How long is the period of validity of a UAE GCAA issued aircrew license? A. B. C. D.
lifetime 4 years 12 months 6 months
A
UAECARS PART II, 1.6.1
1.
What must be in personal possession of the flight crew member when flying a UAE registered aircraft?
A. B. C. D.
aircraft registration certificate the flight crew member’s medical certificate the flight crew member’s UAE GCAA issued aircrew license both the flight crew member’s medical certificate and UAE GCAA issued aircrew license
D
UAECARS PART II, 1.2.1.1 and 1.2.3
2. What item, in addition to life preservers and life rafts, must be carried by an aircraft flying extended over water operations? A. B. C. D.
Flares Food rations appropriately equipped survival kits for each life raft spare radio
C
UAECARS PART IV, 11.9.4.2
All the above answers are right, but it appears that C may be the most correct. 3. Foreign civil aircraft based in the UAE may be operated …….. A. B. C. D.
at any time only during day light hours by two pilot crew only if specific flight authorization has been issued by D.G.C.A.
D
UAECARS PART III, 6.10.2
4. Before take-off and landing, ATC will issue a pilot with? A. B. C. D.
QNH setting ambient temperature QFE setting only time (UST)
A
AIP ENR 1.7.2.1, 1.7.3.1(a) (b)
5. QNH is? A. the ambient atmospheric pressure measured at airfield elevation B. 1013 mb set on the altimeter subscale C. 29.92 in/hg set on the altimeter subscale D. the ambient atmospheric pressure measured at airfield elevation corrected to provide the atmospheric pressure at Mean Sea Level D
ICAO
6. A SVFR flight must have? A. B. C. D.
a minimum flight visibility of at least 1500 meters a minimum ceiling of 1000 feet a minimum flight visibility of at least 3 statute miles a minimum ceiling of 1000 meters
A
UAECARS PART III, item 3.3 (b)
7. What is the lowest height that a VFR aircraft may operate over a congested area? A. 1000 feet AGL B. 500 feet AGL C. at or below 500 feet AGL D. at an altitude from which in the event of an engine failure an emergency landing can be made without causing harm to people or property on the ground. A
UAECARS PART III, 3.6
8. What is required when operating a multi-engine aeroplane with inoperable equipment? A. B. C.
A DGAA approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL),onboard the aeroplane. A Maintenance log, onboard the aeroplane. The Inoperable equipment must be removed from the aeroplane.
D.
The Inoperable equipment must be removed from the aeroplane and placarded.
A
UAECARS PART IV, 11.4.1
9. VFR minimums in class C, D, E and G at and above 10,000 feet MSL are? A. B. C. D.
8km vis, clearance from clouds - 1500m horizontally, 300m above, 300m below 5km vis, clearance from clouds - 1500m horizontally, 300m above, 300m below 8km vis, clearance from clouds - 3000 feet horizontally, 300 feet above, 300 feet below 5km vis, clearance from clouds - 1500m horizontally, 1000 feet above, 1000 feet below
A
UAECARS PART III, Chapter 3.2.1 and AIP ENR 1.4
10. VFR minimums in class C, D, E and G below 10,000 feet MSL. A. B. C. D.
8km vis, clearance from clouds -1500m horizontally, 300m above, 300m below 5km vis, clearance from clouds -1500m horizontally, 300m above, 300m below 8km vis, clearance from clouds - 3000m horizontally, 300m above, 300m below 8km vis, clearance from clouds - 500m horizontally, 500m above, 500m below
B
UAECARS PART III, 3.2.1 & AIP ENR 1.4
11. What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from cloud requirements when a VFR flight is flying in G airspace at or below 900m AMSL and/or 300m above terrain whichever is the higher? A. B. C. D.
5km Visibility* - clear of clouds and insight of ground/water 10km Visibility - clear of clouds and insight of ground/water 1km Visibility - clear of clouds and insight of ground/water 8km Visibility - clear of clouds and insight of ground/water
A
UAECARS PART III, Chapter 3.2.1 & AIP ENR 1.4
*NB: 5km visibility is only required when so prescribed by the GCAA, UAE 12. What is the minimum radio (avionics) equipment for flight A. B. C. D.
A VHF radio A transponder An ELT A VHF radio, a transponder, an ELT
D UAECARS PART V Chapter 1 - 6.2.7.1 – although this Is not definitive as being the minimum radio equipment 13. What will be the expiry date of a class 2 medical certificate issued on 17 June 2004 to a 25 year old commercial pilot? A. B. C. D.
30th June 2005 31st December 2004 30th June 2006 31st January 2005
A
UAECARS PART II 1.7
14. What is ISA +10 at a pressure altitude of 9000 feet? A.
7° C
B.
-7° C
C.
15° C
D.
5° C
A
Common Sense
15. What is the height of the Transition Altitude in the UAE FIR? A. B. C. D.
3000 feet AMSL 13000 feet AMSL 5000 feet AMSL 10000 feet AMSL
B
UAECARS PART III, 2.30(a) and AIP ENR 1.7.2.2
16. What is the Transition Level in the UAE FIR? A. B. C. D.
FL150 FL30 FL180 FL100
A
UAECARS PART III, 2.30(b) and AIP ENR 1.7.2.3
17. How much separation exists between opposite traffic above the Transition Level A. B. C. D.
2000 feet 1500 feet 1000 feet 500 feet
C
AIP ENR 1.7.5
NB 1000feet separation FL150 to FL400, 2000ft separation above FL410 18. What is the maximum number of days allowed for filing a written report to U.A.E. DGCA following an accident? A. B. C. D.
3 days 10 days 14 days 28 days
B
UAECARS PART VI, Chapter 34.5.1.1
19. How many hours on type must a pilot have before he may act as Pilot in Command of a multi-engine, turbine powered aeroplane? A. B. C. D.
25 hours on type 15 hours on type 20 hours on type 30 hours on type
C
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 14.3.2.1(c)
20. What is the minimum fuel for IFR flight if an alternative is required to be filed? A. 45 minutes + 10% of planned flying time B. enough to conduct a missed approach C. enough to fly to destination, execute an instrument approach and a missed approach, fly to an alternate and then 45 minutes at cruise D. 15 US gallons
C
UAECARS PART IV, 4.11
NB There are different rules for different types of ac and for helicopters. The above question refers to propellerdriven aircraft. Have a good read of this section and have the different fuel requirements for IFR/VFR, aircraft and helicopters, sorted out in your head. 21. Which part of the UAECARS details the requirements of Personnel Licensing? A. B. C. D.
Part I Part II Part III Part IV
B 22. Which of the aircraft listed below require the PIC and Co-pilot (if one is required) to hold a type rating for the aircraft being flown? A. B. C. D.
all helicopters all aeroplanes certified for a minimum of 2 crew turbine powered multiengine aircraft All of the above
D
UAECARS PART II, 2.1.3.2(a)
23. What is the fuel reserve required for a daytime, VFR flight? A. B. C. D.
60 minutes 30 minutes 20 minutes 15 minutes
B
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 4.11.2(b) (2) (i)
NB Question above is for aircraft (not helicopters) You can assume that all questions are aircraft, unless stated or, in the helicopter section of the first Air Law exam. 24. What is the fuel reserve required for a nighttime VFR flight? A. B. C. D.
45 minutes 30 minutes 20 minutes 60 minutes
A
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 4.11.2(b) (2) (i)
25. How does an intercepting aircraft signal to another aircraft being it is to follow him? A. By positioning off the PORT wing of the intercepted aircraft B. By positioning off the STARBOARD wing of the intercepted aircraft C. by positioning in FRONT of and to the left of the intercepted aircraft, then rocking its wings and looking for an acknowledgement from\the intercepted aircraft, followed by a slow level-turn on to the desired heading D. by positioning BEHIND of and to the left of the intercepted aircraft, then rocking its wings and looking for an acknowledgement from\the intercepted aircraft, followed by a slow level-turn on to the desired heading C AIP ENR 1.12.4 (Annex 2 –Rules of the Air, Attachment A) if you an find Annex2 then well done!! – Probably in ICAO Annex 2 Appendix 1 & 2 26. What ‘signal’ is used by an intercepted aircraft to respond to an interception? A. B. C. D.
Transmit acknowledgement on 121.5 Rocking of wings then following the lead aircraft Follow the lead aircraft if you can keep up Switch navigation lights on and follow lead aircraft
B AIP ENR 1.12.4 (Annex 2 –Rules of the Air, Attachment A) if you an find Annex2 then well done!! Probably in ICAO Annex 2 Appendix 1 & 2 27. Is flying activity allowed in a danger area without first obtaining an ATC clearance? A. B. C. D.
Yes - but only during daytime VFR No Yes, but with extreme caution Yes but only on if an IFR flight plan
C
ICAO
28. Is flying activity allowed in a Restricted or Prohibited area without first obtaining an ATC clearance? A. B. C. D.
yes - but only during daytime VFR no yes, but with extreme caution yes but only on a IFR flight plan
B UAECARS PART III, 2.11.1-2. There are several variations on the above two questions. There is also a question that asks whether you can go into a restricted area under special circumstances… which is obviously true – ie military aircraft in a military restricted area. So watch the wording of the questions! 29. 30. What recency of experience requirement is required to act as PIC at night? A. B. C. D.
In the last 90 days - 3 take-off and landings in the same category, class and type. In the last 60 days - 3 take-off and landings in the same category, class and type. In the last 90 days - 6 take-off and landings in the same category, class and type. In the last 60 days - 6 take-off and landings in the same category, class and type.
A
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 14.3.3.1(e)
31. How long after consuming alcohol must a pilot wait before operating an aircraft? A. B. C. D.
24 hours 18 hours 12 hours 8 hours
D
UAECARS PART III, 1.6.2(a)
32. When must oxygen be used by flight crew members in unpressurised aircraft? A. B. C. D.
after 30 minutes between 10,000 and 13,000 feet PA and all the time above 13,000 feet PA at all times above 10,000 feet PA after 30 minutes between 10,000 and 14,000 feet PA and all the time above 14,000 feet PA after 20 minutes between 10,000 and 13,000 feet PA and all the time above 13,000 feet PA
A
UAECARS PART IV, 11.8.2.1
33. The privileges of a Private Pilot License allow a pilot to? A. B. C. D.
fly privately only - not for hire or reward charge passengers for certain flights undertake flight training be paid for all flying activities.
A
UAECARS PART II, 2.3.7
34. Who is responsible to ensure that an aircraft has been returned to an airworthy condition prior to its next flight after a defect has been entered in the technical log? A. B. C. D.
the pilot in command (PIC) the chief engineer the operator the owner
A
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 2.4.1.3
35. When upgrading a license, a co-pilot may be credited with? A. B. C. D.
more than 50% of his co-pilot time not more than 75% of his co-pilot time not more than 50% of his co-pilot time not more than 25% of his co-pilot time
C
UAECARS PART II, 2.1.10.2
36. What is the maximum allowable duty time for a pilot flying Air Transport Operations? A. B. C. D.
14 hours in 24 hours 18 hours in 24 hours 12 hours in 24 hours 10 hours in 24 hours
A
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 17.13.2 Table A
37. Is VFR flight permitted in Class A airspace? A. B. C. D.
no yes yes, with an operable mode A 4096 and mode C transponder yes, with ATC approval and mode A 4096 and mode C transponder
A
UAECARS PART III, 3.2.1 and AIP ENR 1.4
38. What is the average expected time of useful consciousness if an explosive decompression is experienced at FL310? A. B. C. D.
approx 30 minutes 5 - 10 minutes 45 - 75 seconds you will black out immediately
C 39. What are the maximum allowable flight performance times for a pilot flying Air Transport Operations? A. B. C. D.
per day 8 hours/30 days 100 hours/90 days 300 hours/I1 year 1000 hours per day 12 hours/30 days 120 hours/90 days 360 hours/1 year 1200 hours per day 10 hours/30 days 300 hours/90 days 900 hours/1 year 1200 hours per day 10 hours/30 days 200 hours/90 days 800 hours/1 year 1200 hours
A
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 1.1125
NB. Know about 28 days/100 hrs 40. A pilot cannot act as PIC of a large aeroplane in IMC unless he has had a pilot proficiency check (PPC) AND an Instrument Competency Check in the preceding; A. B. C. D.
12 months 9 months 6 months 3 months
C
UAECARS PART IV, Chapter 14.20.1.2(b)
41. 42. What is the recent experience required by a pilot who intends to fly as PIC of an aircraft to be operated as IFR flight or in weather conditions less than VFR, within the Last 6 months? A. 6hrs of actual or simulated inst time of which 3hrs must be on same category or pass an instrument competency check with a UAE licensed instructor or D.G.C.A inspector or company check pilot B. 6 hrs of simulated instrument flying of any type and category, a check flight with any instructor who holds a UAE instrument rating. C. 6hrs of simulated inst time of which 3hrs must be on same category or pass an instrument competency check with a UAE licensed instructor or D.G.C.A inspector or company check pilot. D. 6hrs of actual or simulated inst time of which 2hrs must be on same category or pass an instrument competency check with a UAE licensed instructor or D.G.C.A inspector or company check pilot.
A
UAE CAR part IV, 14.3.3.1(h)
43. Where may SVFR be authorized and what are the conditions associated with such operations? A. in control zones (CTR): the aircraft is to be flown beneath the ceiling, clear of cloud and in sight of ground and with a flight visibility of not less than 1500 m. B. in CTA Class C airspace only: the aircraft is to be flown beneath the ceiling, clear of cloud and in sight of ground and with a flight visibility of not less than 500 m. C. in control zones (CTR): There are no conditions because when in a control zone and the aircraft will get an ATC clearance D. in CTA Class C airspace only: There are no conditions because when in a CTA and the aircraft will get an ATC clearance A
UAE CAR part III, 3.3
44. What class of medical is required by a 40 year old dash-7 captain? A. a class 3 medical B. the captain is only 40 so a class 2 medical is required C. 40 year old dash-7 means he is still less than 50 years old and so only a class 2 medical is required D. because a dash-7 has more than 15 passenger seats he then requires an ATP license, and so requires a Class 1 medical D
UAE CAR part II, 1.7 UAE CAR iv, chapter 2, 5.2 (2)
45. The above pilot has is medical exam on 31 Dec 1995, when does his medical certificate expire? A. B. C. D.
01-Jan-97 30-Jun-96 31-Dec-96 01-Oct-96
B
UAE CAR II, 1.7
46. When are VFR position reports required? A. aircraft operating a controlled flight " must file a position report after 30 mins then every hour after. Aircraft in class E" space file reports every 60 mins B. aircraft operating a controlled flight" must file position reports every 30 minutes C. aircraft operating a controlled flight " must file a position report after 30 mins then every hour after. Aircraft in class E" space file reports every 30 mins D. over compulsory reporting points
C ICAO Annex 2 47. What procedures specific to the UAE and in addition to the standard ICAO procedures apply with respect to Radio Communication Failure (RCF) while receiving an ATC Radar Control service? A. Transmit a ‘PAN PAN PAN’ call, close the throttle and land immediately B. Select Mode” A" code 7600 maintain last assigned heading for 3 miles before following the general procedures as specified in ICAO Annex 2, 3.6.5.2 C. Select Mode” A" code 7600 maintain last assigned heading for 3 minutes before following the general procedures as specified in ICAO Annex 2, 3.6.5.2 D. immediately on becoming aware of the RCF fly a RIGHT hand patterned triangle each leg/side of which being equivalent to 1 minute flight time, before following the general procedures as specified in ICAO Annex 2, 3.6.5.2 C
AIP ENR 1.6.1.3
48. What are the maximum number of seats, in addition to the flight attendant(s), an aircraft operated under part iv (ATO) must be equipped with a Public address system and Crew member interphone system? A. B. C. D.
29 19 39 no maximum number as long as the captain and crew can communicate
B
CAR OPS 1.690
49. Is an ATC clearance and a flight plan mandatory for IFR flight in controlled airspace? A. B. C. D.
yes, both are mandatory no, only a clearance is mandatory no, only a flight plan is mandatory neither is mandatory
A
UAE CAR part III, 2.23.1.1
50. What are the separation criteria in U.A.E. airspaces following airspaces: (Classes A' C' D' E' G' airspaces A. Class A IFR from IFR: Class C IFR from IFR and IFR from VFR: Class D IFR from IFR only Class E IFR from IFR only Class G no separation from anybody B. separation of IFR from IFR from VFR applies in all classes of airspace C. Class A IFR from VFR: Class C IFR from IFR from VFR: Class D IFR from IFR only Class E IFR from IFR only Class G no separation from anybody D. There are no separation requirements for Classes A' C' D' E' G' airspaces
A
UAE CAR part III, 3.2.1 / AIP ENR 1.4
51. Validity of the Medical Licence of an over -40 PPL? A. B. C. D.
6 Months 12 months 24 months 36 months
B 52. In the semi circular rule, above 3000 ft, would use odds or even flight level according to? A. B. C. D.
Magnetic track Magnetic course Magnetic heading True course
A 53. Which one is Air Transport Operation? A. B. C. D.
Carrying week end campers for hire to a mountain airstrip. Aerial work. Student instruction Pipeline work
A 54. What part details the schedule of aircraft documents that must be carried on board? A. Aircraft manual B. Part II C. Part III D. Part IV D CAR OPS 1 .125, 1.130. 1.135 55. The AIP is? A. B. C. D. A
Advisory in nature, not regulatory Regulatory in nature, not advisory Amended quarterly Permanent, never amended
56. Aircraft accident reporting procedure is part of?
A.
NTSB part 830
B. C. D. E.
Part VI Part II Part III AIP
B CAR VI CH III 57. How often does a dash-7 Captain or Copilot require a Proficiency check (PPC)? A. B. C. D.
every 12months because Dash-7 is below 5700kgs every 18months regardless of category Captains and Copilots don’t need proficiency checks. every 6months because Dash-7 is above 5700kg
D
UAE CAR, OPS I 1.965(B)(2) & (3)
58. Which part of the UAE CAR deal with Aircraft Airworthiness and require Certificates and documents? A. B. C. D.
Part I Part II Part V Part IV
C
N/A
59. What equipment must be carried by Transport category aeroplanes operated in the UAE? A. An operable aural speed warning device, and if its turbine powered, an operable altitude alerting system or device. B. There are no Mandatory devices for aircraft in the UAE. C. Aircraft must be fitted with speed audio and Altitude devices but do not have to be in working order. D. Altitude alerting for Turbine powered aircraft, but not mandatory for audio speed alerting. A
UAE CAR Part IV, 11.15 (ish)
60. What airspace in the UAE is uncontrolled? A. All airspace in the UAE FIR below 15,000 feet AMSL (FL150) is uncontrolled B. Class G' airspace - surface to 10,000 feet AMSL C. Class G' airspace - surface to 4500 feet AMSL out side of control zones (CTR) and terminal Control areas (TMA) D. None
C
AIP ENR 1.4 (diagram)
61. What is the minimum altitude and visibility for aerobatic flight? A. B. C. D.
No aerobatics below 1500 feet above the surface, minimum visibility 8 km depends on pilot experience, and so has no height limits or Vis limits No aerobatics below 1000 feet above the surface, minimum visibility 8 km No aerobatics below 1000 feet above the surface, minimum visibility 5 km
A
UAE CAR Part III, 2.8.1(d)(e)
62. What rest is required if flight times are exceeded by: 30 mins:-----more than 60 mins: A. B. C. D.
No rest is required if pilot is sure of his awareness and ability to perform his duties 30min-6hrs rest, 60min-9hrs rest, over 60mins 12 hrs rest 30min-3hrs rest, 60min-6hrs rest, over 60mins 9hrs rest 30min-12hrs rest, 60min-16hrs rest, over 60mins 24 hrs rest
D
UAE CAR, Part IV Not entirely clear.
60 mins:------ and
63. How can you determine if an airport has an Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) and how often is it updated? A. Look in the aircraft flight manual for details B. Call the airport information desk in the main terminal. C. ATIS is not an accurate information service and should be disregarded. D. Check the comms' box on the instrument approach procedure chart. ATIS is issued every hour on the hour starting with information "alpha" at 0000Z D
ICAO maybe
64. Which Class of airspace in the UAE is for IFR traffic only? A. B. C. D.
Class E" --->FL100 Class A" --- >FL150 Class A" D" E" Class A" C" D"
B
UAE CAR Part III, 3.2.1
65. Which airspaces classifications are used in the UAE? A. B. C. D.
A" D" E" & G" only A" C" D" E" & only C" D" E" & G" only A" C" D" E" & G"
D
UAE CAR part III, 3.2.1 / AIP ENR 1.3
66. On a terminal area forecast (TAF), what does the "TEMPO" mean? A. it means the TAF issued is temporary and could be canceled at anytime. B. it means that the indicated weather condition may exist, but not for more than 50% of the stated time period or it is BECMG. C. it means weather for the temporary time period is unavailable. D. it has no real significance B 67.
What part of the UAE Regulations is concerned with Personal Licensing?
A.
Part II
68.
What part of the UAE Regulations is concerned with Rules of the Air?
A.
Part III
69. Which of the following is true regarding pilot documentation requirements during performance of duties as any flight crewmember? A. No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of UAE registry unless he has in his possession a current pilot license issued to him under Part II, Personal Licensing. CAR Part II, 1.2.1.1
70.
Which of the following is true regarding pilot medicals?
A. No person may act as pilot-in-command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft under a license issued to him under Part II, unless he has in his possession an appropriate current medical certificate issued under Part II. CAR Part II, 1.2.3 71.
Where must the pilot's medical certificate be kept?
A.
The medical certificate must be securely attached to the pilot's license.
CAR Part II, Chapter 1, para1.2.3 72.
Is a pilot authorized to act as pilot in command in VFR operations at night without an Instrument Rating?
A. Yes, if PIC receives a clearance from ATC to operate in controlled airspace under the jurisdiction of the ATC unit issuing the clearance. CAR Part IV. 3.4 and Part II 1.2.5 73. What license and/or ratings are required for an Helicopter pilot to act as pilot in command of an Helicopter under IFR, or in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed for VFR flight (meaning "Special VFR"), or at night. A. The pilot must hold an Helicopter Instrument Rating or Airline Transport License with a helicopter category rating not limited to VFR. CAR part II, chapter 2.1.8 74. How often must a pilot receive a Pilot Proficiency Check to be eligible to act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is less than or equal to 5700kg? A. The pilot must have had a pilot proficiency within the preceding 12 Calendar months in the aircraft for which he is rated. CARS Pt IV, 14.20.1.2 --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------75.
Are there any grace provisions for performing the annual pilot proficiency required by part II.
A. Yes- the required pilot proficiency checks may be performed during the 2 months before the expiry date but not after. CARS Pt IV, 14.20.1.3(b) 1
76. If the pilot proficiency check required by part II and part IV is performed in the month before it is due, when will the next proficiency check be required? A.
12 Calendar months from the date it was originally due.
CARS Pt IV, 14.20.1.3(b) (1) 77.
How often must a pilot perform an Instrument Rating Renewal?
A.
Once every 12 calendar months.
CARS Pt IV, 14.20.1.2(c) 78. How long does a pilot’s instrument rating remain current after successfully completing an Instrument Proficiency Check if no other flights are made? A.
6 months.
79. What recent experience requirements must a pilot meet before performing the duties of pilot in command of an Aeroplane at night? A. Within the preceding 90 days, the pilot must have performed three takeoffs and three landings at night in that type of aeroplane and be instrument rated and current. CARS Pt IV, 14.3.3.1(e) 80. What recent experience requirements must a pilot meet before performing the duties of pilot in command of an Aeroplane during daylight hours? A. Within the preceding 12 calendar months the pilot must have completed successfully a Pilot Proficiency Check in that type of aeroplane, and within the preceding 90 days have made at least three takeoffs and landings in that type of aeroplane. (either at night or during the day.) CARS pt IV 14.3.3.1 (d) 81.
What aircraft require type rating endorsements on the UAE Pilot License?
A. All Helicopters, Turbojets and two-crew certified aircraft require type rating endorsements onto the UAE pilot license as well as any other aircraft as required by the GCAA. CARS Pt II, 2.1.3.2 82. What class of medical must the holder of a UAE Commercial Pilot License have in his possession to legally perform the duties of pilot flight crewmember in commercial operations?
A.
Class I medical.
CARS Pt II, 1.7 83. How long is the validity period for a Class 1 medical if the pilot is over 40 years of age and engaged in commercial operations? A.
6 Calendar months?
CAR part II, Chapter 1, para1.7. 84. The holder of a UAE Commercial Pilot License receives a Class 1 medical on April 5, 1990. If the pilot is 42 years old and engaged in commercial operations, when will the last day of the medical validity be? A.
31-Oct-90
CAR part II, chapter 1,para 1.7 85. 86. How long is the validity period for a Class 1 medical if the pilot is under 40 years old and engaged in commercial operations? A.
12 Calendar months.
CAR part II, Chapter 1, item 1.7 87. If a pilot is not due for another aviation medical for 4 months but becomes aware of a decrease in the quality of his vision, is he authorized to exercise the privileges of his license and ratings? A. NO- pilots may not exercise the privileges of their license and related ratings at any time when they are aware of any decrease in their medical fitness which may render them unable to safely exercise these privileges. CAR part II, Chapter 1, item 1.9 88.
Does a copilot require a type rating in the DHC-8 to serve in that capacity?
A.
Yes.
CAR part II, Chapter 2, item 2.1.5.2 89. How many total hours of instrument flight time (actual or simulated) are required for a pilot to be eligible for a UAE Instrument Rating? A.
40 hours in either aeroplanes or helicopters.
CAR part II, Chapter 2, item 2.6.2(b).2 90. What is the required minimum dual instrument flight instruction received in aeroplanes from an authorized flight instructor to be eligible for a UAE Instrument Rating? A.
10 hours (the other 30 hours in a flight simulator, for a total of 40 hours.
CAR part II, Chapter 2, item 2.6.3.a 91. May a pilot in command of an aircraft deviate from any regulation or clearance in the event of an emergency? A. Yes- if it is absolutely necessary in the interests of safety. Note: The pilot in command shall submit a report to the GCAA within 24 hours. CAR part III, Chapter 1, item 1.3.2 92. If a pilot deviates from any rule or clearance in the interest of safety, the pilot shall notify ATC as soon as possible and: A.
The pilot shall submit a detailed written report of the deviation within 24 hours.
CAR part III, Chapter 1, item 1.3.2 93.
Which of the following is true regarding flight crewmember use of seat belts and shoulder harnesses?
A. Any required flight crewmember must keep his seat belt and shoulder harness fastened during takeoff and landing. CAR part IV, Chapter 4.23.3 94.
Is the GCAA authorized to waive any rule of Part III "Rules of the Air"?
A. Yes- if he finds that the proposed operation can be safely conducted under the terms of the certificate of waiver. CAR Part III, Chapter 2, item 2.1 95. Are there any other rules concerning alcoholic beverages and operation of aircraft other than the 8 hour "bottle to throttle" rule? A. Yes- no person shall pilot an aircraft under the influence of alcohol or with a percent by weight of .02% promille or more in the blood. CAR Part III, 1.6.2.(b, c, d)
96.
Should a pilot allow a passenger on a flight that appears to be under the influence of alcohol or drugs?
A.
No- except in an emergency.
CAR Part III, Chapter 2, item 1.6.3 97. 98.
What documents are required to be physically in the aircraft prior to flight?
A. Certificate of registration; Certificate of Airworthiness; Aircraft Radio License; Certificate of Maintenance Review or Maintenance Release; Licenses of members of crew; Aircraft Journey Log Book/Technical Log on international flights; Aircraft Flight Manual or Aircraft operating Manual; Required Operations Manual; Current charts to cover purposed routes to destinations and alternate aerodromes; Certificate of Compliance with Noise Emission Standards; Operational Flight Plan; Weight and Balance or Load Control Form; Minimum Equipment List; Applicable MNPS, B-RNAV, RNP and competency Certificates; Emergency Response guidance for aircraft incidence involving dangerous goods. CAR Part IV, Subpart B, item 2.3.1 That should about cover it!! 99. If two aircraft carrying passengers from BATEEN to ZIRKO are cleared to depart simultaneously, is it permissible to takeoff in formation and/or continue to ZIRKO in formation? A.
No- it is against regulations.
CAR Part III, Chapter 2.9.2 100. Which of the following is true regarding overtaking aircraft? A. Each aircraft that is being overtaken has right of way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter course to the right and pass well clear. CAR Part III, Chapter 2, item 2.16.2.3 101. When two aircraft are approaching head-on at the same altitude which aircraft has the right of way. A.
Neither aircraft has right of way in this case. The pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.
CAR part III, Chapter 2, item 2.16.2.1 102. When two aircraft are converging (except head-on) at approximately the same altitude, which aircraft has the right of way? A.
The aircraft to the others right has right of way.
CAR Part III, Chapter 2, item 2.16.2.2
103. Does an airplane have the right of way over a helicopter? A. No- they are considered equal, although a helicopter carrying an external load or an airplane towing any object would each have right of way over other powered aircraft that are not in those configurations. CAR Part III, Chapter 2, item 2.16.2.2d 104. Are there any speed restrictions for aircraft in the UAE FIR? A. Yes- below 10000ft aircraft are not to operate at an IAS of more than 250 knots, unless authorized by ATS, or anywhere in the FIR at greater than Mach 1. CARS Pt II 2.28 and AIP ENR 1.4 105. May the Pilot in Command of an aircraft deviate from any regulation or clearance in the event of an emergency? A.
Yes - if it is absolutely necessary in the interests of safety.
UAECARS PART III, 1.3.2 106. If a pilot deviates from any rule or clearance in the interest of safety, the pilot shall notify ATC as soon as possible and: A.
if requested by GCAA, submit a detailed report of the deviation within 48 hours.
UAECARS PART III, 1.3.2 1.3.2 states any deviation from regulations must be reported within 24hrs 2.23.1.7 states any deviation from ATC clearance or instruction must be reported within 48hrs 107. What documents are required to be physically in the aircraft prior to any flight ? A. Certificate of Airworthiness, Registration Certificate, Radio permit, Operator's Flight Manual and Weight and Balance Computations for that aircraft. B. Personal Wallet, Certificate of Airworthiness, Radio permit, and Operator's Flight Manual. A UAECARS PART IV, 2.3.1 108. Who is responsible for determining whether an aircraft is in a condition for safe flight ? A. B.
The Pilot in Command. The Chief Engineer
B
UAECARS PART IV 4.4
109. Is it required to turn on the aircraft anti-collision lights during the period from Sunrise to sunset ? A. B. C.
Yes, at any time. Yes, if the aircraft is so equipped. No, not a requirement.
B
UAECARS PART III, 2.17.3
110. What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as a safety pilot during simulated instrument flight ? A. B.
He, must be appropriately rated in the aircraft. No requirement to have a safety pilot.
A. UAE CARS PART 111, Chapter 2, item 2.18(b) ___________________________________________________________________ What is the minimum altitude for an aircraft over a congested area? Answer - 1000' feet above the highest obstacle within 2000 feet horizontally. UAE CARS PART III, 3.6 (b) 111. Which of the following is the minimum altitude for an aircraft over an uncongested area? A.
500' feet above the surface..
UAECARS PART III, 3.6(c) 112. How often must an aircraft VOR be checked for IFR flight ? A. The VOR must have been checked within the preceding 30 days and found to be within limits for bearing error ? UAECARS PART 111,
113. What is the maximum permissible VOR bearing error authorized prior to an IFR flight ? A.
plus or minus 4 degrees, if checked at a VOR ground receiver checkpoint
UAECARS PART 111, 114. If a multi engine civil aircraft is to take of with inoperable instruments onboard, what additional documentation is required onboard the aircraft ? A. DGCA approved Minimum Equipment List for that aircraft as well as a letter from DGCA authorizing operation of the aircraft under the terms of the Minimum Equipment List. UAECARS PART III, 115. Are Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELT)'s always required to be onboard the aircraft operating in the UAE FIR? A. B. C.
Yes No Sometimes according to special circumstances
A
UAECARS PART 111,
116. If an aircraft in controlled airspace is 3000' feet AMSL or below, what is the minimum in flight visibility required to remain in VFR flight? A.
5km if so prescribed by ATS.
UAECARS PART III, 3.2.1 117. If an aircraft in uncontrolled airspace is 3000' feet MSL or below, what is the minimum in-flight visibility required to remain in VFR flight? A.
1500 meters
UAECARS PART III, 3.2.1 118. A pilot on a Special VFR clearance in a control zone must maintain what minimum clearance from clouds? A. B. C.
The pilot must remain clear of clouds. No requirement 1000' feet above and below the aircraft.
A
UAECARS PART III, 3.3(a)
119. A pilot on a special VFR clearance in a control zone must have what minimum reported flight visibility? A.
1500 meters
B.
1500 feet
A
UAECARS PART III, 3.3(b)
120. May a pilot accept a VFR clearance between the hours of sunset to sunrise in the UAE FIR? A. B.
No, it is against regulations. Yes, providing ATC issues the clearance for operation within controlled airspace.
UAECARS PART III, 3.4(a) 121. When are VFR flights between the hours of sunset to sunrise outside designated control areas or in uncontrolled airspace allowed? A.
When the aircraft is on a bona fide casualty evacuation and the flight crew is instrument rated and current.
UAECARS PART III, 3.4(b) 122. On a VFR flight plan, must an aircraft adhere to any specific altitude requirements, (other than those assigned by ATC) enroute at 3000'feet AGL or below ? A.
No, the pilot may select any altitude desired, unless otherwise instructed by ATS.
UAECARS PART III, 3.4 123. If an aircraft is on a magnetic course of 090 degrees and is on a VFR flight plan above 3000' feet AGL, which of the following cruising altitudes or Flight Levels may the pilot select enroute (unless otherwise instructed by ATS) ? A.
Any odd thousand foot MSL altitude, plus 500' feet (i.e. 3500, 5500, 7500, etc., )
AIP ENR 1.7.5 East is Odd! (000-179) 124. If an aircraft is on a magnetic course of 270 degrees and is on a VFR flight plan above 3000 feet AGL, which of the following cruising altitudes or Flight Levels may the pilot select enroute (unless otherwise instructed by ATS )? A.
Any even thousand foot MSL altitude, plus 500' feet (i.e. 4500, 6500, FL85, etc.)
AIP ENR 1.7.5 125. During daytime VFR flight in a helicopter, what is the minimum fuel reserve required for flight? Answer - 20 minutes plus 10% of the planned flight time.
UAECARS PART IV, 4.11.4.2 126. During VFR flight at night in a helicopter, what is the minimum fuel reserve required for flight? Answer - 30 minutes plus 10% of the planned flight time. UAECARS PART IV, 4.11.4.2 127. Prior to operating an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR, which of the following must be accomplished? A.
The pilot must have filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.
UAECARS PART III, 2.23.2.1 128. During IFR operations, what is the minimum altitude authorized for flight in the vicinity of mountainous areas? A.
2000'feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5NM from the course to be flown.
UAECARS PART III, 4.2.2(a) 129. During IFR operations, what is the minimum altitude for flight over, other than mountainous terrain? A.
1000'feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5NM from the course to be flown.
UAECARS PART III, 4.2.2(b) 130. When may a pilot on an IFR flight descend below the Minimum En-route Altitude (MEA) to the MOCA? A.
When within 22NM of the VOR concerned?
UAECARS PART 111, Chapter 4, item 4.1(a). 131. When a pilot on a IFR flight is approaching an intersection beyond which, a higher MEA is listed, at what point should the pilot begin his climb to the new MEA? A.
Upon reaching the point (or intersection) beyond which the new MEA applies.
UAECARS PART 111, Chapter 4, item 4.1(b). 132. When a pilot on an IFR flight is approaching an intersection beyond which a higher MEA is listed and at which a Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA) is depicted, when should the pilot begin his climb to the new MEA?
A. The point (or intersection) beyond which the new MEA applies shall be crossed at or above the applicable MCA. UAECARS PART 111, Chapter 4, item 4.1(b). 133. On an IFR approach when may the pilot descend below the MDH or DH? A. When the runway or runway environment is in sight, the visibility is not less than that prescribed for the approach procedure being used, and the aircraft is in a position from which a normal descent and landing can be made. UAECARS PART III, 4.9.6 134. What IFR takeoff minimums for Civil Airports in the UAE apply to any aircraft? A.
Weather conditions must be at or above those prescribed in the UAE AIP for takeoffs.
UAECARS PART III, 4.9.2.1 135. What are the four basic components of the ILS? A.
Localizer, glide slope, middle marker and outer marker.
A UAECARS PART 136. If the outer or middle markers are unstable, which component can replace either of them? A. B. C. D.
Glide slope Compass Locator Localizer ATC Clearance
B
UAECARS PART
137. Can any other components replace the outer marker if it is unserviceable? A. Yes, DME, VOR or NDB fixes authorized in the published approach procedure or surveillance radar may be substituted. UAECARS PART 138. If a pilot is on a IFR flight in uncontrolled airspace below FL 290 and on a magnetic course of 090, what cruising altitudes or Flight Levels are available for selection by the pilot enroute? A.
Any odd thousand MSL altitude (i.e. FL50, FL70, etc.,)
D AIP ENR 1.7.5 139. If a pilot is on an IFR flight in uncontrolled airspace below FL290 and on a magnetic course of 270, what cruising altitudes or Flight Levels are available for selection by the pilot enroute? A.
Any even thousand foot AMSL altitude (i.e. FL60, FL80, FL100, etc.)
AIP ENR 1.7.5 140. During an IFR flight you lose two way radio communications while in VMC conditions. What should your actions be ? A.
Squawk 7600/Mode C and continue VFR landing as soon as practicable.
141. During an IFR flight you lose two way radio communications while in IMC conditions. What altitude should you maintain? A. The highest of the following: Minimum Enroute Altitude (MEA); or - the last assigned altitude; - or the altitude ATC advised may be expected in a further clearance.
142. What routing should you follow? A. Last assigned; or - if being vectored, directly from the point of radio failure to the fixed route or, airway specified; or- the expected further clearance route advised by ATC; or - the filed flight plan routing.
143. If you are on an IFR flight, have lost two way radio communications, and had previously been cleared by ATC to a particular fix from which your approach would normally begin, what should your course of action be after arrival at that fix (or clearance limit) ? A. Commence a descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expected approach time or, if one has not been received, as close as possible to the ETA.
144. If you are on an IFR flight, have lost two way radio communications, and had previously been cleared by ATC to a particular fix from which your approach would NOT normally begin, what should your course of action be upon arrival at that fix (or clearance limit) ?
A. Depart the clearance limit at the expected approach time or, if none has been received, upon arrival over the fix and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent and approach as close as possible to the ETA.
145. During an IFR flight the pilot experiences the failure of his ADF receiver. Is it necessary to immediately inform ATC of this problem even if the ADF is not being used ? A.
Yes
UAECARS PART III, 4.5.1(a) 146. According to UAE of the Air (Part 111), what are the weather forecasts required to be at a destination airport to preclude having to list an alternative airport on an IFR flight plan (assuming that there is an approved instrument approach procedure available at the destination airport ) ? A. The weather from two hours before ETA to two hours after ETA must be forecasted to be at least : Ceiling : 400' above the minimums associated with the instrument approach procedure to be used:, and - Visibility: 1500 meters more than the minimums associated with the approach procedure to be used. UAECARS PART IV, 4.10.3.2(a) 147. According to UAE Rules of the Air (Part 111), what are the weather forecasts required to be at an airport to qualify it as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if it has an ILS approach procedure available ? A.
At the ETA the forecast must call for at least : 600 feet ceiling and 3000 meters visibility.
148. According to UAE Rules of the Air (Part 111), what are the weather forecasts required to be at an airport to qualify it as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if it has only an ADF and VOR approach procedure available ? A.
At ETA, the forecast must call for at least :800'feet ceiling and 3000 meters visibility.
149. According to UAE Rules of the Air (Part 111), what are the weather forecasts required to be at an airport to qualify it as an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan, if it has NO published instrument approach procedure available ? A. The ceiling and visibility minimums at the ETA must allow descent from the MEA, approach and landing under basic visual meteorological conditions.
150. Under UAE regulations Part 111 (Rules of the Air), what are the fuel requirements for a helicopter on an IFR flight plan without an alternate airport required ? A. The aircraft must be able to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, execute an instrument approach and missed approach, and fly for 30 minutes in a hold above the aerodrome. UAECARS Part III, 4.11.4.4 151. Under UAE regulations Part 111 (Rules of the Air), what are the fuel requirements for a helicopter on an IFR flight plan which includes an alternate airport ? A. The aircraft must be able to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, execute an instrument approach and missed approach, fly to the alternate airport and fly for 30 minutes at 1500’ then app and land.
UAECARS PART III, 4.11.4.3
152. What Chapter of UAE Part VI Aircraft Safety is concerned with aircraft/incident reporting ? A. B. C. D.
Chapter 6 Chapter 3 Chapter 5 Chapter 1
B
UAECARS PART VI, Chapter 3
153. How soon after an aircraft accident must the DGCA be notified? A.
Immediately and by the most expeditious means available.
UAECARS PART VI, 4.2.1 154. How soon after an aircraft accident should the DGCA be notified in writing ? A.
Within 10 days.
UAECARS PART VI, 4.5.1.1
155. How long after an aircraft is overdue must the operator submit a written report to the DGCA? A.
Within 7 days
UAECARS PART VI, 4.5.1.1 156. A foreign pilot must hold what documents before flying a UAE registered aircraft? Answer – A valid pilots licence issued by the GCAA or any other ICAO state validated by the GCAA
157. A foreign licence validated by the GCAA is valid for how long? Answer – 60 days, but the validation shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the foreign licence and medical.
158. Medical examinations may be deferred for how long and under what circumstances? Answer – Operating in an area distant from a DME. The extension is for two consecutive periods of 3 months providing a GP issues a favourable medical report.
159. If injured for 30 days or more, what happens to a persons licence and medical? Answer – Suspended and can only be lifted by aeromedical section of GCAA.
160. A drug test may occur when? Answer – Initial medical and as otherwise required by GCAA
161. What are the consequences of refusing a drug test? Answer – Immediate suspension of licence.
162. The minimum age for an applicant for a student pilot licence? Answer – 17 years.
163. The minimum age for a PPL? Answer – 18 years.
164. No pilot of a UAE registered civil aircraft may intentionally exceed a bank of 60 degrees relative to the horizon, or a nose up/down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon unless? Answer – Each occupant is wearing a parachute.
165. Aircraft position lights must be on? Answer – Whilst moving the aircraft at night on the ground.
166. All flights above what level must be operated IFR in UAE airspace? Answer – FL150 Note: FL145 is the true answer, but the first available IFR cruising level above the transition layer. See Q167 which adds further confusion to the situation. 167. Dangerous goods can be carried by an air carrier in accordance with the rules contained in? Answer – Authorisation of GCAA and iaw part VI, chapter 2 of these regulations.
168. What is the maximum level for VFR in UAE airspace? Answer – 12500 feet Note: Answer could be FL 12500 AMSL even though it isn’t a FL. 169. What is the minimum RVRor cieiling for a CAT 1 approach weather for an approach to commence? Answer – 550 M for Multi crew or 800 M single crew
170. VFR flight needs what minimum equipment? Answer – Two way radio, SSR A and C in class C airspace (OMDB, OMAA, OMRK,OMFJ CTA’s), SSR A in class D airspace, SSR A in class E & G by night.
171. What is the lowest classification of airspace that requires an ATC clearance in the UAE? Answer – E airspace.
172. On a cat I ILS approach, when must the LLZ be disregarded? Answer – 150 feet.
173. Below transition altitude and above transition level, what are the ATC terms used? Answer – Altitudes/flight levels.
174. Are VFR cruising altitudes predicted on track or headings? Answer – Magnetic track.
175. If not assigned a transponder code in the UAE FIR, what should be set? Answer – 2000
176. What transponder code should be set for a hijack? Answer – 7500
177. For flight to a destination by an air carrier, where no alternate is available, what fuel allowances are required? Answer – 2 hours at normal cruise consumption for jets.
178. take off weight shall not exceed? Answer – Weight specified in flight manual for the elevation or pressure altitude and any other local atmospheric condition including relative humidity.
179. Life rafts must be carried when? Answer – When more than 120 minutes at cruising speed, or 400 nm from land for multi-engine aircraft. 30 minutes and 100 nm for all others.
180. Emergency equipment required for flight over water > 30 minutes? Answer – Life rafts, life jackets, and at least two sets of survival radio equipment, assuming this question relates to light aircraft/single engine.
181. If there are thunderstorms or other potentially hazardous weather conditions existing along a proposed route, what criteria must be met with regard to the aircraft equipment? Answer – Weather radar.
182. Maximum flight hours? Answer – 10/24 hours – 100/30 days – 300/90 days – 1000 in any calendar year.
183. How do you calculate local time in the UAE?
Answer – UTC +4 hours.
184. Is information in the AIP regulatory or advisory? Answer – Advisory.
185. How many octas of cloud is scattered? Answer – 1-4 (old Question!)
186. What is the definition of QNH? Answer – Pressure altitude AMSL.
187. What do UAE regulations define night as? Answer – sunset to sunrise.
188. If intercepted by another aircraft, what transponder code should you set? Answer – 7700????.
189. What are the differences between the UAE AIP ‘rules of the air’ and ICAO Annex 2 ‘rules of the air’? Answer – No difference.
190. What is the maximum time between pilot proficiency checks? Answer – 6 months .
191. What registration signifies UAE ownership? Answer – A6 .
192. What aircraft shall GCAA part iii apply to? Answer – All civil aircraft operating in the UAE FIR and all the UAE registered aircraft wherever they may be to the extent that they do not conflict with the rules of the state having jurisdiction over the territory over-flown..
193. What type of ATC service is provided in class G airspace? Answer – On request, Flight Information Service for IFR and VFR traffic.
194. The word tempo is used in weather forecasts to indicate what? Answer – Temporary deviation to forecast conditions for a period of less than one hour.
195. No pilot may accept a flight where the expected flight time is more than? Answer – 10 flying hours in a 24 hour period. (Helicopter is different?)
196. UAE airspace is divided between upper and lower airspace at? Answer – FL150.
197. What outbound timing applies to a holding pattern at 3000 feet? Answer – Start the timing once turned onto the outbound heading or abeam the fix, what ever occurs later.
198. What is the SSR transponder requirement for a VFR flight at night in class E airspace? Answer – transponder type 4096 A .
199. What kind of information is included in an ATIS broadcast? Answer – Non-controlling information in a high-traffic terminal area.
200. What Q-setting is normally referred to during take-off and landing? Answer – QNH.
201. What is QFE? Answer – height above airport elevation (or runway threshold elevation) based on local station pressure.
202. VFR requirements outside controlled airspace (G&E) in UAE FIR? Answer – 1500 meters vis, clear of cloud and insight of ground or water.
203. What is the problem associated with wake turbulence? Answer – It drifts downward and across the paths of aircraft flying below the one creating the turbulence.
204. What is the international VHF emergency frequency? Answer – 121.5 MHz.
205. What are the ICAO color markings for runway and taxiways? Answer – White and yellow.
206. What are the international color codes for taxiway centerline and edge lights? Answer – Green and blue.
207. What are the two parallel lines on the taxiway just before the runway? Answer – Holding point, do not cross until cleared by ATC to do so!
208. What does a CAVOK report suggest? Answer – No cloud below 5000 feet, visibility above 10km and no significant weather in the vicinity (cb’s, rain).
209. What equipment is required for a VFR flight in UAE FIR? Answer – ELT, Communication, Navigation and for flight in Dubai and Abu Dhabi control zones – a transponder mode A 4096 with mode C.
210. What is one good example of an aircraft incident that requires immediate notification to the GCAA? A. B. C. D.
In flight fire. Flight control system failure or malfunction Both Neither
C UAECARS PART VI, 4.3 211. Where are the various types of incidents that require immediate notification to the DGCA listed ? A.
UAECARS PART VI, 4.3
UAECARS PART VI, 4.3
212. In VFR flight in uncontrolled airspace at 3000' feet MSL or below, what is the minimum clearance from cloud required to maintain VFR flight? Answer - The pilot must remain clear of clouds and in sight of ground or water __________________________________________________________________ 213. Except for ATPL, no IFR flight unless the license contains: A. B. C. D.
Current IMC rating Current instrument rating on foreign license Current instrument rating in category and class on UAE license Night rating
C 214. What is the definition of an aircraft ACCIDENT ? Answer - Any occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time ANY person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and the time such persons have disembarked, in which: 1) a person is fatally or seriously injured; 2) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure; 3) the aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible. UAECARS PART VI, 1.1
__________________________________________________________________ 213. Radio equipment for a VFR flight in class C airspace? Answer. SSR, model 4096 A and mode C Ref AIP Gen1.4.1.5.4.1 __________________________________________________________________
214. No pilot of helicopter shall take off from or land on an aerodrome at night unless?
Answer. The pilot has determined the wind direction from illuminated wind direction indicator, limit of the area clearly shown by boundary or runway makers lights or reflective material Ref CAR PART III chap 5.2.2 __________________________________________________________________
215. Operators based in the UAE? Answer. Foreign aircraft of any category are not permitted to be based in the UAE without authority Ref CAR PART III section 6.10.1 __________________________________________________________________ 216. To act as a pic in night VFR flight a pilot has to performed? Answer. 3 take off and landing in the last 90 days on same category, same class, at night ________________________________________________________________ 217 Cabin crew requirement for 250 passengers Answer. 1 for every 50 Pax ________________________________________________________________ 218. First aid kits requirement Answer 0-99
1 100-199
2
________________________________________________________________ 219 fire extinguishers Answer 7-30
1,
30-60 2,
61-200
3,
201-300
4,
________________________________________________________________ 220.
megaphones per pax
Answer 1-99
1 100+
2
________________________________________________________________
221. Lowest airspace for IFR Answer .
Class E
________________________________________________________________
222. For unrestricted operation in MNPS airspace an aeroplane must be equipped with
(a) (b) (c)
2 flight management systems (FMS) 2 Long range nav systems (LNRS) 2 global pos sys (GPS
Answer.
B
________________________________________________________________
223. For isolated aerodrome ops where no alternate available the amount of fuel at departure should be (a)
Additional 2 hours
(b)
________________________________________________________________
224. in the event of critical power unit failure during t/off, the a/c should be able to clear (a) 50 ft
UAE CAR - PART I 101.
The definition of night in the UAE is: a) The hours of darkness b) The hours between sunrise and sunset c) The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
102.
The definition of VFR is: a) Visual flight conditions b) Visual flight rules c) Visual meteorological conditions
103.
The definition of “Ceiling” is: a) The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below the transition altitude covering less than half the sky. b) The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud covering more than half the sky. c) The height above ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 feet covering more than half the sky.
104.
“IMC” is the symbol used to designate a) instrument meteorological conditions. b) instrument flight rules. c) the rules governing the flights below VMC.
UAE CAR - PART II 201.
For which category is the licence issued? a) Aeroplane and Helicopters and Balloon b) Aircraft c) Single and multi-engine land aeroplane
202.
Before you obtain your PPL, of all the ‘solo’ flight time, how much you will be credited as pilot-in-command time? a) 50% of your solo time b) 100% of your solo time c) None of your solo time
203.
As a PPL holder, are you allowed to carry passengers for compensation or hire? a) Yes b) No c) With special permission if the money goes to charity.
204.
No person may act as a pilot in command of an aircraft unless in the preceding 12 months that person has: a) completed 9 take off and landings in the category and class (and type if applicable) aircraft b) accomplished a pilot proficiency check given to him by a licensed pilot who holds a flight instructor rating. c) accomplished a pilot proficiency check given to him by a GCAA Inspector or Designated Check Pilot.
205.
What document(s) must be in your personal possession while operating as a pilot-incommand of an aircraft? a) Certificate showing accomplishment of a check out in the aircraft and a current PPC. b) A pilot licence with an endorsement showing accomplishment of PPC and a log book showing recency of experience. c) An appropriate current pilot licence and an appropriate current medical certificate.
206.
The UAE licence: a) has a validity period of one year from the date of issue. b) has a validity period of 8 years from the date of issue. c) does not expire.
2
207.
No person may act as a required pilot flight crewmember of a foreign aircraft, based in UAE, unless he has in his personal possession: a) an ICAO licence. b) an appropriate current licence issued to him by the foreign country. c) a UAE validation of his foreign licence.
208.
A pilot who is 40 year old shall not act as a commercial pilot unless he has in his personal possession: a) a class II medical certificate issued to him within the preceding 6 months b) a class I medical certificate issued to him within the preceding 6 months c) a class I medical certificate issued to him within the preceding 12 months
209.
You are a 25-year-old commercial pilot and have taken your medical exam on the 30th April 2008, when does your medical expire? a) 30th April 2010 b) 30th April 2009 c) 31st October 2009
210.
No person shall act as a pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers at night unless within the preceding 90 days he has completed at least: a) 3 take offs and landings to a full stop. b) 3 take offs and landings from sunset to sunrise in the category, class (and type if applicable) aircraft to be used. c) 3 take offs and 3 landings at night in the category class (and type if applicable) aircraft to be used.
211.
The privileges of a Private Pilot Licence - Aeroplane shall be to act as a pilot in command or co-pilot carrying passengers: a) for remuneration or hire. b) engaged in revenue flights. c) for flights in which the licence holder shares expenses with his passengers.
212.
Where can you find information regarding flight crew licensing requirements? a) The Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) b) Part II of the Civil Aviation Regulations c) Aeronautical Information Circulars
213.
Type ratings are required for: a) all type of helicopters. b) those aircraft requiring two pilots. c) Both answers, (a) and (b) are correct.
3
214.
For a type rated commercial pilot, a PPC to be carried out: a) every 13 calendar months. b) by a flight instructor. c) by a GCAA Inspector or Designated Check Pilot with GCAA approval.
215.
A co-pilot under IFR: a) is required to have a proper authorization from GCAA which comprises of an instrument rating appropriate to the aircraft category on his licence. b) does not require an instrument rating if pilot in command has an instrument rating and is current. c) should have completed 6 hours of instrument flight time and 6 instrument approaches during the last 6 months in category, class (and type if applicable) aircraft involved.
216.
For a given flight, your logbook should show among other things: a) The date, total time, place, number of landings, whether PIC, SIC or solo, day or night and, if instruction received, the full name of the instructor. b) The date, total time, place, number of landings, whether PIC, SIC or solo, day or night. c) The date, total time, place, number of landings, day or night and, if a student pilot, the PIC time for the every solo flight.
217.
As a student pilot: a) You must carry your logbook with you on all solo flights. b) You must only carry your training record with you on all solo cross-country flights as evidence of achieving the required training. c) You must carry your logbook with you on all solo cross-country flights only.
218.
You are a 50-year-old student pilot and you decided to do your medical exam on the 13th July 1998. a) You need class III medical as a minimum and it will expire on 31st July 1999 b) You need class II medical as a minimum and it will expire on 31st July 2000 c) You need class II medical as a minimum and it will expire on 31st July 2000
219.
If a person intentionally makes a false entry in his logbook to show compliance with any requirement of any licence, a) his licence can be withdrawn from him by GCAA. b) he will loose all his previous hours. c) he should repeat all training done after achieving his PPL.
4
220.
A licence holder may apply for renewal of a licence up to: a) 30 days prior to the expiry date. b) 60 days prior to the expiry date. c) 60 days after the expiry date.
221.
The following are considered class ratings for pilot licensing a) Rotorcraft/ helicopter, single-engine land and twin-engine land. b) Single-engine land, single-engine sea, twin-engine land and twin-engine sea. c) Rotorcraft/ helicopter, single-engine land and multi-engine land.
222.
When acting as a co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated by a co-pilot, you shall: a) not be entitled to be credited more than 10 per cent of the co-pilot flight time. b) be entitled to be credited not more than 50 per cent of the co-pilot flight time. c) be entitled to be credited 100 per cent of the co-pilot flight time.
223.
What is true regarding the student pilot? a) He shall not fly solo on an international flight without an endorsement. b) He shall not fly solo unless he has in his personal possession a current class 3 medical. c) He may not fly as a PIC but solo for compensation or hire.
224.
The duration of the Medical Fitness Report shall begin on the date of issue and is valid until: a) the date specified on the certificate. b) the expiry date stated in the CAR. c) the last day of the month of the validity period.
225.
You are the holder of an aeroplane Private Pilot Licence, single-engine land. When may you act as a co-pilot of a helicopter? a) only in a declared emergency. b) only when in accordance with the provisions of UAE CAR, Chapter 2. c) only when not doing so for compensation or hire.
226.
The minimum age for a Student Pilot is: a) 16 b) 17 c) 18
227.
The applicant of a Private Pilot Licence shall be not less than: a) 16 years of age. b) 17 years of age. c) 18 years of age.
5
228.
Before flying solo, a student pilot must carry with him: a) A current class II medical and a logbook which is endorsed within the last 90 days. b) A logbook, which is, endorsed within the last 90 days but not necessarily a Medical Certificate, as he is not a holder of a licence yet. c) An endorsed logbook and an identification card in case checked by a GCAA inspector.
229.
A student pilot: a) may not act as a PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers. b) may not act as a PIC of an aircraft carrying passengers for compensation or hire. c) Both answers (a) and (b) above.
230.
When acting as a co-pilot of an aircraft required to be operated by a co-pilot, you shall: a) not be entitled to be credited more than 10 per cent of the co-pilot flight time. b) be entitled to be credited not more than 50 per cent of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. c) be entitled to be credited 100 per cent of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.
6
UAE CAR - PART III 301.
Which aircraft has the right of way? a) The aircraft on your right. b) The aircraft behind you. c) The aircraft above you.
302.
Supplemental oxygen is required if the flight is conducted above 10 000 feet cabin pressure for the required duration of flight in: a) unpressurised aircraft. b) pressurised aircraft. c) both, pressurised and unpressurised aircraft.
303.
The transition altitude in U.A.E. FIR is fixed at: a) 15 000 feet b) 14 500 feet c) 13 000 feet
304.
What are the fuel requirements for a flight under VFR in an aeroplane in the UAE assuming normal cruising speed? a) Sufficient for the destination and alternate aerodromes plus 10% of the total time. b) During day and night to the destination and to fly after that for 30 minutes. c) To destination and to fly after that for at least 45 minutes during the day or 45 minutes at night.
305.
VFR minimum visibility and distances from clouds requirements in Class C, D and E airspace below 10 000 feet are: a) 8 km visibility, 1 500m horizontally and 300m vertically from the clouds b) 5 km visibility, 1 500m horizontally and 300m vertically from the clouds c) 5 km visibility, 1 000m horizontally and 300m vertically from the clouds
306.
What rules may an aircraft operate under in VFR flight during the hours of sunset to sunrise? a) Night VFR b) Special VFR c) IFR
307.
Unless otherwise instructed when operating in the circuit pattern of an aerodrome, the pilot shall make all turns to the: a) Right b) Left c) Right in helicopter, left in an aeroplane
7
308.
An aeroplane and a helicopter are converging while approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing. a) The aeroplane has the right of way regardless of its position. b) The helicopter has the right of way regardless of its position. c) The aircraft to the other’s right has the right of way.
309.
The final responsibility for compliance with the rules of the air is: a) the pilot manipulating the controls. b) the controlling authority of the airspace in use. c) the pilot-in-command.
310.
The transition level in UAE FIR is: a) FL 130 b) FL 145 c) FL 150
311.
Flight visibility and distance from clouds minima for a VFR flight in class C airspace at and above 10 000 feet are: a) 8 km, 1 500m horizontally and 300m vertically b) 8 NM, 1 500m horizontally and 300m vertically c) 5 km, 1 500m horizontally and 300m vertically
312.
The flight visibility and distance from clouds minima in class G airspace below 900m AMSL are: a) 8km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical b) 5km, 1500 meters horizontal, 300 meters vertical c) 5km, clear of clouds and in sight of ground or water
313.
One of the IFR pre-flight checks is: a) using a VOT station, the maximum VOR error to be 4 degrees. b) checking the VOR equipment against a second VOR. The maximum permissible variation is 6 degrees. c) checking the VOR equipment within the preceding 90 days.
314.
The Pilot is not allowed to enter a: a) Danger area b) Prohibited area c) Restricted area
315.
The maximum VFR level/ altitude is: a) 12 500 feet b) FL 145 c) FL 180
8
316.
The minimum equipment required for operations under VFR: a) ELT b) ELT and two way radio communication c) ELT, two way radio communication and SSR Transponder
317.
The PIC of an aircraft operating under IFR or by an air carrier or air transport operator: a) May not allow the operation of any portable electronic device that will cause interference with the nav/com system of the aircraft. b) May allow portable voice recorders but not any hearing aids on board the aircraft. c) May allow heart pacemakers to operate on the en-route phase only.
318.
If you experience radio failure while under IMC while under radar service, you should: a) Squawk 7600 and continue on the same heading for 3 minutes. b) Squawk 7600 and continue with flight as planned. c) Advise ATC of radio failure and request course of action to be taken.
319.
What are the services available for IFR and VFR flight in class G airspace? a) Flight information service. b) Flight information service for VFR and traffic separation for IFR. c) Full advisory service for IFR and none for VFR.
320.
If an aircraft is involved in an accident that results in substantial damage to the aircraft. Notification to the GCAA should be done: a) immediately. b) within 24 hours. c) within 10 days.
321.
The written report concerning an overdue aircraft should be filed: a) within 7 days of the occurrence. b) within 10 days of the occurrence. c) after the 7th day if the overdue aircraft is still missing.
322.
Aircraft accident report (written) is to be filed within: a) 10 days after the accident. b) 7 days after the accident. c) 72 hours after the accident.
323.
Can aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time GCAA takes custody? a) No. It can not be moved under any circumstances. b) Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. c) Yes, but only if moved by GCAA officials or local law enforcement officer.
9
324.
The visibility requirements for SVFR for the purpose of taking off and operating in a CTZ are: a) 3000m ground visibility b) 5 000m flight visibility c) 1 500m ground and flight visibility
325.
Foreign aircraft, based and operating in the UAE : a) do not require any flight authorization. b) can operate without an authorization but only if the pilots and aircraft are appropriately rated and equipped. c) can operate, but with a specific flight authorization issued by GCAA to operate in UAE FIR.
326.
When can you fly in a restricted area? a) Any time. b) Aircraft to operate in accordance with a clearance issued by ATC. c) Never.
327.
A person may take off a multi-engine civil aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment installed: a) without a Minimum Equipment List if the aircraft is in an airworthy condition. b) only if a GCAA approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft. c) if approved by an aircraft mechanic.
328.
We report …... above the transition layer and …… below it. a) Altitudes/ Flight levels b) Flight Levels/ Altitudes c) Altitudes/ Heights
329.
When requested, a pilot is required to submit a detailed report of an emergency, which caused him to deviate from an ATC clearance: a) Immediately. b) Within 7 days. c) Within 48 hours.
330.
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include: a) The designation of an alternate airport. b) A study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use. c) An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
10
331.
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of an aerodrome, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to: a) Review traffic control light signal procedures. b) Check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT). c) Determine runway lengths at airports at intended use and the aircraft’s take off and landing distance data.
332.
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their seat belts and shoulder harness fastened? a) Seat belts and shoulder harness during take off and landing. b) Seat belts during take off and landing, shoulder harnesses during take off and landing and while enroute. c) Seat belts during take off and landing and while enroute, shoulder harness during take off and landing.
333.
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is inspected as prescribed in CAR, PartV and maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the: a) Pilot in Command. b) owner or operator. c) mechanic who performs the maintenance work.
334.
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is in condition for safe flight is primarily that of the: a) Pilot in Command. b) owner or operator. c) mechanic who performs the maintenance work.
335.
Which malfunction requires an immediate notification to be made to ATC? a) Reduction in required RNP. b) Bird strike. c) Radio failure.
336.
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to GCAA? a) An in-flight generator/ alternator failure. b) An in-flight fire. c) An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
337.
Which incident requires an immediate notification to be made to GCAA? a) An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. b) An in-flight radio communications failure. c) An in-flight generator or alternator failure.
11
338.
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in one of the listed incidents, is required to submit a report to GCAA: a) Within 7 days. b) Within 24 hours. c) When required.
339.
Each person operating UAE registered aircraft over the high seas: a) Is not required to comply with the rules except when there is a risk of collision. b) Shall be in compliance with the UAE CAR Part III (Rules of the Air). c) Shall comply with ICAO-Annex 2 (Rules of the Air).
340.
UAE CAR, Part III shall: a) not apply to foreign aircraft in UAE FIR b) apply, with some limitations, to UAE registered aircraft operating in a foreign country. c) apply to UAE registered civil aircraft over the high seas.
341.
Before beginning a flight not in the vicinity of an aerodrome, the PIC shall familiarise him self with: a) fuel requirements, weather reports, any known traffic delays and the frequencies for the NAV aids. b) weather reports and forecasts, take off and landing distances and any known traffic delays. c) radio frequencies, take off and landing runway available and distances required and weather reports and forecasts.
342.
The PIC of an aircraft before take off must ensure that: a) each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten his safety belt. b) No food or beverages is given to any passenger. c) safety belts and shoulder harnesses are available for every passenger except a person who has not reached his second birthday.
343.
You may operate an aircraft towing a banner: a) but not a glider unless you have an endorsement from a suitably qualified pilot. b) but not for compensation unless you have a written authorization from GCAA c) only with a written authorization from GCAA.
344.
On board an unpressurised aircraft, oxygen shall be continuously used: a) by the flight crew only, when flying above 13 000 feet AMSL. b) by the flight crew and passengers, when flying above 13 000 feet AMSL. c) by each occupant, when flying above 13 000 feet pressure altitude.
12
345.
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight: a) with passengers for hire except with a written authorization from GCAA b) with passengers for hire except by arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft. c) when carrying passengers for hire.
346.
While in flight, an aeroplane and a helicopter are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so. a) Each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right. b) Each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the left. c) The pilot of the helicopter, having better maneuverability, shall give way to the aeroplane.
347.
A helicopter which is landing or on final approach to land: a) Has the right of way over all aircraft in flight and over aeroplanes only, which are on the surface. b) Has the right of way over all on the surface but not flying aircraft. c) Has the right of way over all aeroplanes whether in flight or on the surface.
348.
An aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area: a) has the right of way over an aircraft that is about to take off. b) shall give way to aircraft about to take off. c) shall give way to aircraft taking off but not about to take off.
349.
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight: a) without a written authorization from GCAA. b) unless within a control zone and higher than 1500. c) below 1 500 feet AGL and when the flight visibility is less than 8 km.
350.
Unless each occupant is wearing an approved parachute, no pilot of a civil aircraft carrying any person other than a crew member may execute: a) a bank of more than 60 degrees relative to the horizon. b) a nose-up or down attitude of more than 20 degrees relative to the horizon. c) a nose-down attitude of 60 degrees relative to the horizon.
351.
No person may operate an aircraft below: a) 5 000 feet AMSL if this height, if an engine fails, will cause a hazard to persons or property on the surface. b) 1 000 feet AGL over sparsely populated areas. c) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2 000 feet over congested area.
13
352.
As a pilot, you are required to carry an SSR transponder with mode A as a minimum when operating: a) VFR in class C airspace. b) VFR at night in class G airspace. c) IFR in class E airspace.
353.
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if he has consumed alcoholic beverage within: a) 24 hours b) 10 hours c) 8 hours
354.
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft while having a blood alcohol level higher than: a) 4.00 percent. b) 0.40 percent. c) 0.04 percent.
355.
No person shall pilot an aircraft: a) while under the influence of alcohol. b) while having a blood alcohol level of 0.40 percent. c) within 10 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage.
356.
A crew member must submit to a test to indicate the blood alcohol level: a) when requested to do so by employer. b) when directed to by the local police authority c) as part of a GCAA authorized screening program.
357.
During takeoff and landing each person on a UAE registered civil aircraft must occupy a seat or berth with a safety belt and shoulder harness, if installed, properly secured about him unless: a) the person is under a doctor’s care and ambulatory. b) the person is under two years of age. c) the person is being transported in the cargo section.
358.
No person may operate a civil aircraft unless: a) it is in an airworthy condition. b) mandatory replacement times, inspection intervals and related procedures are completed in maintenance manual. c) the aircraft has the proper flight manual on board and is readily available to the crew.
14
359.
Supplemental oxygen must be used by the pilot(s) when:( non-pressurized) a) operating above 12 000 feet AMSL. b) unpressurized cabin reaches 10 000 feet for more than 30 minutes. c) operating above 10 000 feet pressure altitude for more than 30 minutes.
360.
Each pilot should have an approved quick-donning type oxygen mask when: a) operating above FL350. b) operating at altitudes above 25,000 feet through 35,000 feet AMSL. c) one pilot leaves his duty station above FL250.
361.
Formation flight is prohibited when: a) operation in a control zone b) carrying passengers at night c) carrying passengers for hire
362.
Aerobatic flights should not be performed: a) over any congested area of a city, town or settlement. b) below an altitude of 3 000 feet AGL. c) when the flight visibility is less than 10 km.
363.
The navigation lights of an aircraft must be on: a) during times of sunset to sunrise. b) when parking the aircraft near other aircraft. c) moving at night on the ground.
364.
An aircraft’s anti-collision lights must be on: a) at all times. b) during sunrise to sunset. c) during reduced visibility operations.
365.
Simulated instrument flights shall not be conducted when: a) the aircraft has a single control. b) carrying passengers at night. c) carrying passengers for hire.
366.
If a pilot is uncertain of the meaning of an ATC clearance, he shall: a) comply until clarification is given. b) request clarification immediately. c) not accept the clearance.
15
367.
Each pilot-in-command who deviates, in an emergency, from an ATC clearance shall: a) notify ATC of that deviation as soon as possible. b) notify ATC of that deviation within 24 hours. c) notify ATC of that deviation within 48 hours.
368.
The pilot in command who deviates from an ATC clearance or instruction, or any rule of Part III shall: a) submit a written report to the GCAA within 24 hours. b) submit a written report to the GCAA within 24 hours when requested. c) submit a written report to the GCAA within 48 hours when requested.
369.
An aircraft operating in the UAE FIR must be under IFR: a) in class A airspace. b) during reduced visibility operations. c) at night.
370.
All aircraft operating at or above FL 150 must be: a) flown by two qualified pilots. b) equipped with appropriate com radios and a 4096 transponder. c) equipped with appropriate com radios and a 4096 transponder with mode-C.
371.
Emergency locator transmitters are required: a) on all aircraft. b) on all airplanes only. c) on all airplanes conducting commercial operations only.
372.
VFR visibility and distance from cloud minimums for uncontrolled airspace at or below 3 000 feet are: a) Clear or clouds and surface in sight. b) 5 km visibility, 1 500 feet horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically. c) 8 km visibility, 1 500 feet horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically.
373.
Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what are the minimum safe altitudes? a) 500 feet above the surface of other than congested areas. b) 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000 feet of the aircraft when operating over a congested area. c) Both answers, (a) and (b), above are correct.
16
374.
During engine run up, you cause rocks, debris and propeller blast to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operations of an aircraft? a) Yes. b) No. c) No, if I took all the available precautions to avoid such an incident.
17
Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) 501.
The local time in UAE is: a) UTC – 3 hours b) UTC – 4 hours c) UTC + 4 hours
502.
Class D airspace within UAE FIR: a) Has a varying upper limit but always starts from the surface b) Starts from the surface up to 2 500’ AGL c) Has a varying lower limit above the ground but always ends at 5 500’ AMSL
503.
The service provided for VFR flights in Class G airspace is: a) Flight Information Service b) Traffic information as far as practicable c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
504.
Unless otherwise requested by ATC, position reports may be omitted: a) When receiving radar service b) When departing a controlled airport c) When operating as a controlled flight within the UAE FIR
505.
Whilst under radar control, aircraft experiencing a radio failure shall: a) Select Mode A code 7600 b) Maintain last assigned heading and level for a period of five minutes c) Squawk ident then select mode A code 7700
506.
For the entire UAE FIR, the transition altitude and level are fixed at: a) FL 150 and 13 000’ respectively b) 12 500’ and FL 180 respectively c) 13 000’ and FL 150 respectively
507.
While the table of cruising levels applies to uncontrolled VFR flights, a) VFR flights in controlled airspace may select any cruising level. b) ATC will normally assign IFR cruising altitudes to controlled VFR flights. c) controlled VFR flights must follow the table of cruising levels any time they operate below 3 000 feet above the surface.
18
508.
In class C airspace, the pilot of a VFR flight planning to fly a track heading towards the southwest should select an altitude of: a) 4 000 feet b) 4 500 feet c) 5 000 feet
509.
In order to reduce the possibility of being intercepted by UAE air defence fighters in the absence of any ATC directions: a) Squawk 7700 b) Squawk 1200 c) Squawk 2000
510.
Class G airspace lower and upper limits are: a) Surface and 4 500 feet respectively b) Surface and FL 145 respectively c) 4 500 and FL 145 respectively
511.
Alternating flashing white and green lights within an airport area indicates: a) That the airport is safe for landing b) A civil airport c) The location of the Helipad area on the airport
512.
While en-route at night, you observed a single flashing white light on the ground. This could indicate: a) A hazard b) A military airport c) A sea port
513.
On a sectional chart, the letters OMD1 indicate: a) The first UAE aerodrome b) A danger area c) An Omni Directional Range Station
514.
The symbol OMR60 on an aeronautical chart indicates: a) An area requiring an ATC clearance to penetrate. b) An Omni Directional Range station. c) A danger area which is restricted to military use.
515.
You can find information about an aerodrome such as type of fuel available, threshold elevation and slopes, details of taxiways, ATC frequencies and administrative data: a) in the Aerodrome section in the AIP b) within the Sectional and approach charts c) in the airport facility directory of UAE
19
516.
What is the squawk code to indicate hijack or unlawful interference? a) 7500 b) 7600 c) 7700
517.
To indicate communication failure, which squawk code is used? a) 7500 b) 7600 c) 7700
518.
What is the maximum permissible airspeed below 10 000 feet for a VFR flight in class C airspace? a) Not applicable b) 250 mph c) 250 kt
519.
What is the maximum permissible airspeed below 10 000 feet for a VFR flight in class B airspace? a) Not applicable b) 250 mph c) 250 kt
520.
To calculate local time from UTC you should: a) Subtract 3 hours b) Subtract 4 hours c) Add 4 hours
521.
Radio transponder code when entering UAE FIR without an assigned code is: a) 7700 b) 1200 c) 2000
522.
If the local time in UAE is 10:00. What will it be in UTC? a) 14:00 b) 18:00 c) 06:00
523.
UAE Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is: a) Advisory in nature. b) Regulatory in nature. c) Mandatory in nature.
20
528.
Aeronautical information of direct operational significance which is of a lasting nature, or requires advance distribution is known as: a) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). b) Civil Aviation Regulations (CARs) c) Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)
529.
NOTAMs that contain full information on all airports, facilities and procedure used by International civil aviation, promulgated both internationally and nationally are known as: a) Series A-NOTAM b) Series B-NOTAM c) Series D-NOTAM
530.
NOTAMs containing information of concern to aircaft other than those engaged in International civil aviation, promulgated nationally and to selected adjacent states on request are known as: a) Series A-NOTAM b) Series B-NOTAM c) Series L-NOTAM
531.
What is the information that is issued with a four-hour validity period and is of concern to low level operations? a) AIRMET b) SIGMET c) VOLMET
532.
What is the information that is issued with a validity period of four hours and of concern to all flying operations? a) AIRMET b) SIGMET c) NOTAM
533.
In the event of being intercepted by an air defence aeroplane, the intercepting aeroplane will mark that you have been intercepted and follow me by a) An abrupt maneuver without crossing the line of the intercepted aircraft. b) Rocking the wings and at night by flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals c) Lowering the landing gear.
21
RADIOTELEPHONY 601.
The number 1500 is transmitted as: a) Fifteen Hundred b) One Thousand Five Hundred c) One Five Zero Zero
602.
The number 38150 is transmitted as: a) Three eight one fifty b) Thirty eight thousand one hundred fifty c) Three Eight One Five Zero
603.
The time 1300 is transmitted as: a) One thousand three hundred b) Thirteen Hundred c) One Three Zero Zero
604.
The word “Roger” means: a) I have received all your last transmission b) I have understood all your last transmission c) I will comply with your instructions
605.
The word “Standby” means: a) Switch the radio to the standby position b) Hold position c) Wait an I will call you
606.
The word “Monitor..” means: a) Establish radio contact with… b) Look for the traffic… c) Listen out on…
607.
The phrase “Words Twice” could means: a) Communication is difficult. Please send every word twice. b) The information given is very important. c) The information given is to be followed by the two aircraft doing the same maneuver.
608.
The phrase “Expedite climb” means: a) Stop your climb b) Start your climb now c) A higher than currently performed climb rate is required
22
609.
The word “Break” in radiotelephony: a) means that the pilot must stop immediately b) indicates the separation between messages c) means that the controller will be out for a rest period
610.
The call sign “A6-FAB” can be abbreviated: a) by the pilot if there is no confusion expected with another aircraft b) to Foxtrot – Alpha – Bravo c) if has first been abbreviated by ATC
611.
Readability scale (1) means: a) Perfectly readable b) Unreadable c) Loud and clear
612.
Readability scale (4) means a) Readable b) Readable but with difficulty c) Readable now and then
613.
A radar controller instructs an aircraft to “Squawk Ident”. This means: a) The aircraft is identified on his screen b) Set your transponder to mode ‘C’ for altitude information c) Operate the special position identification feature
614.
The correct abbreviation for the call sign “A6-FAD” is: a) Alpha Alpha Delta b) Foxtrot Alpha Delta c) Alpha Delta
615.
Using the readability scale, readability 2 means: a) I heard you twice b) Readable now and then c) Readable but with difficulty
616.
The word “Roger” means: a) Will comply b) Message received and understood c) I have received all your last transmission
23
617.
“Monitor” means: a) Listen out on the frequency stated b) Make a test transmission on the frequency stated c) Change to the new frequency and establish a call
618.
A “Blind Transmission” is: a) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific station. b) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communications cannot be established but where it is believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission. c) An all station call.
619.
A pilot is required to fully read back: a) altimeter settings, taxi instructions and level instructions. b) altimeter settings, taxi instructions, take-off clearance, weather information and any other information given by ATC. c) altimeter settings, weather information, information regarding the proximity of other aircraft and taxi instructions.
620.
An altitude of 10 000 feet will be transmitted as: a) Ten thousand feet b) One Zero thousand feet c) Ten Zero Zero Zero feet
621.
ATC messages to be read back in full by the pilot are: a) Level instructions, heading instructions, ATIS information and altimeter settings. b) Clearance to enter, take off from, land on, cross, back track and hold short of an active runway. c) Speed instructions, SSR operating instructions, hold short instructions and wind direction and speed information.
622.
After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should you contact the ground control? a) After vacating the runway. b) After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area. c) When advised to do so by the tower.
24
The Flight Environment 1001. What is the squawk code to indicate emergency? a) 7500 b) 7600 c) 7700 1002. The radio frequency which can be used in an emergency or distress is: a) 121.5 MHz b) 121.5 kHz c) 121.3 kHz 1003. If you experience a communication failure while in flight, and you see a steady green light directed to you from the control tower, it means: a) continue approach and cleared to land b) give way to other traffic c) continue approach and look for the signal for landing clearance 1004. If on ground, you see a steady white light directed to you from the control tower, it means: a) Nothing. b) Clear the active area and stop the engine(s). c) Clear the active area and return to bay. 1005. When on ground, you see a flashing green light directed to you from the control tower, it indicates a: a) clearance to start the engine(s). b) clearance to take off. c) clearance to taxi. 1006. During a night flight you see a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead. The other aircraft is: a) crossing from right to left. b) crossing from left to right. c) approaching head on. 1007. During a night flight you see a steady white light, a steady green light and a flashing red light. The other aircraft: a) will pass from right to left. b) flying away from you and will cross from left to right. c) approaching head on.
25
1008. In the event of intercepting an aircraft, the intercepting aircraft will position itself: a) to the right and in front of the aircraft being intercepted. b) to the left and in front of the aircraft being intercepted. c) immediately in front of the aircraft being intercepted. 1009. What line colours denote taxiways, maneuvering area and runways? a) White centre lines. b) Yellow and white lines. c) Yellow centre line for taxiways and maneuvering area and white centre line for runways. 1010. What light colours denote taxiway centre line and perimeter? a) Green centre line lights and white perimeter lights. b) White centre line lights and green perimeter lights. c) Green centre line lights and blue perimeter lights. 1011. If you are intercepted by a fighter, you must: a) Squawk 1200 b) Squawk 2000 c) Squawk 7700 1012. Altimeter settings given by ATC for take off and landing are: a) QNH for Take off and QFE for landing. b) QFE for Take off and QNE for landing. c) QNH for Take off and landing. 1013. The meaning of QNH is: a) Standard conditions. b) 29.92 inches/ 1013.2 millibars. c) The pressure at mean sea level/ mean sea level set in the Altimeter sub-scale. 1014. When can you fly in danger areas? a) Never. a) At pilots discretion and safety of the aircraft is ensured. b) After checking NOTAMS. 1015. Alternating flashing white and green lights within an airport area indicates: a) That the airport is safe for landing b) A civil airport c) The location of the Helipad area on the airport
26
1016. On which side of the aircraft is the red colour navigation light located? a) The tail. b) Left wing. c) Both (a) and (b) are correct. 1017. If an altimeter setting is not available at an airport: a) You may set the approximate altitude depending on the outside air temperature. b) You are not allowed to depart the airport. c) Set the altimeter to the airport or spot elevation. 1018. How can you determine if a runway is closed? a) By flashing red lights on the runway. b) By a strip of white arrows towards each end of the runway. c) By a large white “X” at each end. 1019. A series of lined white arrows on a runway indicate: a) an area designated for taxi only. b) an area of displaced threshold where you can land, takeoff or overrun. c) an area designated for taxi, takeoff, roll out or overrun only. 1020. While taxiing towards a runway, you noticed two continuous and two dashed lines. This means: a) you may not cross either side without a clearance. b) that this taxiway is closed. c) you may not cross towards the runway without permission, but you may vacate the runway without permission unless otherwise instructed. 1021. If you experience a communication failure while in flight, and you see a steady red light directed to you from the control tower, it means: a) continue approach but not cleared yet to land. b) give way to other traffic and continue circling. c) do not land. The aerodrome is unavailable for landing. 1022. If on ground, you see a steady red light directed to you from the control tower, it means: a) stop immediately. b) clear the active area and stop the engine(s). c) clear the active area and return to bay. 1023. If you experience a communication failure while in flight, and you see a flashing green light directed to you from the control tower, it means: a) continue approach and cleared to land. b) return for landing. You will be given another signal for landing clearance. c) aerodrome is safe for landing.
27
1024. If you experience a communication failure while in flight. The control tower directs a flashing red light towards you, this means: a) continue approach but not cleared yet to land. b) give way to other traffic and continue circling. c) do not land. The aerodrome is unavailable for landing.
28
29
