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ENGINE OPERATIONAL (FEB212015) COMPETENCE 1 to17 COMPETENCE 1 Question
Answer
1. Cylinder oil is used for _________.
2-stroke engine
2. When there is sufficient reason that the relieving officer is not capable of watch keeping duties, the outgoing in charge of the engineering watch should ________________.
notify the chief engineer officer
3. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the __________.
means of heating the feedwater
4. Prior to taking over the engineering watch, which of following responsibilities shall an officer of an engineering watch rely to the incoming watch? 5. When the machinery spaces are in the periodic unmanned condition, the designated duty officer of the engineering watch shall be ________________. 6. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart?
C/E standing orders of the day in a ship compartment that has an alarm An increase in the suction pressure
7. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust 2-stroke engine manifold which is part of___________. 8. The liquid indicator sight glass is generally located in the ____________.
high pressure liquid line
9. In relieving watch, the outgoing duty engineer should ________________.
check that the reliever is capable to carry out watch keeping duties
10. Dark exhaust gas from the engine is caused by ______.
engine overload
11. Cracked cylinder liner of a 2-stroke engine is indicated by___________.
hunting of jacket cooling water pressure
12. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash evaporator are cooled by_________.
seawater
13. What is the minimum number of hours of rest in a 24 hour period?
10 hours
14. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the pump are_____.
bearings
15. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________.
at the bottom of the engine
16. Which steam plant watch operating condition will require priority attention over the other conditions listed?
Low water level main boiler
17. Which of the following statement is/are not safety precaution of gas welding in acetylene tank?
Keep the valve cap off when not in use
18. A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove _____.
moisture from the system
19. Boiler fire side must be kept free of soot accumulations because ____.
soot insulates the boiler heating surfaces
20. When there is a fire in an electric motor, normally the first step is to ___________.
secure the electrical supply
21. When maneuvering, you discover heavy smoke coming from the turbocharger casing. What action should you take first?.
Notify the bridge and ask to shut the engine down
22. Prior to engaging the turning gear, precautions should be taken to________________.
shut off the starting air supply and open the indicator cocks
23. A good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fires by _________.
eliminating potential fuel sources
24. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through ______________.
fuel oil injector
25. Too high exhaust gas temperature in all cylinders is cause by the following except________.
stuck-up fuel injection pump
26. In the refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of vaporization in the______.
evaporator
27. The purpose of wear ring in the centrifugal pump is to ___________.
minimize wear of impeller and casing
28. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder depends primarily on _______.
the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle
29. Type of pump which is dependent of the head is______________.
centrifugal pump
30. The thermostatic expansion valve of a refrigeration system is opened ____________.
by refrigerant pressure and close by spring pressure
31. If the engineer on watch is doubtful of the accuracy of water level in the boiler gauge glass, he should ____.
blow down the gauge glass
32. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is a closed cooling type is used to ___________.
maintain constant head in a system
33. In testing the boiler water for chloride content will indicate the amount of ____.
dissolved salts from sea contamination
34. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could could occur through_______.
gasketed joints, valve stem, and gage glass packing
35. The watch engineer finds the refrigeration compressor has blown the shaft seal. In this situation, situation, he should __________.
secure the compressor at once and close the suction and discharge valves
36. The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to ____________.
start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures
37. The separation chamber of the purifier is called ________.
bowl
38. A protective device use to prevent over torque during starting of an Air Compressor is called_____.
unloader
39. To ensure that a bearing is receiving the proper oil supply, you should check the _______________.
sight flow glass in the bearing oil supply line
40. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator carryover in the first- stage indicates_____. 41. As a duty engineer you should know that some auxiliaries are not designed to handle steam at boiler pressure. Which of the following devices is usually fitted A steam pressure reducing valve in the branch line to deliver steam at the correct pressure? 42. An engine with high exhaust temperature but low compression is due to_____________ .
leaking valve
43. Not properly vented main engine jacket cooling water can __________.
cause overheating
44. What condition shall the chief engineer officer consult with the master whether or not to maintain the same engineering watch as when under way?
Unsheltered anchorage
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
45. One of the major components of centrifugal pump is___________.
impeller
46. What is the proper way of storing an oxygen and acetylene cylinders?
Horizontal with the cylinder caps screwed on
47. Below are some of the causes of high exhaust gas temperature except __________.
poor quality of fuel oil
48. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding_____.
the full breaking strength of the mooring line
49. You would not see a flow through the sight glass of the lube oil gravity tank overflow line when the __________.
the lube oil service pumps are secured
50. As an engineer which action should you normally take during each watch when the auxiliary boiler is operating?
Observe general performance of the boiler
51. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the____.
electrical conductivity of water
52. Air compressor cylinder unloader enable the compressor start and come up to speed before to_______. air compression begins 53. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is located____________.
before expansion valve
54. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging air is called ___________.
turbocharger
55. The watch engineer has has been unable to transfer the fuel oil to the settling tank while underway. As the tank level call out other engineers for is becoming dangerously low, the engineer should now assistance __________. 56. An indication of excessive soot accumulation on boiler water tubes and economizer surfaces is due to____.
high stack temperature
57. An auxiliary diesel generator continues to run after you try to shut down. Your next course of action should be to _________.
block the flow of air supply to the engine
58. The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known as the_______________.
refrigerating effect
59. How many weeks shall an expection of 70 hours in a week be granted by the administration?
2 weeks
60. Part of centrifugal disc purifier use to hold discs in place and directs the flow of dirty liquid to the bottom then to the discs as the oil flows upward is called ____________.
distributor
61. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the refrigeration compressor when there is______.
a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow
62. The hours of rest may be divided into no more than two periods, one of which shall be at least how many hours?
6 hours
63. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator is not primed, the______.
oil will be lost through the water discharge ports
64. Which of the following is an example of head hazard? I. Impact from falling, II. Flying Object, III. Hair entanglement 65. It refers to an internal combustion engine practice, where there is a necessity of heating the oil, to ensure easy flow and good atomization.
I, II, and III
Pre-heating
66. Before the turning gear is engaged, precaution should be taken to________________.
shut off the starting air supply and open the indicator cocks
67. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principle of a flash-type evaporator?
Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
68. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure submerged tube distilling plant will cause _____.
pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit
69. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good combustion is called__________.
atomizing
70. A material use to protect the internal parts of air compressor from solid particles which can be sucked along with fresh air is called____.
Intake filter
71. While inspecting the steering gear at sea, you should check for __________.
any leaks in the system
72. If an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above normal, it usually indicates __________.
dirty intercooler
73. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the ___________.
governor
74. A suitable location for the installation of an impulse type steam trap would be in the__________ -
horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the heat exchanger
75. Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is reached? 76. If one fuel oil strainer of a duplex unit becomes clogged while the vessel is steaming at sea, the first action is to __________. 77. The high pressure side of the refrigeration systems starts from the _______.
Impulse change the oil flow over to the clean side compressor to the expansion valve
78. The flash point of a residual fuel oil should be used to determine the highest temperature to which the oil may in a storage tank be heated __________. 79. What is the limit that each Administration shall establish for the purpose of preventing alcohol abuse for masters, 0.05% blood alcohol level (BAC) officers and other seafarers while performing designated safety, security and marine environmental duties? 80. Safety is dependent on orderliness and cleanliness that may be kept by __________.
storing all items in their proper place
81. Before using the steam soot blowers of boiler at sea, you should __________.
raise the water level
82. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent _________.
electric shock if the tool is shorted
83. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to___________ .
increase compressor efficiency
84. When the engine is running, a leaking air starting valve is indicated by_____.
hot pipe connected to the starting valve
85. If the fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high pressure fuel oil leak, you should first ______.
shut off the fuel supply
86. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to _________.
secure loose gears
87. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration system is called __________.
receiver
88. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist from the ______.
expansion valve to the compressor
89. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a system during a change of state produced by a difference of temperature between the system and its surroundings. 90. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superheat absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the _________. 3 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Heat
expansion valve
91. All persons who are assigned duty as officer in charge of a watch or as a rating forming part of a watch and those whose duties involve designated safety, prevention of 77 hours in a 7 day period pollution, and security duties shall be provided with a rest period of not less than ________________. 92. The effect of too much heating in the fuel oil of main engine is ___________. 93. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board use to boil seawater, using the main engine jacket cooling water? 94. Under what condition may the master suspend the schedule of hours of rest and require a seafarer to perform any hours of work necessary?
stuck plunger and barrel Evaporator
Emergency Cases
95. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the ___________.
compressor
96. The inlet pipe connection of dirty oil in disc type centrifugal purifier is located at the __________.
top of the bowl cover
97. Stern tube is used to__________.
support and seal the propeller shaft
98. Under what condition shall the officer in charge of the engineering watch shall ensure that permanent air or steam pressure is available for sound signals?
Restricted visibility
99. Cylinder oil is used for _________.
2-stroke engine
100. Before using a boiler compressed air soot blower system, you should __________.
drain the soot blower pneumatic operating lines
The condition and state of 101. Which of the following is the most critical information that readiness of portable firethe officer in an engineering watch be relayed during extinguishing equipment and fixed taking over a watch? fire-extinguishing installations and fire-detection systems 102. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
gums, varnishes, and acids
103. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to_____________.
frequently starting and stopping
104. Unloader in air compressor is use to________.
prevent excessive load on the motor during starting
105. What is the most important parameter to check right after any diesel engine is started?
lube oil pressure
106. Which condition could cause the feed pump of an auxiliary boiler to lose suction?
Excessive feed water temperature
107. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
tight compressor bearings
108. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the ____________.
quality of water produced
109. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the__________. 110. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________.
change in the amount of vapor produced within an enclosed chamber provide an orifice between the high pressure and low pressure side of the system
111. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from________.
heating of the air leaving the cylinders
112. A badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause __________.
constant running of the compressor
113. Which of the conditions listed would cause the stern tube lube oil header tank level to decrease?
A worn or damaged stern tube seal.
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
114. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle.
The entire fuel charge is present for ignition.
115. When securing a fuel oil heater, you should __________.
cut out the steam before securing the oil flow
116. Which of the following conditions should be immediately reported to the engineering officer on watch?
Oil in the drain inspection tank.
117. An engine fails to start even if all temperatures and pressures are normal because______.
fuel is contaminated with water
118. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering in atomizer is too low, the burner will __________.
produce heavy black smoke at any load condition
119. If two compressors must be operated in parallel in order oil levels in both compressor to maintain the box temperatures, a careful watch should crankcases be kept on the __________.
COMPETENCE 2 120. If you do not wear goggles and helmet, your chances of being ______ will be greater ．
hurt
121. The damage to winches is due to ______.
rough handling
122. Never make comment ，estimate or guess in your Offical the facts Logbook ，but ______ only ． 123. A pumproom is suspected of accumulating gases after a ventilation machinery breakdown. Where should the combustible gas indicator case be placed when testing the pumproom atmosphere for combustible gases?
On the deck outside the pumproom
124. Has any person ______ on board during the voyage otherwise than as a result of accident ？
died
125. An accident came ______ my mind when I saw the broken case．
to
126. The ship can leave the port ______ the joint inspection．
after
127. He must have had an accident ，or he ______ then．
would have been here
128. Steam smoke will occur when ______.
extremely cold air from shore passes over warmer water
129. What language shall the issuing country use in medical certificates ?
Official language of the issuing country
130. Which is not a required entry in the ship's Official Logbook?
Drydocking of the vessel
131. A lashing used to secure two barges side by side，lashed in an "X" fashion ，is called a ______.
scissor wire
132. As soon as the ship is berthed ，you should lower the gangway and stretch a net ______.
underneath
133. How can the error be corrected when writing in the official log book?
Cross out the error with a single line and rewrite the entry correctly
134. The most critical time during bunkering is when ______.
final topping off is occurring
135. After being rescued from the vessel accident, the people agreed that they had much to ______.
thank
136. An accidental grounding is called _______.
stranding
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
137. Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by ______.
ship's sweat
138. The accident ______ caused damage to ship's hull ．
has
139. When oil is discharged overboard ，an entry is required in the ______.
Oil Record Book
140. When a vessel is entering or leaving a port, record of engine speed is kept in the ______.
bell book
141. Let ______ the real fact of the accident ．
me tell you
142. Please get everything ready prior ______ shifting ．
to
143. Please charge the expenses ______ the ship's account ．
into
144. Any person maintaining a listening watch on a bridge-tobridge radiotelephone must be able to __________.
speak English
145. According ______ the report, ship hit the wharf during berthing ．
to
146.
The Mariner's Handbook ______ general information affecting navigation and is complementary to the Sailing gives Directions．
147. The patches where rust have been removed should be wiped clean before paint is ______.
applied
148. The ______ showed that said ship complied with the requirements of the Convention.
inspection
149.
In case of accident ______ the risk of sinking, all effective measures shall be taken to steer clear of the fairway to avoid ______ the traffic ．
involving/impeding
COMPETENCE 3 150. Acoustic feedback can arise__________
because the volume adjustment of the speaker is too high
151. Squelch mode serves to suppress__________
noise in speech-breaks in an SSBsignal
152. The legal type VHF-antenna has a length of__________.
1 meter
153. Automatic amplifier regulation is used to__________
reduce distortion of weak incoming signals
154. When onboard channel 16 is used for a shore radioconnection, you always work__________.
simplex
155.
Which wave length applies to a frequency of 2000 kHz? 1500 meters
156. Long distance communication in the HF-bands depends on__________
satellites
157. The squelch on the control panel of a VHF-sat serves to__________
adjust the threshold level for admitting signals and refusing noise
158. The typical “daylight -frequencies” for long distance transmission are located in the__________
8 or 12 MHz-band
159. What is the recommended connection between antenna and VHF?
coax cable connection
160. A VHF transmission range is mainly determined by__________
the height of the aerial
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
161. A polarisation of a radio wave is determined by a__________
position of the aerial
162. What is the maximum range of a VHF radio-set from ship to ship at sea.
200 Nautical Miles
163. What is meant by frequency?
time lapse of vibrations.
164. Before a mariphone is installed on board, __________
a license must be issued
165. The sound-level of the speaker on a MF/HF radiotelephony installation is adjusted through _________. 166. With the squelch mode on the VHF__________
AF-Gain undesirable noise is suppressed
COMPETENCE 4 167. The operation of a thermostatic steam trap depends upon the__________.
change in the amount of vapor produced within an enclosed chamber
168. How are hydraulic valve lash adjusters on diesel engine rocker arm assemblies being lubricated?
Forced lubrication
169. When starting the air compressor after long period of rest the shaft should be rotated prior to restarting to ____________.
check motor condition
170. Main component of the engine to regulate speed is the ___________.
governor
171. The high pressure cut-out switch will stop the refrigeration compressor when there is______.
a stoppage of condenser cooling water flow
172. A port and helix duel injection pump having upper and lower plunger helixes is designed to _________.
vary the beginning and ending of injection
173. During the initial pull down of the box temperature in a refrigeration system, which of the devices listed is used to prevent excessive gas pressure at the compressor suction?
Evaporator pressure regulator
174. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
Trip the three way dump valve.
175. Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation?
No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitted bearing surface.
176. The low pressure side of a refrigeration system is considered to exist from the ______.
expansion valve to the compressor
177. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessels be tested ?
At least once a year.
178. What procedure of cooling compressed gases under constant pressure before going to the air reservoir?
After cooling
179. Short cycling of a refrigeration compressor refers to_____________.
frequently starting and stopping
180. Breaking the fuel into fine spray to provide good combustion is called__________.
atomizing
181. Which of the following statement is true concerning the overall efficiency of air compressors?
Two stage compressors are generally more efficient than single stage compressors
182. Fluctuations in the pressure and temperature of the steam supplied to the first-effect of a low pressure submerged tube distilling plant will cause _____.
pressure and temperature fluctuations in the entire unit
183. Which characteristic of the theoretical Otto cycle does not occur in the theoretical Diesel cycle.
The entire fuel charge is present for ignition.
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
184. What is the theoritical lift of a pump handling fresh water at atmospheric pressure?
10.35 m
185. Boiler fire side must be kept free of soot accumulations because ____.
soot insulates the boiler heating surfaces
186. If the temperature of the fuel oil entering in atomizer is too low, the burner will __________.
produce heavy black smoke at any load condition
187. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has lost its interference fit due to____. 188. A type of turbocharger being used for small high-speed engine that the gas flows away from turbine axis rotation is called______. 189. The ability of lubricating oil to resist viscosity changes during temperature changes is indicated by the________.
compression set or wear axial
viscosity index number
190. The expansion tank for the jacket cooling water which is a closed cooling type is used to ___________.
maintain constant head in a system
191. Cylinder oil is used for _________.
2-stroke engine
192. What will be the resulting effect if an indicator diagram was taken at a time when the exhaust valve is leaking badly on suction stroke? 193. If all of the air charge has been lost from a ship service air receiver, the compressor mechanical unloading systems will ______________.
Poor combustion and reduction in power fail to work, but the compressor having no load will start with little or no difficulty
194. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the ____________.
quality of water produced
195. Stern tube is used to__________.
support and seal the propeller shaft
196. What do we call the storage tank for liquid refrigerant?
Condenser
197. If an air compressor intercooler pressure rises above normal, it usually indicates __________.
dirty intercooler
198. Type of pump which is dependent of the head is______________.
centrifugal pump
199. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the__________.
bilge system will lose vacuum and prevents the other bilges from being pumped out
200. What you call the power produced by a cylinder which can be measured by an engine indicator mechanism?
Indicated Power
201. How will you operate a low-pressure air compressor in order to prevent leaky valve?
By carrying out periodical preventive maintenance
202. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by The movement of any system 10 bars, which of the following statements describes the actuator will now be slower. result of the set point being lowered? 203. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops for overboard discharge?
15 PPM Oil Content Monitor of Oily Water Separator
204. The storage tank for liquid refrigerant in a refrigeration system is called __________.
receiver
205. The thermostatic expansion valve of a refrigeration system is opened ____________.
by refrigerant pressure and close by spring pressure
206. Component of an engine used to increase scavenging air is called ___________.
turbocharger
207. Most marine heat exchangers are of the shell-and-tube type. Which of the following materials listed below do the cylindrical shell are made of ?
Fabricated steel, cast iron or occasionally aluminum bronze
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
208. A mooring winch should be equipped with mechanical brakes capable of holding_____.
the full breaking strength of the mooring line
209. How will you check the alignment of coupling faces?
By inserting a feeler gage between the coupling faces at various point around the circumference
210. The heat gained per pound of refrigerant in the evaporator is known as the_______________.
refrigerating effect
211. Air compressor cylinder unloader enable the compressor start and come up to speed before to_______. air compression begins 212. Refrigerant is circulated through a refrigeration system by the ___________.
compressor
213. Which of the listed types of steam traps operates on the the principle that hot water flashes to steam when its vapor pressure is reached?
Impulse
214. A protective device use to prevent over torque during starting of an Air Compressor is called_____.
unloader
215. What is the process of throttling the refrigerant through the expansion valve in a vapor refrigeration cycle?
Irreversible adiabatic process
216. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long period of time, you should replace the _____ . 217. Passages are drilled at the trunk-type diesel engine crankshaft in order to provide lubricating oil in the ______________. 218. In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should have a_____. . 219. Parts of the pump used to maintain the alignment of the pump are_____. 220. In a refrigeration system, the amount of superhea t absorbed by the refrigerant is adjusted at the _________. 221. What component of the freshwater evaporator on board use to boil seawater, using the main engine jacket cooling water?
wear rings
piston rod bearings vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute bearings expansion valve
Evaporator
222. Fuel oil enters the main engine cylinder through ______________.
fuel oil injector
223. Which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the liquid velocity to pressure?
Volute
224. A salinity indicating system functions on the basic principle of measuring the____.
electrical conductivity of water
225. What indicates a knocking noise from one cylinder of an operating reciprocating air compressor?
a loose valve plate for that cylinder
226. If an air compressor inter-cooler pressure rises above normal, it usually indicates ____________.
compressor discharge
227. Unloader in air compressor is use to________. 228. Part of centrifugal disc purifier use to hold discs in place and directs the flow of dirty liquid to the bottom then to the discs as the oil flows upward is called ____________. 229. After the installation of new impeller impeller wear rings, by pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to_____. . 230. A suitable location for the installation of an impulse impulse type steam trap would be in the__________ -
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
prevent excessive load on the motor during starting distributor check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring surfaces are true horizontal run of drain line from the lowest point at the outlet of the heat exchanger
231. When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure fresh water evaporator, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
Trip the three-way solenoid dump valve
232. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose, which of the conditions below will occur?
The compressor will vibrate
233. When in operation, what could be possible cause why a reciprocating air compressor is running roughly and vibrating excessively? 234. A large low speed diesel engine has developed excessive piston clearance and can be restored by_______
foundation bolts are loose inserting shims between the crankpin bearing box & the connecting rod foot
235. A badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves will cause __________.
constant running of the compressor
236. Main engine lube oil sump tank is located __________.
at the bottom of the engine
237. If the bowl of a disk type centrifugal purifier when operated as a separator is not primed, the______.
oil will be lost through the water discharge ports
238. For proper air temperature control in an air conditioning system using chilled water circulation, which parameter should remain constant regardless of load changes?
Chilled water system supply temperature
239. Salinity cell is installed in the distilling unit to indicate the______.
quality of water produced
240. A stopper is inserted into the spout of a closed container in which water has been heated to a temperature of 100 Both pressure and temperature will degrees C. If additional thermal energy is imparted, rise what changes will occur to the pressure and temperature inside the container? 241. A high reading at a salinity cell located in the loop seal between two stages of a flash type evaporator carryover in the first- stage indicates_____. 242. The turbo charger delivers air into the cylinder at ________.
pressure greater than atmospheric
243. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump with worn wear rings, the____ .
pump discharge capacity is reduced
244. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems are of the ______ .
axial piston type
245. An air compressor is equipped with an intercooler and an aftercooler to___________ .
increase compressor efficiency
246. The by-products of oxidation, as a result of water contamination of hydraulic oil, are generally______.
gums, varnishes, and acids
247. A centrifugal pump requires priming____________. 248. An emergency bilge suction is required for________________.
due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction or eye of the impeller machinery space bilges
249. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry select the proper size of filter so type intake filter on an air compressor is to____. that air flow is not restricted 250. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump tank should _______ .
retain the lube oil as long as possible before it recirculates through the system
251. Condensers located in the various stages of the flash evaporator are cooled by_________.
seawater
252. It is a form of energy which crosses the boundary of a system during a change of state produced by a difference of temperature between the system and its surroundings.
Heat
253. The separation chamber of the purifier is called ________.
bowl
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ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
254. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the____________.
pump would overheat
255. In a low pressure air compressor, the loss of volumetric efficiency normally results from________.
heating of the air leaving the cylinders
256. What will cause in dirty intercoolers on an air compressor?
increased motor current
257. Why the fuel is be circulated before lighting off a cold boiler?
To heat the fuel enough for proper atomization
258. Burned gas from each cylinder is directed to the exhaust 2-stroke engine manifold which is part of___________. 259. One of the major components of centrifugal pump is___________.
impeller
260. If a crankcase explosion has occurred in a diesel engine, and the crankcase remains intact, which precautions should be observed?
The crankcase should remain unopened until the engine has cooled
261. The liquid indicator sight glass is generally located in the ____________.
high pressure liquid line
262. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is vaporized in the_________.
first and second stage flash chambers
263. What usually indicates if an air compressor inter-cooler pressure rises above normal?
a clogged intercooler
264. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to the plant is carried out by______. feedwater heater 265. The purpose of expansion valve is to__________.
provide an orifice between the high pressure and low pressure side of the system
266. The degree of fuel atomization in a diesel engine cylinder depends primarily on _______.
the size of the holes in the fuel nozzle
267. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump?
Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream.
268. A squeaking sound occurring from within an operating reciprocating air compressor is an indication of_______.
tight compressor bearings
269. In which of the listed types of evaporators is brine density control most important?
Solo-shell low pressure
270. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used____________. 271. Many cast iron pistons are designed with heat dams , which serve to________.
if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any other means Reduce the possibility of overheating the top compression ring
272. A dehydrator installed in a refrigeration system is used to remove _____.
moisture from the system
273. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by______________.
stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds
274. Which engine has the highest exhaust temperature?
Four-stroke-cycle
275. In the refrigeration system, the refrigerant absorbs the latent heat of vaporization in the______.
evaporator
276. Which of the listed operations will cause an automatically controlled refrigeration compressor to restart?
An increase in the suction pressure
277. The purpose of the low pressure cutout switch is to ____________.
start and stop the compressor at preset operating pressures
11
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
278. A material use to protect the internal parts of air compressor from solid particles which can be sucked along with fresh air is called____.
Intake filter
279. Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve?
Direction of flow should be from below the seat.
280. The high pressure side of the refrigeration systems starts from the _______.
compressor to the expansion valve
281. Diesel engine jacket water is used in the fresh water distillation process as the __________.
means of heating the feedwater
282. If the coolant temperature is excessively low as it passes through the internally cooled fuel injectors, the injectors may be damaged by _________. 283. Most refrigerants used in vapor compression refrigeration sytem originated primarily from which of the following base molecules?
corrosion of the nozzle tip
Ethane and methane
284. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _____.
the ability of oil to separate from water
285. The purpose of wear ring in the centrifugal pump is to ___________.
minimize wear of impeller and casing
286. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for______.
high speed continuous operation of roller bearings
287. The intake air for the turbocharged engine is cooled to _________.
increase mean effective pressure
288. Main air compressor is used to compress air for starting of main engine at a pressure of _____ bar.
25 to 30 bar
289. The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to _____ .
center the steam piston in the cylinders
290. Which of the following descriptions best identifies the operating principle of a flash-type evaporator?
Heated sea water is injected into a vacuum chamber
291. One of the main functions of wear rings, as used in a centrifugal pumps is to ____ .
prevent wear of the pump casing and impeller
292. It refers to an internal combustion engine practice, where there is a necessity of heating the oil, to ensure easy flow and good atomization.
Pre-heating
293. In a centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction lift, foot valves are primarily designed to______. .
enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump
294. The dehydrator of a refrigeration system is located____________.
before expansion valve
295. The inlet pipe connection of dirty oil in disc type centrifugal purifier is located at the __________.
top of the bowl cover
296. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement pump?
Centrifugal
297. Air leaking into a flash type distilling plant could occur through_______.
gasketed joints, valve stem, and gage glass packing
298. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should________.
bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
299. Tubing is sized by_________.
nominal outside diameter
300. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to________. .
delay the compression process until the motor is up to its speed
301. Differential pistons are used in reciprocating air compressor to__________.
accomplish more than stage of compression in one cylinder
12
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
302. A crankshaft whose center of gravity coincides with its centerline is said to be ________.
statically balanced
COMPETENCE 5 303. The emergency bilge suction valve is typically used____________. 304. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the _______.
if the bilges become flooded and they can not be emptied by any other means bilge system will lose vacuum and prevent other bilges from being pumped out
305. Demulsibility of a lube oil is defined as _____.
the ability of oil to separate from water
306. The first step when beginning to set the slide valves on a duplex reciprocating pump is to _____ .
center the steam piston in the cylinders
307. If the capacity of a centrifugal pump decreases gradually over a long period of time, you should replace the _____ wear rings . 308. Which of the listed conditions can lead to cavitation in a centrifugal pump?
Vapor pockets formed in the suction flow stream.
309. After the installation of new impeller wear rings, by pressing them onto the pump impeller hub, it is advisable to_____. .
check the shaft and impeller assembly on centers to see if the ring surfaces are true
310. An O-ring seal in a hydraulic system will begin to leak when it has lost its interference fit due to____.
compression set or wear
311. The final heating of the feedwater in a flash type distilling low pressure steam admitted to the plant is carried out by______. feedwater heater 312. Before doing any work on a hydraulic system equipped with accumulators, you should________.
bleed off all stored energy from the accumulators
313. What is the purpose of the relief valves installed in the fuel service pumps?
To protect the pump from high discharge pressure
314. If a centrifugal bilge pump were continually operated with the discharge valve closed the____________. 315. What equipment is required when processing bilge slops for overboard discharge? 316. Most pump manufacturers of pumps recommend that the SUCTION piping dimension of centrifugal pumps be _________. 317. The precaution that should be observed to prevent damage of the service pump when warming up the fuel system to the boiler is to ________________. 318. What is the theoritical lift of a pump handling fresh water at atmospheric pressure? 319. If you are operating a centrifugal water service pump with worn wear rings, the____ .
pump would overheat 15 PPM Oil Content Monitor of Oily Water Separator one size larger than the pump suction nozzle close the recirculating valve when atomizing temperature is reached 10.35 m pump discharge capacity is reduced
320. The bilge system has been performing well; however, Attempt to pump out another bilge the aft starboard engine room bilge-well suddenly fails to well to determine if the entire be pumped out. Which statement should be done first to system is affected determine the cause? 321. What auxiliary machine or device is used to segregate oil and water accumulated in the engine room before it is Oily bilge separator being discharge overboard? 322. An oil fog lubrication system is recommended for______. 323. How often should cargo oil pump relief valves on tank vessels be tested ?
13 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
high speed continuous operation of roller bearings At least once a year.
324. The oil separator trap is located between the/or _________.
Near accumulator drum
325. Which of the listed pumps is not a positive displacement pump?
Centrifugal
326. If condensate is accumulated in the steam side of a fuel oil heater, it could result in _______________.
corrosion
327. When the steering wheel is turned, oil is directed to the steering gear rams by ___.
varying the eccentricity of a floating ring or angle of a tilting box
328. In a centrifugal pumps operating with a high suction lift, foot valves are primarily designed to______. .
enable the pump and its suction line to remain primed prior to starting the pump
329. Tubing is sized by_________.
nominal outside diameter
330. A centrifugal pump requires priming____________. 331. When there is no movement of the rams on an electrohydraulic steering gear, the tilting box of the running pump is _________. 332. When securing a distillate pump on a low pressure fresh water evaporator, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
due to the inability of this type of pump to lift water to cover the suction or eye of the impeller In the neutral position Trip the three-way solenoid dump valve
333. Accidental flooding of the engine room bilges through the bilge system is prevented by______________.
stop-check valves installed in the bilge suction manifolds
334. Which of the following devices, when used on an electro-hydraulic steering gear, keeps the movement of the rudder closely in step with the steering wheel?
The follow-up gear
335. If one of the bilge system manifold valves does not properly seat, the__________.
bilge system will lose vacuum and prevents the other bilges from being pumped out
336. Which of the following statements best describes an oil lubricated stern tube bearing installation?
No shaft liner is needed in the area of the babbitted bearing surface.
337. The reason why fuel is heated before atomizing is to __________.
decrease its viscosity
338. During the repair and overhaul of the pump relief valve used in a hydraulic system, the set point was reduced by The movement of any system 10 bars, which of the following statements describes the actuator will now be slower. result of the set point being lowered? 339. If the foundation bolts of a reciprocating air compressor are loose, which of the conditions below will occur?
The compressor will vibrate
340. Which of the following statements represents the proper relative direction of flow through a globe valve?
Direction of flow should be from below the seat.
341. In a two stage flash evaporator, heated feedwater is vaporized in the_________.
first and second stage flash chambers
342. The purpose of an air compressor unloading device is to________. . 343. What procedure must be formed before doing any maintenance on a hydraulic system, i.e. there is still stored energy in the accumulator?
delay the compression process until the motor is up to its speed Bleed off the energy stored in the accumulator
344. What happen if fuel is injected too early in the injection cycle?
Early detonation & loss of power
345. An emergency bilge suction is required for________________.
machinery space bilges
346. One of the main functions of wear rings, as used in a centrifugal pumps is to ____ .
14
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
prevent wear of the pump casing and impeller
347. Which of the following centrifugal pump components converts the liquid velocity to pressure?
Volute
348. What is the primary purpose of heater used in pressurized fuel oil system?
To reduce fuel viscosity for proper atomization
349.
In order to properly remove air from the casing of a centrifugal pump when starting, the pump should have a_____. .
350. The construction of the main propulsion engine lube oil sump tank should _______ .
vent valve attached to the casing at the top of the volute retain the lube oil as long as possible before it recirculates through the system
351. An important point of consideration when replacing a dry select the proper size of filter so type intake filter on an air compressor is to____. that air flow is not restricted 352. Hydraulic pumps most commonly used in steering systems are of the ______ .
axial piston type
353. Carbon adheres on the inside surface of fuel oil heaters because______________.
the excessive fuel oil temperatures
354.
The ability of lubricating oil to resist viscosity changes during temperature changes is indicated by the________.
viscosity index number
355. When securing a centrifugal type distillate pump, which of the listed steps should be carried out first?
Trip the three way dump valve.
356. What would result if the fuel used for boiler burners has sediments?
Clogged atomizer tips
357. The result of a too low fuel temperature flowing to the burners is the ___________.
heavy black exhaust
358. The following liquids can ordinarily be discharged overboard without being processed through an oily water Segregated ballast separator is ______.
COMPETENCE 6 359.
On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will only attain half speed when the generator fields are fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by______ . 360. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor to _________ . 361. To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter in checking current flow, you must first________ . An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of ______________________. 363. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of_________.
raising the generator engine speed
increase in speed hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated conductor
362.
the alternator was operating out of synchronism
the alternator was operating out of synchronism
364. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a single-phase (one supply line open) ____.
the motor will continue to run if it is not heavily loaded
365. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of electromagnetic induction is the________ .
transformer
366. Routine maintenance of dry-type transformers should include ____. 367. A low-voltage protection circuit as used in the electric motor starting equipment, will ____.
15
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
cleaning the windings, if accessible, with a vacuum cleaner or very low pressure air prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of voltage
368. Loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator can be corrected by _____? 369. The purpose of having low voltage protection for an electric motor circuit is to ___. 370. The Wheatstone bridge is a precision measuring instrument utilizing the principle of changes in______ . 371. The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will_________. . 372. In a diesel electric plant, raising the generator's field excitation will cause the DC propulsion motor to _________ . 373. Loss of residual magnetism in an alternator or generator can be corrected for by _____? 374. Which of the damages listed can occur to the components of a winch master control switch, if the cover gasket becomes deteriorated? 375. In electronic circuits, DC voltage can be positive (+) or negative (-) when measured with respect to the _________. 376. Tightly knit metal braid wire can be used with a printed circuit board when______.
using a storage battery or battery charger to „flash‟ the field prevent excessive current from developing as it is attempting to deliver its required horsepower resistance provide unidirectional current to the load increase in speed using a storage battery or battery charger to „flash‟ the field Rapid corrosion of switch components. Analogue or digital circuitry "common" bus required to desolder components on the board
377. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw meter currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor 23.2 KW of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter reading would increase by______. 378. An ohmmeter reading of 'zero' ohm between the ends of a wire conductor would provide a positive indication continuity of______. 379. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you should _____.
short the test leads and calibrate the meter reading to „zero‟
380. Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers is provided by a/an_______.
thermal acting trip
381. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on full line voltage by means of ________ .
across-the-line starters
382. A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection against short circuits by using a/an______ .
electromagnet
383. Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow prevent coupling overheating speed to ________ . 384. In a running electric motor, one uses a sound listening bar to detect fault in _______________. 385. When replacing a defective transformer in a parallel transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be carried out to insure proper operation of the equipment it serves? 386. An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric instrument. In addition to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log?
Ball bearing The transformer connections must be made as before with regard to the indicated polarity The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken
387. Which of the motors for the devices listed below is fitted with an instantaneous overload relay?
Winch
388. To properly use a hook-on-type volt/ammeter in checking current flow, you must first________ .
hook the jaws of the instrument around the insulated conductor
389. While underway onboard a DC diesel-elecric drive ship, you notice excessive sparking of the brushes on the mainpropulsion motor. You should first_____.
notify the bridge that you will need to slow down
16 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
390. Moisture as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by______ .
using strip heaters inside the switch box
391. Modern DC generators are fitted with commutating poles to _____________.
Reduce sparking
392. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0º. This would indicate that the ____. 393. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short circuit, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor coils through the collector rings. A coil having a short circuit will be indicated by a_____. 394. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board? 395. When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperature, the best procedure to keep it from freezing is to _____.
synchroscope is defective or broken low or zero voltage drop reading, while the other coils will have higher readings The foil wire may become loose and separate from the circuit board. keep the battery fully charged
396. Any electric motor can be constructed to be ___
explosion proof
397. The proper sequence of securing alternator in service are _______________.
reduce the load to near zero, trip the circuit breaker, stop the prime mover
398. Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are purposely shorted together. Which of the following actions should be taken if, when adjusting to „zero‟ ohms, the indicating needle can not be returned to „zero‟ on the scale?
The batteries should be replaced
399. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and a contactor?
Contactors can handle heavier loads than relays.
400. AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without tripping the circuit breaker. This will ____.
cause high currents to be induced in the field windings
401. Protection against sustained overloads occurring in molded-case circuit breakers is provided by a/an_______. 402. While paralleling two alternators, the synchronizing lamps remain lit as the synchroscope pointer approaches the 0º. This would indicate that the ____.
thermal acting trip
synchroscope is defective or broken
403. Magnet chatter or 'pumping' occurring in a magnetic contactor can be caused by___________.
chattering contacts on the control relay
404. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is grounded in a DC machine, you must____.
disconnect each shunt field coil before testing
405. If field excitation is suddenly lost to an alternator operating in parallel, that alternator will ____.
lose its load and tend to overspeed
406. The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on the synchronous motor will result in a ____.
tendency for the motor to overheat
407. When replacing a defective transformer in a parallel transformer configuration, which of the following actions must be carried out to ensure proper operation of the equipment it serves? 408. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action ___.
The transformer connections must be made same as before with regard to the indicated polarity increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay
409. The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the ______________. .
normal temperature rise above the standard ambient temperature at rated load
410. An open shunt field in a direct current machine may be located by connecting the field circuit to an external power source, equal to the rated field voltage or less, and tested with a voltmeter from _____________.
one line terminal to each coil lead in succession
17 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
411. Undervoltage trips are frequently installed on switchboard circuit breakers to ___. 412. The ideal frequency of an incoming generator synchroscope pointer for closing the ACB is _______________. 413. When the synchroscope pointer rotates in a fast direction (clockwise), it indicates that the governor frequency of incoming generator is ______________. 414. The number of cells in a 12 volt lead-acid battery is_______. 415. An AC generator panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one synchronizing lamp is bright while the other remains dark, this indicates that ___. 416. You are reconnecting to a three-phase induction motor to the supply line. To prevent possible damage to the load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, you should ____. 417. An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal amount of current is known as a/an_______ .
trip out the generator when there is insufficient voltage being delivered to distribution circuits Slightly higher than bus frequency
Higher than the bus frequency six cells
the generators are out of phase and one lamp is burned out check the supply line phase sequence, and motor rotation with appropriate indicators, then connect correspondingly marked leads short circuit
418. Before measuring an unknown resistance with an ohmmeter, you should _____.
short the test leads and calibrate the meter reading to „zero‟
419. The shunt use in an ammeter should be connected in_______. .
series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement
420. Any electric motor can be constructed to be ___
explosion proof
421. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters should be connected with _________. 422. When using an ohmmeter to test a semiconductor diode, you find a low resistance in both the forward and reverse bias directions. This indicates that the diode has a/an_____. 423. There is no brilliant change in synchro lamps when the synchroscope pointer is in the phase of _____________. 424. Which of the following physical characteristics does a wound- rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel cage motor has none?
the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistance short
Stationary
Slip rings
425. A direct current passing through a wire coiled around a soft iron core is the description of a simple______.
electromagnet
426. Which of the following conditions will occur if the solenoid coil burns on a cargo winch with an electrical brake?
The brake will be set by spring force.
427. The most commonly used electric motor on board is _______________.
3 phase cage-rotor induction motor
428. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel; the hunting generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is sometimes called__________. 429. A three-phase alternator is operating at 450 volts with the switchboard ammeter indicating 300 amps. The kw meter currently indicates 163.6 KW, with a power factor 23.2 KW of 0.7. If the power factor increases to 0.8, the KW meter reading would increase by______. 430. In general, polyphase induction motors can be started on full line voltage by means of ________ . 18
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
across-the-line starters
431. Which of the following statements represents an application of a silicon controlled rectifier? 432. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should use a high impedance multimeter _______. 433. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had cut-out from synchronization with the propulsion generator? 434. Which of the listed battery charging circuits is used to maintain a wet-cell, lead-acid, storage battery in a fully charged state during long periods of disuse?
To provide DC power for a main propulsion motor. so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage readings Excessive vibration of the vessel
Trickle charging circuit
435. Across the line starters are used with AC motors to provide ___________.
High starting torque
436. If the bearings of an electrical generator are falling more frequently than expected and the lubricating oil is sludging then you should ____.
check the bearing insulating block on one end of the unit
437. In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant, propeller speed is controlled by varying the_____ . 438. Relative to the direction of rotation, a DC motor commutating pole has the same polarity as the ____________.. 439. On some diesel-electric ships, the DC propulsion motor will only attain half speed when the generator fields are fully excited. Speeds above this are obtained by______ .
prime mover speed Main pole preceding
raising the generator engine speed
440. The frequency output of an operating alternator is controlled by the________.
relative speed of the rotor poles
441. The method used to produce electron emission in most vacuum tubes is known as __________.
thermionic emission
442. Regarding an induction motor, the power developed by the rotor automatically adjusts itself to the ____________. 443. Two DC drive propulsion motors provide input to a single output reduction gear. Upon relieving the watch, you notice that the starboard motor indicators show zero current compared to normal voltage and current indicated on the port motor. The problem with the starboard motor could be_____.
Power required to drive the load
a tripped reverse current relay
444. An open primary coil in a simple transformer will be indicated by which of the listed conditions?
No voltage on the output of the secondary coil.
445. The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provides for_______ .
speed control
446. The purpose of having low voltage protection for an electric motor circuit is to ___.
prevent excessive current from developing as it is attempting to deliver its required horsepower
447. When insulation failure produces a low resistance current path between two conductors, the resulting condition is known as ___.
a short circuit
448. Magnet chatter or 'pumping' occurring in a magnetic contactor can be caused by ______________
chattering contacts on the control relay
449. The immovable part of an electric motor is called _______________.
Stator
450. While underway onboard a DC diesel-elecric drive ship, you notice excessive sparking of the brushes on the main propulsion motor. You should first_____.
notify the bridge that you will need to slow down
451. A low-voltage protection circuit as used in the electric motor starting euquipment, will ____.
19
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
prevent the motor from restarting automatically on restoration of voltage
452. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel; the generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is sometimes called__________.
hunting
453. Which of the following statements is true concerning a polyphase synchronous propulsion motor?
The motor is started as an induction motor.
454. One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is the_______. .
number of magnetic poles
455. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the test, because the ___.
static charge of the machine may give a false reading
456. The use of four diodes, in a full-wave bridge rectifier circuit, will_________. .
provide unidirectional current to the load
457. On a vessel with turbo-electric drive, which of the following conditions would indicate that the propulsion motor had cut-out from synchronization with the propulsion generator?
Excessive vibration of the vessel
458. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature is known as a______ .
thermistor
459. Autotransformer starters or compensators are sometimes used with polyphase induction motors to_______ .
reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period
460. A molded-case circuit breaker provides protection against short circuits by using a/an______ .
electromagnet
461. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the windings of large machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes before the test because the _______. 462. While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this casualty was attributed to which of the following faults? 463. The shunt use in an ammeter should be connected in_______. . 464. One factor that determines the frequency of an alternator is the_______. . 465. The function of no fuse breaker is to isolate the defective circuit from the system so as to protect it from __________. 466. Moisture as a result of condensation occurring inside of the cargo winch master switches, can be reduced by______ .
static charge of the machine may give a false reading The micro switch at the generator throttle trip vibrated open, allowing the main breaker to open via the under voltage trip. series with the load and in parallel with the meter movement number of magnetic poles
Overcurrent using strip heaters inside the switch box
467. The device that most commonly utilizes the principle of electromagnetic induction is the________ .
transformer
468. The air gap in an induction motor should be checked periodically with a feeler gauge, to prevent possible ____.
excessive bearing wear
469. Which of the listed devices is used to measure pressure and convert it to an electrical signal?
Transducer
470. When a megohmmeter is used to test the insulation of a large motor, the initial dip of the pointer toward “zero” is caused by ___. 471. Autotransformer starters or compensators are sometimes used with polyphase induction motors to_______ . 472. The variable resistance placed in the rotor circuit of a wound-rotor induction motor provides for_______ . 20 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
the capacitance of the windings reduce the voltage applied to the motor during the starting period speed control
473. The rated temperature rise of an electric motor is the ______________. .
normal temperature rise above the standard ambient temperature at rated load
474. Electric propulsion coupling excitation is reduced at slow prevent coupling overheating speed to ________ . 475. In an AC synchronous motor electric propulsion plant, propeller speed is controlled by varying the_____ .
prime mover speed
476. Before starting an electric motor after a long stoppage, the operator shall ensure that it is _______________.
Dust free
477. While starting a main propulsion synchronous motor, the ammeter pegs out at maximum and then returns to the proper value after synchronization. This indicates the_______.
motor has started properly
478. A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the speed is called______ .
wound-rotor induction motor
479. Which of the following statements represents the main difference between a relay and a contactor?
Contactors can handle heavier loads than relays.
480. If a three-phase induction motor malfunctions and drops to a single-phase (one supply line open)____.
the motor will continue to run if it is not heavily loaded
481. When using a megohmmeter to determine which shunt field coil is grounded in a DC machine, you must ____.
disconnect each shunt field coil before testing
482. A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse panel with ________. .
fuse pullers
483. Which of the following physical characteristics does a wound- rotor induction motor possess that a squirrel cage motor has none? 484. A resistance in a circuit of unknown value is to be tested using the voltmeter/ammeter method. Therefore, the meters should be connected with _________. 485. An alternator operating in parallel begins to vibrate severely and eventually trips out on the reverse power relay. The cause of the vibration was a result of_________. 486. The induction motor usually used on board has two main components, namely _______________. 487. The leads from an ohmmeter are attached to the leads of an AC motor field coil. A reading of infinity indicates_______. 488. While on watch in the engine room at sea with only one ship's service turbine alternator on line, the entire plant suddenly blacks out without warning. After restoring power, the cause for this casualty was attributed to which of the following faults?
Slip rings the ammeter in series and the voltmeter in parallel with the resistance the alternator was operating out of synchronism Stator and rotator open field coil The micro switch at the generator throttle trip vibrated open, allowing the main breaker to open via the under voltage trip.
489. An electric tachometer receives the engine speed signal from a_______
small generator mounted on the engine
490. A grounded switch or cables will be indicated by a megohmmeter reading of ___.
zero
491. What is the main movable part of an electric motor?
Rotor
492. A hydrometer measures specific gravity by comparing the ____.
buoyancy of the indicator in the liquid in water with the buoyancy of the same indicator in the liquid being measured
493.
When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperatures, the best procedure to keep it from freezing is to _____.
21
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
keep the battery fully charged
494. When replacing a power transistor fitted with a heat sink in a circuit, a coating of silicone grease is applied provide maximum heat transfer between the transistor case and the heat sink. This is done to________. 495. When testing the rotor of a synchronous motor for short low or zero voltage drop reading, circuits, a low voltage source is applied across the rotor while the other coils will have higher coils through the collector rings. A coil having a short readings circuit will be indicated by a_____. 496. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating second bimetal element temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used. This element consists of a _____________. 497. A semiconductor that decreases in resistance with an increase in temperature is known as a______ .
thermistor
498. You can determine if a circuit breaker has tripped by ____
examining the position of the handle
499. Prior to using an analog type ohmmeter, the leads are purposely shorted together. Which of the following actions should be taken if, when adjusting to „zero‟ ohms, the indicating needle can not be returned to „zero‟ on the scale?
The batteries should be replaced
500. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions____________.
automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is shut off
501. A motor using a rheostat in the motor circuit to vary the speed is called______ .
wound-rotor induction motor
502. When the non-essential load has been removed from the feeder system but the service generator remains overloaded, this device automatically activates the _____________. 503. Two DC drive propulsion motors provide input to a singleoutput reduction gear. Upon relieving the watch, you notice that the starboard motor indicators show zero currentcompared to normal voltage and current indicated on theport motor. The problem with the starboard motor couldbe_____. 504. Which of the following statements represents the important factor that must be considered when replacing a faulty diode in a generators excitation field rectifier assembly? 505. An AC generator panel is fitted with two synchronizing lamps and a synchroscope. When paralleling, if the synchroscope pointer is at the noon position and one synchronizing lamp is bright while the other remains dark, this indicates that ___. 506. If the centrifugal switch or relay used for cutting out the starting winding of a split-phase induction motor fails to open once the motor is in operation, the ____.
Overcurrent tripping device
a tripped reverse current relay
Be certain that the replacement diode is the same polarity as the one removed
the generators are out of phase and one lamp is burned out
starting winding will burn out
507. The effect of carrying field excitation excessively high on the synchronous motor will result in a ____.
tendency for the motor to overheat
508. The full torque electric brake on an electric cargo winch functions____________.
automatically hold the load as soon as current to the machine is shut off
509. AC generator operating in parallel loses its excitation without tripping the circuit breaker. This will ____.
cause high currents to be induced in the field windings
510. The current at which a magnetic-type overload relay tends to trip may be decreased by raising the plunger further into the magnetic circuit of the relay. This action ___. 511. Which of the following electric motors would be the safest and most reliable to use on the main deck of a vessel in foul weather conditions?
22
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
increases magnetic pull on the plunger and requires less current to trip the relay Watertight motors
512. The air gap in an induction motor should be checked periodically with a feeler gage, to prevent possible ____.
excessive bearing wear
513. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is controlled by the____ .
exciter output voltage
514. When a battery is continuously exposed to low temperature, the best procedure to keep it from freezing is to _____. 515. You are reconnecting to a three-phase induction motor to the supply line. To prevent possible damage to the load, due to the wrong direction of rotation, you should ____. 516. The leads from a ohmmeter are attached to the leads of an AC motor field coil. A reading of infinity is obtained indicating a/an_______. 517. An ohmmeter reading of 'zero' ohms between the ends of a wire conductor would provide a positive indication of______. 518. If the driving torque, such as that produced by a diesel engine, creates pulsations when coupled with a synchronous generator operating in parallel; the generator rotor may be periodically pulled ahead or behind its normal position as it rotates. This condition is sometimes called _____________.
keep the battery fully charged check the supply line phase sequence, and motor rotation with appropriate indicators, then connect correspondingly marked leads open field coil
continuity
Hunting
519. Choose from the equipment below which are NOT fitted to the generator trouble detecting system is an _______.
Overvoltage trip device
520. On a main switchboard, If all three ground detection lamps burn with equal intensity when the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated?
The bulbs are operating properly
521. What is the common type of AC motor used onboard which can also operates on direct current?
Series-wound
522. The output voltage of a 440 volt, 60 hertz, AC generator is controlled by the____ .
exciter output voltage
523. An accidental path of low resistance, allowing passage of abnormal amount of current is known as a/an_______ . 524. Where a thermal-acting breaker is required to be used in an area of unusually high, low, or constantly fluctuating temperatures, an ambient compensating element must be used. This element consists of a _____________. 525. On a main switchboard, If all three ground detection lamps burn with equal intensity when the test button is depressed, which of the listed conditions is indicated? 526. An insulation resistance test is performed on a particular piece of electric instrument. In addition to the resistance reading, what information listed below should be entered in the electrical log?
short circuit
second bimetal element
The bulbs are operating properly The temperature of the machine at the time the resistance reading was taken
527. The frequency output of an operating alternator is controlled by the________.
relative speed of the rotor poles
528. The synchronous motors excitation source usually comes from _____________.
DC supply
529. A tubular fuse should always be removed from a fuse panel with ________. .
fuse pullers
530. The timer element found in a reverse power relay obtains its operating torque from________ .
electromagnets
531. Which of the following statements concerning analog and digital devices are correct? 532. Before touching a small capacitor connected to a deenergized circuit, or even one that is completely disconnected, you should _____. 23
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
The variables in digital systems are fixed quantities and the variables in analog systems are continuous quantities. short circuit the terminals to make sure that the capacitor is discharged
COMPETENCE 7 533. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer ______ . 534. The charge of a lead-acid battery can be restored by________.
kicking slightly down scale as voltage is applied passing a direct electric current through the cell
535. The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is determined by the______ .
load-speed characteristics of the governors
536. When a flourescent lamp has reached the end of its useful life, it should be replaced immediately, or the resultant flashing may____.
Damage the starter and the ballast
537. Which of the following precautions should you take when securing propulsion generators and motors for an extended period of time? 538. Third color band on a resistor is used to indicate the_______. 539. To protect the fuse from getting damaged during removal from a fuse holder, it is detached with the aid of a ____________. 540. On AC vessels, which of the following statements represents the most difficult problem involved in obtaining a DC potential suitable for use by computer components? 541. When soldering a printed circuit board component, you should be careful to prevent circuit and board damage for what reason? 542. Most three-phase induction motors of five (5) horsepower or less, are started by_______. 543. A full-wave rectifier has one diode burned out in an open condition, what will be the output characteristic of the device? 544. When a megohmmeter is being used to test insulation resistance, current leakage along the surface of the insulation is indicated by the megohmmeter's pointer ______ . 545. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has been located, you should______. 546. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the anode is_______ . 547. For maintenance of non-sealed batteries, the statements below are TRUE except ____________.
Lift the brushes from commutator collector rings and use the built-in heater to prevent moisture accumulation number of zeros following the first two significant figures in the resistance value Fuse puller tool
the voltage must be rectified and made ripple free
Using soldering iron heat sparingly across-the-line starters Half-wave rectified
kicking slightly down scale as voltage is applied reheat connection with a soldering tool and recheck with an ohmmeter insulated from the hull and does not waste away. It should be placed in a tightly closed compartment
548. A molded-case breaker provides protection against short electromagnet circuits by using a/an_______. 549. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the first step to be taken before testing the circuit voltage is to_____.
check the voltage supply from the power source
550. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, the anode is_______ .
insulated from the hull and does not waste away.
551. In order to protect the generator in service from overload, the non-essential load is isolated from the system by this device.
Preferential tripping system
552. The division of kilowatt load between two paralleled alternators is determined by the______ .
load-speed characteristics of the governors
553. The standard procedure for maintaining the charge in an emergency diesel starting battery is to trickle charge the battery ________.
Continuously
24 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
554. Normally, the FIRST step in troubleshooting a transistor circuit card is to _______________.
Give the circuit an initial test with a signal generator
555. When testing a capacitor with an analog type ohmmeter, a good capacitor will be indicated by________.
the meter deflects to a low resistance value and slowly increases towards infinity
556. Controller contacts should be routinely cleaned by______.
wiping with a clean dry cloth
557. The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always result in_________. .
a dangerously explosive gas being liberated
558. When soldering a printed circuit board component, you should be careful to prevent damage by ____________.
Using the soldering iron tip sparingly
559. What precaution should be taken with a vessel's impressed current cathodic protection system after a drydocking period during which the hull has been painted?
The unit should remain off for the specified amount of time so as not to disturb curing.
560. Electrically operated safety devices on auxiliary diesel engines functions to stop the engine by _________.
shutting off fuel supply
561. As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be taken in checking faulty electric control devices is to______ .
test all fuses and measure the line voltage
562. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled water and ___________
sulfuric acid
563. Complete maintenance of electrical motors should include checks for machine's ______________.
vibration
564. Most three-phase induction motors of five (5) horsepower or less, are started by_______.
across-the-line starters
565. During troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together, what is the most probable cause?
Low voltage on the operating coil
566. Heat sinks are frequently used with____ . 567. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, you should use a high impedance multimeter ________. 568. Heat sinks are frequently used with____ .
power transistors so as not to load down the circuit and obtain erroneous voltage readings power transistors
569. When troubleshooting a lead-acid storage battery, a weak or dead cell is best detected by ____________
measuring and comparing all cells specific gravity
570. In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, the instrument to be used should be a/an_____.
ohmmeter or transistor tester
571. The mica used in the commutators of DC machinery is _____________.
Harder than copper
572. When supplying emergency lighting loads, the storage battery initial voltage must exceed the standard system voltage by more that_______.
5%
573. To repair small electrical motor that has been submerged in saltwater , you should________.
Wash it fresh water and apply external heat
574. When troubleshooting electronic equipment, the first check the voltage supply from the step to be taken before testing the circuit voltage is power source to_____. 575. The electrolyte in a lead-acid storage battery consists of distilled sulfuric acid water and ___________ 576. Signal injection/trading is a method commonly used in troubleshooting ______. 25
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
A radio
577. In order to check the performance of a transistor removed from its circuit, the instrument to be used should be a/an_____.
ohmmeter or transistor tester
578. What kind of maintenance system replaces a heavily wornout impeller during its operation?
Breakdown
579. After each overhaul of electric motors, it shall be started at _______________.
No load
580. What is the best procedure for locating grounded circuit if the light on main electrical switchboard is indicating a ground?
Open the circuit breaker on the distribution panel, one at a time, until the light no longer indicate a ground
581. What is the maintenance system which checks if equipment, engines motors are overhauled as per schedule?
Planned
582. To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use a/an _______. .
megger
583. During troubleshooting a magnetic controller, it is found that the contacts are welded together the most probable cause is______. 584. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with a/an________ 585. The charging of lead-acid storage batteries will always result in_________. . 586. Why is it a poor practice to use a high wattage soldering iron when soldering or desoldering components on a printed circuit board? 587. When troubleshooting an electronic circuit, a cold solder joint can be located with the aid of an ohmmeter. Once the problem has been located, you should______. 588. When troubleshooting most electronic circuits, "loading effect" can be minimized by using a voltmeter with a/an________
Low voltage on the operating coil input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured a dangerously explosive gas being liberated The foil wire bonded to the board may come loosened from the board reheat connection with a soldering tool and recheck with an ohmmeter input impedance much greater than the impedance across which the voltage is being measured
589. When trouble shooting motor controllers, a shorted relay Charged insulation and or a blown or contactor coil is often indicated by_______. control fuse 590. Which of the damages listed below can occur to the components of a winch motor?
rapid corrosion of switch components
591. When testing for blown fuses in a three-phase supply circuit to a motor, you should first _____________.
de-energize the circuit and then use a continuity tester
592. The purpose of DC generator brushes is to ____________.
Conduct electric current to an outside circuit
593. If all of the ground detection lamps burn with equal brilliance whether the test button is depressed or release then __________.
No grounds exist
594. When troubleshooting AC motors, portable growler can be used for locating ____________.
Shorted stator coils
595. When you are troubleshooting a DC motor that fails to start, the first thing to check is the ______.
Fuses and circuit breaker
596. To check the three lines fuses of a three phase system consisting of a threephase motor, you must___. 597. While troubleshooting a circuit in an engine room central control console, a resistor is suspected of being faulty. Which of the following precautions must be observed if an ohmmeter is to be used to check its value? 598. What kind of maintenance system repairs a cargo winch motor due to unusual sound of bearing during loading or unloading of cargo?
26 ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Place the starter in the “stop” position Resistor's circuit must be deenergized and at least one end of the component isolated. Condition
599. The purpose of a main switchboard circuit breaker reverse power trips is to ________.
Prevent alternator motorization
600. Before reassembling any electrical equipment, you should _______________.
Clean any corroded surfaces
601. Before testing insulation with a megohmmeter, the winding of large machines should be grounded for about 15 minutes just prior to the test because the _____________. 602. Third color band on a resistor is used to indicate the_______.
Static charge of the machine may give a false reading number of zeros following the first two significant figures in the resistance value
603. Commutators and brushes are used on DC generators to _____________.
Convert the induced sine-wave to DC output
604. Sparking of DC motor brushes can be caused by _____________.
Series-wound
605. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and restart it when the voltage is restored to normal?
Low voltage release circuit
606. A molded-case breaker provides protection against short electromagnet circuits by using a/an_______. 607. What is the general rule in troubleshooting electrical system fault? 608. As a general rule, the first troubleshooting action to be taken in checking faulty electric control devices is to______ . 609. Which procedures should be carried out to prevent moisture damage into an electrical apparatus during extended periods of idleness? 610. Which of the listed items will stop a motor due to a reduction in voltage and restart it when the voltage is restored to normal? 611. A solid-state circuit is inoperative; the first action that should be taken is to_______. 612. To determine if a stator coil is grounded, you should use a/an _______. . 613. One method of testing for a reversed shunt field coil in a DC generator of motor is by connecting the field to a direct current source at reduced field rated voltage and test for polarity using a/an ______________.
make sure to test all fuses and measure the line voltage test all fuses and measure the line voltage Place heat lamps in motor housing
Low voltage release circuit check the DC supply voltage megger
Magnetic compass placed near each field
COMPETENCE 8 614. A continuous watertight bulkhead on a MODU may also be a/an_____________.
structural bulkhead
615. The test of metals which measures the resistanceof the metal to impact is called____________.
charpy test
616. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end of the work piece has been __________.
center drilled
617. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for checking the angle of______________ .
60° thread cutting tools
618. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first __________.
stop the lathe rotation
619. Which of the metals listed below can be cut with the highest operating lathe speed?
Aluminum
620. What type of gasket is used on high pressure steam flange joints?
metallic
27
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
621. A follower rest should be used with a lathe to machine __________.
threads on long slender shafts
622. All portable electric tools should have a ground connection to prevent __________.
electric shock if the tool is shorted
623. A compound Bourdon tube type pressure gauge is capable of measuring __________.
pressure and vacuum
624. Ferrous metals are metals containing __________.
a large percentage of iron
625. Work that cannot readily be mounted between lathe centers is usually held in a __________.
chuck
626. A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below __________.
atmospheric pressure
627. When a lathe is used for thread cutting, the number of threads per inch produced is determined by the speed relationship between the __________.
lead screw and head stock spindle
628. Which of the listed metals can usually be drilled without lubrication?
Brass
629. In machine shop practice, a center gauge is used for checking the angle of______________ .
60° thread cutting tools
630. Which of the following describes the purpose of a striker or doubler plate?
Provides landing surface for the sounding bob of a tank sounding
631. Which of the devices is commonly used in measuring the clearances between the main engine bearings and the crankshaft? 632. When steel, cast iron, or other metals with surface scale are being turned, the first roughing cut should be taken __________.
Plasti-gauge
deep enough to get under the scale
633. Regarding MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally
non-structural
634. Regarding MODU construction, bulkheads in the quarters are generally
non-structural
635. An allowance may be made for expansion and contraction in piping with the use of expansion joints or_________.
bends or loops in the line
636. The dead center of a lathe can be properly used only after the end of the work piece has been __________.
center drilled
637. A tool used for measuring or laying out angles is called a_______.
protractor
638. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU is called ______.
construction portfolio
639. A record of the types and strengths of steels used on a MODU is called ______.
construction portfolio
640. Which of the nondestructive testing methods listed is most often used to accurately detect external defects in welded metals?
Visible dye penetrant
641. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.
split or half-nut
642. To safely change spindle speeds on a lathe, you must first __________.
stop the lathe rotation
643. Joints in pipelines must be properly aligned before they are connected because __________.
excessive strain on the joints will result if they are misaligned
644. The most accurate method of measuring the setting of an inside caliper is to use a/an __________.
outside micrometer
28
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
645. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure __________.
all locking devices have been released
646. To commence cutting threads with a metal lathe, you should engage the __________.
split or half-nut
647. A compound gage is used for measuring pressures both above and below __________.
atmospheric pressure
648. Before power to a lathe is turned on, it is a good shop practice to first hand feed the carriage to ensure __________. 649. The operation of machining a uniformly roughened or checked surface on round stock in a lathe is called __________.
all locking devices have been released knurling
COMPETENCE 9 650. What will happen when there is an excessive wear on a centrifugal pump shaft?
There will be an excessive leakage past the packing gland
651. What is used as a jointing materials for fresh and sea water pipes?
Rubber
652. In hydraulic system, all machines which are consumers of hydraulic power equipped with ________.
motor
653. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with ___________ .
4 ports and 3 positions
654. The following are parts of the main bowl of purifier except___________.
bolt
655. A hydraulic system where all oil goes back to the tank is termed as____________.
open loop system
656. Return port of a hydraulic directional valve is designated by letter __________.
T
657. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system? 658. What should be done if localized scoring is discovered on the pump shaft sleeve during routine maintenance inspection?
The filters and strainers should be checked frequently. Correct the cause of scoring and install a new shaft sleeve.
659. What will be the result of badly leaking refrigeration compressor discharge valves?
Continues running of the compressor
660. The nut of the bowl assembly is confirmed tight___________.
when marks on the body and nut are aligned
661. What factors shorten the life of valve springs?
Fatigue and compression
662. An aligning punch is used to_______________.
line up corresponding holes in adjacent parts
663. A fixed displacement pump is a hydraulic pump in which the________.
discharge capacity is constant
664. Important check to be done during overhauling of the pump is the______.
wear ring clearance against impeller
665.
Routine maintenance on a Central Control Room hermetically sealed air conditioning unit should include__________.
changing the air filter
666. An oil film of a lubricant is affected by the______.
working temperature of the engine
667. 4/3 Way valve is a type of directional valve with ___________ .
4 ports and 3 positions
29
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
668. Which of the following will speed up the recovery chilling the recovery vessel and process when performing maintenance on a refrigeration heating the appliance system _______? 669. One of the four basic components of hydraulic system that provides the flow of oil in the system is pump called__________. 670. Most common type of hydraulic pump is _____.
piston pump
671. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by______________.
the numerical designation found on the 'skin' of the hose
672. A dial indicator is used to measure________.
shaft eccentricity
673. A welding procedure used for joining dissimilar metals used in the construction of a MODU would be recorded in the
welding plan
674. Good maintenance is decisive and best be achieved in the engine room if there is________________.
high degree of safety
675.
Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of piping to permit removal of the pump for servicing? 676. After installing a new hydraulic pump in a system, what special attention should be given to the hydraulic system? 677. The size of flexible hose used in a hydraulic system is indicated by______________. 678. Before carrying-out maintenance to the engine, one should __________.
679.
Which of the fittings listed should be used for the installation of piping to permit removal of the pump for servicing?
Union The filters and strainers should be checked frequently. the numerical designation found on the 'skin' of the hose engage turning gear and switch off power Union
680. The filter element of hydraulic oil in the system is ___________.
disposable
681. Improper maintenance of fuel oil burner in an auxiliary boiler could result to ________.
decrease boiler efficiency
682. Expansion valve maintenance should include which of the following procedures?
Ensuring that the thermal bulb is in good contact with the suction line.
683.
As part of a safe and effective maintenance onboard, the first valve to be opened first after the complete assembly Sea water outlet of a newly ovehauled and clean big luboil cooler is the_____.
684. Most common type of hydraulic pump is _____. 685.
piston pump
As part of a safe and effective maintenance onboard, the first valve to be opened first after the complete assembly Sea water outlet of a newly ovehauled and clean big luboil cooler is the_____.
COMPETENCE 10 686. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.
five years
687. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
Reporting requirements
688. Which is not a mandatory part of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
Diagrams
689. Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the engine room bilges?
Class B
30
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
690. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it is __________.
Prohibited to throw overboard
691. On a tanker ship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
Master and Chief Engineer
692. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with_________.
An oil content meter
693. Which is not a mandatory part of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
Diagrams
694. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take first?
Shut down the operation.
695. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is__________.
boom
696. Plastic material may be discharged overboard from a vessel if it is __________.
Prohibited to throw overboard
697. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?
Oil mixed with dredge spoil
698. The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. International waters flag vessel that sails on which waters? 699. Which of the circumstances listed is an exception to the A person falls overboard, and a garbage discharge requirements in Annex V to MARPOL plastic ice chest is thrown for 73/78? flotation. 700. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______.
human error
701. Bilges may be pumped .
overboard only through an approved oily water separator and oil content monitor
702. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________.
keep a record for two years
703. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the administration __________. 704. Which statement is true for the 30,000 DWT tanker ship engaging in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78?
and cannot be implemented without approval The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years
705. When bunkering is completed, the hoses should be __________.
drained, blanked off, and stored securely
706. The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.
an explanation and purpose of the plan
707. An acceptable method of dealing with accumulated oil found in the pump room bilges is to_________ .
pump the oil into the slop tanks
708. The process of grinding, shredding, or reducing the size of sewage particles is known as __________.
maceration
709. The term 'discharge', as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.
spilling, leaking, pumping
710. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.
final topping off is occurring
711. SOPEP means _______.
Shipboard Oil Pollution and Emergency Plans
712. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept for __________.
two years
713. Under the Pollution Regulations, when you dump garbage in to the sea you must __________.
keep a record for two years
31
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
714. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. 715. The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room?
and cannot be implemented without approval After the metal surfaces have cooled down.
716. Under the Pollution Regulations, garbage disposal records must be kept for __________.
two years
717. Sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the____.
Master and Chief Engineer
718. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil? 719. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take first?
Placing it in proper disposal facilities Shut down the operation.
720. Is it possible to discharge overboard plastic material from a vessel?
No, it is prohibited to discharge
721. Which statement is true concerning small oil spills?
They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative
722. When bunkering is completed, the hoses should be __________.
drained, blanked off, and stored securely
723. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has to comply with the following conditions except_________.
it must be more than 12 miles from the nearest coast
724. Small oil spills on deck is prevented from going overboard by ______: 725. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes of reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges should be_________. 726. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and then __________. 727. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the Coast Guard __________. 728. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessel‟s incinerator which has burned packages containing plastic? 729. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
plugging the scuppers
215 mm
spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust and cannot be implemented without approval discharge to shore facility only Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation
730. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and then __________.
spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust
731. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a_____________ .
foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
732. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?
Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water
733. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________.
cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations
734. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is__________.
boom
735.
With no environmental forces present, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the center of buoyancy . 32
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
736. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessel‟s incinerator which has burned packages containing plastic?
discharge to shore facility only
737. To whom is the first report rendered in the oil pollution contingency plan of the vessel?
Port authorities
738. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when __________.
final topping off is occurring
739. Which list is not required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
A list of personnel duty assignments.
740. Which statement is true concerning gasoline spill?
It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
741. The term 'discharge', as it applies to the pollution regulations, means __________.
spilling, leaking, pumping
742. Why is it important for fuel oil tank not to be topped off when loading cold oil?
The change in its specific volume when heated may cause an overflow
743. Which statement is true concerning small oil spills?
They may cause serious pollution as the effect tends to be cumulative
744. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?
Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water
745. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes of reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges should be_________. 746. A ocean going ship having an inoperative oily water separator may dispose of its bilge slops by_______________ . 747. Which statement is true concerning gasoline spill?
215 mm holding its slops onboard until they can be discharged to a shore side reception facility It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
748. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation
749. Which list is not required to be provided as part of the appendices of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
A list of personnel duty assignments.
750. The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan must include __________.
an explanation and purpose of the plan
751. Fueling results in the collection of waste oil in drip pans and containers. Which is an approved method of disposing of the waste oil? 752. The regulations that were passed to implement MARPOL 73/78 concerning oil pollution apply to a U.S. flag vessel that sails on which waters? 753. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has to comply with the following conditions except_________. 754. Which statement is true for the 30,000 DWT tanker ship engaging in trade to another country signatory to MARPOL 73/78? 755. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________
Placing it in proper disposal facilities International waters it must be more than 12 miles from the nearest coast The IOPP Certificate is valid for 5 years plug the scuppers
756. Which is a mandatory section of the shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan?
Reporting requirements
757. Sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the____.
Master and Chief Engineer
758. Pollution regulation requires that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a __________.
mechanical means of closing
33
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
759. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________ 760.
One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with_________.
plug the scuppers An oil content meter
761. On a tanker ship, sanitary inspections of the crew's quarters are the responsibility of the __________.
Master and Chief Engineer
762. Among other restrictions, an oil tanker may not discharge an oily mixture into the sea from a cargo tank, slop tank, or cargo pump room bilge unless the vessel is_________ .
discharging at an instantaneous rate of oil content not exceeding 30 liters per nautical mile
763. Pollution regulation requires that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a __________.
mechanical means of closing
764. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after __________.
five years
765. Which substance is NOT considered to be "Oil" under the pollution prevention regulations?
Oil mixed with dredge spoil
766. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by______.
human error
767. The operator of each vessel subject to the pollution regulations is NOT required to keep written records of __________. 768. When amendments are made to the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan, the revisions must be submitted to the administration __________. 769. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam is most effective when directed .
cargoes carried and dates delivered, including destinations and cannot be implemented without approval at a vertical surface
COMPETENCE 11 770. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker vessel?
Loss of stability due to free surface effect
771. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.
has poor stability
772. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to____________.
determine the lightweight center of gravity location
773.
What is the point to which vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability?
Metacenter
774. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.
determine the lightweight center of gravity location
775. When a vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly, what does this indicate?
Vessel has poor stability
776. The value of KM at any draft may be taken from the______.
Hydrostatic Table
777. A vessel's stability is greatly reduced by liquid free surface. Which of the listed conditions would develop the greatest adverse effect? 778. With no environmental forces present, where is the center of gravity of an inclined vessel vertically aligned with?
Tanks which are 40% full.
center of buoyancy
779. What is the purpose of bilge keels?
Reduce the amplitude of roll
780. What represents the center of gravity?
G
781. What caused a vessel trimmed down by the bow? 34
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
A greater draft forward than aft
782. For a MODU with trim, what will happen to the angle of inclination when there is a decrease in GMT?
It will increase
783. What will happen if the displacement of a vessel increases?
The detrimental effect of free surface decreases
784. What indicates the quality of initial stability?
GM
785. Your vessel rolls slowly and sluggishly. This indicates that the vessel __________.
has poor stability
786. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
The width of the tank
787. What do you call the stress when compression is being placed on the sheer strakes of the vessel?
Sagging
788. The quality of initial stability is indicated by_________ .
GM
789. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
decreases
790. Which does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction?
Registered tonnage
791. Freeboard is a measure of____________.
the amount of reserve bouyancy
792. Freeboard is a measure of what?
The amount of reserve bouyancy
793. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged? 794. In a longitudinally framed vessel, the longitudinal frames are held in place and supported by athwartship members called______. 795. In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through which point?
The integrity of the water tight boundaries web frames
Metacenter
796. What is a longitudinal stability indicates?
The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim
797. What happens when there is a continual change in the list, or trim of any floating MODU?
Progressive flooding
798. Control of flooding should be addressed __________.
following control of fire
799. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft?
LBP
800. The purpose of bilge keels is to _______________.
reduce the amplitude of roll
801. In small angle stability, when external forces exist, the buoyant force is assumed to act vertically upwards through the center of buoyancy and through which point?
Metacenter
802. GM' cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because___________ .
"M" is not fixed at large angles
803. The volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above water line is called_________.
reserved bouyancy
804. For a ship tank which carries liquid, when will it become dangerous to the stability of a vessel?
When it is slack
35
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
805. What is the name of the strake next to the keel?
Garboard
806. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
Its period of roll is long.
807. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty tanks if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability?
It will cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
808. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
809. Why is GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination?
M is not fixed at large angles
810. The percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that can be occupied by water by damage is called___________.
permeability
811. What happens when you add weight to a vessel?
Reduce reserve buoyancy
812. The point to which your vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability is called the __________.
metacenter
813. When is the vessel referred to as tender? __________.
When the weight of the cargo is concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
814. What must be accurately determined to assess the potential for progressive flooding after a vessel has been damaged?
The integrity of the water tight boundaries
815. A vessel would be referred to as "tender" when the weight of the cargo is __________.
concentrated high and the double bottoms are empty
816. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel? 817. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS __________. 818. You are fighting a fire in a cargo hold on your vessel. Which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard reduce reserve buoyancy Draining fire-fighting water and pumping it overboard
819. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.
for small angles of inclination
820. In a longitudinally framed vessel, what do you ca ll an athwartship members that hold in place and support the longitudinal frames?
Web frames
821. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
She will have a large metacentric height.
822. A vessel's stability normally increases when tanks are ballasted because the vessel's______.
center of gravity is lowered
823. An intact bouyancy means________.
an intact space below the flooded area
824. What is not usually a concern when loading a singlehulled tanker?
Initial stability
825. When making a turn, course change; on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards in what condition?
If G is above the center of lateral resistance
826. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when a tank is 90% full.
827. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
828. Metacentric height is an indication of a vessel's stability __________.
for small angles of inclination
36
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
829. Which does NOT affect the value of the free surface correction? 830. What is an intact bouyancy?
Registered tonnage An intact space below the flooded area
831. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
G is above the center of lateral resistance
832. A negative metacentric height __________.
should always be immediately corrected
833. In regards to the center of bouyancy, which of the following statement is correct?
It is located in the same position regardless of displacement
834. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of slack a vessel when it is __________. 835. The bilge keel is for the purpose of__________.
reducing rolling
836. The elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker which prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the chain locker and allows water to flow to the drain is a____________.
manger
837. Which statement is TRUE of a stiff vessel?
She will have a large metacentric height.
838. Metacentric height is a measure of what?
Initial stability only
839. Vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. What Establish flooding boundaries and is the first step to be taken in attempting to save the prevent further spread of flood vessel? water 840. The inward curvature of the ship's side is the_________.
tumble home
841. As the displacement of a vessel increases, the detrimental effect of free surface __________.
decreases
842. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to what?
Length and width of space
843. GM is a measure of______.
The initial stability of the vessel
844. Why is the vessel's stability increases when tanks are ballasted?
The vessel's center of gravity is lowered
845. When cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck the________.
center of gravity will move upwards
846. Metacentric height is a measure of __________.
initial stability only
847. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to __________.
determine the lightweight center of gravity location
848. If the ship takes a sudden severe list or trim from an unknown cause, What will be your first action?
Determine the cause before taking countermeasures
849. What is initial stability?
Vessel's stability at small angles of inclination
850. What determines the true measure of a vessel's stability at all angles of inclination?
righting moment
851. What represents the center of gravity?
G
852. What is the purpose of bilge keel?
To reduce rolling
37
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
853. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo?
The vertical distribution of the deck cargo
854. Free communication effect is in direct proportion to __________.
length and width of space
855. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty tanks if the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability?
It will cause the unit to flop to a greater angle
856. A tank which carries liquid is dangerous to the stability of slack a vessel when it is __________. 857. What is the elevated perforated bottom of a chain locker which prevents the chain from touching the bottom of the chain locker and allows water to flow to the drain? 858. What is the reason why fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses reduces the stability of the rig ?
Manger It causes a list due to the water in the compartment
859. The most detrimental effect on initial stability is a result of liquids __________.
flowing in and out of a holed wing tank
860. What is a longitudinal stability indicates?
The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim
861. What is the trim of the vessel?
Difference in fore and aft drafts
862. What do you call a percentage of the total surface area or volume of a flooded compartment that is water damaged?
permeability
863. In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber, you should __________.
place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
864. Your vessel has been damaged and is partially flooded. establish flooding boundaries and The first step to be taken in attempting to save the prevent further spread of flood vessel is to __________. water 865. Your vessel is damaged and partially flooded. It is listing 12 deg to port and trimmed 2.5 meters down by the Press up an after, slack, centerline head. It has a long, slow, sluggish roll. What action will double bottom tank you take first? 866. When making a turn (course change) on most merchant ships, the vessel will heel outwards if __________.
G is above the center of lateral resistance
867. What is the purpose of the inclining experiment?
To determine the lightweight center of gravity location
868. Where can you take the value of KM at any draft?
Hydrostatic Table
869. Which factor has the greatest effect on the value of the free surface correction?
The width of the tank
870. Which statement is correct regarding a negative metacentric height?
It should always be immediately corrected
871. Which abbreviation refers to the horizontal distance between perpendiculars taken at the forward-most and the after-most points on a small passenger vessel's waterline at her deepest operating draft?
LBP
872. A negative metacentric height __________.
should always be immediately corrected
873. What do you call a tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim?
Longitudinal stability
874. Which statement about the free surface effect is TRUE?
It decreases at increased angles of heel due to pocketing when a tank is 90% full.
875. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
The GM will increase
38
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
876. The strake next to the keel is__________.
garboard
877. Where should you pay particular attention to be able to maintain adequate stability in loading deck cargo?
The vertical distribution of the deck cargo
878. What is a danger of a half full tank onboard tanker vessel?
Loss of stability due to free surface effect
879. The ratio of volume of displacement to a block having the same length, breadth and draft of the vessel is known as_____.
Block coefficient
880. What should you do In order to minimize the effects of a tender vessel, when carrying a cargo of lumber?
Place the heaviest woods in the lower holds
881. Which of the following will increase the height of the center of buoyancy of your vessel?
Discharging weight from lower decks
882. What will happen when cargo is shifted from the main deck into the lower hold of a vessel?
The GM will increase
883. What is a metacentric height?
It is an indication of a vessel's stability for small angles of inclination
884. The tendency of a ship to resist a change in trim is call_______.
longitudinal stability
885. A vessel trimmed down by the bow has _________________ .
a greater draft forward than aft
886. What is the inward curvature of the ship's side?
Tumble home
887. With no environmental forces present, the center of gravity of an inclined vessel is vertically aligned with the_______.
center of buoyancy
888. Which statement is correct regarding a negative metacentric height?
It should always be immediately corrected
889. What is the point to which vessel's center of gravity (G) may rise and still permit the vessel to have positive stability?
Metacenter
890. How can a clogged limber holes endanger a ship's stability?
By preventing water from draining to the bilge well
891. During counter flooding to correct a severe list or trim aggravated by an off center load, a MODU suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. What should you do?
Immediately stop counter flooding
892. A stress called compression is being placed on the sheer strakes if the vessel is ______?
sagging
893. What do you call the volume of all watertight enclosed spaces above water line ?
Reserved bouyancy
894. The trim of a vessel is the___________.
difference in fore and aft drafts
895. A continual change in the list, or trim of any floating MODU indicates______________ . 896. The bilge keel is for the purpose of: 897. An intact bouyancy means:
progressive flooding Reducing rolling An intact space below the flooded area
898. What will happen if the cargo is shifted from the lower hold to the main deck?
Center of gravity will move upwards
899. Which statement is TRUE of a tender vessel?
Its period of roll is long.
39
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
900. What will be the result of counter flooding into empty tanks, if the cause of severe list, or trim is due to offcenter ballast?
Decrease list or trim
COMPETENCE 12 901. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________. 902. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible you should __________. 903. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. After securing the power, what should you do? 904. At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties assigned to them ________. 905. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for __________.
use a portable CO2 extinguisher put the vessel's stern into the wind Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
In the Muster List (“Station Bill”) the space requiring the largest amount
906. How is foam extinguishes fire?
Smothering
907. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
CO2
908. In the event of fire, doors to a stair case must be closed to prevent the spread of fire in what way?
Convection
909. What activates fire alarm system thermostats?
The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
910. A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of what?
Hot combustion gases flowing through ventilation systems
911. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you__________.
should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
912. A branch line valve of a fixed fire extinguishing system on a MODU must be marked with the what information?
Name of the space or spaces which it serves
913. Combustible gas indicator is operated by drawing an air sample into the instrument_______.
over an electrically heated platinum filament
914. A class "B" fire would most likely occur in the_______.
engine room bilge
915. A fire is considered 'under control' when_________.
the fire is contained and no longer spreading
916. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by________.
removing the fuel
917. What is the function of the bypass valve on the selfcontained breathing apparatus?
Allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
918. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as a_______.
class A
919. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
Chain reaction
920. Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?
Water
921. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
By excluding the oxygen from the fire
922. A burning AC motor would be considered what class of fire?
Class C
40
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
923. When using a mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam is most effective when directed_____________.
at a vertical surface
924. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
By excluding the oxygen from the fire
925. How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
Once every month
926. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes_____________ .
weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge
927. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of a___________.
foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
929. If a small fire initially breaks out in the engine room bilges, which of the following sequences should the fire extinguishing agents or systems be used?
Through the use of foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog Hand portable, semi- portable CO2, then as a last resort the fixed CO2 system.
930. What is the purpose of corrosion resistant sceen in the fuel vents?
To prevent flames entering the tank vent
931. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, what should they do or not do?
Do not attack the fire from opposite sides
932. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would __________.
attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
933. Foam extinguishes fire by_____.
smothering
934. Which among the choices is an example of class D fire?
Magnesium
928. Which is the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire? .
935. Fighting an oil rig fire in a watertight compartment with hoses, what could reduce the stability of the rig?
A list of the vessel due to the water accumutation in the compartment
936. What class of fire is a galley grease fire?
Class B
937. The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least sufficient for_________________.
Space requiring largest amount
938. Which one is class C fire?
Electrical insulation
939. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT __________.
electricity
940. What do you call a chemical, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that supplies oxygen required to start or support fire?
Oxidizer
941. A galley grease fire would be classified as .
Class B
942. Which is not a part of the fire triangle?
Electricity
943. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by_______.
convection
944. Except in rare cases, which one is impossible when extinguishing a shipboard fire?
Removing the fuel
945. Where can you see your assigned duties during fire drill?
In the Muster List or Station Bill
946. The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________.
allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
41
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
947. Which among the choices is included in the Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher?
Weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge
948. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ______.
removing the fuel
949. Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when__________.
cutting off oxygen source
950. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire, what should they do or not do?
Do not attack the fire from opposite sides
951. What is the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire?
Foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
952. Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the engine room bilges?
Class B
953.
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature? 954. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. Where should the discharge be directed?
CO2 At the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
955. A fire is considered 'under control' when_________________ .
the fire is contained and no longer spreading
956. A CO2 fire extinguisher provided aboard a MODU has lost 10% of its charge. What should be done?
It must be recharged
957. Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set with __________. 958. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks be set? 959. A burning mattress is considered as which of the following classes of fire? 960. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you __________. 961. On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pumproom. To comply with regulations, you__________.
the master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo tanks open The master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo tanks open Class A should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom should arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
962. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
removing the fuel
963. Which is the best way to combat an engine room bilge fire? .
Through the use of foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
964. Combustible gas indicator is operated by drawing an air sample into the instrument_______.
over an electrically heated platinum filament
965. A cut-off valve in the fire main system of a MODU may be closed to protect a portion of the system on an exposed deck from which factor?
Freezing
966. In the event of fire, doors to a stair case must be closed to prevent the spread of fire in what way?
Convection
967. When using a mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, the stream of foam is most effective when directed ______.
at a vertical surface
968. Which among the choices oil fire can be best extinguished?
Cutting off oxygen source
969. A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.
rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
970.
The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least sufficient for what space? 42
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Space requiring largest amount
971. What arrangement must valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks be set?
The master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo tanks open
972. A class "D" fire would involve the burning of__________.
magnesium
973. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. What should you possibly do?
Put the vessel's stern into the wind
974. How can a fire in an oil rig ballast pump room be brought Shut all sources of air into the under control with minimal impact on stability? compartment 975. If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would __________.
attach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
976. What is the definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent ?
Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
977. The supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed the space requiring the largest extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at amount least sufficient for __________. 978. Where is a class B fire would most likely to occur?
Engine room bilge
979. When can you declare a fire is under control?
The fire is contained and no longer spreading
980. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
Chain reaction
981. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________. 982. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room after CO2 fire extinguishing system has released? 983. What is the function of the bypass valve on the selfcontained breathing apparatus?
at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge After the metal surfaces have cooled down. Allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
984. Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screen to prevent________.
flames entering the tank vent
985. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by_________.
the difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
986. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ______.
removing the fuel
987. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
not attack the fire from opposite sides
988. The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a cargo hold loaded by general cargo. What first action should be taken?
Close the ventilation system and other openings to the hold in order to choke the fire
989. A fire can spread by "convection" as a result of a_____________.
hot combustion gases flowing through ventilation systems
990. When using mechanical foam to fight a bilge fire, when is the stream of foam is most effective?
When directed at a vertical surface
991. You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry at the seat of the fire, starting at the chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed near edge __________.
COMPETENCE 13 992. How often must inspection of proper working of the EPIRB „s and SART ‟s take place on board?
Weekly
993. Where should lifejackets be stowed in?
Readily accessible spaces
43
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
994. Which of following items shall be included in an abandon ship drill?
Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned.
995. During an evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival craft or life raft should enter the water on the leeward side, except in what condition?
When there is burning oil on the water
996. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________.
accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
997. How enclosed lifeboats could maintain its upright position after capsizing?
Passengers are strapped to their seats
998. After abandoning ship, why should you deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft?
To stay in the general location
999. Most lifeboats are equipped with __________.
unbalanced rudders
1000. Where are fire and lifeboat stations required to be listed?
Muster list
1001. If a life raft should capsize___________ .
right the raft using the righting straps
1002. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________.
put the vessel's stern into the wind
1003. Which among the choices is a safety feature provided on all inflatable life rafts?
The use of water stabilizing pockets
1004. What is the purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor?
To aid in its recovery
1005. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft, you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You should:
Use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
1006. A life float on a fishing vessel must be equipped with __________.
pendants
1007. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.
righting strap
1008. Where is the number 2 lifeboat on a tanker located?
Forwardmost on the port side
1009. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft, you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. What should you do?
Use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
1010. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
tested monthly
1011. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting kits is certified to carry what provision for each person?
3 liters of water
1012. What is the frequency of testing for vessel's EPIRB?
Monthly
1013. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling on heavy seas. In what way you can reduce the possibility of capsizing?
Rigging a sea anchor
1014. What is the purpose of storm oil?
To smooth the sea
1015. If for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, what is the important thing that crew members should do?
Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
1016. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, what should you do?
Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
1017. What is the purpose of preventer bars fitted on lifeboat releasing gear?
To prevent accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
44
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1018. What is the purpose of preventer bars fitted on lifeboat releasing gear?
To prevent accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
1019. After having thrown the life raft and stowage container into the water, how is the life raft inflated?
By pulling on the painter line
1020. An orage colored smoke signal or detonating luminous signals fired at interval of one minute means___________. 1021. A rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water is defined as a_________________. 1022. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________. 1023. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
we see you, we will provide help as soon as possible buoyant apparatus should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a life jacket.
1024. What must all personnel be familiar with in regards to lifeboats?
Boarding and operating procedures
1025. If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, what should you do first?
Cut the line to the sea anchor
1026. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, What should you do?
Pull on the righting strap
1027. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.
about which the vessel lists and trims
1028. Which statement is correct about the liferaft that has inflated bottom-up on the water?
It should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
1029. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.
not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
1030. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
1031. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be __________.
forwardmost on the port side
1032. The Muster List shall show the duties assigned to members of the crew. Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" according to present regulations?
Closing of watertight doors, fire doors, valves, scuppers, side scuttles, skylights.
1033. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Category 1
1034. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed __________.
so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
1035. Part of the required equipment for a lifeboat includes______________ .
boathhook, painter, and whistle
1036. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is __________.
hypothermia caused by cold temperature
1037. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.
drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
1038. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"? 1039. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should __________. 1040. All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats_____________ . 45
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
One not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time boarding and operating procedures
1041. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. What should you do? 1042. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames? 1043. How can an inflatable life raft be launched?
Do not be alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and the engine. By throwing the entire container overboard, then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft
1044. How often must inspection of proper working of the EPIRB „s and SART ‟s take place on board? Once per__________
week
1045. Which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Category 1
1046. What do you call a rigid lifesaving device designed for a group of survivors to hold on to while in the water?
Buoyant apparatus
1047. Which one of the given requirements regarding survival craft muster and embarkation arrangements corresponds to the present SOLAS regulations?
Muster and embarkation stations shall be readily accessible from accommodation and work areas.
1048. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed in what manner?
In such a way that it will float free if the vessel sinks
1049. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.
stay in the general location
1050. You have abandoned ship in a life raft. Which of the following actions should you take?
Organize a watch system, post as a lookout, tie up with other survival craft if possible, and stream the sea anchor
1051. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________.
accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
1052. If your life raft is to leeward of a fire on the water, you should first______________ .
cut the line to the sea anchor
1053. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
Freeboard
1054. The purpose of storm oil is to:
Smooth the sea
1055. What is the difference of steering oar in a lifeboat as compare to others?
Longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
1056. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to b e listed In the________ .
muster list
1057. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, what should you do?
Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
1058. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by __________.
rigging a sea anchor
1059. Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate for how many hours?
24 hours
1060. The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) must be tested __________.
monthly
1061. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right"?
One
1062. What must all personnel be familiar with in regards to lifeboats?
Boarding and operating procedures
1063. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated. You should __________.
not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape
1064. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, your main course of action should be_______ .
remain in the vicinity of the vessel
46
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1065. On an ocean going vessel, a lifeboat without desalting kits is certified to carry what provision for each person?
3 liters of water
1066. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________.
The point in the waterplane which the vessel lists and trims
1067. The steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.
longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
1068. If you have to abandon ship and enter a life raft, What should be your main course of action?
Remain in the vicinity of the vessel
1069. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. What is the greatest danger in high latitudes?
Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
1070. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which statement is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?
An air tank will provide about ten minutes of air for the survivors and the engine.
1071. What is the correct maintenance for the battery of an EPIRB?
Load must be checked weekly
1072. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft________.
must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
1073. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
remain in the immediate vicinity
1074. How can an inflatable life raft be manually released from its cradle?
By pushing the button on the hydrostatic release
1075. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
1076. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.
should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the righting straps, and leaning backwards
1077. The greatest effect on stability occurs from loose liquids flowing __________.
in and out of a vessel that is holed in a wing tank
1078. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, sternway is checked by __________.
slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor by the holding line
1079. To turn over an inflatable liferaft that is upside down, you should pull on the __________.
righting strap
1080. If you reach shore in a liferaft, what is the first thing to do?
Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
1081. What is the center of flotation of a vessel? __________.
The point in the waterplane which the vessel lists and trims
1082. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot and tropical weather, what should you possibly do?
Deflate the floor panels to cool personnel
1083. One can check the functioning of the SART by__________
activating the SART and checking the effect on the radar screen
1084. Which statement best describe a hydrostatic release mechanism for a life raft?
It must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
1085. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a life raft__________________ .
must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
1086. Which among the choices is part of the required equipment for a lifeboat?
Painter
1087. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should __________. 1088. The Master shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon (EPIRB) is __________.
47
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
put the vessel's stern into the wind tested monthly
1089. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to __________.
stay in the general location
1090. What is the meaning of an orange colored smoke signal or detonating luminous signals fired at interval of one minute?
We see you, we will provide help as soon as possible
1091. Where must a lifeline be connected to the life raft .
All around
1092. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should __________.
remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
1093. In lifeboat situations, which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only? 1094. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with __________. 1095. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
Orange smoke signal 3 liters of water
0.5 liter
1096. Which of the following is considered primary life-saving equipment?
Lifeboat
1097. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, davit arms begin moving up the tracks. Until when the movement is stopped by itself?
When the limit switch is touched
1098. While adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather deflating the floor panels may help __________. to cool personnel 1099. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf, how can sternway be checked?
Slack the tripping line and tow the sea anchor by the holding line
1100. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to __________.
aid in its recovery
1101. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.
pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
1102. Generally, what is used to inflate life rafts?
Non-toxic inert gas
1103. After having thrown the life raft and stowage container into the water, how is the life raft inflated?
By pulling on the painter line
1104. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
0.5 liter
1105. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by __________. 1106. How are lifelines attached to a life float?
1107. The battery of an EPIRB__________ 1108. Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the __________.
standing on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards Securely attached around the outside in bights no longer than three feet load must be checked weekly passengers are strapped to their seats
1109. The following information must be given on the SART
the MMSI number
1110. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to __________.
aid in its recovery
1111. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found __________.
on the port side
48
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1112. Generally, which of the following gases is used to inflate life rafts?
CO2
1113. The Emergency Position Indicating Radio beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed __________.
so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
1114. Lifejackets should always be stowed in____________ .
readily accessible spaces
1115. After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the movement is stopped by the______________ .
limit switch
1116. The center of flotation of a vessel is the point in the waterplane __________.
about which the vessel lists and trims
1117. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and __________.
pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
1118. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, what should you do to right it?
Stand on the CO2 bottle, hold the bottom straps, and throw your weight backward
1119. What should you do with your EPIRB if you are in a life raft during storm conditions?
Bring it inside the life raft and leave it on
1120. Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
Freeboard
1121. How are lifelines attached to a life float?
Securely attached around the outside in bights no longer than three feet
1122. How can you check the function of the SART?
Activate the SART and check the effect on the radar screen
1123. A life raft with a capacity of 8 people in ocean service is required by regulation to carry what amount of water?
12 liters of fresh water
1124. You have abandoned ship and after two days in a raft, you can see an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. What should you do?
Use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
1125. Which among the choices are most lifeboats equipped with?
Unbalanced rudders
COMPETENCE 14 1126. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands for?
Airway Breathing Circulation
1127. What first aid is appropriate for skin contact with tank residue from a cargo of leaded gasoline?
unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
1128. What is the primary objective of First Aid?
To prevent further injury
1129. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns and scalds?
1130. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint when administering first aid? 1131. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible? 1132. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire using water? 49
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, but preferably until the pain is gone. If no water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid. Immobilize the fracture
Insulin
The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.
1133. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an dressing. alternative to suturing to close the wound? 1134. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a 5 compressions after every 1 resuscitation situation. What is the rhythm of inflation resuscitation with two First Aiders? 1135. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first act is to:
Close all ventillation to the quarters
1136. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to __________.
stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
1137. What is the frequency of service for inflatable life raft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units?
Every 12 months
1138. If a person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries is correctly being administered first aid, what statement is true?
The person should not be moved, unless remaining on the scene is unsafe but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives.
1139. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. What you must do?
Check his pulse and start CPR
1140. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns and scalds?
Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, but preferably until the pain is gone. If no water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid.
1141. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately __________.
flood the affected area with water
1142. A lifejacket should be provided with__________ .
a whistle and a light
1143. When can a tourniquet be used to control bleeding?
When all other means have failed
1144. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified?
According to layers of skin affected
1145. A crew member has suffered frostbite to the toes of his right foot. Which of the following is not an acceptable first aid measure?
Rub the toes briskly
1146. The primary objective of First Aid is:
To prevent further injury
1147. When giving first aid you should avoid __________________.
Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
1148. What is the most important element in administering CPR?
Start the treatment quickly
1149. While underway, fire break out in the forward part of the vessel. Whenever practicable, what will be the first thing you will do if your are on watch?
Put the vessel's stern into the wind
1150. What is the first aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds?
Stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
1151. Every inflatable life raft , inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release units shall be serviced__________
every 12 months.
1152. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when ________. 1153. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite /hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid should be given a person with frostbite ? 1154. The MOST important element in administering CPR is: 50
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
There is an outlet for the smoke and heat Hand or body heat the affected parts skin-to-skin, example frozen hand in persons opposite armpit Starting the treatment quickly
1155. Which of the following procedures is always recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? 1156. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, what must a person giving first aid do?
Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus. Avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during movement
1157. What should you avoid when administering first aid?
Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
1158. What should you include in the first aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the eyes?
Flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio
1159. A high-velocity fog stream can be used in fire fighting situations to drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when:
There is an outlet for the smoke and heat
1160. First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns, especially in the eyes, includes_____________ .
flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical attention ashore or by radio
1161. In the event of fire in the crew's quarter, one of your first act is to_________.
Close all ventillation to the quarters
1162. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shock, what is the first medical response?
To check for breathing and heartbeat
1163. How are first, second, and third degree burns classified? 1164. If it is necessary to remove a victim from a life threatening situation, the person giving first aid must__________ .
According to layers of skin affected avoid subjecting the victim to any unnecessary disturbance during movement
1165. What is the most effective first aid treatment for chemical To immediately flood the affected burns? area with water 1166. A drip tray containing oil is on fire. The only fire fighting equipment available is water hose with spray jet/spray nozzle. How, if at all, should you attempt to put out this fire using water?
The water can be applied in a fine spray starting from the front in a sweeping motion.
1167. A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must:
Check his pulse and start CPR
1168. What is first aid?
Emergency treatment at the scene of the injury
1169. When should training in personal survival techniques be given?
Before being employed
1170. The ABC-rules are an important part of the First Aiders know how. What does the First Aid ABC-rules stands for? 1171. A person slowly feel more sleepy and thirsty. The skin become very dry and there is a sweet taste of the breath. The glucose reaction shows positive. What kind of medicine will the person need as soon as possible?
Airway Breathing Circulation
Insulin
1172. A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY __________.
when all other means have failed
1173. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, what should you do first?
Check the bilge drain plug
1174. What do you call a device used to immobilize fractures and help prevent bone displacement?
Splint
1175. If water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, your should first:
Check the bilge drain plug
1176. What is the primary purpose for applying a splint in first aid?
It immobilizes fractured bone
1177. What does the abbreviation ABC mean in first aid? 51
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
Air, Breathing, Circulation.
1178. A seaman has a small, gaping laceration of the arm that Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile is not bleeding excessively. What can be done as an dressing. alternative to suturing to close the wound? 1179. First, second, and third degree burns are classified according to the:
Layers of skin affected
1180. Which position is the best to stop bleeding from the nose?
Sitting on a chair, leaning forward, with two fingers pressing the nose together
1181. In reviving a person who has been overcomed by gas fumes, which of the following would you avoid doing?
Giving stimulants
1182. First aid to poisoning bitten by spider. I. clean wound by alcohol I I. lie down victim keep quiet
I ,II & III
1183. A device used to immobilize fractures and help prevent bone displacement is:
Splint
1184. First aid means __________.
emergency treatment at the scene of the injury
1185. Which one of the listed routine test and inspections of life-saving appliances is not required by the regulations?
General emergency alarm to be tested daily
1186. What should a lifejacket be provided with? 1187. First aid treatment for small cuts and open wounds is to___________ .
A whistle and a light stop the bleeding, clean, medicate, and cover the wound
1188. As with heat burns the damage of frostbite and Hand or body heat the affected hypothermia may be either superficial or deep, and the parts skin-to-skin, example frozen affected tissues may be destroyed. What kind of first aid hand in persons opposite armpit should be given a person with frostbite ? 1189. First aid to poisoning bitten by spider. I. clean wound by alcohol I I. lie down victim keep quiet 1190. When giving first aid, aside from understanding on how to conduct primary and secondary surveys what are the other aspect you should consider? 1191. Which of the following procedures is always recommended in the rescue of an unconscious person from a compartment containing an unsafe atmosphere? 1192. Since electrical burn victims have been subjected to electric shock, what is the first medical response?
I ,II & III The limits of your capabilities Have the rescuers wear an approved self-contained breathing apparatus. To check for breathing and heartbeat
COMPETENCE 15 1193. Who is the authorize to cancel load line certificate of vessel?
Ship administration
1194. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must be made in the __________.
Oil Record Book
1195. One of the many objectives of this code is to ensure the early and efficient collection and exchange of securityrelated information. What is this code?
ISPS Code
1196. Sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps may be accepted as fire pumps provided: (SOLAS II-2/4.3.2)
They are not normally used for pumping oil
1197. Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR) require that electric and electro-hydraulic steering gear motors shall be
served by two electric power feeder circuits
1198. Lifeboats for ocean-going vessels shall carry in excess of the required regulation by________.
50% of persons on board
1199. When oily ballast has been pumped overboard, an entry must be made in the __________.
Oil Record Book
1200. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
2
52
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1201. Coast Guard regulations (46 CFR) require the upper ends of sounding tubes, terminating at the weather deck, to be closed by a
screwed cap
1202. ____ is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78?
Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid Substances
1203. One of the many objectives of the ________ is to ensure the early and efficient collection and exchange of security-related information. 1204. The responsibility for safety and security rests on everybody on board the vessel. General house-keeping rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the most important? 1205. According to SOLAS requirement for lifeboat fall, what action must be taken with the fall at interval of not more than 5 years?
ISPS Code
Keep your working area clean and tidy.
Renewed
1206. MARINA was created and geared towards the following objectives except__________.
To create sub-agencies for the safe transport of goods and passengers
1207. What is contained in Annex II of MARPOL 73/78?
Regulations for the Control of Pollution by Noxious Liquid Substances
1208. The responsibility for safety and security rests on everybody on board the vessel. General house-keeping rules should be followed. Which of the listed rules is the most important?
Keep your working area clean and tidy.
1209. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 2,000 GT?
2
1210. The SOLAS 74 Chapter IX requires a mandatory compliance for Tankers, Bulk Carriers and Passenger vessels until July 1998. What is this law?
ISM Code
1211. Keeping the draft at or below the load line mark will ensure that the vessel has adequate______.
reserve buoyancy
1212. Under the New Regulations, what does SOLAS Chapter XI-1 deals with?
Special measures to enhance Maritime Safety
1213. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
1
1214. As per SOLAS Regulation, the minimum Fuel supply for fast Rescue Boat shall last for______.
4 hours
1215. What type of construction material should be avoided regarding fire protection purposes? (SOLAS II-2/2.2.3) 1216. What IMO conventions take care of the human safety at sea? 1217. A class fire divisions are those divisions formed by bulkheads and decks. Which of the following requirements do not comply with the rules? SOLAS II2/3.3 1218. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting Government with Part A & B. The mandatory requirements & guidance is under the provisions of _______ of the SOLAS as amended. 1219. What is the primary purpose of a load line? 1220. What form of oil discharge in large quantities that affects birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not disperse into the water? 1221. Who is given the authority to carry out assessment for a certification as required by Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS as amended of the ISPS Code? 1222. What law governs the basic principle of vessel nationality? 53
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
All combustible materials SOLAS Insulated on both sides with approved non-combustible material
Chapter XI-2
To establish required GM slicks
Recognize Security Organization 1986 UN Convention of the high Seas
1223. Annex V of MARPOL 73/78 contains requirements pertaining to the discharge into the marine environment of____________.
Garbage
1224. Any completed pages of the Oil Record Book must counter sign by the_________.
Master
1225. According to Coast Guard Regulations (46 CFR), a power driven auxiliary steering gear for a vessel capable of a 12 knot service speed, must be able to meet the rudder movement requirements at which of the minimum vessel speeds listed below? 1226. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than __________. 1227. The ISPS Code was Adopted by Contracting Government with Part A & B. The mandatory requirements & guidance is under the provisions of _______ of the SOLAS as amended. 1228. Under SOLAS passenger ships and ships other than passenger ships of ______ and upwards constructed on or after 2002 must carry Voyage Data Recorders (VDR) to assist in accident investigation.
7 knots
36 months
Chapter XI-2
3,000 GRT
1229. The ISM Code requires ship owners or shipping companies to assign onboard their ship a ______ .
Safety Committee
1230. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with___________.
carriage of grain
1231. The Oil Record Book on a vessel NOT engaged on a foreign voyage shall be maintained on board for not less than __________.
36 months
1232. Part C, Chapter VI of SOLAS deals with:
carriage of grain
1233. Three methods of fire protection regarding internal divisional bulkheading may be adopted in accommodation and service spaces in cargo ships. Which of the given methods do not correspond to present rules? (SOLAS II-2/42.5)
Construction of all internal bulkheads of class A divisions
1234. Sludge are to be disposed off at sea
disposal prohibited
1235. Compliance with the terms of the load line certificate on a vessel is the job of whose officer?
Master or Offshore Installation Manager
1236. What is the minimum number of immersion suits that are required to be provided for each open lifeboat under SOLAS rules? 1237. At what security level is further specific protective security measures to be maintained for a limited period of time when a security incident is probable or imminent, although it may not be possible to identify the specific target? 1238. What is the minimum number of fire pumps required on a cargo vessel of 900 GT?
3
Security level 3
1
1239. What is defined as the inspection of the vessel authorized by the Philippine Coast Guard to verify the Port State Control compliance to the National Regulations and International Standards? 1240. When you join a new ship, how are you informed about By muster lists exhibited in safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in conspicuous places case of an emergency?
COMPETENCE 16 1241. It is a value underlying the behavior as a Filipino where it stimulates generosity and working together, but it is gratitude often abused is called _________. 54
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1242. When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested 12 by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure? 1243. There are three learning scope for instructional objectives. Which objective is NOT part of these learning Enabling Objectives scope? 1244. Basically onboard training programs must be conducted___________.
while the ship is at sea on a particular voyage
1245. What do you call a person/s ashore having a direct access to the highest level of management?
Designated person
1246. Which of the following would fit MOST on motivation?
Factor that cause, channel and sustain people's behavior
1247. You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first receive approval from the Federal On-Scene Coordinator (OSC) prior to __________.
applying chemical agents
1248. What is the study of human capabilities in relationship to work?
Ergonomics
1249. When crew is given responsibility for dealing with a problem, he has increased in ________ ?
self-esteem
1250. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?
Unsafe condition
1251. There are three conflict methods most frequently used in managing conflicts; supervision, integrative problem solving and_________. 1252. Ergonomics focus is on the design of work activity that suits the person in that it takes account of their capabilities and ______. 1253. Management of career is ultimately the responsibility of the__________. 1254. The method of finding out and recording the levels of the risk, with the aim of minimizing accidents, damage and ill health on board ship is called __________. 1255. A kind of motivation where some people may enter the world of seafaring to make a lot of money, to have fun and adventures and to escape problems at home___________. 1256. When required, the steering gear, whistle, and the means of communication between the pilothouse and the engine room on a passenger vessel shall be tested by an officer of the vessel within a period of not more than how many hours prior to departure? 1257. In bridge resource management, which of the following statements are example of "hazardous thoughts" I.) I can do it II.) It won't happen to me III.) Why takes chances IV.) it's not my job V.) Don't tell me what to do VI.) We're all in the same ship 1258. What is the disadvantage of a matrix organization? 1259. Welding and burning are among the factors which give the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety rules may be regarded as the most important? 1260. Personnel who have not been assigned to be part of the emergency squad, or allotted other duties and are not on watch at the time of the emergency will be assigned to the__________ . 1261. The frustration of a seafarer wherein practices like regionalism, lack of concern for others and unreconciled differences is called_________. 55
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
compromise
limitation individual assessment
shallow motivation
12
I, II, III, IV, V
Members require some expertise in interpersonal relations The welder shall have been instructed in the use of the ship's welding plant.
Support squad
disunity
1262. What is a factor that contribute to the occurrence of mistakes due to relationships among individuals. 1263. What term is used to describe accident casualty when cause is attributed to the mistakes of an individual or organization? 1264. What is the type of human factor that contribute to operators committing error because of their work environment? 1265. The ability to use and exert power over followers, leader role models actions and behaviours he/she wants followers to emulate is called___________.
group factor Human error
Organizational factors
influence
1266. The question of human relations considers ___________.
managers interacting with employees
1267. Behavior of a leader that deals with long range plan, broad relationship and ideas is called________.
conceptual
1268. Type of human error when an operator is distracted or preoccupied with another task and allows a mistake to occur is termed as __________. 1269. Which should be done with the ashes from your vessel‟s incinerator which has burned packages containing plastic? 1270. Which of the following steps is not a part of the rational problem solving process?
skill-based
Discharge to shore facility only Identify the symptoms of the problem
1271. There are three conflict methods most frequently used in managing conflicts; supervision, integrative problem solving and_________.
compromise
1272. What is the first step in planning?
Select goals for the ships organization
1273. Human performance breakdowns resulting to accident are more likely a result of__________.
poor conscious choice or decisions
1274. To whom must proper familiarization of duties be given?
New personnel
1275. What is the hierarchical structure of efficient and effective organizations?
Bureaucracy
1276. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________.
the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure
1277. What is a management system designed with the intent of ensuring fulfillment of customers requirement?
Quality System
1278. On a vessel making a voyage more than 48 hours long, regulations require that __________.
the entire steering gear be tested within 12 hours prior to departure
1279. Which of the following is NOT a key to human relation?
Be strict and always expect good result.
1280. Managerial performance is based upon accomplishment of _____________.
objectives
1281. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched with their assigned crew __________. 1282. The routes, zones or areas of operations of domestic ship operators are prescribed by which government agency? 1283. As an officer of an engineeting watch. What would the best thing to do, if the Chief Engineer does not or cannot take the leadership? 1284. When a Chief Engineer takes the leadership in approaching a problem, Will his first action be a decision that directly solve the problem? 1285. Human memory is affected by all of the following except_____. 56
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
once a month
MARINA Take action to start the process to solve the situation, but do it diplomatically. Yes, take full control. Do not delegate to other officers, to avoid mistake. irrationality of an event
1286. The term used to describe accident casualty when cause is attributed to the behavior of an individual or organization ______. 1287. A role behavior of a leader which refers to a person‟s knowledge of proficiency in any type of process of technique is called__________. 1288. As an officer of an engineeting watch. What would the best thing to do, if the Chief Engineer does not or cannot take the leadership?
technical skill
1289. The ability to get things done right is__________.
efficiency
1290. MARINA was created and geared towards the following objectives except__________. 1291. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge? 1292. This is the most effective management development technique. 1293. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible? 1294. A kind of teaching- learning principle where the trainee must proceed step by step and each step must be in some way more difficult than the previous step is called_________. 1295. The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________. 1296. A role behavior of a leader which refers to a person‟s knowledge of proficiency in any type of process of technique is called__________.
human factor
Take action to start the process to solve the situation, but do it diplomatically.
To create sub-agencies for the safe transport of goods and passengers Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water. Coaching Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation graduated sequence Chief Engineer, or engineer in charge if no chief engineer is required technical skill
1297. Which of the following must be eliminated to prevent accidents?
Unsafe condition
1298. A responsible officer should be appointed to maintain appropriate records and to ensure that ballast water management and/or treatment procedures are followed and________.
recorded
1299. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
not attack the fire from opposite sides
1300. In order to maintain safe working conditions on board the vessel, every crewmember should do the following, except___________. 1301. This process which involves gaining a detailed understanding of a task being carried out, identifying if there are risk factors/hazards present and eliminate risk factors/hazards is called________. 1302. For the purpose of training and drills, if reasonable and practicable, rescue boats on an OSV must be launched with their assigned crew __________. 1303. On board a vessel, he is an officer who gives responsibilities to his followers gradually so that in the future,they can stand on their own. Which leadership styles is he practicing? 1304. In order to have an effective security plan or measures to take in the event of pirate attacks, which of the following persons or groups should be informed?
be attentive to all what is happening in the surroundings
risk assessment
once a month
By example
Ship‟s crew
1305. Recruitment, training and development of organization members is ________
human resource management
1306. Which of the following implies that we determine the extent of some characteristics associated with something such as a person or an object?
Measurement
57
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1307. The appointment of a person to a higher rank gives __________.
potential authority only
1308. What is the most effective example management development technique?
Coaching
1309. Ethics concerns all of the following except _________.
Charity
1310. When a ship is expected to encounter rough seas, it is a good safety practice to __________.
check for items which may become adrift and secure loose gear
1311. The standard outside diameter pipelines to enable pipes of reception facilities to be connected with the ships discharge pipelines for residues from machinery bilges should be_________. 1312. What do you call the Master's special skill in order to deliver the best possible operation of his vessel within the budget constraints?
215 mm
Managerial skills
1313. In general, how often are sanitary inspections of passenger and crew quarters made aboard vessels?
Once a month
1314. Once a problem has been defined by the management, the next move is to__________.
identify the decision objectives
1315. Cadets are not included in the manning nor regard them as forming part of the manning except ___________.
emergency situations of limited duration
1316. Watchkeepers should have a mandatory rest periods of _______ in any one week.
70 hours
1317. What do you call a systematic application of management system policies, procedures and practices to the task of analyzing, evaluating and controlling environmental risk?
Environmental Risk Management
1318. What are the keys to good human relations?
Treat people as individual
1319. All of the following are TRUE about decision making except________.
it is needed in stable environments
1320. Before a vessel can pump oily water within a Special Area, it has to comply with the following conditions except______. 1321. The person on a MODU who is responsible for maintaining the engineering spaces in a clean and sanitary condition is the __________. 1322. This is a type of human error when an operator applied a direct rule and allows a mistake occur due to lack of familiarity with the problem. 1323. Providing a new crew with the information needed in order to function comfortably in the ship is called ________.
it must be more than 12 miles from the nearest coast Chief Engineer, or engineer in charge if no chief engineer is required rule base
familiarization
1324. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to __________.
make a visual inspection of all engine spaces and secure loose gear
1325. The frustration of a seafarer wherein practices like regionalism, lack of concern for others and unreconciled differences is called_________.
disunity
1326. The most frequently used appraisal approach is ______. 1327. Welding and burning are among the factors which give the highest risk of fire on board ships. Precaution has to be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety rules may be regarded as the most important? 1328. The requirements for special welding procedures to be used on a MODU must be contained in the .
58
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
a superior‟s rating of subordinate The welder shall have been instructed in the use of the ship's welding plant. construction portfolio
1329. Before the seas get rough, it is a good safety practice to __________. 1330. When a vessel violates the oil pollution laws, who may be held responsible?
make a visual inspection of all engine spaces and secure loose gear Any individual connected with the vessel involved in the operation
1331. When oil is accidentally discharged into the water, what should you do after reporting the discharge?
Contain the oil and remove as much of it as possible from the water.
1332. Efficiency is the ability to_________.
get things done right
1333. What do you call the Master's special skill in order to deliver the best possible operation of his vessel within the budget constraints?
Managerial skills
1334. What do you call a situation which could have lead to an accident if they had developed further?
Hazardous Occurrences
COMPETENCE 17 1335. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________. 1336. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. "1", "2", "3", etc. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________.
use a portable CO2 extinguisher
2 inches
1337. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
not attack the fire from opposite sides
1338. A safety ring pin is usually inserted in the handle of a CO2 fire extinguisher to prevent________ .
accidental discharge from the extinguisher
1339. After an engine is started you should __________.
check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks
1340. A good approach to personnel safety is to assume that all tanks and pump rooms are potentially dangerous. You should immediately leave an area whenever________.
any of the above conditions occur
1341. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must __________.
evacuate all engine room personnel
1342. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
close all openings to the area
1343. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
1344. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) __________.
separate and accessible location
1345. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.
an identification number
1346. When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________.
bend his knees and lift with his legs
1347. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam_____.
conducts electricity
1348. The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is __________.
4
1349. What do oil discharge in large quantities form which affect birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not disperse into the water as water droplets before reaching shore?
slicks
1350. To treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion, you should __________.
Give him sips of cool water
59
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1351. What is a contingency plan for ships?
Plan for safety preparedness
1352. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?
Secure the ventilation
1353. How does low expansion foam act as an extinguishing agent when dealing with oil fires?
By smothering and also providing some cooling
1354. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and then __________.
spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust
1355. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by ______:
plugging the scuppers
1356. When instructing a crew member concerning the right way to lift a weight, you would instruct him to __________.
bend his knees and lift with his legs
1357. Fire hose couplings __________.
are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
1358. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.
remove the locking pin
1359. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.
Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
1360. Each hand portable fire extinguisher must be marked with __________.
an identification number
1361. If you have a fire in the engine room, your first act should be to __________.
secure the fuel supply and ventilation to the engine room.
1362. Control of fire should be addressed __________.
immediately
1363. Which statement is TRUE of a gasoline spill?
It is visible for a shorter time than a fuel oil spill.
1364. To ensure the early and efficient collection and exchange of security-related information is one of the ISPS Code objectives of_______. 1365. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit one B-II is __________. 1366. In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST __________.
remove the locking pin
1367. When administering first aid, what should you avoid?
Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
1368. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST Breathing and heartbeat medical response is to check for __________. 1369. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should __________.
close all openings to the area
1370. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in the __________.
Oil Record Book
1371. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take first ?
Shut down the operation.
1372. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an eng ine room fire, you must __________.
evacuate all engine room personnel
1373. Injuries resulting from slips and falls constitute the largest percentage of accidents that occur in the catering Keep the floors and decks free from department. What shall be done to reduce this high fat and grease. accident rate?
60
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1374. What is the primary concern in aiding a back injury patient ?
Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
1375. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________
plug the scuppers
1376. After an engine is started you should __________.
check operating pressures and temperatures, and check for leaks
1377. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, what should be the FIRST firefighting response?
Secure the ventilation
1378. A safety outlet is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent_________ .
over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
1379. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in __________.
separate and accessible location
1380. What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
1381. If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations which action should you take first ?
Shut down the operation.
1382. Since electrical burn victims may be in shock, the FIRST medical response is to check for __________.
Breathing and heartbeat
1383. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.
Bow into the wind and decrease speed
1384. A precaution you should take before bunkering is to __________
plug the scuppers
1385. When administering first aid you should avoid __________.
Unnecessary haste and appearance of uncertainty
1386. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by__________.
completely closing the compartment
1387. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
Arms above their head
1388. The number and type of hand portable fire extinguishers required outside and in the vicinity of the paint locker exit one B-II is __________. 1389. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. 1, 2, 3 and others. The 5 cm height of the letters and figures must be at least __________. 1390. What equipment must be on a life float? (small passenger vessel regulations)
Two paddles, a light, painter, lifeline and pendants
1391. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
removing combustibles from the endangered area
1392. Control of fire should be addressed __________.
immediately
1393. Which activity will have the greatest fire-fighting effect in case of a fire?
Extinguishing attempt is started immediately
1394. Which fire-fighting equipment is most efficient and with least side effects in case of a large fire in the engine room?
Central gas extinguishing system and/or water fog.
1395. Which of the following is NOT TRUE why there may not Enclosed space has no proper be enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank? circulation of air. 1396. Which extinguishing agent is the best for use on electrical fires?
CO2
1397. How do you treat a person suffering from heat exhaustion?
Give him sips of cool water
61
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
1398. When bunkering is complete, the hoses should be __________.
drained, blanked off, and stored securely
1399. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
use a portable CO2 extinguisher
1400. What is the most important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
Danger of shock to personnel
1401. What is the most important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?
Danger of shock to personnel
1402. Before CPR is started, you should ____________.
establish an open airway
1403. The maximum number of personnel allowed on a personnel transfer basket is __________.
4
1404. The spread of fire is prevented by __________.
removing combustibles from the endangered area
1405. Oil discharge in large quantities form ______ which will affect birds at sea and may strand on beaches if these do not disperse into the water as water droplets before reaching shore: 1406. A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet MSDS, having a flash point below 37.78°C is called ________ .
slicks
flammable liquid
1407. Which of the following is NOT TRUE why there may not be enough oxygen in an enclosed space or tank?
Enclosed space has no proper circulation of air.
1408. A health hazard term listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) that indicates allergic-like reaction in some people after repeated exposure is _____________.
sensitizer
1409. Fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas (CO2) and by __________.
completely closing the compartment
1410. There is a fire aft aboard your vessel. To help fight the fire, you should put the __________.
Bow into the wind and decrease speed
1411. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found in the __________.
muster List
1412. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in __________.
separate and accessible location
1413. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________. 1414. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to __________. 1415. The scuppers had been plugged as required at the time an oil spill occurs on deck. After shutting down the transfer, the engineroom should first be informed and then __________. 1416. One of the requirements for an oil tanker operating with Dedicated Clean Ballast shall be that it is equipped with_________.
Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling Secure the ventilation spread an absorbent material, such as sawdust
An oil content meter
1417. When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
not attack the fire from opposite sides
1418. When oil is discharged overboard, an entry is required in the __________.
Oil Record Book
1419. Fire hose couplings __________.
are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
1420. Fire hose stations shall be marked in red letters and figures such as Fire Station No. 1, 2, 3 and others. The height of the letters and figures must be at least __________.
5 cm
62
ENGINE OPERATIONAL LEVEL
