. NOTES ON APPLICATION Name:

Jonathan Briggs

Degree:

Economic and 21 ……………………………..

Teaching experience:

Volunteer Teacher

Location:

22 ……………………………………………………..

36

Cambridge IELTS 3

Dates:

23 ……………………………………………………..

Volunteer Organisation:

24 ……………………………………………………..

Type of school:

25 ……………………………………………………..

Subjects taught:

26 ……………………………………… Forms 1, 2 and 3

Other responsibilities:

• English

Form 27 …………

• Agricultural Science

Form 6

ran school farm

NOTES (continued) Reasons for wanting to leave in first year:

•28 …………………………………………………………... • few teaching resources

Reasons for wanting to extend tour:

• success of cattle breeding project • obtained funds for farm buildings

Reasons for wanting to train to teach Geography:

SECTION 4

• It is his 29 ………………………………………………. • It has many 30 ………………………………………..

Questions 31-40

Questions 31–36 Choose the correct letters A-C. 31

Which column of the bar chart represents the figures quoted?

32

According to the speaker, the main cause of back pain in women is pregnancy. A osteoporosis. B lack of exercise. C

33

As treatment for back pain the Clinic mainly recommends pain killers. A relaxation therapy. B exercise routines. C Cambridge IELTS 3

37

34

The back is different from other parts of the body because it is usually better at self-repair. A a back injury is usually more painful. B its response to injury often results in more damage. C

35

Bed rest is advised for a maximum of two days. A for extreme pain only. B for pain lasting more than two days. C

36

Being overweight is a major source of back pain. A worsens existing back pain. B reduces the effectiveness of exercise. C

Questions 37-40 Choose the correct letters A-C. Strongly

Recommended

Not

recommended

in certain

recommended

circumstances A Example

B

C

B

C

B

C

Answer

Diet if overweight 37 Buy special orthopaedic

A

Chairs Example

Answer

Buy orthopaedic

A

C

mattresses

38 Buy shock-absorbing

A

B

C

39 Wear flat shoes

A

B

C

40 Buy TENS machine

A

B

C

inserts

38

Cambridge IELTS 3


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Programme of Activities for First Day Time

Place

Event

Example 10.00

Meet the Principal and staff 1 ………………………………………….

10.15

Talk by 2 ………………………….

10.45

Talk by 3 ………………………….

4 ……………………………………….

Classroom 5

5 ………………………………. test

Questions 6-10 Label the rooms on the map next page. Choose your answers from the box below and write them next to questions 6-10.

CL

Computer Laboratory

DO

Director's Office

L

Library

MH

Main Hall

S

Storeroom

SAR Self Access Room SCR Student Common Room SR

Staff Room

Cambridge IELTS 3

39

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

TYPE OF HELP FINANCIAL 12 ………………………………………… ACADEMIC 14 ………………………………………..

40

Cambridge IELTS 3

EXAMPLES  grants  11 ………………………………………  childcare  nurseries  13 ………………………………………  using the library  individual interests  15 ………………………………………

Questions 16-20 Complete the notes below. Write NUMBERS OR NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

HELPLINE DETAILS Officer

Jackie 16 ……………………………

Address

Student Welfare Office 13 Marshall Road

Telephone number

17 ……………………………………….

Opening hours

9.30 am- 6 pm (weekdays) 18 ……………………… (Saturdays)

Ring or visit office for 19 ………….. N.B. At peak times there may be a 20 ……………………………………………….

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Choose the correct letters A-C. 21

At the start of the tutorial, the tutor emphasises the importance of interviews. A staff selection. B question techniques. C

22

An example of a person who doesn’t 'fit in' is someone who is over-qualified for the job. A lacks experience of the tasks set. B disagrees with the rest of the group. C

23

An important part of teamwork is having trust in your colleagues' ability. A employer's directions. B company training. C

24

The tutor says that finding out personal information is a skill that needs practice. A avoided by many interviewers. B already a part of job interviews. C

Cambridge IELTS 3

41

Questions 25-29 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Question 30 Choose the correct letter A-C. What is the tutor trying to do in the tutorial? describe one selection technique A criticise traditional approaches to interviews. B illustrate how she uses personality questionnaires C

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31 and 32 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

42

Cambridge IELTS 3

Questions 33 and 34 Label the diagrams. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Introduction to Hat-Making

cut into centre and 33 …………………………………………. the cut

stick flaps to 34 ………………………………………………….. of circle Questions 35-37 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 38-40 Indicate who made the hats. Write the appropriate letter A-E next to each name. 38

Theresa ……………..…….

39

Muriel …………………….

40

Fabrice ……………………

Cambridge IELTS 3

43


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

NOTES – Christmas Dinner Example Number to book for: Date of dinner: Choices for venue:

• First choice • Second choice • Third choice

Answer … 45… 21 December 1 ………………………..……… Tel. number: not known 2 ……………………………... Tel. number: 777192 3 …………………………...… Tel. number: 4 ……………………

Price per person: £12 Restaurant must have vegetarian food and a 5 …………………………………………………………… Menu: First course - French Onion Soup OR Fruit Juice Main course - Roast Dinner OR 6 …………………………………………… Dessert - Plum Pudding OR Apple Pie - Coffee Restaurant requires from us: 7 …………………………………………………………………. and letter of confirmation and we must 8 ……………………………………………………………. in advance. Must confirm in writing by: 9 ……………………………………………………….. Put notice in 10 ……………………………………………………………………………..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MEMBERSHIP OF SPORTS CENTRE

44

Cost

11 £ ……………………………….. per 12 ………………………………………

Where?

13 ……………………………………….

When?

2 to 6 pm, Monday to Thursday

Bring:

Union card Photo Fee Cambridge IELTS 3

Questions 14-16 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Always bring sports 14 ………………………………… when you come to 15 …………………. or use the Centre's facilities. 9 am to 10 pm on 16 …………………………… Opening hours 10 am to 6 pm on Saturdays 50% 'morning discount' 9 am to 12 noon on weekdays

Questions 17-20 Look at the map of the Sports Complex below. Label the building on the map of the Sports Complex. Choose your answers from the box below and write them against Questions 17-20. Arts Studio

Football Pitch

Tennis Courts

Dance Studio

Fitness Room

Reception

Squash Courts

Cambridge IELTS 3

45

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

YOUNG ELECTRONIC ENGINEER COMPETITION Name(s) of designer(s): John Brown 21 …………………….. Age: 22 …………………… Name of design: 23 ………………………………………………………………………………………. Dimensions of equipment: 24 Width Length Depth ……….….. cm ……….….. cm ……….….. cm Power: Battery Special features:

25 ………………………………………………………………………………………. 26 ………………………………………………………………………………………. 27 ……………………………………………………………………………………….

Cost: Parts $5 28 ………………………………………………………… $9.50 Other comments: need help to make 29 …………………………………………………………….

would like to develop range of sizes Send by: 30 ………………………………………………

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

"NEW" MEAT

46

CAN BE COMPARED TO

PROBLEM

kangaroo

31 ……………………………..

32 ……………………….

crocodile

chicken

fatty

ostrich

33 ……………………………….

Cambridge IELTS 3


OSTRICH PRODUCT

USE 

tribal ceremonial dress



34 ………………………



decorated hats

Ostrich hide



35 …………………………

Ostrich 36 …………………………



'biltong'

Ostrich feathers


Ostrich meat has more protein than beef. A tastes nearly as good as beef. B is very filling. C

38

One problem with ostrich farming in Britain is the climate. A the cost of transporting birds. B the price of ostrich eggs. C

39

Ostrich chicks reared on farms must be kept in incubators until mature. A are very independent. B need looking after carefully. C

40

The speaker suggests ostrich farms are profitable because little initial outlay is required. A farmed birds are very productive. B there is a good market for the meat. C

Cambridge IELTS 3

47


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Birth Statistics Example Date of birth:

Answer

Sex:

male

First name:

Tom

Surname: Weight:

Lightfoot

Length:

2 ……………………………. cms

Colour of hair:

black

10 August

1 ……………………………. kgs

Questions 3-5 Label the map. Choose your answers from the box below. Write the appropriate letters A-E on the map. A B C D E

State Bank St George's Hospital Garage Library University

Questions 6-10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Gift for Susan

Gift for baby

What will they buy?

6 ……………………………..

7 ……………………………..

Where will they buy the gifts?

8 ……………………………..

9 ……………………………..

Approximate prices?

$15

10 $ …………………………….

48

Cambridge IELTS 3

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. For the recommendation column, write A B C

You must buy this. Maybe you should buy this. You should never buy this.

Name Unbreakable Vacuum Flask

  

Whistle Key Holder

 

Army Flashlight (squeeze light) Decoy Camera (to trick burglars)

Advantage(s) Contains no 11 ………………..….. Steel guaranteed for 20 years Keeps warm for 12 ………………..….. Press-button light useful for finding keyhole 14 …………….……..

 Useful for 17 ……………...……  Works 18 …………….….….  Realistic 20 …………….…..…

Disadvantage(s)  Expensive  Leaves 13 ……….…..

Recommendation

B

 Unpleasant noise  Doesn’t work through 15 ………………………

16 ……………………

 Has 19 ………………… C  Difficult to fix onto wall A

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Amina's project is about a local school. A hospital. B factory. C

22

Dr Bryson particularly liked the introduction. A the first chapter. B the middle section. C

23

Amina was surprised because she thought it was bad. A wrote it quickly. B found it difficult to do. C Cambridge IELTS 3

49

Questions 24-26 What suggestions does Dr. Bryson make? Complete the table as follows. Write A Write B Write C

if he says KEEP UNCHANGED if he says REWRITE if he says REMOVE COMPLETELY

Example

Answer

Section headings

B

Information on housing

24

……………………………..

Interview data

25

……………………………..

Chronology

26

……………………………..

Questions 27-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SCHEDULE OF ACTION  Read ‘Approaches to Local History’ by John Mervis.  Read 27 ‘………………………….’ by Kate Oakwell.  Make changes and show to 28 ………………………………….  Do 29 ………………………….. by 29 June.  Laser print before 30 …………………………. .  Hand in to Faculty Office.

50

Cambridge IELTS 3

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Write NUMBERS AND/OR NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS for each answer. Between what times is the road traffic lightest? ………………………………………………………………………………………… 32 Who will notice the noise most? ……………………………………………………………………….……….……….. 33 Which day of the week has the least traffic? ………………………………………………………………………………….…….... 34 What will be the extra cost of modifying houses? ………………………………………………………………………………………….. 31

Question 35 Choose the correct letter A-D. The noise levels at the site can reach 45 decibels. A 55 decibels. B 67 decibels. C 70 decibels. D Questions 36-38 Complete the table showing where devices used in reducing noise could be fitted in the houses. Write:

W D C

for walls for doors for ceilings

Example

Answer acoustic seals

36

double thickness plaster board

37

mechanical ventilation

38

air conditioning

D

Cambridge IELTS 3

51

Questions 39 and 40 Choose the correct letters A-D. 39

40

52

Which is the correct construction for acoustic double glazing?

What is the best layout for the houses?

Cambridge IELTS 3


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


NOTES ON SOCIAL PROGRAMME Example

Answer

Number of trips per month:

5

Visit places which have:    Cost: Note:

historical interest good 1 ……………………… 2 …………………………………

between £5.00 and £15.00 per person special trips organised for groups of 3 ………… people departure – 8.30 a.m. return – 6.00 p.m. sign name on the 4 …………… 3 days in advance

Time: To reserve a seat:

Questions 5-10 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. WEEKEND TRIPS Place St Ives

Date 5 …………………………

Number of seats 16

Optional extra Hepworth Museum

London

16th February

45

6 …………………………..

7 ………………………..

3rd March

18

S.S. Great Britain

Salisbury

18th March

50

Stonehenge

Bath

23rd March

16

8 ……………………………..

For further information Read the 9 …………………………….. or see Social Assistant: Jane 10 ………………………………………..

Cambridge IELTS 4

53

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

RIVERSIDE INDUSTRIAL VILLAGE 11 Riverside Village was a good place to start an industry because it had water, raw materials and fuels such as ……………………………. and …………………………… . 12 The metal industry was established at Riverside Village by …………………… who lived in the area. 13 There were over ……………………. water-powered mills in the area in the eighteenth century. Questions 14-20 Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

54

Cambridge IELTS 4

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example Melanie could not borrow any books from the library because the librarian was out. A she didn’t have time to look. B © the books had already been borrowed. 21

Melanie says she has not started the assignment because she was doing work for another course. A it was a really big assignment. B she hasn’t spent time in the library. C

22

The lecturer says that reasonable excuses for extensions are planning problems. A problems with assignment deadlines. B personal illness or accident. C

Questions 23 – 27 What recommendations does Dr Johnson make about the journal articles? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-G next to questions 23-27. A B C D E F G

must read useful limited value read first section read research methods read conclusion don’t read

Example Anderson and Hawker: Jackson:

23

………………

Roberts:

24

………………

Morris:

25

………………

Cooper:

26

………………

Forster:

27

………………

Answer

A

Cambridge IELTS 4

55

Questions 28-30 Label the chart below. Choose your answers from the box below and write the letters A-H next to questions 28-30.

Population studies Reasons for changing accommodation

A B C D E F G H

SECTION 4

Possible reasons uncooperative landlord environment space noisy neighbours near city work location transport rent

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

THE URBAN LANDSCAPE Two areas of focus:  the effect of vegetation on the urban climate  ways of planning our 31 ……………………….. better

56

Cambridge IELTS 4

Large–scale impact of trees:  they can make cities more or less 32 ……………………………  in summer they can make cities cooler  they can make inland cities more 33 ……………………………. Local impact of trees:  they can make local areas - more 34 ………………… - cooler - more humid - less windy - less 35 …………………. Comparing trees and buildings Temperature regulation:  trees evaporate water through their 36 ……………………….  building surfaces may reach high temperatures wind force:  tall buildings cause more wind at 37 …………………………… level  trees 38 …………………………… the wind force Noise:  trees have a small effect on traffic noise  39 ………………………. frequency noise passes through tress Important points to consider:  trees require a lot of sunlight, water and 40 ………………………………. to grow

Cambridge IELTS 4

57


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example How long has Sally been waiting? five minutes A twenty minutes B © thirty minutes 1

What does Peter want to drink? tea A coffee B a cold drink C

2

What caused Peter problems at the bank? The exchange rate was down. A He was late. B The computers weren’t working. C

3

Who did Peter talk to at the bank? an old friend A an American man B a German man C

4

Henry gave Peter a map of the city. A the bus routes. B the train system. C

5

What do Peter and Sally decide to order? food and drinks A just food B just drinks C

Questions 6-8 Complete the notes below using words from the box. Tourist attraction open all day: 6 ……………………………………….. and Gardens Tourist attractions NOT open on Mondays: 7 ………………………… and Castle Tourist attraction which have free entry: 8 ………………………………… and Markets 58

Cambridge IELTS 4

Art Gallery Cathedral Castle Gardens Markets

Questions 9 and 10 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 9 The first place Peter and Sally will visit is the ……………………………………………………………….. . 10 At the Cathedral, Peter really wants to ……………………………………………………………….. .

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-20 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11

The Counselling Service may contact tutors if they are too slow in marking assignments. A they give students a lot of work. B they don’t inform students about their progress. C

12

Stress may be caused by new teachers. A time pressure. B unfamiliar subject matter. C

13

International students may find stress difficult to handle because they lack support from family and friends. A they don’t have time to make new friends. B they find it difficult to socialise. C

14

A personal crisis may be caused by studying for too long overseas. A business problems in the student’s own country. B disruptions to personal relationships. C

15

Students may lose self-esteem if they have to change courses. A they don’t complete a course. B their family puts too much pressure on them. C

16

Students should consult Glenda Roberts if their general health is poor. A their diet is too strict. B they can’t eat the local food. C

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17

18

Students in financial difficulties can receive assistance to buy books. A a loan to pay their course fees. B a no-interest loan to cover study expenses. C Loans are also available to students who can’t pay their rent. A need to buy furniture. B can’t cover their living expenses. C

19

The number of students counselled by the service last year was 214. A 240. B 2,600. C

20

The speaker thinks the Counselling Service has been effective in spite of staff shortages. A is under-used by students. B has suffered badly because of staff cuts. C

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DETAILS OF ASSIGNMENT Part 1 Essay Title: ‘Assess the two main methods of 21 ……………………… in

social science research’ Number of words: 22 ……………………… Part 2 Small-scale study Choose one method. Gather data from at least 23 ……………………… subjects. Part 3 Report on study Number of words: 24 ………………………

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Cambridge IELTS 4

Questions 25 and 26 Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO disadvantages of questionnaire form of data collection do the students discuss? A B C D E

The data is sometimes invalid. Too few people may respond. It is less likely to reveal the unexpected. It can only be used with literate populations. There is a delay between the distribution and return of questionnaires.

Questions 27-30 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. AUTHOR

TITLE

27 …………………

PUBLISHER

YEAR OF PUBLICATION

‘Sample Surveys in Social Science Research’

Bell

28 ……………………………………

29 ……………………….

Wilson

‘Interviews that work’

Oxford University Press

SECTION 4

30 ………………………

Questions 31-40

Questions 31 and 32 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 31

Corporate crime is generally committed. against individuals. A by groups. B for companies. C

32

Corporate crime does NOT include employees stealing from their company. A unintentional crime by employees. B fraud resulting from company policy. C

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61


Corporate crime has been ignored by: a) the 33 ………………………………….. e.g. films b) 34 ………………………………………… Reasons: a) often more complex, and needing 35 ……………………………………….. b) less human interest than conventional crime c) victims often 36 ………………………………………… Effects: a) Economic costs  may appear unimportant to 37 ………………………………..  can make large 38 ……………………………… for company  cause more losses to individuals than conventional crimes b) Social costs  make people lose trust in business world  affect poorer people most

Questions 39 and 40 Choose TWO letters A-F. The oil tanker explosion was an example of a crime which A B C D E F

62

was no-one’s fault. was not a corporate crime. was intentional. was caused by indifference. had tragic results. made a large profit for the company.

Cambridge IELTS 4


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.

Accommodation Request Form Example Name:

Answer Sara Lim

Age:

23

Length of time in Australia:

1 …………………………………….

Present address:

Flat 1, 539, 2 ………………………………………….. Road Canterbury 2036

Present course:

3 ……………………………………………. English

Accommodation required from:

4 …………………………………………..,

7th September


Sara requires a single room. A twin room. B triple room. C

6

She would prefer to live with a family. A single person. B couple. C

7

She would like to live in a flat. A house. B studio apartment. C

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Questions 8-10 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. 8 The ……………………………………….. will be $320. 9 She needs to pay the rent by cash or cheque on a …………………………… basis. 10 She needs to pay her part of the ……………………………………… bill.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


When is this year’s festival being held? 1-13 January A 5-17 January B 25-31 January C

12

What will the reviewer concentrate on today? theatre A dance B exhibitions C

13

How many circuses are there in the festival? one A two B several C

14

Where does Circus Romano perform? in a theatre A in a tent B in a stadium C

Questions 15-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Where Circus Romano Circus Electrica Mekong Water Puppets

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17 …………………… 19 ……...……………

Cambridge IELTS 4

Type of performance Clowns and acrobats Dancers and magicians Puppets

Highlights Music and 15 …………………. Aerial displays Seeing the puppeteers at the end

Type of audience 16 …………………… 18 ………………….. 20 …………………..

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


The man wants information on courses for people going back to college. A postgraduate students. B business executives. C

22

The ‘Study for Success’ seminar lasts for one day. A two days. B three days. C

23

In the seminar the work on writing aims to improve confidence. A speed. B clarity. C

24

Reading sessions help students to read analytically. A as fast as possible. B thoroughly. C

25

The seminar tries to prepare learners physically. A encourage interest in learning. B develop literacy skills. C


A Key component of the course is learning how to use time effectively. A stay healthy. B select appropriate materials. C

27

Students who want to do the ‘Study for Success’ seminar should register with the Faculty Office. A contact their Course Convenor. B reserve a place in advance. C

28

The ‘Learning Skills for University Study’ course takes place on Monday, Wednesday and Friday. A Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday. B Monday, Thursday and Friday. C

29

A feature of this course is a physical training component. A advice on coping with stress. B a detailed weekly planner. C Cambridge IELTS 4

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30

The man chooses the ‘Study for Success’ seminar because he is over forty. A he wants to start at the beginning. B he seeks to revise his skills. C

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31 and 32 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

New Union Building Procedures to establish student opinion: 

students were asked to give written suggestions on the building’s design



these points informed the design of a 31 ………………….……. (there were 32 ……………………………… respondents)



results collated and report produced by Union Committee


CHOICE OF SITE Site One City centre near

Location

Site Two Outskirts near park

Faculty of

Site Three Out of town near the 34 …………………………..

33 …………………………… Advantages

Problems with

Close to

Access to living

and / or

35 ……………………………

36 ………………………….

quarters. Larger site,

disadvantages

and …………………...

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Cambridge IELTS 4

so more 37 …………….

Question 38 Choose TWO letters A-G. Which TWO facilities did the students request in the new Union building? a library a games room a student health centre a mini fitness centre a large swimming pool a travel agency a lecture theatre

A B C D E F G Question 39

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. Which argument was used AGAINST having a drama theatre? A B C

It would be expensive and no students would use it. It would be a poor use of resources because only a minority would use it. It could not accommodate large productions of plays.

Question 40 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO security measures have been requested? A B C D E

closed-circuit TV show Union Card on entering the building show Union Card when asked spot searches of bags permanent Security Office on site

Cambridge IELTS 4

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Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


GOODBYE PARTY FOR JOHN Example

Answer 22nd December

Date: Venue: 1 …………………. Invitations (Tony) Who to invite:

Date for sending invitations:

Present (Lisa)

- John and his wife - Director - the 2 …………………………………………… - all the teachers - all the 3 ……………………………………… 4 …………………………………………………

Collect money during the Suggested amount per person: Check prices for:

5 ………………………………. 6 $ ……………………………… - CD players - 7 …………………………….. - coffee maker

Ask guests to bring:

- snacks - 8 ………………………………… - 9 ………………………………. 10 ……………………………..

Ask student representative to prepare a

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 To find out how much holidays cost, you should press button one. A two. B three. C 12

68

Travelite currently offer walking holidays only in Western Europe. A all over Europe. B outside Europe. C Cambridge IELTS 4

13

The walks offered by Travelite cater for a range of walking abilities. A are planned by guides from the local area. B are for people with good fitness levels. C

14

On Travelite holidays, people holidaying alone pay the same as other clients. A only a little more than other clients. B extra only if they stay in a large room. C

15

Entertainment is provided when guests request it. A most nights. B every night. C

Questions 16-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Length of holiday 3 days

Cost per person (including all accommodation costs) 16 $ ……………………………….

7 days

$350

14 days

19 $ ……………………….

SECTION 3

Special offers included in price Pick up from the 17 ………………………..………………. As above plus  book of 18 …………………  maps As above plus membership of a 20 ………………………………………

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Experiment Equipment Purpose number Experiment 1 21 …………………………….. and a table To show how things move on a cushion of air Experiment 2 Lots of paperclips To show why we need standard 22 ……………………………………. Experiment 3 23 ……………………………………. To show how and a jar of water 24 ……………………………….. grow Experiment 4 Cardboard, coloured pens and a To teach children about how 25 …………………………………. 26 …………………….… is made up Experiment 5 A drill, an old record, a pin/needle, To make a record player in paper, a bolt order to learn about recording sound Cambridge IELTS 4

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Questions 27-30 What problems do the speakers identify for each experiment? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 27-30.

A B C D E F G H

Problems too messy too boring too difficult too much equipment too long too easy  too noisy too dangerous

Experiment 1:

27 …………………

Experiment 2:

28 ………………….

Experiment 3:

29 …………………

Experiment 4:

Example F

Experiment 5:

30 …………………

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Sharks in Australia Length

largest caught:

16 metres

Weight

heaviest

31 …………………………………. kg

Skeleton

cartilage

Skin texture

rough barbs

Swimming aids

fins and 32 …………………….

Food

gathered from the ocean 33 ………….. sharks locate food by using their 34 …………….

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Cambridge IELTS 4


Shark meshing uses nets laid along the coastline. A at an angle to the beach. B from the beach to the sea. C

36

Other places that have taken up shark meshing include South Africa. A New Zealand. B Tahiti. C

37

The average number of sharks caught in nets each year is 15. A 150. B 1,500. C

38

Most sharks are caught in spring. A summer. B winter. C

Questions 39 and 40 Choose TWO letters, A-G. Which TWO factors reduce the benefits of shark nets? A B C D E F G

nets wrongly positioned strong waves and currents too many fish sharks eat holes in nets moving sands nets too short holes in nets scare sharks

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Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Dreamtime travel agency Tour information Example

Answer

Holiday name

Whale Watch Experience

Holiday length

2 days

Type of transportation

1 …………………………………

Maximum group size

2 …………………………………

Next tour date

3 …………………………………

Hotel name

4 The ……………………………

Questions 5 and 6 Choose the correct letter, A-E. Which TWO things are included in the price of tour? A B C D E

fishing trip guided bushwalk reptile park entry table tennis tennis

Questions 7-10 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7

The tour costs $ …………………………………… .

8

Bookings must be made no later than ………………………… days in advance.

9

A …………………… deposit is required.

10

The customer's reference number is ……………………………. .

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Cambridge IELTS 5

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Brand of Cot Baby Safe

Good Points Easy to 11 ……………..

Problems  

Choice Cots

Easy to 15 ………………

 

Mother's Choice Base of cot could be moved

 

Verdict

Did not have any 12 …………….. Babies could trap their 13 …………….. in the side bar Side did not drop down Spaces between the bars were 16 ……………….. Did not have any 18 ……………….. Pictures could be removed easily

14 ………………

17 ……………….

19 ……………….

Question 20 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

 Metal should not be rusted or bent  Edges of cot should not be 20 ……………………….

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 21 Andrew has worked at the hospital for two years. A three years. B five years. C 22

During the course Andrew's employers will pay his fees. A his living costs. B his salary. C

23

The part-time course lasts for one whole year. A 18 months. B two years. C Cambridge IELTS 5

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Questions 24 and 25 Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course? a case study A an essay B a survey C a short report D a study diary E Questions 26-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Modular Courses Students study 26 ……………………………. during each module. A module takes 27 ……………………………. and the work is very 28 ……………………….. . To get a Diploma each student has to study 29 ………………….......... and then work on 30 …………………………….. in depth.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 31 According to George Bernard Shaw, men are supposed to understand …..………….……, economics and finance. 32 However, women are more prepared to ………………………….. about them. 33

Women tend to save for ………………………. and a house.

34

Men tend to save for …………………………… and for retirement.

35

Women who are left alone may have to pay for ………………… when they are old.

Questions 36-40 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND /OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Saving for the future Research indicates that many women only think about their financial future when a 36 ………….. occurs. This is the worst time to make decisions. It is best for women to start thinking about pensions when they are in their 37 ……………. . A good way for women to develop their 38 ..………... in dealing with financial affairs would be to attend classes in 39 ……………… . When investing in stocks and shares, it is suggested that women should put a high proportion of their savings in 40 ……………. . In such ways, women can have a comfortable, independent retirement.

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Cambridge IELTS 5


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


LIBRARY INFORMATION Example Minimum joining age:

Answer 18 years

For registration, must take  two 1 ……………………………….. and  two forms of I.D. e.g. driving licence, 2 …………………………………… Cost to join per year (without current student card): 3 £ ……………………...……. Number of items allowed: (members of public) 4 ……………………………..…… Loan times: four weeks Fines start at 5 £ ………………………………………………… Computers can be booked up to 6 ……………………………. hours in advance Library holds most national papers, all 7 …………………………….., and magazines Need 8 …………………………… to use photocopier Creative Writing class  tutor is John 9 ………………………………………  held on 10 …………………………………… evenings

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD 11

In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador as a tourist guide. A as part of his studies. B as a voluntary worker. C

12

Dan's neighbour was successful in business because he employed carpenters from the area. A was the most skilled craftsman in the town. B found it easy to reach customers. C

13

Dan says the charity relies on getting enough bicycles to send regularly. A finding new areas which need the bicycles. B charging for the bicycles it sends abroad. C Cambridge IELTS 5

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14

What does Dan say about the town of Rivas? It has received the greatest number of bikes. A It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam. B Its economy has been totally transformed. C

15

What problem did the charity face in August 2000? It couldn’t meet its overheads. A It had to delay sending the bikes. B It was criticized in the British media. C

Questions 16 and 17 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer. 16 How much money did the charity receive when it won an award? …………………………………………………………………… 17 What is the charity currently hoping to buy? …………………………………………………………………… Questions 18-20 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE things can the general public do to help the charity Pedal Power? A B C D E F G

SECTION 3

organise a bicycle collection repair the donated bikes donate their unwanted tools do voluntary work in its office hold an event to raise money identify areas that need bikes write to the government

Questions 21-30

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

‘Student Life' video project Enjoyed:

 

Most useful language practice:

 

76

Cristina using the camera going to a British 21 …………………… listening to instructions learning 23 ……………….. vocabulary

Cambridge IELTS 5

Ibrahim contact with students doing other courses (has asked some to 22 ………………… with him) listening to British students' language because of: - normal speed - large amount of 24 …………………………..

General usefulness:

 

operating video camera working with other people: - learning about 25 ……………….. - compromising 26 ……………….. people who have different views

the importance of 27 ………………..

Things to do differently in future:



decide when to 28 ……………………….. each stage at the beginning make more effort to 29 ……………………….. with the camera

don’t make the film too 30 ………………..



SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


ANTARCTICA GEOGRAPHY  world's highest, coldest and windiest continent  more than 31 ……………………………… times as big as the UK  most of the area is classified as 32 ………………………………… RESEARCH STATIONS  international teams work together  33 ……………………………. is integrated with technical support  stations contain accommodation, work areas, a kitchen, a 34 ………………………. and a gym  supplies were brought to Zero One station by sledge from a 35 …………………………… at the edge of the ice 15 km away  problem of snow build-ups solved by building stations on 36 ……………………………….. with adjustable legs FOOD AND DIET  average daily requirement for an adult in Antarctica is approximately 37 …………………………….. kilocalories  rations for field work prepared by process of freeze-drying RESEARCH The most important research focuses on climate change, including -measuring changes in the ice-cap (because of effects on sea levels and 38 ……………………………………..) - monitoring the hole in the ozone layer - analysing air from bubbles in ice to measure 39 ……………………….. caused by human activity WORK OPPORTUNITIES Many openings for 40 ……………………….. people including - research assistants - administrative and technical positions Cambridge IELTS 5

77


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MINTONS CAR MART Customer Enquiry Example

Answer

Make:

Lida

Engine size: Model: Type of gears: Preferred colour:

1 ……………………..... Max 2 ……………………….. 3 ……………………….. blue

FINANCE Customer wishes to arrange Part exchange?

4 …………………………… Yes

PERSONAL DETAILS Name: Title: Address:

Postcode: Contact number: CURRENT CAR Make: Model: Mileage: Colour: Condition:

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Cambridge IELTS 5

Wendy 5 …………………………. 6 ……………………………………. 20, Green Banks 7 …………………………………. Hampshire GU8 9EW 8 (for ……………… only) 0798 257643 Conti Name: 9 …………………………… Year: 1994 Maximum 70,000 Metallic grey 10 …………………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO advantages does the speaker say Rexford University has for the students he is speaking to? higher than average results in examinations A good transport links with central London B near London Airport C special government funding D good links with local industry E Questions 13-15 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.   

When application is received, confirmation will be sent Application processing may be slowed down by - postal problems - delays in sending 13 ……………………… University tries to put international applicants in touch with a student from the same 14 ………………………. who can give information and advice on - academic atmosphere - leisure facilities - English 15 …………………… and food - what to pack


The speaker says international students at UK universities will be offered accommodation with local families. A given special help by their lecturers. B expected to work independently. C

17

What does the speaker say about university accommodation on campus? Most places are given to undergraduates. A No places are available for postgraduates with families. B A limited number of places are available for new postgraduates. C

18

Students wishing to live off-campus should apply several months in advance. A two or three weeks in advance. B at the beginning of term. C

19

The university accommodation officer will send a list of agents for students to contact. A contact accommodation agencies for students. B ensure that students have suitable accommodation. C Cambridge IELTS 5

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20

With regard to their English, the speaker advises the students to tell their lecturers if they have problems understanding. A have private English lessons when they arrive. B practise their spoken English before they arrive. C

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Feedback Form Course: Communication in Business Courses code: CB162 Dates: From 21 ………………………….. to 22 …………………………….. Please give your comments on the following aspects of the course: Good Points Course organisation

 23 ……………………  useful to have 24 …………………… at beginning of course

Course delivery

 good 26 ………………

Materials and equipment

 good 28 ………….……

Testing and evaluation

Other comments

SECTION 4

 quick feedback from oral presentation  marking criteria for oral presentations known in advance  excellent 30 …………



    

Suggestions for Improvement too much work in 25 …………………… of the course – could be more evenly balanced some 27 ……………. sessions went on too long not enough copies of key texts available need more computers too much 29 …………. can we know criteria for marking final exams?

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

HOUSEHOLD WASTE RECYCLING

31

By 2008, carbon dioxide emissions need to be ………………… lower than in 1990.

32

Recycling saves energy and reduces emissions from landfill sites and ……………………. .

33

People say that one problem is a lack of ‘…………………….’ sites for household waste. At the ‘bring banks’, household waste is sorted and unsuitable items removed.

34

Glass designed to be utilised for ……………………………. cannot be recycled with other types of glass. In the UK, ………………………………… tons of glass is recycled each year.

35 80

Cambridge IELTS 5


Companies working with recycled materials Material

Company

glass

CLF Aggregates

paper

manufactures material used for making 36 …………………...........

Martin's

office stationery

Papersave

37 ……………….. for use on farms

Pacrite plastic

Product that the company

38 ………………………… for collecting waste

Waterford

39 ………………………….

Johnson & Jones

40 ………………………….

Cambridge IELTS 5

81


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBERS for each answer.

HOST FAMILY APPLICANT Example Answer Name: Jenny Chan Present address: Sea View Guest House, 1 ………………………….. Daytime phone number: 2237676 [NB Best time to contact is 2 ……………………………….. ] Age: 19 Intended length of stay: 3 …………………………… Occupation while in UK: student General level of English: 4 …………………………. Preferred location: in the 5 ……………………….. Special diet: 6 …………………………… Other requirements: own facilities own television 7 …………………….. to be 8 …………………………. Maximum price: 9 £ …………………………………… a week Preferred starting date: 10 ……………………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 11

The next meeting of the soccer club will be in the …………………… in King's Park on 2 July.

12

The first event is a ……………………………………. .

13

At the final dinner, players receive ……………………… .

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Cambridge IELTS 5

Questions 14-17 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Competition

Number of

Games Begin

Training Session

Teams

(in King's Park)

Junior

14 ……………….

8.30 am

15 …………………..

Senior

16 ………………..

2.00 pm

17 ………………….


Name of Office Bearer

Responsibility

Robert Young: President

to manage meetings

Gina Costello: Treasurer

to 18 ………………………

David West: Secretary

to 19 ………………………

Jason Dokic: Head Coach

to 20 ………………………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Box Telecom Problems: been affected by

Causes of problems:



drop in 21 …………….



growing 22 ……………



delays due to a strike



high 23 ………………….



lack of good 24 ………….

Cambridge IELTS 5

83


What does Karin think the company will do? look for private investors A accept a takeover offer B issue some new shares C

26

How does the tutor suggest the company can recover? by appointing a new managing director A by changing the way it is organised B by closing some of its retail outlets C

27

The tutor wants Jason and Karin to produce a report which offers solutions to Box Telecom's problems. A analyses the UK market. B compares different companies. C

Questions 28-30 Which opinion does each person express about Box Telecom? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30. A

its workers are motivated

B

it has too little investment

C

it will overcome its problems

D

its marketing campaign needs improvement

E

it is old-fashioned

F

it has strong managers

28

Karin

……………………………….

29

Jason

……………………………….

30

the tutor

……………………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


During the first week of term, students are invited to be shown round the library by the librarian. A listen to descriptions of library resources. B do an intensive course in the computer center. C

32

The speaker warns the students that internet materials can be unreliable. A downloaded information must be acknowledged. B computer access may be limited at times. C

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Cambridge IELTS 5

33

The library is acquiring more CDs as a resource because they are a cheap source of information. A they take up very little space. B they are more up to date than the reference books. C

34

Students are encouraged to use journals online because the articles do not need to be returned to the shelves. A reading online is cheaper than photocopying articles. B the stock of printed articles is to be reduced. C

35

Why might some students continue to use reference books? they can be taken away from the library A they provide information unavailable elsewhere B they can be borrowed for an extended loan period C

36

What is the responsibility of the Training Supervisor? to supervise and support library staff A to provide orientation to the library facilities B to identify needs and inform section managers C

Questions 37-40 Which section of the university will help postgraduate students with their dissertations in the following ways? A B C

the postgraduate's own department or tutor library staff another section of the university

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 37-40. 37

training in specialised computer programs

……………………..

38

advising on bibliography presentation

……………………..

39

checking the draft of the dissertation

……………………..

40

providing language support

……………………..

Cambridge IELTS 5

85


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Notes on sports club Example

Answer

Name of club:

Kingswell

Facilities available:

Golf 1 …………………………………… 2 ……………………………………  Kick-boxing

Classes available:

 3 ………………………… Additional facility:

4 …………………………… (restaurant opening soon)

Questions 5-8 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO NUMBERS for each answer.

MEMBERSHIP SCHEMES Type

Use of

Cost of

facilities

classes

Times

Joining

Annual

fee

subscription fee

GOLD

All

Free

Any time

£250

5 £ ……………

SILVER

All

6 £ ……

from 7 ….... to …….

£225

£300

£3

from 10.30 to 3.30

£50

8 £ ……………

BRONZE Restricted

weekdays only 86

Cambridge IELTS 6

Questions 9 and 10 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 9

To join the centre, you need to book an instructor's ………………………. .

10

To book a trial session, speak to David ………………………….. (0458 95311).

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 What change has been made to each part of the theatre? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.

RIVENDEN CITY THEATRE A

doubled in number

B

given separate entrance

C

reduced in number

D

increased in size

E

replaced

F

strengthened

G

temporarily closed

Part of the theatre 11 box office

……………………..

12

shop

……………………..

13

ordinary seats

……………………..

14

seats for wheelchair users

……………………..

15

lifts

……………………..

16

dressing rooms

……………………..

Questions 17-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Play

Dates

Starting time

Tickets available

Price

Royal Hunt

October 13th to

18 ………. pm

for 19 ……………..

20 £ …..

of the Sun

17 ……………

and ………………..

Cambridge IELTS 6

87

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Question 21 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 21

What is Brain going to do before the course starts? attend a class A write a report B read a book C


College Facility

Information inform them 22 ………………….. about special

Refectory

dietary requirements 23 ……………………………… long waiting list, apply now Careers advice

drop-in centre for information

Fitness centre

reduced 24 ……………………… for students

Library

includes books, journals, equipment room containing audio-visual materials ask your 25 ………………. to arrange a password

Computers

with the technical support team Questions 26-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Business Centre The Business Resource Centre contains materials such as books and manuals to be used for training. It is possible to hire 26 ……………………… and 27 ……………………. . There are materials for working on study skills (e.g. 28 ……………………… and other subjects include finance and 29 ……………………… . 30 ……………………… membership costs £50 per year.

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Cambridge IELTS 6

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Social history of the East End of London Period 1st–4th centuries

5th–10th centuries

11th century

Situation Produce from the area was used to 31 …………….. the people of London. New technology allowed the production of goods made of 32 …………………. and ……………… . Lack of 33 ……………………….. in the East End encouraged the growth of businesses. Construction of facilities for the building of 34 ……………….. stimulated international trade.

16th century Agricultural workers came from other parts of 35 ……………………… to look for work. 17th century

19th century

Marshes were drained to provide land that could be 36 ……………………….. on. Inhabitants lived in conditions of great 37 ….…… with very poor sanitation.

Questions 38-40 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE of the following problems are mentioned in connection with 20th century housing in the East End? A B C D E F G

unsympathetic landlords unclean water heating problems high rents overcrowding poor standards of building houses catching fire

Cambridge IELTS 6

89


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


CHILDREN'S ART AND CRAFT WORKSHOPS

     

Example

Answer

Workshops organised every:

Saturday

Adults must accompany children under 1 ………………………… Cost: £2.50 Workshops held in: Winter House, 2 …………………… Street Security device: must push the 3 ………………………………. to open door Should leave car behind the 4 …………………………………… Book workshops by phoning the 5 ……………………………..(on 200765)


Next two workshops Please bring (if possible):

Date

Workshop title

16/11

'Building 6 ……..'

7 ……………………

8 ………………

23/11

9 ‘……………….’

(Nothing special)

10 ……………..

SECTION 2

Children advised to wear:

Questions 11-20


TRAIN INFORMATION 11

Local services depart from ………………….. railway station.

12

National services depart from the ……………………… railway station.

13

Trains for London depart every ………………………… each day during the week.

14

The price of a first class ticket includes ……………………………. .

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Cambridge IELTS 6


Type of ticket Standard open Supersave Special 16 ………………………….

Details no restrictions travel after 8.45 travel after 15 …………………….. and at weekends buy at least six days ahead limited numbers 17 ………..… essential

Questions 18-20 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE attractions can you visit at present by train from Trebirch? a science museum A a theme park B a climbing wall C a mining museum D an aquarium E a castle F a zoo G

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the tables below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Dissertation Tutorial Record (Education) Name: Sandy Gibbons Targets previously agreed

Work completed

Further action suggested

Investigate suitable data analysis

- Read IT 21 ……………..

software

- Spoken to Jane Prince, Head practice sessions

Sign up for some software

of the 22 ……………… Prepare a 23 ………………….. for survey Further reading about discipline

- Completed and sent for review

Add questions in section three on 24 ……………..

- Read Banerjee

Obtain from library

- N.B. Couldn’t find

through special loans

Ericsson's essays on

service

managing the 25 ……………………… Cambridge IELTS 6

91

New Targets

Specific suggestions

Do further work on Chapter 1

- Add statistics on the

(Give the title: Context

27 ………………….. in

26 .……………)

various zones

Timing By the 29 …………….

- Include more references to works dated after 28 ……………………….. Prepare list of main sections for Chapter 2

- Use index cards to help in organisation

SECTION 4

Before starting the 30 ……………………

Questions 31-40


The history of moving pictures 31

Some photographs of a horse running showed all feet off the ground. A at least one foot on the ground. B two feet off the ground. C

32

The Scotsman employed by Edison designed a system to use the technology Edison had invented. A used available technology to make a new system. B was already an expert in motion picture technology. C

33

One major problem with the first system was that only one person could be filmed. A people could only see very short films. B the camera was very heavy. C

34

Rival systems started to appear in Europe after people had been told about the American system. A seen the American system. B used the American system. C

35

In 1895, a famous new system was developed by a French team working alone. A a French and German team working together. B a German team who invented the word ‘cinema’. C

36

Longer films were not made at the time because of problems involving the subject matter. A the camera. B the film projector. C

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37

The ‘Lantham Loop’ invention relied on removing tension between the film reels. A adding three more film reels to the system. B making one of the film reels more effective. C

Questions 38-40 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 38

The first motion picture was called The …………………………… .

39

…………………………. were used for the first time on film in 1926.

40

Subtitles were added to The Lights of New York because of its ……………….. .

Cambridge IELTS 6

93


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the forms below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

OPENING A BANK ACCOUNT Example Application for a Type of current account: Full name of applicant: Date of birth: Joint account holder(s): Current address: Time at current address: Previous address: Telephone: Occupation: Identity (security): Opening sum: Statements:

Answer Current bank account The 1 '………………………..’ account Pieter Henes 2 ……………………….. No 3 ……………………….. Exeter 4 ……………………….. Rielsdorf 2, Utrecht, Holland Work 5 ……………………….. Home 796431 6 ……………………….. Name of his 7 ……………………….. : Siti 8 € ……………………….. To be transferred from Fransen Bank, Utrecht Every 9 ……………………….. Supply information about the bank's 10 ………………………… service

Requests:

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. THE HISTORY OF ROSEWOOD HOUSE 11 When the writer Sebastian George first saw Rosewood House, he thought he might rent it. A felt it was too expensive for him. B was unsure whether to buy it. C 12

94

Before buying the house, George had experienced severe family problems. A struggled to become a successful author. B suffered a serious illness. C Cambridge IELTS 6

13

According to the speaker, George viewed Rosewood House as a rich source of material for his books. A away to escape from his work. B a typical building of the region. C

Questions 14-17 Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-J, next to questions 14-17.

ROSEWOOD HOUSE AND GARDENS

14

Pear Alley

……………………..

15

Mulberry Garden

……………………..

16

Shop

……………………..

17

Tea Room

……………………..

Questions 18-20 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

RIVER WALK 18 19 20

You can walk through the …………………… that goes along the river bank. You can go over the ………………………….. and then into a wooded area. On your way back, you could also go up to the …………………………. .

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

MARKETING ASSIGNMENT 21 22 23 24

For their assignment, the students must investigate one part of the …….….. . The method the students must use to collect data is ………………………… . In total, the students must interview ………………………. people. Jack thinks the music preferences of ………………………. listeners are similar.

Questions 25-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Marketing Survey: Music Preferences Age group of interviewee  25 or under  45 or over Cambridge IELTS 6

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Music preferences  Pop  25 ……………….  Folk  Easy listening  26 ……………… Medium for listening to music  Radio  CD  TV  27 …………………… Source of music  Music shops  28 ………………….  Internet Places for listening to music  Disco  Pub  29 ……………………..  Concert hall  30 …………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. IRELAND IN THE NEOLITHIC PERIOD

31

96

According to the speaker, it is not clear when the farming economy was introduced to Ireland. A why people began to farm in Ireland. B where the early Irish farmers came form. C Cambridge IELTS 6

32

What point does the speaker make about breeding animals in Neolithic Ireland? Their numbers must have been above a certain level. A They were under threat from wild animals. B Some species died out during this period. C

33

What does the speaker say about the transportation of animals? Livestock would have limited the distance the farmers could sail. A Neolithic boats were too primitive to have been used. B Probably only a few breeding animals were imported. C

34

What is the main evidence for cereal crops in Neolithic Ireland? the remains of burnt grain in pots A the marks left on pots by grains B the patterns painted on the surface of pots C

Questions 35-40 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. STONE TOOLS Ploughs could either have been pulled by ………………………… or by cattle. 35 

The farmers needed homes which were permanent dwellings.

36

In the final stages of axe-making, ……………………………… and ………………………. were necessary for grinding and polishing.

37

Irish axes were exported from Ireland to ……………………….. and England.

POTTERY MAKING  The colonisers used clay to make pots. 38

The ………………… of the pots was often polished to make them watertight.

39

Clay from ………………………….. areas was generally used.

40

Decoration was only put around the ……………………….. of the earliest pots.

Cambridge IELTS 6

97


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example

Answer

Title of conference:

Future Directions in Computing 1 £ …………………………. Payment by 2 ………………. or on arrival

Three day cost: Accommodation:

Conference Centre  3 £ ……………… per night  near to conference rooms Guest House  4 £ ……………... per night  approximately 5 …………….. walk from Conference Centre Further documents to be sent:  6 ………………….  an application form Location: Conference Centre is on 7 ………….. Park Road, next to the 8 ………………… . Taxi costs 9 £ ………………….. or take bus number 10 …………….. from station.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Which team will do each of the following jobs? Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-D, next to Questions 11-13. Teams A

the blue team

B

the yellow team

C

the green team

D

the red team

11

checking entrance tickets ……………………

12

preparing refreshments

13

directing car-park traffic ……………………

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Cambridge IELTS 6

……………………

Questions 14-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Travel Expo Temporary Staff Orientation Programme Time 9.30 am

Event Talk by Anne Smith

Details 

information about pay



will give out the 14 …………….. forms

10.00 am

Talk by Peter Chen



will discuss Conference Centre plan



will explain about arrangements for 15 …………….. and fire exits

10.30 am

Coffee Break



go to Staff Canteen on the 16 ……………………………….

11.00 am

12.00

Video Presentation

Buffet Lunch

1.00 pm

Meet the 20 ……………

3.00 pm

Finish

SECTION 3



go to 17 ……………………….



video title: 18 ……………….



go to the 19 …………… on 1st floor

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. The School of Education Libraries The libraries on both sites provide internet access and have a variety of 21 ………………….. materials on education. The Castle Road library has books on sociology, together with 22 ………………….. and other resources relevant to the majority of 23 ……………………. school subjects. The Fordham library includes resources for teaching in 24 ……………………. education and special needs. Current issues of periodicals are available at both libraries, although 25 …………………….. issues are only available at Fordham.

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Questions 26 and 27 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 26

Which books cannot be renewed by telephone or email? ………………………………………………………….

27

How much time is allowed to return recalled books? ………………………………………………………….

Questions 28-30 Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE topics do this term's study skills workshops cover? A

An introduction to the Internet

B

How to carry out research for a dissertation

C

Making good use of the whole range of library services

D

Planning a dissertation

E

Standard requirements when writing a dissertation

F

Using the Internet when doing research

G

What books and technical resources are available in the library

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species? about 10,000 years ago A about 100,000 years ago B about 1,000,000 years ago C

32

Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from Greece. A The Middle East. B India. C

33

Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe 2,500 years ago. A 2,000 years ago. B 1,900 years ago. C

34

Very few African lions have a long mane. A a coat with varied colours. B a fold of skin on their stomach. C

100

Cambridge IELTS 6


THE GIR SANCTUARY 35

The sanctuary has an area of approximately ……………………. square kilometers.

36

One threat to the lions in the sanctuary is …………………….. .

37

The ancestors of the Gir Sanctuary lions were protected by a ………………………….. .

38

A large part of the lions' ……………………. consists of animals belonging to local farmers.

39

The lions sometimes ……………………….. , especially when water is short.

40

In ancient India a man would fight a lion as a test of …………………………. .

Cambridge IELTS 6

101


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Transport from Airport to Milton Example Distance:

Answer 147 miles

Options: 

Car hire - don’t want to drive



1 ……………….. - expensive



Greyhound bus - $15 single, $27.50 return - direct to the 2 ………….. - long 3 …………………..



Airport Shuttle - 4 ……………… service - every 2 hours - $35 single, $65 return - need to 5 ….……………

Questions 6-10 Complete the booking form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM TO: Date: Bus Time: 102

Cambridge IELTS 7

Milton 6 …………………………………… 7 ……………………………… pm

No. of passengers: One Type of ticket: Single

Name:

Janet 8 …………………………..

Flight No:

9 …………………………………….

Address in Milton:

Vacation Motel, 24, Kitchener Street

Fare:

$35

Credit Card No:

(Visa) 10 ………………………….

SECTION 2

From: London Heathrow

Questions 11-20


PS Camping has been organising holidays for 15 years. A 20 years. B 25 years. C

12

The company has most camping sites in France. A Italy. B Switzerland. C

13

Which organised activity can children do every day of the week? football A drama B model making C

14

Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after 9.30 p.m. A 10.00 p.m. B 10.30 p.m. C

15

The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping can be charged on an annual basis. A is included in the price of the holiday. B must be taken out at the time of booking. C

16

Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive a free gift. A an upgrade to a luxury tent. B a discount. C

Cambridge IELTS 7

103

Questions 17-20 What does the speaker say about the following items? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 17-20. A

They are provided in all tents.

B

They are found in central areas of the campsite.

C

They are available on request.

17

barbecues

……………………..

18

toys

……………………..

19

cool boxes

……………………..

20

mops and buckets

……………………..

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

DIFFERENCES BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS IN THE WORKPLACE Individuals bring different:  ideas  21 ………………….  learning experiences Work behaviour differences are due to:  personality  22 ………………… Effects of diversity on companies: Advantage: diversity develops 23 ……… Disadvantage: diversity can cause conflict


104

Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are potential leaders. A open to new ideas. B good at teamwork. C Cambridge IELTS 7

25

Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to form successful groups. A balance conflicting needs. B deal with uncooperative workers. C

26

Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who can think independently. A will obey the system. B can solve problems. C

27

Janice believes managers should demonstrate good behaviour. A encourage co-operation early on. B increase financial incentives. C

Questions 28-30 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 28

All managers need to understand their employees and recognise their company's ………………………. .

29

When managing change, increasing the company's ………………………. may be more important than employee satisfaction.

30

During periods of change, managers may have to cope with increased amounts of …………………………… .

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


SEMINAR ON ROCK ART Preparation for fieldwork trip to Namibia in 31 ………………………. Rock art in Namibia may be  paintings  engravings

Earliest explanation of engravings of animal footprints They were used to help 32 …………………….. learn about tracking

But:   

Why are the tracks usually 33 ……………………….? Why are some engravings realistic and others unrealistic? Why are the unrealistic animals sometimes half 34 ………………………?

Cambridge IELTS 7

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More recent explanation: Wise men may have been trying to control wild animals with 35 …………………..

Comment: Earlier explanation was due to scholars over-generalising from their experience of a different culture. Questions 36-40 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 36

If you look at a site from a ……………………………., you reduce visitor pressure.

37

To camp on a site may be disrespectful to people from that …………………….. .

38

Undiscovered material may be damaged by ………………………….. .

39

You should avoid ………………………….. or tracing rock art as it is so fragile.

40

In general, your aim is to leave the site …………………………… .

106

Cambridge IELTS 7


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


CAR INSURANCE Example Name:

Answer Patrick Jones

1 ……………………, Greendale 730453 2 ……………………… 1200cc Type of car:

Address: Contact number: Occupation: Size of car engine:

Previous insurance company: 4 ……………………..

Manufacturer: Hewton Model: 3 ……………. Year: 1997 Any insurance claims in the last five years? Yes No If yes, give brief details: Car was 5 ………………. in 1999

Name(s) of other driver(s): Simon 6 …………... Relationship to main driver: 7 …………………….. Start date: 31 January

Uses of car:

-social -8 ……………………….

Recommended Insurance arrangement Name of company: 9 ………… Annual cost: 10 $ ………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Label the map opposite. Write ONE MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Cambridge IELTS 7

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Attraction

Further Information

STOP A: Main Booking Office: First boat: 8 a.m. Last boat: 13 ………….. p.m. STOP B:

Palace



has lovely 14 ……………..

15 ……………



STOP C:

Museum



has good 16 ………………. of city centre bookshop specialising in the 17 …………………. of the local area

STOP D:

Entertainment Complex

  

18 ………………… cinema bowling alley video games arcade

Questions 19 and 20 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. How often do the Top Bus Company tours run? 19 ……………………………………………………………………………………….. 20

Where can you catch a Number One Sightseeing Tour from? ………………………………………………………………………………………..

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because New Zealand is a member of the Antarctic Treaty. A Christchurch is geographically well positioned. B the climate of Christchurch is suitable. C

22

One role of the Antarctic Centre is to provide expeditions with suitable equipment. A provide researchers with financial assistance. B ensure that research is internationally relevant. C

23

The purpose of the Visitors' Centre is to provide accommodation. A run training sessions. B show people what Antarctica is like. C

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Cambridge IELTS 7

24

Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is unlike any other country. A extremely beautiful. B too cold for tourists. C

25

According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because of the shape of the continent. A it is surrounded by a frozen sea. B it is an extremely dry continent. C

26

Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because he has done his own research in the area. A there is geological evidence of this. B it is very close to South America. C

Questions 27 and 28 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR TWO NUMBERS for each answer. ANTARCTIC TREATY Date

Event

1870

Polar Research meeting

27 ………………. to ………………

1st International Polar Year

1957

Antarctic Treaty was proposed

1959

Antarctic Treaty was 28 …………………..

Questions 29 and 30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO achievements of the Antarctic Treaty are mentioned by the speakers? A B C D E

no military use animals protected historic sites preserved no nuclear testing fishing rights protected

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Left and Right Handedness in Sport 31

Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realised how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness. A the relevance of connections he made with music. B the impressive size of his research project. C Cambridge IELTS 7

109

32

Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses. A aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game. B developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople. C

33

Anita feels that most sports coaches know nothing about the influence of handedness. A focus on the wrong aspects of performance. B underestimate what science has to offer sport. C

34

A German study showed there was greater ‘mixed handedness’ in musicians who started playing instruments in early youth. A play a string instrument such as the violin. B practise a great deal on their instrument. C

35

Studies on ape behavior show that apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful. A apes have the same proportion of left- and right-handers as humans. B more apes are left-handed than right-handed. C

Questions 36-40 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Sport Hockey

Tennis

Gymnastics

110

Best laterality mixed laterality

single laterality

cross laterality

Cambridge IELTS 7



Comments hockey stick has to be used in 36 …………



mixed-handed players found to be much more 37 …………………….. than others



gives a larger relevant field of 38 ……………



cross-lateral players make 39 ……………. too late gymnasts’ 40 …………………. is important for performances




Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example Answer Type of job required: Part-time Student is studying 1 ………………………………. Student is in the 2 …………………………………. year of the course. Questions 3-5 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Position Available Receptionist 4 …………………………. Clerical Assistant

Where in the 3 ………………….. in the Child Care Centre in the 5 ……………………

Problem evening lectures too early evening lectures

Questions 6-10 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

STUDENT DETAILS Name: Address: Other skills: Position available: Duties: Time of interview:

SECTION 2

Anita Newman 6 …………………………. Room No. 7………………. Speaks some Japanese 8 ………………………. at the English Language Centre Respond to enquiries and 9 ………………………… Friday at 10 ………………… a.m.

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. SPONSORED WALKING HOLIDAY 11 On the holiday, you will be walking for 6 days. A 8 days. B 10 days. C Cambridge IELTS 7

111

12

What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?

13

Each walker’s sponsorship money goes to one student. A teacher. B school. C

14

When you start the trek you must be interested in getting fit. A already quite fit. B already very fit. C

15

As you walk you will carry all of your belongings. A some of your belongings. B none of your belongings. C

16

The Semira Region has a long tradition of making carpets. A weaving blankets. B carving wood. C

Questions 17-20 Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

ITINERARY Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4 Day 5 Day 6 Day 7 Day 8 Day 9 Day 10

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Cambridge IELTS 7

arrive in Kishba rest day spend all day in a 17 …………………. visit a school rest day see a 18 …………… with old carvings rest day swim in a 19 ……………………... visit a 20 ………………………….. depart from kishba

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. OCEAN RESEARCH The Robotic Float Project  Float is shaped like a 21 …………………………  Scientists from 22 ……………………….. have worked on the project so far Questions 23-25 Complete the diagram below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 26-30 In what time period can data from the float projects help with the following things? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30. A B C

At present In the near future In the long-term future

26

understanding of El Niño

……………………..

27

understanding of climate change

…………………….. Cambridge IELTS 7

113

28

naval rescues

……………………..

29

sustainable fishing practices

……………………..

30

crop selection

……………………..

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Hotels and the tourist industry 31

According to the speaker, how might a guest feel when staying in a luxury hotel? impressed with the facilities A depressed by the experience B concerned at the high costs C

32

According to recent research, luxury hotels overlook the need to provide for the demands of important guests. A create a comfortable environment. B offer an individual and personal welcome. C

33

The company focused their research on a wide variety of hotels. A large, luxury hotel chains. B exotic holiday hotels. C

34

What is the impact of outside environment on a hotel guest? It has a considerable effect. A It has a very limited effect. B It has no effect whatsoever. C

Questions 35-40 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. A company providing luxury serviced apartments aims to:  cater specifically for 35 ……………………………… travellers  provide a stylish 36 …………………………… for guests to use  set a trend throughout the 37 …………………………. which becomes permanent Traditional holiday hotels attract people by:  offering the chance to 38 ……………………………… their ordinary routine life  making sure that they are cared for in all respects – like a 39 ………………………..  leaving small treats in their rooms – e.g. cosmetics or 40 ……………………………

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Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

HOMESTAY APPLICATION Example

Answer

Yuichini

Surname: First name:

1 …………………………

Sex:

Female

Nationality: Japanese

Passport number:

2 ……………..

Age: 28 years

Present address:

Room 21C, Willow College

Length of homestay:

Approx 3 ……………………..

Course enrolled in:

4 …………………………………..

Family preferences:

no 5 ………………………… no objection to 6 ………………………….

Questions 7-10 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 7 What does the student particularly like to eat?

……………………..

8

What sport does the student play?

……………………..

9

What mode of transport does the student prefer?

……………………..

10 When will the student find out her homestay address?

……………………..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


What kind of tour is Sally leading? a bus tour A a train tour B a walking tour C Cambridge IELTS 7

115

12

The original buildings on the site were houses. A industrial buildings. B shops. C

13

The local residents wanted to use the site for leisure. A apartment blocks. B a sports centre. C

14

The Tower is at the centre of the nature reserve. A formal gardens. B Bicentennial Park. C

Questions 15-17 Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.


Nature Reserve Area The Mangroves

Facility boardwalk

Activity 18 ………………….

Frog Pond

outdoor classroom

19 ………………….

The Waterbird Refuge

20 …………………………. bird watching

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. The presentation will last 15 minutes. There will be 21 ……………………… minutes for questions. The presentation will not be 22 ……………………. . Questions 23-26 What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation? A B C

They will definitely include this topic. They might include this topic. They will not include this topic.

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26. 23 Geographical Location

……………………..

24 Economy

……………………..

25 Overview of Education System …………………….. 26 Role of English Language

……………………..

Questions 27-30 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Information/visual aid Overhead projector Map of West Africa Map of the islands Literacy figures 30 ……………………… on school places

SECTION 4

Where from? the 27 ……………………………. the 28 ……………………………. a tourist brochure the 29 ……………………………. as above

Questions 31-40


Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) 31

The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is the history of monosodium glutamate. A the way monosodium glutamate works. B where monosodium glutamate is used. C

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32

In 1908, scientists in Japan made monosodium glutamate. A began using kombu. B identified glutamate. C

33

What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956? It began to be manufactured on a large scale. A The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources. B It became much more expensive to produce. C


Monosodium Glutamate (MSG) 

MSG contains - glutamate (78.2%) - sodium (12.2%) - 34 ……………………… (9.6%)



Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as 35 ……………… and 36 ……………………



MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.



In 1908 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a 37 …………………… .



Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so 38 …………………… naturally.



John Prescott suggests that: -sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates. - 39 ……………………tells us that a food contains toxins. - sourness tells us that a food is spoiled. - saltiness tells us that a food contains 40 ………………… .

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Cambridge IELTS 7


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Circle the correct letter, A, B or C. Example In the library George found A

a book. a brochure.

C

a newspaper.

1

In the lobby of the library George saw a group playing music. A a display of instruments. B a video about the festival. C

2

George wants to sit at the back so they can see well. A hear clearly. B pay less. C

Questions 3-10 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. SUMMER MUSIC FESTIVAL BOOKING FORM George O'Neil 3 ………………………., Westsea 4 ………………………….. 5 …………………………..

NAME: ADDRESS: POSTCODE: TELEPHONE: Date

Event

5 June

Instrumental group – Guitarrini

17 June

Singer (price includes 6 …………. in the garden)

Price per ticket

No. of tickets

£7.50

2

£6

2

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7 ……………………….. (Anna Ventura)

22 June 23 June

Spanish Dance & Guitar Concert

£7.00 8 £ ………………

1 9 ………………….

NB Children / Students / Senior Citizens have 10 ………………….. discount on all tickets.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

The Dinosaur Museum 11

The museum closes at ………………………… p.m. on Mondays.

12

The museum is not open on ………………………………… .

13

School groups are met by tour guides in the ………………………………. .

14

The whole visit takes 90 minutes, including …………………….. minutes for the guided tour.

15

There are …………………….. behind the museum where students can have lunch.

Questions 16-18 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which TWO activities can students have with them in the museum? A B C D E F G

food water cameras books bags pens worksheets

Questions 19 and 20 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present? A B C D E

120

build model dinosaurs watch films draw dinosaurs find dinosaur eggs play computer games

Cambridge IELTS 8

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Field Trip Proposal 21

The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal A should be re-ordered in some parts. B

needs a contents page.

C ought to include more information. 22

The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra A inserted subheadings. B

used more paragraphs.

C shortened her sentences. 23

24

What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra's proposal? A

Separate points were not clearly identified.

B

The headings were not always clear.

C

Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way.

Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through A

articles she read.

B

movies she saw as a child.

C

photographs she found on the internet.

Questions 25-27 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal? A B C D E F G

climate change field trip activities geographical features impact of tourism myths and legends plant and animal life social history

Questions 28-30 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 28

The tribal park covers …………………….. hectares.

29

Sandra suggests that they share the ……………………….. for transport.

30

She says they could also explore the local ……………………….. . Cambridge IELTS 8

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SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Geography Studying geography helps us to understand: 

The effects of different processes on the 31 ………………..…………. of the Earth



The dynamic between 32 …………….. and population

Two main branches of study: 

Physical features



Human lifestyles and their 33 …………………….

Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical and 34 ………………… geography, and also cartography Key point: geography helps us to understand our surroundings and the associated 35 ………………. What do geographers do? 

find data – e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of 36 ……………… using computer and satellite technology



analyse data – identify 37 …………………, e.g. cause and effect



Publish findings in form of: a) maps - easy to carry - can show physical features of large and small areas - BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some 38 …………………….. b) aerial photos - can show vegetation problems, 39 …………………… density, ocean floor etc. c) Landsat pictures sent to receiving stations - used for monitoring 40 …………….. conditions etc.

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Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

TOTAL INSURANCE INCIDENT REPORT Example Name

Answer

Address

24 Manly Street, 1 ………… , Sydney

Shipping agent

2 ……………………

Place of origin

China

Date of arrival

3 ……………………

Reference number

601 ACK

Michael Alexander

Questions 4-10 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Item

Damage

Cost to repair/replace

Television

The 4 …………………..

Not known

needs to be replaced The 5 …………….

The 6 ………………………

cabinet

or the cabinet is damaged

Dining room table

A 8 ………………………. is

7 $ ……………………………

$200

split Set of China

Six 9 ………….. were broken About 10 $ ………… in total

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SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are education and entertainment. A research and education. B research and entertainment. C

Questions 12-14 Complete the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.


When are the experimental areas closed to the public? all the year round A almost all the year B a short time every year C

16

How can you move around the park? by tram, walking or bicycle A by solar car or bicycle B by bicycle, walking or bus C

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17

The rare breed animals kept in the park include hens and horses. A goats and cows. B goats and hens. C

18

What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section? to save unusual animals A to keep a variety of breeds B to educate the public C

19

What can you see in the park at the present time? the arrival of wild birds A fruit tree blossom B a demonstration of fishing C

20

The shop contains books about animals. A local traditions. B the history of the park. C

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Honey Bees in Australia 21

Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past? Queensland A New South Wales B several states C

22

A problem with Asian honey bees is that they attack native bees. A carry parasites. B damage crops. C

23

What point is made about Australian bees? Their honey varies in quality. A Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers. B They are sold to customers abroad. C

24

Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia, the country's economy would be affected. A they could be used in the study of allergies. B certain areas of agriculture would benefit. C

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Questions 25-30 Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Looking for Asian honey bees Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only 25 ……………………. and cough up small bits of skeleton and other products in a pellet. Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for 26 …………………………. . They collect the pellets and take them to a 27 …………………….. for analysis. Here 28 ……………………………. is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the 29 ………………… of Asian bees in the pellets. The benefit of this research is that the result is more 30 …………………. than searching for live Asian bees.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Research on questions about doctors 31

In order to set up her research programme, Shona got advice from personal friends in other countries. A help from students in other countries. B information from her tutor's contacts in other countries. C

32

What types of people were included in the research? young people in their first job A men who were working B women who were unemployed C

33

Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was to get a wide range of data. A to limit people's responses. B to guide people through interviews. C

34

What do Shona's initial results show about medical services in Britain? Current concerns are misrepresented by the press. A Financial issues are critical to the government. B Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful. C

35

Shona needs to do further research in order to present the government with her findings. A decide the level of extra funding needed. B identify the preferences of the public. C

36

Shona has learnt from the research project that it is important to plan projects carefully. A people do not like answering questions. B colleagues do not always agree. C

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Questions 37-40 Which statement applies to each of the following people who were interviewed by Shona? Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 37-40. A

gave false data

B

decided to stop participating

C

refused to tell Shona about their job

D

kept changing their mind about participating

E

became very angry with Shona

F

was worried about confidentiality

People interviewed by Shona 37 a person interviewed in the street

……………………..

38

an undergraduate at the university

……………………..

39

a colleague in her department

……………………..

40

a tutor in a foreign university

……………………..

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127


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Rented Properties Customer's Requirements Name: Example No. of bedrooms:

Steven Godfrey

Preferred location: Maximum monthly rent: Length of let required: Starting:

in the 1 ……………….. area of town 2 £ …………………………….. 3 ……………………………….. September 1st

Answer four

Questions 4-8 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Address Oakington Avenue Mead Street Hamilton Road Devon Close

Rooms living/dining room, separate kitchen large living room and kitchen, bathroom and a cloakroom living room, kitchendiner, and a 6 ………. living room, dining room, small kitchen

Monthly rent

Problem

£550

no 4 ……….

£580

the 5 ……… is too large

£550

too 7 ……..

8 £ ……………

none

Questions 9 and 10 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment? museum A concert hall B cinema C sport center D swimming pool E 128

Cambridge IELTS 8

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTRE Well known for:

11 ……………………

Complex consists of:

concert rooms theatres cinemas art galleries public library restaurants a 12 ………………………

Historical background:

1940 – area destroyed by bombs 1960s-1970s – Centre was 13 ………………… and built in 14 ………………….. – opened to public the 15 ……………………….. 16 ……………………. days per year

Managed by: Open: Questions 17-20 Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Day Monday and Tuesday

Time

Event

Venue

Ticket price

17 ………………….

from £8.00

Cinema 2

19 £ ……………

Gallery 1

free

‘The Magic 7.30 p.m.

Flute’ (opera by Mozart) 18 ‘……………’

Wednesday

8.00 p.m.

Saturday and

11 a.m. to

20 ‘…………..’

Sunday

10 p.m.

(art exhibition)

(Canadian film)

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129

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Latin American studies 21

Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted to teach English there. A to improve his Spanish. B to learn about Latin American life. C

22

What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in? construction A agriculture B tourism C

23

Why did Paul change from one project to another? His first job was not well organised. A He found doing the routine work very boring. B The work was too physically demanding. C

24

In the village community, he learnt how important it was to respect family life. A develop trust. B use money wisely. C

25

What does Paul say about his project manager? He let Paul do most of the work. A His plans were too ambitious. B He was very supportive of Paul. C

26

Paul was surprised to be given a computer to use. A so little money to live on. B an extension to his contract. C

Questions 27-30 What does Paul decide about each of the following modules? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 27-30. A

He will do this.

B

He might do this.

C

He won't do this.

Module 27 Gender Studies in Latin America

……………………..

28

Second Language Acquisition

……………………..

29

Indigenous Women's Lives

……………………..

30

Portuguese Language Studies

……………………..

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Cambridge IELTS 8

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Trying to repeat success 31

Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes are more attractive. A more frequent. B more straightforward. C

32

Most research into the repetition of success in business has been done outside the United States. A produced consistent findings. B related to only a few contexts. C

33

What does the speaker say about consulting experts? Too few managers ever do it. A It can be useful in certain circumstances. B Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice. C

34

An expert's knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because some details are difficult for workers to explain. A workers choose not to mention certain details. B details are sometimes altered by workers. C


Setting up systems based on an existing process Two mistakes Manager tries to:  improve on the original process  create an ideal 35 …………….. from the best parts of several processes Cause of problems  information was inaccurate  comparison between the business settings was invalid  disadvantages were overlooked, e.g. effect of changes on 36 ………… Solution  change 37 ………………………  impose rigorous 38 ……………………………..  copy original very closely: - physical features of the 39 ……………………… - the 40 …………………………. of original employees Cambridge IELTS 8

131


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAT TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

West Bay Hotel – details of job Example

Answer

 Newspaper advert for temporary staff       

Vacancies for 1 …………………………. Two shifts Can choose your 2 ……………………… (must be the same each week) Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a 3 …………………………….. A 4 …………………… is provided in the hotel Total weekly pay: £231 Dress: a white shirt and 5 ……………….. trousers (not supplied) a 6 …………………. (supplied)  Starting date: 7 ……………………….  Call Jane 8 ………………….. (Service Manager) before 9 ……………. tomorrow (Tel: 832009)  She'll require a 10 …………………….. SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Improvement to Red Hill Suburb 11

Community groups are mainly concerned about pedestrian safety. A traffic jams. B increased pollution. C

12

It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be extended. A buried. B repaired. C

13

The expenses related to the power lines will be paid for by the council. A the power company. B local businesses. C

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Questions 14-20 Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-20.

Red Hill Improvement Plan

14

trees

……………………..

15

wider footpaths

……………………..

16

coloured road surface

……………………..

17

new sign

……………………..

18

traffic lights

……………………..

19

artwork

……………………..

20

children's playground

……………………..

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Choose TWO letters, A-E. In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course? A B C D E

He is receiving money from the government. His family are willing to help him. The college is giving him a small grant. His local council is supporting him for a limited period. A former employer is providing partial funding.

Questions 23 and 24 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs? She is not sufficiently challenged. A The activity interferes with her studies. B She does not have enough time. C Cambridge IELTS 8

133

D E

The activity is too demanding physically. She does not think she is any good at the activity.

Questions 25 and 26 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 25 What does Dan say about the seminars on the course? The other students do not give him a chance to speak. A The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students. B The preparation for seminars takes too much time. C 26

What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course? They are an inefficient way of providing guidance. A They are more challenging than she had expected. B They are helping her to develop her study skills. C

Questions 27-30 Complete the flow-chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

Advice on exam preparation Make sure you know the exam requirements

Find some past papers

Work out your 27 ………………………. for revision and write them on a card

Make a 28 ……………….. and keep it in view

Divide revision into 29 ……………. for each day

Write one 30 .................... about each topic

Practice writing some exam answers

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Cambridge IELTS 8

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36

Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings Which painting styles have the following features? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 31-36. Painting Styles A

Dynamic

B

Yam

C

Modern

Features 31 figures revealing bones

……………………..

32

rounded figures

……………………..

33

figures with parts missing

……………………..

34 35

figures smaller than life size sea creatures

…………………….. ……………………..

36

plants

……………………..

Questions 37- 40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Rainbow Serpent Project Aim of project: to identify the 37 …………………. used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent Yam Period 

environmental changes led to higher 38 …………..

 traditional activities were affected, especially 39 ……… Rainbow Serpent image 

similar to a sea horse



unusual because it appeared in inland areas



symbolises 40 …………… in Aboriginal culture

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135


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


JOB ENQUIRY Example  Work at: a restaurant  Type of work: 1 ………………..  Number of hours per week: 12 hours  Would need work permit  Work in the: 2 ……………….. branch  Nearest bus stop: next to 3 ………………..  Pay: 4 £ ………………………… an hour  Extra benefits: - a free dinner - extra pay when you work on 5 ………………… - transport home when you work 6 ……………  Qualities required: - 7 ……………………….. - ability to 8 …………………..  Interview arranged for: Thursday 9 ………………………. at 6 p.m.  Bring the names of two referees  Ask for: Samira 10 ………………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

SPORTS WORLD       136

a new 11 ……………………………….. of an international sports goods company located in the shopping centre to the 12 ………………. of Bradcaster has sports 13 ………………………………. and equipment on floors 1-3 can get you any item within 14 …………… days shop specializes in equipment for 15 ……………………………….. has a special section which just sells 16 ………………………………. Cambridge IELTS 9


A champion athlete will be in the shop on Saturday morning only. A all day Saturday. B for the whole weekend. C

18

The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win gym membership. A a video. B a calendar. C

Questions 19 and 20 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test? You need to reserve a place. A It is free to account holders. B You get advice on how to improve your health. C It takes place in a special clinic. D It is cheaper this month. E

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Course Feedback 21

One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that A he was not nervous. B

his style was good.

C the presentation was the best in his group. 22

What surprised Hiroko about the other students' presentations? A Their presentations were not interesting. B

They found their presentations stressful.

C They didn’t look at the audience enough. 23

24

After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt A

delighted.

B

dissatisfied.

C

embarrassed.

How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials? A

not very happy

B

really pleased

C

fairly confident Cambridge IELTS 9

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25

26

27

28

29

30

Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions? A

They are polite to each other.

B

They agree to take turns in speaking.

C

They know each other well.

Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now? A

She finds the other students' opinions more interesting.

B

She is making more of a contribution.

C

The tutor includes her in the discussion.

To help her understand lectures, Hiroko A

consulted reference materials.

B

had extra tutorials with her lecturers.

C

borrowed lecture notes from other students.

What does Spiros think of his reading skills? A

He reads faster than he used to.

B

It still takes him a long time to read.

C

He tends to struggle with new vocabulary.

What is Hiroko's subject area? A

environmental studies

B

health education

C

engineering

Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should A

learn more vocabulary.

B

read more in their own subject areas.

C

develop better reading strategies.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Mass Strandings of Whales and Dolphins Mass strandings: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die Common in areas where the 31 ………………… can change quickly

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Cambridge IELTS 9

Several other theories: Parasites e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals' 32 …………………… which they depend on for navigation Toxins Poisons from 33 ……………… or ………………… are commonly consumed by whales e.g. Cape Cod (1988) – whales were killed by saxitoxin Accidental Strandings Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995) Unlikely because the majority of animals were not 34 ……………….. when they stranded Human Activity 35 …………………………. from military tests are linked to some recent strandings The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales  were all 36 ……………………….  were not in a 37 ………………….. Group Behaviour  More strandings in the most 38 ……………….. species of whales  1994 dolphin stranding only the 39 …………… was ill ………… Further Reading Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) – gives information about strading 40 ………………

Cambridge IELTS 9

139


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

Accommodation Form – Student Information Example Type of accommodation:

hall of residence

Name:

Anu 1 ………………………….

Date of birth:

2 ………………………….

Country of origin:

India

Course of study:

3 ………………………….

Number of years planned in hall:

4 ………………………….

Preferred catering arrangement:

half board

Special dietary requirements:

no 5 …………………………. (red)

Preferred room type:

a single 6 ………………………….

Interests:

the 7 …………………………….. badminton

Priorities in choice of hall:

to be with other students who are 8 ………… to live outside the 9 ……………………….. to have a 10 …………… area for socialising

Contact phone number:

667549

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Parks and open spaces Name of place Halland Common Holt Island Longfield Country Park

140

Of particular interest source of River Ouse many different 11 ………………………. reconstruction of a 2,000-year-old 13 ………………. with activities for children

Cambridge IELTS 9

Open 24 hours between 12 ……………… and ……………………… daylight hours


Longfield Park 14

As part of Monday's activity, visitors will A prepare food with herbs. B

meet a well-known herbalist.

C dye cloth with herbs. 15

For the activity on Wednesday, A only group bookings are accepted. B

visitors should book in advance.

C attendance is free. 16

For the activity on Saturday, visitors should A

come in suitable clothing.

B

make sure they are able to stay for the whole day.

C

tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do.

Questions 17-20 Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 17-20.

17

bird hide

……………………..

18

dog-walking area

……………………..

19

flower garden

……………………..

20

wooded area

…………………….. Cambridge IELTS 9

141

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Self-Access Centre 21

Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because they enjoy the variety of equipment. A they like being able to work on their own. B it is an important part of their studies. C

22

Some teachers would prefer to close the Self-Access Centre. A move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere. B restrict access to the Self-Access Centre. C

23

The students' main concern about using the library would be the size of the library. A difficulty in getting help. B the lack of materials. C

24

The Director of Studies is concerned about the cost of upgrading the centre. A the lack of space in the centre. B the difficulty in supervising the centre. C


Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre Equipment Replace computers to create more space.

Resources The level of the 25 ………………. materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown. Update the 26 ………………. collection. Buy some 27 ………………… and divide them up.

Use of the room Speak to the teachers and organise a 28 …………………. for supervising the centre. Install an 29 ……………………… . Restrict personal use of 30 …………………….. on computers. 142

Cambridge IELTS 9

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Business Cultures Power culture Characteristics of organisation

   

small 31 ………………. power source few rules and procedures communication by 32 …………..

Advantage:

 can act quickly

Disadvantage:

 might not act 33 …………………

Suitable employee:

 not afraid of 34 …………………  doesn’t need job security

Role culture Characteristics of organisation:

 large, many 35 ……………  specialised departments  rules and procedure e.g. job 36 ………………… and rules for discipline

Advantages:

 economies of scale  successful when 37 ……………… ability is important

Disadvantages:

 slow to see when 38 …………….. needed  slow to react

Suitable employee:

 values security  doesn’t want 39 ……………

Task culture Characteristics of organisation:

Advantage: Disadvantages: Suitable employee

 project orientated  in competitive market or making product with short life  a lot of delegation  40 ………………………  no economies of scale or special expertise  likes to work in groups

Cambridge IELTS 9

143


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Apartments Rose Garden

Facilities Studio flat

Other Information Example entertainment programme:

Apartments

Cost

£219

Greek dancing Blue Bay

Large salt-water

Apartments

swimming pool

-Just 1 ………………. metres from beach

£275

- near shops 2 ……………

terrace

watersports

- Greek paintings

- overlooking 4 ………………..

-3 ………………

- near a supermarket and a disco

£490

Apartments The Grand

5 £ …..


GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS Insurance Benefits

Maximum Amount

Cancellation

6 £ ……………………………..

Hospital

£600. Additional benefit allows a 7 ………………… to travel to resort

8 ………………………….

Up to £1000. Depends on reason

departure Personal belongings

Up to £3000; £500 for one 9 …………………

Name of Assistant Manager: Ben 10 ………………… Direct phone line: 081260 543216

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SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Winridge Forest Railway Park 11

Simon's idea for a theme park came from his childhood hobby. A his interest in landscape design. B his visit to another park. C

12

When they started, the family decided to open the park only when the weather was expected to be good. A the children weren’t at school. B there were fewer farming commitments. C

13

Since opening, the park has had 50,000 visitors. A 1,000,000 visitors. B 1,500,000 visitors. C

Questions 14-18 What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-18.

People

Area of work

14

Simon (the speaker)

……………………..

A

advertising

15

Liz

……………………..

B

animal care

16

Sarah

……………………..

C

building

17

Duncan

……………………..

D

educational links

18

Judith

……………………..

E

engine maintenance

F

food and drink

Questions 19 and 20

G

sales

Complete the table below.

H

staffing

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Feature

Size

Biggest challenge

Target age group

Railway

1.2 Km

Making tunnels

Go-Kart arena

19 …………. m2

Removing mounds on the

20 ………………..

track

year-olds

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145

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Study Skills Tutorial – Caroline Benning Dissertation topic:

the 21 ……………………..

Strengths:

 

Weaknesses:

 

Possible strategy peer group discussion use the 26 ……………….. service consult study skills books

lack of background information poor 23 …………………… skills Benefits Problems increases 24 ……………… dissertations tend to contain the same 25 ………………. provides structured limited 27 …………………. programme are a good source of can be too 28 …………….. reference

 use a card index

Recommendations: Next tutorial date:

SECTION 4

22 …………………….. computer modelling



read all notes 29 ……………….



30 ……………………….. January

Questions 31-40

Questions 31 and 32 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 31 The owners of the underground house had no experience of living in a rural area. A were interested in environmental issues. B wanted a professional project manager. C 32

What does the speaker say about the site of the house? The land was quite cheap. A Stone was being extracted nearby. B It was in a completely unspoilt area. C

Questions 33-40 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The Underground House Design  Built in the earth, with two floors  The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of 33 …………..  Photovoltaic tiles were attached  A layer of foam was used to improve the 34 ………….. of the building 146

Cambridge IELTS 9

Special features  To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and 35 ……………………….  In future, the house may produce more 36 ……………….. than it needs  Recycled wood was used for the 37 ……………………… of the house  The system for processing domestic 38 ………………….. is organic Environmental issues  The use of large quantities of 39 ………………. in construction was environmentally harmful  But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within 40 ……………

Cambridge IELTS 9

147


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Health Centres Name of centre

Doctor's name

Advantage

The Harvey Clinic

Example Dr Green

especially good with 1 ………..

The 2 ………………. Health Practice

Dr Fuller

offers 3 ……………. appointments

The Shore Lane Health Centre

Dr 4 ………………

Questions 5-6 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO of the following are offered free of change at Shore Lane Health Centre? A B C D E

acupuncture employment medicals sports injury therapy travel advice vaccinations


Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre Subject of talk Giving up smoking

Date/Time th

Healthy eating

25 February at 7 pm 1st March at 5pm

Avoiding injuries during exercise

9th March at 9 ……………..

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Cambridge IELTS 9

Location room 4

the 8 ……………. (Shore Lane) room 6

Notes useful for people with asthma or 7 ……….. problems anyone welcome for all 10 …………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Label the diagram below. Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-13.

Water Heater A B C D E

electricity indicator on/off switch reset button time control warning indicator

Questions 14-18 Where can each of the following items be found? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 14-18. 14 15 16 17 18

pillows washing powder key light bulbs map

…………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. ……………………..

Locations

A B C D E Questions 19 and 20 F Complete the notes below. G Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

in box on washing machine in cupboard on landing in chest of drawers next to window in living room on shelf by back door on top of television under kitchen sink

The best place to park in town – next to the station Phone number for takeaway pizzas – 19 ……………………. Railway museum closed on 20 ………………………………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


In her home country, Kira had completed a course. A done two years of a course. B found her course difficult. C Cambridge IELTS 9

149

22

To succeed with assignments, Kira had to read faster. A write faster. B change her way of thinking. C

Questions 23-25 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 23 24 25

Kira says that lecturers are easier to …………………… than those in her home country. Paul suggests that Kira may be more …………………….. than when she was studying before. Kira says that students want to discuss things that worry them or that ………………… them very much.

Questions 26-30 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 26 27 28 29 30

How did the students do their practical sessions? ………………………………………………….. In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital? ………………………………………………….. How much full-time work did Kira do during the year? ………………………………………………….. Having completed the year, how does Kira feel? ………………………………………………….. In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become familiar with? …………………………………………………..

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Wildlife in city gardens 31

What led the group to choose their topic? They were concerned about the decline of one species. A They were interested in the effects of city growth. B They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon. C

32

The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by consulting some official documents. A taking large-scale photos. B discussions with town surveyors. C

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Cambridge IELTS 9

33

The group asked garden owners to take part in formal interviews. A keep a record of animals they saw. B get in contact when they saw a rare species. C

34

The group made their observations in gardens which had a large number of animal species. A which they considered to be representative. B which had stable populations of rare animals. C

35

The group did extensive reading on wildlife problems in rural areas. A urban animal populations. B current gardening practices. C

36

The speaker focuses on three animal species because a lot of data has been obtained about them. A the group were most interested in them. B they best indicated general trends. C

Questions 37-40 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Animals 37 …………………… Hedgehogs Song thrushes

Reason for population increase in gardens suitable stretches of water safer from 38 …………………. when in cities – a variety of 40 ………… to eat – more nesting places available

Comments massive increase in urban population easy to 39 ………….. them accurately large survey starting soon

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Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.

SELF-DRIVE TOURS IN THE USA Example Andrea Brown Name: 24 1 ……………………………… Road Address: BH5 2OP Postcode: (mobile) 077 8664 3091 Phone: 2 ………………………… Heard about company from: Possible self-drive tours Trip One:  Los Angeles: customer wants to visit some 3 …………………. parks with her children 

Yosemite Park: customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a 4 ………………………

Trip Two:  Customer wants to see the 5 ………………. on the way to Cambria 

At Santa Monica: not interested in shopping



At San Diego, wants to spend time on the 6 ……………………….


Trip One

Number of days 12 days

Total distance 7 ………. km

Price (per person) £525

Trip Two

9 days

980 km

9 £ …………….

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Cambridge IELTS 10

Includes  accommodation  car  one 8 ………….  accommodation  car  10 …………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-12 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO facilities at the leisure club have recently been improved?

A B C D E

the gym the tracks the indoor pool the outdoor pool the sports training for children


Joining the leisure club Personal Assessment  New members should describe any 13 …………………………… . 

The 14 ………………………… will be explained to you before you use the equipment.



You will be given a six-week 15 ……………………………… .

Types of membership  There is a compulsory £90 16 ……………………………… fee for members. 

Gold members are given 17 ……………………………….. to all the LP clubs.



Premier members are given priority during 18 ……………………………. hours.



Premier members can bring some 19 …………………………. every month.



Members should always take their 20 …………………………. with them.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Global Design Competition 21

Students entering the design competition have to A produce an energy-efficient design. B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance. C develop a new use for current technology. Cambridge IELTS 10

153

22

John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers A more appealing. B more common. C more economical.

23

The stone in John's 'Rockpool' design is used A for decoration. B to switch it on. C to stop water escaping.

24

In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide A changes back to a gas. B dries the dishes. C is allowed to cool.

25

At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide A is released into the air. B is disposed of with the waste. C is collected ready to be re-used.


 John needs help preparing for his 26 ………………………………… .  The professor advises John to make a 27 ……………………… of his design.  John's main problem is getting good quality 28 ……………………… .  The professor suggests John apply for a 29 ……………………………. . 

The professor will check the 30 ………………………… information in John's written report.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


THE SPIRIT BEAR General facts  It is a white bear belonging to the black bear family.  Its colour comes from an uncommon 31 ……………………… .  Local people believe that it has unusual 32 ……………………. .  They protect the bear from 33 …………………………… .

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Cambridge IELTS 10

Habitat  The bear’s relationship with the forest is complex.  Tree roots stop 34 …………………………. along salmon streams.  The bears’ feeding habits provide nutrients for forest vegetation.  It is currently found on a small number of 35 ……………………………. . Threats  Habitat is being lost due to deforestation and construction of 36 ………………. by logging companies.  Unrestricted 37 ………………. is affecting the salmon supply.  The bears’ existence is also threatened by their low rate of 38 ………………. . Going forward  Interested parties are working together.  Logging companies must improve their 39 …………………… of logging.  Maintenance and 40 ……………………… of the spirit bears’ territory is needed.

Cambridge IELTS 10

155


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Transport Survey Example Travelled to town today: by bus Name: Luisa 1 …………………….. Address: 2 ……………… White Stone Rd Area: Bradfield Postcode: 3 ………………………….. Occupation: 4 ………………………. Reason for visit to town: to go to the 5 ………………………. Suggestions for improvement:  better 6 ……………..  have more footpaths  more frequent 7 ………………. Things that would encourage cycling to work:  having 8 ……………………. parking places for bicycles  being able to use a 9 ………………………….. at work  the opportunity to have cycling 10 ………………… on busy roads

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


New city developments 11

156

The idea for the two new developments in the city came from A local people. B the City Council. C the SWRDC. Cambridge IELTS 10

12

What is unusual about Brackenside pool? A its architectural style B its heating system C its method of water treatment

13

Local newspapers have raised worries about A the late opening date. B the cost of the project. C the size of the facilities.

14

What decision has not yet been made about the pool? A whose statue will be at the door B the exact opening times C who will open it

Questions 15-20 Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the playground? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 15-20.

Features A B C D E F G H I 15 16 17 18 19 20

Areas of the world Asia Antarctica South America North America Europe Africa

SECTION 3

ancient forts waterways ice and snow jewels local animals mountains music and film space travel volcanoes

…………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. ……………………..

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO hobbies was Thor Heyerdahl very interested in as a youth?

A B

camping climbing Cambridge IELTS 10

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C D E

collecting hunting reading

Questions 23 and 24 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which do the speakers say are the TWO reasons why Heyerdahl went to live on an island?

A B C D E

to examine ancient carvings to experience an isolated place to formulate a new theory to learn survival skills to study the impact of an extreme environment


The later life of Thor Heyerdahl 25

According to Victor and Olivia, academics thought that Polynesian migration from the east was impossible due to A the fact that Eastern countries were far away. B the lack of materials for boat building. C the direction of the winds and currents.

26

Which do the speakers agree was the main reason for Heyerdahl's raft journey? A to overcome a research setback B to demonstrate a personal quality C to test a new theory

27

What was most important to Heyerdahl about his raft journey? A the fact that he was the first person to do it B the speed of crossing the Pacific C the use of authentic construction methods

28

Why did Heyerdahl go to Easter Island? A to build a stone statue B to sail a reed boat C to learn the local language

29

In Olivia's opinion, Heyerdahl's greatest influence was on A theories about Polynesian origins. B the development of archaeological methodology. C establishing archaeology as an academic subject.

30

Which criticism do the speakers make of William Oliver's textbook? A Its style is out of date. B Its content is over-simplified. C Its methodology is flawed.

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Cambridge IELTS 10

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


THE FUTURE OF MANAGEMENT Business markets  greater 31 ………………………… among companies  increase in power of large 32 ……………………. companies  rising 33 …………………… in certain countries External influences on businesses  more discussion with 34 ……………………. before making business decisions  environmental concerns which may lead to more 35 ……………………….. Business structures  more teams will be formed to work on a particular 36 ………………………  businesses may need to offer hours that are 37 …………………………, or the chance to work remotely Management styles  increasing need for managers to provide good 38 ……………………..  changes influenced by 39 ……………………… taking senior roles Changes in the economy  service sector continues to be important  increasing value of intellectual property  more and more 40 ………………. workers

Cambridge IELTS 10

159


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Early Learning Childcare Centre Enrolment Form Example Parent of guardian: Carol Smith Personal Details Child's name: Kate Age: 1 ………………………………. Address: 2 …………………………. Road, Woodside, 4032 Phone: 3345 9865 Childcare Information Days enrolled for: Monday and 3 …………………………… Start time: 4 ……………………. am Childcare group: the 5 ……………….. group Which meal/s are required each day? 6 ………………………….. Medical conditions: needs 7 ………………………….. Emergency contact: Jenny 8 ………………………….. Phone: 3346 7523 Relationship to child: 9 …………………………………… Fees Will pay each 10 ………………………………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Alice say about the Dolphin Conservation Trust? Children make up most of the membership. A It's the country's largest conservation organisation. B It helps finance campaigns for changes in fishing practices. C It employs several dolphin experts full-time. D Volunteers help in various ways. E

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Cambridge IELTS 10

Questions 13-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. 13

Why is Alice so pleased the Trust has won the Charity Commission award? A It has brought in extra money. B It made the work of the trust better known. C It has attracted more members.

14

Alice says oil exploration causes problems to dolphins because of A noise. B oil leaks. C movement of ships.

15

Alice became interested in dolphins when A she saw one swimming near her home. B she heard a speaker at her school. C she read a book about them.

Questions 16-20 Which dolphin does Alice make each of the following comments about? Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, next to questions 16-20.

A B C D

Dolphins Moondancer Echo Kiwi Samson

Comments 16 17 18 19 20

It has not been seen this year. It is photographed more than the others. It is always very energetic. It is the newest one in the scheme. It has an unusual shape.

SECTION 3

…………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. ……………………..

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.

Theatre Studies Course 21

What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor? A the stories his grandfather told him B the times when he watched his grandfather working C the way he imagined his grandfather at work Cambridge IELTS 10

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22

In the play's first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by A repetition of words and phrases. B scenery painted in dull colours. C long pauses within conversations.

23

What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group? A He likes to have clear guidelines. B He copes well with stress. C He thinks he is a good leader.

24

To support the production, research material was used which described A political developments. B changing social attitudes. C economic transformations.

25

What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal? A one person forgetting their words B an equipment failure C the injury of one character

Questions 26-30 What action is needed for the following stages in doing the 'year abroad' option? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.

Action A

be on time

B

get a letter of recommendation

C

plan for the final year

D

make sure the institution's focus is relevant

E

show ability in Theatre Studies

F

make travel arrangements and bookings

G

ask for help

Stages in doing the 'year abroad' option 26

in the second year of the course

……………………..

27

when first choosing where to go

……………………..

28

when sending in your choices

……………………..

29

when writing your personal statement

……………………..

30

when doing the year abroad

……………………..

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Cambridge IELTS 10

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


'Self-regulatory focus theory' and leadership Self-regulatory focus theory People's focus is to approach pleasure or avoid pain Promotion goals focus on 31 …………………………….. Prevention goals emphasise avoiding punishment Factors that affect people's focus The Chronic Factor  comes from one's 32 ………………………… The 33 …………………………… Factor  we are more likely to focus on promotion goals when with a 34 ……………….  we are more likely to focus on prevention goals with our boss

How people's focus affects them Promotion Focus: People think about an ideal version of themselves, their 35 …………………… and their gains. Prevention Focus: People think about their 'ought' self and their obligations Leaders Leadership behavior and 36 ……………………. affects people's focus Transformational Leaders:  pay special attention to the 37 ………………………. of their followers  passionately communicate a clear 38 …………………………….  inspire promotion focus in followers Transactional Leaders:  create 39 …………………………. to make expectations clear  emphasise the results of a mistake  inspire prevention focus in followers Conclusion Promotion Focus is good for jobs requiring 40 ……………………… Prevention Focus is good for work such as a surgeon Leader's actions affect which focus people use

Cambridge IELTS 10

163


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


THORNDYKE'S BUILDERS Example Customer heard about Thorndyke's from a friend Edith 1 …………………………… Name: Flat 4, Address: 2 ………………………… Park Flats (Behind the 3 …………………..) 875934 Phone number: Best time to contact customer: during the 4 ………………………… Where to park: opposite entrance next to the 5 ……………………….. Needs full quote showing all the jobs and the 6 ………………………… Questions 7-10 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Area

Work to be done Replace the 7 …………….. in the door Paint wall above the 8 …………

Kitchen

One 10 …………………… needs replacing (end of garden)

Garden

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


MANHAM PORT 11 Why did a port originally develop at Manham? A It was safe from enemy attack. B It was convenient for river transport. C It had a good position on the sea coast. 164

Cambridge IELTS 10

Notes Fix tomorrow Strip paint and plaster approximately one 9 …………….. in advance

12 What caused Manham's sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution? A the improvement in mining techniques B the increase in demand for metals C the discovery of tin in the area 13 Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed? A shortage of fuel B poor transport systems C lack of skills among local people 14 What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century? A The workers went away. B Traditional skills were lost. C Buildings were used for new purposes. 15 What did the Manham Trust hope to do? A discover the location of the original port B provide jobs for the unemployed C rebuild the port complex Questions 16-20 Complete the table below. Write ONE MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Tourist attractions in Manham Place copper mine

village school 'The George' (old sailing ship)

Features and activities specially adapted miners' 16 ………….. take visitors into the mountain classrooms and a special exhibition of 18 …………………. the ship's wheel (was lost but has now been restored)

SECTION 3

Advice the mine is 17 …………….. and enclosed – unsuitable for children and animals a 19 ………………… is recommended children shouldn’t use the 20 ………………….

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO skills did Laura improve as a result of her work placement?

A B C D E

communication design IT marketing organisation Cambridge IELTS 10

165

Questions 23 and 24 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO immediate benefits did the company get from Laura's work placement?

A B C D E

updates for its software cost savings an improved image new clients a growth in sales

Questions 25-30 What source of information should Tim use at each of the following stages of the work placement? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.

Sources of information A B C D E F G

company manager company's personnel department personal tutor psychology department mentor university careers officer internet

Stages of the work placement procedure 25 26 27 28 29 30

obtaining booklet discussing options getting updates responding to invitation for interview informing about outcome of interview requesting a reference

SECTION 4

…………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. ……………………..

Questions 31-40


Nanotechnology: technology on a small scale 31 The speaker says that one problem with nanotechnology is that A it could threaten our way of life. B it could be used to spy on people. C it is misunderstood by the public. 166

Cambridge IELTS 10

32 According to the speaker, some scientists believe that nano-particles A should be restricted to secure environments. B should be used with more caution. C should only be developed for essential products. 33 In the speaker's opinion, research into nanotechnology A has yet to win popular support. B could be seen as unethical. C ought to be continued. Questions 34-40 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Uses of Nanotechnology Transport  Nanotechnology could allow the development of stronger 34 ……………… .  Planes would be much lighter in weight.  35 ………………………….. travel will be made available to the masses. Technology  Computers will be even smaller, faster, and will have a greater 36 ………… .  37 ……………….. energy will become more affordable. The Environment  Nano-robots could rebuild the ozone layer.  Pollutants such as 38 ……………………… could be removed from water more easily.  There will be no 39 ……………………… from manufacturing. Health and Medicine  New methods of food production could eradicate famine.  Analysis of medical 40 ……………………….. will be speeded up.  Life expectancy could be increased.

Cambridge IELTS 10

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The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS (8 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


PRESTON PARK RUN Details of run Example Day of Park Run:

Saturday

Start of run:

in front of the 1 ……………….

Time of start:

2 ……………………

Length of run:

3 ……………………

At end of run:

volunteer scans 4 …………………..

Best way to register:

on the 5 ……………………….

Cost of run:

6 £ ………………………………

Questions 7-10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Volunteering Contact name: Pete 7 …………………… Phone number: 8 ………………………… Activities: setting up course 9 ………………………. the runners 10 ……………………. for the weekly report

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. PACTON-ON-SEA BUS TOUR Bus stops Location Things to see Bus stop 1 train station start of tour Bus stop 2 the aquarium dolphins and 11 ………………. Bus stop 3 12 …………………. yachts and power boats Bus stop 4 13 ………………. centre very old 14 …………………. 168

The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS

Questions 15-20 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 15

You need to have a …………………… to buy a ticket for £10.

16

The bus tour lasts …………………… in total.

17

The cost of the bus ticket includes entrance to the ……………………… .

18

You can listen to an audio commentary which has been made by the ………………... .

19

If the weather is wet, it is a good idea to bring …………………… .

20

Don’t forget to bring your ………………………. when you book online.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Dave Hedley says that the computer system has too many users. A never worked well. B become outdated. C

22

The main problem with the computer system is that it is too slow. A stops working. B displays incorrect data. C

23

Timetabling has become an issue because A B C

there is not enough time for anyone to do it. the system does not handle course options. the courses are constantly changing.

24

To solve the timetabling issues, Randhir suggests that students should create their own timetables. A Dave should have someone to assist him. B the number of courses should be reduced. C

25

Randhir says that a new system may need to be trialled. A still have problems. B be more economical. C

26

Improving the existing system will take A B C

a few weeks. four or five months. nine months.


169

Questions 27-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Next steps Get approval from 27 ………………………

Complete a 28 ……………………. form

Book a 29 …………………….. with the systems analyst

Set up a 30 ……………….. with technologies team

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Ceramics 31 Ceramics date back approximately ………………………… . 32

The first figurines were made in the area of …………………………. .

33

Early humans could not use their pots to store ………………………….. .

34

The Chinese improved the quality of ceramics by mixing ……………….. with the clay.

35

Chinese porcelain was also called ………………………….. .

36

Bottger added quartz and ………………… to clay to make porcelain.

Glass 37 Glass production is similar to clay ceramics apart from the rate of …………………….. . 38

The Romans introduced the use of glass to make …………………….. .

Concrete 39 The discovery of concrete is probably due to observing reactions of water and …….…………. . 40

170

The ability to build large ………………………. contributed to the success of the Roman Empire.



Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Short Story Competition Entry Details Example

£5

Cost of entry: Length of story:

approximately 1 …………………. Story must include: a 2 ……………… 3 …………………… 1st 4 …………………….. www. 5 ……………….. .com 6 …………….. the story to the organisers

Minimum age: Last entry date: Web address: Don’t: Questions 7-10 Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Judging and Prize Details The competition is judged by 7 …………………… . The top five stories will be available 8 ………………. . The top story will be chosen by the 9 ………………….. . The first prize is a place at a writers' workshop in 10 ……………….. .

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-17 Complete the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Sea Life Centre – information 11

What was the Sea Life Centre previously called? ……………………

12

What is the newest attraction called? ……………………………

13

When is the main feeding time? …………………………………….

14

What can you do with a VIP ticket? ……………………………….. The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS

171

15

What special event will the Sea Life Centre arrange for you? ……………………

16

Where will the petition for animal conservation be sent to? ……………………

17

What can you use to test what you have learnt? ……………………

Questions 18-20 What does the guide say about each attraction? Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-E, next to Questions 18-20. A B C D E

Aquarium Crocodile Cave Penguin Park Seal Centre Turtle Town

SECTION 3

18

must not miss …………………

19

temporarily closed ………………

20

large queues …………………

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-22 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO subjects did Martina like before going to university?

A D

Art History

B E

English Science

C

French

Questions 23-26 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

George's experience of university George is studying Mechanical Engineering which involves several disciplines. He is finding 23 ……………….. the most difficult. At the moment, his course is mainly 24 ……….……. . He will soon have an assignment which involves a study of 25 ………………………….. . He thinks there are too many 26 ……………..………. and would like less of them. Questions 27-30 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 27

Martina thinks the students at her university are A B C

172

sociable. intelligent. energetic.


28

George hopes that his tutor will help him lose his shyness. A settle into university. B get to know his subject better. C

29

What does Martina know about her first assignment? the topic A the length B the deadline C

30

George would like to live in a hall of residence. A in a flat on his own. B with a host family. C

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Preparing and Giving a Presentation Initial thoughts Most important consideration: your audience Three points to bear in mind: - what they need to know - how 31 ……………………. they will be - how big the audience will be Structure Start with information that makes the audience 32 ……………………….. End with 33 …………………………….. Design The presentation needs to be 34 ………………….. Vary content by using a mix of words and 35 …………………….. Presenting Look at the audience, be enthusiastic and energetic Voice – vary speed and 36 …………………………….. Occasionally add 37 ……………………. for greater impact Do not use 38 …………………………… (e.g. appears, seems) Questions and Interruptions When asked a question, first of all you should 39 ………………….. Minimise interruptions by 40 …………………. them The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS

173


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SARAH'S HEALTH & FITNESS CLUB MEMBERSHIP FORM Example Harry

First name: Last name:

1 ……………………………..………………..

Date of Birth:

Day: 11th; Month: December; Year: 2 ………………

Type of Membership:

3 …………………………………………

Activities:

Badminton and 4 ……………………..

Payment details:

Total: £450 To be paid 5 ……………………………

Questions 6-10 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Lifestyle questionnaire What exercise do you do regularly? Do you have any injuries? What is your goal or target? What is your occupation? How did you hear about the club?

SECTION 2

6 …………………………………. has a 7 …………………………………. a better 8 …………………………………. a 9 …………………………………. 10 ………………………………….

Questions 11-20


174

The next event at the hotel will be a trade fair. A wedding. B party. C The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS

12

The number of guests will be less than 50. A from 50 to 100. B more than 100. C

13

Guests will start arriving at 7.15. A 7.30. B 7.45. C

14

The entertainment will be a live band. A comedian. B magician. C

Questions 15-17 Who will be responsible for the following jobs as the guests arrive? Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-E, next to Questions 15-17. A B C D E

Susan Ahmed Gary Olav Monica

15

offer drinks to guests

…………

16

take guests' coats and hats

…………

17

show guests where to go

…………

Questions 18-20 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

General instructions In order to get the guests to move to the restaurant the hotel manager will 18 ………………. . Seating plans will be placed on each table and also in the 19 ………………………. . There will be a total of three 20 ………………………. .


175

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the flow-chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Paper Production and Recycling

Questions 26-30 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

26

What part of the assignment is Alan going to start working on? ………………….

27

Where will Melanie get more information on used paper collection? …………….

28

What will they add to the assignment to make it more interesting? ………………

29

What do they agree to complete by the end of the month? ……………………

30

Who will they ask to review their work? ……………………………………….

176


SECTION4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-38 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. HAIR

Facts about hair - main purpose – warmth and 31 ………………… - main component keratin – makes fingernails 32 ………….. - full head of hair can support a large weight – equal to two 33 ………………… - average number of strands of hair – 34 ……………….. for an adult - large amount of money spent on 35 …………………… for hair in the UK Structure of hair Three main parts: a) bulb – like a 36…………………….. over end of hair follicle b) root – contains glands that supply 37 ………………….. to hair strand c) shaft – not 38 ………………………..


Health and Hair Changes in diet will take longer to affect your hair than your 39 ………………. . Vitamins C, D and E are all important for healthy hair and 40 …………..……… are one of the best sources of Vitamin C.


177


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Community Centre Evening Classes Class

Where

When

What to bring

Cost

Painting with

Example

at 1 …………

water jar and set

£45 – four

watercolours

in the hall

pm on Tuesdays

of 2 …………

classes

Maori language

the small room at the 3 …..……

£40 – five starts in 4 ……

small recorder

classes

6 pm Wednesday

the 5 …………

6 £ …..… –

evenings

for the camera

eight classes

of the building Digital photography

room 9


The watercolours class suits people who are …………………… .

8

To find out about the Maori language class, contact Jason…………………. .

9

For the photography class, check the …………………… for the camera.

10 There is a trip to a local ………………… in the final week of the photography class.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO tasks will the volunteers in Group A be responsible for?

A B C D E

178

widening pathways planting trees picking up rubbish putting up signs building fences


Questions 13 and 14 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO items should volunteers in Group A bring with them? A B C D E

food and water boots gloves raincoats their own tools

Questions 15-20 Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 15-20. 15 16 17 18 19 20

Vegetables beds Bee hives Seating Adventure playground Sand area Pond

…………… …………… …………… …………… …………… ……………


179

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Food Waste 21

What point does Robert make about the 2013 study in Britain? A B C

It focused more on packaging than wasted food. It proved that households produced more waste than restaurants. It included liquid waste as well as solid waste.

22

The speakers agree that food waste reports should emphasise the connection between carbon dioxide emissions and food production. A transport of food to landfill sites. B distribution of food products. C

23

Television programmes now tend to focus on the nutritional value of food products. A the origin of food products. B the chemicals found in food products. C

24

For Anna, the most significant point about food waste is A B C

25

the moral aspect. the environmental impact. the economic effect.

Anna and Robert decide to begin their presentation by handing out a questionnaire. A providing statistical evidence. B showing images of wasted food. C

Questions 26-30 What advantage do the speakers identify for each of the following projects? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30. Projects 26

edible patch

………

27

ripeness sensor

………

28

waste tracking technology

………

29

smartphone application

………

30

food waste composting

………

180

Advantages It should save time. A It will create new jobs. B It will benefit local communities. C It will make money. D It will encourage personal responsibility. E It will be easy to advertise. F It will involve very little cost. G


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Kite-making by the Maori people of New Zealand Making and appearance of the kites 

The priests who made the kites had rules for size and scale



31 ………………. was not allowed during a kite's preparation

Kites: 

often represented a bird, a god, or a 32 ……………………..



had frames that were decorated with grasses and 33 ………………



had a line of noisy 34 …………………. attached to them.



could be triangular, rectangular or 35 ……………… shaped.



had patterns made from clay mixed with 36 ………………. oil.



sometimes had human-head masks with 37 …………….. and a tattoo.

Purpose and function of kites: 

a way of sending 38 ……………… to the gods



a way of telling other villages that a 39 ……………. was necessary



a means of 40 ……………….. if enemies were coming.


181


Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

City Transport Lost Property Enquiry Example Main item lost:

suitcase

Description of main item: black with thin 1 ………..……… stripes Other items: a set of 2 ………………… keys some documents a 3 ……………… in a box a blue 4 ………………….. Journey details Date and time: 2.00 -2.30 pm on 5 ………………. Basic route: caller travelled from the 6 ………. to Highbury Mode of travel: caller thinks she left the suitcase in a 7 ……….. Personal details Name: Address: Phone number:

SECTION 2

Lisa 8 ………………………. 15A 9 ……………………… Rd, Highbury 10 ………………………….

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-15.

182


11 12 13 14 15

supermarket climbing supplies store museum bike hire café

………… ………… ………… ………… …………

Questions 16-20 What comment does the speaker make about each of the following tracks? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 16-20.

A It is possible to get lost here. B It only offers basic accommodation. C It requires physical strength.

SECTION 3

Track 16 North Point 17 Silver River 18 Valley Crossing 19 Stonebridge 20 Henderson Ridge

Questions 21-30


Why has James chosen to do a case study on the company Furniture Rossi? It has enjoyed global success. A It is still in a developmental phase. B It is an example of a foreign company being rebranded for Australia. C

22

According to James, why did Luca Rossi start a furniture company? A B C

Furniture-making was already a family occupation. Rossi saw a need for hand-crafted furniture. The work Rossi had done previously was unrewarding.

23

What gave Furniture Rossi a competitive advantage over other furniture companies? its staff A its lower prices B its locally sourced products C

24

What does the tutor recommend James does when writing the second draft of his case study? provide more detailed references A check for written accuracy B add his own views C

25

What do the tutor and James agree was wrong with James' last presentation? It was too short. A It focused too much on statistics. B There was not enough interaction with the audience. C The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS

183

Questions 26-30 Complete the flow-chart below. Choose FIVE answers from the list below and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 26-30.

A B C D E F G

website locations designs TV advertising campaigns quality values software programs

History of Furniture Rossi The product 26 …………………… led to a wider customer base.

Greater customer demand meant other 27 ……………..…. were needed.

Better 28 ………………….. increased overall profitability.

Changes to the 29 ………..…… were brought on by customer complaints.

Furniture Rossi wants to make people more aware of its 30 …………….…. .

184


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Rock art Why rock art is important to researchers It provides evidence about 

evolution



31 …………………….

Global similarities in rock art 

humans often had large 32 …………………



animals were common, but a 33 ……………. was always drawn from the side or from above



unlikely that contact through 34 ……………….. resulted in similar artistic styles

Why our ancestors produced rock art Research suggests rock art was produced 

firstly for reasons of 35 ………………………..

 later for social, spiritual and 36 ………………… reasons.

Questions 37-40 Complete the questions below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. What TWO images drawn by Aboriginal people show their contact with Europeans?  37 ……………………  38 …………………… Which human activities does the lecturer say are the main threats to Aboriginal rock art?  39 ……………………  vandalism  40 ………………………


185


Test 6 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


ACCOMMODATION FORM: RENTAL PROPERTIES Example

Answer

Name:

Jane Ryder

Contact phone number:

1 (0044) ……………………………

Email address:

2 richard@ ………………….. .co.uk

Occupation:

a local 3 ……………………………..

Type of accommodation:

a 2-bedroom apartment wanted (must have its own 4 ……………………...….) no 5 ……………………… required (family bringing theirs) a 6 ……………..……………. in the kitchen is preferable

Preferred location:

near a 7 ………………………………………..

Maximum rent:

8 ………………………… per month

Other requests:

the accommodation has to be 9 ……………….……. in the daytime

How did you first hear about us?

through a 10 ……………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. The police officer suggests neighbours give each other their 11 …………………. . Neighbours should discuss what to do if there's any kind of 12 ………………….. . It's a good idea to leave on the 13 ……………………… . Think carefully about where you put any 14 ………………………. . It's a good idea to buy good-quality 15 ………………………… .

186


Questions 16-20 Which crime prevention measure is proposed for each area affected by crime? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20. Proposed crime prevention measures install more lighting have more police officers on patrol remove surrounding vegetation contact local police fix damage quickly change road design use security cameras

A B C D E F G

SECTION 3

Areas affected by crime 16

skate park

……….

17

local primary schools

……….

18

Abbotsford Street

……….

19

shops on Victoria Street

……….

20

supermarket car park

……….

Questions 21-30


Presentation on the problems and potential of biofuels 21

Mike suggests they begin their presentation by explaining what kind of harm is caused by fossil fuels. A pointing out that biofuels were in use before fossil fuels. B ensuring students know the difference between fossil fuels and biofuels. C

22

Karina doesn’t want to discuss the production of ethanol because other students will already be familiar with the process. A there will not be time to cover more important information. B they may not provide an accurate description. C

23

Which source of biofuel do the students agree is least environmentally friendly? sugar cane A corn B canola C

24

What is the main problem facing the development of the biofuel industry in the USA? A B C

25

inadequate infrastructure for transporting ethanol not enough farmers growing biofuel crops little government support of biofuel development

Karina doubts that sugar cane production in brazil will lead to the loss of wildlife habitats. A create a large number of jobs in the biofuel sector. B continue to provide enough energy for the country's needs. C


187

26

Karina and Mike conclude that in order to increase the use of biofuels the price of fossil fuels must go up. A more machinery must be adapted to use them. B production methods must be more energy-efficient. C

Questions 27-30 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. What TWO biofuel-related problems do Mike and Karina decide to focus on in the last section of their presentation?  27 ……………………  28 …………………… Which two sources of biofuel do Mike and Kerina say are being tried out?  29 ……………………  algae  30 ……………………

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


The 'weak-tie' theory: how friends-of-friends influence us In 1973, Mark Granovetter claimed that the influence of 'weak-ties' can affect the behavior of populations in the fields of information science, politics and 31 …………………… . Although friends-of-friends may be unlike us, they have similar enough 32 ………………… to have a beneficial effect on our lives. An example of this influence is when we hear about 33 …………………..……. because information about them is provided by weak-ties. Since Granovetter proposed his theory, other studies have shown that weak-tie networks also benefit our 34 ……………….…. . Questions 35 and 36 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which does the speaker believe are TWO real benefits of online social networking? A

people can gain higher self-esteem

B

people can access useful medical information

188


C

people can form relationships more quickly

D

people can improve academic performance

E

people can be reliably informed about current affairs

Questions 37 and 38 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO problems related to online social networking will increase, according to the speaker? A

criminal activity

B

poorer grades at school

C

a decline in physical fitness

D

less work done by employees

E

loss of career prospects

Questions 39 and 40 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO claims are made by Robin Dunbar about social networking sites? A

They are not helpful for developing certain social skills.

B

They cannot fully reveal a person's real character.

C

They are not a good starting point for building new relationships.

D

They do not encourage people to widen their social circle.

E

They will not retain their popularity with the young generation.


189


Test 7 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Hostel accommodation in Darwin Name

Price per person

Comments and reviews

(dormitory rooms) $19

Example Top End Backpackers Gum Tree Lodge

Kangaroo Lodge

3 $ …………………

$22



parking available



staff are 1 ………….



nice pool



air-conditioning is too 2 ……………



good quiet location



pool and gardens



4 …………….. in the dormitories



downtown location



reception at the lodge is always open



no lockers in the rooms



the 5 ……….. are very clean



seems to be a 6 ……………. every night


Kangaroo Lodge Address: on 7 ……………… Lane General information about hostel accommodation 

sheets are provided



9 …………….. is included



can hire a 8 ……………………



a shared 10 ……………. is available

190


SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Anglia Sculpture Park 11

The land where the Sculpture Park is located was previously A completely covered by forest. B the site of a private house. C occupied by a factory.

12

What is unusual about the Anglia Sculpture Park? A B C

13

What is the theme of Joe Tremain’s 'burnt' sculptures? A B C

14

is rather wet in some places. has recently been repaired. is difficult to walk on.

What does the speaker say about the Visitor Centre? A B C

16

the contrast between nature and urban life the effect of man on the environment the violence of nature

The path by the Lower Lake A B C

15

Artists have made sculptures especially for it. Some of its sculptures were donated by the artists. It only shows contemporary sculptures.

It is being enlarged at present. It has received an international award. It was designed by a Canadian architect.

Today, visitors can buy snacks and sandwiches A at the kiosk. B in the Terrace Room. C at the Lower Lake Café.


191

Questions 17-20 Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 17-20.

17 18 19 20

Joe Tremain sculptures Giorgio Catalucci bird sculptures Garden Gallery Long House

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Marketing report 21

Why did Leo choose instant coffee as the topic for his marketing report? He found plenty of material on the topic. A He had some practical experience in the area. B He had an idea of a brand he wanted to target. C

22

Leo discovered that in Australia, recent technological developments A B C

23

What do the speakers agree about Leo's table of coffee products? A B C

192

are producing less healthy types of instant coffee. are reducing the demand for instant coffee. are improving the quality of instant coffee.

It needs more explanation in the text. It is factually inaccurate in some places. It would be best to put this in the appendix. The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS

24

What do they decide about the description of Shaffers coffee as a market follower? A B C

Leo needs to define his terms. Leo needs to provide more evidence. Leo needs to put it in a different section

25

What does Anna say about originality in someone's first marketing report? Clear analysis of data can be considered original. A Graphs and diagrams should be original, not copied. B Reports should contain some original data collected by the student. C

26

What difference between his school assignments and this report has surprised Leo? A B C

not knowing the criteria for getting a good mark being required to produce work without assistance having to do a great deal of research


Notes on specific sections of marketing report Executive summary  Give a brief overview including the 27 …………………… Problems  Link each problem to a 28 …………………….. which explains it Implementation  Practical solution to problems  Include details such as participants, 29 ………………… and sequence  Selection is often poorly done because of lack of 30 ……………….. Conclusion  Don’t use new material here

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

History of Fireworks in Europe 13th-16th centuries  Fireworks were introduced from China.  Their use was mainly to do with: - war - 31 ………………………… (in plays and festivals)


193

17th century  Various features of 32 …………………… were shown in fireworks displays.  Scientists were interested in using ideas from fireworks displays: - to make human 33 …………………….. possible - to show the formation of 34 ……………………..  London: - Scientists were distrustful at first - Later, they investigated 35 …………….. uses of fireworks (e.g. for sailors)  St Petersburg: - Fireworks were seen as a method of 36 ………………. for people  Paris: - Displays emphasised the power of the 37 ………………… - Scientists aimed to provide 38 …………………….. 18th century  Italian fireworks specialists became influential.  Servandoni's fireworks display followed the same pattern as an 39 …………………. .  The appeal of fireworks extended to the middle classes.  Some displays demonstrated new scientific discoveries such as 40 ……………….. .

194



Test 8 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Hilary Lodge Retirement Home Example The name of the manager is Cathy Activities programme involving volunteers Monday evenings: computer training  Training needed in how to produce 1 ……………… Tuesday afternoons: singing  The home has a 2 ……………… and someone to play it Thursday mornings: growing 3 ………………..  The home doesn’t have many 4 ……………… for gardening Once a month: meeting for volunteers and staff Interview  Go in on 5 ……………….., any time  Interview with assistant called 6 ……………..  Address of home: 73 7 ………………. Road 'Open house' days  Agreed to help on 8 ………………..  Will show visitors where to 9 …………………..  Possibility of talking to a 10 ……………. reporter

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 11-15.

Plan of learning Resource Centre (Ground Floor) 11

Newspapers

…………

12

Computers

…………

13

Photocopier

…………

14

Café

…………

15

Sports books

…………


195

Questions 16-20 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

New staff responsibilities Name

New responsibility

Jenny Reed

Buying 16 …………… for the Centre

Phil Penshurst

Help with writing 17 ……………….. for courses

Tom Salisbury

Information on topics related to the 18 ……………

Saeed Aktar

Finding a 19 ………………….

Shilpa Desai

Help with 20 …………………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-27 What helped Stewart with each of the following stages in making his training film for museum employees? Choose SEVEN answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-I, next to Questions 21-27. What helped Stewart

Stages in making the training film for museum employees

A

advice from friends

B

information on a website

21

finding a location

………

C

being allowed extra time

22

deciding on equipment

………

D

meeting a professional film maker

23

writing the script

………

E

good weather conditions

24

casting

………

F

getting a better computer

25

filming

………

G

support of a manager

26

editing

………

H

help from a family member

27

designing the DVD cover

………

I

work on a previous assignment

Questions 28-30 Complete the notes. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. Stewart's work placement: benefits to the Central Museum Association

196



his understanding of the Association's 28 ………………..



the reduction in expense The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS



increased co-operation between 29 …………………..



continuous 30 ……………..….. which led to a better product



ideas for distribution of the film

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


New Caledonian crows and the use of tools Examples of animals using tools  some chimpanzees use stones to break nuts  Betty (New Caledonian crow) made a 31 ………….. out of wire to move a bucket of food New Zealand and Oxford experiment  Three stages: crows needed to move a 32 ………………….. in order to reach a short stick; then use the short stick to reach a long stick; then use the long stick to reach food Oxford research  crows used sticks to investigate whether there was any 33 …………….. from an object  research was inspired by seeing crows using tools on a piece of cloth to investigate a spider design  Barney used a stick to investigate a snake made of 34 ………………….  Pierre used a stick to investigate a 35 ………………  Corbeau used a stick to investigate a metal toad  the crows only used sticks for the first contact Conclusions of above research  ability to plan provides interesting evidence of the birds' cognition  unclear whether this is evidence of the birds' 36 ……………….. Exeter and Oxford research in New Caledonia  scientists have attached very small cameras to birds' 37 ……………..  food in the form of beetle larvae provides plenty of 38 ……………. for the birds  larvae's specific 39 ……………… composition can be identified in birds that feed on them  scientists will analyse what the birds include in their 40 ………………...


197

Official IELTS Practice Materials (1 Test)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example Penny’s interview took place yesterday. A last week. C

two week ago.

1

What kind of shop is it? a ladies’ dress shop A a department store B a children’s clothes shop C

2

What is the name of the section Penny will be working in? the Youngster A the Youngset B the Young set C

Questions 3-10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Pay:

$6.50 an hour

Breaks:

one hour for lunch and 3 …………… coffee breaks

Holidays:

three weeks a year in the first two years four weeks a year in the 4 ……………………………

Staff training:

held on the 5 …………………… of every month

Special staff benefits or ‘perks’:

staff discount of 6 …………………. on everything except sale goods

Information on pension:

see Personnel Manager, office in 7 ………………….

Boss’s name:

8 ………………………….

Duties:

serve customers 9 ………………………… check for shoplifters check the stock

Expected to wear: 198

a 10 ………………….., a red blouse, and a name badge

Official IELTS Practice Materials

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


12

The bridge hotel is located in A the city centre. B the country. C the suburbs. The newest sports facility in the hotel is A a swimming pool. B a fitness centre. C a tennis court.

Questions 14 and 15 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO business facilities are mentioned? A internet access B mobile phone hire C audio-visual facilities D airport transport E translation services Questions 16-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SHORT BREAK PACKAGES Length of stay Cost (per person per night) Special features 2 days 16 £ …………………….. Full cooked breakfast Entertainment in the 17 ……………………. 3 days £60 As above, plus: - a 18 ………………………. 5 days 19 £ …………………… As above, plus: - free beauty therapy on two of the days - full-day membership of a 20 ……………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21 and 22 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Research Project • 21 • 22

Harry and Katy have to concentrate on coastal change for their next project. Their work could be delayed by the ……………………………. . They plan to get help from the Marine Biology Unit. Before they go to the beach, they need to visit the …………………………… . Official IELTS Practice Materials

199

Questions 23-26 Who will do each of the following tasks? A

Katy

B

Harry

C

Both Katy and Harry

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.

Tasks 23 24 25 26

take photographs collect samples interview people analyse data

……………………………. ……………………………. ……………………………. ……………………………..


Why does Harry want to do the presentation? A to practise skills for his future career B to catch up with his course requirements C to get a better mark than for his last presentation

28

What is Katy’s attitude to writing up the projects? A She is worried about the time available for writing. B She thinks it is unfair if she has to do all the writing. C She is concerned that some parts will be difficult.

29

Why does Harry want to involve the other students at the end of the presentation? A to get their opinions about the conclusions B to help him and Katy reach firm conclusions C to see if they have reached similar conclusions

30

Katy agrees to deal with any questions because A she feels she will be confident about the material. B Harry will be doing the main presentation. C she has already told Dr smith she will do this.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Peregrine Falcons 31 32 33 200

The Peregrine falcons found in …………………………. are not migratory birds. There is disagreement about their maximum …………………………….. . When the female is guarding the nest, the male spends most of his time …………………. . Official IELTS Practice Materials


Age of falcons 20 days old 28 days old 2 months old 1-12 months old

What occurs The falcons 34 …………………… The falcons are 35 …………………… The falcons 36 ……………………… permanently More than half of falcons 37 ……………………….


Procedures used for field research on Peregrine falcon chicks First: Second: Third: Fourth: Fifth:

catch chicks 38 ………………………. to legs 39 ……………………… of chicks take blood sample to assess level of pesticide check the 40 ……………………. of the birds

Official IELTS Practice Materials

201

IELTS Testbuilder 1 (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the details below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. Example Identification and security check: Platinum Card Service Card number: 6992 1 ………………… 11478921 Name: Carlos da Silva Postcode: 2 …………………. Address: 3 ……………………Vauxhall Close, London Date of birth: 13 July 4 ……………………. Mother’s maiden name: 5 ………………………


The caller has paid less than the computer shows. A more than the computer shows. B £500 twice. C

7

The caller is also worried about a bill that is too high. A an overpayment to a restaurant. B a payment that he does not recognise. C

8

The interest went up in April. A has not changed. B has gone down. C

9

The caller’s number is 020 7997 9909. A 020 7989 7182. B 020 8979 7182. C

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10

The operator will ring the caller tomorrow. A in two hours. B very soon. C

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Circle the correct letters A-D. 11

12

13

Mr. Gold had problems because he A

hated smoking.

B

smoked.

C

couldn’t touch his toes.

D

was very lazy.

Mr Gold used to travel across London to A

get exercise.

B

see London at night.

C

get cigarettes.

D

buy food.

What did Mr Gold have difficulty with in the past? A

running

B

giving up smoking

C

getting to sleep at night

D

getting up early in the morning


Mr Gold stopped smoking on …………………………………………………. .

15

Mr Gold said he was …………………………… if people had not seen him smoking.

16

The worst side effects he experienced were ……………………………...………… .

17

He saw giving up smoking as an …………………………………………...………. .

18

It was easier for Mr Gold to stop smoking than he had …………………………….. .

19

The radio presenter would like to have Mr Gold’s ………………………………….. .

20

The presenter hopes listeners will find their own …………………………. to success.

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203

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Lorraine •

has been with them on the course for 21 ………………….. .

•

has left because she has got a 22 …..……………………… .

•

has returned to 23 …………………………………. .


Steve’s mark could have been better if he had not made mistakes in his project. A done a better book review. B written more words. C chosen a different topic for his project. D

25

Steve’s book review was too long. A not as good as his project. B excellent. C fairly good. D

26

Steve’s tutor criticizes which aspect of his project? the beginning A the argument about road pricing B the end C the length D

27

The tutor recommends that Frances should do a PhD but not an MPhil. A an MPhil or a PhD. B another project. C her work more carefully. D

28

As regards getting funding, the tutor thinks Frances’s chances are slim. A chances are greater than many other students’. B exam are better will be decisive. C chances are better now than in the past. D

29

The last time a student in the department achieved a first in their exams was three years ago. A thirty years ago. B last year. C in the first three years the college was open. D

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30

Steve does not plan to go on to do research because he wants to stop studying. A do lots of really exciting things. B earn some money to do the things he would like to do. C return to his job. D

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Notes: The speaker specializes in management 31 …………….. . Bullying in the workplace costs the 32 …………………………. up to £4 billion a year. Bullying is caused by •

insufficient experience,

•

insecurity, or

•

a lack of 33 ……………………………… on the part of managers.


Main methods of bullying • Setting 34 ………………………………. tasks. • Constantly moving the goalposts. • Stopping individuals 35 ……………………… to criticism. • Not 36 ………………………… or replying to e-mails. This means you cannot expect your staff to 37 ……………………………… you. • Using technology. Companies should develop an 38 …………………………….. of practice.

Task In groups 39 …………………………… other bullying strategies and ways in which they can be 40 ………………………………….. .

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205


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Circle the appropriate letters A-D. Example Hannah’s Dad A C D

can hear her very well. cannot hear her very well. wants her to move says the line is clear.

1

How long did Hannah think it would take her to find a place to live? three weeks A less than three weeks B more than three weeks C more than four weeks D

2

There is not enough accommodation to rent because it is the end of the academic year. A Hannah is a new student. B the area has lots of new technology companies. C the town is small. D

3

£400 a month for rent is higher than Hannah has paid before. A lower than Hannah has paid before. B not cheap for the area. C cheap for the area. D

4

At the moment Hannah is living in a hostel. A in a suitcase. B in a hotel. C in a flat. D

5

Hannah’s new flat is a bit noisy. A is on the second floor. B has two bedrooms. C has a large roof terrace. D

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IELTS Testbuilder 1

Questions 6-7 Complete Dad’s note. Hannah’s address: 6 ……………………….. Whitehart Road 7 ………………………. 9RJ

Questions 8-10 Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete each space. 8 9 10

Hannah plans to travel to her parents’ house on Friday ……………………….… . Hannah’s Dad will return the van on …………………………………………….. . The journey time is about ………..…………………………………………....…. .

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Circle FOUR letters A-H. Which FOUR planned developments are mentioned?

A

a village town hall

B

a leisure centre

C

a play area for children

D

a hospital

E

an industrial development

F

extra houses

G

a steel works

H

a motorway

Questions 15-18 Tick Column A if the individual is in favour of the proposals. Tick Column B if the individual is against the proposals.

A

B

Example The local farmer 15 The Mayor 16 The conservation group spokesman 17 The local MP 18 The local shopkeeper IELTS Testbuilder 1

207

Questions 19-20 Circle the appropriate letters A-D. 19

Upton is close to Tartlesbury. A far from Tartlesbury. B connected by rail to Tartlesbury. C a town with a university. D

20

The College has never had a 100% success rate. A had a 100% success rate this year. B always been very successful. C never been successful. D

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 21 22 23 24 25

How many essays do the students have to write? …………………………………………………. What percentage does the written exam account for? …………………………………………………. How many marks did Carl get for his latest essay? …………………………………………………. How many marks did Pamela get for her latest essay? …………………………………………………. When was the marking system explained before? ………………………………………………….


Research

Carl

Pamela

Very good, lots of

Very good

26 ………………… examples Sources

Very sound

Very good

Organization

Very good

29 ………………………….

Writing style

27 …………………………

Slightly too informal in some places

Previous essay

Disappointing, but rewrite 28 ………………………

208

IELTS Testbuilder 1

30 ………………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


The total number of lectures mentioned by the lecturer is ten. A thirteen. B six. C eight. D

32

The lunch break of the average British worker is on the increase. A shorter than it used to be. B 36 minutes. C precisely 30 minutes. D

33

Which graph shows the change as regards sick leave?

34

There will be another lecture on stress in work and study given by professor Butt. A on the calendar. B in about a fortnight. C in a week’s time. D

35

Which of the following is mentioned? Most workers say they do not take all their holidays. A Under half of the workers say they do not take all their holidays. B Employers do not believe workers. C About a third of healthy workers take days off sick. D IELTS Testbuilder 1

209


Student’s Notes Employees

now working 36 …………………….. physically and mentally

Productivity

up in many 37 ……………………………………..

In 2002, local car plant

vehicles per employee on rise to 38 ………………..

Car industry

once thought to be 39 ………………………….

Question 40 Choose the correct letters A-D. 40

210

Dr Butt asks those students to see him who A

want to work at the plant.

B

have chosen to do the project.

C

want to write extra essays.

D

are new.

IELTS Testbuilder 1


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Example How long has Caroline been waiting? 1 2 3 4 5

Answer five minutes

What does Matt suggest they do? …………………………………………………………………………….. In which month is the party going to take place? …………………………………………………………………………….. Where is Nikki? …………………………………………………………………………….. How long is Matt going to be away for? …………………………………………………………………………….. What day of the week is the party going to be held? ……………………………………………………………………………..


The location of Nikki’s house on the map is

7

The house has a bridge over the river. A a large swimming pool. B gardens leading down to the river. C

8

The address is 93 Western Road. A 39 West Road. B 93 West Road. C IELTS Testbuilder 1

211

9

The telephone number is 477113. A 447130. B 477130. C

10

Each person has to give ten pounds. A refreshments. B a barbecue. C

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Philosophy Department – Tutor’s responsibilities Main function To provide help with academic work in the philosophy course.

Personal matters To refer students to other support services in the university, which 11 ……….……. from counseling to welfare

Appointments To make an appointment, students should write their name in a time slot in 12 ……………… on the door.


Tutorials are obligatory. A voluntary. B once every two weeks. C

15

Tutorial registers in the Philosophy department started last year. A are not taken. B will start this year. C

16

Most students were very annoyed by people arriving late. A were fairly annoyed by people arriving late. B did not like exit questionnaires. C

17

In the tutorial, there will be a review of the lectures by the tutor. A for the previous week. B by a visiting lecturer. C

18

Preparation for the tutorial each week may include preparing an outline A writing an essay. B In-depth analysis. C

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IELTS Testbuilder 1

Urgent matters To speak to the tutor students should 13 …………… between sessions.

19 Continuous assessment grades do not include essays. A project work. B mini-presentations. C Question 20 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for the answer. The tutor hopes tutorial activities will have an impact on students’ ……………….. .

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Circle the correct letter A-C. 21

The students are discussing one essay of 1,500 words. A four essays of 1,500 words. B one essays of 5,000 words. C one essay of 5,000 ̶ 6,000 words. D

22

Which of the following can be included in the assignment? Dr Brightwell’s notes A tables and graphs, but not charts B tables, graphs and charts C social science books D

23

What has to be handed in to Dr Brightwell in two weeks’ time? data for the graphs A a questionnaire in draft from B a completed questionnaire C collected information D

Question 24 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER. The question limit on the questionnaire is ………………………………………………… . Questions 25-30 Match the points below to the speaker. Circle M for Mark of A for Anne.

25 Forty questions will be enough.

M

A

26 The questions should be simple.

M

A

M

A

27 The subject of the questionnaire will be how active students are.

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213

28 The questionnaires do not need to have names. 29 Twenty to twenty-five questions should be written by both of them. 30 The layout of the questionnaire can be played with.

SECTION 4

M

A

M

A

M

A

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 In which year did the events below happen? Tick ( ) the appropriate box. 1810 1812 1814 Example Dickens was born 31 The first steam locomotive was built 32 Waterloo Bridge was opened

1817

1818

1819

1821 1822 1824

33 Dickens left London 34 Several famous English novels were published 35 Dickens moved back to London Questions 36-37 Circle the correct answer A-C. 36 In 1833 Chapman and Hall was published. A The Pickwick Paper was published. B a steam boat crossed the Atlantic. C 37

Which of the following took place in 1837? Queen Victoria became queen. A Dickens married Catherine Hogarth. B Miscellany was serialized C

Questions 38-40 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. The serialization of Nicholas Nickleby began in 38 ………………………………… . The first postage stamp was introduced in 39 ………………… and in the same year the first 40 …………………………... was produced. 214

IELTS Testbuilder 1


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Circle the appropriate letters A-C. Example The caller can book a car by pressing button number B C

one. two. three.

1

The caller wants to make changes to his car reservation. A complain about a car. B make a car reservation. C

2

The booking reference is ASFY 15AG. A ACFY 15AG. B ACFY 50AG. C

3

Mr. Maxine originally booked the car for Monday at 6 p.m. A Friday of next week. B this Friday. C

4

Mr. Maxine wants to change his booking to a larger manual car. A five days. B a smaller automatic. C

5

Mr. Maxine Will have to pay an extra £165. A £65. B £15. C

6

Mr. Maxine rented a car five months ago. A not long ago. B several years ago. C

Questions 7-10 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7 8

The cost of the car hire changes …………………………...………… . The manual estate is cheaper to hire than ……………………………. . IELTS Testbuilder 1

215

9 10

Mr. Maxine’s credit card number is 3445 ……………………….. 7750. Mr. Maxine’s address is ………………………………..……… Vale.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Circle FOUR letters A-F. The Mystery Personality is a French speaker. A plays for a well-known club. B has got a famous wife. C is very rich. D has played for his national team. E is a famous footballer. F Questions 15-19 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each space below. 

aimed at young people 15 ……………………………….. 20 

connected with sports which involve some 16 ………………………………..

John Tebbit’s group 





after appeal many people offered their services as 17 ………………………………..

received many offers to use facilities free 18 …………………………………………...

some donations over 19 …………………………………………...

Question 20 Circle the appropriate letter A-D. 20

216

Patrick had an accident three years ago. A used to excel in archery. B has been sponsored by one manufacturer. C is not able to walk, but is very good at archery. D IELTS Testbuilder 1

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Circle the appropriate letters A-D. 21

Astrid says she is unhappy with Dr Adams. A happy with Dr Adams. B in the same tutorial group as Boris. C in a different seminar group to Boris. D

22

In the last lecture, Astrid took fewer notes than she thought she had. A more notes that she thought she had. B too many notes. C not many notes. D

23

Henry wants to copy Astrid’s notes because Astrid’s are neater than his. A he missed the lecture. B he was listening rather than writing. C he didn’t understand the lecture. D

24

Astrid says Henry cannot copy her notes because her handwriting is difficult to read. A they are too long. B the photocopier is broken. C he should have taken his own notes. D

Questions 25-27 Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS for each answer. 25 What is Astrid good at? ………………………………………………………… 26 What was Adam’s book about? ………………………………………………………… 27 What do some intelligent people find it difficult to do? ………………………………………………………… Questions 28-30 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Henry  useless at reading 28 ………………………………..  brilliant at 29 ……………….…… and putting ideas down in the 30 ………………………………………

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SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


In a previous lecture, Dr North talked about the Marine Habitat Research Unit. A humankind’s relationship with sailing. B humankind’s relationship with the sea. C the cost of fishing. D

32

The focus of today’s talk will be on problems the fishing industry faces worldwide. A marine fish recipes. B rare fish. C European fishing problems. D

33

A book list and relevant articles can be found only in the lecture room. A found on the Marine Habitat Research Unit website. B found in the lecture room and on the department website. C taken by students for a small fee. D

34

During the last century stocks of rare species have fallen dramatically. A the world population has grown very fast. B fishing has become less efficient but heavier. C more people have decided to eat fish. D

35

As well as over-fishing, which of the following is a reason for fishing stocks being on the point of collapse in the Pacific? Ocean ecology has changed. A Fishing has spread to international waters. B Fish has become cheaper. C Oceans are more polluted. D In the UK fish used to be seen as a luxury. A fish is not cheaper than meat. B fish used to be seen as a cheap meal. C food scares have driven people away from eating fish. D

36

218

IELTS Testbuilder 1

Questions 37-40 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each space below.

Reasons why the

A large 37 ……………….

38 …………………………

number of fish is

of catch nowadays is

and nets are to blame for the

declining

discarded.

deaths of many fish.

Solutions to the problem

39 ……………………..

Reducing the quantity of

are not a complete solution. fish for each boat. Example of

Newfoundland, where

disappearance of fish

40 ………… disappeared.

IELTS Testbuilder 1

219


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Questions 5 and 6 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO good things about Hotel Scotland are mentioned? A restaurant B convenience C room with a terrace D large rooms E cleanliness Questions 7-10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7 The departure date is ………………… . 8

The holiday excluding insurance costs £ …………………… .

9

The discount is ……………… per cent if booked before 17th February.

10 The booking reference is ………………….. .

220

IELTS Testbuilder 2

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11 The land for development has not been used for over a …………… . 12 There was pressure to build a training centre and a …………….. on the land. 13 Sponsorship has been received from a number of ………………… . Questions 14-20 Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Choose the correct letter A, B, or C. 21

Generally, Rosana finds the Wednesday programme A B C

22

Rosana wants to change her course because A B C

23

worthless. very show. valuable.

she always arrives home very late at night. it affects her work on the next two days. she doesn’t get on with the course tutors.

If Rosana changes her course, she A B C

may not have the same tutor. cannot change her mind again. may regret the change. IELTS Testbuilder 2

221

Questions 24 and 25 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO good things about the distance-learning component are mentioned? A B C D E

course length evening seminars course tutors course flexibility time factor

Questions 26-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Course Assessment Students are required to keep a written 26 ………………. and present a paper monthly. Thirty per cent of the marks are allocated to the 27 …………………… . Each student has to keep a 28 ………………….. portfolio which in the end accounts for 29 ………………. of their marks. Each student is also expected to present at least one piece of work at a 30 …………. .

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-37 Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. 31 The purpose of the data collection was to A test people's reaction to different buildings. B collect detailed information on various buildings. C assess the beauty of different public buildings. 32

The initial plan to use a questionnaire was abandoned, because A it would take too much time to produce. B the questions were too difficult to write. C it would take too long for people to complete.

33

People indicated their reactions on a 1-5 scale, A giving rise to some interesting answers. B ensuring that the information was easier to collect. C making it quicker to choose the top three images.

34

To make sure people could see the detail in the images better A only daylight images were used. B black and white images were used. C the images were produced in colour.

222

IELTS Testbuilder 2

35

What was done to preserve the images when being used? A They were covered in plastic with a special machine. B People were asked to wear gloves when touching them. C The images were handled only by the researcher.

36

Among the people who formed part of the sample were A tourists from various places. B office workers during lunch-break. C commuters as they exited stations.

37

What was the reason for appointing a leader for the group? A to comply with the instructions for the task. B to help hold the team together. C to allocate tasks to the various members.

Questions 38-40 Which findings match the age groups of the image testing? Write the appropriate letter A-D next to each group. Findings A varied reaction B mainly scored 1 C mostly scored 3 D mainly scored 5 38 11-18 year-olds

………………………

39 20-40 year-olds

………………………

40 50 years old and over

………………………

IELTS Testbuilder 2

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Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Sidney Street Community Centre Venue booking form Example

Answer

Name

Maria Lincoln

Details of party booking Number of people Date of party Name of room Time Drinks Contact details Postcode Address Telephone: Landline Mobile

5 …………… Flat 6 ……………., 35 Beeches Street 22 32 79 07897 7 ……………

Booking fee Cost of room hire Disco system hire Deposit Insurance

SECTION 2

1 approximately …….. 2 ……………. The 3 …………. 4 form ………….. to ……………. pm Licensed only for soft drinks

£115 with 8 …………… Optional. Fee £25 with no technician. 9 £……….. £9 for 24 hours. Covers cancellation, 10 …………

Questions 11-20


Green products are aimed at A people who can afford to pay the higher prices. B the young who are very environmentally aware. C those who care more about the environment.

12

Grass roofs have been used A on buildings in Europe. B on homes and other buildings. C mostly on residential buildings.

224

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13

On the grass roof, soil or crushed stones are laid directly on top of A the insulation and drainage layer. B the waterproof underlay. C the wooden roof deck.

Questions 14-18 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. Type of roof

Advantage

Disadvantage

Verdict

Grass roof

Cooler in summer, warmer

15 ………………

Highly

in winter

appearance in winter

recommended

16 ………………………

17 …………………….

Not

appearance

absorption

recommended

Good insulators

18 Very …………………. Not ideal for

14 Little …………. Encourages biodiversity Absorbs water run-off Tiles

Thatched roof

cities Questions 19 and 20 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO methods for encouraging people to install grass roofs are mentioned? A educating school children B

holding design competitions

C

support from celebrities

D

making grass roofs cheaper

E

using the media

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 21 Karen is planning to use an ……………. for her presentation. 22

Karen is also going to prepare a power-point presentation as a …………… .

23

Karen wants a few websites to obtain more …………… .

IELTS Testbuilder 2

225

Questions 24-28 What recommendations does Dr Owen make about the websites? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-G next to questions 24-28. A

must read

B

read recent articles

C

look at abstracts quickly

D

check links

E

scan references

F useful G limited use Example

Answer

www.kmul.org

A

24

investment_IT.com

........................

25

knowledge_journal.com

........................

26

IT_knowledge_review.com ........................

27

IT_online.com

........................

28

NationalStatistics.com

........................

Questions 29 and 30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things should be avoided in the presentation?

226

A

too much information at once

B

irrelevant visuals

C

small font

D

too many colours

E

talking fast

IELTS Testbuilder 2

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Department of the printed word Statistics    

many different full- and part-time courses 17 students on the 31 ……………… MA course and 7 full-time research students 9 full-time lecturers about 32 ……………… percent of students are from outside the country

Sponsorship    

links with organizations in the publishing world sponsorship of students, technicians and 33 …………………. outside speakers workshops built to expand facilities for book binding and 34 ……………

Teaching   

main work is teaching the 35 ……………….. as most printing is now very technological, students have to be 36 ……………. for students without the necessary skills, there are specialist technicians who deliver 37 ……………… in computing

Facilities  

in printing, editing, page design and layout, book-binding former students are now working as expert book 38 ……… and ………….

Research   

growing interest in the history of the printed word from early European etc printing techniques a visiting lecturer, Dr Yu, is an expert on early Chinese manuscripts and 39 ……………..………… department is very popular, with many 40 ……………… for each research position

IELTS Testbuilder 2

227


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example

Answer

Purpose

Placing an advertisement

Laptop for Sale Condition Weight Make Memory Screen Touch pad but with cordless mouse Number of ports Battery lasts Latest programmes

Almost new 1 ……………. Allegro 2 ……………….. 3 ……………….. Two 4 ……………………… Not 5 …………………..

Extras Web cam Printer with Smart case Price

6 ……………………….

Contact details Name: E-mail address: Mobile number: Advert placed:

David 8 ……………………. DIB [email protected] 9 ………………….. 10 …………………

SECTION 2

7 ………………………..

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11 In the Club, there are nine ……………. . 12

228

The main purpose of the Open Day is to give a ………………. of the premises.

IELTS Testbuilder 2

Questions 13-15 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Name Sean Bond Margaret Lloyd James Todd Edward Marks

Role to supervise equipment to 13 ………………………………… to 14 …………………………………. to 15 ………………………………….

Questions 16-18 Which floor contains which amenities?

A

storerooms

Choose from A-F.

B

therapy rooms

16

Ground floor

........................

C

offices

17

First floor

........................

D

study area

18

Second floor

........................

E

cafeteria

F

lecture theatre

Questions 19 and 20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Programme

Number

Time of chat with trainers

Counselling

19 ……………….

Saturday 10 am

Yoga etc

9

20 ……………………… pm

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Joint Presentation Self-evaluation Form Title: the application of robotics in a non-industrial setting Date: 21 …………………………………….. Insert your names and comments on the following aspects of the presentation . Mark General impression

worked well

Anna

Suggestions: Tutor no comment

not thorough or 22 ……………… enough

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229

reduce by

Hand-outs

23 ………….. looking

Middle of

power-point slides not in

overestimated

more practice with

presentation

25 ………………..……

26 ……………………

the equipment

Aims and

very focused

objectives

Delivery

Score

clearly 27 ………….……..

24 ……..…..……

no comment

performance was

difficult to coordinate

needs the

28 ……………..….

speaking and presenting

29………….……

six

SECTION 4

the best part

30 ………………………..

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 31 The local business people who had approached the Centre had all encountered A B C 32

The main focus of the Centre is now A B C

33

enormous problems. few problems. many obstacles.

large national companies. technology companies. businesses that have just started up.

Snapshot research was carried out A B C

over the Internet. by telephone. by personal contact.

Questions 34 and 35 Answer the questions below Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 34 How much higher are local business rents compared to those nationally? ………………………………………………………… 35

How many local businesses close a year after they have started working with the Centre? …………………………………………………………

230

IELTS Testbuilder 2

Questions 36-40 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Size of business Start-ups

Companies

Help being given

O-foods

improving the 36 …………….. turnaround

Innovations

support to attract business partners and achieve 37 ………………………… business 38 ……………………….

Sampsons Ltd Small

Medium

Vintage Scooter Build Ltd Jones Systems

product monitoring scheme after sales customer service extension of 39 …………………… conflict management and 40 ………………

IELTS Testbuilder 2

231


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example How many types of membership are there?

1

Two. B Three. C One. How much is the life-time membership of the Society? A £1,535. B £1,935. C £1,537.

2

How much does the ordinary membership cost per year? A £293. B £396. C £193.

3

What are the opening times on week-days? A 9 am to 10 pm. B 10 am to 9 pm. C 10 am to 5 pm.

4

What is the arts programme at the Society like? A limited. B wide. C interesting.

Questions 5-10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Name Margaret 5 …………. Address 55 6 …………….. Postcode 7 ……………….. Work number 0207 895 2220 Extension 8 ……………… Payment terms By 9 …………….. Guest restrictions one per 10 ……………..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO changes to the organization of this year's festival are mentioned? free parking A 232

IELTS Testbuilder 2

B C D E

free refreshments new uniforms free concert large tents


Teams

Purpose

Meeting point

Time

Beach Team

pick up litter

Beach 13 ………..

8 am

Town Team

arrange 14 ……..

Village Hall

15 ………… am

Questions 16-20 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 16 What does the speaker say about the judges in the competitions? A Most people judging will have some experience. B None of the judges will have experience. C Every judge will be experienced. 17

The winner in each of the competitions will A be given vouchers. B be awarded a cash prize. C receive book-tokens.

18

The profits from the marathon will be given to the Children's Hospital to help A buy new specialist equipment. B decorate the hospital wards. C provide books for the children.

19

Wardens will be needed at the car park because A the helped organize the parking well last year. B the parking last year was disorganized. C they will be needed to collect parking fees.

20

Bags will be provided by the council A for all the rubbish. B only for food rubbish. C only for material that can be recycled.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 21 In the practice exams, the students did A B C

two exams altogether. seven exams in total. eleven exams in total. IELTS Testbuilder 2

233

22

Adam thinks that essay papers are A inappropriate for assessing theoretical medical knowledge. B not good for assessing practical medical knowledge. C suitable for testing theoretical medical knowledge.

23

Mary criticizes multiple-choice questions, because A they require detailed instructions. B they benefit women more than men. C they favour men rather than women.

Questions 24 and 25 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which two aspects of the role-play examination are mentioned? the rest stations A B

24 test stations

C

the recording

D

the examiners

E

the simulated patients

Questions 26-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. In the problem-solving tests, students had to work in groups of four people and 26 ………. to solve a problem. As they discussed the problem, 27 ………….. watched them. As well as assessing the ability to speak, the problem-solving tested if people can 28 ……….., organise their thoughts and demonstrate they can be part of a 29 ………… . Re-sits of the final exams are held in September. After that any problems are dealt with by 30 ………… .

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 31 The Indian Ocean differs from the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans A by being closed in to the north. B by being warmer than both. C by extending into cold regions. 32

234

Approximately how much of the world's total ocean area does the Indian Ocean constitute?

IELTS Testbuilder 2

33

The island of Madagascar is A the tip of a submerged ridge. B the result of a volcanic eruption. C structurally part of the continent of Africa.

Questions 34 and 35 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 34 Oceanographers and meteorologists are monitoring changes in the Indian ocean's temperature and …………….. . 35 An assessment is being made of the impact of the changes on low-lying ………….. and …………. . Questions 36-40 Complete the flow-chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Data Processing  ship off Antarctica  buoys anchored at sea  five buoys off Antarctica which are 36 …………………. and icebergs  satellites recording the 37 ………………………….. of icebergs

38 ……………………………….. data received at Institute

constantly processed by a 39 …………………… of computers

data collated

Then analysed by 40 ………………. around the world IELTS Testbuilder 2

235

IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1 (5 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Listen to the telephone conversation between a student and the owner of a paragliding school and answer the questions below. Circle the correct letters A-D. Example Which course does the man suggest? A

2 day

C

5 day

4 day

D

6 day

1

How much is the beginner's course? A $190 B $320 C $330 D $430

2

What does the club insurance cover? injury to yourself A injury to your equipment B damage to other people's property C loss of personal belongings D

3

How do the girls want to travel? A public transport B private bus C car D bicycle


TELEPHONE MEMO

Name: Maria Gentle Address: Clo Mr & Mrs 4 …………………………………………………………………… 5 ……………………………………………………………………………………… Newcastle Fax no: 0249 6 ……………………………………………………………………………………… Type of Card: 7 ………………………………………………………………………………………

236

IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

Question 8 Circle TWO letters A-G. Which TWO of the following items must people take with them? A

sandals

D shirt with long sleeves

B

old clothes

E soft drinks

C

pullover

F

G

sunglasses

hat

Question 9 Circle TWO letters A-G. Which TWO accommodation options mentioned are near the paragliding school? A

camping

D

backpackers' inn

B

youth hostel

E

caravan park

C

family

F

bed and breakfast

G cheap hotel

Question 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Which weekend do the girls decide to go? ………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

GOODWOOD CAR SHOW Type of car: Duesenberg J-type Number made: 11 ………………………… . Type of body: 12 ………………………… . Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a 13 ……………… trip. Top speed: 14 ……………………….. per hour. Sold as a 15 ……………………….. and …………………….. . Main attraction: 16 ……………………………………. . Type of car: Leyat Helica Number built: 17 …………………………… . Car looks like a 18 ………………………… without 19 …………………… . Steering used the 20 ………………………………. . IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

237

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-22 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Research details: Title of project: 21 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………… Focus of project: entertainment away from 22 ………………………………………………………….. Questions 23-26 Circle the correct letters A-C. 23

Which chart shows the percentage of cinema seats provided by the different cinema houses?

24

Which graph shows the relative popularity of different cinemas?

25

What did Rosie and Mike realise about the two theatres? A B C

26

238

The prices were very similar. They were equally popular. They offered the same facilities.

Which graph shows comparative attendance for cinema and theatre?


Questions 27-30 Complete the chart about the different music clubs below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS or use ONE of the symbols for each answer.

× poor

 OK

excellent

Club The Blues Club The Sansue

Type of music Blues 28 …………...

Quality of venue 27 ………………

Pier Hotel Baldrock Café

Folk Rock

29 ……………… 30 ……………….

SECTION 4



Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Main focus of lecture: the impact of 31 …………………. on the occurrence of dust storms. Two main types of impact: A) break up ground surface, e.g. off-road vehicle use B) remove protective plants, e.g. 32 ……………… and ………….…… Questions 33-36 Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Name of area USA 'dust bowl' West Africa Arizona Sahara

Details Caused by mismanagement of farmland Decade renamed the 33 ………………… Steady rise in dust storms over 20-year period Worst dust clouds arise from 34 ………………… Dust deposits are hazardous to 35 ……………… Increased wind erosion has occurred along with long-term 36 …………………………..

Questions 37-40 Complete the flow chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Drying-up of Aral Sea Intensive 37 ………………….. in Central Asian Republics Drop in water in major tributaries Total volume of water in lake reduced by 38 ………………….. Increase in wind-blown material Lake has become more 39 …………..…… Serious effects on 40 ……………………. nearby IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

239


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Circle the correct letters A-C. Example Which course is the man interested in? A English B Mandarin © Japanese 1

What kind of course is the man seeking? Daytime A Evenings B Weekends C

2

How long does the man want to study? 12 weeks A 6 months B 8 months C

3

What proficiency level is the student? Beginner A Intermediate B Advanced C

4

When does the man want to start the course? March A June B September C


Language Centre Client Information Card Name: Richard 5 ……………………………………………………………… E-mail address: 6 ……………………………………………… @hotmail.com Date of birth: 7 ……………………………………………………….. 1980 Reason for studying Japanese: 8 ………………………………………………………………………. Specific learning needs: 9 …………………………………………………………………………………. Place of previous study (if any): 10 …………………………………………………………………… 240


SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-12 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11 12

The story illustrates that dogs are ……………………………. animals. The people of the town built a ………………………………… of a dog.

Question 13-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. TYPE OF WORKING DOG

ESSENTIAL CHARACTERISTICS For The Job

Sheep dogs Guide dogs Guard dogs and 16 ………………………. and ………………………… dogs Detector dogs Transport dogs

SECTION 3

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION

Tough and courageous

Herd sheep and 13 ……………….. them Training paid for by 15 …………………………. Dogs and trainers available through 17 ……………….………

Need to really 18 ………………………… Happy working 20 ……………………………..

In Sydney they catch 19 ………………..….. a month International treaty bans huskies from Antarctica

Smart, obedient Confident and 14 ……………………………….

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Braille – a system of writing for the blind  Louis Braille was blinded as a child in his 21 ……………………….. .  Braille invented the writing system in the year 22 ……………….. .  An early writing system for the blind used embossed letters.  A military system using dots was called 23 ………………………….. .


241


Which diagram shows the Braille positions?

25

What can the combined dots represent? both letters and words A only individual words B only letters of the alphabet C

26

When was the Braille system officially adopted? as soon as it was invented A two years after it was invented B after Louis braille had died C

27

What is unusual about the way Braille is written? It can only be written using a machine. A The texts have to be read backwards. B Handwritten Braille is created in reverse. C

Questions 28-30 List THREE subjects that also use a Braille code. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. 28 29 30

………………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. Question: Can babies remember any 31 ……………………………………… ? Experiment with babies: Apparatus: baby in cot colourful mobile some 32 ………………………….. Re-introduce mobile between one and 33 ……………………………… later.

242


Table showing memory test results Baby's age Maximum memory span 2 months 2 days 3 months 34 ………………….. 21 months several weeks 2 years 35 …………………… Questions 36-40 Research questions: Is memory linked to 36 ………..…….. development? Can babies 37 ……………………….. their memories? Experiment with older children: Stages in incident:

a) lecture taking place b) object falls over c) 38 …………………………..

Age

Table showing memory test results % remembered next day % remembered after 5 months

Adults

70%

39 ………………….

9-year-olds

70%

Less than 60%

6-year-olds

Just under 70%

40 …………………..


243


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Conference Registration Form Example Name of Conference: Beyond 2000 Name: Melanie 1 ……………………….. Ms …….... Address: 2 Room ……………….. at …………..…….. Newtown Faculty: 3 …………………………………………………… Student No: 4 ……………………………………………. Questions 5-10 Circle the correct letters A-C.

244

Registration for:

5

A B C

Half day Full day Full conference

Accommodation required

6

A B C

Share room/share bathroom Own room/share bathroom Own room with bathroom

Meals required:

7

A B C

Breakfast Lunch Dinner

Friday SIGs:

8

A B C

Computers in Education Teaching Reading The Gifted child

Saturday SIGs:

9

A B C

Cultural Differences Music in the Curriculum Gender Issues

Method of payment:

10

A B C

Credit Card Cheque Cash


SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Geographical Name of Beach Location Features

Other information

1 km from Bandela 11 ……………………

surrounded by 12 ……………………

safe for children/ non-swimmers

Da Porlata

east corner of island

area around beach is 13 …………………….

San Gett

just past 'Tip of Caln'

15 ………………….. beach on island

can hire 14 …………………… and …………………… check 16 ……………….. on beach in rough weather

Blanaka

17 ………………………….. corner

surrounded by 18 ……………………………

can go caving and diving

close to Blanaka

need to walk over 19 …………………………….

need to take some 20 ………………….. and ………………………..

Bandela

Dissidor

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. Procedure for Bookshops  Keep database of course/college details.  In May, request 21 ……………………………... from lecturers.  Categorise books as – essential reading 22 ……………………………….. reading – background reading When ordering, refer to last year's 23 ……………………………………… . – type of course – students' 24 ……………………………… . – own judgement Procedure for Publishers  Send 25 …………………………………. to course providers  Use websites  Compose personal 26 ………………………….. to academic staff  Send 27 ……………………………………………….. to bookstores Students Main objective is to find books that are good 28 ………………………………… . Also look for books that are 29 ……………………… and 30 ………………………. . IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

245

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Question 31 Circle the correct letters A-C. 31

At the start of her talk Rebecca points out that new graduates can find it hard to get the right work. A take sufficient breaks. B motivate themselves. C

Questions 32-33 Circle TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of the following does Rebecca say worry new artists? A

earning enough money

B

moving to a new environment

C

competing with other artists

D

having their work criticised

E

getting their portfolios ready


Rebecca decided to become an illustrator because it afforded her greater objectivity as an artist. A offered her greater freedom of expression. B allowed her to get her work published. C

35

When she had developed a portfolio of illustrations, Rebecca found publishers more receptive to her work. A equally cautious about her work. B uninterested in her work. C

Questions 36-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Suggestions for Developing a Portfolio Get some artwork printed in magazines by entering 36 …………………………………. . Also you can 37 ……………………. and …………………….. mock up book pages. Make an effort to use a variety of artistic 38 …………………………………………. . Aim for recognition by dividing work into distinct 39 ………………………………. . Possibly use 40 ……………………………………………….…….………………… .

246



Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Event Details Type of event: Example Dragon Boat Race Race details Day & date: 1 ………………………………….. Place: Brighton 2 ………………………………….. Registration time: 3 ………………………………….. Sponsorship - aim to raise over 4 …………………………… as a team and get a free t-shirt - free Prize Draw for trip to 5 …………………………………… Team details - must have crew of 20 and elect a 6 ……………………….. - under 18s need to have 7 ……………….….. to enter - need to hire 8 …………………………………. - advised to bring extra 9 ………………………….. - must choose a 10 ………………………………………. for the team

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. KIWI FACT SHEET Pictures of kiwis are found on 11 ………………………………. and …………………………………………… The name 'Kiwi' comes from its 12 …………………………………………………………………………………. The kiwi has poor sight but a good 13 …………………………………………………………………………….. Kiwis cannot 14 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. Kiwis are endangered by 15 '………………………………………………………………...'…………’ IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

247

Questions 16-17 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Kiwi Recovery Program Stage of program

Program involves

16 ………………………………………….. Action

Looking at kiwi survival needs Putting science into practice

17 …………………………………………

Schools and the website

Questions 18-20 Complete the flow chart below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

OPERATION NEST EGG 18 …………………………………………….

19 …………………………………………….

Chicks returned to wild

RESULT Survival rate increased from 20 …………...… to ……..………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


248

The professor says that super highways lead to better lifestyles. A are a feature of wealthy cities. B result in more city suburbs. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

22

The student thinks people like the advantages of the suburbs. A rarely go into the city for entertainment. B enjoy living in the city. C

23

The professor suggests that in five years' time City Link will be choked by traffic. A public transport will be more popular. B roads will cost ten times more to build. C

24

The student believes that highways encourage a higher standard of driving. A result in lower levels of pollution. B discourage the use of old cars. C

Questions 25-26 Label the two bars identified on the graph below. Choose your answers from the box and write them next to Questions 25-26.

Percentage of people using public transport by capital city List of cities:

Detroit Frankfurt London Paris Sydney Toronto

Questions 27-28 Circle TWO letters A-F. Which TWO facts are mentioned about Copenhagen? A B C D E F

live street theatre encouraged 30% of citizens walk to work introduction of parking metres annual reduction of parking spots free city bicycles free public transport

Questions 29-30 Circle TWO letters A-F. Which TWO reasons are given for the low popularity of public transport? A B C D

buses slower than cars low use means reduced service private cars safer public transport expensive IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

249

E F

frequent stopping inconvenient making connections takes time

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Reasons for preserving food 

Available all year



For 31 ……………..…



In case of 32 ………….……

Questions 33-37 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Method of preservation

Advantage

Disadvantage

Ultra-high temperature (UHT milk)

…… 33 ……..

spoils the taste

canning

inexpensive

risk of ….. 34 ……

refrigeration

stays fresh without processing

requires …. 35 …..

…. 36 …..

effective

time-consuming

drying

long-lasting, light and .… 37.…

loses nutritional value


250



Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.

Millennium

Office Supplies CUSTOMER ORDER FORM

Example: ORDER PLACED BY ACCOUNT NUMBER COMPANY NAME Envelopes Size Colour Quantity Photocopy paper Colour Quantity

…………… John Carter……… 1 ………………………………… 2 ………………………………… A4 normal 3 ………………………………… 4 ………………………………… 5 ………………………………… 6 …………………………………

Questions 7-9 List THREE additional things that the man requests. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 7 ………………………………………………………………….. 8 ………………………………………………………………….. 9 …………………………………………………………………..

Question 10 Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Special instructions: Deliver goods 10 ………………………………………………………..


251

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Artist's Exhibition General details: Place: 11 ………………………… No. 1 12 ………………………….. Dates: 6th October – 13 ………………………… Display details:  jewellery  furniture  ceramics  14 …………………………………..  sculpture Expect to see:

crockery in the shape of 15 ……………………… silver jewellery, e.g. large rings containing 16 …………… a shoe sculpture made out of 17 ………………… Go to demonstrations called: 18 '……………………………………………'

Artist's Conservatory Courses include: Chinese brush painting 19 ……………………………. silk painting Fees include: Studio use Access to the shop Supply of 20 ……………………………….

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


According to Alison Sharp … 21 22 23

252

Bear ancestors date back ……………………….. years. Scientists think bears were originally in the same family as ……………………………. . The Cave Bear was not dangerous because it ……………………………… .


Questions 24-28 Complete the grid. Tick ( ) the relevant boxes in each column. Bear species 24 Which is the most

Sloth Bear

Giant Panda

Polar Bear

Black Bear

Brown Bear

Sun Bear

recent species? 25 Which is the largest looking bear? 26 Which is the smallest bear? 27 Which bear eats plants? 28 Which bear eats insects? Questions 29-30 Circle TWO letters A-F. Which TWO actions are mentioned to help bears survive? A

breeding bears in captivity

B

encouraging a more humane attitude

C

keeping bears in national parks

D

enforcing international laws

E

buying the speaker's book

F

writing to the United Nations

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


The speaker compares a solar eclipse today to a religious experience. A scientific event. B popular spectacle. C

32

The speaker says that the dark spot of an eclipse is simple to predict. A easy to explain. B randomly occurring. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1

253

33

Concerning an eclipse, the ancient Chinese were fascinated. A rational. B terrified. C

34

For the speaker, the most impressive aspect of an eclipse is the exceptional beauty of the sky. A chance for scientific study. B effect of the moon on the sun. C

35

Eclipses occur rarely because of the size of the moon. A sun. B earth. C

36

In predicting eclipses, the Babylonians were restricted by their religious attitudes. A inaccurate observations. B limited ability to calculate. C


254

Date of eclipse

Scientists

1715

Halley

1868

Janssen and Lockyer

1878

Watson

1919

Einstein


Observation 37 …………………………. who accurately predicted an eclipse discovered 38 ……………………………… believed he had found 39 ………..………. realised astronomers had misunderstood 40 …………………………….


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


ENQUIRY ABOUT BOOKCASES Example:

Answer

Number of bookcases available:

two

Both bookcases Width: Made of: First bookcase Cost: Colour: Number of shelves: Second bookcase Colour: Other features:

Cost: Details of seller Name: Address:

1 ………………………………… 2 ………………………………… 3 ………………………………… 4 ………………………………… six (four are 5 ………………..…………..) dark brown - almost 80 years old - has a 6 …………… at the bottom - has glass 7 …………………. 8 ………………………….. Mrs 9 ………………………….. 41 Oak Rise, Stanton.

Question 10 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Which map shows the correct location of the seller's house?


255

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Charity Art Sale The paintings will be displayed in the Star Gallery and in a nearby 11 …………… . The sale of pictures will begin at 12 …………………. on Thursday, and there will be refreshments beforehand. The money raised will all be used to help 13 …………………….. children in New Zealand and other countries. Questions 14-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Artist  Don Studley

James Chang

   

Natalie Stevens

 

Christine Shin

SECTION 3



Personal information daughter is recovering from a problem with her back self-taught artist originally from Taiwan had a number of 15 …………..……. there has shown pictures in many countries is an artist and a website 17 …………………………. lived in New Zealand for 19 ………………………… Korean

Type of painting  pictures of the 14 ……..…………. of New Zealand  16 …………….. paintings  strong colours  soft colours, various media  mainly does 18 ………….………



paintings are based on 20 …………………………….  watercolours of New Zealand landscapes

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 What instructions were the students given about their project? A B C

they must do this they can do this if they want to they can't do this

Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to Questions 21-25. …………… 21 Choose a writer from a list provided. 22 256

Get biographical information from the Internet. IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2

……………

23

Study a collection of poems.

……………

24

Make a one-hour video.

……………

25

Refer to key facts in the writer’s life.

……………


Other requirements for the project    

extract chosen from the author's work must reflect the 26 ………………………. and ………………………. of the author. students must find sound effects and 27 ………………….... to match the texts they choose. students must use a 28 ………….……… of computer software programs to make the video. students must include information about the 29 …………………… of all material.

Criteria for assessment  completion of all components – 25%  30 …………………… (must represent essence of author's work) – 50%  artistic and technical design of video – 25%

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


'Extremophiles' are life forms that can live in isolated areas. A hostile conditions. B new habitats. C

32

The researchers think that some of the organisms they found in Antarctica are new species. A ancient colonies. B types of insects. C

33

The researchers were the first people to find life forms in Antarctica in the soil. A under the rock surface. B on the rocks. C

Questions 34-40 Complete the sentences. Write ONE WORD for each answer. How the extremophiles survive 34 Access to the sun's heat can create a ……………….. for some organisms.


257

35

The deeper the soil, the higher the ………………… of salt.

36

Salt can protect organisms against the effects of …………………………, even at very low temperatures.

37

All living things must have access to …………………………. water.

38

Salt plays a part in the process of …………………….., which prevents freezing.

39

The environment of ……………………….. is similar to the dry valleys of Antarctica.

40

This research may provide evidence of the existence of extraterrestrial life forms and their possible …………………… on other planets.

258



Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example Martin wants to A C

sell a flat. rent a flat. buy a flat.

1

What is Martin's occupation? He works in a car factory. A He works in a bank. B He is a college student. C

2

The friends would prefer somewhere with four bedrooms. A three bedrooms. B two bathrooms. C

3

Phil would rather live in the east suburbs. A the city centre. B the west suburbs. C

Questions 4-10 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Details of flats available Location

Features

Good () and bad (×) points

Bridge Street, near

 3 bedrooms

 5 £……………..…… a month

the

 very big living room

transport links

4 ……………………..

× no shower × could be 6 ………………………..

7 ……………………….

 4 bedrooms

9 …………………. and well equipped

 living room

shower

 8 ……………………..

will be 10 …………………..

× £800 a month IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2

259

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The British Library 11 The reading rooms are only open for group visits on …………………… . 12

The library was officially opened in ……………………….. .

13

All the library rooms together cover ……………………. m2.

14

The library is financed by the ………………………………….. .

15

The main function of the library is to provide resources for people doing ……….……. .

Questions 16-20 Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Plan of the British Library

260


SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.

Project on work placement 21

The main aim of Dave's project is to describe a policy. A investigate an assumption. B identify a problem. C

22

Dave's project is based on schemes in schools. A colleges. B universities. C

23

How many academic organisations returned Dave's questionnaire? 15 A 50 B 150 C

24

Dave wanted his questionnaires to be completed by company Human Resources Managers. A Line Managers. B owners. C

25

Dr Green wants Dave to provide a full list of respondents. A appendices. B companies. C


Notes on project Introduction - improve the 26 …………………….. of ideas - include a 27 …………………….. of 'work Placement' - have separate sections for literature survey and research 28 ………..….. and methods Findings Preparation stage – add summary 29 …………………. development – good Constraints on learning – provide better links to the 30 …………………. from research.


261

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Bilingualism can be defined as having an equal level of communicative ……………………. in two or more languages.

32

Early research suggested that bilingualism caused problems with ………………….... and mental development.

33

Early research into bilingualism is now rejected because it did not consider the ………..…… and ………………. backgrounds of the children.

34

It is now thought that there is a ………………….. relationship between bilingualism and cognitive skills in children.

35

Research done by Ellen Bialystok in Canada now suggests that the effects of bilingualism also apply to ……………………………. .

Questions 36-40 Choose the correct answer, A, B or C. 36

In Dr Bialystok's experiment, the subjects had to react according to the colour of the square on the screen. A the location of the square on the screen. B the location of the shift key on the keyboard. C

37

The experiment demonstrated the 'Simon effect' because it involved a conflict between seeing something and reacting to it. A producing fast and slow reactions. B demonstrating awareness of shape and colour. C

38

The experiment shows that, compared with the monolingual subjects, the bilingual subjects were more intelligent A had faster reaction times overall. B had more problems with the 'Simon effect'. C

39

The results of the experiment indicate that bilingual people may be better at doing different types of tasks at the same time. A thinking about several things at once. B focusing only on what is needed to do a task. C

40

Dr Bialystok's first and second experiments both suggest that bilingualism may slow down the effects of old age on the brain. A lead to mental confusion among old people. B help old people to stay in better physical condition. C

262



Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Council Youth Scheme Application for Funding for Group Project Answer Ralph Pearson 1 ……………………., Drayton DR6 8AB 01453 586098 Community Youth Theatre Group amateur theatre group (2 ..……………. members) involved in drama 3 ……….….…. and …….………… Amount of money requested 4 £ ……………………… Description of project to produce a short 5 …………………. play for young children Money needed for  6 …………………….. for scenery  costumes  cost of 7 …………………………  8 …………………………………..  sundries How source of funding will be credited acknowledged in the 9 …………………. given to audience Other organisations approached for funding (and outcome) national Youth Sevices – money was 10 ……………………… Example Name Contact address Telephone number Name of group Description of group

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Joanne says that visitors to Darwin are often surprised by the number of young people. A the casual atmosphere. B the range of cultures. C

12

To enjoy cultural activities, the people of Darwin tend to travel to southern Australia. A bring in artists from other areas. B involve themselves in production. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2

263

13

The Chinese temple in Darwin is no longer used for its original purpose. A was rebuilt after its destruction in a storm. B was demolished to make room for new buildings. C

14

The main problem with travelling by bicycle is the climate. A the traffic. B the hills. C

15

What does Joanne say about swimming in the sea? It is essential to wear a protective suit. A Swimming is only safe during the winter. B You should stay in certain restricted areas. C

Questions 16-20 What can you find at each of the places below? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to Questions 16-20. A

a flower market

B

a chance to feed the fish

C

good nightlife

D

international arts and crafts

E

good cheap international food

F

a trip to catch fish

G

shops and seafood restaurants

H

a wide range of different plants

16

'Aquascene'

……………

17

Smith Street Mall

……………

18

Cullen Bay Marina

……………

19

Fannie Bay

……………

20

Mitchell Street

……………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Effects of weather on mood 21

Phil and Stella’s goal is to ……………………………. the hypothesis that weather has an effect on a person’s mood.

264


22

They expect to find that ‘good’ weather (weather which is ………………………… and ………………………..) has a positive effect on a person’s mood.

23

Stella defines ‘effect on mood’ as a …………………….. in the way a person feels.

Questions 24-27 What information was given by each writer? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to Questions 24-27. A

the benefits of moving to a warmer environment

B

the type of weather with the worst effect on mood

C

how past events affect attitudes to weather

D

the important effect of stress on mood

E

the important effect of hours of sunshine on mood

F

psychological problems due to having to cope with bad weather

24 Vickers

…………

25 Whitebourne

…………

26 Haverton

…………

27 Stanfield

…………

Questions 28-30 Choose THREE letters A-H. Which THREE things do Phil and Stella still have to decide on? A

how to analyse their results

B

their methods of presentation

C

the design of their questionnaire

D

the location of their survey

E

weather variables to be measured

F

the dates of their survey

G

the size of their survey

H

the source of data on weather variables

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Choose TWO letters A-F. Which two of the following problems are causing concern to educational authorities in the USA? A

differences between rich and poor students IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2

265

B

high numbers dropping out of education

C

falling standards of students

D

poor results compared with other nationalities

E

low scores of overseas students

F

differences between rural and urban students

Questions 33-34 Choose TWO letters A-F. According to the speaker, what are two advantages of reducing class sizes? A

more employment for teachers

B

improvement in general health of the population

C

reduction in number of days taken off sick by teachers

D

better use of existing buildings and resources

E

better level of education of workforce

F

availability of better qualified teachers


USA RESEARCH PROJECTS INTO CLASS SIZES State

Schools involved

Tennessee about 70 schools

California

37 ……………………. schools

Wisconsin

14 schools (with pupils from 40 ………………. families)

266

Number of students participating in total 35 ………………

1.8 milion


Key findings

significant benefit especially for 36 …………………. pupils very little benefit

similar results to Tennessee project

Problems  lack of agreement on implications of data  shortage of 38 …………........ , especially in poorer areas  no proper method for 39 …………………. of project


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Budget accommodation in Queenstown, New Zealand Accommodation

Price (dormitory)

Comments Example

Travellers' Lodge

fully booked  in town centre

Bingley's

1 US $ ………………….

 café with regular 2 ………………. nights  sundeck  located in a 3 …………….….… alpine setting

Chalet Lodge

US $18.00

 10 mins from town centre  4 …………………….. are welcome  in town centre

Globetrotters

US $18.50

 5 …………………… included  chance to win a 6 ………….…………

Questions 7-10 Who wants to do each of the activities below? A B C

only Jacinta only Lewis both Jacinta and Lewis

Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 7-10. bungee jump …………. 7 8

white-water rafting

………….

9

jet-boat ride

………….

10

trekking on wilderness trail

………….


267

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 Jack says that in London these days, many people see cycling as a foolish activity. A have no experience of cycling. B take too many risks when cycling. C 12

If people want to cycle to school or work, CitiCyclist helps them by giving cycling lessons on the route they take. A advising them on the safest route to choose. B teaching them basic skills on quiet roads first. C

13

Jack works with some advanced cyclists who want to develop international competitive riding skills. A knowledge of advanced equipment. B confidence in complex road systems. C

14

CitiCyclist supports the view that cyclists should have separate sections of the road from motor traffic. A always wear protective clothing when cycling. B know how to ride confidently on busy roads. C

Questions 15-17 List THREE types of organisations for which CitiCyclist provides services. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 15 16 17

…………. …………. ………….

Questions 18-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. website address: phone: cost (single person): usual length of course:

SECTION 3

citicyclist.co.uk 18 ……………………. 19 ……………………. per lesson 20 …………………….. (except complete beginners)

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 21

What do Sharon and Xiao Li agree was the strongest aspect of their presentation? ………………………

268


22

Which part of the presentation was Xiao Li least happy with? ……………………..

23

Which section does Sharon feel they should have discussed in more depth? ……………………..


Sharon and Xiao Li were surprised when the class said they spoke too quickly. A they included too much information. B their talk was not well organised. C

25

The class gave Sharon and Xiao Li conflicting feedback on their timing. A use of visuals. B use of eye contact. C

26

The class though that the presentation was different from the others because the analysis was more detailed. A the data collection was more-ranging. B the background reading was more extensive. C

27

Which bar chart represents the marks given by the tutor?


The tutor says that the …………………… of the presentation seemed rather sudden.

29

The tutor praises the students' discussion of the …………………. of their results.

30

The tutor suggests that they could extend the ………………………. review in their report.


269

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The World Health Organisation says a healthy city must  have a 31 ……………………… and ……………………….. environment.  meet the 32 …………………………. of all its inhabitants.  provide easily accessible health services.  encourage ordinary people to take part in 33 …………………… . Questions 34-40 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Place/Project

Aim

Method

Achievement

to upgrade squatter settlements

the 34 ……………………. constructed infrastructure, e.g. drains, paths

 better housing and infrastructure  provided better 35 …………….…..…. opportunities

Mali cooperative

to improve sanitation in city

 36 ……………….. graduates organising garbage collection  public education campaign via 37 …………….….. and discussion groups

 greater environmental awareness  improved living conditions

Egypt (Mokattam) 38 ……………….

to support disadvantaged women

women provided with  the 39 ………………… and equipment for sewing and weaving

Sri Lanka Community Contracts System

270


rise in the 40 ………………. and quality of life of young women


Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-7 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example The woman says she is interested in A B

©

part-time employment. a permanent job unpaid work

1

The librarian says that training always includes computer skills. A basic medical skills. B interpersonal skills. C

2

All library service volunteers have to record their arrival and departure A stay within 'staff only' sections. B wear a uniform. C

3

The woman would be entitled to a contribution towards the cost of transport by minibus. A parking at the library B public transport. C

4

One recent library project involved labelling historical objects. A protecting historical photographs. B cataloguing historical documents. C

5

At present, the library is looking for people to record books onto CD. A tell stories to children. B read books to the blind. C

6

The woman says she is interested in a project involving taking library books to people in hospital. A delivering library books to people at home. B driving the disabled to the library. C

7

The woman agrees to work for two hours per week. A four hours per week. B six hours per week. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2

271

Questions 8-10 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE of the following must be provided by all volunteers? civil conviction check A B

signal copy of commitment

C

certificates to indicate qualifications

D

emergency contact information

E

date of birth

F

signature of parent or guardian

G

referees

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


'Canadian Clean Air Day' will be held on ………………………….. .

12

Air pollution may be responsible for ……………………. deaths every year in Canada.

13

The sector most responsible for smog-producing pollutants is ……………………….. .

14

Scientists now know that even ………………….. of pollutants can be harmful.


Reducing Air Pollution Individual action     

respond to the 15 '…………………….. Challenge' walk, cycle or car-pool to work use public transit 16 ………………………. 17 ………………………. your domestic equipment

Government action   

272

emission reduction in the 18 …………………… region of US and Canada move towards 19 …………………. (e.g. less sulphur in gasoline & diesel) reduction of pollutants from 20 ………………….. and power plants.


SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Field Trip to Kenya Area of country: Accommodation:

The 21 …………………. of Kenya Marich Pass Field Studies Centre  in traditional 'bandas' (bring mosquito 22 ………….)  study areas: 23 …………. , lecture room, outdoor areas Type of environment: both 24 …………………. and semi-arid plains  interviews (with interpreters)  25 ……………………… (environment and culture)  morphological mapping  projects (all connected with 26 …………….. issues) Jack's group did project on: 27 …………………… supply and quality issues Expeditions:  to Sigor (a 28 ………………..…) to study distribution  to the Wei Wei valley to study agricultural production  to a 29 …………………….. Evaluation:  logistics – well run  gave insight into lives of others  provided input for his 30 ………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Complete the flow chart below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Research methodology S T A G E 1

S T A G E 2

Discussion with supermarket department manager to decide on the store’s 31 ……………........ foe the website

Discussion to investigate website use as a 32 …………………… way for customers to communicate problems

Design of questionnaire to identify customers' experiences and 33 ………..……….. to problems

Data collected from 34 ……………………. with customers in four branches of the supermarket

Analysis of responses


273


Which pie chart shows the percentage of respondents who experienced a problem in the supermarket?

36

Which pie chart shows the reason why customers failed to report the problem directly to supermarket staff?

37

How might the student's website help the supermarket, according to the manager? it would support the expansion of the company. A it would allow the identification of problem areas. B it would make the company appear more professional. C

38

The student says one problem is that some customers do not have computer skills. A do not have their own computer. B do not have access to a computer. C

39

Further observation of website use is necessary because of the small size of the sample. A the need to evaluate the objectives. B the unrepresentative nature of the respondents. C

40

One positive result of the website for the supermarket staff could be greater support from management. A less chance of unfair complaints. B greater cooperation between staff. C

274



Test 6 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Report on abandoned vehicle Example Name of caller

Answer

Mrs Shefford

Address Telephone Vehicle location Type of vehicle Make Model Present colour of vehicle Vehicle number General condition Length of time at site Land belongs to Last owner Other notes

SECTION 2

41, 1 ……………………. Barrowdale WH4 5JP 2 …………………………. in 3 …………….…. near main road (A69) 4 ……………………… Catala 5 ………………………. 6 ………………………. S 322 GEC poor – one 7 …………………., cracked windscreen 8 ………………………… 9 …………………………. no information available vehicle does not belong to a 10 ………………… resident

Questions 11-20


The story of John Manjiro 11 Manjiro started work as a …………..…… when he was still a young boy. 12 He spent …………………………. on a deserted island before he was rescued. 13 He became friends with William Whitfield, who was a ship's …………………. . 14

The cost of Manjiro's ……………………….. in America was covered by the Whitefield family.

15 16

Manjiro eventually returned to Japan, where he carried out important work as a teacher and ……………………….. . Fairhaven and Tosashimizu are now officially ……………………………… .

17

Every two years, the John Manjiro ………………….. is held in Fairhaven.


275

Questions 18-20 Label the map. Write the correct letter A-I next to Questions 18-20. 18

Whitfield family house

………….

19

Old Oxford School

………….

20

School of Navigation

………….

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Choose the best answer, A, B or C. 21

What is the main thing Julia feels she has gained from her experience in retail? better understanding of customer attitudes A improved ability to predict fashion trends B more skill in setting priorities in her work C

22

Why is Julia interested in doing the postgraduate course? It will enable her to develop new types of technology. A It will allow her to specialise in a design area of her choice. B It will provide managerial training focusing on her needs. C

23

What would Julia like to do after she has completed the postgraduate course? work overseas A start her own business B stay in an academic environment C

Questions 24-27 What does each university facility have? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to Questions 24-27. A laboratories ……………… 24 Library B rooms for individual study ……………… 25 Computer Centre C inter-disciplinary focus D introductory course ……………… 26 Photomedia E purpose–built premises 27 Time Based Media ……………… F cafeteria G emphasis on creative use 276



MA in Fashion Design: Assessment Assessment includes three 28 ………………….. which take place at the end of the stages of the degree. Final assessment is based on a project, and includes the student's 29 ………………….. , in the form of a written report, and the 30 ………….……., to which representatives of fashion companies are invited.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Laughter The nature of laughter 

laughter is a 31 ……………………... process – involves movement and sound



it is controlled by our 32 ………….………………

Reasons for laughter 

only 10% of laughter is caused by jokes / funny stories



may have begun as sign of 33 ………………….…….. after a dangerous situation



nowadays, may help to develop 34 ……….…………… within a group



connected to 35 ………………………. (e.g. use of humour by politicians or bosses)



may be related to male/female differences (e.g. women laugh more at male speakers)



may be used in a 36 ………………………. way to keep someone out of a group

Benefits of laughter 

safe method for the 37 ……………….…….. of emotions such as anger and sadness



provides good aerobic exercise



leads to drop in levels of stress-related 38 ……………………..



improves the 39 ……………………...



can stop 40 ……………….……… and improve sleep


277


Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Health club customer research Example Answer Name: Selina Thompson Occupation: 1 ………………………………………… Age group: 2 ………………………………………… Type of membership: 3 ………………………………………… Length of membership: 4 ……………………………………. years Why joined: Recommended by a 5 …………….. Visits to club per month: Eight (on an average) Facility used most: 6 ……………………………………………. Facility not used (If any): Tennis courts (because reluctant to 7 ……………….. ) Suggestions for Have more 8 ……………………… improvements: Install 9 …………………. in the gym. Open 10 ……………………. later at weekends.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Complete the flow chart next page. Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.

278

A

air

B

ash

C

E

sticks

F

stones

G water


earth

D

grass

Making a steam pit Dig a pit.

Arrange a row of 11 ………………….. over the pit.

Place 12 ………………………….. on top.

Light the wood and let it burn out.

Remove 13 ………………………….. .

Insert a stick.

Cover the pit with 14 ………….. .

Place wrapped food on top, and cover it with 15 ………….. .

Remove the stick and put 16 ……………. into the hole. Questions 17-18 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO characteristics apply to the bamboo oven? A It’s suitable for windy weather. B The fire is lit below the bottom end of the bamboo. C The bamboo is cut into equal lengths. D The oven hangs from a stick. E It cooks food by steaming it. Questions 19-20 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about eating wild fungi? A Cooking doesn’t make poisonous fungi edible. B Edible wild fungi can be eaten without cooking. IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

279

C D E

Wild fungi are highly nutritious. Some edible fungi look very similar to poisonous varieties. Fungi which cannot be identified should only be eaten in small quantities.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. Research project on attitudes towards study 21 Phoebe’s main reason for choosing her topic was that her classmates had been very interested in it. A it would help prepare her for her first teaching post. B she had been inspired by a particular book. C 22

Phoebe’s main research question related to the effect of teacher discipline. A the variety of learning activities. B levels of pupil confidence. C

23

Phoebe was most surprised by her finding that gender did not influence behaviour significantly. A girls were more negative about school than boys. B boys were more talkative than girls in class. C

24

Regarding teaching, Phoebe says she has learned that teachers should be flexible in their lesson planning. A brighter children learn from supporting weaker ones. B children vary from each other in unpredictable ways. C

25

Tony is particularly impressed by Phoebe’s ability to recognise the limitations of such small-scale research. A reflect on her own research experience in an interesting way. B design her research in such a way as to minimise difficulties. C

Questions 26-30 What did Phoebe find difficult about the different research techniques she used? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G, next to questions 26-30. Difficulties A Obtaining permission B Deciding on a suitable focus C Concentrating while gathering data D Working collaboratively E Processing data she had gathered F Finding a suitable time to conduct the research G Getting hold of suitable equipment

280


Research techniques 26 Observing lessons 27 Interviewing teachers 28 Interviewing pupils 29 Using questionnaires 30 Taking photographs

SECTION 4

…………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. ………………………………….

Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Saving the juniper plant Background 31 Juniper was one of the first plants to colonise Britain after the last ……………….. .

33

Its smoke is virtually ………………………, so juniper wood was used as fuel in illegal activities. Oils from the plant were used to prevent …………………….. spreading.

34

Nowadays, its berries are widely used to …………………….. food and drink.

32

Ecology 35

Juniper plants also support several species of insects and …………………………… .

Problems 36

In current juniper populations, ratios of the ……………………………….. are poor.

37

Many of the bushes in each group are of the same age so ……………………. of whole populations is rapid.

Solutions 38

Plantlife is trailing novel techniques across ………………….. areas of England.

39

One measure is to introduce ………………………….. for seedlings.

40

A further step is to plant …………………………….. from healthy bushes.


281


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR NUMBER for each answer.

Pinder’s Animal Park Example Enquiries about temporary work Personal Details: Name: Jane 1 ……………………………. Address: 2 ……………………………………. Exeter Telephone number: 07792430921 Availability: Can start work on 3 …………… Work details: Preferred type of work: Assistant 4 ……………………….. Relevant skills: Familiar with kitchen 5 ………… Relevant qualifications: A 6 ………………. certificate Training required: A 7 ………………………. course Referee: Name: Dr Ruth Price Position: 8 ……………………………. Phone number: 9 ……………………………. Other Applicant has a form of 10 ………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct answer, A, B or C. Tamerton Centre 11

The Tamerton Centre was set up in order to encourage people to enjoy being in the countryside. A to help conserve the countryside. B to learn more about the countryside. C

12

Last year’s group said that the course built their self esteem. A taught them lots of new skills. B made them fitter and stronger C

282


13

For the speaker, what’s the most special feature of the course? You can choose which activities you do. A There’s such a wide variety of activities. B You can become an expert in new activities. C

14

The speaker advises people to bring their own board games. A extra table tennis equipment. B a selection of films on DVD. C

15

Bed-time is strictly enforced because it’s a way to reduce bad behaviour. A tiredness can lead to accidents. B it makes it easy to check everyone’s in. C

Questions 16-20 What rules apply to taking different objects to the Centre? Match each object with the correct rule, A-C. Write the correct letter, A-C. Objects 16 Electrical equipment 17 Mobile phone 18 Sun cream 19 Aerosol deodorant 20 Towel

…………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. ………………………………….

Rules A

You MUST take this

B

You CAN take this, if you wish

C

You must NOT take this

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Label the diagram next page. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 21-25 below. ……………………………… 21 Waste container ……………………………… 22 Slurry ……………………………… 23 Water inlet ……………………………… 24 Gas ……………………………… 25 Overflow tank


283

Questions 26-30 Complete the flow chart below. Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30. A

Identify sequence.

B

Ask questions.

C

Copy.

D

Demonstrate meaning.

E

Distribute worksheet.

F

Draw pictures.

G

Present sentences.

LESSON OUTLINE YEAR THREE TOPIC: ENERGY ACTIVITIES Teacher: Introduce word Pupils: look and listen

Teacher: 26 …………………… Pupils: look and listen

Teacher: Present question Pupils: respond

284


Teacher: 27 ………………. Pupils: 28 ……………… and expand

Teacher: Display pictures Pupils: 29 …………………………

Teacher: 30 …………………… Pupils: write

Teacher: Monitor pupils

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Background

     

Creating artificial gills

Taking in oxygen: mammals – lungs; fish – gills long-held dreams – humans swimming underwater without oxygen tanks Oxygen tanks considered too 31 …………………….. and large Attempts to extract oxygen directly from water 1960s – prediction that humans would have gills added by 32 ……………….. Ideas for artificial gills were inspired by research on  fish gills  fish swim bladders  animals without gills – especially bubbles used by 33 ……………..

Building a simple artificial gill  Make a watertight box of a material which lets 34 ……………….. pass through  Fill with air and submerge in water  Important that the diver and the water keep 35 ……………………  The gill has to have a large 36 ………………………………  Designers often use a network of small 37 …………… on their gill Main limitation – problems caused by increased 38 …………………… in deeper water Other applications  Supplying oxygen for use on 39 …………………..  Powering 40 ………………………… cells for driving machinery underwater IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

285


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Car for sale (Mini) Example Age of car: just under 13 years old Colour: 1 ………………………………… Mileage: 2 ………………………………… Previous owner was a 3 ……………………………… . Current owner has used car mainly for 4 ……………… . Price: may accept offers from 5 £……………………… . (Note: 6 ……………………… not due for 5 months) Condition: good (recently serviced) Will need a new 7 ………………………… soon Minor problem with a 8 ………………………… Viewing Agreed to view the car on 9 ………………………… a.m. Address: 238, 10 ……………………………… Road.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


The Treloar Valley passenger ferry usually starts services in April. A departs at the same time each day. B is the main means of transport for local villagers. C

12

What does the speaker say about the river cruise? It can be combined with a train journey. A It’s unsuitable for people who have walking difficulties. B The return journey takes up to four hours. C

13

What information is given about train services in the area? Trains run non-stop between Calton and Plymouth. A One section of the rail track is raised. B Bookings can be made by telephone or the Internet. C

286


14

The ‘Rover’ bus ticket can be used for up to five journeys a day. A is valid for weekend travel only. B had recently gone down in price. C

Questions 15-20 Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 15-20.

15 16 17 18 19 20

Bus stop Car park Museum Mill Potter’s studio Café

SECTION 3

…………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. ………………………………….

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Advice on writing a dissertation 21

What does Howard say about the experience of writing his dissertation? It was difficult in unexpected ways. A It was more enjoyable than he’d anticipated. B It helped him understand previous course work. C

22

What is Joanne most worried about? Finding enough material. A Missing deadlines. B Writing too much. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

287

23

What does Howard say was his main worry a year previously? Forgetting what he’d read about. A Not understanding what he’d read. B Taking such a long time to read each book. C

24

What motivated Howard to start writing his dissertation? Talking to his tutor about his problems. A Seeing an inspirational TV show. B Reading a controversial journal article. C

Questions 25-26 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Howard advise Joanne to do in the first month of tutorials? A See her tutor every week. B Review all the module booklists. C Buy all the key books. D Write full references for everything she reads. E Write a draft of the first chapter. Questions 27-28 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Howard say about library provision? A Staff are particularly helpful to undergraduates. B Inter-library loans are very reliable. C Students can borrow extra books when writing a dissertation. D Staff recommend relevant old dissertations. E It’s difficult to access electronic resources. Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Joanne agree to discuss with her tutor? A The best ways to collaborate with other students. B Who to get help from during college vacations. C The best way to present the research. D Whether she can use web sources. E How to manage her study time.

288


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Expertise in creative writing Background – researcher had previously studied 31 …………………….

Had initial idea for research – inspired by a book (the 32 ……………. of a famous novelist).

Posed initial question – why do some people become experts whilst others don’t?

Read expertise research in different fields. Avoided studies conducted in a 33 …………………… because too controlled. Most helpful studies – research into 34 …………………. , e.g. waiting tables.

Found participants: four true 35 …………………….. in creative writing (easy to find) and four with extensive experience.

Using ‘think aloud’ techniques, gathered 36 …………….. data from inexperienced writer. (During session – assistant made 37 …………………… recordings.

Gathered similar data from experienced writers.

Compared two data sets and generated a 38 ………………… for analysis (Identified five major stages in writing – will be refined later).

Got an expert 39 ……………………… to evaluate the quality of the different products.

Identified the most effective 40 ………………….. of stages in producing text.


289


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Things to do before we go Example  Collect the currency

Cancel appointment with the 1 ……………………… (Monday) Begin taking the 2 ……………………………… (Tuesday) Buy 3 ………………………………… , a small bag, a spare 4 ………………………………… , an electrical 5 ………………………………… .  Book a 6 …………………………………… . Instructions for Laura’s mum  Feed the cat Vet’s details: Name: Colin 7 ……………………………………… Tel: 8 ……………………………………………………… Address: Fore Street (opposite the 9 ………………………… )  Water the plants  Meet the heating engineer on 10 …………………………… .   

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Adbourne Film Festival 11 Why was the Film Fetival started? To encourage local people to make films. A To bring more tourists to the town. B To use money released from another project. C 12

290

What is the price range for tickets? £1.00 - £2.50 A 50p - £2.00 B £1.50 - £2.50 C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

13

As well as online, tickets for the films can be obtained from the local library. A from several different shops. B from the two festival cinemas. C

14

Last year’s winning film was about farms of the future. A schools and the environment. B green transport options. C

15

This year the competition prize is a stay in a hotel. A film-making equipment. B a sum of money. C

16

The deadline for entering a film in the competition is the end of May. A June. B July. C

Questions 17-18 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO main criteria are used to judge the film competition? A Ability to persuade. B Quality of the story. C Memorable characters. D Quality of photography. E Originality. Questions 19-20 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO Changes will be made to the competition next year? A A new way of judging. B A different length of film. C An additional age category. D Different performance times. E New locations for performances.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Research on web-based crosswords 21 Leela and Jake chose this article because it was on a topic familiar to most students. A it covered both IT and education issues. B it dealt with a very straightforward concept. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

291

22

How did Leela and Jake persuade students to take part in their research? They convinced them they would enjoy the experience. A They said it would help them do a particular test. B They offered to help with their own research later on. C

23

Leela and Jake changed the design of the original questionnaire because it was too short for their purposes. A it asked misleading questions. B it contained out-of-date points. C

24

Leela was surprised by the fact that it is normal for questionnaire returns to be low. A so many students sent back their questionnaires. B the questionnaire responses were of such high quality. C

Questions 25-26 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things did respondents say they liked most about doing the crossword? A It helped them spell complex technical terms. B It was an enjoyable experience. C It helped them concentrate effectively. D It increased their general motivation to study. E It showed what they still needed to study. Questions 27-28 Choose TWO letters, A-E. In which TWO areas did these research findings differ from those of the original study? A Students’ interest in doing similar exercises. B How much students liked doing the crossword. C Time taken to do the crossword. D Gender differences in appreciation. E Opinions about using crosswords for formal assessment. Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO skills did Leela and Jake agree they had learned from doing the project? A How to manage their time effectively. B How to process numerical data. C How to design research tools. D How to reference other people’s work. E How to collaborate in research.

292


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Job satisfaction study 31

Workers involved in the study were employed at a …………………………….. .

32

Despite some apparent differences between groups of workers, the survey results were statistically…………………………. .

33

The speaker analysed the study’s ……………………… to identify any problems with it.

34

The various sub-groups were ……………………………… in size.

35

Workers in the part-time group were mainly ……………………………… .

36

The ………………… of workers who agreed to take part in the study was disappointing.

37

Researchers were unable to ………………………………… the circumstances in which workers filled out the questionnaire.

38

In future, the overall size of the ………………………… should be increased.

39

In future studies, workers should be prevented from having discussions with ……………………. .

40

Workers should be reassured that their responses to questions are …………………… .


293


Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-2 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. Advice on plumbers and decorators Example Make sure the company is: local Don’t call a plumber during the 1 ……………………………….. . Look at trade website: 2 www. ……………………………. .com Questions 3-10 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. Name Peake’s Plumbing

John Damerol Plumbing Services Simonson Plasterers H.L. Plastering

SECTION 2

Positive points  Pleasant and friendly  Give 3 …………… information  Good quality work  5 …………………. than other companies  Reliable  Able to do lots of different 7 ……………  Reliable  Also able to do 9 ………..

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct answer, A, B or C. Museum work placement 11

294

On Monday, what will be the students’ working day? 9.00 a.m. – 5.00 p.m. A 8.45 a.m. – 5.00 p.m. B 9.00 a.m. – 4.45 p.m. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

Negative points  Always 4 ………….  Not very polite  Tends to be 6 ……………..  More 8 ……………….. than other companies  Prefers not to use long 10 ……………………..

12

While working in the museum, students are encouraged to wear formal clothing such as a suit. A a cap with the museum logo. B their own casual clothes. C

13

If students are ill or going to be late, they must inform the museum receptionist. A their museum supervisor. B their school placement tutor. C

14

The most popular task whilst on work placement is usually making presentations in local primary schools. A talking to elderly people in care homes. B conducting workshops in the museum. C

15

The best form of preparation before starting their work placement is to read the history of the museum on the website. A the museum regulations and safety guidance. B notes made by previous work placement students. C

Questions 16-20 Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 16-20. Where in the museum are the following places? …………………………………. 16 Sign-in office …………………………………. 17 Gallery 1 …………………………………. 18 Key box …………………………………. 19 Kitchen area …………………………………. 20 Staff noticeboard


295

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 What is the tutor’s opinion of the following company projects? Choose FIVE answers from the box, and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 21-26.

Tutor’s opinion A

It would be very rewarding for the student.

B

It is too ambitious.

C

It would be difficult to evaluate.

D

It wouldn’t be sufficiently challenging.

E

It would involve extra costs.

F

It is beyond the student’s current ability.

G

It is already being done by another student.

H

It would probably have the greatest impact on the company.

Company projects 21 Customer database 22 Online sales catalogue 23 Payroll 24 Stock inventory 25 Internal security 26 Customer services

…………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. ………………………………….

Questions 27-28 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO problems do Sam and the tutor identify concerning group assignments? A Personal relationships. B Cultural differences. C Division of labour. D Group leadership. E Group size. Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO problems does Sam identify concerning the lecturers? A Punctuality. B Organisation. C Accessibility. D Helpfulness. E Teaching materials. 296


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


The Tawny Owl Most 31 ………………….. owl species in Uk Strongly nocturnal Habitat Mainly lives in 32 ………………, but can also be seen in urban areas, e.g. parks. Adaptations:  Short wings and 33 …………………………, for navigation  Brown and 34 ……………………….. feathers, for camouflage  Large eyes (more effective than those of 35 …………..…….. ), for good night vision  Very good spatial 36 ……………….., for predicting where prey might be found  Excellent 37 ………………, for locating prey from a perch Diet Main food is small mammals. Owls in urban areas eat more 38 ………………………….. . Survival Two thirds of young owls die within a 39 ……………………… . Owls don’t disperse over long distances. Owls seem to dislike flying over large areas of 40 …………..…… .


297


Test 6 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. HOLIDAY RENTALS Dates: Example 10th – 22nd July Name of Property

Location

 rural 1 ……………………..  surrounded by 2 …………………  rural  next to the 5 ……………… Kingfisher  nice views

 in a village  next to the 7 ……………

Sunnybanks

SECTION 2

Features

Disadvantage(s)

Booking details

 apartment  two bedrooms  open plan  house  three bedrooms  6 …………… room  living room  kitchen  house  has private 8 …………………

distance from 3 ……………………..

www. 4 …………… .com

expensive?

Phone the owner (01752669218)

no 9 ……………….

Contact the 10 ………………..

Questions 11-20


According to the speaker, why is it a good time for D-I-Y painting? There are better products available now. A Materials cost less than they used to. B People have more free time than before. C

12

What happened in 2009 in the UK? A record volume of paint was sold. A A large amount of paint was wasted. B There was a major project to repaint public buildings. C

13

What does the speaker say about paint quantity? It’s not necessary to have exact room measurements. A It’s better to overestimate than to underestimate. B An automatic calculator can be downloaded from the Internet. C

298


14

What does Community RePaint do? It paints people’s houses without payment. A It collects unwanted paint and gives it away. B It sells unused paint and donates the money to charity. C

Questions 15-16 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about paint? A Don’t buy expensive paint. B Test the colour before buying a lot. C Choose a light colour. D Use water-based paint. E Buy enough paint for more than one application Questions 17-18 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about preparation? A Replace any loose plaster. B Don’t spend too long preparing surfaces. C Use decorators’ soap to remove grease from walls. D Wash dirty walls with warm water. E Paint over cracks and small holes. Questions 19-20 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give about painting? A Put a heater in the room. B Wash brushes in cold water. C Use a roller with a short pile. D Apply paint directly from the tin. E Open doors and windows.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Why is Matthew considering a student work placement? He was informed about an interesting vacancy. A He needs some extra income. B He wants to try out a career option. C

22

Which part of the application process did Linda find most interesting? The psychometric test. A The group activity. B The individual task. C IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

299

23

During her work placement, Linda helped find ways to speed up car assembly. A process waste materials. B calculate the cost of design faults. C

24

Why did Linda find her work placement tiring? She wasn’t used to full-time work. A The working hours were very long. B She felt she had to prove her worth. C

25

What did Linda’s employers give her formal feedback on? engineering ability A organisational skills B team working C

26

What was the main benefit of Linda’s work placement? Improved academic skills. A An offer of work. B The opportunity to use new software. C

Questions 27-30 What does Linda think about the books on Matthew’s reading list? Choose FOUR answers from the box, and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 27-30.

Opinions A

helpful illustrations

B

easy to understand

C

up-to-date

D

comprehensive

E

specialised

F

useful case studies

Books 27

The Science of Materials

………………………………….

28

Materials Engineering

………………………………….

29

Engineering Basics

………………………………….

30

Evolution of Materials

………………………………….

300


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Researching the origin of medieval manuscripts Background  Medieval manuscripts – handwritten books produced between the fifth and fifteenth centuries  Origin of many manuscripts unknown until 2009; scientists started using DNA testing Animal hides – two types Parchment Sheep skin: white in colour and 31 ………………… Greasy – writing can’t be erased so often used for 32 ……………. Vellum Calf skin: most popular for prestigious work because you can get 33 ………………… lettering. Preparation of hides  Treated in barrels of lime – where this was not available, skins were 34 ……………………. (removed hair → more flexible)  Stretched tight on a frame  Scraped to create same 35 …………………….  Vellum was 36 ……………………. – for correct colour Genetic testing – finding origins Previously – analysed handwriting and 37 ………….. used by the writer Now – using genetic data from ‘known manuscripts’ to create a 38 ‘………………’ Uses of new date Gives information on individual books Shows the 39 …………………….. of the book industry Helps define 40 …………………… in medieval period


301


Test 7 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Notes for holiday Travel information Example Will email the flight number - must find out which 1 ……………………… arriving at - best taxi company 2 …………………………………. - Note: Simon lives in the 3 ……………………… of the city - Simon’s cell phone number: 4 ………………………. What to pack (to wear) - casual clothes - one smart dress – to wear at a 5 ………………… - a good 6 ……………………… - tough 7 ………………………. (to read) - try to find book named 8 ‘………………….’ by Rex Campbell. (for presents) - for Janice: 9 ……………………. - for Alec: 10 ……………………. (with racing pictures)

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Camber’s Theme Park 11 According to the speaker, in what way is Camber’s different from other theme parks? It’s suitable for different age groups. A It offers lots to do in wet weather. B It has a focus on education. C 302


12

The Park first opened in 1980. A 1997. B 2004. C

13

What’s included in the entrance fee? most rides and parking A all rides and some exhibits B parking and all rides C

14

Becoming a member of the Adventurers Club means you can avoid queuing so much. A you can enter the Park free for a year. B you can visit certain zones closed to other people. C

15

The Future Farm zone encourages visitors to buy animals as pets. A learn about the care of animals. B get close to the animals. C

16

When is hot food available in the park? 10.00 a.m. – 5.30 p.m. A 11.00 a.m. – 5.00 p.m. B 10.30 a. m. – 5.00 p.m. C

Questions 17-20 What special conditions apply to the following rides? Choose FOUR answers from the box, and write the correct letter, A-F, next to the questions 17-20.

Special conditions for visitors A Must be over a certain age B Must use special safety equipment C Must avoid it if they have health problems D Must wear a particular type of clothing E Must be over a certain height F Must be accompanied by an adult if under 16 Rides 17 River Adventure 18 Jungle Jim Rollercoaster 19 Swoop Slide 20 Zip Go-carts

SECTION 3

…………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. ………………………………….

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-22 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO things do Brad and Helen agree to say about listening in groups? A Listening skills are often overlooked in business training. IELTS Practice Tests Plus 3

303

B C D E

Learning to listen well is a skill that’s easy for most people to learn. It’s sometimes acceptable to argue against speakers. Body language is very important when listening. Listeners should avoid interrupting speakers.

Questions 23-24 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO things does the article say about goal-setting? A Meeting should start with a clear statement of goals. B It’s important for each individual’s goals to be explained. C Everybody in the group should have the same goals. D Goals should be a mix of the realistic and the ideal. E Goals must always be achievable within a set time. Questions 25-26 Choose TWO letters, A-E. What TWO things do Brad and Helen agree are weak points in the article’s section on conflict resolution? A It doesn’t explore the topic in enough detail. B It only discusses conservative views. C It says nothing about the potential value of conflict. D It talks too much about ‘winners and losers’ E It doesn’t provide definitions of key terms. Questions 27-30 What actions do Brad and Helen agree to do regarding the following preparation tasks? Choose FOUR answers from the box, and write the correct letter, A-F, next to the number.

Action A Contact the tutor for clarification. B Check the assignment specifications. C Leave it until the last task. D Ask a course-mate to help. E Find information on the Internet. F Look through course handbooks. Preparation tasks 27 Preparing the powerpoint 28 Using direct quotations 29 Creating a handout 30 Drawing up a bibliography

304


…………………………………. …………………………………. …………………………………. ………………………………….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Engineering for sustainable development The Greenhouse Project (Himalayan mountain region) Problem  Short growing season because of high altitude and low 31 ……………  Fresh vegetables imported by lorry or by 32 ………………….., so are expensive  Need to use sunlight to prevent local plants form 33 ………………..  Previous programmes to provide greenhouses were 34 ………………… New greenhouse Meets criteria for sustainability  Simple and 35 …………………… to build  Made mainly from local materials (mud or stone for the walls, wood and 36 …………………….. for the roof)  Building and maintenance done by local craftsmen  Runs solely on 37 ……………………… energy  Only families who have a suitable 38 …………………… can own one Design  Long side faces south  Strong polythene cover  Inner 39 ……………………….. are painted black or white Social benefits  Owners’ status is improved  Rural 40 ………………… have greater opportunities  More children are educated


305

Focusing on IELTS (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Change of address Customer number:

Example: 5062 7840

Name:

1 ………………………………………………………..

Date of birth:

2 ………………………………………………………..

New address:

18 King Street, 3 ……………………………….

New telephone number:

4 ………………………………………………………..

Billing period:

5 ………………………………………………………..

Questions 6-10 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. The contract the customer has now is 6 A Economy Saver. B Flexible Bundle. C Home Plus. 7

The contract the customer will have in the future is A Economy Saver. B Home Plus. C Three-In-One.

8

There are no limits on Internet downloads in the period from A 10 pm to 6 am. B 1 am to 6 am. C 11 pm to 2 am.

9

Most of the phone calls this customer makes are A to friends. B to relatives. C for work.

306

Focusing on IELTS

10

Overall, the customer finds that the service of the telephone company is A satisfactory. B excellent. C very good.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-17 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.  Always wear 11 ……………………………………. inside the hotel.  Hire beach items at the 12 ………………………………………… .  Reception opening hours 13 ………………………………………… .  Linen and towels are changed 14 ………………………………….. .  Smoking allowed only 15 …………………………………………… .  Do not feed the 16 ………………………………………. and the ………………..………... .  Be quiet after 17 …………………………………………………... . Questions 18-20 Choose TWO letters, A-E. 18 Which TWO types of rubbish are not recycled? A food scraps B glass C metal D newspaper E plastic 19

Which TWO types of facilities in the hotel do you have to pay to use? A gym B spa C billiards D Internet E DVDs

20

What are TWO places for evening entertainment within walking distance of the hotel? A bar B casino C cinema D karaoke club E nightclub

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 When patients have the following problems, who does the nurse need to contact first? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-F, next to questions 21-26. A confusion B instability when walking C pets as a risk factor

D E F

poor eyesight refusal to accept help weakness Focusing on IELTS

307

21

physiotherapist

………

22

doctor

………

23

occupational therapist

………

24

aged care team

………

25

dietitian

………

26

falls clinic

………

Questions 27-30 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 27 In which of the following medical problems can the damage be reversed? A long-term, excessive alcohol consumption B Pick's disease C a brain tumour 28

Anxiety is a common symptom among people with dementia due to A side effects of medication. B frustration and suspicion. C fear of the future.

29

People with dementia tend to enjoy food that is A sweet. B easy to chew. C salty.

30 Recent research has shown people with dementia often benefit from A singing. B listening to music. C exercise.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. The Tuareg  Difficult to count Tuareg population due to 31 ………………………………….. .  Tuareg people's skin often looks blue because of colour of their 32 ……………………. . Diet  Dry season: grains and fruit.  Wet season: 33 ……………………………………….. and ………………………….. . Occupations of Tuareg in countryside  Breeding animals.  Trade and 34 ………………………………………….. . 308

Focusing on IELTS

Camel caravans  For trade between Sahel and Mediterranean.  Maximum load per camel: 300 kilograms plus rider.  Travel south slowly at first so camels can 35 ………………………………………… . Trade partners  Hausa people trade cloth and millet for 36 ………………………………….. and dates. Questions 37-40 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 37

The main work of Tuareg women in growing crops is A planting. B irrigating. C harvesting.

38

Tuareg women mainly look after A camels and cattle. B cattle and sheep. C goats and donkeys.

39

Salt prices are highest in the hotter weather because at that time of year A animals need more salt. B the quality of the salt is best. C transport by camel is more difficult.

40

Craftsmen had low status in traditional Tuareg society because they did not work as farmers. A they did not live as nomads. B they had a different attitude to education. C

Focusing on IELTS

309

Focusing on IELTS 1 (4 Tests)

Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Application for driving licence Name:

Example:Theresa Collins

Class of licence:

1 ………………………………………………………..

Date of birth:

17 March 1994

Address:

2 ………………………………………………… Street, Bentley

Phone number:

3 ………………………………………………………..

Identification:

4 ………………………………………………………..

Method of payment:

5 ………………………………………………………..


In the test of road rules, you are allowed to make no more than A one mistake. B two mistakes. C four mistakes.

7

A person who has a learner's licence can only drive with a person A who has a provisional licence. B who has a full licence. C who is an authorized driving instructor.

8

A provisional licence is valid for A 9 months. B 18 months. C 6 months.

310

Focusing on IELTS

9

The maximum speed for a person who has a learner's licence is A 60 km per hour. B 100 km per hour. C 80 km per hour.

10

While driving, a person is A not allowed to use a mobile phone. B only allowed to use a mobile phone if they are not holding it. C allowed to send an SMS.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 What is stated about the following means of transport from the airport? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-G, next to questions 11-15. A B C D

cheapest fastest most comfortable most environmentally friendly

11

trains

…………

12

minibuses

…………

13

buses

…………

14

cars

…………

15

taxis

…………

E most popular F most reliable G safest

Questions 16-20 Label the floor plan next page. Choose FIVE answers from the box below and write the correct letters, A-H, next to numbers 16-20 on the floor plan.

A B C D

café dress shop Internet café news agency

E F G H

pharmacy smoking room toilets wine bar

Focusing on IELTS

311

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


The largest numbers of Tasmanian devils live in A coastal areas. B drier forests. C rainforests.

22

An adult female can weigh up to A 4.5 kg. B 9 kg. C 13 kg.

23

Tasmanian devils are A shy. B aggressive. C friendly.

24

In one year an adult female usually raises A one baby. B three babies. C twenty babies

312

Focusing on IELTS

25

Tasmanian devils become independent when they are about A 5 months old. B 8 months old. C 2 years old.

26

Farmers are A permitted to shoot or poison them. B paid to kill them. C prohibited from killing them.

Questions 27-30 Complete the summary below using words from the box. Choose FOUR answers from the box below and write the correct letters, A-I, next to questions 27-30.

A bark B bite

C clean D dead

E fight F friendly

G sick H yawn

I young

Tasmanian devils live alone and move slowly. They usually eat 27 ……………….………. animals and are not affected by the diseases of the animals they eat. They are generally 28 …………………..….….. . They travel long distances at night and are famous for their strong appetite. To decide the order in which they eat, Tasmanian devils often 29 ……………………...…. , whereas if they are afraid, they 30 ………….……………. .

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-37 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Framework of survey  Aims of survey: investigate type of people who do yoga, styles of yoga, frequency of practice, 31 ……………………………. for practice, benefits of yoga. 

Conducted via Internet due to effectiveness and 32 …………………………………… .



4,000 respondents nationwide.



Respondents: one-third teachers, two-thirds students, 33 ……….…………… women.

Findings of survey 

Males and younger people prefer more vigorous styles.



Uses of yoga: 34 …………..………….. and …………………..….. , meditation, spiritual path.



Approximately 2% of total population practise yoga; highest participation 35-to 44-year-olds. Focusing on IELTS

313



Less time spent on physical exercise due to rise in popularity of 35 …………………. .



56% of yoga students do yoga one to two times per week; 56% of yoga teachers do yoga five to seven times per week.



Reasons for starting yoga practice: health and fitness, 36 …………………………. , treat physical problem.



Major motivation to continue yoga: 37 ……………………………………. .

Questions 38-40 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 38 A major cause of injuries when doing yoga is headstand and shoulder stand. A students causing injuries to themselves. B teachers pushing students too hard. C 39

A typical yoga teacher earns money only from teaching yoga. A from massage therapy. B from nursing. C

40

The speaker concludes that teaching yoga is not a good way to earn a high income. A yoga is a relatively expensive form of exercise. B the benefits of yoga are unproven. C

314

Focusing on IELTS


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Details of job applicant Name of applicant:

George Peters

Phone number:

Example: 0438 637 935

Position applied for:

1 ………………………………………………………..

Previous work experience:

worked as a 2 ………………………………….

Qualifications:

Currently studying 3 …………..…………………

Foreign languages spoken:

4 ……………………………… and …………..……………..

Questions 5-7 Which duties are part of the job that the man is applying for? Choose THREE answers from the list below and write the correct letters, A-G, next to questions 5-7. A B C D

change light bulbs clear away plates deliver morning papers stock refrigerators

E take food orders F take luggage to rooms G work in hotel bar

5

……………

6

……………

7

……………

Questions 8-10 Which of the following are provided for staff by the hotel? Choose THREE from the list below and write the correct letters, A-G, next to questions 8-10. A B C D

laundry meals medical insurance parking

E training F transport costs G uniforms

8

……………

9

……………

10

…………… Focusing on IELTS

315

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-12 Choose TWO correct letters, A-E. 11

Which TWO types of visa does the Atwood Immigration office handle?

A B C D E 12

employment medical resident student tourist

Which TWO matters do students have to tell the Immigration Department about? A change of address change of college B C holidays D marriage work E

Questions 13-20 Complete the notes in the flow-chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

How to extend a student visa Pay for new course for a minimum period of 13 …………………………………….. .  Letter from college stating that you attended at least 14 ………….……………… of previous classes.  Get Form 726C from Immigration: from office or 15 ……………………………. .  Bank statement showing minimum bank balance of 16 …………………………….. .  Three 17 …………………………………………… .  Take all documents and passport to Dept of Immigration at least three weeks before expiry of visa.  Pay 18 ………..…………………. to extend visa.  Wait twelve 19 ……………..……………. for reply.  Might need to have an 20 ……………………………………… .

316

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


The annual value of the beauty industry worldwide is $15 billion. A $38 billion. B $160 billion. C

22

The annual growth rate of the global beauty market is 7 per cent. A 14 per cent. B 40 per cent. C

23

The most common from of cosmetic procedure is for fat. A wrinkles. B teeth. C

24

Demand for beauty products increased in the early 20th century due to packaging. A scientific progress. B photography. C

Questions 25-30 Who agrees with the following opinions? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-C, next to questions 25-30.You may use any answer more than once. A B C

Maggie (the female student) Mike (the male student) Maggie and Mike (both students)

25

Fifty per cent of the money used for marketing is used effectively.

……………

26

The beauty industry is based on hope and fear.

……………

27

People who are more attractive earn higher incomes.

……………

28

Attractive people tend not to accept poor treatment.

……………

29

Clear skin is seen as a sign of women's youth and health.

……………

30

The current beauty industry promotes fitness.

……………

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 Which of the following sources gave scientists information about the Iceman? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-H, next to questions 31-35. A back B bones

C D

fingernail hair

E F

intestines skin

G stomach H teeth

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317

31

age when he died

…………

32

where he lived

…………

33

food normally eaten

…………

34

health

…………

35

time of year when he died

…………


Moss was used in the Iceman's region to wrap food. A as toilet paper. B to cook food. C

37

His shoes were made from grass and bark. A deer hide and goat hide. B bearskin and goatskin. C

38

It is most likely that the Iceman was a shepherd. A hunter. B trader. C

39

It is now believed that Iceman died near the rock where his body was found. A while trapped under a rock. B while sleeping on the rock where his body was found. C

40

Much evidence was destroyed due to the manner in which he died and the isolated location of his corpse. A because people initially didn’t realise the importance of the discovery. B when the autopsy was carried out to determine the cause of death. C

318

Focusing on IELTS


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Label the floor plan below. Choose FIVE answers from the floor plan and write the correct letters, A-I, next to questions 1-6.

Example: information desk

C

1 children's play centre

…………

2 hairdresser

…………

3 toy store

…………

4 toilets

…………

5 phone kiosk 6 elevator

………… …………

Questions 7-10 Answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7

How much does it cost to leave your car in the car park for four hours? …………………… Focusing on IELTS

319

8 What is the minimum age for children at the children's play centre? …………………….. 9 Which level is the food court located on? ……………………………….. 10 What is located on the top floor of the building? …………………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. The agency  Contented Homes agency began in 11 ………………………………………. . 

Agency does most work using the 12 ……………………………………….. .

How the system operates  Minimum time period for housesitting is 13 ……………………………………….. . 

Housesitters do not pay 14 ……………………………………….. .



Homeowners check 15………………………………………. of housesitters.



Housesitters have fewer 16 ………………………………………. than normal tenants.

Advantages of having housesitters  Prevent 17 ……………………………………. . . 

Keep your home clean.



Take care of your 17 ……………………………. and ……………………… .

Charges 

Agency charges housesitters 19 ………………………………………. to register.



Agency recommends that homeowners organise 20 ………………………………… .

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Where did a majority of the nationalities listed below settle? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-C, next to questions 21-25. You may use any answer more than once. A B C

Melbourne Sydney Other places in Australia

21 British

…………

22 Chinese

…………

23 Lebanese

…………

24 Malaysians

…………

25 New Zealanders

…………

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Most migrants chose where to live based on A employment. B community. C real estate.

27

There is a trend for people born in Australia to leave Sydney. A because it's becoming too busy and crowded. B due to the inadequate infrastructure. C so they can have more money in retirement.

28

Among people who recently migrated to Australia, the percentage who settled in Sydney and Melbourne was A 40%. B 50%. C 60%.

29

The government is considering encouraging migrants to settle in other areas by A offering tax incentives to employers. B making it easier for farmers to immigrate. C employing people outside Sydney and Melbourne.

30

The number of migrants living in Sydney is likely to be A higher than the statistics indicate. B lower than the statistics indicate. C the same as the statistics indicate.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Product

Traditional source

Advantages of using hemp

Paper

wood

Clothing

cotton

Lamps Cars

35 ……………………………. metal

Fuel

petrol

 ready to harvest in 31 ……………..……….  no need for 32 …………………………….  needs less 33 ……………………………., fertiliser and pesticides  provides better protection for people against 34 …………………………….  causes less smell  is 36 …………………………….  decomposes sooner  causes less 37 …………………………….

Focusing on IELTS

321

Questions 38-40 Complete the summary below. Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letters, A-G, next to questions 38-40. A B C D

dry cheese flour Long-lasting

E non-toxic F shady G versatile

Hemp can be a source of foods and health products. It can produce 38 ……………………. containing a higher level of protein. It has many applications in the home. Paint made from hemp is 39 ……………………… . Hemp grows well under 40 ………………..…………. conditions. It is an environmentally friendly solution to many problems.

322

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404 Essential Tests for IELTS (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Listen to two students, Louise and Karry, talking about their vacation. Questions 1-4 Answer the questions below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example: 1 2 3 4

Where did Louise spend her summer holidays?

Europe

How much was a Eurailpass Youth Ticket? ……………………………………………… How many European countries did Louise's ticket allow her to travel to? ……………….. Did the Eurailpass Youth Ticket include the train from London to Paris? ……………….. How old must you be if you want to purchases a Eurailpass Youth ticket? ………………

Questions 5-10 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Points that Louise makes about Eurail:  easy to travel to small towns  easy to meet 5 …………………………..  6 ……………………………… with times of the trains  night-trains had many 7 ……………………… as passengers Advice that Louise gives about Eurail:   

Don’t take 8 …………………………………….. bags Be 9 ……………………………… with your belongings Spend enough time in each country to experience 10 …………………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Central City University-Student Support services Academic Support Services

Course Content & Assessment Advisors

- counselling re: course selection

11 …………………………………

- language support

404 Essential Tests for IELTS

323

Library Services

Administration Student Services

Student Union Services

Research & Resource Department

- assistance and advice for research and library use

Study Skills Department

- assistance with arranging 12 ……………

13 …………………………………

- arrange computer logon and password

Administration Officers

- issuing student cards

14 ……………………………………..

- independent accommodation advice

Homestay Officer

- family-style accommodation advice

Student Employment Officer

- part-time and vacation employment

15 ……………………………………..

- inquiries re: passports and visas

Bookshop

- retail outlet

Student Counselling Service

- counseling re: 16 ……………………. problems

Equal Opportunity Services

- petitioning and sexual harassment

Activity & Clubs Services

- availability of clubs and activity schedules

Questions 17-20 Match the name of the buildings with the letters on the map below. 17

The Library

…………

19

Bookshop

…………

18

Administration Building

…………

20

International Student Advisor

…………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-22 Choose the correct letter from A-C. 21 Rose's plan for the tutorial is to research and present A the differences between male and female children. B the different ways that male and female children are raised. C the differences between male and female parenting. 324


22

The British experiments that Rose refers to in the conversation were carried out in 100 families. A observed girls and boys who were raised identically. B noted the different treatments male females received. C

Questions 23-26 Choose TWO letters from A-E for each answer. 23 & 24

This tutorial will A require Marie and Rose to carry out research. B interest the tutor and their classmates. C be tested. D help Marie to catch up on her research work. E benefit other assessment that Rose and Marie have to do.

25 & 26

Before starting their preparation, Marie and Rose must A catch up on other work. B agree on the topic. C get approval from the tutor. D make an appointment to see a librarian. E plan carefully for the next two weeks.

Questions 27-30 Complete the form below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Proposed Tutorial Topics Tutor: Jim Clark

Subject Code: EC 101

Department: 27 …………………….. Topic: 'How The Sexes Differ ' Aims of tutorial: 1. To show 28 ……………………………… 2. To show the differences are 29 ………………………………………………

Time: 11 a.m.

Room: B 1203

Day & Date of tutorial: Tuesday 26th A/V Equipment request  TV

 Tape recorder

 Video

 Overhead Projector

30 How do you want to be notified of lecturer's approval?  PHONE

 LETTER

 FAX

 IN PERSON


325

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Complete the following sentences. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The speaker identifies the following two differences between being a high school student and a university student:

31

•

the academic expectations of tutors and lecturers are …………………………… .

•

students must take responsibility for their own learning.

The speaker aims to get students to recognise exam stress and the way it can affect

32

………………………………………………………………………………………… . Questions 33-36 Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

EXAM STRESS Signs

Effective Management includes:

Physiological: Increased pulse-rate

34 ……………………….. breathing exercises

Perspiration Breathing problems Problems with 33 …………………… Physiological:

Be confident and 36 ………………………

Irrational 35 …………………………….

Be calm and analyse the questions

Panic Questions 37-40 Complete the following notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 37 38 39

40

326

Time needed to study effectively will ………………………… according to individuals. Time Management involves taking notice of the allocation of …………………… to exam questions. To achieve good grades in examinations at university, you need to: • have academic ability. • be ………………………… . • think clearly. • observe time management practices. Students wishing to develop their ……………………….. can attend next week's workshop.



Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Listen to the conversation between an external student and a Receptionist at Grisham College Counselling Office. Questions 1-3 Complete the Student Profile below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

STUDENT PROFILE - GRISHAM COLLEGE Example: A

New student

B

Current student

C

Past student - graduate

ANSWER: B

Student Number: 1 ………….. - EXT Name:

Jack LARASSY

Date of Birth:

2 …………… / ………… / 1979

Address:

3 ………………………… Avenue CHELMSFORD, CM3 94Y

Course: Master of Linguistics School of Languages & Literacy

Questions 4-5 Complete the sign on the door of Grisham College Counselling Office below. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Welcome to Student Services – Counselling Office Office Hours: 8 a.m. to 4 …………………………. After Hours Entry: Use the 5 …………………………… and a Counsellor will let you in. Telephone – 7893 4611


327

Listen to the conversation between the same student and the Student Counsellor. Questions 6-10 Complete the Counsellor's notes. Student Name: Jack LARASSY Current Job

Possible Future Job

- working as a 6 ……………………………. - studying part-time

- research at university

Likes - the satisfaction - the six week summer holiday

Advantages - 8 ……………………… teaching - increase in pay - would still have 9 ………………………….. - professionally beneficial

Dislikes - badly behaved students - lazy students - insufficient 7 ………………………………….

Disadvantages - 10 working ………………………………… - extra travel time

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Choose the correct letter from A-C for each answer. 11

The problem that Constable Gray describes is A women being robbed. B thieves stealing bags from international tourists. C Darlinghurst residents being robbed.

12

It is difficult to chase the thieves because A they catch their victims by surprise. B they choose older victims. C the victims find it difficult to run as fast as the thieves.

13

The police have caught A only two of the thieves. B none of the thieves yet. C almost all of the thieves.


328

Police advise the group of students to A chase the thieves if it is safe. B be more careful of where they place their bags. C avoid being alone in the area. D avoid carrying too much money with them. E use credit cards as much as possible. 404 Essential Tests for IELTS

Questions 16-20 Complete the following notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


What is the purpose of Jane and Rick's meeting with the tutor? A To collate information from their assignments B To follow the correct procedure for the report C To check on details of the report

22

What work still needs to be completed before doing the presentation? A Conducting the actual questionnaire survey B Collating data from the questionnaire and writing the report itself C Analyzing the information gathered in the questionnaire

23

Which chart A, B or C shows the correct distribution of the 400 surveys Jane and Rick handed out?


329

24

Why did Jane and Rick survey international students from three different institutions? A They didn’t want to limit their responses to Longholm. B There weren’t enough international students at Longholm. C They could access students of different ages at other institutions.

25

Which illustration (A, B or C) best shows the rates of responses in the pre-test and actual survey?

Questions 26-30 Complete the following flow chart. Insert the steps A-F given in the box below. NOTE: there are more steps than you will need. STEPS: A Distribute transmittal letter

E

Present pre-test trial results

B Rewrite unclear items

F

Draw conclusions

C Compile trial survey report

G Set objectives

D Send reminders for overdue surveys

Steps for Survey and Presentation: Step 1 Step 2 Step 3 Step 4

TRIAL SURVEYS

Step 5 Step 6 Step 7

330


Choose your topic ↓ 26 ………………………… . ↓ Write items to match objectives. ↓ Distribute the trial survey. ↓ On due date, collect surveys and 27 ………………. . ↓ Collate and analyse data from trial survey. ↓ 28 ……………………….. . ↓

ACTUAL SURVEYS Step 8

29 …………………. with the survey.

↓ Step 9

Send out postcard reminders. ↓ On due date, collect surveys, collate and analyse the data ↓ 30 ……………………………… and compile the report

Step 10

Step 11

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Complete the summary below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

PROJECT MANAGEMNET Last week's definition of project management: Project Management has •

a clear 31 ………………………………

•

goals, budget and 32 ……………..

A project can be divided into 33 …………………………………. . The subject of today's lecture is 34 …………………………….. . Questions 35-39 Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Elements of Stage 2 Considerations Budget Planning

- most challenging element - try to plan 35 ………………………………………..

Allocation of Time

- dependent on 36 ………………………………….

38 …………………………

- 37 ………………………… used to identify tasks and schedules in units of work - outlined in tender documents - help for this element can be obtained from 39 ………………….. manager

Question 40 Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 40 The three elements of Stage 2 will be examined in more depth in ……………………… .


331


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Listen to the conversation between two friends who are talking outside an examination room. Questions 1-2 Choose the correct letter from A-C for each answer.

Example:

Why is Peter tired? A

The exam was long.

B

He got up early this morning.

C

He studied until late the previous night ANSWER: C

1

Why can't Peter relax over the three-week vacation? A He needs to earn some money. B He's worried about next semester. C He can't afford to go away

2

What does Crystal plan to do on the holidays? A She's going to visit her family. B She's going to get a job. C She hasn't got any idea.

Questions 3-5 Listen to the directions and identify the place names of Questions 3-5 on the campus map below. Choose your answers from the list of place name in the boxes. NOTE: there are more place names listed than you will need. List of Place Names:

3 ……………………….. 4 ……………………….. 5 ………………………..

332


I Block C Block Student Employment Office Student Canteen Bookshop

Questions 6-7 Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 6 First, Peter and Crystal must have a/an ……………………………………….. . 7 Peter and Crystal arrange to meet at ……………………………….. on Friday. Questions 8-10 Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer. Surname

Contact

Student Number

Phone Number Peter

8 ……………

Crystal

LU

SECTION 2

9 ………….. ̴

B 723466 10 ………….

Questions 11-20


The main aim of the festival spokesperson at the gathering is to A welcome visitors to Brisbane. B give away some tickets to the Brisbane Festival. C provide information regarding the Festival.

12

The program for the Brisbane Festival includes performers from local and international destinations. A Australian, Asian and European destinations. B Australian and international destinations. C

13

The Brisbane Festival will schedule activities and performances at indoor and outdoor venues. A over 290 days. B in traditional performance centres around the city. C

Questions 14-20 Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Type of

Date

Time

Name of Event

Venus

Music

8 Sept

8 p.m.

Performing Arts Centre

Drama

14 ……….……

6:30 p.m.

Israel Philharmonic Orchestra Monkey

15 …………..

11 Sept

8 p.m.

Performing Arts Centre

Music

Wed – Sat

Sumi Jo with Queensland Orchestra 16 ……………..…….

Activity

̴

Power House

City Gardens


333

Visual Arts Drama

From 17 ……….……… 15 Sept

Music

20 Sept

Poetry

From 22 Sept

Writing

4 Oct – 6 Oct

Music

6 Oct

SECTION 3

̴

Asia-Pacific Triennial

Art Gallery

6 p.m.

Slava's Snowshow

18 ……………………

8 p.m.

19 ……………..……

̴

Barbara Fordham in concert Poetry Festival

̴

Writers' Festival

6 p.m.

20 Opera ………….

̴ ̴ City Gardens

Questions 21-30

Question 21 Choose the correct letter from A-C for each answer. Who are Nancy and Jenny? A Students from Singapore and Malaysia B Students who have travelled to Singapore and Malaysia C Students who have researched Singapore and Malaysia

21

Questions 22-24 Complete the table below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. COUNTRY PROFILES Singapore

Malaysia

Area of land:

630 square kilometres

22 …………. square kilometres

Population:

23 …………………………….

Under 24 million

Approximate ethnic mix:

24 …………………. Chinese 14% Malay 9% Indian

65% Malay (Bumiputera) 26% Chinese 8% Indian

Questions 25-30 Complete the sentences below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 25 26 27 28 29 30

334

Australia's relationship with Singapore has been …………………………………… . Trade between Singapore and Australia is …………………………………….. . Singapore and Malaysia share ………………...... and ………………….. as their top trading partners. There has been an increase in …………………….. between Australia and Malaysia. Nancy found that the government in Singapore invested a lot in ……………………. . Nancy and Jenny thought that Malaysia has a good balance of ……………..… customs.


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. For ……………………………….. there have been vegetarians. True vegans will only eat food which …………………………… .

31 32


Which two reasons are NOT given in the lecture for adopting vegetarianism? A religious beliefs B environmental reasons C peer pressure D cost E social acceptance


Which two health issues are NOT used in the lecture to promote vegetarianism as healthy? A reduced heart disease B lower risk of contracting cancer C reduced blood sugar levels D fewer weight-related problems E lower risk of stomach ulcers

Questions 37-39 Complete the following table. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

VITAMIN AND MINEREAL INTAKE

Iron

Available to non-

Available to most

Available to lacto-vegetarians and

vegetarians in ….

vegetarians in …………

vegans in ………..

meat

spinach, prune juice or

̃

37 ………………………. B 12

meat, fish and dairy products

dairy or soy products and 38 …………………………

vegetable margarines, soy products and some 39 ……………………………….

Question 40 Complete the sentence below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 40

The website address given for the UK Vegetarians Society is …………………………… .


335


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Listen to two students talking about libraries in Australia. Questions 1-2 Choose the correct letter from A-D for each answer. Example:

Why is Yumi worried? A She’s a new student. B She doesn’t know very much about libraries. C She hasn’t used a library much. D She has a lot of assignments. ANSWER: B

1

Who advised Yumi to join the local library? A her flatmate B Mary Ann C the librarian D Mary Ann and Yumi's flatmate

2

What items cannot be borrowed from the local library?

Questions 3-4 Choose the correct answer from A-C for each answer. 3

If Yumi returns a book two days after the loan period has ended, A she will have to pay a fine. B she will have to pay 10 cents. C it won't cost her anything.

4

Why hasn’t Yumi been to the university library yet? She couldn’t attend the orientation activities. A She has been sick all week. B She had to go to her lecture. C

336


Questions 5-9 Label the map of the library. Choose the correct letter from A-E for each answer. 5 6 7 8 9

Returns Box Library Computers Monograph Collection Reference Section Advisors' Desk

………… ………… ………… ………… …………

Question 10 Complete the sentence below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer. 10 Yumi should borrow Recommended Texts from the library as soon as possible because ……… .

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

INTERNATIONAL DRIVING LICENSES FACTS: 

have been used 11 …………………………..



drives do not have to speak the native tongue of the country they are visiting.



drivers must be at least 18 years of age



drivers must hold a driving license in their home country

SPECIFICATIONS OF BOOKLET: Size of license: 10.8 × 12 ………………….. cms Number of pages: 17 Colour of inside pages: 13 ………………………… Has a photograph of the driver and their 14 ………………………………… Available from authorized travel agencies and the 15 ………………………. Cost of 3 year license: 16 ……………………………………………………


337

Questions 17-20 Complete the summary of International Driving Licenses below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. International Driving Licenses cannot be used in the 17 ………………….. . They may only be used in some countries for 18 ……………………… . Drivers using International Driving Licenses must obey the 19 …………………….. of the country that they are driving in. The driver must be responsible for learning the rules of the host country, because if they break the rules, they may be 20 ………………………… .

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Complete the chart below. Match the advantages of joining a learning circle (I-VI) to the person. NOTE: there are more advantages listed than you will need.

Reasons for joining a learning circle given by: Economics tutor

21 ……………………………………………..

Hamish

22 …………………………………………….. 23 …………………………………………….. 24 ……………………………………………..

Anita

Advantages of a learning circle I

commits to other students with a shared purpose

II can provide motivation to study III commits time to study IV can provide help with understanding subject material V can provide support for other students VI saves the cost of an expensive tutor Questions 25-27 Choose the correct answer from A-C for each answer. 25

338

The purpose of studying past exam papers is to A do well in the end of term exam. B contribute to the learning circle. C compare answers of past papers with other students. 404 Essential Tests for IELTS

26

By doing mock tutorials in the learning circle, the students hope to practise by themselves first. A help each other by giving practical advice. B gain self-confidence. C

27

Hamish advises Anita to make a list of objectives for the first learning circle. A commit to the learning circle and then get a tutor. B trial the learning circle first. C

Question 28 Choose the correct letter from A-D. When was/is the first learning circle study session? A last week B next week C Thursday, 6th August D this evening

28

Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters from A-E. 29 & 30

Which two activities are most likely to be discussed at the next learning circle? A past exam papers B learning styles C lecture notes D reading comprehension E how to re-write lecture notes

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Reasons given for speaker adopting wind-generating power: • lives on a windy farm • electricity not supplied by 31 …………………………… • diesel and petrol generators' lack of efficiency and excessive 32 ………………….. Question 33-36 Complete the time-line below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. 1975

- speaker bought farm - relied on diesel and petrol generators

Late 1975

- Hybrid system installed - successful even in 33 ……………………. 404 Essential Tests for IELTS

339

34 ………………..

- stopped operating 35 …………………. and relied solely on wind generator - Imported four wind generators from the 36 …………….…… who now supply 50% of world's wind turbines

Last year

- bought 600-kilowatt wind turbine

Questions 37-39 Look at the picture of wind turbines below and complete the following information.

Details of a 600-kilowatt wind turbine given by the speaker 37 ……………………………….

46 metres

Diameter of rotors:

43.5 metres

Power output:

38 …………………. kilowatt hours per year

Life expectancy:

20 years

Maintenance:

39 ………………… a year

Question 40 Complete the sentence below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer. 40

340

Possible sources of future income for the speaker include: 

tourists visiting the 'wind farm'.



……………………….. to State Electricity Commission.


Thomson Exam Essentials (6 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Easylet Accommodation Agency Cheapest properties: £ 1 ……………..….. per week Minimum period of contract: 2 ………………………. Office open Saturdays until 3 …………………………… List of properties available on 4 ……………………… Questions 5-7 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE things are included for free with every property for rent from Easylet? A B C D E F G

heating bills kitchen equipment plates and glasses sheets and towels telephone television water bill

Questions 8-10 Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-H next to questions 8-10. Where are the following blocks of flats situated? 8

Eastern Towers

……………………..

9

Granby Mansions

……………………..

10

Busby Garden

……………………..

Thomson Exam Essentials

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SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 For each question, choose TWO letters A-E. 11

Which TWO activities for school groups need to be booked one week in advance? A B C D E

12

drama workshops garden sculpture experience painting demonstrations tours for the blind video making

Which TWO facilities are closed in winter? A B C D E

adventure playground artists' studio café mini zoo shop


HOLLYLANDS MUSEUM & EDUCATION CENTRE EXHIBITION History in Pictures 14 …………………………….

STARTING DATE 13 ……………………….. 19th September

16 …………………………….

11th November

POINTS TO REMEMBER opportunity to go on an old bus visitors can use 15 …………....…. Service Competition-prize: 17 ……………... for 2 people

Questions 18-20 Label the plan. Choose three answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 18-20. 18 ……………………. 19 ……………………. 20 …………………….

A bicycle parking B

drinks machine

C first aid room D manager's office E

telephones

F

ticket office

G toilets

342


SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 21 Before giving her presentation, Kate was worried about being asked difficult questions. A using the projection equipment. B explaining statistical results. C 22

During many presentations by students, Martin feels that the discussion of research methods in not detailed enough. A lectures do not show enough interest in their students' work. B the student does not make enough eye contact with the audience. C

23

What is Kate's opinion of the tutorials she attends? They involve too much preparation. A They should be held more frequently. B They do not have a clear focus. C

24

What does Martin intend to do next semester? make better use of the internet A improve his note-taking skills B prioritise reading lists effectively C

25

What problem do Kate and Martin both have when using the library? The opening hours are too short. A There are too few desks to work at. B The catalogue is difficult to use. C

Questions 26-30 Who will do the following tasks? A Martin B Kate C Both Martin and Kate Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 26-30. …………………….. 26 compose questionnaire …………………….. 27 select people to interview …………………….. 28 conduct interviews …………………….. 29 analyse statistics …………………….. 30 prepare visuals for presentation

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 31 where was a Stone Age rubbish dump found? ……………………………………………………………………………. Thomson Exam Essentials

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32 In Medieval times, what type of waste was most common? …………………………………………………………………………… 33 What did science link with waste? ……………………………………………………………………………… 34 Which invention is the biggest problem for the environment? ………………………………………………………………………………… Questions 35-37 List THREE factors which led to the increase in waste. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 35 ………………………………………………………………………………………… 36

…………………………………………………………………………………………

37

…………………………………………………………………………………………

Questions 38-40 Which country uses the highest proportion of each method of waste disposal? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next question 38-40. 38

incineration:

……………………..

A

Denmark

39

landfill:

……………………..

B

Germany

40

recycling:

……………………..

C

Japan

D

Switzerland

E

UK

F

USA

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Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

COMPLAINT RECORD FORM Holiday booked in name of: Address:

1 First name …………………….. Last name ………………..……… Flat 4

2 ……………………………………. Winchester SO2 4ER

Daytime telephone number:

3 …………………………………….

Booking reference:

4 ……………………………………

Special offer?

Yes, from 5 ……………………………. company

Insurance?

Yes, had 6 ……………………………. Policy

Type of holiday booked:

7 …………………………………… Break

Date holiday commenced:

8 ……………………………………

Details of complaint:

 no 9 ……………………………………… at station  a 10 ……………………………………… was missing

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the table next page. Choose your answers from the box and write the appropriate letters A-H next to questions 11-15.

A B C D E F G H

driving licence flexible working week free meals heavy lifting late shifts training certificate travel allowance website maintenance


345

TEMPORARY HOTEL JOBS JOB Reception Assistant

EMPLOYER Park Hotel

NOTES  11 …………………………  foreign languages  12 ………………………..

General Assistant

Avenue Hotel

 low pay  13 ………………………  14 ……………………….

Catering Assistant

Hotel 56

 free uniform  15 ………………………  outside city

Questions 16-20 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

RECRUITMENT PROCESS Step 1 Complete a 16 ………… form

Step 2 Do a 17 ………… questionnaire

Step 3 If accepted go on a 18 …….… course - includes 19 ……………. activities

Step 4 Will be sent a 20 ……… about the hotel

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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


David feels that progress on the project has been slow because other members of the group are not ………………………………………………………. .

22

Jane thinks that ……………………………… were not clearly established.

23

Dr Wilson suggests that the group use the …………………. available from the Resource Centre.

24

David doubts that research will include an adequate ………………………………….. .

25

According to Dr Wilson, the ………………………… is now the most important thing to focus on.

26

Jane believes the group could make more use of some ……………………………….. .

Questions 27-30 Complete the timetable below. Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next question 27-30. A B C D E F G H

Compare photographs at newspaper offices. Interview a local historian. Listen to tapes in the City Library. Study records of shop ownership. Take photographs of the castle area. Talk to the archivist at the City Library. Tour city centre using copies of old maps. Visit an exhibition at the University Library.

MON-WED: FIELD TRIP TO CAMBRIDGE Mon 22nd

am pm

arrive at hotel 27 ………………

rd

am pm

28 ……………… free time

am pm

29 ……………… 30 ………………

Tues 23

Wed 24th


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SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


THE LONDON EYE The architects who designed the London Eye originally drew it for a 31 ……………..….. in 1993. Subsequently, they formed a partnership with 32 ………..………. to develop the project. As the biggest observation wheel ever built, its construction involved 1,700 people in five countries. Most of its components had to be 33 …………………… , and delivering them had to be coordinated with the 34 ………………….. in the River Thames. On average, 350 hours a week are spent on maintenance of the Eye, and only 35 ………………….. is used to clean the glass.

Questions 36-40 Label the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

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Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

How many members does the cycling club have currently? ………………………………………………………………………..…. How much does Youth Membership cost? ………………………………………………………………………..…. From whom must you get a signature when applying to join? ………………………………………………………………………..…. How long does it take to process a membership application? ………………………………………………………………………..…. How often do family rides take place? ………………………………………………………………………..…. How long are the Saturday rides usually? ………………………………………………………………………..…. What must you get for your bike? ………………………………………………………………………..…. When is the next camping tour? ………………………………………………………………………..…. What is happening on May 5th? ………………………………………………………………………..…. How much discount do members get at Wheels Bike Shop? …………………………………………………………………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Answer the timetable below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PARK ARTS CENTRE DATES 18-24 Feb

TIMES 11 ……. and ………

EVENT Folk music concert

1-8 March

See the 13 ………………

16 ………..………

8pm

Annual 14 ………………. Film: 17 '…………..'

2 April

To be confirmed

19 …………..

NOTES Can get a 12 ………….. in shop Groups from 15 ………………. Talk by the 18 ………………. It will be 20 …………………


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SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 What opinion is expressed about each dissertation? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-I next to questions 21-25.

21

Twentieth Century Architecture

……….…

22

Modern Construction

….………

23

Steel, Glass and Concrete

….………

24

The space We Make

….………

25

Change and Tradition

….………

Questions 26-30

It has an inadequate index. It contains unusual illustrations. It is too detailed in places. It presents clear arguments. It contains diagrams which are not clear. F It omits important historical facts. G It is poorly translated. H It contains useful background information. I It is not suitable for new students. A B C D E

Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

BEN'S PROGRAMME Step 1 Look at drawings of 26 ……………....

Step 2 Get images of 27 …………… from internet

Step 3 Find books about 28 ……..…….. of the period

Step 4 Show 29 …………………. to Dr Forbes

Step 5 Ask Dr Gray for more 30 ………………….. 350


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 31

Rival cameras were claimed to …………………….. less than the Cinématographe.

32

In Russia, on one occasion, the Cinématographe was suspected of being a …………….….. . Early filming in Russia led to the creation of a new approach to …………………….. .

33

36

One problem for historians is not knowing whether early equipment ……………………. as it was claimed. Marey encountered difficulties achieving the ……………………… of strips of photographic paper. The ……………………….. of the comic strip influenced the way films were planned.

37

Documentaries used …………………………. shots before fiction films did.

38

The popularity of ………………………… films led to increased numbers of shots.

39

When filming ……………….……… , the screen might be divided.

40

As films became more complex, ………………………. became an important part of film-making.

34 35


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Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. ABLE EMPLOYMENT AGENCY APPLICATION FORM Full name: Address:

1 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………. 2 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………. Melford MF45JB

Contact number: Qualifications:

Previous experience: Interests: Date available:

SECTION 2

3 …………………………………………………………………………………………………….. (a) A levels (b) 4 ………………………………………………………………………………………………… (c) 5 ………………………………………………………………………………………………… (a) general work in a 6 ………………………………. (3 months) (b) part-time job as a 7 ……………………………………………………………… (a) member of a 8 ………………………………………………………………………… (b) enjoys 9 ……………………………………………………………….. (10 years) 10 …………………………………………………………………………………………………

Questions 11-20


The hotel 11

You must book ……………………………………….. in advance.

12

There are some interesting ………………………………….. in the lounge.

Activities 13

The visit to the …………………………………………… has been cancelled.

14

There will be a talk about …………………………………….. from the area on Saturday.

15

The visit to the …………………………………………….. will take place on Sunday.

16

There is a collection of …………………………………….. in the art gallery.

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Questions 17-20 Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I next to questions 17-20. Where are the following places situated?

17

Park Hotel

………

18

Internet Café

………

19

Tourist Information Office

………

20

Royal House Restaurant

………

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 21-26. At which college are the following features recommended? A B C student support services ………… accommodation residential ………… on-line resources ………… libraries …………staff teaching …………record research ………… Questions 27-30 21 22 23 24 25 26

at Forth College at Haines College at both Forth and Haines College ………………………………. ………………………………. ………………………………. ………………………………. ………………………………. ……………………………….

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 27 David is concerned that he may feel unmotivated. A isolated. B competitive. C Thomson Exam Essentials

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28

In the future, Dr Smith thinks David should aim to do further research. A publish articles. B get teaching work. C

29

What does Dr Smith think has improved masters' study in recent years? the development of the internet. A the growth of flexible courses B the introduction of changes in assessment C

30

David would like to improve the way he takes notes in lectures. A writes up assignments. B manages his time. C

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Type of writing

Notes

Short stories

3 basic styles

Non-fiction

biographies often popular

Articles

advice articles work well meaning shouldn’t be too 34 ………………………………… movements usually decided by the 35 ……………………………

Poetry Plays Radio

BBC publishes Handbook

Children's literature

illustrations important

Tips start with a 31 ……………………………… tell publishers about your 32 ………………………………… write for a 33 ………………………………… read your poems aloud learn about acting try 36 …………………….…… first decide on an 37 ………………………………

Questions 38-40 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 38 What is a disadvantage of first person narration in novels? It makes it harder for the main character to be interesting. A It is difficult for beginners to do well. B It limits what can be described. C 39

What is a mistake when writing novels? failing to include enough detail A trying to explain ironic effects B including too many characters C

40

In order to make dialogue seem natural, writers should make recordings of real conversations. A include unfinished sentences. B break up long speeches. C

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Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 2 3 4 5 6

GROUP TRIP TO TIDBOROUGH How far is it from the youth hostel to the city centre? …………………………………………………… what is the website address of the youth hostel? ……………………………………………………… what event is taking place on March 22nd? ……………………………………………………… who does the concert feature? ………………………………………………………. what exhibition starts on March 24th? ……………………………………………………….. what will be closed in March? …………………………………………………………


When does the train ride depart? 9.00 A 9.15 B 9.30 C

8

Where is it recommended to buy tickets? at the tourist office A at the station B at the youth hostel C

9

How much is the group discount? 10% A 15% B 20% C

10

How long does the excursion last? 3 hours A 3 ½ hours B 4 hours C Thomson Exam Essentials

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SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 Which chart shows the company's sales figures for the last five years?

12 Which chart shows the relationship of three departments this year?

13 Which chart shows numbers of temporary staff in the company?

Questions 14-19 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.      

356

Company's mission statement: '14 ………………………… for customers' In case of problems, always ask your 15 ……………………….. for help Important for customers to have a 16 ………………………. experience Tell customers about 17 ……………………….. goods Read the 18 ……………………. every month Must attend 19 ……………………………….. on Thursdays


Question 20 Choose TWO letters A-E. 20

Which TWO things must be done today? complete form A get security pass B register for discount C show certificates D watch information video E

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Which action does each type of penguin do? Choose your answers A-G form the box below and write them next to questions 21-24. 21

Gentoo

………

22

Rockhopper

………

23

Magellanic

………

24

King

………

A B C D E F G

always hesitate before jumping avoid climbing if possible lean backwards when calling move around at night use its bill when climbing usually look twice at things walk with its flippers pointing downwards

Questions 25-27 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 25 How do penguins usually sleep? ………………………………………………………………………..…. 26 What do a Rockhopper's yellow feathers do when it is angry? ………………………………………………………………………..…. 27 What do penguins recognise in the Skua's wings? ………………………………………………………………………..….

Questions 28-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Penguins prefer to swim in groups because it makes it easier to 28 ……………………. . When they are on land, they appear to be 29 ………………………….. . The majority of species are characterised by their 30 ……………..…… , which makes them particularly interesting for humans to study.


357

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 31

Governments have been mistaken to ………………………….. slums.

32

There is often a lack of …………………………… concerning housing projects.

33

Housing policies which are based on principles of ………………………… are particularly effective.

34

Some ……………………………. should always be provided by governments.

35

Migrants will only ……………………….. in housing if they feel secure.

36

Governments often underestimate the importance of ……………………………. to housing projects.

37

The availability of ……………………………………………. is the strating point for successful housing development.

38

Urbanisation can have a positive effect on the ………………………….. of individuals.

39

The population size of cities enables a rage of ………………………. to occur.

40

City living tends to raise the level of ………………………………….. among people.

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Test 6 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-7 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

GO-TRAVEL

BOOKING FORM

Name: Source of enquiry: Holiday reference: Number of people: Preferred departure date: Number of nights: Type of insurance:

1 [Last] ………………. [First] …………….. Saw ad in 2 ………………… Magazine 3 …………………………………………………… 4 …………………………………………………… 5 …………………………………………………… 6 …………………………………………………… 7 ……………………………………………………

Questions 8-10 Choose THREE letters A-H. Which THREE options does the woman want to book? arts demonstration A quiz show B museums trip C bus tour at night D picnic lunches E river trip F G room with balcony H trip to mountains

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


RUN-WELL

CHARITY

Background to Run-Well charity  Set up in 11 ……………………………..  Aim: raise money for the 12 …………………………. Race details  Teams to supply own 13 ……………………………  Teams should 14 …………………………… together  Important to bring enough 15 ……………………….  Race will finish in the 16 …………………………………  Prizes given by the 17 ………………………………


359

Questions 18-20 Choose THREE letters A-I. Which THREE ways of raising money for the charity are recommended? badges A bread and cake stall B swimming event C concert D door-to-door collecting E picnic F G postcards H quiz second-hand sale I

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 What do the students decide about each topic for Joe's presentation? A Joe will definitely include this topic. B Joe might include this topic. C Joe will not include this topic. Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 21-26. 21 cultural aspects of naming people 22 similarities across languages in naming practices 23 meanings of first names 24 place names describing geographic features 25 influence of immigration on place names 26 origins of names of countries

……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… ……………… ………………

Questions 27-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Researchers showed a group of students many common nouns, brand names and 27 ………………………… . Students found it easier to identify brand names when they were shown in 28 …………………………………………. . Researchers think that 29 …………………………………………. is important in making brand names special within the brain. Brand names create a number of 30 ……………………….. within the brain.

360


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Gas balloons Uses:  instead of 31 ……………………………… in the US civil war  to make 32 …………………………………..  to 33 …………………….……………………… for research  as part of studies of 34 …………...…….

Hot air balloons Create less 35 ……………………………………….. than gas balloons

Airships Early examples had no 36 …………………………. for crew To be efficient, needed a 37 ………………………………… Development of large airships stopped because of:  success of 38 ……………………………………………  series of 39 ………………………………………………… Recent interest in use for carrying 40 ……………………


361

IELTS on Track (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Circle the correct letter A-D.

Example

Andrea is feeling happy because she’s seen Harry. A she’s finished her exams she can sleep in. C Harry wants some advice. D

1

What is Harry’s problem? He doesn’t want to go back to England. A He needs to decide what to do with his possessions. B He wants to take everything to England. C He wants Andrea to buy his things. D

2

Which of the items below does Harry want to sell?

3

Where is Harry going to advertise his books for sale? A B C D

4

Andrea thinks it is unlikely students will buy the furniture because A B C D

5

362

in the uni bookshop in the student newspaper in the department store in the economics department

they’re too poor. they live at home. it’s the summer vacation. it’s too expensive.

Andrea thinks that a second hand shop may not pay well. A may not take your goods. B may not like you. C may not come on time. D IELTS on Track

Questions 6-10 Complete Harry’s notes using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

THINGS TO DO:

□ 6 ………………… furniture etc in Trading Post. □ 7………………… or sell kitchen things. □ Get 8 ………………… first from second hand shop. □ Give clothes to 9 ………………… shop. □ 10 ………………… fridge and microwave to Andrea. SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the Fitness Centre brochure using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS.

Sevenoaks HEALTH & FITNESS CENTRE Located conveniently at the 11 …………………… of Marion Street and Giles Street.

WE ARE OPEN FOR YOU Monday - Friday 12 …………………… am to 9.30 pm Saturday Sunday

9.00 am to 4.00 pm 9.00 am to 13 …………………… pm

WET AREA Aqua aerobic 14 …………………… for all ages and levels. 15 …………………… lessons on weekday afternoons and weekend mornings.

SUPER CIRCUIT CLASSES A cardio workout class that is easy to 16 ……………………

AEROBIC & STEP CLASSES Aerobics room holds over 55 participants. IELTS on Track

363

LARGE WELL-EQUIPPED GYM Have a personal fitness assessment & individual 17…………………… to suit you.

CARDIO-VASCULAR ROOM Use the treadmills, bikes and steppers to burn fat, increase fitness, warm up. Watch your favourite 18 …………………… while you exercise. TWO FOR ONE SPECIAL MEMBERSHIP PLUS 19 …………………… TRIAL OFFER ONLY $110 each for a whole 20 …………………… months! Get ready for summer.

HURRY, OFFER ENDS SOON! SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the notes below using ONE WORD ONLY.

THE CANADIAN

FOOD MARKET  Understanding subtle 21 ……………. between the Canadian and United States food sectors is important for successful food marketing  Canada has many different ethnic groups: eg Toronto has large 22 …………….. and Asian populations  Growth of ethnic specialties of Mediterranean, Caribbean, South East Asian and 23 …………………… foods.  Therefore demand is increasing for new 24 ………………. to prepare these foods plus condiments and sauces.  80% of Canadian market controlled by 8 major national chains  Seminar to compare Canadian food trends with 25 …………………… and UK

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IELTS on Track

Questions 26-30 Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

THE CANADIAN

RETAIL FOOD SECTOR TREND

COMMENTS

INTEREST IN HELTHY FOOD NEW WAY OF LABELLING MEAT ‘MOBILE MEALS’

SECTION 4



Salads are the third most commonly eaten food in Canadian 26 …………………………



Most shoppers check 27 …………………… and nutritional information



Labelled according to 28 ……………………………. technique eg simmering steak

 

More meals eaten away from home 29 …………………. increase in sales of snacks projected over next 3 years Growth in 30 ………………….. snacks such as muesli bars



Questions 31-40

Complete the lecture notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

PUBLIC SPEAKING Public speaking means speaking to 31 ………………………………… people Lack of confidence usually due to 32 …………………………………..

A. PLANNING First part of public speaking is 33 ……………………………………….. This includes: 34 ……………………………… and length of talk Make speech notes on small cards to talk from 35 ………………………………………. with the audience (very important)

B. VOICE Speak slowly – this gives time for pronunciation and is easier for audience – bigger audience requires 36 ……………………………. speech Project your voice – rehearse and 37 ………………………………………… Check intonation: varied tone and rhythm gives 38 ………………………….

C. BODY LANGUAGE Lastly, think about your 39 ……………………………. and gestures Show confidence by: head up, chin out, shoulders back Avoid scratching and fiddling because this 40 ………………………………… and irritates your audience IELTS on Track

365


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-11

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

STIDEMT EMPLOYMENT BUREAU STUDENT REGISTRATION FORM Faculty:

Science

Given Name:

……………Charlotte…………..

Surname:

1 ……………………………………….

Address: Telephone numbers: Home: Mobile: Number of hours preferred:

2 ……………. Heathfield St, Maryland

Employment Experience:

EXAMPLE

N/A 3 ………………………………………… 4 ……………………………………….. per week

5 …………………………………………

Questions 6-8 Circle the correct letter A-D. 6

What time should Annetta finish work in the hamburger shop? 7.00 pm A 7.00 am B 11.00 pm C 3.00 am D

7

What is the problem with Annetta’s pay at the hamburger shop? the pay is too much A the pay is late B the pay isn’t enough C the pay isn’t correct D

8

How many children will Annetta have to look after? two boys and a girl A two boys and two girls B four boys C two girls and a boy D

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IELTS on Track

Questions 9-11 Label the map, choosing your answers from the list below. Write the correct letters A-E on the map. A B C D E

Post Office Bank Primary School Petrol Station Kindergarten

SECTION 2

Questions 12-21


The excursion is being organised for all students. A overseas students. B new students. C history students. D

13

How far is it from the college to Ironbridge? 45 Kilometres A 55 kilometres B 15 Kilometres C 50 Kilometres D

14

Students going on the excursion should look at the list and print their telephone number and sign their name. A print their name and tick if they have a car. B print their name only if they have a car. C print their name, telephone number, student number and tick D if they have a car.

Questions 15-16 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. 15

16

If students do not like eating meat, can they get a cheap meal at the restaurant in Ironbridge? ……………………………………………………………………. What time must the students arrive to catch the bus? …………………………………………………………………….

IELTS on Track

367

Question 17 Circle the correct letter A-D. 17

Which building is the bus garage?

Questions 18-21 Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS OR NUMBRS for each answer. 18

Name THREE things that Pamela Sutcliffe recommends the students take on the excursion.

DON'T FORGET

□ □ □ □ □

Comfortable shoes Warm Jacket

19 20

368

Where will students find details in writing on Monday? ……………………………………………………………………. Why is Ironbridge famous? ……………………………………………………………………. IELTS on Track

21

Which THREE of the following famous tourist sights are mentioned? Write the correct letters A-H. A Great Wall of China E Taj Mahal B Angkor Wat F Mt. Kilimanjaro C Grand Canyon G Leaning Tower of Pisa D Pyramids H Great Barrier Reef

SECTION 3

Questions 22-30

Questions 22-26 Look at this notice detailing the students’ work experience placements. Write NO CHANGE if the information has NOT changed or WRITE IN THE CHANGES. STUDENT NAME

BUSINESS

DAY am/pm

STARTING DATE

ANSWER EXAMPLE NO change

Theresa

University Book Shop

Friday mornings

Manuel

Mainly Music

Tuesday mornings

7/3

The Beauty Shop Highway Hotels Explore Travel Service Gorgeous Gowns

Thursday afternoons Monday mornings

22/3

22 ………………….

5/3

23 ………………….

Wednesday mornings

14/3

24 ………………….

Wednesday mornings Tuesday afternoons

14/3

25 ………………….

20/3

26 ………………….

Henry Jo Nancy Chris Gordon

Games to Go!

23/3

EXAMPLE Friday afternoons

Questions 27-30 Complete Gordon’s notes about his work experience placement using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER.

WORK EXPERINECE PLACEMENT 27…………………………. am ……………..………….. pm 28 ………………………….

Starting times If ill, phone Presentation:    

due in week 10 worth 29 ……………………………….. of assessment outline history, management structure etc include visuals eg 30 ……………………… and ……………………………. IELTS on Track

369

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Circle T for ‘True’ or F for ‘False’.

Example The speaker has come from the Theosophical Society. 31 32 33 34

One of the main points of the talk is to save money. She thinks students should do more housework. She argues that plastic containers won’t biodegrade quickly. She warns that asthma sufferers should be careful with her recipes.

Questions 35-37 Circle the correct letter A-D. 35 To remove tea or coffee stains you should use bicarbonate of soda. A soda water. B salt. C any of these products. D 36

If you burn your saucepan accidentally, you should throw it away. A wipe it with vinegar. B put vinegar and salt in it and boil it. C put it in the fridge with bicarbonate of soda. D

37

If you scratch wooden furniture, you can remove the marks using olive oil. A sesame oil. B olive oil and vinegar. C wine vinegar. D

Questions 38-40 Complete the notes on the bottle label. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

370

IELTS on Track

T

F

T T T T

F F F F


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Complete the form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Buying a Used Car: Contact Details Model:

Celica

Year:

1985

Number of Owners:

1 ……………………………………….

Condition:

Overall good.

Reason for Selling: Asking Price: Appointment Time: Address:

2 ………………………………….. done last year. 3 …………………………………… 4 …………………………………… 5 ……………………………………. 6 …………………………………, Parkwood.

Contact name:

Elena

EXAMPLE


What happened to Sam’s car? It was damaged in an accident. A It broke down. B It was stolen. C Sam sold it. D

8

Why does Jan need a car? She lives too far from the university. A She uses it for her job. B She spends too much time on the bus. C She would feel safer at night with a car. D

9

What does Sam recommend? check the service records A ask about the mileage B get a mechanical inspection C avoid buying an old car D IELTS on Track

371

10

How are they travelling to Elena’s? on foot A on a motorcycle B by bus C on bicycles D

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 As you listen, fill in the details to complete the information on the map below.

Questions 14-16 Fill in the chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Dolphins Orcas/ Killer Whales Grey Whales

372

Whale Identification Chart Colour Size General Characteristics grey 1-2 metres 14 …………………. 15 …………. 7-8 metres  fierce hunters  eat fish, seals, other whales grey 16 ……………..  migratory  solitary  filter feeders, eat shrimp IELTS on Track

Questions 17-20 Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Advice for Participants on Whale watching Excursions ●

For a smooth ride, sit 17 ……………………… of the boat.

●

Watch the waves and hold onto the ropes.

●

Survival suits are 18 …………………………… in colour for maximum visibility. They are designed to keep you floating upright in the water even if you 19 ………… and will protect you from the cold.

●

For seasickness: Place a patch 20 ……………………… instead of taking pills.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Fill in the summary below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each space.

Selection Process for ‘travel Documentary’ ● 34 interviewed from 21 …………………………. applicants nationally ● 13 chosen for a 22 …………………………………… training course in film-making ● 23 …………………………………… finalists selected as competitors

Questions 24-26 Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each space.

Requirements of competitors: ● produce a 24 …………………………. every two weeks ● no previous professional 25 …………………………………… experience allowed ● make their own 26 …………………………………… and obtain approval

IELTS on Track

373

Questions 27 and 28 Circle the correct letter A-D. 27

What was Sarah Price’s worst experience during the trip? She got lost in Mongolia. A She was injured in an accident. B She got sick in a remote place. C She was homesick. D

28

In which of the following areas does Ray expect to have most difficulty? communication in foreign languages A time pressure B organisation skills C loneliness D

Questions 29 and 30 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 29 30

In what month does the journey begin? ……………………………………….. Name 2 things that are provided free of charge to the competitors. ……………………...……… and …………….…………………

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


What does QWERTY stand for? the inventor of the typewriter A the company that made the first typewriter B letters on the home row of the keyboard C letters on the top row of the keyboard D

32

The first commercial typewriter was developed in Germany. A Japan. B United States. C Great Britain. D

33

The purpose of the QWERTY keyboard layout was to slow down typing speed. A to prevent keys from sticking. B to balance left and right hand use. C to reduce typing inefficiency. D

Questions 34-39 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. In 1932 August Dvorak solved the inefficiency

problem by re-designing the

34 ……………….. of the typewriter. He put the most commonly used letters on the home 374

IELTS on Track

row. Using the Dvorak keyboard, over 3000 words or 35 ……………………… of all work can be done from the home row. In contrast, only 36 ……………………………. can be typed from the home row on the Qwerty keyboard. Other advantages of the Dvorak keyboard include a 50% improvement in 37 …………………………. and a 15-20% increase in 38 …………………………. . But the most important difference is in finger movement. Typists using the QWERTY keyboard moved their fingers 39 …………………. miles per day compared to one mile a day for Dvorak typists. Question 40 Circle the correct letter A-D. Which of the following was the main reason why the Dvorak keyboard was never adopted? the Depression of 1929 A bad publicity B poor marketing C resistance to change D

IELTS on Track

375


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Question 1 Circle the correct letter A-D. What time is it now as Jenny is talking to the agent? 11.00 A 11.30 B 12.00 12.30 D

Example

1

Jenny’s journey began in London. A Singapore. B Sydney. C Hong Kong. D

Questions 2-4 Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

LOST LUGGAGE CLAIM FORM Name:

Jenny Lee

Address:

2 ……………………………………. St., Riverside

Telephone Number: Arrived on: Connecting from:

3 ……………………………………. Flight QA 392 Flight 4 …………………………………….


376

Which of the drawings resembles Jenny’s bag?

IELTS on Track

6

Which extra feature does Jenny identify? black colour A wheels B a red strap on the handle C a metal handle D

7

What time should Jenny’s bag arrive? 5.50 pm A 6.15 pm B 7.15 pm C 7.50 pm D

Question 8 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. When Jenny picks up the bag she has to 8 ……………………………… in person. Questions 9 and 10 Name TWO things that the agent advises Jenny to bring. 9 ……………………………………………………. 10 ……………………………………………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Complete the notice below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ATS Ticketing Services Box Office Hours (Regency Theatre): Mon – Thurs: 11 ……………………….. Friday, Saturday: 10 am – 8 pm Internet Address: 12 …………………………. Questions 13-15 Indicate the number (1-4) to press for information on each of the following.

Example Tennis

Answer ……..1……..

13

Symphony Orchestra

……………………………..

14

Classical Ballet

……………………………..

15

Formula one Grand Prix

……………………………..

IELTS on Track

377

Questions 16-20 Fill in the information about Formula one Grand Prix Tickets.

FORMULA ONE GRAND PRIX TICKETS 16 ……………………..

Dates: Ticket prices: Saturday (concession rate) Grandstand ticket (4 days) Gate opening time Saturday and Sunday: Booking fee per ticket:

SECTION 3

17 …………………….. 18 …………………….. 19 …………………….. 20 ……………………..

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Match the 3 speakers (21-23) with the background information below (A-G). 21

Anna

……………………………..

22

Veronika

……………………………..

23

Chris

……………………………..

COMMITTEE MEMBERS’ BACKGROUND AND EXPERIENCE A B C D E F G

has done film reviews currently in third year gaining course credit for festival project has made films enrolled in Media Studies works as a journalist has film club experience

Question 24 Circle the correct letter A-D. 24

378

The total number of films in the festival each year is five A ten B twelve C sixteen D

IELTS on Track


Who chooses the films for the festival? the International Students’ Society A independent distributors B a catalogue C the committee members D

26

During the intermission, who is interviewed on camera? journalism students A members of the audience B a panel of experts C the organising committee D

27

Of the films shown in the festival none is in English. A most are dubbed. B many have subtitles. C some use both subtitles and dubbing. D

28

The festival did not make a profit last year because of poor weather. A high price of admission. B lack of publicity. C funding cuts by student council. D

Question 29 and 30 Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

INTERNATIONAL FILM FESTIVAL Planning Overview Task: ● 29 ……………………………. ● obtain sponsorship and advertising ● 30 ……………………………. ● print and distribute posters

SECTION 4

To be completed by: 1 March 15 March 31 March April

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Complete the summery using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. Construction of a reed bed

● Rectangular hole 1 metre deep lined with 31 ………………………………… IELTS on Track

379

● System of perforated tubing embedded in gravel ● 32 ……………………………………….. planted in bed

Process

● Sewage flows 33 ……………………….. from tank into reed bed. ● Oxygen from reeds combines with bacteria to reduce waste to elements. ● Water is 34 ………………………………………… then released. Questions 35-38 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Environmental benefits of reed beds ● ●

produce good quality 35 ……………… for farming use provide a 36 ………………… for birds and animals

Advantage over conventional system ● lower 37 ………………………….. costs ● 10% cheaper installation ● less maintenance ● efficiency 38 …………………….. with time Questions 39 and 40 Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. 39

Name ONE group which has opposed the introduction of reed bed technology. …………………………………………………………………………………

40

Give ONE concern about reed bed systems raised by students in the question period. …………………………………………………………………………………

380

IELTS on Track

Preparation and Practice (3 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-11


What does Jane plan to do during the break? fly home to stay with her family A take summer courses B take an overseas holiday C go on a camping trip D

2

Why can't Steve go home during the break? He has to earn some money to pay his fees. A He can't afford it. B He is taking a summer course. C He wants to study for next semester. D

3

Where will Jane and her friends go during the semester break? to Royal Island Park A to the mountains B to Royal National Park C to Great Southern Park D

4

Which route will the train follow? Central, Sutherland, Garie A Sutherland, Caringbah, Waterfall B Central, Waterfall, Sutherland, Garie C Central, Sutherland, Waterfall D

Questions 5 and 6 Circle TWO letters for each answer. 5

Which of the following does Jane suggest Steve should bring? diving gear A B cooking equipment swimsuits C D a sleeping bag plenty of food E F his bicycle

6

What activities are they planning? boating A bungee jumping C hiking E

B D F

scuba diving horse riding surfboard riding Preparation and Practice

381

Question 7 Write a NUMBER for the answer. 7 if Steve joins them, how many people will be going on the trip? ……………………………………………………………………………………. Questions 8-11 Copy the letter for the area of the map (A-F) and the activity against 8-11 in any order.

8 9 10 11

………………….… …………………... …………………… …………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 12-19

Questions 12-14 Complete the table according to the information given by the police officer. number of cars stolen per year 12 ………………………. number of cars recovered 13 ………………………. number of cars not locked 14 ………………………. Questions 15-17 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. What are the two kinds of car thieves? 15 ……………………………………………………………. 16 ……………………………………………………………. Which kind of car thief is likely to use a stolen car for committing a crime? 17 ………………………………………………………………………………………..…… 382

Preparation and Practice

Question 18 Choose the picture A-D which best shows what the police officer says a vehicle owner SHOULD DO.

Question 19 Choose the picture A-D which best shows what the police officer says a vehicle owner SHOULD NOT DO.

SECTION 3

Questions 20-29

Questions 20-27 Complete the table. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. (Note: X means information not given.) Lisa Sasha Olaf

Reading Essays too interesting handwriting word limit 20 ……………… 22 …………….. 21 …………..…. plagiarism

Lectures 23 ……………… 24 ……………… X

Seminars 25 ………………. 26 ………………. 27 ………………


383

Questions 28 and 29 Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D. 28

Who are Lisa, Olaf and Sasha? Lisa is a lecturer. Olaf and Sasha are students. A They are all first year foreign students. B Olaf and Sasha are foreign students. Lisa is their tutor. C Lisa is a local student. Olaf and Sasha are foreign students. D

29

What does Lisa think of Sasha's last seminar paper? It was like a lecture. A It was professional. B It was rather boring. C She couldn’t believe it. D

SECTION 4

Questions 30-40

Complete the following lecture summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

South-East Asian Traditions Example Course Coordinator

Answer

Paul Stange

 Course materials Two textbooks – Osborne and Legge 30 ……………………………………………. 31 ……………………………………………. Can get textbooks from 32 ………………….…. and other materials from Paul Stange after this lecture. Two of the readings difficult, but Bender 33 …………………………….….. Smail. Both very important because help develop 34 ……………………………….. .  Course structure Main course focus is on 35 ………………………. of South-East Asia. Influences from 36 ………………………….. and 37 …………………………………….. . These influences have been both 38 …………………………… and social. The emphasis is on 39 …………………………… between past influences and present cultural patterns.  Relation to other courses Later courses focus more on political and economic aspects of modern period. This course serves as 40 …………………………. to later courses.

384



Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-11

Questions 1-3 Complete the form. Write A NUMBER for each answer.

Request Form Example: Name:

Answer

Membership No: Mailing address: Fax No: Phone No:

1 …………………………………………………….. 17 Westmead Road, Annadale 2 ………………………………………………………. 02 579 6363 after 5:00 p.m. 3 ……………………………......

Lester Mackie

Questions 4-6 Circle the correct answer A-D for each question. Why does the caller need the literature? 4 for a student paper A C for a newspaper article B D

for research for general interest

5

How long can the caller have the books after the date of posting? 3 weeks A C 5 weeks 6 weeks B D 2 weeks

6

How will the caller pay the fees? credit card A cheque B

C D

money order cash

Questions 7-11 Look at the booklist below. Write in the boxes the appropriate letter (A, OL, or R) as explained below: available in the library A out on loan OL request from other library R

Items Requested Example: Hallsworth, E. G. (1978) Land and Water Resources of Australia

Answer A

7 Government publication (1984) Land Degradation in Australia 8 Government publication (1993) Coastal Zone Inquiry Report 9 Fisher, D.E. (1980) Environmental Law 10 Raiswell, R.W. (1980) Environmental Chemistry 11 Burns, M. & Assoc. (1989) The Environmental Impact of Travel and Tourism Preparation and Practice

385

SECTION 2

Questions 12-21

Questions 12-16 Label the library locations by writing ONE, TWO OR THREE LETTERS next to the list of places. Example: Law library

Answer A B

Floors 9

A

8

B

7

C

6

D

5

E

4

J

4

F

3

K

3

G

2

L

2

H

Library Road entrance

1

I

library lawn entrance

information desk, maps

Main building 12 loans and returns 13 social sciences and humanities library 14 multimedia and newspapers 15 physical sciences library 16 biomedical library

Mathews building entrance Mathews building annex

…………………… ………………….. …………………… …………………… …………………….

Questions 17-21 Complete the notes of general information on the library. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. General Library Information • Eating, drinking and smoking are forbidden in the library. • Telephones are located on the first floor of the main building. • Clocks are in the 17 ………………………... • There are four 18 ………………………….. • Toilets are located near the lifts. • Women's toilets are on 19 ………………………………. floors. • Men's toilets are on 20 ………………………………. floors. • Wheelchair access toilets are on floors 21 ………………………….. .

386


SECTION 3

Questions 22-31

Questions 22-23 Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Student Record Card Name: Address: Student number:

David Simmons 15 Market Ave, Hornsby 22 ……………………………….

Prerequisites Completed Yes

No 

Screen Studies

If no – reason 23 …………………



18 Credit points Question 24 Circle the two examination dates. Sun Mon Tue Wed Thu Fri Sat

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

8 9 10 11 12 13 14

JUNE 15 16 17 18 19 20 21

22 23 24 25 26 27 28

29 30 1 2 3 4 5

6 7 8 9 10 11 12

JULY 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

20 21 22 23 24 25 26

27 28 29 30 31

Questions 25-29 Circle the correct answer A-D. 25

Dr. Richardson explains that the set exercises require reference to a wide range of resources. A should be at least 250 words in length. B focus on key terms and concepts in media studies. C do not have fixed answers. D

26

Dr. Richardson explains that essays one and two are to be the same length. A should both be analytical. B both emphasise studies of audiences. C should be especially easy for David. D

How does Dr. Richardson describe each of the assignments? Complete the table by writing ONE OR TWO appropriate letters (M, T, A or J) as explained below: mechanical theoretical M T analytical journalistic A J Preparation and Practice

387

Assignment Set exercises

Description 27 ………………………

Assignment 1

28 ……………………….

Assignment 2

A

Assignment 3

29 ………………………

Questions 30-31 Circle the correct answer. 30 Which two time slots does Dr Richardson suggest David use for his essay? the six o'clock and the mid-morning A the breakfast and the six o'clock B the mid-morning and the midnight C the midday and the ten o'clock D Write the answer using NO MORE THAN THERR WORDS. 31 What will David do before he decides which part of the programs to use? ………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION 4

Questions 32-40

Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Coastal Zone Inquiry

Example: Speaker:

Answer Kevin Ackroyd

BACKGROUND: Problem: pressure on 32 …………………………… This pressure caused by 33 ………………………………….. Contributing factors: • economic development • 34 …………………………………….. • industrial expansion • 35 …………………………………… Two factors that are particularly important: • 36 ………………………………… likely to continue • Industry, especially tourism which competes with 37 ……………………………….. farming industries CONCLUSIONS: • raise profile of coastal zone Need to • exercise greater vision • 38 ……………………………….. RECOMMENDATIONS: • long-term view Need for • broad view • modern 39 …………………………. • consultation with 40 ………………………………..

388



Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-9

Questions 1-6 Complete the table comparing the two towns. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Albany

Watford

Distance from nearest city

Example: 150 miles

17 miles

Population

1 ………………………………….

80-90 000

Advantages

friendly, relaxed slow pace of life

good entertainment

Disadvantage

2 …………………………….. no jobs

4 ……………………….. crime

Main industry

3 ………………………………………….

electronics light engineering

Climate

wet and windy

5 ……………………….

Main attractions

beautiful beaches

6 ……………………….

Questions 7-9 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 7 8 9

What does Gordon like about where he is living now? ……………………………………………………………………………………… When does Maureen think she might go back to Albany? ……………………………………………………………………………………… How long is Gordon's new contract? ………………………………………………………………………………………


389

SECTION 2

Questions 10-19

Questions 10-12 Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 10-12 to the appropriate letters A-G. main stage

Example: 10 11 12

Answer

A

…………………… ……………..…….. ……………………

first aid post public telephones security post

Questions 13-14 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 13 14

If you want to be readmitted to the stadium, you must ……………………………… . There won't be a festival next year, if there are ………………………………………. .

Questions 15-19 Complete the table with information about festival program. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. Name Brazilian Drum Band

Type of act drum band

Claude and Jacques Great Grapefruit

390

Time 7.00

mime artists

Stage Example: 3 3

15 ………..………

2

7.00


8.00

Crossed Wires

jazz fusion

1

16 …………………

Tom Cobble

comedian

1

10.30

Flying Barito Brothers

acrobats

17 …………………..

9.00

Winston Smiles

reggae singer

3

18 …………………

Great Mysteron

magic and illusion

2

9.30

Blue Grass Ben

19 ………………

2

12.00

The proffets

music group

1

12.00

SECTION 3

Questions 20-29

Questions 20-21 Circle the correct answer A-D. 20

What does Frank have to do next? get the results of the survey back A draw the results of the survey B make some conclusions C collect more information D

21

What is Theresa's market research project on? violence on television A transportation in the city B the history of transportation C bureaucracy in the city D

22

What did the results of Frank's survey show? Everyone thinks there is too much violence on TV. A Most people think there is too much violence on TV. B There is no real agreement on the amount of violence. C There is a problem with the survey. D

Questions 23-25 Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Summary Children might see the heroes of violent films as 23 …………………..……………………. so most people think that violent programs should only be shown after 10.00 p.m. However, there is a 24 …………………………………………. who feel that violent films should be banned. Although news broadcasts are violent, people felt they shouldn’t be banned as they are 25 …………………………………………… .


391

Questions 26-29 Write the answer using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS. 26 27 28 29

How many questionnaires did Frank get back? ……………………………………. . Theresa says Frank's survey doesn’t represent …………………………………….. . Where is Theresa going to interview her respondents? ……………………………… . The best type of questions are ………………………………………………………… .

SECTION 4

Questions 30-40

Questions 30-35 Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN ONE NUMBER OR THREE WORDS for each answer.

Quality Control Example: Quality control is more than an inspection of the finished product. Finished product inspection The main disadvantage of finished product inspection is that it cannot make 30 .………………………………………. Quality control as a continuous process Manufacturers usually consider quality control to be an ongoing process. The advantages are: 31 …………………………………………………….. 32 ………………………………………….………….. It is easier to detect faults on components. Raw material inspection There is no point in processing defective raw materials. Eighty-seven per cent of large firms and 33 ……………………………………………. of small firms have a standard raw material inspection procedure. It is also useful to inspect incoming components. What are we testing for? Although the testing for an expensive car and a child's toy is very different in both cases the main priority is 34 …………………………………………………….. . Function testing answers the question: Does the product do what it's supposed to? Formal defects investigation Usually used by high-tech industries. Environmental impact report Testing must assess the impact of both the product itself and 35 ………………………

392


Questions 36-37 Circle the correct letter A-C for each question. 36 …………………… of companies have standards in line with the Standards Association of Australia. A 87% B 80% C 65% 37 ……………. of companies have quality control regulations which apply international standards. A 22% B 23% C 65% 38 Which of the following pie charts best represents the level of the people responsible for quality control?

Questions 39-40 Name TWO of the effects of releasing low quality products. Circle TWO letters A-E. A C E

danger of lawsuits wasted production time bankruptcy

B D

loss of customer goodwill compensation costs


393

Oxford IELTS Practice Tests (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Notes –Clark’s Bicycle Hire Example Answer Type: touring bike Rental: £50 a week, or 1 £ …………………………… a day Late return fee: 2 £ …………………………… per extra hour Deposit: 3 £ ………………………… returnable Accessories: £5 for 4 ……………………………. : pannier or handlebar type free: pump repair kit 5 strong …………………………………. Insurance: included, but must pay first 6 £ ………………………… of claim Pay: by 7 ……………………. only

Questions 8-10 Label the map. Choose your answers from the box below. Write the appropriate letters A-E on the map.

A B C D E 394

health centre Maple Leaf pub Clark's Cycle Hire supermarket garage Oxford IELTS Practice Tests

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


TYPE OF CLUB OR SOCIETY

SPORTS HOBBY/INTEREST 12 ……………………………..

EXAMPLES rugby tennis landscape photography 11 ………………………….. dancing speed-dating

RELIGIOUS INTERNATIONAL/CULTURAL 14 ………………………………… 15 ………………………………… PERFORMING ARTS

13 ……………………….. Afro-Caribbean human rights environmental Republicans 16 …………………………. 17 …………………………. amateur theatre


In this city, clubs and societies are mainly paid for by embassies of other countries. A individual members. B the city council. C

19

Finding the right club might influence your choice of city. A district. B friends. C

20

What should you do if the right club does not exist? set one up yourself A find one on the Internet B join one in another town C

Oxford IELTS Practice Tests

395

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Label the flow chart. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

LECTURES AND NOTE TAKING Complete all 21 ………………………..… before lecture.

Think about likely 22 ……………………….. of lecture.

Take notes during lecture.

23 ………………………. immediately after lecture.

Revise before 24 ……………………

Revise every 25 ……………………

Questions 26-29 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 26 27 28 29

Where should you sit when you attend a lecture? ………………………………………………… What should you do if you miss an important point? ………………………………………………… Why must your notes be easy to read? ………………………………………………… What do we call expressions which indicate what is coming next? …………………………………………………

Question 30 Circle the correct letter A, B, C or D. 30 Where does Carlos write summing-up points on his notes?

396


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36 Complete the summary below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces provided. The Australian mining town of Coober Pedy is about 31 …………………….………………. kilometers south of Alice Springs. Opals were first found in the area in 32 ………………….. and people began to settle there after the 33 …………………………. In the late 1940s, new opal fields and mass immigration from 34 ………………………….. created a boom, despite the extreme climate which forced about 35 …………………….. of the population to live underground, where they built hotels, churches, and the world's only underground 36 ……………………………. .

Questions 37-40 Write the appropriate letters A, B, or C against questions 37-40. What are the locations of the following places?

Example

Answer

the conical hills

B

37 the town of Woomera

……………….

38 the opal museum

……………….

39 the Dingo Fence

……………….

40 the sets of films

……………….

A

in the town of Coober Pedy

B

near Coober Pedy

C

far from Coober Pedy


397


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 1-6. How does the owner answer? Write A

If she says YES, DEFINITELY

B

If she says MAYBE

C

If she says DEFINITELY NOT

Example House free of damp? 1 2 3 4 5 6

Answer B

Current gas safety certificate? ………………….. Gas inspection within last twelve months? ………. Electricity checked in last five years? …………….. Sufficient electric sockets? ……………………….. Fire detection equipment that works? …………… Previous tenants all returned keys? ……………….

Questions 7-10 Circle the correct letters A-D.

7

On which floor is the storeroom? first A second B third C

8

What is the temperature of the hot water? A 55 B 60 C 70

9

How big is the garden? 20 m2 A 90 m2 B 150 m2 C

10

What size is the television? 70 cm A 80 cm B 90 cm C

398


SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Choose the correct letters A-C.

11

Which column of the chart shows the percentage of young people suffering loneliness?

12 Which chart shows the percentage of young people using the counselling service?


Many young people feel lonely during their 13 …………………….. away from home. You may feel lonely even though you are often with 14 ………………………. . People may find it easier to adapt if they have been 15 ……………………. before. It's possible you last needed to make new friends at 16 …………………………… . Someone special to you may live 17 …………………… from you. Don’t forget that 18 …………………… is affected by loneliness. Doing interesting 19 …………………….. is a good way to meet new people. The 20 ………………………….. at your town hall can tell you more about counselling.


399

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Circle the correct letters A-F. What does Katy say about the Language Centre?

A B C D E F

It is near the College. The library's materials are for advanced learners only. All books have accompanying cassettes. It receives a Spanish newspaper every day. At present, at least fifteen languages are taught by computer. All the computers can be used for Internet learning.

Question 24 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of the following can you watch on the second floor?

A B C D E

live TV in English live TV in Japanese live TV in Turkish recorded news in Arabic recorded news in Portuguese

Questions 25-27 Circle THREE letters A-F. What must you do when you join the Language Centre?

A B C D E F

pay a small amount of money show some proof of identity be accompanied by someone from your Department take a test in the language you want to study register at Reception in the Language Centre learn how to use the Centre's equipment

Question 28 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO should you tell the librarian?

A B C D E

whether you have studied the language previously why you want to study this language how many hours per week you must study it which text books you will use which other languages you have learned

Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of these can you do at the Language Centre?

A B C D E 400

read and listen to materials on your own choose books to take away from the Centre copy tapes to listen to them outside the Centre photocopy materials yourself have a few pages of a book photocopied Oxford IELTS Practice Tests

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Complete the table. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

The Zip Fastener 1851

Howe

'Automatic

commercial potential

Continuous Clothing

only

USA

Closure' 1893

Judson

'Clasp Locker'

commercial failure

31 …………

1908

Sundback

'Hookless Fastener'

commercial

Sweden

32 …………… 33 …….

Kynoch

'Ready Fastener'

commercial success

UK

1920s

34 ………

'Zipper'

commercial success

USA

Questions 35-39 Label the zip. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Question 40 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. 40

The speaker's overall aim is to explain how different kinds of zip fastener work. A outline the development of the zip fastener. B advertise a particular kind of zip fastener. C warn of the dangers of zip fasteners. D


401


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 What does Lisa say about each object? Complete the table as follows. Write If she says it is ESSENTIAL. A B

If she says it is RECOMMENDED.

C

If she says it is NOT RECOMMENDED.

Example 1 2 3 4 5 6

Documents

At least £50 Warm clothing Personal computer Food from home Favourite tapes or CDs Photos from home

Answer A ………………….. ………………….. ………………….. ………………….. ………………….. …………………..


The labels on Dan's luggage must state ‘Mr & Mrs 7 ………………………….’ and their address. Lisa says he should carry some spare clothes in 8 ……………………………………. . For health reasons, Dan intends to wear 9 …………………………….. during the flight. Dan should practise carrying his luggage for a minimum distance of 10 …………… .

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Choose the correct letters A-F. What does Sally say about universities?

A B C D E F 402

Compared to the general population, few students are disabled. Most universities don’t want students aged over 25. Old universities can present particular difficulties for the disabled. All university buildings have to provide facilities for the disabled. There are very few university disability advisors. Some disability advisors can do little to help disabled students. Oxford IELTS Practice Tests


Disability General Mobility impairment

15 ………………………… Sight impairment

Dyslexia Other difficulties

Facilities personal care and assistance ramps and easy access, fire and emergency procedures 14 ……………………………. lavatory facilities induction loops, flashing sirens, 16 ………………………………… Braille translators, 17 ……………………… on stairs, floors, etc. fire and emergency procedures use of computer 18 ……………………. to finish work access to treatment: medication/therapy 19 ………………………….. procedures

Question 20 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

20

What is the speaker's main purpose? to explain why comparatively few students are disabled A to advise disabled students what to look for in a university B to describe the facilities for the disabled in a particular university C to criticize the facilities for the disabled in most universities D

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 Complete the notes below using letters A-F from the box. NB You may use any letter more than once.

A B C D E F

tour of the university campus formal dinner party meeting with ‘senior’ students driving in this country visit to a night club tour of the city

Orientation Course for international students What Liz liked about the course. 21 ………………….. Oxford IELTS Practice Tests

403

22 ………………….. 23 ………………….. What Mark thinks could be improved 24 ………………….. 25 ………………….. 26 ………………….. Question 27-30 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

27

Your room during the Orientation Course is usually shared with another student. A the same room you will have for the rest of the year. B some distance from the university. C furnished, and with bedclothes provided. D

28

The daytime temperature will probably be A less than 10C. B between 10C and 20C. C 20C. D more than 20C.

29

How much free email time do you get? 30 minutes A 20 minutes B 15 minutes C 10 minutes D

30

There are Orientation Course activities from Sunday to Saturday. A Sunday to Friday. B Monday to Friday. C Monday to Saturday. D

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Complete the sentences below: Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Fireworks were first used in China, probably in the 31 ………………. century. By the following century, they were known in Arabia as 32 ………………… . Fireworks first appeared in 33 ……………………… in the thirteenth century.

404



Question 38-40 Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

38

A multibreak shell is more dangerous than a simple shell. A may make a noise when it bursts. B has a single fuse for all its sections. C

39

An aerial heart shape is made by the explosion of stars placed inside a shell in the form of a circle. A heart-shaped stars placed inside a shell. B stars arranged in the form of a heart inside a shell. C

40

What does a Serpentine shell look like in the sky?


405


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Which documents could Sam use as proof of her name?

Example

passport

1 …………………………… 2 …………………………… Which could she use as proof of her address? council tax bill 3 …………………………… phone bill (fixed line) 4 …………………………… Questions 5-7 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. Name of bank?

Savings Bank

Open which days?

Monday-Friday

Opening hours?

5 ………………………………

Where?

6 ………………………………

Free gift?

7 ………………………………

Questions 8-10 Match the places in Questions 8-10 to the appropriate letters A-H on the map next page. 8

Royal Bank ……………………..

9

Northern Bank …………………..

10

National Bank …………………...

406


SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


Preparing for the interview What to do

How to do it

Step 1:

Gather all documents, e.g. copies of resumé.

Prepare things to take.

Choose 11 …………………, e.g. designs, drawings, written work.

Step 2:

Check you have pen and paper.

Get more information.

Ask firm for a 12 …………………………. . See profiles at Chamber of Commerce, library.

Step 3:

Contact 13 ………………………. of this or related

Focus on you and the

firms

job.

Compare yourself with what is required. Imagine likely questions and your answers. Decide how to make up for any 14 …………………. you lack.


407

Questions 15-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. At the interview Arrive no more than 15 ………………………….. before the time of the interview. After you hear the question, you can 16 ………………………… before you reply. You can 17 ……………………….. if you don’t understand what they're asking you. Wait for them to offer you the job before you say what 18 …………………………. you want. Learning from the experience will make you more 19 …………………… in future interviews. Pay attention to your 20 …………………………. – it shows you have a positive attitude.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Complete the summary below by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces provided. To many employers, academic success and personal development as a result of being at 21 ………………………………….. can be as important as course content, so choose 22 ……………….…… modules that you may do well in. You should, however, think more carefully about your choice if your course is 23 …………………… . In this case the course normally includes all the modules necessary for professional training, but if you are in any doubt check with your academic department or the 24 ……………………… at the university. Questions 25-29 Write the appropriate letters A-C against questions 25-29. Which modules have the following features?

A B C 25 26 27 28 29

Applied Chemical Engineering Fluid Mechanics Chemical Engineering: Science 1

developing computer skills …....... exemption from part of a module ………… assessment by formal examination …………… developing speaking and writing skills …………… learning through problem solving ………………

Question 30 30 Which chart shows the percentage of private study time on the Spanish 1A module?

408


SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 34-36 Choose from letters A-C and write them on your answer sheet.

34

The crater at Acraman is nowadays entirely covered by sea water. A one of the most beautiful on Earth. B less spectacular than others in Australia. C

35

Williams realized what had happened at Acraman when he saw pictures of the area taken from above. A visited Acraman for the first time in 1980. B noticed a picture of the crater in a textbook. C

36

Where was rock from Acraman found? Only in the Flinders mountains. A At several places over 300 km from Acraman. B At a place 500 km from Acraman, but nowhere else. C


37 What made the sea water shake? …………………………. 38 What threw the pebbles into the air? ………………… 39 What was mixed with silt to form a layer of rock? …………………. 40 What shaped the ripples on top of the rock?………………….


409

Action Plan for IELTS (1 Test)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Choose THREE letters B-H. Which THREE other activities does the customer want to do? Example B C D E F G H

visit family save money study geography study English do some winter sports go sailing join a walking tour meet young people

Questions 4-7 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. ________________ CUSTOMER’S DETAILS _________________ Name

SU Ming Lee …………………………

Address

4 ……………………………………… Kew

Mobile

5 0402 ………………………………………

Day and date of departure

6 ……………………………………………….

Length of course

7 …………………………………………………

Method of payment

credit card ………………………………….

Questions 8-10 Label the map opposite. Write the correct letter A-G next to questions 8-10. The language school is at …………………… . 8 9

The hotel is at ………………… .

10

The bookshop is at ………………… .

410

Action Plan for IELTS

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 11 ………………………. are often known by their famous bridges. 12 The speaker compares a bridge to a cathedral or ………………………… . 13 Sydney Harbour Bridge is nicknamed ………………………………………… . Questions 14-18 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Date Event 1916

14 ……………………………. agreed to finance bridge

15 ……………………

Contract signal with engineering firm

1926

Construction involved:  Knocking down 16 …………………….  creation of many jobs

1932

Bridge completed at a cost of 17 £ ………………………….

March 1932

Opening ceremony Ribbon cut by a man riding a 18 …………….….

Questions 19-20 Complete the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 19 How long is the tunnel? ………………………………………………………………………. 20 Name ONE thing the tunnel can withstand. ……………………………………………………………………….

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Question 21 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 21 Which graph shows the distribution of animals painted on the caves?


411

Questions 22-25 How does the woman describe each type of drawing? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 22-25. A B C D

uncommon realistic two-dimensional childish

22

bulls

…………………

23

humans

…………………

24

signs

…………………

25

fish

…………………

E F G H

consisting of dots complex important huge

Questions 26-27 Label the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 28-30 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 28

The cave was closed in 1963 because A the tourists had drawn pictures on the walls. B the air was harming the rock art. C so few people were visiting the site.

29

How does David feel about the closure of the cave? A He agrees with the decision. B He thinks it was a bad idea. C He has no views on the matter.

412


30

How can people enjoy the drawings today? A The government has re-opened the cave. B The drawings have been photographed. C A replica of the cave has been built.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31- 32 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. What is marketing? 31 ……………………… and …………………… represent only two aspects of marketing. Marketing involves: •

finding customers

•

ensuring customer satisfaction

•

32 ……………………………………

Questions 33-34 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Human needs

Physical needs e.g. food, 33 ……….. and ……..…..

Human wants

Social needs e.g. belonging

34 ………. needs e.g. knowledge

Human demands

Questions 35-38 Which market research method is used by each of these businesses? Write the correct letter A-C next to questions 35-38. 35

supermarkets

……………………

36

department stores

……………………

A

customer observation

37

fast-food companies

……………………

B

free offers

38

theme parks

……………………

C

in-store surveys


413


Customer satisfaction

414

Product performance

Customers are

 poor

 unhappy

 good

 39 ……………………….

 40 ……………………

 delighted


Prepare for IELTS (5 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-12

Questions 1-8 Listen to the conversation between a student, Angela Tung, and Wills, who is the student adviser at a language school. Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.

REQUEST FOR SPECIAL LEAVE Name: Angela Tang Example

Student number:

H5712

Address: 1 ………………………………………….. Tamworth, 2340 Telephone number: 810 6745 Course: 2 …………………………………………………………………………… Teacher's name: 3 ………………………………………………………………….. Student visa expiry date: 4 ……………………………………………………….. I wish to request leave in Term: 5 ……………………………………………… Dates of leave: 6 …………………………………. to 7 ………………………… Number of working days missed: 8 ………………………………………….. Questions 9-12 Circle the appropriate letter A-D. 9

Why does Angela want to take leave? to visit her aunt and uncle A to see the National Gallery B to see the Southern Highlands C to study more writing D

10

Where is Angela going? Tamworth A Brisbane B Armidale C Sydney D

11

Who is going with Angela? her uncle A her mother B her aunt C her father D Prepare for IELTS

415

12

When will Angela go home to her own country? in five years A in twelve months B in two months C when her mother goes home D

SECTION 2

Questions 13-24

Questions 13-18 Complete the calendar while you listen to the tape. Use words from the box. There are more words in the box than you need. Some words may be used more than once. cleaner dry cleaner lift Sunday May 17

Monday

24

25 17 ……

31 18 ……

18

June 1

garbage charity library

Tuesday

filters gardener electricity

Wednesday

Thursday

20

21

22 13 …..…..

23

26

27

28

29 14 ……..

30

2

3

4

5 15 ………..

6

19 16 ……

Questions 19-24 Circle the appropriate letter A-D. 19

Where has Martha gone? London A Sydney B New York C Paris D

20

Why is Martha away from home? She's visiting friends. A She's at a conference. B She's on business. C She's setting up a business. D

21

Who will Martha meet while she's away? an old school friend A a friend of her mother's B an old university friend C an old teacher D

416

stove paper water

Prepare for IELTS

Friday

Saturday

22

What has Martha left for John? a letter A a meal B a book C a bill D

23

Who does Martha want John to telephone? the optometrist A the telephone company B the doctor C the dentist D

24

What is the code for Martha's alarm system? enter 2190 A 2190 enter B 9120 enter C enter 9120 D

SECTION 3

Questions 25-36

Questions 25-29 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.

LANGUAGE SCHOOL ENROLMENT FORM Name of Applicant:

Vijay Paresh

Telephone number: 909 2467 Language to be learned: 25 ………………………………………………… Location of class:

26 …………………………………………………………

Time of class:

27 ………………………………………………………..

Name of class:

28 ………………………………………………………..

Date of commencement of class:

29 ……………………………………


Anne is Vijay's friend. A Denise's friend. B Vijay's boss. C Denise's boss. D

31

When Anne speaks she congratulates Denise. A ignores Denise. B criticises Denise. C praises Denise. D Prepare for IELTS

417

32

When Denise replies she laughs at Anne. A sympathises with Anne. B argues with Anne. C apologises to Anne. D

Questions 33-36 Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 33-36 to the appropriate letter A-H on the plan. 33

Reception area, admissions

……………………..

34

Fees office

……………………..

35

Book and stationary supply

……………………..

36

Travel agency

……………………..

SECTION 4

Questions 37-41

Questions 37-38 Look at questions 37-38 below and study the grid. Tick all the relevant boxes in each column. CITY Los Angeles London Bangkok Hong Kong New York Taipei Houston Sydney Paris Tokyo Dallas

418

37 Cities with old-structure problems

Prepare for IELTS

38 Cities with good public transport

Questions 39-41 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete these sentences. 39

The public transport available in Houston is

……………………..

40

To reduce peak hour traffic jams, people can travel

……………………..

41

Vehicles carrying more than one passenger can use

……………………..

Prepare for IELTS

419


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Listen to the conversation between two people in a shop which sells electronic goods. Put a circle around the letter of the item they choose.

Example:

420

Prepare for IELTS

Prepare for IELTS

421


Where will Mary go now?

……………………..

6

Who is waiting for Tom?

……………………..

7

What time does Mary expect to come home?

……………………..

8

Where is Mary's office?

……………………..

9

What TV program does Tom plan to watch tonight?

……………………..

10

Where does Tom have to go tomorrow?

……………………..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-22

Questions 11-17 Complete the request to terminate or transfer form. REQUEST TO TERMINATE OR TRANSFER CLASSES

Message for:

11 …………………………………… Student affairs

Student's family name: 12 ……………………………………………… Student's first name:

13 ………………………………………………

Student number:

14 ………………………………………………

Teacher's name:

15 ………………………………………………

Student's address:

16 ………………………………………………

Telephone:

17 ………………………………………………


May wants to change classes because she doesn’t like her teacher. A too many students share a language. B she can't understand the work. C the class is too large. D

19

In the evening class most students' first language is English. A Italian. B Spanish. C Japanese. D

20

There is room in the new class because two students went home. A dropped the course. B transferred. C graduated. D

422

Prepare for IELTS

21

May prefers the evening class because it is in the same room. A in the room next door. B in the same building. C in the building next door. D

22

May wants Mrs Brooks to leave a message at the library. A her work. B her friend's house. C her home. D

SECTION 3

Questions 23-31

Questions 23-27 Complete the table showing the students' opinions. Choose your answers from the box below. There are more words than spaces so you will not use them all. You may use any of the words more than once. INSTRUMENT guitar violin pipa organ flute bouzouki piano drums harp STYLE OF MUSIC ballet music rap classical heavy metal opera jazz rock be-bop country Student

favourite instrument

favourite style of music

Example Greg

drums

Classical

23 Alexandria 24 Katja 25 Rachel 26 Harry 27 Emiko Questions 28-31 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete these sentences. 28

Stimulating music speeds up our ……………………………………………

29

Calming music reduces our ……………………………………………………

30

………………………………………. music has very predictable rhythms.

31

Research may show if people of different …………………………….. perceive music differently. Prepare for IELTS

423

SECTION 4

Questions 32-40

Questions 32-36 Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, answer the following questions. 32

Who should take charge of the patient's health? ………………………………………………………………………..….

33

What, in the speaker's opinion, is the single greatest threat to health? ………………………………………………………………………..….

34

Which group in the study was most at risk of early death? ………………………………………………………………………..….

35

Which environmental hazard does the speaker find most under-rated? ………………………………………………………………………..….

36

What will be improved by an education campaign? …………………………………………………………………………………

Questions 37-40 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete the sentences. 37

Statistics quoted show that …………………………… would prevent many illnesses.

38

Exercise should be ………………………., so find someone to join you in your activity.

39

One important way of preventing sports injury is by adequate …………………… .

40

Injuries can also be reduced by using ……………………….. techniques.

424

Prepare for IELTS


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-8

Questions 1-5 Listen to the conversation between the manager of the Student Hostel and a student. Tick () if the information is correct, or write in the changes. STUDENT HOSTEL

Charges for meals Example BREAKFAST LUNCH DINNER THREE MEAL PLAN TWO MEAL PLAN

$2.00 $3.00 $3.00 $48.00 per week $36.00 per week

$2.50  1 ……………….. 2 ………………… 3 …………………

Meal Times 7.00 – 9.30 am noon – 2.00 pm 6.00 – 7.30 pm

BREAKFAST LUNCH DINNER

4 …………………….. 5 ……………………..

Questions 6-8 Listen to the conversation and match the places in questions 6-8 to the appropriate letters A-F on the map. Example Fees Office 6 Student Lounge 7 Key Room 8 Box Room

Answer

B

…………………….. …………………….. ……………………..

Prepare for IELTS

425

SECTION 2

Questions 9-19

Questions 9-16 Listen while a teacher tells you how to complete this note. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. SCHOOL EXCURSION PERMISSION NOTE Example Class: 3A School excursion to: 9 …………………………………………………………………….. On: 10 ……………………………………………………………………………………… day

date

Bus will depart from: 11 ………………………….….. at: 12 ……………………………. Bus will return to: 13 ……………………………… at: 14 ……………………………. Students music bring: 15 ……………………………………………………………………. Clothing: students will need: 16 …………………………………………………………..

Signature of Guardian / Group Leader Questions 17-19 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. 17

When will the bus get to the Blue Mountains?

……………………..

18

What special equipment is on the bus?

……………………..

19

What other class is going on the excursion?

……………………..

SECTION 3

Questions 20-30

Questions 20-22 Complete the table which shows when visitors may go to the different part of the hospital.

Permitted visiting hours

Intensive Care Example 6 am – midnight

Maternity 20

Surgical 21

Emergency 22

Questions 23-25 Complete the table showing who is allowed to visit, and the number of visitors permitted. A = Adults may visit E = Everyone may visit I = Immediate family only

Visitors permitted

426

Intensive Care Example I 2

Prepare for IELTS

Maternity 23

Surgical 24

Emergency 25

Questions 26-27 Circle TWO letters. Example

On Monday Andrew will visit these wards male surgical female surgical C

children's surgical

D

male geriatric

E

female geriatric

F

infectious diseases

26

On Tuesday Andrew will be with Dr Chang. A Dr Thomas. B Dr Gray. C Dr Robertson. D Dr Shay. E Dr Kominski. F

27

On Thursday and Friday Andrew will visit the nursery. A the hospital gymnasium. B the administration office. C the school room. D the teenage ward. E the children's ward. F

Questions 28-30 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. 28

What time on Wednesday morning will Andrew be in lectures? ………………………………………………………………………..….

29

How many first year students are there? ………………………………………………………………………..….

30

What job does Andrew's father do? ………………………………………………………………………..….

SECTION 4

Questions 31-38

Questions 31-35 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete these sentences. 31

Samuel Wells ………………………………….. before Scholastic House opened in 1903.

Prepare for IELTS

427

32

Scholastic House became …………………………………………….. in 1963.

33

There were ………………………………………… original students.

34

One of these students became a prominent ………………………………………… .

35

The college has a tradition of learning and …………………………………………… .


The college discusses controversial issues because it informs the debate. A reduces tension. B encourages argument. C brings positive publicity. D

37

The principal believes that science is less advanced than medicine. A philosophy is more useful than science. B science is ahead of philosophy. C science is more useful than philosophy. D

38

The principal urges the students to accept what they are told. A ask questions at the times. B think only about their studies. C think where progress will lead them. D

428

Prepare for IELTS


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-8

Listen to the conversation and complete the table. Write C for Cookery, S for Sports and T for Travel.

Name of author Peter Adams Stephen Bau Pam Campbell C. Kezik Ari Hussein Sally Innes Meg Jorgensen Bruno Murray Ruby Lee Jim Wells Helen Yeung

SECTION 2

C = Cookery S = Sports T = Travel Example S T 1 …...…. 2 ……… S 3 ……… S 4 ……… 5 ……… 6 ……… 7 ……… 8 ………

Questions 9-18

Questions 9-14 Look at this invitation. Tick () if the information is correct or write in the changes. Answer Example: dance party

INVITATION TO A WELCOMING LUNCH



AT BLACKWELL HOUSE

9 …………………..

ON FRIDAY JUNE 15 AT 8 PM THE PARTY WILL END AT 10 PM

10 …………………..

FREE TRANSPORT TO THE STUDENTS HOSTEL IS AVAILABLE LEAVING BLACKWELL HOUSE AT 10.30

11 …………………..

OTHER STUDENTS MAY ATTEND

12 …………………..

PLEASE BRING YOUR STUDENT IDENTIFICATION CARD

13 …………………..

PLEASE REPLY BY TUESDAY IF YOU CAN COME

14 …………………..


There is new road work on …………………………….………. .

16

Do not use Blackwell Street because workmen are ………………………..………………. .

17

When you pass the roundabout, go along Brown Crescent into ………….……………….. .

18

It's wise to use the ………………………………….…..…… . Prepare for IELTS

429

SECTION 3

Questions 19-29

Questions 19-23 Label the parts of the lawn sprinkler. Choose words from the box below. There are more words in the box than you will need. Write the appropriate words on the diagram.

holes spray tube hinge guide

base handle hose pipe chain guard


The last examinations will be held on November 26. A November 29. B December 2. C December 4. D

25

Scott is going to the United States to study. A to teach. B to travel. C to visit friends. D

430

Prepare for IELTS

crank gears water wheel pulley

26

The general science course in the United States is similar. A simple. B difficult. C different. D

27

Linda has had an extension to complete her assignment. A do more research. B study. C go on holiday. D

28

Communications and English will be examined on December 1 morning. A December 2 morning. B December 1 afternoon. C December 2 afternoon. D

29

Mark finds teaching this class boring. A tiring. B depressing. C stimulating. D

SECTION 4

Questions 30-39

Complete the summary. Use words from the box. There are more words in the box than you need. Some words may be used more than once. rest stress chew noise speak tired

relaxed work exhaustion tense smoky exercise

angry hunger desk study relaxation raised

warm 45 degrees 40 degrees crowded

The most usual cause of headaches is 30 ………………………………… . Headaches can also come as a result of excessive 31 ……………………………….. . Some people say they get a headache when they 32 ……………………………… . This is probably because they get very 33 …………………………………… . It may also be because they are working in poor light which makes them very 34 ………… . It is helpful if your reading material is on a bookrest at 35 ………………….. to the desk. It is also important to be 36 …………………… in bed. You may even get a headache because you 37 ……………………………… too hard. The best advice is to try to eat regular meals, get enough 38 ……………………… and avoid 39 ……………………….. places.

Prepare for IELTS

431


Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-9

Questions 1-7 Listen to the conversation between Megan and Ken about how they will spend the evening. Circle the appropriate letter. Example: What is Thomas's new home phone number? A 9731 4322

© 9452 3456

B 98134562

1 What will Ken and Megan do this evening?

2 Where is Entertainment City?

3

4

432

When will Ken leave? now A in ten minutes' time B

C D

How will Megan travel to Entertainment City?

Prepare for IELTS

at 10 o'clock in 30 minutes

D 9340 2367

5

How many people will they meet there? none A C two three B D a group

6

How much will the evening cost? A nothing C less than $40.00 just the fares B D more than $40.00

7

What time does Megan plan to come home? A before midnight C on the last bus after midnight B D on the last train

Questions 8-9 Write ONE NUMBER for each answer. Which telephone button will Ken press? Example:

if he wishes to order a cab now?

1

8

if he wishes to order a cab for later?

……………………..

9

if he has lost something in a cab?

……………………..

SECTION 2

Questions 10-20

Questions 10-15 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer in the spaces provided. The plane will leave Gatwick Airport at 10 …………………. in the morning. The transport from Athens Airport will be by 11 ……………………………….. . The hotel is booked for 12 ……………….....………….. nights. During our stay, the group will visit the National Archaeological Museum in the morning. Group members will then have free time on 13 …………………….….. evening. The group will see the Greek Islands and will travel by 14 ……………….. . Traditional 15 ……………………… will be part of the package. Questions 16-18 Circle TWO letters. 16

The organiser would like to thank the Greek government. A the travel agent. B British Airways. C staff at the British Museum. D

17

People should bring to the party photographs. A food. B camera. C drinks. D Prepare for IELTS

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18

The members of the group share an interest in Greek culture. A studying old societies. B fine food. C travel. D

Questions 19-20 Complete this baggage label. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the spaces provided.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-31

Questions 21-26 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer. 21

When did the Language Learning Centre enter its new building? …………….………...

22

Which country do most of the students come from now? …………………………..……

23

What were the Indonesians studying at the Language Learning Centre? ……………….

24

How long should students stay at the Language Learning Centre? …………………….

25

What is the most common class size? ………………………………………….………

26

Who does Dr Robinson consider to be the best promoters of the Centre? ……….…….

Questions 27-31 Complete the table showing which activities are available. Tick () in the column if an activity is available. Activity

all students

Example: 27

Soccer club Non-English language courses

28

Jazz club

29

Drama society

30

Choral group

31

Special conversation group

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

beginners

advanced students

SECTION 4

Questions 32-40


Most postgraduate students are studying A courses that feature vocational training full-time courses. B C part-time courses. D research-based courses.

33

Postgraduate students are advised to A take as many diverse subjects as possible. accept an intellectual challenge. B C be sure to have a definite goal. D have already completed training.

34

The speaker says that where you study A is of minimal importance. must be somewhere you like. B C must be reasonably priced. D should be based on your course.

35

Choosing an institution should be mainly based on A the quality of the housing for postgraduate students. the reputation of the department they work in. B C the reputation of the organisation they attend. D the quality of the supervision they receive.

36

These facilities are the most important to the speaker: A libraries and laboratories. computer facilities. B C secretarial support. D recreational organiasations.

37

Postgraduates can avoid feeling alone by A joining associations of their peers. developing outside interests. B C participating in the outside community. D making friends outside the university.


Students should not forget to budget for their …………………………………………… .

39

Students should check all study costs carefully because institutions may ……………….. .

40

Postgraduate students cannot get loans from ……………………………………………… .

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435

Barron's IELTS (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Question 1 Match the time with the event. Write the correct number next to the letter. 2 Winston will go to Japan A ____Today 1 Winston will register at the World Language Academy B ____Next week 2 Winston will study Japanese C ____Next summer 3 Questions 2 and 3 Choose TWO letters, A-F. 2 What TWO classes are offered at the World Language Academy?

A B C D E F

Japanese for University Professors Japanese for Business Travellers Japanese for Tour Guides Japanese for Tourists Japanese for Language Teachers Japanese for Restaurant Workers

Choose TWO letters, A-F. 3 In Japan, Mark Winston says he will probably

A B C D E F

go shopping. climb mountains. attend a business meeting. try Japanese cuisine. take a university course. study with a tutor.

Questions 4-8 Complete the schedule below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Japanese Class Schedule Morning

Afternoon

Evening

Weekend 436

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Days: Monday –Friday Time: 4 ………… Level: Beginner Days: Monday, Wednesday, Thursday Time: 1:00-3:00 Level: 5 ………… Days: Monday, Wednesday, Thursday Time: 5:30-7:30 Level: 6 ………… Days: 7 ………… Time: 7:30-9:30 Level: Advanced Days: Saturday Time: 8 ………… Level: Beginner

Questions 9 and 10 Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. 9

Which class will Mark take?

10 How will he pay?

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437

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13

Summer Mansion Notice to Visitors The following activities are prohibited inside the mansion: ● Talking on cell phones ● 11 …………………….. ● 12 …………………….. ● 13 ……………………..

Thank you, and enjoy your visit! Question 14-18 Fill in the missing information on the map of Sumner Mansion. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

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Question 19-20 Complete the schedule below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Summer Mansion Hours Spring:

10 AM to 19 ……………..

Summer:

10 AM to 20 ……………..

Autumn:

10 AM to 3 PM

Closed winters.

SECTION 3

Question 21-30

Questions 21-23 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 21 22 23

There are high-speed trains in Japan and …………….. . The first high-speed train began operating in …………….. . High-speed trains can travel at speeds of at least …………….. kilometres an hour.

Questions 24-26 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer Cause

Effect

We have better roads now than in the past.

24 More people …………….. .

Now we have plane service that is more 25 ………………….. .

More people use planes for long-distance travel.

There is a lot of 26 …………….. .

We need to consider new forms of transportation

Questions 27-30 Choose FOUR letters, A-G. What are the advantages of trains over other types of transportation according to the people on the panel? A Less expensive than car trips

E

Better security systems than planes

B More relaxing than cars

F

Larger capacity for passengers than planes

C Less polluting than cars

G

More frequent service than planes

D No traffic jams

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439

SECTION 4

Question 31-40

Complete the timeline below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR ONE NUMBER for each answer. 1879

Einstein was born in 31 ……………..

At age 12

Einstein began 32 ……………..

33 …………...

Einstein’s family moved to Italy

34 …………..

Einstein graduated from high school

35 …………..

Einstein met Mileva Maric

1900

Einstein received 36 ……………..

1901

Einstein became 37 ……………..

1902

Einstein began work at the Swiss patent office Einstein 38 ……………..

39 …………..

Einstein and Mileva Maric got married

40 …………..

Einstein’s first son was born

440

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Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Question 1-7 Choose the correct letters, A, B or C. Example: What is the man doing? A Shopping at the mall Asking shoppers questions C Looking for a certain shop 1

The interview wants to find out about A when the mall is open. B people’s shopping habits. C the best stores in the shopping centre.

2

The interviewer wants to speak with A married women. B any shopper. C children.

3

What is the respondent’s age A 18-25 B 26-35 C 36-45

4

How often does the respondent shop at the mall? A Less than once a month B Once a week C Two or more times a week

5

What does the respondent usually shop for? A Clothes B Books C Groceries

6

How much time does the respondent usually spend at the mall? A One hour or less B Between one and two hours C More than two hours

7

What method of transportation does the respondent use to get to the mall? Car A Bus B Subway C Barron's IELTS

441

Questions 8-10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 8 Why does the respondent like the shoe store? ………………………………………………………… Why doesn’t the respondent like the food court? 9 ………………………………………………………… 10 What improvement does the respondent suggest? …………………………………………………………

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Question 11 Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. 11

The tour of the health club is for A people who want to become members of the club B people who are already members of the club C people who work at the club

Questions 12-14 Choose THREE letters, A-F. What are THREE things that members can do at the club? A Learn to play tennis B Buy exercise equipment C Consult a nutrition expert D Exercise on a machine E Run on a track F Try out for the swim team Questions 15-17 Choose THREE letters, A-F. What THREE things should club members bring with them to the locker room? A Towels B Soap C Shampoo D Hair dryers E Rubber sandals F Locks Questions 18-20 Complete the notice below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Swimming Pool Rules - Children must be accompanied 18 ……………………… . - No 19 ……………………… near the pool. - Please 20 ……………………… before entering the pool. 442

Barron's IELTS

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-22 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 21 How often will the students have to write essays? …………………………………………………………….. 22 What should be the word length of each essay? …………………………………………………………….. Questions 23-26 Complete the chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Essay Type 23 ………………….. 24 ………………….. 25 ………………….. Argumentative

Sample Topic How to change the oil in a car Three kinds of friends Student cafeteria food and restaurant food The necessity of 26 …………………..

Questions 27-30 Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C. 27 How will the students get their essay topics? A The professor will assign them. B Students will choose them. C They will come from books. 28

When are the essays due? A Every Monday B Every Wednesday C Every Friday

29

The essays count for ………………….. percent of the final grade. A 15 B 20 C 65

30

The professor wants the students to A type their essays on a computer. B write their essays by hand. C photocopy their essays.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-32 Answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 31 What is the name of the class? ………………….. 32 What day does the class meet? ………………….. Barron's IELTS

443

Questions 33-36 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. In hunter-gatherer societies, gathering is done by 33 ………………….. . All humans lived in hunter-gatherer societies until 34 ………………….. ago. Today we can find hunter-gatherer societies in the Arctic, 35 ………………….. and 36 ………………….. . Questions 37-40 The following are characteristics of which types of society? Check column A if it is a characteristic of hunter-gatherer societies. Check column B if it is a characteristic of farming societies. Characteristics 37 They usually stay in one place. 38 They are nomadic. 39 They have a higher population density. 40 They have a nonhierarchical social structure.

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A

B


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Lost Item Report Day item was lost: Example Monday Reported by: Last Name Brown First name 1 …………….. phones: Home (not given) Office (not given) Address 2 …………… High Street, 3 ……………#5 4 …………… 305-5938 City Riverdale Questions 5-10 Choose the correct letter A, B, or C. What do the woman’s glasses look like? 5

6

Where was the woman sitting when she lost her glasses? A By the window B Next to the door C In the train station

7

What was the woman reading? A A book B A newspaper C A magazine

8

Where was the woman going on the train? A Home B To work C To visit her aunt What time did the train arrive? A 5:00 B 10:00 C 10:30

9

10

Where did the woman find her glasses?

Barron's IELTS

445

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Places to look for housing Not recommended: Near university too expensive Downtown 11 …………… 12 …………… from the university Recommended : Uptown 13 …………… a lot of buses go there Greenfield Park

closer to the university you need 14 ……………

Please to look for ads 15 …………… University newspaper 16 …………… Internet Available at the Student Counseling Centre city maps 17 city …………… 18 …………… service list of 19 …………… information about 20 …………… plans

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Bicycles as Transportation: Advantages and Disadvantages Advantages They are good for 21 …………… They are 22 …………… cars They don’t cause 23 ……………

Disadvantages You can’t ride in 24 …………… Your can’t ride if you have bad health You can’t ride if your trip is 25 ……………

Questions 26-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Encouraging Bicycle Riding

Bicycling Equipment

Cities can: 26 …………… on roads

Safety:

make places to 27 …………… at subway stations provide 28 ……………

Comfort: light clothes 30 ……………

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wear a 29 …………… reflective tape

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the outline. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Writing a Research Paper I.

Choose a topic A Look at 31 …………… B Make topic more specific C Get 32 ……………

33 …………… A Library 1. Reference and other types of books 2. Journals, 34 …………… 3. Atlases and other similar sources B Internet 1. Online journals and newspapers 2. Online 35 …………… 36 …………… III. Write an outline IV. A Introduction B 37 …………… C 38 …………… 39 …………… V. Write first draft VI. VII. 40 …………… VIII. Type final draft II.

Barron's IELTS

447


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-2 Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C. EXAMPLE Where will the man get the information he needs? A The information desk B The ticket office The Special Events Department 1

What does the man want to do? A Look at art B Hear a lecture C Listen to music

2

What day will he get tickets for? A Thursday B Saturday C Sunday

Questions 3-5 Complete the form. Ticket Order Form Customer name: Steven 3 …………… Credit card number: 4 …………… Number of tickets: 2 Amount due: 5 £…………… Questions 6-10 Label the map. Write the correct place names in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet.

448

Barron's IELTS

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-17 Complete the table comparing the two towns. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Population Summer climate Advantage Disadvantage Distance from airport

Revensburg 11 …………… average temp: 12 ………… weather: sunny 15 …………… crowded in summer 25 kilometres

Blackstone Beach 12,000 average temp: 13 ……… Weather: 14 …………… good seafood 16 …………… 17 ……………

Questions 18-20 Which three of the following do tourists usually shop for on Raven Island? Write the correct letters, A-F, in boxes 18-20 on your Answer Sheet. A native handicrafts B native music C perfume D jewelry E fish F fishing gear

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 21 When is the research project due? 22 What percentage of the final grade does it count for? 23 What topic did Janet choose? Questions 24-30 Complete the chart showing the steps Janet took to complete her research project. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Choose topic A Do 24 …………… B Choose 25 …………… C Submit research 26 …………… D Choose subjects E 27 …………… F G Send out 28 …………… H 29 …………… and graphs Write a 30 …………… I

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 According to the talk, in which parts of the world do crows live? Choose FOUR places and write the correct letters, A-F in boxes 31-34 on your Answer Sheet. A North America B South America C Antarctica Barron's IELTS

449

D Hawaii E Europe F Asia Questions 35-40 Complete the table with information about the American crow. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Length Colour Favorite food Nest material Nesting place Number of eggs Days to hatch Days to fly

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35 ………… centimetres 36 …………… corn 37 …………… 38 …………… 39 …………… 18 40 ……………

IELTS Help Now (5 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer. PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM Example Answer First Name Kirsty Surname Address Postcode Home tel. Mobile tel. Flight Number Seat Number From To

Allen 1 …………………. Windham Road, Richmond 2 …………………………. 020 8927 7651 3 …………………………... 4 …………………………… 5 …………………………… New York London Heathrow

Questions 6-8 Circle THREE letters A-F. What items did Kirsty's bag contain? 17 pounds A pens B her passport C a book D 200 dollars E her house keys F Questions 9 and 10 Choose a letter (A-D) that correctly answers questions 9 and 10. What has Kirsty done regarding the loss of her credit card? 9 A Informed the police but not the credit card company. B Informed the credit card company but not the police. C Informed both the police and the credit card company. D Informed neither the police nor the credit card company. 10

What must Kirsty do after the call regarding her lost handbag? 𝟏 A Call back after 1 hours. 𝟐

B

Just wait for a call back.

C

Call back after 1 hours if she has heard nothing.

D

Call back the next day if she has heard nothing.

𝟏 𝟐

IELTS Help Now

451

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Label the locations on the map below.

Questions 15-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Notes on Student Facilities Students' Union

Very cheap Bookshop Food and drink available Parties! Offices – travel, welfare etc. Open 8 am - 12 midnight.

Library

Must register Tours every 15 ………………… for 2 weeks. Open 9 am - 9 pm (later during 16 ………………….)

Refectory

Cheap meals Lunch 12 noon - 3 pm Dinner 17 ………………. - 8.30 pm Types of food – favourites healthy

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ethnic 18 ……….. vegan Sports Hall

Must join Athletic Union which – lets me use facilities lets me play for teams 19 ………………. me all year

Discount Card

Costs 20 £ …………………………. Gives me discounts on all uni. services

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Day of arrival Subjects studying

Monday's 9 am lecture Mondays' 2 pm lecture Wednesday afternoon sport selected Location of sport

John Thursday economics maths French French maths 24 ……………………

Jane 21 …………………. 22 ………………….. history music history 23 ……………………. volleyball

sports hall

25 ……………………

Questions 26-29 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 26

Students can choose from how many essay titles for their first assignment? ……………………………………………………………….

27

Where did John travel during the summer? ……………………………………………………………….

28

What is the word limit for the essays? ……………………………………………………………….

29

When must the first essay be handed in by? ………………………………………………………………..

Question 30 Circle the correct letter A-C. 30 Where will John and Jane meet up later that day? A the economics course office B the economics common room C the campus cafeteria IELTS Help Now

453

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Choose the correct letters A-C. 31 Japan relies on oil tankers because ………… A the country consists of islands. B the country has no pipeline network. C the country has no natural oil resources. 32

Professor Wilson says that oil tankers are ……….. A very safe. B quite safe. C quite unsafe.

33

According to professor Wilson, the main cause of oil slicks is ……..…. A accidents while loading and unloading oil. B collisions. C deliberate releases of oil.

34

According to Professor Wilson, slicks are rarely burned off nowadays because ……… A the oil is refined. B it usually doesn’t work. C it creates too much air pollution.

Questions 35-39 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Oil exploration clean-up techniques Techniques Advantages The Containment Cheap and easy Boom Chemical Detergents Good for treating 36 ………............ The Sponge Bacteria

Oil remains permanently in the sponge. Cheap Easy to administer Totally 38 ………………..

Disadvantages Only good when there are 35 ……………………… Chemicals remain in the water + kill marine life. The sponge mats turn into 37 …………………… 39 …………………….

Question 40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS. Optional essay question. Remember to check out the faculty's notice boards. You will find:  reading lists  essay questions  40 …………………………

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Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-6 Circle the correct letters A-C. Example Mr. Griffin is coming for ……. A a holiday. a business trip. C to see family. 1

Mr. Griffin has been to the Sunrise Hotel ….… A once previously. B twice previously. C three times previously.

2

Mr. Griffin is form ….… A Melbourne. B Sydney. C Perth.

3

Mr. Griffin's passport number is …….. A 87647489. B 87637289. C 87637489.

4

Mr. Griffin wants to book …..…. A a single room for 2 nights. B a double room for 2 nights. C a single room for 1 night.

5

Mr. Griffin will arrive at the Sunrise Hotel at ….…. A 9.15 pm. B 10.00 pm. C 9.35 pm.

6

When he gets to the Sunrise Hotel, the food Mr. Griffin will find in his room will be …….. A a cheese sandwich with fries. B a cheese sandwich. C a burger.

Questions 7-10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7

What number room will Mr. Griffin be in at the Sunrise Hotel? ……………………………………… IELTS Help Now

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8 9 10

How much will Mr. Griffin pay per night at the Sunrise Hotel? $ ……………………………………. Who will take Mr. Griffin's food to his room? ………………………………………. How much will Mr. Griffin pay for his food? $ …………………………………….

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Complete the descriptions below. Below are descriptions that Police have released for the two men wanted in connection with the robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls.

Height Build Hair Face Age Clothing

Man 1 11 …...…. Slight Dark Small moustache Early 20s Blue jeans White t-shirt 12 …………… Motorbike helmet

Height Build Hair Face Age Clothing

Man 2 5 foot 8 13 …………… Red 14 …………… 15 …………… Dark blue sweater Blank jeans Motorbike helmet

Questions 16-20 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.  CompTec blamed the job losses on reduced sales and 16 ……………………… .  The airport route expansion will result in a 17 ……………………… of new jobs.  The Oakley Woods development project was opposed by local residents and local 18 …………… . George Finchly, the Westley 19 …………………… gave the news to the media.  East Moors CC will play their final on Sunday 20 ……………………… August.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-26 Complete the admission tutor's notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Student's Name Subject to study 456

ADMISSION TUTOR'S NOTES Robert Johnson 21 ……………………………

IELTS Help Now

Why this subject

Always interested Father's field At school, good at mathematics and 22 …………………………

Gap year Jobs during Gap Year

Worked and travelled in Australia and New Zealand 23 …………………………… Pub work 24 …………………………… Building site Department has 25 …………………………… Graduates from Westley get jobs in industry quickly Near Snowdonia for 26 …………………………… Likes football – Westley has lots of teams

Why Westley University

Questions 27-30 Complete Robert's notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Type of Course Assessment

SECTION 4

ROBERT JOHNSON'S NOTES 27 …………………………….. (3rd year in industry) Year 1 5 exams Year 2 28 …………………………….. Year 3 No assessment Year 4 Dissertation of 29 …………………….. 8 final exams during 30 …………………..

Questions 31-40


The lecture will be useful for any students who are writing …………………………….…… .

32

Modernised countries are described by the speaker as now being …………………………… .

33

The size of a sample depends on the ………………………………… required.

Questions 34-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Survey Size

Types of survey Mail

Depends on statistical quality needed and total population size A 1000 individual survey can reflect the total population Advantages 34 ……………………………. Good for particular groups

Disadvantages Not good for decent response rate IELTS Help Now

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Telephone In-Person

Good for when time and survey length are limited Good for collecting complex information

Street Interview

37 …………………………….

Survey Content

Questions can ask about:

35 ………………. Can mean lots of 36 ……….……. Not scientific sampling

opinions and attitudes factual characteristics or behavior Questions can be open-ended or 38 ……………………………. Questions can be from 5 mins long to 1 hour + Survey can be 39 ……………………………. – interviewees can be questioned on 2 or more occasions

Ethics

458

Results must not be used commercially Individuals should not be mentioned Results should be in 40 ……………………………. ie: Statistical tables or charts

IELTS Help Now


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Example

WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM Answer

NAME

Camden

FIRST NAME ADDRESS

POSTCODE DATE OF BIRTH HOME TEL MOBILE TEL PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED

Peter Flat 5 53 1 ………………………….. Finsbury 2 ………………………….. 8th July 3 ………………………… None 4 ………………………….. 5 …………………………..

Questions 6-8 Circle THREE letters A-F. What type of books does Peter like? A B C D E F

Wildlife books Romance books Travel books Historical novels Science Fiction novels Mystery books

Questions 9 and 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. How much does it cost to join the library? 9 ………………………….. 10

How much does it cost to rent a DVD? …………………………..

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 List FOUR reasons given for people needing blood transfusions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 11 ……………………………………….... IELTS Help Now

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12 ……….……………..………………….. 13 …………………………..…………….. 14 …….…………………….…………….. Questions 15-20 Complete the 2 sets of notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Blood Types of Blood O, A, B + AB Component Parts PART red blood cells

USED FOR 15 ……………………….. to cells

white blood cells

help patients' 16 …………………

platelets

blood clotting

plasma

17 ………………….. the other blood parts

DAYS WHERE WHEN MUST

SECTION 3

GIVING BLOOD Wednesday + next 2 days Westley General Hospital, 18 ……………….. department Between 9.00 am and 19 ………………………….. be healthy be 20 ………………………….. or over weigh more than 110 pounds have had no tattoos this year not have donated blood within past 56 days

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-27 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Computer Labs The 4 labs below can be used by undergraduates. Other computer labs can only be used by postgraduates and 21 ………………………….. Lab Locations Wimborne Johnson Building Franklin Computer Sciences Building Salisbury 22 ………………………….. Court Johnson Building Reservations 23 ………………………….. a day unless computers are free Write reservation in book 24 ………………………….. (Penalty for erasing someone else's reservation – 1 year ban) User Name Jamessmith2 Password 25 ………………………….. Printing Pick up print outs from 26 ………………………….. in Franklin Costs 27 …………………………..

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Questions 28-30 Choose the correct letters A-C. 28 The introductory computer course that James decides to take is ….... A beginner. B intermediate. C advanced 29 The computer laboratory for James' introductory computer course is in ……... A Wimborne B Franklin C Court 30 James will take his introductory computer course ……… A on Thursday at 2.00pm. B on Tuesday at 4.30 pm. C on Tuesday at 5.00 pm

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-35 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. The Shinkansen or Bullet Train Safety No deaths (bar 1 from passenger misadventure) since its launch in 31 ………………….. . Speed Holds world train record for 32 …………………………….. of 261.8 kph. 500 series Nozumi's fastest speed is 300 kph. Punctuality Punctual to within the second. All bullet trains for 1 year were a total of 33 …………….. late. History First used on Tokyo to Osaka route. Old models have now been retired. 300, 500 and 700 are recent models. Services Nozomi trains stop at the 34 …………………………….. . Hikari stop more frequently. Kodama trains stop at 35 …………………………….. . Questions 36-40 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 36 French TGV locomotives pull the TGV trains from both ends using a …………… . 37 Japanese ground is unsuitable for the TGV type of train because it is …………… and the tracks frequently curve horizontally and vertically. 38 An extra advantage of the Japanese electric car system is that it can act as a …………….. . 39 Even after the power supply is cut off in the electric car system, electricity is still produced by …………….. . 40 Huge improvements in power, operability and safety administration have been made possible by advances in …………….. . IELTS Help Now

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Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Oakham Surgery New Patient Form Example

Answer

NEW PATIENT’S ROAD

Dawson Road

FULL NAME WIFE’S FIRST NAME CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES

ADDRESS

HEALTH CARD NUMBER WIFE’S HEALTH CARD NUMBER PREFERRED DOCTOR SELECTED

Mike 1 ………………………………………… Janet 1st 2 ………………………………………… 2nd 3rd 4th 52 Dawson Road 3 ……………………………………………… Melbourne 4 ……………………………………………… will give later 5 ………………………………………………


When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment? Friday 21st at 2.00 pm. A Friday 21st at 2.30 pm. B Friday 21st at 3.30 pm. C

7

What is the surgery’s phone number? 7253 9819 A 7253 9829 B 7523 9829 C

8

What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery? Rachel A Elizabeth B Angela C

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IELTS Help Now

9

What’s the night doctor’s mobile number? 0506 759 3856 A 0506 759 3857 B 0506 758 3856 C

10

Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for? Travel vaccinations A Consultations B Insurance reports C

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Notes on Library Joining Library

You will need:

Opening Hours

Library Reception

Borrowing Undergraduates Postgraduates Borrowing for 2 weeks + No renewals over phone Late return penalty: £2 per week

A completed application form. 11 …………………………………………….. 12 ……….……………………………………. Two passport photos. 8am-10am 13 ………………………………… 9am-5pm (-6.30 on 14 ………………………..) (Mon-Sat; closed on Sundays) 4 books 15 ……………………………………….. books 16 …………………………. renewals (in person)

Questions 17-20 Label the library layout below. Ground Floor

reception; 17 ………………………………………………… bathrooms; 18 …………………………………………………

First Floor

19 …………………………………………………… section

Second Floor 20 …………………….

Science Section Stack System

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-24 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 21 When will Simon begin writing his essay? …………………………………………………… 22 According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s? …………………………………………………… 23 What is the word limit for the essay? …………………………………………………… IELTS Help Now

463

What is the preferable method for handing in the essay? ……………………………………………………

24

Questions 25-27 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 25 Jennifer wants to write about how …………………………… are used by supermarkets. 26 Jennifer found some publications in the library …………………… to help her anaylysis. 27 The tutor warned Jennifer about …………………………… in her work. Questions 28-30 Complete the tutor's summary notes on Melanie below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Notes on Student Essays Student Melanie needs an 28 …………………………………… as she has been unwell with the flu. She will get a 29 …………………………………… from the doctor. She's going to write about 30 …………………………………… in the UK and their effect on housing trends. She should be on track with the essay by the end of the weekend.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33 Choose the correct letters A-C. 31 The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because ………… it has many faults. A its faults undergo subduction. B its tectonic plates are bigger than elsewhere. C 32

The biggest tsunami are usually created by …………. undersea volcanic eruptions. A undersea earthquakes. B undersea landslides. C

33

Tsunami are difficult to detect in deep water because of ………. their wavelength. A their high speed. B their wave rate. C

Questions 34 and 35 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up to detect tsunami. 34

………………………………………………………………………………………..

35

………………………………………………………………………………………..

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Questions 36-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. TSUNAMI EXAMPLES When Happened

Cause

Deaths Caused

Wave Height

1992

36 …………………..

none

3 feet

1992

Underwater earthquake

none

37 ………………..

1998

38 ………………..

1200

23 feet

1998

Underwater volcanic eruption

3000

40 feet

1896

Underwater earthquake

39 ………………..

35 feet

8000 years ago

Underwater landslide

40 ………………..

30 feet

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465


Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.

BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM Example PASS APPLIED FOR

Answer 1 month

NAME

Nathalie 1 ………………………………………………………

ADDRESS

45 2 ……………………………………………………………… Newlands Adelaide

POSTCODE

3 ……………………………………………………………………

DATE OF BIRTH

13th May 1982

TEL NUMBER

4 ……………………………………………………………………

UNIVERSITY CARD SHOWN

Yes

ZONES REQUIRED

5 ……………………………………………………………………

Questions 6-10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.

Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus 1 The MacDonald Nature Park Outward Journey Leaves Length of Journey Return Journey Leaves Things to do/see Bring

8.00 am 2 hours 6 …………………………………….. Walk nature trails + MacDonald River A camera

2 Pearl Bay Outward Journey Leaves Length of Journey

9.00 am 7 ……………………………………..

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Return Journey Leaves Things to do/see Bring 3 The Huron Gold Mine Outward Journey Leaves Length of Journey Return Journey Leaves Things to do/see Bring

SECTION 2

4.00 pm Walk along 8 …………………… + see view Lie on the beach + swim Swimming gear + a towel

9.30 am Half an hour 9 …………………………………….. Go round the museum and tunnels Find some gold!! 10 ……………………………………..

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-16 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 11

The highest point of the bridge is 134m above …………………………………. .

12

The two pairs of pylons are made of …………………………………. .

13

…………………………… % of the steel for making the bridge came from the UK.

14

800 families from …………………………… homes were moved without compensation to accommodate the construction of the approaches to the bridge.

15

People …………………………… was the main cause of death of workers while constructing the bridge.

16

Three …………………………… were made to mark the opening of the bridge. One is worth several hundred dollars today.

Questions 17-20 Which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true about the Sydney Harbour Bridge today? Choose FOUR letters (A-J) and write them in boxes 17-20 on your answer sheet. A B C D E F G H I J

There are no more trams crossing the bridge. There are eight traffic lanes on the bridge. Trains still cross the bridge People are allowed to walk across the bridge. Buses are allowed to cross the bridge. The Harbour Tunnel has not helped traffic congestion on the bridge. More than 182 000 vehicles cross the bridge daily. Horses can no longer cross the bridge. Bicycles are not allowed to cross the bridge. To go back and forward across the bridge costs $6.

IELTS Help Now

467

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-27 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 21 While waiting for Phil, Mel and Laura were ……………………………………. . 22 A telephone survey was rejected because it would be ……………………………. . 23 A mail survey was rejected because it would …………………………………….. . 24 The best number of people to survey would be …………………………………….. . 25 If their survey only included 100 people, it would not be ………………………… . 26 The number of people that Laura, Phil and Mel agree to survey was………………… . 27 The number of questions in the survey was agreed to be …………………………. . Questions 28-30 Circle THREE letters A-G. What are the three locations that Laura, Phil and Mel chose for their survey? A B C D E F G

The town square The train station The university cafeteria Dobbins department store The corner of the High Street and College Road The bus station The corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Complete the table below by matching the individual with their role (Questions 31-34) in the lecture on the coelacanth. Write the appropriate letters (A-F) on your answer sheet. NB There are more roles than individuals so you will not need to use them all. INDIVIDUAL Dr. J.L.B. Smith

31 ……………………………………….

Marjorie Courtney- Latimer

32 ……………………………………….

Dr. Mark Erdmann

33 ……………………………………….

Captain Goosen

34 ……………………………………….

A B C D E F 468

ROLE

ROLES Paid fishermen for unidentified finds. Caught a strange looking fish. Contacted scientists in Indonesia. Photographed a coelacanth seen by accident. First recognised the coelacanth for what it was. Bought a specimen of a coelacanth in a market IELTS Help Now


The coelacanth was …..….. well known to Indonesian fishermen. A unknown to Indonesian fishermen. B a first in the market C

36

The only difference between the Comoros coelacanth and the Sulawesi coelacanth is ……… their intercranial joint. A their paired fins. B their colour. C

37

Coelacanths seemed to have their greatest population ….…. 360 million years ago. A 240 million years ago. B 80 million years ago. C

38

Modern coelacanths probably left no fossilised remains over the past 80 million years because ……… of too much clay sediment. A conditions where they lived were not favourable for fossilisation. B volcanoes are needed for fossilisation. C

39

Scientists had a better understanding of the coelacanth after 1991 because …….….. the French government had previously limited study on the Comoros coelacanth. A the Comoros were far away and difficult to reach. B the Comoros opened an airport. C

40

On the 1991 expedition, scientist studied the coelacanth ………. only from fishermen's specimens. A through the windows of their submarine. B from diving down. C

IELTS Help Now

469

Collins Practice Tests for IELTS (4 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-5 Complete the details in the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Z-Mobile Services incident Report Sheet Answer

Example Postcode

CN2 1EB

Mobile phone number Name Crime Reference Number 4 ………………….. Mobile Equipment Identity [IMEI] number Time, date of theft

07890 1 ………………………… 570 2 ……………………………… Green CZ- 3 ……………………………-5 Not known 1-2 pm, 16 5 …………………………


The caller's phone was stolen A when he went to the toilet. B from the table. C from his pocket.

7

The caller will have to pay a charge A for a new phone. B if his phone is stolen again. C in 12 months’ time.

8

The delivery address is A 34 Solent Gardens. B 34 Solent House. C 34 Solent Grove.

9

The caller's IMEI number A can be found on the side of the phone battery. B is made up of 15 digits. C cannot be found.

470

Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

10

The operator a transfers the caller to a colleague. b will ring the caller back the next day. c asks the caller to ring back.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-13 Choose THREE letters, A-F. Which THREE things did the presenter say he enjoyed about his holiday? A the food B the weather C the nightlife D the journey E the people he met F His children had a good time.

Questions 14-16 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Which THREE radio shows does the presenter recommend Sally listen to? 14 ……………………………………………………………. 15 …………………………………………………………….. 16 ………………………………………………………………


18

What does John object to? the time of day the programmes are on A the lack of time guests have to answer questions B the interviewers' questions C How does John think the problem could be solved have further live radio shows A put the radio shows on at different times B extend the show on the Internet C

Questions 19-20 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Clive want to hear more of on the radio station?

A B C D E

younger guests music for older people consumer issues for older people older presenters health problems faced by older people Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

471

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


PRESENTATION INFORMATION Day

21 ………………………………

Subject

22 ………………………………

Length

23 ……………………………….

Technical equipment needed

24 ………………………………

Location

25 ………………………………

Questions 26-30 Which person is responsible for the following tasks? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30. NB

You may use any letter more than once.

26

introduce and end the talk

27

talk about the historical perspective

28

talk about the contemporary situation

29

book the technical equipment

30

build the presentation

SECTION 4

A

Simon

B

Kelly

C

Fiona

Questions 31-40


472

The speaker thinks A university is a similar experience to school or college. B students need more tutor support at university. C a lot of students have difficulties at university.


32

Which chart, A, B or C, shows the degree of poor time management skills amongst male and female students?

33

The speaker thinks it's important that A the academic planner is kept safe somewhere. B the academic planner is put somewhere it can be seen easily. C students remember to collect their academic planner.

34

When filling in the academic planner students should A ignore non-academic occasions. B try to keep visits home to a minimum. C add all important academic and non-academic dates.

35

Initially, the academic planner will A give the wrong impression about the amount of work there is. B show some days are busier than others. C give a clear idea of busy periods.

36

According to the tutor, students should organise their studies A so that they have time for coffee breaks. B so that they don't miss any seminars or lectures. C as if it were a normal working day.

37

The tutor makes the point that A cookery students do well when writing essays. B cooking and essay writing share certain characteristics. C cooking is a complicated process. Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

473

Questions 38-40 Choose THREE letters, A-E. Which THREE things does the tutor recommend?

A B C D E F

474

When planning self-study, note the time you should spend studying. Break tasks down into individual stages. Avoid working in the evenings. Put time aside for favourite TV programmes. Do household tasks at regular times. Avoid the library if your friends are there.



Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example Seb's course looks like it will be A B

too difficult too easy. enjoyable.

1

Some of Lydia's classmates A are going into town later. B have already been into town. C haven’t got time to go out.

2

Seb says he A is cooking a meal for his host family. B doesn’t think he'll want to eat in town. C has already eaten.

3

Lydia's teacher A has asked her to do some shopping. B advised her not to stay out late. C told her the shops stay open longer that evening.


YOUR HOST FAMILY DETAILS Your host family are Mr and Mrs Andrews. Address Bus service Local landmarks Telephone number

4 ……………………………….. Mayweather Road, Coldfield Number 5 …………………………………. The house is opposite the 6 ………………………… . 01764 7…………………………


475


Lydia needs to find A a stationer's. B a grocer's. C a chemist's.

Questions 9-10 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 9 10

Seb is looking for a ……………………………………… . They both have a voucher for the ………………………………….. in the city library.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


The self-access centre is always available. A is generally quiet. B gets busy during exams. C

12

The Internet PCs should be used for no more than half an hour. A must not be used to access Facebook. B are generally used to study English. C

13

Usernames and passwords are created by the teachers. A are issued during induction. B are created by students. C

14

The help desk is staffed by technicians. A offers language support. B is only open when two members of staff are available. C

15

Photocopying of reference books is not allowed. A is done by teachers. B has a small cost. C

16

The high-spec PCs can be used to browse the Internet. A are available for word processing. B may need a CD-ROM. C

476


Questions 17-20 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 17 18 19 20

Students can purchase a ……………………….…. from the help desk. The graded readers can be borrowed for a maximum of ………………………………. . The centre opens at 8.30 and closes at …………………………., Monday to Friday. On occasions the room is ………………………… by a teacher and might not be available.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Jacob says that he needs to do more research. A he read widely before writing the draft. B he isn’t confident about his main points. C

22

The tutor thinks Jacob has presented both sides of the argument well. A needs to do more work on the content. B has organised the essay very well. C

23

The ideas Jacob expresses in the essay should be re-ordered. A are poorly presented. B don’t make sense. C

24

The tutor suggests that Jacob look at the use of paragraphs in other pieces of writing. A read one or two textbooks on writing skills. B read widely to develop his vocabulary. C

Questions 25-27 Complete the tutor's notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Very natural use of 25 ………………………………….. . Well done! Try using higher level 26 ………………………………….. in your essays. The sentences are sometimes too 27 …………………………………………… . Questions 28-30 Choose THREE letters, A-F. What does the tutor suggest? A Try some worksheets to practise format writing. B Check spelling carefully. Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

477

C D E F

Use more advanced vocabulary. Buy a thesaurus. Use some of the synonyms the tutor has suggested. Find alternative words to those that are underlined.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 31 Work experience is required A to get a professional job. B to do a postgraduate degree. C to join an undergraduate course. 32

Graduates on placements A develop skills employers require. B are transferred to various posts. C should avoid making too many demands on employers.

33

Placements can offer the opportunity A to make an impact on the working environment. B to get to know important people in the area of work. C to meet new and interesting people.

34

Placements can lead to A future employment with the same organisation. B a better class of postgraduate degree. C greater influence with large organisations.

Questions 35-37 Choose THREE letters, A-E. Students on placements could

A B C D E

help improve the quality of research within the organisation. support people receiving long-term treatment following serious injury. run counselling sessions. have the chance to offer feedback on counselling sessions they attend. contribute to teacher-development programmes.

Questions 38-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. It is the responsibility of the student 38 ……………………….. an interview. It is 39 …………………………. to have a CRB check when working with certain clients. Forms for the CRB check can be obtained from 40 ……………………………… .

478



Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-4 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example Model

Answer

Registration Current mileage Estimated yearly mileage Overnight parking Cover No claims bonus

3R1 1 ………………………….. 2 ……………………………… miles 6,000 a year 3 ………………………………. Third party 4 …………………………… 6 years

Ford Fiesta

Questions 5-7 Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which additional cover does Liam want?

A B C D E F G

Legal 14-day cover courtesy car Driver injury Protected no claims bonus Breakdown Lost car key Windscreen

Questions 8-10 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Name Address Postcode Date of birth Telephone Payment by Card number Security number How did the customer hear about Hartline?

Liam Byrd 35 Bottiville Crescent, Birmingham 8 ……………………………… 11/11/1969 0121 677 9887 9 …………………………. **** **** **** 1551 *** 10 …………………………… Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

479

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 11 12 13 14

Every year more than ………………………….. people try to climb Mont Blanc. Approximately ……………………………. reach the top every day in the summer months. In July 2007 there were 30 fatalities, chiefly due to …………………………………….. . One danger is ……………………….. caused by other climbers.


How did Katherine do her most recent climb? in a group A with a guide B on her own C

16

Why did Katherine find her first climb of Mont Blanc difficult? because of poor weather conditions A because of the time she was climbing B because the route was crowded C

17

What did Katherine do on her second climb that made it easier? She spent a few days in Chamonix beforehand. A She did the climb over two days. B She climbed smaller peaks for training. C

Questions 18-20 Choose THREE letters, A-F. What has experience taught Katherine about climbing Mont Blanc?

A B C D E F

Be in good physical condition. Have the right climbing equipment. Wear several layers of clothing. Protect yourself from the sun. Climb with others. Acclimatise yourself to the altitude first.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


480

When do Elaine and Adam decide to meet for revision? ………………………………………………………………………………………………… Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

22 23

What item does Adam think will help them work independently on revision? ………………………………………………………………………………………………… How does Elaine suggest they spend their revision time between meetings? …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

Questions 24-28 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 24 25 26 27 28

It's best to avoid taking notes ………………………………….. . Relate …………………………………….. to key theories and arguments. Using diagrams can help keep a lot of information ………………………………….. . Bullet points can enable you to highlight …………………………………………. . Keep a record of your sources, such as the ………………………………………. .


In future revision sessions Adam suggests using past papers to try to predict future exam questions. A to test each other. B to discuss the questions. C

30

Elaine suggests adding essay practice to the timetable. A doing essays under exam conditions. B asking a tutor to mark their essays. C

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


According to the text, shared space is very popular in the Netherlands. A reduces the number of cars in an area. B improves the dynamic between drivers and pedestrians. C

32

Shared space design results in fewer road signs. A stronger boundaries between pedestrians and motorists. B increased local employment. C

33

Supporters of shared space argue that it leads to new businesses opening. A makes people happier to shop in the area. B encourages wildlife. C


481

Questions 34-37 Match the groups A-D with their concerns about shared space 34-37.

A B C D 34 35 36 37

Motorists Blind people Cyclists Supporters of shared space

Insufficient experience amongst planners A lack of important signage Intimidation by motorists The loss of familiar street furniture

Questions 38-39 Choose TWO letters, A-D. People will be able to answer the questions A on the Internet. B at the local library. C at the proposed site. D at home. Question 40 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Questions must be designed so that they do not reflect the views of the campaign group. A do not require an understanding of shared space. B are easy to answer. C

482



Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example The customer is going to France for

Answer

1 week

Traveller's cheques can be replaced within 1 ………………………………… . Having a little cash is useful for things like 2 ……………………………….… . The bank charges for ATM withdrawals with a 3 …………………………... .

Questions 4-7 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Order Monday-Thursday 4 Before ……………. p.m. Friday-Saturday 6 ………………………

Collect in branch Next day 10 a.m. Tuesday 10 a.m.

Home delivery Next day 5 …………. p.m. Tuesday 7 ………………. p.m.


The bank will buy back unused traveller's cheques free of charge. A for a small fee. B if they are returned in good condition. C

9

Sandra does not want Euros because she already has some. A will be given some. B will be buying some at the airport. C

10

On Tuesday Sandra will collect the cheques from the branch. A be at work. B sign for the cheques at home. C Collins Practice Tests for IELTS

483

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


NUS extra cards are offered free to all students. A are recognised internationally. B give you a year's-worth of discounts. C


Student Railcards For young people between 16 and 25 Mature students 25+ studying 12 ………………………….. Get 13 …………………………. train fares in the UK Discounts for theatre tickets and 14 ……………………… 1 year £28 3 years 15 …………………………………….. Questions 16-17 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Local bus operators offer bus passes

A B C D E

especially for students. for various lengths of time. that are cheaper the longer the period. for use only for commuting. that can be used by your friends.

Questions 18-20 Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 18-20. Which places are useful for the following?

484

18

The university campus

A Household items

19

Charity shops

B Vintage clothes

20

Car boot sales

C Second-hand textbooks


SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Autumn term: Key dates Term starts

15th September

Release timetables

15th September

Release 21 …………………………….

14th October

All assignments online

by 22 ……………………

Release grades for first assignment

23 ………………………

Release 24 ………………………… for Belgium trip

29th October

Belgium trip

25 …………………………


The college is trying to significantly reduce the amount of paper it uses. A be careful about the amount of documents it produces. B discover why students keep losing their work. C

27

According to the text, students at the college are not allowed to print documents. A have restrictions on how many pages they can print. B have to pay to do any printing. C

28

The college has permission to reproduce the quizzes. A wants the students to give them feedback about the quizzes. B thinks the online quizzes are more effective than the paper ones. C

29

The tutor explains that the quizzes are easy to find on the intranet. A the quizzes will be online for a few weeks only. B the majority of the quizzes are online. C

30

The online quiz system occasionally doesn’t work. A keeps the quiz results confidential. B allows tutors to identify areas where the students may be having difficulties. C


485

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 31 32 33 34

…………………………….. times are less common within the family. We may eat more than we need due to our …………………………………….. . Eating habits can be affected by both ………………………………… emotions. People who are …………………………. are more likely to eat more due to negative emotions.

Questions 35-39 Answer the questions below. Which type of hunger relates to the points below? Write E for emotional hunger. Write P for physical hunger. 35 Experiences a sudden urge to eat 36 Hungers for any type of food 37 Needs to satisfy the hunger as soon as possible 38 Will stop eating once full 39 Will feel no sense of guilt after eating Question 40 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 40

486

People suffering from obesity can be helped by taking the pressure off them about feeling guilty. A understanding why they have negative feelings. B pinpointing stressful moments that can cause emotional hunger. C


IELTS for Academic Purposes (6 Tests)

Test 1 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Example: Mr Thomson has just been writing reports on the pupils. reading about the pupils' progress. B speaking to a class of pupils. C 1

The camping trip will be held the following month. A from the 24th to the 26th. B over a five-day period. C

2

Jamie's complaint about last year's trip was that the camp wasn't big enough. A he was unhappy while at the camp. B he had problems finding the camp. C

3

The campsite is located in the Lake District. A in Carlisle. B beside Lake Brant. C

4

Jamie thinks the forests will be good for children who are used to nature. A live in cities. B like sports. C

5

Each child will pay less than £4 a night. A approximately £5. B more than £10. C


After they arrive, the children will have a ……………………….. at 8 o'clock.

IELTS for Academic Purposes

487

7

On Saturday morning the children will get up at ……………………….. .

8

During the 'talk back' session the children can ……………………….. .

9

On Sunday the children will go on a day trip to visit ……………………….. .

10

At 6 o'clock on Sunday the children will be on the ……………………….. .

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20


The man is the ……………………….. of Student Services at Radstock.

12

The ……………………….. are all enrolled as students at the university.

13

The student discount cards allow students to save up to …………………………….. per cent when eating out.

14

Students interested in joining a club can sign up on weekdays between ……………… o'clock.

15

The man advises the students to ……………………….. and enjoy themselves.

Questions 16-20 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 16

What kind of difficulties might people experience? ______________________________________________________

17

What is the first problem that the man mentions? ______________________________________________________

18

How often do drop-in sessions take place? ______________________________________________________

19

How long do drop-in sessions usually last for? ______________________________________________________

20

Who runs the workshops on personal development? ______________________________________________________

488


SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Simon's main problem is that he disagrees with some of the sources. A can't find some of the sources. B doesn’t know what sources to read. C

22

Which author has Simon found most useful? Whitaker A Johnson B Bradman C


HISTORY OF SCIENTIFIC METHOD Era

Location

Details

Early 1600s BC

Egypt, Babylon

Use of examination, 23 ……. , treatment and prognosis.

5th century BC

Ancient Greece

Widespread, although many still believed in the power of 24 ………….. ; Plato was influential.

Middle Ages, before

Muslim world

Stress on experimentation.

25 …………….


489

Questions 26-30 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer.

STEPS IN THE SCIENTIFIC METHOD Identify the 26 …………..

Form a hypothesis

Create an experiment

Perform an experiment

27 ………….. the data Yes

Is our data 28 …….. or the experiment flawed?

No

30 ………. the results

SECTION 4

Yes

29 ……………. the experiment

No

Questions 31-40


In which part of London is the Tate Modern? ______________________________________________

32

What did the building the Tate Modern is in use to be? ______________________________________________

33

Work by whom is displayed on level 2 of the Tate Modern? ______________________________________________

490


Questions 34-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.  Tate St. Ives

Location: Cornwall Built on site of: 34 ………………………….. Housed in: 35 ……………………………….. Opening date: 1993 Exhibits: 36 ……………………….., including St Ives School  Tate Britain Location: Westminster Opening date: 37 ………………………………….. Built on site of: old prison Founder: Sir Henry Tate Exhibits: 38 ………………………. and modern art  Tate Liverpool Opening date: 1988 Exhibits: displays from Tate Collection and 39 …………………………………… Housed in: 40 ………………………………………….


491


Test 2 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-3 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Example: How did peter and Joan last communicate with each other? on the phone

1

What is going to be closed down? ______________________________________________

2

What does Peter want to organise? ______________________________________________

3

What does Joan suggest they get people to do? ______________________________________________

Questions 4-6 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Which of the following might they need? 4 an orchestra A a caterer B a telephonist C 5

Where will they probably hold the meeting? the youth club A somebody's living room B the village hall C

6

When do they decide to hold the meeting? They haven’t decided yet. A at the weekend B some time during the week C

Question 7-10 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Dr Perkins is the best person to describe the …………………… at the clinic. 7

492


8

Joan often meets Mr Sims' wife ……………….. .

9

The editor of the newspaper might let them advertise ……………….. .

10

……………….. will be needed to go from door to door posting leaflets.

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-14 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 What can visitors use free of charge? pushchairs A child carriers B coats and bags C 12

Which of the following can visitors buy at the shop? coins A refreshments B postcards C

13

When did the Grand Opening of the baths occur? 1894 A 1897 B 1994 C

14

The Romans built on the site after the Celts. A before the Celts. B at the same time as the Celts. C

Questions 15-20 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. The Great Bath is 15 ……………… deep. Around the bath area are alcoves where there were 16 …………………… and tables where bathers could relax. The water temperature of the Sacred Spring is 17 …………………… . The water is rich in 18 …………………… . In Roman times, the Sacred spring was well-known for its 19 ……………… . The Temple was constructed between 20 …………………… AD.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-25 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 21 What is John researching? ______________________________________________ IELTS for Academic Purposes

493

22

Apart from pollution, what would John like to see reduced? ______________________________________________

23

According to John's tutor, what can cars sometimes act as? ______________________________________________

24

How much does John's tutor pay to drive into London? ______________________________________________

25

In Singapore, what do car owners use to pay their road tax? ______________________________________________


In Athens, cars can only enter the city centre on ……………………………. .

27

'BRT' stands for ‘bus …………………………’.

28

In London, after a new road tax was introduced, moped and bicycle use increased by ………………………… .

29

Both Japan and Holland provide ……………………. for those cycling to train stations.

30

In the USA, police officers on bikes make more ……………………………. than those in patrol cars.

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-34 Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 31

The lecture is intended mainly for those entering the ………………………., but is relevant to all students present.

32

The lecturer believes that too ……………………….. a specialisation can be damaging.

33

The number of …………………………. who were also writers is surprising.

34

The speaker believes that literature provides a ………………………….. which medical schools do not.

494


Questions 35-40 What is said about each of these books? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 35-40. A

It conveys the thrill of scientific discovery.

B

It is of interest to any natural historian.

C

This is a classic of scientific writing.

D

It is about the life of a scientist.

E

This book is now sometimes used in schools.

F

This is also a good travel book.

G

This book examines the dark side of human nature.

H

This book was a response to another book.

35

A Short History of Nearly Everything

…………………..

36

Wonderful Life

…………………..

37

The Rise and Fall of the Third Chimpanzee

…………………..

38

The Water Babies

…………………..

39

The Emperor of Scent

…………………..

40

On The Origin of Species

…………………..


495


Test 3 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1-8 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Five-Star Caterers Customer Booking Form Example Event:

party

Customer name:

Mr 1 ………………..


2 ……………………

Telephone number after 5 pm:

As above (If no one answers, 3 ……………………)

Number of guests:

4 ……………………

Date:

5 ……………………

Seating

Shape:

6 ……………………

Size:

7 ……………………

Number of tables:

8 ……………………


The man decides to book a three-course meal. A a buffet. B a banquet. C

10

The man will have to pay £750 tomorrow. A £100 per head. B £1,500 on the day of the party. C

496


SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-17 According to the speaker, when did the following happen? Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to Questions 11-17.

A

before 1837

B

between 1837 and 1900

C

after 1900

11

The East Front was added to the building.

……………………

12

The last big structural change was made.

……………………

13

The building was bombed.

……………………

14

The building became a palace.

……………………

15

The building was known as The Queen's House.

……………………

16

The Houses of Parliament were destroyed by fire.

……………………

17

The Marble Arch was moved.

……………………


Up to …………………… people attend garden parties at the palace each year.

19

The garden contains more than …………………… species of wild flower.

20

The public can visit the nineteen …………………… in August or September.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


What aspect of history is it important to learn something from? ______________________________________________

22

What do we also need to know about our ancestors? ______________________________________________ IELTS for Academic Purposes

497

23

Where are transferable skills useful? ______________________________________________

24

What kind of approach to learning does social science use? ______________________________________________

Questions 25-30 What is said about each of these subjects studied on a social studies course? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-H next to questions 25-30. A

This will focus on how each generation learns about its own culture.

B

This necessarily includes a study of physics and chemistry.

C

This is studied from the point of view of human behavior.

D

This will only be covered in terms of its theory.

E

This also covers the distribution of wealth.

F

This includes the study of archaeology.

G

This has received criticism for not being scientific enough.

H

This includes some work on urban planning.

25

Anthropology

…………………..

26

Economics

…………………..

27

Education

…………………..

28

Geography

…………………..

29

Law

…………………..

30

Sociology and social work

…………………..

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


Students should complete their work on the 1950s A if they want to be allowed to continue attending lectures. B because they will appreciate the information about the 1960s more. C otherwise they face the possibility of being failed for their coursework.

32

According to the lecturer, the ‘baby boom’ happened A because of relaxed attitudes in the sixties. B during a time of war. C because people felt more secure.

498


33

In the sixties, the USA had 70 million A teenagers. B babies. C adults.

34

According to the lecturer, compared to the 1950s, the 1960s were A less conservative. B more conservative. C just as conservative.

35

According to the lecturer, literature changed the way women A over 40 were treated by society. B viewed issues of race in society. C felt about their roles in society.

36

The rate of crime in the sixties A rose nine per cent during the decade. B was nine times higher than in the fifties. C was nine times lower than in the fifties.

37

What happened at the start of the 1960s? A the first heart transplant B the introduction of the internet C the invention of lasers

Questions 38-40 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. In October, 1962, US President Kennedy met advisers to discuss 38 …………….. which proved that the Cubans were installing nuclear missiles, presumably to use against the US. Kennedy was faced with three choices: to try to resolve the crisis diplomatically; to block the delivery of further weapons into Cuba, or to attack Cuba. Kennedy chose 39 ………………… option, which prevented the build-up of more missiles and led to the withdrawal of the existing ones. Most are agreed that a 40 ………………….. was narrowly avoided by Kennedy's decision.


499


Test 4 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10


Example Name

Maria Dominguez

Present address: 1 ……………………, Pine Tree Terrace, Westcliff Currently lives with 2 …………………… other people First time Maria has lived 3 …………………… Journey time to the university: 4 ……………………

Questions 5 and 6 Which TWO things are causing problems for Maria? Choose TWO letters A-F.

A

the distance from the university

B

the bad behaviour of the girls

C

that she has little space at home

D

that it's boring where she lives

E

that there are mice in the house

F

that the landlady is forgetful


Where does the adviser suggest Maria could check to find accommodation? ______________________________________________

500


8

In which college is there a space to share a room? ______________________________________________

9

Which subject is Maria going to change to? ______________________________________________

10

When will Maria return to the accommodation office? ______________________________________________

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 Steve Penfold did voluntary service before university. A during university. B after university. C 12

Steve had to pay for his travel. A his accommodation. B his day-to-day expenses. C

13

Where did the charity organisation want to send Steve at first? Trinidad A India B Tobago C

14

What does Steve say about the population of Trinidad? There are more people of Indian descent than African. A The majority are descendants of slaves. B There are several different ethnic groups. C

15

Steve says that some language terms in Trinidad are not connected to the English language. A have meanings that have a local origin. B are from other carnivals around the world. C

Questions 16 and 17 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 16 How much money does the best carnival group get? ______________________________________________ 17

Where did Steve take the children camping? ______________________________________________ IELTS for Academic Purposes

501

Questions 18-20 What does Steve say about his time in the Caribbean? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-F next to Questions 18-20. A

were of varying types

B

express various emotions

C

had a connection with dolphins

D

showed respect

E

had many problems

F

try to help people

18

The students

…………………..

19

The Samaritans

…………………..

20

The festivals

…………………..

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


The students are meeting to A organise a party. B answer questions about a course. C decide on their studies.

22

Sonia and Mattheus A agree the teacher was flexible. B disagree about their teacher's flexibility. C didn’t like all of the discussions they had.

23

The college offered A only morning classes. B only evening classes. C both morning and evening classes.

24

Sonia A liked all the books. B liked only one of the books. C didn’t like any of the books.

25

Sonia and Matthaeus A want to study literature. B have different plans for their careers. C are both interested in psychology.

502


26

Which of these was a problem with the campus library? A Books were not always available. B The people working there were unhelpful. C There were not enough computers.

Questions 27-30 Label the plan below. Choose FOUR answers from the box below and write the correct letter A-H next to Questions 27-30. A reference B

photocopy room

C

literature

D

management

E

periodicals

F

new publications

G

SECTION 4

G

toilets

H

computer studies

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C. 31

The speaker says A rounders is the most popular Irish sport. B Gaelic handball is thousands of years old. C hurling may have been an ancient Celtic game.


503

32

The speaker probably A used to play hurling. B shows the students a photo. C can’t speak any Gaelic.

33

In hurling, you cannot score by A hitting the ball over the net. B hitting the ball into the net. C kicking the ball into or over the net.

Questions 34-37 When did the following take place? A in the 20th century B

in the 19th century

C

in the 18th century

Write the correct letter A, B, or C next to Questions 34-37. 34

Hurling experienced a golden age.

…………………..

35

A university established a set of rules.

…………………..

36

The Gaelic Athletics Association was started.

…………………..

37

The All Ireland Hurling Championship began.

…………………..


……………………………….. has a national hurling team.

39

Gaelic football is like a mixture of the sports of …………………….. .

40

Women play the game for a ………………………. time.

504



Test 5 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

COMPLAINT RECORD FORM Example Name:

Susan Yorke

Address:

Flat 1 1 …………………….. Harchester HA6 5LD


0781 233 452

Purchase reference number:

2 …………………….. 8443

Date of purchase:

15th January

Item description:

Aqua Powershot digital camera in a 3 …………………….. colour

Insurance?

Yes, has a 4 …………………….. policy

Details of complaint:

5 …………………….. missing should be 6 …………………….. but isn’t 7 ……………….. on case

Action to be taken:

If repair not possible, offered to provide a 8 …………………., but customer requests a 9 …………………….. Asked customer to send item to 10 ……………………..


505

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11-15 Match the places. Write the correct letter A-H next to the Questions 11-15.

BESTLEY CASTLE AND GROUNDS

11 12 13 14 15

tourist information car park museum picnic area gift shop

…………………….. …………………….. …………………….. …………………….. ……………………..

Questions 16-18 Which THREE activities or events do you need to pay to get in? Choose THREE letters A-F. museum A castle B fireworks C gardens D rock concert E jazz concert F Questions 19 and 20 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUBER for each answer. 19 How often is the charity event held? ______________________________________________ 20

Who does Age Concern help? ______________________________________________

506


SECTION 3

Questions 21-30


Before giving his presentation, Paul is worried about A choosing what information to use. B not remembering what to say. C organising the projection equipment.

22

Paul's friends advise him not to A speak about popular periods. B talk at length about art history. C speak too quickly in the presentation.

23

Why does Paul like the idea of the timeline? A It will be visually pleasing. B It will save some time. C It will keep him focused.

24

Paul is going to show famous works of art to A show people that he has good taste. B make people think about what counts as art. C prove that modern art isn’t as good as classic art.

25

Paul wants his presentations to A change personal opinions. B create a big fight. C start an exciting debate.

26

What does Isabel say about modern artists? A They are skilful. B They paint like children. C They have a sense of freedom.

Questions 27-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. TIPS TO FIND PICTURES 

go to fine art section in 27 ……………..



ask 28 …………….. for access to slide bank



if not, use the 29 ………………………………



find pictures using a 30 …………………………… IELTS for Academic Purposes

507

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Questions 31-36 Complete the diagram below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 37-40 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 37 Technology has made communication easier, encouraging the use of a ………………………. . 38

Some speakers may associate major languages with better ……………………………… .

39

A group of people can lose their ………………….. when their language becomes extinct.

40

We can help preserve languages through specific programmes and by encouraging people to become …………………………………… .

508



Test 6 SECTION 1

Questions 1-10

Questions 1 and 2 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example The caller works as a teacher. 1

There will be ……………………. passengers on the coach.

2

The students leave the school ……………………. .


Example Company name:

Burnham Coaches

Name of Client:

3 …………………….

Address:

Down Language School Down House 4 ……………………. Brighton

Contact number

5 ……………………. to be contacted on 01273 512634

Pick-up time:

6 …………………….

Return time:

7 …………………….

Purpose of Hire:

Visit to Stonehenge and 8 …………………….


509


What does the cost of hiring the coach include? ______________________________________________

10

Who does the customer have to speak to before confirming the booking? ______________________________________________

SECTION 2

Questions 11-20

Questions 11 and 12 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 11

Sally Jackson is a university lecturer. A a university student. B a secretary at the university. C

12

What does Sally say about bank accounts? You are obliged to open a new one at the university. A The matter should be discussed with the Director of Studies. B Some students may not have to worry about opening one. C

Question 13-17 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Day

510

Event

Time

Notes Tour of campus Sessions to develop 13 ………………… Visits to 14 ………………… and Ghost walk

Monday-Friday

Orientation & Welfare

10 am

Monday-Friday

Tour of Upton

5 pm

Monday

Academic Fair

1 pm

Talk to students and 15 …………………

Tuesday

Societies Fair

1 pm

More than 16 …………… societies and sports clubs

Wednesday

17 ……………

2-5 pm

Lots of bargains and free gifts


Questions 18-20 Which THREE statements are true about the entertainment programme? Choose THREE letters A-F. A Sally cannot reveal the name of the band for the first party. B Students can bring a guest to the opening party. C There will be a concert in the Cotswold Theatre on Monday. D There is an important event on Thursday. E There is no formal dress code for the Freshers' Ball. F

Students should check the notice board for changes to the announced programme.

SECTION 3

Questions 21-30

Questions 21-23 Which THREE symptoms of compulsive eating disorder are mentioned? Choose THREE letters A-F. A B C D E F

overeating excess weight weight loss constant hunger depression continuous eating

Questions 24-28 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

COMPULSIVE EATING DISORDER Illness starts with 24 ……………………..

Patient 25 ………………………. of food intake

Patient begins to feel 26 ……………… by behaviour

Patient goes on 27 ……………………..

Patient starts 28 ……………………..


511

Questions 29 and 30 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 29

What disease can sufferers of compulsive eating disorder develop? ____________________________

30

Which organisation offers help to people suffering from compulsive eating disorder? _____________________________

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40


What does the speaker say about newspapers? A They never report developments in science accurately. B He became interested in his subject because of a newspaper report. C They only report developments in renewable energy technology.

32

What significant event took place in 1956? A Scientists discovered a new source of energy. B A new type of power station came into service. C Helium was first produced from hydrogen.

33

What does the speaker consider to be the main problem with nuclear fusion? A Irresponsible scientists make false claims on the subject. B It takes too long to produce the required reaction. C The reaction has not produced usable quantities of energy.

Questions 34 and 35 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBR for each answer. 34

Temperatures of at least ………………………. degrees are needed for fusion to take place.

35

Creating the pressure required in a …………………………….. is a major technological problem.

Questions 36-40 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. In order for nuclear fusion to produce useful quantities of energy, isotopes of hydrogen must be brought together at extremely high temperatures and pressures. A number of 36 ………………………… will suspend the fuel so that is does not come into contact with the 512


sides of the 37 ……………………………. . Another one will raise the temperature of the fuel pellet to that required to start the 38 ………………….………… . Extra energy released in this process will be used to produce 39 ………………..…………… that can be used to generate electricity. It is believed that the amount of energy that can be produced from 40 ………………..…..…….. of fusion fuel is equivalent to that which can be produced from 10,000 tonnes of fossil fuel.


513

ANSWER KEYS

514

ANSWER KEYS

Cambridge IELTS 1 TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A 2 C 3 D 4 D 5 C 6 Prescott (must be correct spelling with capital 'P') 7 41 8 Fountain (must have capital 'F') 9 752239 10 £65 Section 2, Questions 11-21 11-13 IN ANY ORDER E F H 14 $250 million 15 roads / road system 16 too late 17 school children /boys 18 3 19 boats / pleasure craft / boats and pleasure craft 20 pilot 21 (musical) instruments Section 3, Questions 22-31 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 talk / give a talk 27 write up work 28 can choose 29 open book 30 closed reserve 31 vocational (subjects) / (preparing for) work / employment Section 4, Questions 32-41 32 B 33 C 34 history and economics 35 (meeting) deadlines (for essays) 36 attendance 37 B 38 C 39 B 40 D 41 A

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 student accommodation/hostel 2 awful food 3 not friendly / kept to themselves (do not accept 'lonely') 4 lecturers (too) busy 5 regular meetings / meetings with lecturers / fortnightly meetings 6 family / homestay 7 lot of noise / children made noise / difficult to study 8 student house 9 (Bachelor of) Computing 10 reserve computer time Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 mountain 12 quality 13 $2,000 14 short / casual rides 15 town riding / shopping 16 serious touring 17 similar / almost the same 18 better quality (components) 19 buying clothes 20 frame Section 3, Questions 21-32 21 B 22 C 23 D 24 B 25 one bunch 26 15 months 27 uphill / on hillsides 28 lots of / plenty of water 29 plastic bags 30 bananas/ones (to) ripen 31 C either way round 32 D Section 4, Questions 33-41 33 B 34 D 35 C 36 cooking 37 (regular) daily intake 38 (a) variety 39 the dark / the fridge / a cool place / a dark place 40 eat in moderation / not too much 41 eat lots / eat most

Section 1, Questions 1-12 1 B 2 D 3 C 4 A 5 Richard Lee (must have correct spelling of 'Lee' and capitals) 6 30 Enmore Road (must have correct spelling and capitals) 7 Newport (must have correct spelling and capital 'N') 8 Architecture 9 LJX 058K 10 Ford 11 C 12 (on the) (front) window/windscreen Section 2, Questions 13-23 13 November 1991 14 (historic) ships 15 green arrows 16 information desk 17 stairs to climb / lots of stairs 18 every hour 19 Captain Cook 20 the sea 21 Australian artists/painters 22 $70 23 souvenirs Section 3, Questions 24-32 24 B 25 C 26 D 27 A 28 law has changed / law changes / changes in law 29 (powerful) computer programs 30 from home (computer) 31 hotels/hotel beds/rooms 32 hire cars Section 4, Questions 33-42 33 displays / products / displays and products 34 (hidden) TV cameras 35 recorder / recording 36 'Spaceman' 37 position / shelf / spot / place 38 walk (straight/right) past / ignore / pass 39 at eye level/near customers’ eyes 40 hotspots 41 special offers 42 chocolates

ANSWER KEYS

515

Cambridge IELTS 1 TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-12 1 C 2 A 3 B 4 D 5 D 6 Julia Perkins (must be correct spelling with capital letters) 7 15 Waratah Road (must be correct spelling of Waratah with capital letter) 8 Brisbane (must have capital letter) 9 to be advised / not connected / no phone / none (blank not acceptable) 10 first year Law (must have all three words) 11 C 12 D Section 2, Questions 13-21 13 Hope Street (must have capitals) 14 evidence 15 passport 16 current/student (account) 17 chequebook 18 withdraw / draw (out) / take out 19 directly from / right out of 20 permission of/from bank 21 4.30 pm or/to 5 pm Section 3, Questions 22-31 22 300 million 23 paper clips 24 magazine pages / pieces of paper / pages 25 three times 26 thicker 27 label 28 (a) dome 29 flange (correct spelling) 30 25% 31 scored opening Section 4, Questions 32-42 32 a university lecture 33 Sports Studies (programme) 34 management 35 top athletes 36 makes winners / makes them / people win 37 market forces 38 (other) leisure activities 39 entertainment / to be entertained 40 exercise science 41 fitness testing / body measurements 42 cellular research / cellular change / body cells

516

ANSWER KEYS


TEST 2

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Black 2 2085 3 9456 1309 4 2020BD 5 July 6-8 IN ANY ORDER B D F 9 $25/twenty-five dollars (refundable) 10 next week / in a week / in one week / the following week Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 route book 12 900/nine hundred miles NOT 900 13 North/ N Africa NOT Africa 14 A 15 C 16-18 IN ANY ORDER B C E 19 & 20 IN EITHER ORDER B D Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (on) Friday 22 Biology 23 57/fifty-seven (books) 24 43/forty-three (books) 25 Wed / Wednesday NOT the day after 26 (she) record(s) them/lectures / she use(s) a (tape/cassette) recorder / recording 27 skimming / (he) skims (books)/(a book) / skim (the) book first / skim reading 28 (The) French Revolution 29 Why study history (?) 30 animal language / (the) language of animal NOT language Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 4/four-month certificate / cert (course) 32 (current) employment / job 33 1/one-year diploma ACCEPT dyploma 34 none / no (prior) qualifications / quals 35 6/six-month certificate / cert (course) 36 C 37 F 38 B 39 G 40 D

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 A 3 fridge/refrigerator 4 stereo (system) 5 books 6 ($/dollars) 184 NOT per month / monthly 7 Murray 8 16C 9 South Hills 10 English / British Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 north / N 13 (2nd/second) floor (number) 14 room (number) 15 8 pm (and 7 am) 16 (the) fire/emergency doors 17 laundry / washing 18 (the) balconies ACCEPT balconys 19 meal times 20 (elected) floor senior(s) Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 newspaper(s) 22 map(s) 23 radio(s) 24 television / TV 25 computer(s) 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 training 33 technology ACCEPT tecknology / teknology 34 cool (and) wet (both for one mark) 35 wool (and) timber (both for one mark) 36 fertile soil(s)/land/earth/ground 37 (high quality) vegetables/vegs 38 warm (and) wet (both for one mark) 39 800 / eight hundred 40 B

TEST 3 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 C 3 A 4 B 5 both required for one mark, either order AE 6 both required for one mark, either order AC 7 both required for one mark, either order CE 8 B 9 C 10 B Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-14 IN ANY ORDER A C E G 15 & 16 IN EITHER ORDER B E 17 C 18 A 19 A 20 B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 21 May or acceptable alternatives 22 18,000-20,000 / 18-20,000 must have both numbers (or in words) 23 research methods NOT research 24 (draft) plan 25 (do/carry out/conduct) research 26 March (to) May (both for one mark) 27 A 28 A 29 C 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 B 35 B 36 C 37 A 38-40 IN ANY ORDER B D E

ANSWER KEYS

517

Cambridge IELTS 2 TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10

1 16 Rose Lane 2 27(th) June or acceptable alternatives 3 door broken / broken door 4 C 5 no locks (on them) / need locks 6 bathroom light 7 A 8 kitchen curtains 9 B 10 1 (pm) (and) 5 (pm) Section 2, Questions 11-20

11 B 12 C 13 waterfall(s) / water fall(s) / waterfall(s) 14 eleven/11.00/11(am) 15 Spotlight (tour) 16-18 IN ANY ORDER walking boots socks long trousers 19-20 IN EITHER ORDER (venomous/poisonous) snakes (certain) plants Section 3, Questions 21-30

21 B 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 C 26 check (over) (your) work/errors / revise (work) 27 record 28 (a) friend ACCEPT friend 29 general interest NOT interest 30 dictionary Section 4, Questions 31-40

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

518

ANSWER KEYS

B A A B C B A C B C


TEST 2

TEST 3

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (the) city centre (itself) ACCEPT center 2 (£) 250 (pounds) (to) (£) (about) 500 (pounds) 3 (a) garden 4 (£) 325 (pounds) 5 (the) water (bill(s)) 6 (the) telephone/phone (rental) 7 Wednesday/Wed (afternoon) 8 (your) employer 9 two/2 weeks’/wks’ // (a) fortnight’s // fourteen/14 days’ 10 (1/one) month(’s) rent NOT one month Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 (her) daughter (Anna) // Anna // Ana // (her) child 12 (a) practice // practices 13 (about) 6 // six (doctors) 14 (about) 4 // four (doctors) 15 better // more efficient // faster 16 elderly // old // older 17 back problems/trouble // bad backs 18 9 // nine (am) // 9.00 // nine/9 o’clock 19 EITTHER ORDER B // unemployed people E // pregnant women 20 (£) 5 // five (pounds) Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Politics 22 (West) Africa 23 1990 to 1992 Not 1993 24 Teach South 25 rural co(-)operative 26 Geography 27 (Form) 5/five/V 28 (very) homesick // missed (my/his) family // homesickness 29 favourite subject ACCEPT favorite 30 (many) (useful) applications Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 B // osteoporosis 33 B // relaxation therapy 34 C // its response to injury often results in more damage 35 A // for a maximum of two days 36 B // worsens existing back pain 37 B // Recommended in certain circumstances 38 A // Strongly recommended 39 B // Recommended in certain circumstances 40 C // Not recommended

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (the) Main Hall NOT Hall 2 (the) Director (of) (Studies) / DOS 3 (the) Student(s) Advisor/Adviser 4 eleven/11 o'clock / 11.00 (am) 5 placement/English (test) 6 L / Library 7 MH / Main Hall 8 CL / Computer Laboratory 9 SR / Staff Room 10 SCR / Student Common Room Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 (overseas) (student(s')) (tuition) fees 12 (the) domestic (area) 13 (essay(s')) deadlines NOT essay(s) 14 social (life) 15 outings / trips 16 KOUACHI 17 3269940 18 ten/ 10(am)-/to 4/four(pm) 19 (an) appointment(s) 20 waiting list Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B / staff selection 22 C / disagrees with the rest of the group 23 A / collegues' ability 24 C / already a part of job interviews 25 selection (procedure) 26-27 EITHER ORDER (the) (ancient) Chinese (the) military / army 2 28 (almost) two thirds / 3 29 experts NOT expert 30 A / describe one selection technique Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 secondary 32 14 / fourteen (year olds/years old) 33 overlap / overlapping ACCEPT over(-)lap / over(-)lapping 34 underside / underneath / bottom NOT side 35 on paper / in two dimensions 36 3/three(-)dimensional / 3(-)D 37 MUST STATE ALL THREE white, grey/gray, brown 38 C 39 D 40 A

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Rajdoot 2 Park View (Hotel) 3 London Arms 4 208657 5 no/non(-)smoking section/area 6 Lentil curry 7 fifty pound(s)/£50 deposit / deposit (of) £50/fifty pound(s) 8 choose/decide (on)/select (the) menu 9 4 November ALTERNATIVE FORMS ACCEPTED 10 (the) Newsletter Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 (£) 9.50 12 year /annum NOT annual 13 reception NOT Sports Centre 14 card 15 book 16 weekdays 17 Reception (Area) 18 Dance Studio 19 Squash Courts 20 Fitness Room Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Anne Rea 22 (both) 16 (years old) 23 Blind (Jigsaw) Puzzle NOT Jigsaw 24 MUST BE IN ORDER 20 (cm) 50 (cm) 2.5 (cm) / 2 and a half (cm) 25 -27 IN ANY ORDER safe for children (it's) educational price (is) good / inexpensive / not expensive / cheap (price) / (is) good price 28 electrics NOT electric 29 plastic pieces / in plastic NOT pieces 30 1 July ALTERNATIVE FORMS ACCEPTED Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 rabbit (meat) 32 (rather) tough 33 beef 34 (ladies') (feather) fans 35 (delicate) (fine) (good quality) leather 36 meat 37 A / has more protein than beef 38 C / the price of ostrich eggs 39 C / need looking after carefully 40 B / farmed birds are very productive

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Cambridge IELTS 3 TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 1 4.25 / 4 // four and (a) quarter 4 2 46 / forty-six 3 A / State Bank 4 D / Library 5 C / Garage 6 (a) (box) (of) chocolates 7 (a) (soft) toy / (a) teddy (bear) / (a) bear 8 (at the) market(s) 9 (at the) market(s) 10 ($) 35 / thirty-five (dollars) Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 glass 12 eighteen/18 hours/hrs 13 (a) (strange) taste 14 (the) small size / small / (the) size 15 metal 16 A 17 outside/outdoor activities / outdoors 18 underwater / under/beneath water 19 (a) week light 20 flashing light Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B / hospital 22 C / the middle section 23 C / found it difficult to do 24 C / remove completely 25 B / rewrite 26 C / remove completely 27 Sight and Sound 28 Support Tutor NOT Tutor 29 proof reading / proof read 30 10 July ALTERNATIVE FORMS ACCEPTED Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 7.30 pm (to/and) 5.30 am NOT 7.30 to 5.30 32 housewives / housewifes 33 Sunday(s) 34 (about) $25,000 /twenty-five thousand dollars NOT 25,000 35 C / 67 decibels 36 C / for ceilings 37 W / for walls 38 C / for ceilings 39 D 40 C

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Cambridge IELTS 4 TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 shopping / variety of shopping 2 guided tours 3 more than 12 / over 12 4 notice board 5 13th February 6 Tower of London 7 Bristol 8 American Museum 9 student newspaper 10 Yentob Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIRED coal firewood 12 local craftsmen 13 160 14 Woodside 15 Ticket Office 16 Gift Shop 17 (main) Workshop 18 Showroom 19 Café 20 cottages Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 C 23 E 24 B 25 G 26 F 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 cities / environment 32 windy 33 humid 34 shady / shaded 35 dangerous 36 leaves 37 ground 38 considerably reduce / decrease / filter 39 low 40 space / room

TEST 2

TEST 3

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 C 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 A 6 Cathedral 7 Markets 8 Gardens 9 Art Gallery 10 climb the tower / see the view Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 C 15 B 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 B 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 collecting data / gathering data / data collection 22 1,500 23 5 24 3,000–4,000 25 & 26 IN EITHER ORDER B C 27 Mehta 28 Survey Research 29 London University / London University Press 30 1988 Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A 33 mass media / media 34 academic circles / academics / researchers 35 specialist knowledge / specialised knowledge 36 unaware 37 individual customers / individual consumers / individuals 38 illegal profit / illegal profits 39 & 40 IN EITHER ORDER D E

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 1 1 years 2 2 Forest / Forrest 3 Academic 4 Thursday 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 deposit 9 monthly 10 telephone / phone Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 A 13 C 14 B 15 lighting / lights / light 16 adult / adults 17 (at) Studio Theatre / (the) Studio Theatre / (at) Studio Theater / (at) (the) Studio Theater 18 the whole family / all the family / families 19 (in) City Gardens / the City Gardens / outdoors 20 young children / younger children / children Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 C 24 A 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 B 29 B 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 questionnaire 32 approximately 2,000 / about 2,000 33 Education 34 halls of residence / living quarters 35 IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIRED FOR ONE MARK traffic parking 36 (most) lecture rooms / lecture halls / lecture theatres / lecture theaters 37 (choice of) facilities / (room for) facilities 38 IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIRED FOR ONE MARK D F 39 B 40 IN EITHER ORDER, BOTH REQUIRED FOR ONEMARK A C

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Cambridge IELTS 4 TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 College Dining Room 2 & 3 IN EITHER ORDER office staff students 4 10th December 5 coffee break / coffee breaks 6 6 7 set of dictionaries / dictionaries / a good dictionary 8 & 9 IN EITHER ORDER (some) music / (some) music tapes / (some) tapes photos/photographs 10 speech Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 A 13 A 14 A 15 B 16 180 17 nearest station 18 local history 19 690 20 walking club / local walking club Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 20 balloons 22 units of measurement / measurements / measurement units 23 rock salt / salt 24 crystals 25 string / piece of string 26 (ordinary) (white) light 27 H 28 B 29 E 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 795 32 tail 33 floor / bed / bottom 34 sense of smell 35 A 36 A 37 B 38 B 39 & 40 IN EITHER ORDER B E

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TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 by minibus / a minibus 2 15 / 15 people 3 April (the) 18th 4 Pallisades 5-6 IN EITHER ORDER B D 7 280 8 14 9 20% 10 39745T Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 move around / move about 12 brakes 13 fingers 14 satisfactory 15 put (it) together 16 too wide 17 dangerous 18 wheels 19 (the) best / (the) best buy / safe 20 sharp Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 C 24&25 IN EITHER ORDER B D 26 full-time 27 a term / one term 28 intensive 29 two modules / (for) two terms 30 a topic / one topic Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 politics 32 learn 33 children’s education / their children’s education 34 a car 35 nursing care 36 crisis 37 early twenties 38 confidence 39 money management 40 low-risk investments

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (passport) photos / (passport) photographs 2 (a) bank statement 3 125 (per year) 4 8 5 1.50 6 48 7 local papers / local newspapers 8 (a) card / cards 9 Grantingham 10 Friday Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 C 13 A 14 C 15 A 16 £75,000 17 computers 18-20 IN ANY ORDER C E F Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 home / student’s home 22 (have) dinner / come to dinner / go to dinner 23 technical 24 slang 25 cooperating / cooperation 26 persuading 27 editing 28 complete 29 experiment 30 long Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 58 32 desert 33 science 34 hospital / small hospital 35 ship 36 platforms 37 3,500 38 currents / ocean currents 39 (the) pollution 40 young

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 1.4 litres / 1.4 liters 2 automatic 3 light / sky 4 credit 5 Harries 6 Dr / Doctor 7 Alton 8 messages 9 Lion 10 reasonable Section 2, Questions 11-20 11/12 IN EITHER ORDER C E 13 references 14 country 15 weather 16 C 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 C Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 5th May 22 16th July / Friday 16th July 23 clear / was clear 24 (an/the) outline / (a/the) course outline 25 (the) 2nd half 26 (standard of) teaching / (standard of) teachers 27 discussion / group discussion 28 handouts 29 written work 30 student support / support for students Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 12.5 % 32 incineration plants 33 drop-off 34 cooking 35 500,000 36 roads 37 soil conditioner 38 containers 39 pencils 40 business cards

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 14 Hill Road 2 Between 9 and 9.30 / 9-9.30 3 1 year 4 intermediate 5 North-West 6 vegetarian 7 (a) (real) garden 8 (the) only guest 9 100 10 23rd March / Monday 23rd March Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 clubhouse 12 picnic 13 prizes 14 10 15 Wednesday afternoon(s) 16 4 17 Sunday afternoon(s) 18 collect (the) fees / collect (the) money 19 send (out/the) newsletter(s) 20 supervise (the) teams Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 sales 22 competition 23 interest rates / rates of interest 24 training 25 A 26 B 27 A 28 C 29 B 30 D Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 A 33 A 34 C 35 A 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 C

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TEST 2

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (a) keep-fit (studio) 2 swimming 3 yoga (classes) 4 (a) salad bar 5 500 6 1 7 10 (am), 4.30 (pm) 8 180 9 assessment 10 Kynchley Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 G 13 C 14 A 15 E 16 D 17 (October (the)) 19th 18 7 19 Monday, Thursday 20 18 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 in advance 23 nursery 24 annual fee 25 tutor 26&27 IN EITHER ORDER laptops printers 28 report writing 29 marketing 30 Individual Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 feed 32 IN EITHER ORDER metal leather 33 restrictions 34 ships 35 England 36 built 37 poverty 38-40 IN ANY ORDER C E F

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Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 8 2 (in/on) Tamer 3 green button 4 library 5 education department 6 castles 7 old clothes 8 bottle tops 9 Undersea Worlds 10 silver paper Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 King Street 12 central 13 half hour/30 minutes 14 refreshments 15 10.15 16 Advance 17 (seat) reservations 18-20 IN ANY ORDER C D G Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 catalog(ue)s 22 computer centre/center 23 checklist 24 teaching experience 25 classroom 26 review 27 schools 28 ((the) year) 2000 29 end of term 30 research Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 B 33 C 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 A 38 Great Train Robbery 39 Sound effects 40 poor sound quality

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TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Select 2 27.01.1973 3 15 Riverside 4 2 weeks 5 616295 6 engineer 7 mother 8 2,000 9 month 10 internet Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 A 13 C 14 H 15 F 16 B 17 D 18 field 19 footbridge 20 viewpoint Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 entertainment industry 22 telephone interviews 23 30/thirty 24 male and female 25 jazz 26 classical 27 concerts 28 department stores 29 club 30 opera house Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A 33 A 34 B 35 people 36 IN EITHER ORDER water sand 37 Scotland 38 outside 39 local 40 tops

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 75 2 cheque/check 3 15 4 25 5 10 minutes(s’)/min(s’) 6 conference pack 7 South 8 library 9 5 10 21A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 D 12 A 13 C 14 tax 15 security 16 ground floor 17 lecture room 311 18 Safety at Work 19 Main Hall 20 team leaders Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 reference 22 textbooks 23 secondary 24 primary 25 back 26 overdue books/ones 27 7 working days 28-30 IN ANY ORDER C E F Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 1,450 36 disease 37 (wealthy) prince 38 diet 39 attack humans 40 leadership

Cambridge IELTS 7 TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (a) taxi/cab 2 city centre/center 3 wait 4 door-to-door 5 reserve (a seat) 6 (the) 17th (of) October 7 12.30 8 Thomson 9 AC 936 10 3303 8450 2045 6837 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 A 13 B 14 C 15 C 16 A 17 C 18 A 19 C 20 B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 attitude(s) 22 gender/sex 23 creativity/creativeness 24 A 25 B 26 A 27 B 28 culture 29 profit(s) 30 stress/strain Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 April 32 children 33 repeated 34 human 35 magic 36 distance 37 culture 38 fire(s) 39 touching 40 intact

TEST 2 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 27 Bank Road 2 (a) dentist 3 Sable 4 Northern Star 5 stolen 6 Paynter 7 brother-in-law 8 (travel (ling/ing)) (to) work 9 Red Flag 10 450 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 City Bridge 12 Newtown 13 6.30 14 (formal) garden 15 (Tower) Restaurant 16 view(s) 17 history 18 7 screen 19 every 20 minutes 20 (from/the) Central Station Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 B 27 1882 (to/-) (18)83 28 Signed 29&30 IN ETHER ORDER A D Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 A 35 A 36 2 directions 37 confident 38 vision 39 corrections 40 balance

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 business 2 third 3 Sport(s) Centre 4 (a) cleaner 5 Library 6 International House 7 B659 8 (an) office assistant 9 answer (the) phone 10 11.30 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 A 14 C 15 B 16 A 17 forest 18 temple 19 waterfall 20 village Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 cigar 22 13 (different) countries 23 activated 24 50 km(s) 25 temperature 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 B 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 A 34 C 35 business 36 kitchen 37 world 38 escape 39 baby 40 chocolate

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Keiko 2 JO6337 3 4 months 4 (Advanced) English (Studies) 5 (young) children 6 pets 7 seafood 8 tennis 9 trains / (the) train 10 this/that afternoon Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 B 15 car park 16 rose garden 17 café 18 cycling 19 biology lesson 20 viewing shelter Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 5 22 assessed 23 A 24 B 25 A 26 C 27 media room 28 resources room 29 embassy 30 statistics/stats Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 C 33 A 34 water 35&36 IN EITHER ORDER meat cheese 37 5th/new taste 38 common 39 bitterness 40 minerals

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525


TEST 2

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 C 2 B 3 48 North Avenue 4 WS6 2YH 5 01674 553242 6 (free) drink(s) / refreshment(s) 7 (the/a) pianist/piano player 8 10.50 9 4 10 50% Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 1.30 12 25 December/Christmas Day 13 car-park/parking lot 14 45 15 (some) tables 16-18 IN ANY ORDER C F G 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER B E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 C 23 A 24 B 25-27 IN ANY ORDER B C F 28 12,000 29 horses 30 caves Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 surface 32 environment 33 impact(s)/effect(s) 34 urban 35 problems 36 images 37 patterns 38 distortion(s) 39 traffic 40 weather

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Milperra 2 First Class Movers 3 28 November 4 screen 5 bathroom 6 door 7 140 8 leg 9 plates 10 60 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 (the) Forest 13 Fish Farm(s) 14 Market Garden 15 C 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 C 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 C 24 A 25 insects 26 feeding/eating 27 laboratory 28 water 29 wings 30 reliable/accurate Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 A 34 A 35 C 36 C 37 B 38 F 39 D 40 C

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ANSWER KEYS

TEST 3 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 central 2 600 3 2 year(s) 4 garage 5 garden 6 study 7 noisy 8 595 9&10 IN EITHER ORDER B E Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 classical music / (classical/music) concerts 12 bookshop/bookstore 13 planned 14 1983/(the) 1980s 15 City Council 16 363 17 (the) Garden Hall 18 Three Lives 19 4.50 20 Faces of China Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 C 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 B 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 B 34 A 35 combination/system 36 safety 37 attitude(s) 38 control(s) 39 factory/factories 40 skills

TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 waiter(s) 2 day off 3 break 4 (free) meal 5 dark (coloured/colored) 6 jacket 7 28 June 8 Urwin 9 12.00 (pm)/noon/mid-day 10 reference Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 B 13 B 14 C 15 D 16 G 17 B 18 F 19 A 20 E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21/22 IN EITHER ORDER B E 23&24 IN EITHER ORDER A C 25 B 26 C 27 priorities 28 timetable 29 (small) tasks 30 (single) paragraph Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 animal/creature 38 sea/water level(s) 39 hunting 40 creation


TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 answer(ing) (the) phone 2 Hillsdunne Road 3 library 4 4.45 5 national holidays 6 after 11 (o’clock) 7 clear voice 8 think quickly 9 22 October 10 Manuja Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 branch 12 west 13 clothing 14 10 15 running 16 bags 17 A 18 A 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER A E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 C 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 tide/tides 32 hearing/ear/ears 33 IN EITHER ORDER; BOTH REQUIRED FOR ONE MARK Plants animals/fish/fishes 34 feeding 35 noise/noises 36 healthy 37 group 38 social 39 leader 40 network/networks

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Bhatt 2 31 March 3 nursing 4 2 5 meat 6 bedsit 7 theatre/theater 8 mature/older 9 town 10 shared Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 trees 12 Friday/Sunday 13 farm 14 C 15 B 16 A 17 A 18 I 19 F 20 E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 reading 26 CD 27 workbooks 28 timetable/schedule 29 alarm 30 email/emails Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 central 32 conversation/conversations 33 effectively 34 risk/risks 35 levels 36 description/descriptions 37 technical 38 change 39 responsibility 40 flexible

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 300 2 Sunshade 3 balcony 4 forest/forests 5 319 6 10,000 7 relative 8 missed 9 item 10 Ludlow Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 A 13 C 14 E 15 H 16 F 17 C 18 G 19 120 20 5 to 12 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 fishing industry 22 statistics 23 note-taking 24 confidence 25 ideas 26 student support 27 places 28 general 29 3 times 30 25 Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 A 33 glass 34 insulation 35 windows 36 electricity 37 floor/floors 38 waste 39 concrete 40 15 years

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 babies 2 Eshcol 3 evening 4 Gormley 5&6 IN EITHER ORDER B E 7 heart 8 primary school 9 4.30 10 ages Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 E 14 B 15 E 16 D 17 A 18 C 19 732281 20 Thursday/Thursdays Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 C 23 approach 24 mature 25 interest 26 groups 27 every 2 days 28 2 weeks 29 confident 30 education system Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A 33 B 34 B 35 A 36 C 37 frog/frogs 38 predators 39 count 40 seed/seeds

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527


TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Ardleigh 2 newspaper 3 theme 4 tent 5 castle 6 beach/beaches 7 2020 8 flight 9 429 10 dinner Section 2, Questions 11-20 11&12 IN EITHER ORDER A C 13 health problems 14 safety rules 15 plan 16 joining 17 free entry 18 peak 19 guests 20 photo card / photo cards Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 presentation 27 model 28 material / materials 29 grant 30 technical Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 gene 32 power / powers 33 strangers 34 erosion 35 islands 36 roads 37 fishing 38 reproduction 39 method / methods 40 expansion

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Hardie 2 19 3 GT8 2LC 4 hairdresser 5 dentist / dentist's 6 lighting 7 trains 8 safe 9 shower 10 training Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 A 15 E 16 F 17 D 18 H 19 A 20 B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21&22 IN EITHER ORDER B C 23&24 IN EITHER ORDER B E 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 B 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 competition 32 global 33 demand 34 customers 35 regulation 36 project 37 flexible 38 leadership 39 women 40 self-employed

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 4 2 46 Wombat 3 Thursday 4 8.30 5 red 6 lunch 7 glasses 8 BALL 9 aunt 10 month Section 2, Questions 11-20 11&12 IN EITHER ORDER C E 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 B 17 C 18 D 19 D 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 E 27 D 28 A 29 G 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 achievement / achievements 32 personality / character 33 Situational 34 friend 35 aspirations / ambitions 36 style 37 development 38 vision 39 structures 40 innovation / innovations

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Pargetter 2 East 3 library 4 morning / mornings 5 postbox 6 prices 7 glass 8 cooker 9 week 10 fence Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 B 13 A 14 A 15 C 16 trains 17 dark 18 games 19 guided tour 20 ladder / ladders Section 3, Questions 21-30 21&22 IN EITHER ORDER A E 23&24 IN EITHER ORDER B C 25 D 26 F 27 G 28 B 29 E 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 metal / metals 35 space 36 memory 37 solar 38 oil 39 waste 40 tests

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ANSWER KEYS

The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 café 2 9/nine am /9/nine o'clock 3 5/five km/kilometers/ kilometers 4 (a) bar(-)code / (a) barcode/bar code 5 website/web site 6 1.50 7 M–A–U–G–H–A–N 8 01444 732900 9 guiding/guide 10 taking/take photos/ photographs Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 sharks 12 old fishing village/Old Fishing Village 13 shopping 14 (water) fountain 15 student card 16 fifty/50 minutes/mins 17 museum 18 tourist office 19 rain(-)wear/rainwear 20 e(-)ticket/e ticket Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 (senior) management/ managers 28 project request 29 meeting 30 conference call Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 29,000 years 32 southern/south Europe 33 water 34 minerals 35 white gold 36 china stone 37 cooling (down) 38 windows 39 volcanic ash 40 harbours

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 3000/3,000/three thousand words 2 surprise/surprising ending 3 16/sixteen 4 August 5 COMP4SS/comp4ss 6 post 7 famous authors 8 online 9 public 10 Spain Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 world of water/World of Water 12 (the) splash ride 13 (at) noon/midday/ 12 o'clock/12 pm 14 feed (the) sharks 15 (a) birthday party 16 (the) government 17 (the/a) quiz 18 E 19 C 20 B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 & 22 IN EITHER ORDER D B 23 mathematics/math(s) 24 theory/theoretical 25 jet engines 26 seminars 27 A 28 B 29 C 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 supportive 32 pay attention 33 next steps 34 consistent 35 graphics 36 tone 37 (a) silence / silences 38 weak verbs 39 repeat it 40 predicting

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 S-Y-M-O-N-D-S/S-y-m-on-d-s 2 1996 3 full(-)time 4 swimming 5 monthly 6 (go/do) jogging 7 bad ankle 8 fitness level 9 charity worker 10 (on) (the) radio Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 E 17 A 18 ring a bell 19 lounge 20 speeches/speakers Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 pine forests 22 water 23 print 24 sort 25 remove link 26 (the) introduction 27 (the) council 28 (some) data 29 first draft 30 (their/the) tutor Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 protection 32 flexible 33 elephants 34 100 000/100,000 35 products 36 cap 37 oil 38 active 39 skin 40 blue(-)berries

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 7.30/seven thirty 2 pencils 3 top 4 August 5 instructions 6 55/fifty-five 7 beginners 8 Kahui 9 battery 10 show Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 & 12 IN EITHER ORDER B E 13 & 14 IN EITHER ORDER B C 15 G 16 I 17 B 18 E 19 C 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 G 27 A 28 D 29 C 30 E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 food 32 hero 33 feathers 34 shells 35 diamond 36 shark 37 teeth 38 messages 39 meeting 40 escape

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529

The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS TEST 5

TEST 6

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 white 2 office 3 camera 4 umbrella 5 13th May/13 May/ thirteenth May / May 13/ May 13th / May thirteenth 6 airport 7 taxi 8 Docherty 9 River 10 07979605437 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 G 12 D 13 A 14 E 15 C 16 B 17 A 18 C 19 C 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 A 24 C 25 B 26 E 27 B 28 G 29 A 30 F Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 migration 32 eyes 33 lizard 34 trade 35 survival 36 political 37 & 38 IN EITHER ORDER ships horses 39 & 40 IN EITHER ORDER industry tourism

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 208 613 2978 2 visiontech 3 doctor 4 garage 5 furniture 6 fridge 7 school 8 950/£950 9 quiet 10 friend Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 contact details 12 (an) emergency 13 radio 14 (spare/extra) keys 15 (window) locks 16 C 17 D 18 F 19 G 20 E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 C 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 C 27 (global) hunger 28 pollution 29 wood 30 grass(es) Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 marketing 32 interests 33 jobs 34 health 35 & 36 IN EITHER ORDER C E 37 & 38 IN EITHER ORDER A D 39 & 40 IN EITHER ORDER A C

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ANSWER KEYS

TEST7 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 unfriendly 2 noisy 3 23.50/twenty-three fifty 4 insects 5 bathrooms 6 party 7 S-H-A-D-F-O-R-T-H/S-ha-d-f-o-r-t-h 8 towel 9 breakfast 10 kitchen Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 A 13 C 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 E 18 C 19 F 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 A 26 A 27 background 28 theory 29 cost(s) 30 time Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 religion(s) 32 nature 33 flight 34 stars 35 practical 36 education 37 king 39 entertainment 39 opera 40 electricity

TEST 8 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (simple) documents 2 keyboard 3 flowers 4 tools 5 Saturday 6 Mairead 7 Bridge 8 (the) 14(th)/fourteen(th) (of) May / May (the) 14(th)/fourteen(th) / 14.(0) 5/(0)5.14 9 park 10 newspaper Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 H 15 G 16 films/movies 17 reports 18 region 19 job 20 housing Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 E 22 I 23 C 24 G 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 aims/objectives/goals 29 staff 30 feedback Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 hook 32 string 33 danger 34 rubber 35 light 36 intelligence 37 tail(s) 38 energy 39 chemical 40 diet

Official IELTS Practice Materials TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 C 3 15 minute 4 third/3rd year 5 first/1st Tuesday 6 25% 7 room 12 8 (Mrs) Waddell 9 window dressing/dress windows 10 black skirt Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 C 14 & 15 IN EITHER ORDER A D 16 75 17 evening(s) 18 (4-course) dinner 19 52 20 golf club Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 weather (conditions) 22 Environment/Environmental Agency 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 A 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 Australia 32 (flight/flying) speed/speed of flight 33 looking/searching for food 34 start/begin to fly / start/begin flying 35 full/adult size / full adult size / full(y) grown 36 leave (the/their) nest(s) 37 die 38 attach (identification/ID/aluminum/ aluminium) rings 39 note (the) sex 40 (general) health

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531

IELTS Testbuilder 1 TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 3443 2 SE1 8PB 3 43 4 1963 / ‘63 5 Moore 6 B 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 C Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 B 14 1st July/July the first 15 cutting down 16 bad headaches 17 (exciting) adventure 18 expected 19 determination 20 road Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 three/3 years 22 job 23 Wales 24 A 25 C 26 C 27 B 28 B 29 A 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 techniques and training 32 British economy 33 awareness 34 impossible 35 replying / responding 36 answering the telephone 37 respect 38 e-mail code 39 brainstorm 40 countered

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 C 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 22b 7 EX15 8 evening after work 9 Saturday evening 10 3/three hours Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-14 IN ANY ORDER H F E B 15 A 16 A 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 five/5 22 50% / 50 per cent 23 eighteen/18 24 fourteen/14 25 in the first tutorial 26 relevant 27 (very) elegant 28 not possible / impossible 29 excellent 30 much better Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 A 34 C 35 B 36 beyond their limits 37 areas of industry 38 100 39 collapsing 40 B

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 have a coffee 2 September 3 on holiday 4 2/two weeks 5 Saturday 9 A 7 B 8 C 9 B 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 range 12 a/the list 13 catch him 14 B 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 A 19 C 20 work and scores Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 D 22 C 23 B 24 50/fifty (questions) 25 A 26 A 27 M 28 A 29 A 30 M Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 1814 32 1817 33 1817 34 1818 35 1822 36 C 37 A 38 1838 39 1840 40 bicycle

532

ANSWER KEYS

TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A 2 B 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 B 7 daily 8 the/an automatic 9 9911 4425 10 40 Park Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-14 IN ANY ORDER A B E F 15 up to 16 expense 17 volunteers 18 of charge 19 £5,000/5,000 pounds 20 D Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 B 23 C 24 A 25 detail 26 space and the individual 27 read simple directions 28 maps 29 writing essays 30 right order Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 A 36 B 37 proportion 38 rubbish/(other) traps 39 Fish farms 40 cod stocks/(the) cod/(the) cod population

IELTS Testbuilder 2 TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Framlington 2 44 11 92 3 5/five nights (only) 4 4/four 5&6 IN EITHER ORDER B C 7 17th March 8 716 9 15/fifteen 10 FAPSJM15 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 decade 12 (small) business park 13 (local) organizations / organisations 14 Parkside 15 40 studio flats 16 ornamental lake 17 swimming pool 18 (flower) garden 19 play area 20 café Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 B 23 A 24&25 IN EITHER ORDER D E 26 course diary 27 written exam 28 design 29 50 per cent/percent/% 30 fashion show Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 C 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 A 37 B 38 A 39 C 40 D

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 70 2 September 15th/15th September 3 Mandela Suite 4 3.30/9 5 PA5 7GJ 6 40 7 29 33 81 8 tables and chairs 9 30/thirty 10 damage and injury Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 maintenance 15 unattractive 16 tidy 17 heat 18 pricey 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER B E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 electronic whiteboard 22 back-up 23 specific background material 24 C 25 G 26 B 27 F 28 D 29&30 IN EITHER ORDER A B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 taught 32 21 / twenty-one 33 lecturers 34 restoration 35 mechanism of printing 36 computer-literate 37 crash programmes/ programs 38 restorers, conservationists 39 printing machines 40 applications

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 3.5kg / kilogrammes / kilograms 2 (only) 0.5/nought point five GB / gigabytes 3 37.5 cm 4 2½ 5 wireless 6 scanner and headphones 7 £300/Three hundred pounds 8 Bristow 9 09875 42 33 87 10 22nd October Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 permanent staff members 12 (quick) tour 13 oversee training 14 manage bookings 15 prevent injuries 16 E 17 C 18 B 19 3/three 20 Thursday 4.30 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 2nd December 22 academic 23 professional 24 about a third 25 sequence 26 technical ability 27 set out 28 average 29 most improvement 30 7/seven Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 C 33 B 34 33/thirty-three % / per cent / percent 35 2/two 36 stock 37 production targets 38 expansion plans 39 (company's) product range 40 team building

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 C 2 C 3 B 4 B 5 Rochester 6 Stone Avenue 7 MA7 4PQ 8 6633 9 (monthly) instalments 10 fortnight Section 2, Questions 11-20 11&12 IN EITHER ORDER B D 13 shop 14 seating 15 9.30 16 A 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 C Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 C 24&25 IN EITHER ORDER B E 26 prioritize/prioritise actions 27 (four/4) examiners 28 listen 29 team 30 appeal Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 B 33 C 34 acidity 35 habitats, peoples 36 observing ice packs 37 size 38 raw 39 bank 40 experts / centres

ANSWER KEYS

533

IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1 TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 C 2 C 3 D 4 McDonald / Macdonald / MacDonald 5 Post Office Box/ PO Box 676 6 775431 7 credit card / Visa 8 D, F (any order) 9 A, F (any order) 10 after (the) exams Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 473 12 (open) 2/two(-)seater 13 smooth 14 180 kilometres 15 frame (and) engine 16 instrument panel / instruments / stop-watch 17 30 18 light aircraft/plane 19 wings 20 rear wheels Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Out and About 22 (the) university / campus 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 × 28 South American 29  30   Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 human activity/activities 32 farming and drainage 33 Dirty Thirties/30s 34 Dry thunderstorms 35 machine operators 36 drought 37 irrigation 38 two-thirds 39 salty / saline / toxic 40 crops / plants / agriculture

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 A 3 B 4 C 5 Hagerty 6 ricky45 7 29 February 8 business 9 conversation / to communicate 10 (at) school Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 loyal 12 statue 13 (possibly) count 14 gentle (nature) 15 donations / donors 16 search and rescue 17 (international) database 18 love their food / love food / love eating 19 80 people 20 in a team Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 father's workshop 22 1824 23 night writing 24 B 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 mathematics / maths 29 science 30 music Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 (particular) events 32 string 33 14 days 34 (a) fortnight / 2 weeks / two weeks 35 six months 36 language 37 retrieve / recall / recover 38 (an) argument 39 70% 40 40%

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Mitchell 2 66, Women's College / Womens College 3 Education 4 994578ED 5 C 6 B 7 B 8 A 9 C 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 fishing village 12 pine trees 13 marshland / marsh(es) 14 sunbeds and umbrellas 15 longest 16 flag system / flags 17 north(-)west 18 white cliffs 19 sand(-)banks 20 food and drink Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (course) booklists / reading list(s) 22 recommended 23 sales figures 24 year (group) 25 catalogues 26 letters / correspondence 27 inspection / free copies 28 value (for money) 29 clear / easy to use 30 easy to use / clear Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A/D 33 D/A 34 A 35 B 36 (a) competition(s) 37 design (and) print 38 styles / techniques 39 categories 40 two/2 names

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Sun(day) 2nd July 2 MARINA 3 9.30 (am) 4 £1,000/one/a thousand pounds 5 Hong Kong 6 (team) captain 7 parents' permission 8 (20/twenty) life jackets 9 clothes / clothing / set of clothes 10 name Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 stamps and coins 12 (shrill) call 13 sense of smell 14 fly 15 introduced animals 16 (scientific) research 17 global education 18 eggs (are) collected 19 chicks (are) reared 20 5% to 85% Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 A 24 B 25 Sydney 26 Frankfurt 27 A/D 28 D/A 29 B/F 30 F/B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 export / transit (overseas) 32 food shortages 33 lasts longer / lasts much longer 34 food-poisoning / poisoning 35 electricity / electricity supply / supply of electricity / power 36 chemical preservation / add (adding) chemicals / using chemicals (not salt/sugar/vinegar) 37 cheap to store 38 (hot) soup 39 (heated) belt 40 powdered soup / dried soup / dry soup

534

ANSWER KEYS

IELTS Practice Tests Plus 1 TEST 5 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 692411 2 Rainbow Communications 3 white 4 two/2 boxes 5 light blue (must include 'light') 6 10 packs / 10 packets 7 (coloured) floppy disks / computer disks / discs / disks 8 (a/one) wall calendar 9 (a/new) catalogue 10 before 11.30 / not after 11.30 / by 11.30 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 Royal Museum 12 Queen's Park Road/Rd 13 10th Dec(ember) 14 metal work 15 (garden) vegetables 16 coloured stones 17 (white) paper 18 Face to Face 19 pencil drawing 20 all materials Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 40 million 22 dogs / the dog 23 only ate plants 24 Polar Bear 25 Brown Bear 26 Sun Bear 27 Giant Panda 28 Sloth Bear 29 B 30 E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 B 35 A 36 C 37 fist person 38 (a) new element / helium 39 (the) lost planet / (the) new planet / Vulcan 40 gravity

ANSWER KEYS

535


TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 75 cm(s) / centimetres 2 wood 3 £15.00 / £15 / fifteen pounds 4 cream 5 adjustable 6 cupboard 7 doors 8 £95.00 / £95 / ninety-five pounds 9 Blake 10 B Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 café 12 7.30 (p.m.) / seven thirty / half past seven 13 (the) disabled 14 birds 15 (art) exhibitions 16 abstract 17 designer 18 portraits 19 two/2 years/yrs 20 photographs / photos Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 C 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 interests (and) style / style (and) interests 27 visuals 28 range 29 source(s) 30 content Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 A 34 microclimate 35 concentration 36 frost 37 liquid 38 supercooling 39 Mars 40 locations

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 A 3 C 4 bus station 5 £450 6 noisy 7 Hills Avenue 8 dining room 9 (very) modern 10 quiet Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 Sundays 12 1998 13 100,000 / one/a hundred thousand 14 government 15 research 16 Conference Centre / Center 17 Information Desk 18 bookshop 19 King(')s Library 20 stamp display Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 A 26 organisation 27 definition 28 aims 29 Key Skills 30 evidence Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 proficiency 32 learning 33 social (and) economic 34 positive 35 adults 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 C 40 A

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 230 South Road 2 18 3 activities (and/&) workshops 4 £250 5 interactive 6 material(s) 7 insurance 8 publicity 9 programme 10 not available / unavailable Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 B 17 E 18 G 19 H 20 C Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 investigate 22 sunny (and) warm 23 change 24 F 25 D 26 C 27 B 28-30 B, F, H (in any order) Section 4, Questions 31-40 31-32 A, D (in either order) 33-34 B, E 35 12,000 36 minority 37 all 38 teachers 39 (the) evaluation 40 poor

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 19.75 2 theme 3 quiet 4 children 5 breakfast (is) 6 (free) sky(-)dive 7 A 8 C 9 B 10 C Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 A 13 C 14 C 15-17 schools, local councils, companies (in any order) 18 020 7562 4028 19 £27.50 20 3 hours/hrs Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (the/their) technique 22 (answering) (the/students') questions 23 (the/their) solutions 24 A 25 B 26 B 27 C 28 end(ing) 29 limitations 30 literature Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 clean (and) safe / safe (and) clean 32 basic needs 33 local government 34 residents 35 economic 36 secondary school 37 films 38 Women's Centre 39 skills 40 status

536

ANSWER KEYS

IELTS Practice Tests Plus 2 TEST 5 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 A 7 B 8-10 B, D, G (in any order) Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 June 6th 12 5,000 13 transportation 14 low levels 15 Commuter 16 plant trees 17 upgrade 18 border 19 clean(er) fuels 20 factories Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 north(-)west 22 spray 23 (a) (small) library 24 mountains 25 field observation 26 development 27 water 28 market town 29 national park 30 dissertation Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 requirements 32 private 33 attitudes 34 interviews 35 B 36 C 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 C

TEST 6 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Lower Green(e) Street /St. 2 01778 552387 3 (a) field 4 (a) van 5 (a) Flyer 2000 6 blue 7 flat tyre/tire 8 8/eight days 9 Hill Farm Estate 10 local Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 fisherman 12 six/6 months 13 captain 14 education 15 (an) interpreter 16 sister cities 17 Festival 18 I 19 B 20 E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 G 26 C 27 E 28 progress reviews 29 (critical) reflection 30 exhibition Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 physical 32 instincts 33 relief 34 (social) bonds 35 power 36 negative 37 release 38 hormones 39 immune system 40 bad dreams

ANSWER KEYS

537


TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (an) accountant 2 over 50 3 family (membership) 4 nine/9 5 doctor 6 (swimming) pool 7 pay (extra) 8 social events 9 air conditioning 10 (the) restaurant Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 E 12 F 13 B 14 D 15 C 16 G 17&18 IN EITHER ORDER B E 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER A D Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 B 26 E 27 G 28 A 29 D 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 ice age 32 invisible 33 infection(s) 34 flavour 35 fungus/fungi 36 sexes 37 extinction 38 lowland 39 shelter(s) 40 cuttings

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Lamerton 2 42 West Lane 3 11th June / 11.06 / 06.11 4 cook 5 equipment 6 food-handling 7 First Aid 8 (college) tutor 9 0208 685114 10 colour/color blindness Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 A 15 C 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 C 20 B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 G 23 A 24 E 25 F 26 D 27 G 28 C 29 A 30 E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 heavy 32 surgery 33 beetles 34 gas 35 moving 36 surface area 37 tubes 38 pressure 39 submarines/a submarine 40 fuel

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 grey/gray 2 62,000 3 teacher 4 shopping 5 (£)1,100 6 tax 7 tyre/tire 8 headlight 9 Thursday 10 London Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 C 15 H 16 F 17 E 18 A 19 B 20 D Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 C 23 A 24 B 25&26 IN EITHER ORDER B E 27&28 IN EITHER ORDER C D 29&30 IN EITHER ORDER B D Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 English literature 32 autobiography 33 lab(oratory) 34 practical skills 35 novices/beginners 36 experimental 37 video 38 framework 39 editor 40 sequence/order

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 hairdresser 2 tablets 3 sunglasses 4 lock 5 adaptor/adapter 6 taxi 7 Jefferey 8 0777594128 9 church 10 30th April/30.04/04.30 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 A 13 A 14 C 15 B 16 C 17&18 IN EITHER ORDER D E 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER C E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 B 23 C 24 A 25&26 IN EITHER ORDER C E 27&28 IN EITHER ORDER D E 29&30 IN EITHER ORDER C E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 call centre 32 inconclusive 33 methodology/methods 34 unequal 35 female/women 36 response 37 control 38 sample/group 39 their/other colleagues 40 confidential

538

ANSWER KEYS


TEST 6

TEST 7

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 weekend(s) 2 plasdeco 3 clear 4 late/unreliable 5 cheaper 6 messy 7 designs 8 expensive 9 painting 10 ladder(s) Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 C 16 C 17 I 18 H 19 D 20 G Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 D 22 B 23 A 24 H 25 F 26 E 27&28 IN EITHER ORDER B E 29&30 IN EITHER ORDER A C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 common 32 woodland/woods/forest(s) 33 tail 34 grey/gray 35 humans/people 36 memory 37 hearing 38 birds 39 year 40 water

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Moonfleet 2 fields 3 shops 4 summerhouses 5 river 6 dining 7 sea 8 garden 9 parking 10 agent Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 B 13 C 14 B 15&16 IN EITHER ORDER B D 17&18 IN EITHER ORDER A C 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER B E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 A 29 D 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 (very) thin 32 court documents 33 high-quality 34 buried 35 thickness 36 bleached/whitened 37 dialect 38 baseline 39 evolution 40 trade routes

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 terminal 2 Pantera 3 east 4 07765 328411 5 hotel (restaurant) 6 raincoat 7 (walking) shoes 8 Mountain Lives 9 chocolate(s) 10 (a) calendar Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 A 15 C 16 B 17 F 18 B 19 D 20 E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21&22 IN EITHER ORDER A D 23&24 IN EITHER ORDER B E 25/26 IN EITHER ORDER B C 27 C 28 B 29 D 30 F Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 rainfall 32 air/plane 33 freezing 34 unsuccessful 35 cheap/inexpensive 36 grass 37 solar 38 site/location/place 39 walls 40 women

ANSWER KEYS

539

Focusing on IELTS TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Penny Ryan 2 24 March 1982 / March 24(,) 1982 / 24.(0)3.(19)82 / (0)3.24.(19)82 3 Blacktown / Black Town 4 7690 3275 5 monthly / every month / once a month 6 A 7 C 8 B 9 B 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 shoes 12 beach cafe 13 7 (am/a.m.) to /till/ until/- 6 (pm/p.m.) / 7 to 6 / 7-6 14 twice a/per week / Tuesday(s) and Friday(s) 15 on (the/your) balcony/ balconies 16 birds, fish 17 11 (pm/p.m.) / 11 at night 18 A, E 19 B, D 20 D, E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 D 24 E 25 F 26 C 27 C 28 B 29 A 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 (nomadic) lifestyle / nomadism 32 clothes / clothing 33 milk, meat 34 gardening 35 feed / eat 36 salt 37 C 38 C 39 A 40 B

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (Class) C/c / C/c licence/license 2 28 River 3 3701 8699 4 student card 5 (by) cash 6 C 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 F 13 C 14 G 15 D 16 D 17 E 18 G 19 A 20 F Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 B 30 H Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 reason(s) / motivation(s) 32 funding limitations / funds limited / limited funds/funding 33 85% 34 exercise, therapy 35 computer games 36 reduce stress 37 personal development 38 B 39 B 40 A

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 room service 2 waiter 3 Tourism Management 4 French, Korean 5-7 IN ANY ORDER B F G 8-10 IN ANY ORDER C D G Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A, E 12 B, D 13 four/4 months/mths 14 75% 15 (on/via/through) the Internet / online 16 $6,000 17 passport photos 18 $435 19 working days 20 interview Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 C 28 A 29 C 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 H 33 D 34 C 35 E 36 A 37 C 38 B 39 A 40 B

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A 2 H 3 I 4 G 5 D 6 F 7 $6 / $6.00 / six dollars 8 eighteen/18 months/ 1 1 years 2 9 (on) (level/floor) five/5/ (the) fifth/5th (level/floor) 10 (a) cinema/theatre Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 1989 12 Internet 13 one/1 month 14 rent 15 reference(s) 16 rights 17 theft/thieves / burglary/burglar(s) 18 pet(s), garden(s) 19 $375 20 (home) insurance Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 B 27 C 28 C 29 A 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 4/four months 32 bleach 33 water/irrigation 34 skin cancer / UV/ultraviolet rays 35 whale oil / oil from/of whales 36 less expensive / cheaper 37 (air) pollution 38 C 39 E 40 A

540

ANSWER KEYS

404 Essential Tests for IELTS TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 £203 2 17 3 no 4 under 26 / less than 26 5 locals / local people 6 satisfied / OK 7 (British) students 8 (too) many / much / big 9 careful / mindful of 10 the culture / the food Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 International Student Advisor 12 learning / study groups 13 Student IT Department 14 Housing Officer / Accommodation Officer 15 International Department 16 personal and/or financial 17 B 18 D 19 E 20 C Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 A or E 24 E or A 25 C or D 26 D or C 27 Early Childhood 28 the differences / how they differ 29 not learned / innate 30 in person Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 higher 32 exam performance / results 33 sleep / sleeping / sleeplessness 34 controlled 35 thought / thinking 36 organised 37 vary/ change / be different 38 marks / weighting 39 relaxed 40 (effective) study skills

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 0278804 2 2, 5 / 5, 2 / May 2nd / 2nd May 3 17 Rocksford 4 5 p.m. 5 doorbell 6 teacher 7 pay/salary/money 8 no/break from 9 (long) summer holiday 10 by himself / by myself / alone / on his own Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 B or D 15 D or B 16 nearest police station 17 cross street / intersection 18 café/(nearest) shop 19 detailed/full description 20 canceling them Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 B 23 A 24 A 25 C 26 G 27 D 28 B 29 A 30 F Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 beginning and completion/ending/end 32 a schedule 33 four stages 34 developing a plan / planning a project 35 realistically 36 help/advice (from others / other people) 37 Gant Chart 38 standard of delivery 39 (the) Quality Assurance 40 (the/your/this week's) tutorials

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A 2 B 3 I block 4 C block 5 student canteen/Student Canteen 6 have an interview / be interviewed 7 2 p.m. / 2 o'clock / 2:00 / 2.00 8 PASTEL 9 0412 987 35 10 BI 690011 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 C 13 A 14 9th September 15 music / opera 16 Festival Club 17 14th September 18 Performing Arts Centre 19 City Football Club 20 Under the Stars Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 329,758 23 about / over 3 million 3 24 75% / of population 4 25 friendly 26 continuing to grow / growing 27 US, Japan 28 tourism/ number of tourists 29 education and technology 30 eastern and western Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 thousands of years 32 has (been) grown 33 C or E 34 E or C 35 C or E 36 E or C 37 dried fruit(s) 38 seaweed 39 cereals 40 www.vegsoc.org

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 D 2 D 3 A 4 A 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 E 9 D 10 they are popular / of their popularity Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 since 1945 12 15.25 13 white 14 signature 15 Internet 16 $80 17 home country / country of issue 18 a limited time / period / a year 19 road rules 20 fined / penalized Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 III 22 II or VI 23 VI or II 24 IV 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 B 29 B or C 30 C or B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 (the) state / government 32 noise 33 moderately windy sites/ less windy sites 34 1984 35 diesel generator(s) 36 Danes/Danish 37 Height / height 38 1,000,000/1 million 39 twice / two times 40 selling power (back)

ANSWER KEYS

541

Thomson Exam Essentials TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 90 2 6 months 3 4 pm 4 (the) internet 5-7 IN ANY ORDER B F G 8 B 9 H 10 E Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C/A 12 B/D 13 28th August 14 People at Work 15 careers advice 16 Land from Air 17 balloon trip 18 B 19 E 20 C Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 C 23 C 24 A 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 B 29 C 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 Norway 32 organic 33 disease 34 plastic 35 mass manufacturing 36 packaging 37 disposable goods 38 C 39 E 40 D

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Andrew Sharpe 2 Beaconsfield House 3 0374 55793 4 MH66G4 5 credit card 6 Gold Star 7 Mid-winter 8 16 January 9 taxi 10 bicycle Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 D 12 A 13 C 14 F 15 E 16 personal information 17 skills 18 general 19 role-play 20 video Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 following the plan 22 individual responsibilities 23 advice service 24 reference section 25 methodology 26 websites 27 H 28 B 29 G 30 E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 competition 32 British Airways 33 invented 34 tides 35 distilled water 36 tension 37 base cap 38 A-frame 39 rings 40 boarding platform

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 76 2 £30 per year 3 teacher or parent 4 3 weeks 5 every month 6 60 km 7 (a) safety certificate 8 (on) July 14 9 (a) picnic 10 15% Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 2.30/7.30pm 12 CD 13 separate programme 14 dance festival 15 4 continents 16 14-20 March 17 Love and Hope 18 producer 19 singing competition 20 shown on TV Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 I 23 D 24 F 25 A 26 large private houses 27 window designs 28 typical furniture 29 outline plan 30 references Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 shake 32 bomb 33 journalism 34 functioned 35 regular movement 36 structure 37 travelling 38 chase 39 telephone conversations 40 editing

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 James Bowen 2 4 Lion Road 3 09954 721 822 4 history diploma 5 computer skills certificate 6 hospital 7 tour guide 8 swimming club 9 playing piano 10 June 28 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 breakfast 12 paintings 13 castle 14 famous people 15 antiques show 16 old postcards 17 E 18 F 19 A 20 D Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 B 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 crisis 32 specialist knowledge 33 definite market 34 obvious 35 director 36 regional stations 37 age group 38 C 39 B 40 C

542

ANSWER KEYS

Thomson Exam Essentials TEST 5 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 2 km 2 www.cheapstay.com 3 street festival 4 local musicians 5 natural history 6 sports centre/center 7 C 8 A 9 B 10 C Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12 B 13 B 14 creating value 15 line manager 16 positive 17 special offer 18 newsletter 19 progress meetings 20 E/B Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 E 23 F 24 G 25 standing 26 stick out 27 white patches 28 find food 29 calm 30 social nature Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 demolish 32 real consultation 33 self-help 34 services 35 invest money 36 community values 37 employment 38 freedom 39 specialist activities 40 understanding

TEST 6 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Grieves/Anna 2 Holiday World 3 FT 4551 4 3 5 August 16 6 11 7 Super 8 G 9 A 10 F Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 1992 12 hospital 13 numbers 14 train 15 food and drink 16 main square 17 minister for health 18 C 19 A 20 H Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 A 24 C 25 B 26 A 27 meaningless words 28 capital letters 29 colour / color 30 associations Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 spies 32 maps 33 collect data 34 climate 35 lift 36 weather protection 37 framework 38 airliners 39 crashes 40 cargo

ANSWER KEYS

543

IELTS on Track TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 C 3 D 4 C 5 A 6 advertise 7 donate 8 quote 9 charity 10 sell Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 corner 12 6 13 2 14 classes 15 swimming / swim 16 learn 17 program/programme 18 (music) videos 19 free 20 6 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 differences 22 Italian 23 Mexican 24 ingredients 25 Australia 26 restaurants 27 fat 28 cooking 29 40% 30 healthy Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 10 or more 32 lack of practice 33 preparation 34 topic 35 eye contact 36 slower 37 record yourself 38 meaning 39 posture 40 distracts

Section 1, Questions 1-11 1 Johnstone 2 126 3 0414 847 749 4 (about) 10 5 (Uncle's) shop (work) 5 C 7 B 8 D 9 A 10 E 11 C Section 2, Questions 12-21 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 yes 16 9:15 am 17 C 18 umbrella/backpack/ camera/snacks/drinks (any three sing. or pl.) 19 (on) noticeboard/(in) mail box 20 first iron bridge 21 IN ANY ORDER C D H Section 3, Questions 22-30 22 no change 23 Monday 12th March 24 (Wednesday) afternoons 25 no change 26 Wednesday mornings (21st March) 27 9 (and) 1 28 company (first) (then college) 29 30% 30 diagrams (and) flow charts Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 diagrams (and) flow charts 32 T 33 F 33 T 34 F 35 D 36 C 37 C 38 boiling water 39 rub 40 excess

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 3 2 brakes 3 (owner) going overseas 4 $1500 5 6:30 6 88 Princess / Prince's St / street 7 B 8 D 9 C 10 B Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 3 hours 12 grey (gray) whales 13 hot springs 14 swim (very) fast / playful / curious 15 black and white 16 14m/metres/meters 17 in the middle 18 (bright) orange 19 can't swim 20 on your arm / (at the) wrist Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 200 22 4 week 23 8 24 10 minute video / documentary 25 film-marking / film making 26 travel plan(s) 27 C 28 B 29 April 30 course / flights / travel/ cameras/ accommodation (any two) Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 D 32 C 33 B 34 keyboard/layout 35 70%/percent 36 50 words 37 accuracy (in typing) 38 speed 39 12 to 20 miles 40 D

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 D 2 533 East / E67(th) 3 93014269 4 CX / Cathay Pacific 912 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 clear customs 9&10 passport, key, ticket, baggage claim number (any two in any order for 2 marks) Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 10 (am) to 5 (pm) 12 www.ATSTIX.com 13 3 14 4 15 2 16 10th-14th 17 $35 18 $299 19 7:30 20 $2.50 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 G 22 A 23 C 24 C 25 D 26 B 27 B 28 A 29 select films 30 design program Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 clay / plastic 32 reeds 33 underground 34 tested 35 compost / soil 36 (healthy, natural) home / habitat 37 labour/labor 38 increases 39 unions / manufacturers 40 efficiency / winter / cold weather/ mosquitoes

544

ANSWER KEYS

Preparation and Practice TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

Section 1, Questions 1-11 1 D 2 B 3 C 4 D 5 C D 6 A E 7 7 8-11 IN ANY ORDER A C E F Section 2, Questions 12-19 12 (almost) one/a million 13 60% / 600 000 14 one in five / 20% / 200 000 15-16 IN EITHER ORDER joyriders professionals 17 professional 18 B 19 C Section 3, Questions 20-29 20 too much 21 new words 22 getting own ideas 23 too many / too early / not enough time 24 boring / not interesting 25 interesting / get(s) (most) benefit(s) / new information 26 give/giving presentations / reading seminar papers 27 people argue/disagree 28 D 29 B Section 4, Questions 30-40 30 study guide 31 course reader 32 university book shop 33 more difficult than / more challenging than 34 understanding of cultures / crosscultural sensitivity/understanding 35 cultural history 36-37 IN EITHER ORDER India / Indian China / Chinese 38 Cultural / religious / trade / trading 39 links/connections 40 background / basis / base

Section 1, Questions 1-11 1 M 9301274 2 863 5923 3 579 1857 4 B 5 B 6 D 7 R 8 A 9 A 10 OL 11 R Section 2, Questions 12-21 12 H 13 F G 14 G 15 C D E 16 J K L 17 lift lobbies 18 subject libraries / special libraries / specialist libraries 19 even [number(ed)] 20 odd [number(ed)] 21 one (&) two / 1 (&) 2 Section 3, Questions 22-31 22 9307568 23 (has/given) exemption / (has) practical experience/TV/film/movie experience 24 25, 26 June 25 C 26 B 27 M 28 T A 29 J 30 A 31 collect a sample / collect sample programs Section 4, Questions 32-40 32 coastal environment / environment of coast / natural resources / water resources 33 population shift / urban expansion / population growth / expansion 34 ageing population 35 government policies 36 urban sprawl / urban expansion/ growth will continue 37 (intensive) fish / (intensive) shellfish / (intensive) fish, shellfish. 38 adopt national approach / nationwide coordination 39 management and economics / management, economic practices 40 people affected / people concerned

Section 1, Questions 1-9 1 12 000 /12 thousand 2 boring / no entertainment 3 fishing 4 cost of living / expensive 5 cold and wet 6 (large) park 7 the weather 8 when she retires 9 5 years Section 2, Questions 10-19 10 E 11 D 12 B 13 keep/have your ticket 14 complaints 15 (modern) ballet 16 9.00 17 3 18 11.15 19 country and western Section 3, Questions 20-29 20 C 21 B 22 B 13 role models 24 (significant) minority 25 reality / real (life) 26 70 27 public opinion 28 (the) shopping mall 29 short (and) specific / multiple choice / simple Section 4, Questions 30-40 30 bad work good 31 (it) cuts wastage 32 (it) saves time 33 62% 34 safety 35 (the) manufacturing process 36 C 37 B 38 A 39 B or D 40 D or B

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545

Oxford IELTS Practice Tests TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 14 2 1.25 3 60 4 (lightweight) bags 5 lock 6 100 7 credit card 8 garage 9 health centre 10 Clark's (Cycle Hire) Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 stamp collecting 12 social 13 China 14 charities 15 political 16 Liberal Democrats 17 light opera 18 B 19 B 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (background) reading 22 content 23 edit (notes) 24 next lecture 25 week 26 at the front 27 leave a space 28 it saves time 29 signpost words 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 690 32 1915 33 First World War 34 Europe 35 70% / seventy per cent 36 shopping centre 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 B

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TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A Yes, definitely 2 A Yes, definitely 3 B Maybe 4 C Definitely not 5 B Maybe 6 A Yes, definitely 7 C 8 B 9 C 10 B Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 A 13 first year 14 (other) people 15 on their own 16 primary school 17 far (away) 18 everyone/everybody 19 activities 20 support services Section 3, Questions 21-30 21-23 IN ANY ORDER A E F 24 IN EITHER ORDER C D 25-27 IN ANY ORDER B E F 28 IN EITHER ORDER A B 29&30 IN EITHER ORDER A E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 (the) US, USA/America 32 success 33 1919 34 Goodrich's 35 pin 36 box 37 (metal) teeth 38 pull tab 39 top stop 40 B

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A 2 A 3 C 4 C 5 B 6 B 7 Wark 8 his hand luggage 9 wear tights 10 500 metres Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-13 IN ANY ORDER A C F 14 lifts that work 15 hearing impairment 16 visual doorbells 17 clear markings 18 extra time 19 emergency 20 D Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 C 22 B 23 F 24 E 25 A 26 D 27 D 28 B 29 B 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 sixth/6th 32 Chinese Arrows 33 Europe 34 shell 35 75/seventy-five mm/ millimetres 36 500/five hundred mm/ millimetres 37 lifting 38 B 39 C 40 B

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 driving licence 2 benefit book 3 insurance certificate 4 electricity bill 5 9.30-3.30 6 ground floor 7 no/nothing 8 F 9 A 10 C Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 work samples 12 job description 13 employees 14 experience or skills 15 ten minutes 16 take your time 17 ask for clarification 18 salary 19 confident 20 appearance Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 university 22 interesting 23 vocational 24 careers service 25 A 26 C 27 B 28 A 29 C 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 90,000 / ninety thousand 32 4 km / four kilometres 33 40 km / forty kilometres 34 C 35 A 36 B 37 (the) earthquake / shock waves 38 (the) explosion 39 sand 40 (the) (huge) waves

ANSWER KEYS

Action Plan for IELTS TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1-3 D, E, H (in any order) 4 29 LOCH Street 5 558 992 6 Saturday 1 May / 1st May/ May 1st 7 8 weeks / 2 months 8 A 9 E 10 D Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 cities 12 (a) palace 13 (the) coat hanger 14 government / state / state government 15 1924 16 800 houses 17 9.5 million 18 horse 19 2.3 kms / 2.3 kilometres 20 (a) ship / (an) earthquake Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 H 23 D 24 E 25 A 26 (the) Painted Gallery 27 (the) Main Gallery 28 B 29 A 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 selling / advertising (must have both words) 32 making money / profit 33 warmth / safety (must have both words) 34 individual 35 C 36 A 37 B 38 A 39 satisfied 40 better than expected

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547

Prepare for IELTS TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-12 1 10 Bridge Street 2 writing / writing class 3 Mrs Green 4 July 15(th) / 15(th) July / 15/7 5 1 / one 6 May 31(st) 7 June 4(th) / 4(th) June / 6/4 8 3 / three (days) 9 A 10 C 11 B 12 B Section 2, Questions 13-24 13 garbage 14 garbage 15 garbage 16 paper 17 charity 18 filters 19 A 20 B 21 D 22 B 23 D 24 C Section 3, Questions 25-36 25 Spanish 26 Building A 27 6 pm 28 Elementary 1/one 29 August 10(th) / 10(th) August / 10/8 30 D 31 C 32 D 33 A 34 D 35 F 36 G Section 4, Questions 37-41 37  lines for London, New York, Sydney, Paris, Tokyo (All ticked = 1 mark, fewer or more = 0; some right/wrong = 0) 38  lines for London, Hong Kong, New York, Sydney, Paris (All ticked = 1 mark, fewer or more = 0; some right/wrong = 0) 39 (very)/(extremely) poor 40 at different times 41 special (driving / priority) lanes

548

ANSWER KEYS

TEST 2 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 D 2 A 3 C 4 A 5 (to the/her) office 6 (his) brother 7 (by) 8 pm / 8 o’clock 8 City Square 9 People are funny 10 (the) new office / Newtown / New Town Section 2, Questions 11-22 11 Mrs Brooks 12 Lee 13 May / Mai / Mei 14 002312 15 (Mr) Anderson / Andersen 16 Flat 5/10 or 5/10 University Avenue/Ave 17 818 6074 18 B 19 C 20 B 21 D 22 C Section 3, Questions 23-31 23 guitar, classical 24 drums, rock 25 violin, country 26 piano, opera 27 flute, jazz 28 hearts / heartbeat / blood (flow) 29 blood pressure / heart beat 30 calming / relaxing / gentle 31 cultures Section 4, Questions 32-40 32 (the) patient / himself 33 smoking 34 young men 35 (the) sun 36 public health (standards) 37 healthy lifestyle choices 38 fun / a pleasure 39 warm-up (time) / stretching (exercises) 40 cross training

TEST 3 Section 1, Questions 1-8 1  2  3  4 7.00-9.00 am 5 6.00-8.00 pm 6 E 7 F 8 C Section 2, Questions 9-19 9 (the) Blue Mountains 10 Monday / Mon. / June 10(th) / 10/6 11 (the) front gate 12 8 am 13 (the) side gate 14 6 pm 15 (your / their) (own) lunch 16 strong shoes 17 11 am 18 First Aid kit 19 3B Section 3, Questions 20-30 20 8 am-8 pm / 8-8 21 9 am-9 pm / 9-9 22 24 hours 23 E (up to) 6 24 A 2 25 E 3 26 B and D 27 E and F 28 8 to 10(am) 29 200 / two hundred 30 a nurse / nursing Section 4, Questions 31-38 31 died (in 1900) 32 co-educational 33 ten / 10 34 teacher / university teacher 35 tolerance / debate / discussion 36 A 37 C 38 D

Prepare for IELTS TEST 4

TEST 5

Section 1, Questions 1-8 1 C 2 T 3 CT 4 CST 5 T 6 T 7 S 8 C Section 2, Questions 9-18 9  10 11 (pm) 11 11.30 (pm) 12  13  14 Thurs / Thursday 15 Smith Street 16 laying (telephone) cable(s) 17 (the) college grounds 18 side door Section 3, Questions 19-29 19 water wheel 20 gears 21 spray tube 22 holes 23 base 24 C 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 B 29 D Section 4, Questions 30-39 30 hunger 31 noise 32 study 33 tense 34 tired 35 45 degrees 36 relaxed 37 chew 38 exercise 39 smoky

Section 1, Questions 1-9 1 A 2 B 3 D 4 A 5 D 6 C 7 A 8 3 9 5 Section 2, Questions 10-20 10 8.25 (AM) 11 coach 12 2 13 Friday 14 (sailing) boat 15 (Greek) music 16 B; D 17 A; B 18 B; D 19 Greek tour 20 AA3 (not aa3) Section 3, Questions 21-31 21 1987 22 Turkey 23 English for farming 24 16 weeks / 4 months 25 14 (students) 26 former/previous/old students 27 advanced (students) 28 all (students) 29 advanced (students) 30 all (students) 31 beginners Section 4, Questions 32-40 32 A 33 C 34 B 35 D 36 B 37 A 38 Social life 39 Hide (extra) fees 40 The government

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549

Barron's IELTS TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 1 A 2 C 3 B 2 IN ETHER ORDER B D 3 IN ETHER ORDER A D 4 9:00-10:00 5 Intermediate 6 Beginner 7 Tuesday, Thursday 8 9:00-2:00 9 B 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-13 IN ANY ORDER Taking photographs Eating Drinking 14 Living room 15 Art 16 Roses 17 Café 18 Parking area 19 5 p.m. 20 8 p.m. Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 several European countries / Europe 22 1964 23 200 24 drive (cars) 25 frequent and affordable 26 congestion 27-37 IN ANY ORDER B D F G Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 Germany 32 studying math(s)/ mathematics 33 at age 15 34 1896 35 1898 36 a teaching diploma 37 a Swiss citizen 38 had a daughter 39 1903 40 1904

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 A 3 B 4 C 5 C 6 B 7 A 8 MULTIPLE POSSIBLE ANSWERS (a) Employees are polite (b) Give good service (c) Very good service (d) Polite employees 9 “It’s very expensive.” 10 MULTIPLE POSSIBLE ANSWERS (a) add more parking (b) more parking spaces/places (c) add parking spaces/places (d) add parking Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 A 12-14 IN ANY ORDER A D F 15-17 IN ANY ORDER C E F 18 by an adult 19 MULTIPLE POSSIBLE ANSWERS (a) running “No running near the pool” (b) children alone 20 shower Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 weekly/once a week/every week 22 350 to 400 23 Process 24 Classification 25 Compare and contrast 26 homework 27 B 28 C 29 C 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 Introduction to Anthropology 32 Tuesday 33 women 34 twelve thousand years 35 some desert areas/deserts 36 rainforests/tropical rainforests 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 A

Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Patty 2 17 3 apartment 4 cell 5 B 6 A 7 C 8 C 9 B 10 C Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 mainly commercial area 12 too far 13 prices are low 14 a car 15 University’s Student Center / Student Center wall 16 Local newspaper/The Greenfield Times 17 bus schedules 18 roommate matching 19 inexpensive furniture stores 20 meal Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 your health 22 cheaper than 23 pollution 24 bad weather 25 a long distance 26 make bike lanes 27 lock up bikes/lock bikes 28 bicycling maps 29 helmet 30 waterproof clothes Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 suggested topics list 32 final approval/professor’s approval 33 Gather information 34 magazines and newspapers 35 encyclopedias/ encyclopaedias 36 Write thesis statement 37 body 38 conclusion 39 Organize/Organise your notes 40 Revise your draft

550

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TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 C 2 A 3 Milford 4 1659798164 5 32.70 6 Library 7 Bank 8 Post Office 9 Museum 10 Hotel Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 56,000 12 26 13 23 14 windy 15 entertainment 16 very quiet 17 75 kilometers 18 C 19 D 20 E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 next Thursday 22 40 23 TV watching habits / people’s TV habits 24 library research 25 research method 26 questionnaire 27 Submit 28 Send out questionnaires 29 Make charts 30 report Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 A 32 D 33 E 34 F 35 39-49 36 black 37 sticks 38 trees/bushes/trees and bushes 39 3 to 6 40 35

IELTS Help Now TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 48 2 R16 GH7 3 07754 897 432 4 PA 365 5 E6 6-8 IN ANY ORDER B D E 9 C 10 C Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 Student's Union 12 University Library 13 Hall of Residence 14 Sports Hall 15 2 hours 16 final exams 17 6 pm 18 vegetarian 19 (fully) insures 20 £50 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Tuesday 22 economics 23 free/nothing 24 squash 25 Main sports hall 26 about 10 27 Africa and Asia 28 4000 words 29 30th October 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 B 33 B 34 B 35 very calm seas 36 larger slicks 37 toxic waste 38 eco-friendly 39 No (discernable) drawbacks / none 40 deadline for submission

TEST 2 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 B 3 C 4 A 5 B 6 B 7 34 8 $100 9 room service 10 $9 Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 (about) 6 foot 12 (A) black leather jacket 13 Fat 14 Clean shaven 15 Early 20s 16 increased competition 17 significant number 18 environmental groups 19 mayor 20 30th Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Civil engineering 22 physics 23 Delivered furniture / Furniture delivery 24 Hotel work 25 (a very) good reputation 26 hiking/ mountaineering 27 Sandwich 28 5 exams 29 15,000 words minimum 30 June Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 dissertations and theses 32 information societies 33 statistical quality 34 Low in cost / Cheap 35 Expensive / The cost 36 travelling (around) 37 Easy 38 closed 39 panel design 40 (completely) anonymous summaries

TEST 3 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Green Street 2 7434 3 1976 4 06634 982 746 5 (An addressed) letter 6-8 IN ANY ORDER A D F 9 free/nothing 10 $6 ($60 deposit) Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-14 ANY THREE IN ANY ORDER accidents/burns heart surgery/organ transplants patients with leukaemia/cancer premature babies 15 carrying/carry oxygen 16 immune/defence System 17 carrying/carries/carry 18 outpatients 19 4.30pm 20 17 Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 staff 22 Library 23 2 hours 24 in pen 25 biology 26 tray 27 nothing 28 A 29 B 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 1964 32 fastest average speed 33 12 seconds 34 most important stations 35 all stations 36 centralised power system 37 flimsy 38 brake 39 magnetic Induction 40 semiconductor technologies

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551

IELTS Help Now TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Jacobs 2 Rod 3 Highfield 4 NH 87 18 12 C 5 Dr. (Kevin) White 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 B Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 5 pound fee 12 University card 13 daily 14 Friday(s) 15 6 16 1 week 17 computers 18 non-lending section 19 Arts 20 Basement Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 tomorrow 22 reliability 23 4000 words 24 e-mail attachment 25 market surveys 26 stack system 27 plagiarism/using their conclusions 28 extension 29 doctor's note/certificate 30 mortgage interest rates Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 A 34 seismic detection system 35 buoys (at sea) 36 Offshore landslide 37 no wave/zero feet 38 Submarine earthquake 39 26,000 people 40 none

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ANSWER KEYS

TEST 5 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Jameson 2 Forest Avenue 3 8490 4 6249 7152 5 1-5 6 4.30 pm 7 1 hour 8 the cliffs 9 1.30 pm 10 A sweater Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 mean sea level 12 concrete and granite 13 About 79 14 438 15 falling 16 (postage) stamps 17-20 IN ANY ORDER D F G J Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 chatting / talking 22 too expensive 23 take too long 24 1000 25 statistically significant 26 500 27 5 28-30 IN ANY ORDER A D E Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 E 32 A 33 D 34 B 35 A 36 C 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 B

Collins Practice Tests for IELTS TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 623 2 Tomas 3 17624 4 International 5 August 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11-13 IN ANY ORDER A E F 14-16 IN ANY ORDER classical music show international folk music History of jazz 17 B 18 C 19&20 IN EITHER ORDER B C Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Wednesday 22 women in education 23 half an hour / 30 minutes 24 projector and laptop / computer 25 (the) seminar room 26 C 27 B 28 A 29 B 30 A Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A 33 B 34 C 35 A 36 C 37 B 38-40 IN ANY ORDER B D E

TEST 2 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 B 2 B 3 C 4 60 5 14 6 police station 7 38864 8 A 9 bookshop 10 (library) café Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 A 13 C 14 B 15 B 16 C 17 set/pair of headphones 18 14 days / 2weeks 19 5.30 20 booked / reserved Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 set expressions 26 sentence structures 27 short 28 A 29 C 30 F Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 A 33 B 34 A 35-37 IN ANY ORDER B D E 38 to arrange 39 a legal requirement 40 the placement officer / Greg Smith

TEST 3 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 JTW 2 90,000 3 on the road 4 fire and theft 5-7 IN ANY ORDER B D G 8 B56 1ED 9 debit card / Visa card 10 on the Internet Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 30,000 12 200 13 bad weather (conditions) 14 falling rocks 15 C 16 A 17 A 18-20 IN ANY ORDER C D F Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 Monday and Thursday 22 (a) (revision) timetable 23 arranging (their) materials 24 word for word 25 facts 26 (nicely) organised 27 key points 28 author and publisher 29 C 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A 33 B 34 D 35 A 36 C 37 B 38 & 39 IN EITHER ORDER A C 40 A

TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 24 hours 2 snacks and taxis 3 debit card 4 2.30 5 5(.00) 6 anytime 7 1.30 8 A 9 A 10 B Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 full time 1 13 off / one third off 3 14 holiday offers 15 £65 16&17 IN EITHER ORDER B C 18 C 19 B 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (the) second assignment 22 24th November 23 17th November 24 (the) booking forms 25 19th November 26 A 27 B 28 A 29 C 30 C Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 formal eating 32 emotional state 33 positive and negative 34 overweight 35 E 36 P 37 E 38 P 39 P 40 C

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553

IELTS for Academic Purposes TEST 1 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 A 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 barbecue 7 7/seven 8 discuss their day 9 (some) / (the) caves 10 buses Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 director / Director 12 reception staff 13 35 / thirty-five 14 10 and 3 / ten and three 15 get involved 16 emotional or physical 17 homesickness 18 daily 19 (about) 45 minutes / forty-five minutes 20 (the) Counselling Service Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 C 23 diagnosis 24 pure rational thought 25 (the) 11th century 26 problem 27 analyse 28 unreliable / unusual / surprising 29 modify 30 communicate Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 (the) South Bank 32 (a) power station 33 contemporary artists 34 (a) gasworks 35 (a) 3/three-storey building 36 modern British artists 37 1897 38 historic 39 temporary exhibitions 40 (a) warehouse

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TEST 2 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 (the) local clinic 2 a charity event 3 hold a protest 4 B 5 C 6 A 7 financial situation 8 socially 9 for free 10 Volunteers Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 B 14 A 15 1.6 m/metres 16 benches 17 46 C / forty-six degrees centigrade 18 minerals 19 healing powers 20 60/sixty and 70/seventy Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (urban) transport systems 22 (traffic) congestion 23 (a) status symbol 24 £5 / five pounds 25 (a) credit card 26 alternate days 27 rapid transit 28 17% / seventeen per cent 29 (special) parking facilities / areas 30 arrests Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 medical profession 32 narrow 33 physicians 34 human dimension/mind 35 E 36 A 37 G 38 H 39 D 40 C

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TEST 3 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Sanders 2 4456786 3 leave (a) message 4 50/fifty 5 25th (of) June 6 round 7 large 8 5/five 9 B 10 A Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 C 14 A 15 A 16 A 17 B 18 8,000/8000/ eight thousand 19 350 20 state rooms Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 (our) past mistakes 22 what they thought 23 in a job 24 flexible and adaptable 25 F 26 C 27 A 28 H 29 E 30 G Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 C 33 A 34 A 35 C 36 B 37 C 38 (photographic) evidence 39 the second/2nd 40 (nuclear) war

TEST 4 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 12/twelve 2 3/three 3 abroad 4 50/fifty minutes 5&6 IN EITHER ORDER A D 7 (the) (student) noticeboard(s) / notice board(s) / notice-board(s) 8 Hillside (College) 9 literature/Literature 10 (on) Monday Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 C 12 A 13 B 14 C 15 B 16 a million dollars / $1000000 / $1,000,000 / 1,000,000 / 1000000 dollars 17 (in) the jungle 18 D 19 F 20 A Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 B 22 A 23 C 24 B 25 B 26 A 27 F 28 A 29 D 30 B Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 C 32 A 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 B 37 A 38 Ireland 39 soccer/football and basketball 40 shorter

IELTS for Academic Purposes TEST 5 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 Alpine Avenue 2 DMX 3 silver 4 four Star / four star 5 memory card 6 waterproof 7 (big) scratch 8 replacement 9 refund 10 Customer Services / customer services Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 F 12 G 13 D 14 B 15 H 16-18 IN EITHER ORDER B C E 19 every year 20 elderly people Section 3, Questions 21-30 21 A 22 B 23 B 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 (the) library 28 (the) staff 29 (library) computers 30 search engine Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 Minority/minority 32 Number/number 33 Population/population 34 total 35 15% 36 Europe 37 common language 38 (economic) status 39 oral traditions 40 literate

TEST 6 Section 1, Questions 1-10 1 34/thirty-four 2 on Monday 3 Paul Scott 4 Hill Street 5 (the) school secretary 6 7.30 / seven thirty 7 11pm/eleven p.m. latest 8 Bath 9 tax and insurance 10 (the) school accountant Section 2, Questions 11-20 11 B 12 C 13 study skills 14 castle and museum 15 academic staff 16 150 17 Trade Fair 18-20 IN ANY ORDER A D E Section 3, Questions 21-30 21-23 IN ANY ORDER A B E 24 eating snacks 25 loses control 26 embarrassed 27 extreme diets 28 eating again 29 diabetes 30 Overeaters Anonymous Section 4, Questions 31-40 31 B 32 B 33 C 34 100 million /100,000,000 35 fusion reactor 36 lasers 37 reactor 38 (fusion) reaction 39 steam 40 1/one kilogram/kg

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555

IELTS Listening Ultimate

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