1. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the: Chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow 2. The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are: (I) kg / m3, (II) N 3. The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are: (I) N / m², (II) N / m² 4. Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)? F=m. a 5. The static pressure acts: In all directions 6. Lift is generated when: A certain mass of air is accelerated downwards 7. Consider a steady flow through a stream tube at a given constant velocity. An increase in the flow's temperature will: Lower the mass flow 8. Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct? The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases 9. If, in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static pressure in the flow will: Decrease 10. Bernoulli's equation can be written as: (pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic pressure) pt = ps + q 11. Which of these statements about boundary layers is correct? A laminar boundary layer is thinner than a turbulent one 12. As angle of attack is increased on a conventional low speed aerofoil at low subsonic speeds, flow separation normally starts on the: Upper surface near the trailing edge 13. On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a conventional transport aeroplane): Move forward 14. The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph: Above the origin 15. The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between: The chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction 16. The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is: Angle of attack 17. The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the: Angle of incidence
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18. With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are: (I) down, (II) forward 19. On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch up" phenomenon: Is caused by wingtip stall 20. Low speed pitch up is caused by the: Spanwise flow on a swept back wing 21. The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the: Parasite drag is equal to the induced drag 22. Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is: Negative (pitch-down). 23. Zero
On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is:
24. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be: x 0.25 25. When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes: At same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased 26. In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be: N greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight 27. On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, the "Full extended" position will produce: An increase in wing area and camber 28. When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually: Remain the same 29. When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will: Increase 30. Trailing edge flap extension will: Decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax 31. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not 32. What is the most effective flap system? Fowler flap 33. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will: Move aft, and then turn down 34. A slotted flap will increase the CLMAX by: Increasing the camber of the aerofoil re-energising the airflow 35. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will: Increase
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36. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system? Extend automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded 37. The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing is to: Cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer 38. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of attack? Flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended 39. An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the wings is: Wing roots: L.E. flaps, Wing tips: slats 40. A deployed slat will: Increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack 41. An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative influence on the CL/CD ratio? Flaps from 30° to 45° 42. After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps. Why? Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag 43. Upon wing spoiler extension in straight and level flight, if the speed and load factor remain constant: CD increases but CL remains unaffected 44. A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates? Accelerated stall 45. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack? Deep stall 46. When considering a swept-back wing, without corrective design features, at the stall: Tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-up pitching moment 47. The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as: Newton 48. Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of: CL² and AR (aspect ratio) 49. One important advantage a turbulent boundary layer has over a laminar layer is that the turbulent boundary layer: Has less tendency to separate from the surface 50. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 59% Lift is constant, i.e. it is the same in both cases. Lift 1= 1/2 x density x S x VS2 x CLmax Lift 2= 1/2 x density x S x (1.3xVS)2 x CL Lift 1 = Lift 2 2 2 2 2 2 1/2 x density x S x VS x CLmax = 1/2 x density x S x (1.3xVS) x CL VS x CLmax = (1.3xVS) x CL VS x CLmax = 2 2 2 2 2 2 1.3 x VS x CL; CL = VS x CLmax /(1.3 ) x VS ; CL = CLmax / 1.3 ; CL = CLmax x 0.59
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51. The lift formula can be written as: (Rho = density) L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S 52. Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct? At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest 53. Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the: Relative wind/airflow 54. At a load factor of 1 and the aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di and parasite drag Dp? Di/Dp = 1 55. The correct drag formula can be written as: (Rho = density) D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S 56. The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with the: Square of the speed 57. An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors: (i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4 58. What is the effect on induced drag of an increase in aspect ratio? Induced drag decreases, because the effect of tip vortices decreases 59. In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing speed? (1) decreases and (2) increases 60. Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (assume zero wing twist) Elliptical 61. If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually: (flap span less than wing span) Decrease 62. 1/V²
The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at constant mass varies linearly with:
63. Assuming no compressibility effects, induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: Aeroplane mass 64. Which of the following will reduce induced drag? Elliptical lifts distribution 65. Induced drag is the result of: Downwash generated by tip vortices 66. Vortex generators: Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer 67. How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight? Decreasing, then increasing
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68. A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will improve: The low speed characteristics 69. Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices will produce: A nose-down pitching moment 70. Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall change as follows: (1) decreases (2) increases 71. Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will: (1) move aft, (2) move forward 72. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct? Increasing sweepback increases stall speed 73. Which of the following statements about the spin is correct? During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position 74. During an normal spin recovery: The ailerons are held in the neutral position 75. Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is correct? Just before the stall the aeroplane will have a nose-down tendency 76. Which of the following are used as stall warning devices? Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator 77. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change of the: Stagnation point 78. The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is: Full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with rudder 79. Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall? Swept back wings and a T-tail 80. A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be: Nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response 81. The function of the stick pusher is: To activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of attack
82. Dangerous stall characteristics, in large transport aeroplanes that require stick pushers to be installed, include: Excessive wing drop and deep stall 83. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is: Reduction in CLmax 84. The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are: Decrease of CLmax and increase of drag 85. The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: 3
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86. The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst others on: The airstream velocity 87. A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor: 16 88. A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor: 2 89. The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is: The centre of pressure 90. The location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil at increasing angle of attack will: Shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack 91. The unit of density is: kg/m³ 92. psi
The unit of measurement of pressure is:
93. The boundary layer of a wing is: A layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity 94. A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: No velocity components exist, normal to the surface 95. Total pressure is (rho = density): Static pressure plus the dynamic pressure 96. The (subsonic) static pressure: Decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases 97. The true airspeed (TAS) is: Lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below sea level 98. The lift- and drag forces, acting on an aerofoil: Depend on the pressure distribution around the aerofoil 99. The lift force, acting on an aerofoil: Is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil 100. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in: % chord 101. The aerofoil polar is: A graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient 102. The aspect ratio of the wing: Is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord 103. Dihedral of the wing is: The angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis
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104. The induced drag: Increases as the lift coefficient increases 105. Flap extension at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight will increase the: Maximum lift coefficient (CLMAX) and the drag 106. During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS and weight: The centre of pressure moves aft 107. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)? Decreasing weight 108. The difference between IAS and TAS will: Decrease at decreasing altitude 109. An increase in wing loading will: Increase the stall speeds 110. Which statement is correct? The flow on the upper surface of the wing has a component in wing root direction 111. Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be triggered is: Greater than VS 112. The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as: The angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind/airflow 113. The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are: Dynamic pressure and the area of the wing
114. The critical angle of attack: Remains unchanged regardless of gross weight 115. Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack: CL is much greater than CD 116. Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack? For a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0 117. The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relationship between: Lift coefficient CI and drag coefficient Cd 118. The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is basically: The chord of an equivalent untwisted, rectangular wing with the same pitching moment and lift characteristics as the actual wing 119. The span-wise flow on an unswept wing is from the: Lower to the upper surface via the wing tip 120. Induced drag may be reduced by: An increase in aspect ratio 121. The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: A decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
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122. Increasing the aspect ratio of a wing: Decreases induced drag 123. What is the effect on induced drag of mass and speed changes (all other factors of importance remaining constant)? Decreases with increasing speed and decreasing mass 124. What will happen in ground effect? The induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases 125. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur: When the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the surface 126. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer: Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer 127. Behind the transition point in a boundary layer: The mean speed and friction drag increases 128. The stall speed: Increases with an increased weight 129. During a steady horizontal turn, the stall speed: Increases with the square root of load factor 130. 1.41
The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
131. Trailing edge flaps once extended: Degrade the minimum glide angle 132. When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch moment will be: Nose down 133. Extension of leading edge flaps will: Increase critical angle of attack 134. Slat extension will: Increase critical angle of attack 135. High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of: Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack 136. "A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and lower surface of an aerofoil". This definition is applicable for: The camber line 137. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its mass of 6850 kg. What is the stall speed when the mass is 5000 kg? 67 KCAS 138. Slats
What increases the stalling angle of attack? Use of:
139. Nm/s
What is the unit of measurement for power?
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140. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because: It delays the stall to a higher angle of attack 141. Which statement is correct? As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile moves downwards 142. Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLMAX with trailing edge flaps extended is: Smaller 143. A slat will Increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of attack 144. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location of the Stagnation point 145. Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall? Swept wings 146. Assuming zero wing twist, the wing planform that gives the highest local lift coefficient at the wing root is: Rectangular
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147. Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are correct? 1. The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat is equal. 2. The total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat is equal. 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. 148. The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between: The undisturbed airflow and the chordline 149. For a subsonic flow the continuity equation states that if the cross-sectional area of a tube increases, the speed of the flow: Decreases 150. If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a tube changes? (low speed, subsonic and incompressible flow) rho1 = rho2 151. Bernoulli's equation can be written as: (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure) pt - q = ps 152. Which boundary layer, when considering its velocity profile perpendicular to the flow, has the greatest change in velocity close to the surface? Turbulent boundary layer 153. Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag? Body C
154. Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane: At speeds above the minimum drag speed, total drag increases 155. Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS are constant): The drag increases 156. Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag? Wing tip
157. Winglets Decrease the induced drag
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158. The interference drag is the result of: Aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage) 159. Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane? Line c
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160. The diagram shows the parameter Y against TAS. If horizontal flight is considered axis Y represents: The induced drag
161. How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V? V1 = 0 and V2 > V
162. Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which location will the highest flow velocities occur? Upper side 163. Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the Relative wind/airflow 164. When an aeroplane enters ground effect: The lift is increased and the drag is decreased 165. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance: Increases 166. An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects) The TAS at the higher altitude is higher
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167. Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed? Point a
168. Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the Glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind 169. Which type of flap is shown in the figure? Fowler flap
170. Which type of flap is shown in the picture? Split flap
171. Slat
The high lift device shown in the figure is a
172. The high lift device shown in the figure below is a Krueger flap
173. A plain flap will increase CLMAX by Increasing the camber of the aerofoil 174. During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant) Sink suddenly 175. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of importance being constant) Climb
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176. The pitch up tendency of an aeroplane with swept back wings during a stall is caused by the: Forward movement of the centre of pressure 177. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as.... The angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs 178. CL²
The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with:
179. The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant) Pulling up from a dive 180. By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45°? 19% 181. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt. When the aeroplane is flying a level co-ordinated turn with a load factor of 1.5, the aeroplane will stall in this turn at: 122 kt 182. Which statement is correct? Flap extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the maximum glide distance 183. In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical? The rotation 184. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is: 141 kt 185. The induced angle of attack is: The angle by which the relative airflow is deflected due to downwash 186. The following factors increase stall speed: An increase in load factor, a forward CG shift, decrease in thrust 187. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing conditions and will increase when the CG moves forward 188. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: Increase during turn, increased mass and forward CG location 189. The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors: May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn 190. Which ratio is defined as the "aspect ratio" of a wing? Ratio between span and mean chord 191. Induced drag on a wing is: Greatest at the wing tip 192. The characteristic of a “high aspect ratio” wing has are: Short chord, long span
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193. Bernoulli's theorem states that in a perfect and constant airstream: The sum of static and dynamic pressure is constant 194. The wing area divided by the span of a wing is called: "Mean chord" 195. A line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil and equidistant at all points from the upper and lower contours is called the Mean chamber line 196. The angle between the chord line of the wing and the longitudinal axis of the airplane is known as the angle of Incidence 197. Aspect ratio of a wing is the ratio between: Wing span squared and wing area 198. The resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of the wing is part of the: Parasite drag 199. When are wing tip vortex created? When the wing produces lift 200. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called: Induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed 201. At constant velocity airflow, a high aspect ratio wing will have (in comparison with a low aspect ratio wing) Decreased drag, especially at a high angle of attack 202. The most common stall sensing devices are normally located: At or near the wing leading edge 203. The aerodynamic characteristic of an aircraft in a spin is that the: Outer wing is partially stalled 204. With increasing altitude the following occurs: Drag remains the same for a given indicated airspeed 205. How does stalling speed vary with load factor? It increases proportionally with the square root of the load factor 206. The following take place at the transition point on a wing: The boundary layer makes the transition from laminar flow to the turbulent boundary layer 207. Which relationship is correct when comparing drag and airspeed? If you double the airspeed the induced drag is reduced to 1/4 208. The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of Attack 209. As it applies to airfoils, which statement is in agreement with Bernoulli's Principle? The static pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases 210. Low
An aerofoil at its stalling angle will have a Lift/Drag ratio which is:
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211. If density is kept constant, the dynamic pressure increases proportionally with: The square of the velocity 212. If velocity and angle of attack is kept constant and density decreases, the lift Decreases 213. An increase in the speed at which an airfoil passes through the air increases lift because The increased speed of air passing over the airfoil's upper surface decreases the pressure, thus creating a greater pressure differential between upper and lower surface 214. The angle of attack of a wing controls the Distribution of positive and negative pressure acting on the wing 215. You are flying near sea level with a true air speed of 200 knots. You then climb to 10000 feet and keep the same true speed. The drag and IAS Are both smaller 216. How does pressure affect lift? Lift decreases with decreasing pressure 217. An increase in angle of attack (below the stalling angle of attack) increases lift because The lift coefficient increases 218. How does the wing's centre of pressure move with increasing angle of attack? Forward 219. The angle of attack at which an aircraft stalls: Remains constant regardless of gross weight 220. What changes in angle of attack must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being increased? Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing lift 221. Compared to a cambered airfoil, the zero lift angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is Higher 222. Indicated stalling speed varies with varying temperature. FALSE 223. The dynamic pressure increases proportionally with: Density and the square of the velocity 224. Geometric washout means that The tip of the wing has less angle of attack than the root 225. If indicated air speed and angle of attack are kept constant and density decreases, the lift Remains constant 226. If pressure is kept constant and temperature increases, the density Decreases 227. With increasing altitude flying at a constant IAS will result in: No change in the stalling angle 228. If you want to maintain a constant TAS during a climb, you should during the climb Reduce to a lower IAS
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229. Under what circumstances is TAS equivalent to GS? No wind 230. Flying at the maximum rate of climb speed (Vy) you will obtain maximum: Altitude in the shortest time 231. In flight the C of P by increasing angle of attack, will reach its most forward point on an airfoil: Just below the stalling angle 232. Increasing the angle of attack in flight will cause the: Stagnation point to move down and aft 233. What changes in aircraft control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased? Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift 234. A chambered airfoil with zero angle of attack will in flight produce: Some lift and some drag 235. The construction feature of a wing called "wash out" is: A decrease in the angle of incidence from root to tip 236. One feature of a wing is the "Mean Chord" which is the: Wing area divided by the span 237. Dynamic pressure is expressed as (rho/2)* V^2 238. The speed in flight at which the power required is at a minimum, is: Below Vmd 239. Compared to a "high aspect ratio" wing a "low aspect ratio" wing will produce: More induced drag and have a higher stalling angle 240. A wing has a "Fineness Ratio" which is the ratio of: Thickness to the chord
241. In order to remain in level balanced flight: The wing lift must be greater than weight, if the tailplane is giving a download for balance 242. At the tip of the wing in level flight, the air flows From the lower surface to the upper surface and then down at the trailing edge 243. When looking at the airflow over the wing, from the wing surface and up, the air is Accelerated to the transition point 244. Drag
Balancing of the weight component along the flight path in a glide is achieved by:
245. 40 %
In a level turn with 60° lateral bank, the load factor is 2.0 and the stall speed increases by:
246. Wing tip vortices have the highest intensity during: Take off 247. Speedbrakes are a device used on large transport category aircraft: To increase drag in order to maintain a steeper gradient of descent
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248. Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1.4 VS. The maximum bank angle attainable without stalling in a steady co-ordinated turn, whilst maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately: 60° 249. To maintain level flight, if the angle of attack is increased, the speed must be: Reduced 250. The boundary layer is considered to be turbulent... Between the transition and separation points 251. When comparing the properties of laminar and turbulent boundary layers, which of the following statements is correct? Friction drag is lower in the laminar layer 252. The transition point is where the boundary layer changes from: Laminar into turbulent 253. When considering the properties of a laminar and turbulent boundary layer, which of the following statements is correct? Friction drag is higher in a turbulent layer 254. Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed? Point D
255. Which statement is correct? Spoiler extension increases the stall speed, the minimum rate of descent and the minimum angle of descent 256. The result of spoiler surfaces deploying are: Drag increases and lift decreases 257. CL varies with: Angle of attack 258. Given the following aeroplane configurations: 1) Clean wing. 2) Slat only extended. 3) Flaps only extended. Place these configurations in order of increasing critical angle of attack: 3, 1, 2 259. The difference between the effects of slat and flap asymmetry is that ("large" in the context of this question means not or hardly controllable by normal use of controls): d) Flap asymmetry causes a large rolling moment at any speed whereas slat asymmetry causes a large difference in CLMAX
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260. TAS
From EAS and density altitude you can derive:
261. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section: Moves forward when the angle of attack increases 262. Assuming no flow separation, when speed is decreased in straight and level flight on a positively cambered aerofoil, what happens to the: 1) Centre of pressure and 2) The magnitude of the total lift force? 1) moves forward and 2) remains constant 263. The stagnation point is the point: Where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero 264. An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The point on the wing, where the instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is known as the: Aerodynamic centre of the wing 265. The point, where the single resultant aerodynamic force acts on an aerofoil is called: Centre of pressure 266. When speed is increased in straight and level flight on a positively cambered aerofoil, what happens to the: 1) Centre of pressure and 2) The magnitude of the total lifts force? 1) moves aft and 2) remains constant 267. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a symmetrical aerofoil section: Is independent of angle of attack 268. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of attack increases are correct or incorrect? 1) The stagnation point moves up 2) The point of lowest static pressure moves forward 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 269. Which of these statements about a stationary subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) The static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge 2) The velocity increases as the streamlines converge 1) is correct 2) is correct 270. The SI units of air density (I) and force (II) are: (I) kg/m3, (II) N 271. The SI unit of measurement for density is: kg/m3 272. N/m2
One SI unit of measurement for pressure is:
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273. Given: p = pressure rho = density T = absolute temperature The relationship between pressure, density and absolute temperature of a given mass of air can be expressed as follows: p/ (rho * T) = constant 274. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct? Weight is a force 275. Nm/s
What is the SI unit of measurement for power?
276. Assuming subsonic incompressible flow, how will air density change as air flows through a tube of increasing cross-sectional area? The air density: Does not vary 277. Bernoulli's equation is: Note: rho = actual density pstat = static pressure pdyn = dynamic pressure ptot = total pressure pstat + 1/2 rho * TAS2 = constant 278. Given that: pstat = static pressure rho = density pdyn = dynamic pressure p tot = total pressure Bernoulli's equation reads as follows: pstat + 1/2 rho * TAS2 = constant 279. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same as in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow and in the throat is the same 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 280. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 281. In a convergent tube with an incompressible sub-sonic airflow, the following pressure changes will occur: Ps = static pressure Pdyn = dynamic pressure Ptot = total pressure Ps decreases, Pdyn increases, Ptot remains constant 282. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow and in the throat is the same 1) is correct 2) is correct
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283. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 284. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 285. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 286. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 2) The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 287. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 288. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
289. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 290. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 291. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 292. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is the same than in the throat 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 293. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 2) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat 1) is correct 2) is incorrect
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294. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 295. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 296. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow 2) The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 297. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 298. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The total pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow 1) is correct 2) is correct
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299. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 300. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 301. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is correct 2) is correct 302. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 303. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 304. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 305. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 306. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a venturi, which statement is correct? 1) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 2) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 307. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct? The weight of an object depends on the acceleration due to gravity 308. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct? The mass of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity 309. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct? In the SI system the unit of measurement for mass is the kilogram 310. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct? The mass of a body can be determined by dividing its weight by the acceleration due to gravity
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311. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct? The weight of a body can be determined by multiplying its mass by the acceleration due to gravity 312. The angle between the direction of the undisturbed airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is the: Angle of attack 313. When the lift coefficient CI of a positively cambered aerofoil section is zero, the pitching moment is: Nose down (negative) 314. Zero
When the lift coefficient CI of a symmetrical aerofoil section is zero, the pitching moment is:
315. The forces of lift and drag on an aerofoil are, respectively, normal and parallel to the: Relative wind/airflow 316. Lift is the: Component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the undisturbed airflow 317. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is defined as the angle between the: Undisturbed airflow and the chord line 318. A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will produce: Both lift and drag 319. When the lift coefficient CI of a negatively cambered aerofoil section is zero, the pitching moment is: Nose up (positive) 320. An aerofoil is cambered when: The line, which connects the centres of all inscribed circles, is curved 321. Dihedral of a wing is the angle between: The wing plane and the horizontal with the aeroplane in an unbanked, level condition 322. Wing sweep angle is the angle between: The quarter-chord line of the wing and the lateral axis 323. The aeroplane's angle of incidence is defined as the angle between the: Longitudinal axis and the wing root chord line 324. The mean geometric chord of a wing is the: Wing area divided by the wing span 325. Taper ratio of a wing is the ratio between: Tip chord and root chord 326. An aerofoil with positive camber at a positive angle of attack will have the highest flow velocity: On the upper side 327. The aerodynamic centre of a wing is the point relative to which: Assuming no flow separation, the pitching moment coefficient does not change with varying angle of attack
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328. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section: Moves backward when the angle of attack decreases 329. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the aerodynamic centre of an aerofoil section: Is at approximately 25 % chord irrespective of angle of attack 330. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location of the centre of pressure of a symmetrical aerofoil section: Is at approximately 25 % chord irrespective of angle of attack 331. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of attack decreases are correct or incorrect? 1) The stagnation point moves down 2) The point of lowest static pressure moves forward 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 332. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of attack decreases are correct or incorrect? 1) The stagnation point moves up 2) The point of lowest static pressure moves aft 1) is correct 2) is correct 333. Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow around an aerofoil as the angle of attack decreases are correct or incorrect? 1) The stagnation point moves up 2) The point of lowest static pressure moves forward 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 334. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a positive cambered aerofoil section intersects the vertical axis of the graph: Above the origin 335. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of approximately 1.2: The speed will have increased by 30 kt 336. Which of the following variables are required to calculate lift from the lift formula? Dynamic pressure, lift coefficient and wing area 337. A positively cambered aerofoil will generate zero lift: At a negative angle of attack 338. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes, the: TAS is higher at the higher altitude
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339. The point in the figure corresponding to CL for minimum horizontal flight speed is: Point c
340. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack has a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is correct 2) is correct 341. Zero
The lift coefficient of a symmetrical aerofoil section at zero angle of attack is:
342. An aeroplane flying at 100 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 20 kt assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 1.44 343. Assuming standard atmospheric conditions, in order to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an aeroplane must be flown at: A higher TAS for any given angle of attack 344. Regarding the lift formula, if density doubles, lift will: Also double 345. Regarding the lift formula, if airspeed doubles, lift will: Be 4 times greater 346. If the lift generated by a given wing is 1000 kN, what will be the lift if the wing area is doubled? 2000 kN 347. If the wing area is increased, lift will: Increase because it is directly proportional to wing area 348. If the airspeed is doubled, whilst maintaining the same control surface deflection the aerodynamic force on this control surface will: Become four times greater
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349. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a symmetrical aerofoil section intersects the vertical axis of the graph: At the origin 350. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a positively cambered aerofoil section intersects the horizontal axis of the graph: To the left of the origin 351. The lift coefficient CI versus angle of attack curve of a negatively cambered aerofoil section intersects the horizontal axis of the graph: To the right of the origin 352. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) A nose up pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 353. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 354. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) The pitching moment is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is correct 2) is correct 355. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 356. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack has a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) A nose up pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 357. Regarding a symmetric aerofoil section, which statement is correct? 1) The angle of attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero 2) The pitching moment is zero when the lift coefficient equals zero 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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358. The point in the figure showing zero lift is: Point a
359. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes, the: IAS at both altitudes is the same 360. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at the same angle of attack at two different altitudes, the: TAS is lower at the lower altitude 361. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional area and are in motion, which body will have the lowest pressure drag? Body 3
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362. Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body in an airstream (angle of attack and TAS are constant): The drag increases 363. Minimum drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight occurs at the: Maximum CL-CD ratio 364. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional area and are in motion, which body will have the highest pressure drag? Body 2
365. Assuming all bodies have the same cross-sectional area and are in motion, place these bodies in order of increasing pressure drag. The correct answer is: 3, 4, 1, 2
366. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct
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367. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 368. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 369. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by angle of attack 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 370. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 371. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by angle of attack 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 372. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 373. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 374. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 375. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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376. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 377. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 378. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 379. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 380. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by the angle of attack 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 381. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is correct 2) is correct 382. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 383. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices increases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 384. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 385. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices is not affected by angle of attack 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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386. Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 387. Which statement concerning the local flow pattern around a wing is correct? By fitting winglets to the wing tip, the strength of the wing tip vortices is reduced which in turn reduces induced drag 388. An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a horizontal co-ordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains constant and the: Induced drag increases by a factor of 4 389. What is the effect of winglets on the drag of the wing? Increase parasite drag, decrease induced drag 390. The induced angle of attack is the result of: Downwash due to tip vortices 391. If the aspect ratio of a wing increases whilst all other relevant factors remain constant, the critical angle of attack will: Decrease 392. Zero
When wing lift is zero, its induced drag is:
393. Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? 1) Parasite drag increases 2) Induced drag increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 394. Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? 1) Parasite drag decreases 2) Induced drag increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 395. Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? 1) Parasite drag increases 2) Induced drag decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 396. Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? 1) Parasite drag increases 2) Induced drag increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 397. Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? 1) Parasite drag increases 2) Induced drag decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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398. Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? 1) Parasite drag decreases 2) Induced drag decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 399. Which statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than a rectangular lift distribution 2) Induced drag increases with decreasing aspect ratio 1) is correct 2) is correct 400. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than a rectangular lift distribution 2) Induced drag decreases with decreasing aspect ratio 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 401. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than a rectangular lift distribution 2) Induced drag increases with decreasing aspect ratio 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 402. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution 2) Induced drag increases with increasing aspect ratio 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 403. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution 2) Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio 1) is correct 2) is correct 404. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than an elliptical lift distribution 2) Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect ratio 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 405. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack increases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag increases with increasing aeroplane mass 1) is correct 2) is correct 406. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack increases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with increasing aeroplane mass 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 407. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack increases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with increasing aeroplane mass 1) is correct 2) is incorrect
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408. Which statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack decreases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag increases with decreasing aeroplane mass 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 409. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack decreases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with decreasing aeroplane mass 1) is correct 2) is correct 410. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag increases as angle of attack decreases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag decreases with decreasing aeroplane mass 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 411. Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect? 1) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack decreases 2) At constant load factor, induced drag increases with decreasing aeroplane mass 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 412. Decreasing the aspect ratio of a wing: Increases induced drag 413. How does the total drag change, in straight and level flight at constant mass, as speed is increased from the stall speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE or VMO)? Initially decreases, then increases 414. Total drag is the sum of: Parasite drag and induced drag 415. Which drag components make up parasite drag? 1) pressure drag 2) friction drag 3) induced drag 4) interference drag The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 4 416. The total drag of an aerofoil in two dimensional flows comprises: Pressure drag and skin friction drag 417. Which component of drag increases most when an aileron is deflected upwards? Form drag 418. An aeroplane, being manually flown in the speed unstable region, experiences a disturbance that causes a speed reduction. If the altitude is maintained and thrust remains constant, the aeroplane speed will: Further decrease 419. If the airspeed reduces in level flight below the speed for maximum L/D, the total drag of an aeroplane will: Increase because of increased induced drag 420. The total drag of a three dimensional wing consists of: Induced drag and parasite drag
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421. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL increases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 422. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 423. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL increases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi remains constant 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 424. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL increases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 425. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 426. Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL decreases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 427. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL increases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 428. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 429. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL decreases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi increases 1) is correct 2) is correct 430. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL increases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi remains constant 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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431. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL increases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 432. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL remains constant 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 433. Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant angle of attack, is correct? 1) The lift coefficient CL decreases 2) The induced drag coefficient CDi decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 434. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle increases 2) The induced angle of attack decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 435. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle remains constant 2) The induced angle of attack decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 436. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle decreases 2) The induced angle of attack decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 437. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle decreases 2) The induced angle of attack remains constant 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 438. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle increases 2) The induced angle of attack increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 439. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle remains constant 2) The induced angle of attack increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 440. Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle decreases 2) The induced angle of attack increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect
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441. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle increases 2) The induced angle of attack increases 1) is correct 2) is correct 442. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle decreases 2) The induced angle of attack increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 443. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle decreases 2) The induced angle of attack remains constant 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 444. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle increases 2) The induced angle of attack decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 445. Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct? 1) The downwash angle decreases 2) The induced angle of attack decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 446. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane enters ground effect: The induced angle of attack reduces 447. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane enters ground effect: Downwash reduces 448. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect: The effective angle of attack decreases 449. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect: The induced angle of attack increases 450. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect: Induced drag increases 451. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect: Downwash increases 452. Whilst maintaining straight and level flight with a lift coefficient CL=1, what will be the new value of CL after the speed has doubled? 0.25 453. Whilst maintaining straight and level flight with a lift coefficient CL=1, what will be the new value of CL after the speed is increased by 41 %? 0.50
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454. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or incorrect? 1) The centre of pressure on a straight wing moves aft after the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 2) The centre of pressure on a strongly swept back wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 1) is correct 2) is correct 455. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or incorrect? 1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 456. Which of these statements about boundary layers is correct? A turbulent boundary layer produces more friction drag than a laminar one 457. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and considering the effects of CG location and thrust, the highest value of wing lift occurs at: Forward CG and idle thrust 458. Stall speed (IAS) varies with: Weight 459. Dividing lift by weight gives: Load factor 460. The load factor is greater than 1 (one): When lift is greater than weight 461. Which statement is correct? 1) Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the aft limit 2) Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 462. The stall speed decreases: (All other factors of importance being constant) When, during a manoeuvre, the aeroplane nose is suddenly pushed firmly downwards (e.g. as in a push over) 463. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a mass of 1000 kg. If the mass is increased to 2000 kg, the new value of stall speed will be: 141 kt 464. Wing loading is the ratio between: Aeroplane weight and wing area 465. Which statement is correct? 1) Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit 2) Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the aft limit 1) is correct 2) is correct 466. Which statement is correct? 1) Stall speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit 2) Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the forward limit 1) is correct 2) is incorrect
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467. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and considering the effects of CG location and thrust, the lowest value of wing lift occurs at: Aft CG and take-off thrust 468. Wing twist (geometric and aerodynamic) is used to: 1) improve stall characteristics 2) reduce induced drag 3) reduce interference drag 4) increase VMO The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2 469. The main purpose of a boundary layer fence on a swept wing is to: Improve the low speed handling characteristics 470. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect: 1) The combination of a wing with sweepback and a T-tail make an aeroplane prone to deep stall 2) A stick pusher system can be fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits abnormal stall characteristics 1) is correct 2) is correct 471. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept back wing during a stall is due to the: Wing tip stalling first 472. During a climbing turn to the right the: Angle of attack of the left wing is larger than the angle of attack of the right wing 473. One disadvantage of wing sweepback is: The tendency of the wingtip section to stall prior to the wing root section 474. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect: 1) A wing with forward sweep and a low horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall 2) A stick shaker system can be fitted to an aeroplane to resolve deep stall problems 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 475. Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following statements are correct or incorrect: 1) An aeroplane with a low horizontal tail and wings with sweepback is normally prone to deep stall 2) An aeroplane with a canard is normally prone to deep stall 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 476. Which statement is correct? 1) A stick pusher activates at a higher angle of attack than a stick shaker 2) A stick pusher prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further 1) is correct 2) is correct 477. Which statement is correct? 1) A stick pusher activates at a lower angle of attack than a stick shaker 2) A stick shaker prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 478. Which statement is correct? 1) A stick pusher activates at a lower angle of attack than a stick shaker 2) A stick pusher prevents the pilot from increasing the angle of attack further 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 479. Negative tail stall is: A sudden reduction in the downward aerodynamic force on the tailplane
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480. Which statement about negative tail stall is correct? When negative tail stall occurs, the aeroplane will show an uncontrollable pitch-down moment
481. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct? Decreasing sweepback decreases stall speed 482. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct? Decreasing forward sweep decreases stall speed 483. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct? Increasing forward sweep increases stall speed 484. Ignoring downwash effects on the tailplane, extension of Fowler flaps, will produce: A nose down pitching moment 485. Upon extension of Fowler flaps whilst maintaining the same angle of attack: CL and CD increase 486. The main function of a trailing edge flap is to: Increase the maximum lift coefficient of the wing 487. What is the effect on an aeroplane's characteristics of extending Fowler flaps to their fully extended position? Wing area and camber increase 488. When trailing edge flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level flight at constant IAS: The centre of pressure moves aft 489. From an initial condition of level flight the flaps are retracted at a constant pitch attitude. The aeroplane will subsequently: Start to sink 490. From an initial condition of level flight the flaps are extended at a constant pitch attitude. The aeroplane will subsequently: Start to climb 491. When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of attack, the following changes will occur: CL and CD increase 492. Slat extension: Delays the stall to a higher angle of attack 493. For most jet transport aeroplanes, slat extension has: A greater effect on stall speed than flap extension 494. Upon extension of a wing spoiler, if the angle of attack remains constant: CD increases and CL decreases 495. When spoilers are used as speed brakes: At the same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased 496. Wing spoilers are deflected symmetrically in flight in order to: Decelerate the aeroplane and/or increase its rate of descent 497. Spoilers mounted on the wing upper surface can be used to: Assist the ailerons
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498. The transition point is the point where: The boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent
499. While flying under icing conditions, the largest ice build-up will occur, principally, on: The frontal areas of the aeroplane 500. The Mach number is the ratio between: TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound of the undisturbed flow 501. How does temperature influence the speed of sound? Speed of sound increases with temperature increase 502. Define the term "Mach number". The ratio between TAS and the speed of sound 503. Compressibility effects depend on: Mach number 504. How does the Mach number change during a climb at constant IAS from sea level to 40000 ft? Increases with increasing altitude 505. Transonic speed is: A speed at which locally around the aeroplane both supersonic and subsonic speeds exist 506. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: Lift coefficient decreases 507. During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach number will: Increase 508. During a descent at a constant Mach number (assume zero thrust and standard atmospheric conditions): The angle of attack will decrease 509. A transonic Mach number is a Mach number: At which both subsonic and supersonic local speeds occur 510. The subsonic speed range: Ends at Mcrit 511. Which of these statements about the supersonic speed range is correct? The airflow everywhere around the aeroplane is supersonic 512. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing? Critical Mach number 513. The position of the centre of pressure on an aerofoil of an aeroplane curising at supersonic speed when compared with that at subsonic speed is: Further aft
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514. The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows: Stabilizing effect 515. The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows: Positive dihedral effect 516. When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the tailplane will be: Downwards 517. In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight have the highest value? (The engines are mounted below the wing) Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust 518. An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: Upwards 519. If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane would: Experience an angular acceleration about that axis 520. During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the greatest elevator up deflection is normally required when the flaps are: Fully down and the C.G. is fully forward 521. Which of the following statements is correct? Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the relevant axis 522. An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-slip to the right, initially the: Nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right 523. The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the following statements about the stick force stability is correct? Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed 524. The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected by: (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position 525. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the load factor of 2.5 is: 225 N 526. For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located: With a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane 527. The aft CG limit can be determined by the: Minimum acceptable static longitudinal stability 528. Which CG position with respect to the neutral point ensures static longitudinal stability? CG ahead of the neutral point
529. Static stability means that: Following a disturbance from the equilibrium condition, a force and/or moment is generated that tends to counter the effects of that disturbance
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530. Following a disturbance, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at constant amplitude. The aeroplane is: Statically stable - Dynamically neutral 531. Which one of the following statements about the dynamic longitudinal stability of a conventional aeroplane is correct? Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak 532. The "short period mode" is an: Oscillation about the lateral axis 533. An aeroplane that has positive static stability: Can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable 534. An aeroplane that has positive static stability: Can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable 535. One of the requirements for dynamic stability is: Positive static stability 536. Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct? The "effective dihedral" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of that component to the static lateral stability 537. In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber of the aerofoil? No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack 538. Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increases static lateral stability? High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin 539. Which wing design feature decreases the static lateral stability of an aeroplane? Anhedral 540. The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the: C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit 541. The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows: (1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive 542. Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is correct? An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive. (spiral instability) 543. With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will: (1) increase (2) decrease
544. Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to "Dutch roll"? Yaw damper 545. Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper? Dutch roll 546. If the sum of all the moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about the: Centre of gravity
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547. Wing dihedral: Contributes to static lateral stability 548. A CG location beyond the aft limit can cause: An unacceptably low value of the manoeuvre stability 549. Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when: The static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak 550. A Mach trimmer: Corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers 551. Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability? The horizontal tailplane 552. Which statement about stick force per g is correct? The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure acceptable control characteristics 553. The tendency to Dutch Roll increases when: The static lateral stability increases 554. Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased? The required lateral control force increases 555. An aft CG shift: Decreases static longitudinal stability 556. The most forward CG location may be limited by: 1) insufficent flare capability 2) excessive in-flight manoeuvrability 3) insufficient in-flight manoeuvrability The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3 557. Static directional stability is the: Tendency of an aeroplane to recover from a skid with the rudder free 558. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point relative to which: Assuming no flow separation, the pitching moment coefficient does not change with varying angle of attack 559. Assuming no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows: Dynamic longitudinal stability
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560. Assuming no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows: Neutral dynamic longitudinal stability
561. Assuming no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows: Static longitudinal stability and dynamic longitudinal instability
562. For an aeroplane to possess dynamic stability, it needs: Static stability and sufficient damping 563. A statically unstable aeroplane: Can never by dynamically stable 564. A statically stable aeroplane: Can show positive, neutral or negative dynamic longitudinal stability 565. Positive static longitudinal stability means that a: Nose down moment occurs after encountering an upgust
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566. The aeroplane motion, schematically illustrated in the diagram, is an example of a dynamically: Unstable periodic motion
567. An aeroplane that tends to return to its pre-disturbed equilibrium position after the disturbance has been removed is said to have: Positive static stability 568. As the stability of an aeroplane decreases: Its manoeuvrability increases 569. The air loads on the horizontal tailplane (tail load) of an aeroplane in straight and level cruise flight are generally directed: Downwards and will reduce in magnitude as the CG moves aft 570. An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of attack changes: The change in total aeroplane lift acts aft of the centre of gravity 571. Which of the following statements about static longitudinal stability is correct or incorrect? 1) A requirement for positive static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane is, that the neutral point is behind the centre of gravity 2) A wing with positive camber provides a positive contribution to static longitudinal stability, when the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is in front of the aerodynamic centre of the wing 1) is correct 2) is correct 572. The neutral point is the point where: The aeroplane becomes longitudinally unstable when the CG is moved beyond it in an aft direction 573. The contribution of the wing to the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane: Depends on CG location relative to the wing aerodynamic centre 574. The contribution of the wing to the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane: Depends on CG location relative to the wing aerodynamic centre 575. Longitudinal stability is directly influenced by: Centre of gravity position 576. For a statically stable aeroplane, the relationship between the neutral point and centre of gravity (CG) is such that the neutral point is located: Aft of the CG
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577. The most aft CG location may be limited by: 1) insufficent stick force stability 2) insufficient flare capability 3) excessive in-flight manoeuvrability 4) insufficient in-flight manoeuvrability The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3 578. An forward CG shift: Increases static longitudinal stability 579. An forward CG shift: Decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability 580. Which line in the Cm versus angle of attack graph shows a statically stable aeroplane? Line 3
581. Which line in the diagram illustrates an aeroplane which is statically longitudinally stable at all angles of attack? Line 4
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582. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal stability? Part 1
583. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit neutral static longitudinal stability? Point 2 584. When an aeroplane has zero static longitudinal stability, the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack line: Is horizontal 585. Which line in the diagram illustrates an aeroplane neutral static longitudinally stability at all angles of attack? Line 2
586. Which line in the diagram represents decreasing positive static longitudinal stability at higher angles of attack? Line 3 587. Which line in the diagram represents an aeroplane with static longitudinal instability at all angles of attack? Line 1
588. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack diagram? Line 1 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal instability at very high angles of attack
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589. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack diagram? Line 3 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal stability at high angles of attack 590. Which statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack diagram? Line 3 shows an aeroplane with greater static longitudinal stability at low angles of attack than that shown in line 4 591. Where on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal instability? Part 3
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592. The pitching moment versus angle of attack line in the diagram, which corresponds to a CG located at the neutral point of a given aeroplane at low and moderate angles of attack is: Line 2
593. Which of these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack lines in the diagram is correct? The CG position is further forward at line 3 when compared with line 1 594. Which of these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack lines in the diagram is correct? The CG position is further aft at line 1 when compared with line 4 595. Which of these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack lines in the diagram is correct? Static longitudinal stability is greater at line 4 when compared with line 3 at low and moderate angles of attack 596. A negative contribution to the static longitudinal stability of conventional jet transport aeroplanes is provided by: The fuselage 597. After an aeroplane has been trimmed: The stick position stability will be unchanged 598. Static directional stability is mainly provided by: The fin 599. The effect of a wing sweep back to static directional stability is: Positive 600. Which of the following provides a positive contribution to static directional stability? A dorsal fin
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601. Which of the following statements is correct? 1) A dorsal fin increases the contribution of the vertical tail plane to the static directional stability, in particular at large angles of attack 2) A dorsal and a ventral fin both have a positive effect on static lateral stability 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 602. The purpose of a dorsal fin is to: Maintain static directional stability at large sideslip angles 603. An aeroplane's sideslip angle is defined as the angle between the: Speed vector and the plane of symmetry 604. An aeroplane has static directional stability if, when in a sideslip with the relative airflow coming from the left, initially the: Nose of the aeroplane tends to yaw left 605. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability? 1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the left 2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 606. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability? 1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right 2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 607. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability? 1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the left 2) The initial tendency of the left wing is to move down 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 608. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability? 1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the left 2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down 1) is correct, 2) is correct 609. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability? 1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right 2) The initial tendency of the left wing is to move down 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 610. Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip, with the relative airflow coming from the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits both directional and lateral stability? 1) The initial tendency of the nose of the aeroplane is to move to the right 2) The initial tendency of the right wing is to move down 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
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611. Which design features improve static lateral stability? 1) High wing 2) Low wing 3) Large and high vertical fin 4) Ventral fin The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3 612. Static lateral stability will be decreased by: Increasing wing anhedral 613. Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to: Roll to the left in the case of a sideslip (with the aeroplane nose pointing to the left of the incoming flow) 614. Static lateral stability should not be too large, because: Too much aileron deflection would be required in a crosswind landing 615. Excessive static lateral stability is an undesirable characteristic for a transport aeroplane because: It would impose excessive demands on roll control during a sideslip 616. An increase in geometric dihedral in a steady sideslip condition at constant speed would: Increase the required lateral control force 617. How can the designer of an aeroplane with straight wings increase the static lateral stability? By increasing the aspect ratio of the vertical stabiliser, whilst maintaining a constant area 618. Sweepback of a wing positively influences: 1) static longitudinal stability 2) static lateral stability 3) dynamic longitudinal stability The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2 619. The primary purpose of dihedral is to: Increase static lateral stability 620. Static lateral stability will be decreased by: Reducing wing sweepback 621. Static lateral stability will be increased by: b) The use of a high, rather than low, wing mounting 622. Which design features reduce static lateral stability? 1) Anhedral 2) Dihedral 3) Forward sweep 4) Sweepback The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 3 623. Static lateral stability should not be too small because: The aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to spiral dive 624. One advantage of mounting the horizontal tailplane on top of the vertical fin is: To improve the aerodynamic efficiency of the vertical fin
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625. During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection: Downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing 626. Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on: Elevator deflection, dynamic pressure 627. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes: A roll to port (left) 628. On a jet aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wing) the thrust is suddenly increased. Which of these statements is correct about the elevator deflection required to maintain zero pitching moment? The elevator must be deflected downward 629. The centre of gravity moving aft will: Increase the elevator up effectiveness 630. In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the centre of gravity could be limited by the: Elevator capability, elevator control forces 631. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the: Longitudinal axis 632. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater than 1 will be: Larger 633. Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch roll? Rolling and yawing 634. If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents: Nose-down 635. Differential aileron deflection: Equals the drag of the right and left aileron 636. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is: Left aileron: 5° up Right aileron: 2° down 637. Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered flight controls? Servo tab 638. One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that: It is a more powerful means of trimming 639. Which statement is correct about a spring tab? At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab 640. How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn? Differential aileron deflection 641. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable nose down position for take-off: Rotation will require a higher than normal stick force
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642. When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface: In front of the hinge 643. Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position? A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane 644. One method to compensate adverse yaw is a Differential aileron 645. Flaperons are controls, which combine the function of: Ailerons and flaps 646. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: Servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control surface 647. How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a speed decrease? The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected trim tab 648. An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing, is: Less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes 649. A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this case Only the inboard ailerons are active 650. What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a certain pitch up or down? The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is smaller 651. Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is correct? The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind 652. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are: Seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance 653. How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for speed increase ? Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim tab 654. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct? In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection 655. When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated? Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value 656. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position? Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing 657. In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because: Effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes
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658. When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this: Ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column 659. Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection? Adverse yaw 660. An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the elevator jams during flight? Pitch control reverses direction 661. A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose: To decrease stick forces 662. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal stabilizer of an aeroplane with fully hydraulically operated flight controls that is in trim? Elevator deflection is zero 663. What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating propellers: More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane 664. Differential aileron deflection: Equals the drag of the right and left aileron 665. When roll spoilers are extended, the part of the wing on which they are mounted: Experiences a reduction in lift, which generates the desired rolling moment. In addition there is a local increase in drag, which suppresses adverse yaw 666. In a slipping turn (nose pointing outwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the "ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively: (i) too large; (ii) displaced towards the low wing
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667. The pitch angle is defined as the angle between the: Longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane 668. Which statement about elevators is correct? The elevator is the primary control surface for control about the lateral axis and is operated by a forward or backward movement of the control wheel or stick 669. An aeroplane's bank angle is defined as the angle between it’s: Lateral axis and the horizontal plane 670. Rotation around the lateral axis is called: Pitching 671. Rotation around the normal axis is called: Yawing 672. What kind of horizontal control surface is shown in the figure? All-flying tail
673. What is the effect of an aft shift of the centre of gravity on (1) static longitudinal stability and (2) the required control deflection for a given pitch change? (1) reduces, (2) reduces 674. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be: Larger for a forward CG position when compared to an aft position 675. For a given elevator deflection, aeroplane longitudinal manoeuvrability increases when: The CG moves aft 676. Which statement about CG limits is correct? The forward CG limit is mainly determined by the amount of pitch control available from the elevator
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677. Low speed pitch up can be caused by a significant thrust: Increase with podded engines located beneath a low-mounted wing 678. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be: Smaller at high IAS when compared to low IAS 679. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be: Smaller for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position 680. For a given elevator deflection, aeroplane longitudinal manoeuvrability decreases when: The CG moves forward 681. Aeroplane manoeuvrability increases for a given control surface deflection when: IAS increases 682. The function of ailerons is to rotate the aeroplane about the: Longitudinal axis 683. What are the primary roll controls on a conventional aeroplane? The ailerons 684. Aileron deflection causes a rotation around the longitudinal axis by: Changing the wing camber and the two wings therefore produce different lift values resulting in a moment about the longitudinal axis 685. When a turn is initiated, adverse yaw is: The tendency of an aeroplane to yaw in the opposite direction of turn mainly due to the difference in induced drag on each wing 686. Rotation about the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane can be achieved by: Aileron deflection and/or rudder deflection 687. Yaw is followed by roll because the: Yawing motion generated by rudder deflection causes a speed increase of the outer wing, which increases the lift on that wing so that the aeroplane starts to roll in the same direction as the yaw 688. When comparing a stabiliser trim system with an elevator trim system, which of these statements is correct? A stabiliser trim is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments 689. In straight flight, as speed is increased, whilst trimming to keep the stick force zero: The elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards 690. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabiliser jammed in the cruise flight position? Choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing 691. In straight flight, as speed is reduced, whilst trimming to keep the stick force zero: The elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards
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692. What is the effect on landing speed when a trimmable horizontal stabiliser jams at high IAS? In most cases, a higher than normal landing speed is required 693. Which of these statements about a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct? A trimmed aeroplane with a forward CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower than in the case of an aft CG in the same condition 694. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable nose up position for take-off: Rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique 695. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the aft limit and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser (THS) is positioned at the maximum allowable up position for take-off: Early nose wheel raising will take place 696. Which of these statements about a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is correct? A trimmed aeroplane with an aft CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher than in the case of a forward CG in the same condition 697. An aeroplane's flight path angle is defined as the angle between it’s: Speed vector and the horizontal plane 698. The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be : 1.71 699. The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be : 2.13 1 g straight and level with CL = 0.4 CL with gust = 0.4 + 5 x 0.09 = 0.4 + 0.45 = 0.85 Load factor = lift/weight Straight and level means LF = 1.0, hence lift = weight, hence CL=0.4 corresponds to weight. Therefore: Load factor with gust = 0.85/0.4 = 2.125 700. The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load factor will be: 1.45 Lift coefficient for 1g: 0.35 New lift coeff. because of gust: 0.35 + 2x0.079 = 0.508 New load factor because of gust: LF = 1g/0.35 * 0.508 = 1.45g
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701. The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration): 25, 50, 66 702. Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean configuration)? 50 ft/sec and VC 703. VD
The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:
704. VMO: Should be not greater than VC 705. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence? Swept wings 706. Which has the effect of increasing load factor? (All other relevant factors being constant) Vertical gusts 707. Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance remaining constant)? 1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases. 2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect 708. Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance being constant) ? 1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase the gust load factor. 2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load factor. 1 and 2 are correct 709. Which of the following statements is true? Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin to the structural limitations 710. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the wing loading decreases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 711. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 712. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the altitude increases, the gust load factor increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect
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713. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2*VS. If a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.3 VS would be: n = 1.65 714. All gust lines in the gust load diagram originate from a point where the: Speed = 0, load factor = +1 715. The gust load factor due to a vertical upgust increases when: The gradient of the CL-alpha graph increases 716. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the mass increases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 717. Which of the following statements is true? Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being exceeded 718. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct? VRA is the recommended turbulence penetration air speed 719. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct? The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1, and can even become negative 720. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is correct 2) is correct 721. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the mass increases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the altitude increases, the gust load factor increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 722. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 723. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the mass decreases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the altitude increases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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724. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 725. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 726. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve increases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the wing loading increases, the gust load factor increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 727. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the wing loading decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 728. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack curve decreases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the wing loading decreases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 729. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area increases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases 1) is correct 2) is correct 730. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area increases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 731. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 732. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 733. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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734. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor increases 2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 735. Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane are correct or incorrect? 1) When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor decreases 2) When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 736. VLE is defined as the: Maximum landing gear extended speed 737. For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade, measured at the reference section: Is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight 738. Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip? Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that segment’s speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane 739. Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch propellers because they: Produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range 740. If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: Increase and the rate of descent will decrease 741. If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will: Decrease and the rate of descent will increase 742. Propeller efficiency is defined as the ratio between: Usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power 743. An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a feathered (2) propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct? (1) is larger than (2) 744. When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position: The drag of the propeller is then minimal 745. Increasing the number of propeller blades will: Increase the maximum absorption of power
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746. Given an aeroplane with a propeller turning clockwise as seen from behind, the torque effect during the take off run will tend to: Roll the aeroplane to the left 747. Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by: Pitching and yawing 748. A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by: High angles of attack 749. A propeller is turning to the right when viewed from behind. The asymmetric blade effect in the climb at low speed will: Yaw the aeroplane to the left 750. Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence? Yes slightly 751. Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct? The blade angle increases with increasing speed 752. Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades? Decrease propeller efficiency 753. The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when: RPM increases and forward velocity decreases 754. Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct? Geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution 755. If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will Decrease and the rate of descent will increase 756. If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will Increase and the rate of descent will decrease 757. The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and: Local air speed vector 758. Where is the blade angle of a propeller measured? At 75 % of the radius 759. Propeller blade twist is the: Varying of the blade angle from the root to the tip of a propeller blade
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760. Refer to the figure below. The correct sequence of cross-sections representing propeller blade twist is: Sequence 4
761. Refer to the figure below. The correct sequence of cross-sections representing propeller blade twist is: Sequence 1 762. For a fixed-pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack: Can become negative during high-speed idle descent 763. An aeroplane is fitted with a constant speed propeller. If the aeroplane speed increases while manifold pressure remains constant (1) propeller pitch and (2) propeller torque will: (1) increase (2) remain constant 764. During a glide with idle power and constant IAS, if the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller is pulled back from its normal cruise position, the propeller pitch will: Increase and the rate of descent will decrease 765. During which of the following phases of flight is a fixed pitch propeller's angle of attack lowest? High-speed glide
766. If the propeller pitch of a windmilling propeller is decreased during a glide at constant IAS the propeller drag in the direction of flight will: Increase and the rate of descent will increase
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767. If the propeller pitch of a windmilling propeller is increased during a glide at constant IAS the propeller drag in the direction of flight will: Decrease and the rate of descent will decrease 768. Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect? 1) A cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch when compared with a climb propeller 2) A coarse pitch propeller is less efficient during take-off and in the climb, but more efficient in the cruise, when compared with a fine pitch propeller 1) is correct, 2) is correct 769. Assuming that the RPM remains constant throughout, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller will: Decrease with increasing airspeed 770. For an aeroplane equipped with a two-position variable pitch propeller it is advisable to select a: Fine pitch for take-off and climb 771. For a given RPM of a fixed pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack will: Decrease when the TAS increases 772. For a fixed-pitch propeller in flight at a given TAS, the blade angle of attack will: Increase if RPM increases 773. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be resolved into two components: - a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust) - a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power The diagram representing a windmilling propeller is: Diagram 4
774. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be resolved into two components: - a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust) - a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during cruise is: Diagram 1
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775. The diagram representing a feathered propeller is: Diagram 3 776. Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect? 1) A cruise propeller has a smaller geometric pitch compared with a climb propeller 2) A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during takeoff and in the climb, but is less efficient in cruise, when compared with a fine pitch propeller 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 777. Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect? 1) A cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch compared with a climb propeller 2) A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during takeoff and in the climb, but less efficient in cruise, when compared with a fine pitch propeller 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 778. During a glide with idle power and constant IAS, if the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller is pushed full forward from its normal cruise position, the propeller pitch will: Decrease and the rate of descent will increase 779. The reference section of a propeller blade with radius R is usually taken at a distance from the propeller axis equal to: 0.75 R 780. The variation of propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller with TAS at a given RPM is shown in: Figure 2
781. Propeller efficiency is: The ratio of power available (Thrust * TAS) to shaft power (Torque * RPM) 782. Which statement is correct? 1) At a given RPM the propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller is maximum at only one value of TAS 2) A constant speed propeller maintains near maximum efficiency over a wider range of aeroplane speeds than a fixed pitch propeller 1) is correct 2) is correct
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783. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller? 1) A constant speed propeller reduces fuel consumption over a range of cruise speeds 2) A constant speed propeller improves take-off performance as compared with a coarse fixed pitch propeller 1) is correct 2) is correct 784. A typical curve representing propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller versus TAS at constant RPM is: Diagram 2
785. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller? 1) A constant speed propeller reduces fuel consumption over a range of cruise speeds 2) A coarse fixed pitch propeller is more efficient during take-off 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 786. Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with a constant speed propeller? 1) A fixed pitch propeller improves propeller efficiency over a range of cruise speeds 2) A constant speed propeller improves take-off performance as compared with a coarse fixed pitch propeller 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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787. The variation of propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller with TAS at a given RPM is shown in: Figure 3
788. Which statement about propeller icing is correct? 1) Propeller icing increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift 2) Propeller icing does not affect propeller efficiency 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 789. Which statement about propeller icing is correct? 1) Propeller icing reduces blade element drag and increases blade element lift 2) Propeller icing reduces propeller efficiency 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 790. Which statement about propeller icing is correct? 1) Propeller icing increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift 2) Propeller icing reduces propeller efficiency 1) is correct 2) is correct 791. Which statement about propeller icing is correct? 1) Propeller icing reduces blade element drag and increases blade element lift 2) Propeller icing does not affect propeller efficiency 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 792. A windmilling propeller: Produces drag instead of thrust 793. Which statement is correct regarding a windmilling propeller on a multi-engine aeroplane? The windmilling drag is much higher than for a feathered propeller
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794. Which of these statements concerning propellers is correct? The blade angle of a feathered propeller is approximately 90 degrees 795. Which of these statements concerning propellers is correct? A feathered propeller causes less drag than a windmilling propeller 796. If S is the frontal area of the propeller disc, propeller solidity is the ratio of: The total frontal area of all the blades to S 797. Which statement about propeller noise is correct? 1) Propeller noise increases when the blade tip speed increases 2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, an increase in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction in propeller noise 1) is correct 2) is correct 798. Which statement about propeller noise is correct? 1) Propeller noise decreases when the blade tip speed increases 2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction in propeller noise 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 799. Which statement about propeller noise is correct? 1) Propeller noise decreases when the blade tip speed increases 2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, an increase in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction in propeller noise 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 800. Which statement about propeller noise is correct? 1) Propeller noise remains the same when the blade tip speed increases 2) For a given engine and propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of propeller blades allows for a reduction in propeller noise 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 801. Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at constant RPM? 1) Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption is independent of the number of blades 2) Power absorption decreases if the mean chord of the blades increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 802. Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at constant RPM? 1) Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption increases if the number of blades increases 2) Power absorption decreases if the mean chord of the blades increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 803. Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at constant RPM? 1) Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption is independent of the number of blades 2) Power absorption increases if the mean chord of the blades increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 804. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller? 1) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller noise 2) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller efficiency 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 805. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller? 1) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed does not affect propeller noise 2) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller efficiency 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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806. Which statement is correct regarding a propeller? 1) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed increases propeller noise 2) Increasing tip speed to supersonic speed decreases propeller efficiency 1) is correct 2) is correct 807. During the take-off roll, when the pilot raises the tail in a tail wheeled propeller driven aeroplane, the additional aeroplane yawing tendency is due to the effect of: Gyroscopic precession 808. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch down produces left yaw 2) Left yaw produces pitch up 1) is correct,2) is correct 809. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch down produces right yaw 2) Left yaw produces pitch down 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 810. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch down produces right yaw 2) Left yaw produces pitch up 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 811. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch up produces right yaw 2) Right yaw produces pitch down 1) is correct,2) is correct 812. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch up produces right yaw 2) Right yaw produces pitch up 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 813. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch up produces left yaw 2) Right yaw produces pitch down 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 814. The torque reaction of a rotating fixed pitch propeller will be greatest at: Low aeroplane speed and maximum engine power 815. Which statement is correct? 1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during flight at constant aeroplane attitude 2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect
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816. Which statement is correct? 1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane pitch changes 2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 817. Which statement is correct? 1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during flight at constant aeroplane attitude 2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 818. Which statement is correct? 1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes 2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM 1) is correct,2) is correct 819. Which statement is correct? 1) Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during aeroplane yaw changes 2) Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 820. Asymmetric propeller blade effect is mainly induced by: The inclination of the propeller axis to the relative airflow 821. In twin engine aeroplanes with propellers turning clockwise as seen from behind: The left engine is the critical engine 822. The asymmetric blade effect on a single engine aeroplane with a clockwise rotating propeller: Produces left yaw 823. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect increases when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc increases 1) is correct 2) is correct 824. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect increases when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 825. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 826. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect is unaffected when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 827. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect is independent of the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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828. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect increases when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 829. Which statement about a propeller is correct? 1) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when engine power is increased 2) Asymmetric blade effect reduces when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the propeller disc increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 830. What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a glide? The wind and the lift/drag ratio 831. An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is equal to: (Given: g= 10 m/s²) 2381 metres 832. A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to: Increase thrust and angle of attack 833. By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and level flight? 41% 834. Two identical aeroplanes A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and the TAS of B is 200 kt: The rate of turn of A is greater than that of B 835. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More left rudder 836. An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal, co-ordinated turn with 45 degrees of bank at 230 kt TAS. The same aeroplane with the same bank angle and speed, but at a lower mass will turn with: The same turn radius 837. Which statement is correct about an aeroplane that has experienced a left engine failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings level? Turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral 838. TAS
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
839. An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this condition: Weight is greater than lift 840. What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn? 70 000 N
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841. Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate? Point c
The graph shows a polar diagram where the lift coefficient CL is plotted versus the drag coefficient CD. There is a prominent point, where the ratio CL to CD is best. This point is the point for best glide and is located where the tangent from the origin meets the curve, so it is point B. The question asks for the "minimum sink rate" which is always located somewhat above the "best glide" point (but not to far). The most correct point is therefore point C. 842. Which point in the diagram gives the best glide condition? Point b 843. Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in horizontal flight? Point a
844. What is the correct relationship between the true air speed for (i) minimum sink rate and (ii) minimum glide angle, at a given altitude? (i) is less than (ii) 845. Which of the following increases the maximum duration of a glide? A decrease in mass 846. Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected? Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery runways 847. Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic)? The gliding angle is minimum (assume zero thrust)
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848. From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read: The maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient 849. Which of the following statements is correct? I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection. I is incorrect, II is incorrect 850. Which of the following statements is correct? I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate I is incorrect, II is correct 851. Which of the following statements is correct? I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate I is correct, II is correct 852. The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that corresponds to: (assume zero thrust) (CL/CD) max 853. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature? Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases What physically determines the limit for VMCG? It is asymmetric thrust of the running engine against the force of the fully deflected rudder. Thrust, also asymmetric thrust, becomes less when air density is less, means at high elevation and/or high temperature. Counterforce from the rudder (fully deflected) gets less at lower dynamic pressure (q), e.g. lower airspeed. In other words: At higher altitude (=field elevation) and/or higher temperature the fully deflected rudder can balance the asymmetric thrust at a lower airspeed than at low elevation and/or cold ambient temperature. Hence: VMCG becomes less at high elevation/high temperature Please refer also to H. Kandlbauer's performance script, paragraph 7.2.2 and to the Jeppesen/Oxford book No.13, Principles of flight, paragraph 12.29, 12.32 and 12.33 854. A twin engined aeroplane (mass = 59'000 kg) is established on a climb with all engines operating. The lift-todrag ratio is 12. Each engine produces 60'000 Newton of thrust. The gradient of climb is: (assume g = 10 m/s^2) 12% 855. An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 200 kt. Its turning radius is equal to 1080m. What is the load factor during this turn? (Given: g= 10 m/s²) 1.4 856. If an aeroplane is in a steady co-ordinated horizontal turn at a TAS of 200 kt and a turn radius of 2000 m, the load factor (n) will be approximately: 1.1 857. Given the following characteristic points on a jet engine aeroplane's polar curve: 1) CLMAX 2) long range cruise (zero wind) 3) maximum lift to drag ratio 4) minimum rate of descent (assume zero thrust) 5) maximum range cruise (zero wind) Arrange these points in order of increasing angle of attack: 2, 5, 3, 4, 1
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858. Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to the value for minimum sink rate is: Point 3
859. The point in the diagram giving the lowest speed in unaccelerated flight is: Point 4 860. The point in the diagram corresponding to the minimum value of drag is: Point 2 861. The lift to drag ratio determines the: Horizontal glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind and zero thrust 862. The parameters that can be read from the aeroplane parabolic polar curve are the: Minimum glide angle and the parasite drag coefficient 863. From a polar curve of the entire aeroplane one can read: The maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient 864. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 20000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 7.7 %
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865. Ignoring thrust effects in a steady straight climb at a climb angle "gamma", the lift of an aeroplane with weight W is: W * cos gamma 866. Given: theta = pitch angle gamma = flight path angle alpha = angle of attack no wind, bank or sideslip The relationship between these three paramets is: Theta = gamma + alpha 867. For shallow flight path angles in straight and steady flight, the following formula can be used: Sin gamma = T/W - CD/CL 868. During a straight, steady climb and with the thrust force parallel to the flight path: Lift is the same as during a descent at the same angle and mass 869. During a straight steady climb: 1) lift is less than weight 2) lift is greater than weight 3) load factor is less than 1 4) load factor is greater than 1 5) lift is equal to weight 6) load factor is equal to 1 Which of the following lists all the correct statements? 1 and 3 870. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 60000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 15.7 % 871. 0.98
When an aeroplane performs a straight steady climb with a 20 % climb gradient, the load factor is equal to:
872. An aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude and maximum climb thrust (assume no supercharger). How do the following variables change during the climb? (Gamma = flight path angle) Gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases 873. In a straight, steady climb the thrust must be: Greater than the drag because it must also balance a component of weight 874. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 60000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the one-engine inoperative climb gradient is: 3.7 %
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875. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 10 Thrust per engine: 60000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 14 % 876. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 21000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the one-engine inoperative climb gradient is: 4.3 % 877. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 21000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a four-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 8.5 % 878. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 28000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the one-engine inoperative climb gradient is: 2.9 % 879. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 10 Thrust per engine: 30000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 8.0 % 880. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 28000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 8.5 % 881. The four forces acting on an aeroplane in level flight are: Thrust, lift drag and weight 882. In a straight steady descent, which of the following statements is correct? Lift is less than weight; load factor is less than 1 883. During a straight steady descent, lift is: Less than weight, because lift only needs to balance the weight component perpendicular to the flight path
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884. The descent angle of a given aeroplane in a steady wings level glide has a fixed value for a certain combination of (Ignore compressibility effects and assume zero thrust) Configuration and angle of attack 885. The maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust increases: In a tailwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind 886. The maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust decreases: In a headwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind 887. In order to maintain constant speed during a level, co-ordinated turn, compared with straight and level flight, the pilot must: Increase thrust/power and angle of attack 888. When is a turn co-ordinated? When the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane at the CG is tangential to the flight path 889. What is the approximate radius of a steady horizontal co-ordinated turn at a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 200 kt? 1 km 890. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 200 kt? 65 s 891. An aeroplane with a mass of 4000 kg is performing a co-ordinated level turn at a constant TAS of 160 kt and a bank angle of 45°. The lift is approximately: 56000 N 892. In a skidding turn (the nose pointing inwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the "ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively: (i) too small, (ii) displaced towards the high wing 893. An aeroplane with a mass of 2000 kg is performing a co-ordinated level turn at a constant TAS of 160 kt and a bank angle of 60°. The lift is approximately: 40000 N 894. In a slipping turn (the nose pointing outwards), compared with a co-ordinated turn, the bank angle (i) and the "ball" or slip indicator (ii) are respectively: (i) too large, (ii) displaced towards the low wing 895. An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight and level flight whilst maintaining constant indicated airspeed. The: Lift doubles 896. An aeroplane is in a steady horizontal turn at a TAS of 194.4 kt. The turn radius is 1000 m. The bank angle is: (assume g = 10m/s2) 45° 897. In a co-ordinated horizontal turn, the magnitude of the centripetal force at 45 degrees of bank: Is equal to the weight of the aeroplane 898. Compared with level flight, the angle of attack must be increased in a steady, co-ordinated, horizontal turn: To compensate for the reduction in the vertical component of lift
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899. Turning motion in a steady, level co-ordinated turn is created by: The centripetal force 900. In a steady, horizontal, co-ordinated turn: Thrust equals drag, because there is equilibrium of forces along the direction of flight 901. In order to fly a rate one turn at a higher airspeed, the bank angle must be: Increased and the turn radius will increase 902. In a steady co-ordinated horizontal turn, lift is: Greater than in straight and level flight, because it must balance the weight and generate the centripetal force 903. What is the heading change after 10 seconds of an aeroplane performing a rate one turn? 30 degrees 904. An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal, co-ordinated turn with 45 degrees of bank at 230 kt TAS. The same aeroplane with the same bank angle and speed, but at a higher mass will turn with: The same turn radius, but might stall 905. Two identical aeroplanes A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady level co-ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and the TAS of B is 200 kt: The lift coefficient of A is greater than that of B 906. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? 1) VMCG must be determined using rudder control alone 2) During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than 30 ft 1) is correct 2) is correct 907. For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of VMCG? Airport elevation and temperature 908. VMCA is certified with a bank angle of not more than 5° towards the operating engine (live engine low) because: Although more bank reduces VMCA, too much bank may lead to fin stall 909. Which of the following statements is correct? I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing configuration. II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection I is correct, II is incorrect 910. Given two identical aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one fitted with jet engines and the other with counter rotating propellers, which of these statements is correct about roll behaviour after an engine failure? The propeller aeroplane has more roll tendency 911. In general, directional controllability with one engine inoperative on a multi-engine aeroplane is favourably affected by: 1) high temperature 2) low temperature 3) aft CG location 4) forward CG location 5) high altitude 6) low altitude The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 4, 5
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912. Which statement about minimum control speed is correct? VMCA depends on the airport density altitude and the location of the engine on the aeroplane (fuselage or wing) 913. Which of the following statements is correct? I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder deflection I is incorrect, II is incorrect 914. Which of the following statements is correct? I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available maximum roll rate I is incorrect, II is correct 915. VMCA is the minimum speed at which directional control can be maintained when, amongst others: 1) maximum take-off thrust was set and is maintained on the remaining engines 2) a sudden engine failure occurs on the most critical engine 3) flaps are in any position 4) the gear is either up or down 5) the aeroplane is either in or out of ground effect The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2 916. Consider the following statements about VMCG: 1) VMCG is determined with the gear down 2) VMCG is determined with the flaps in the landing position 3) VMCG is determined by using rudder and nosewheel steering 4) During VMCG determination the aeroplane may not deviate from the straight-line path by more than 30 ft The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 4 917. In general, directional controllability with one engine inoperative on a multi-engine aeroplane is adversely affected by: 1) high temperature 2) low temperature 3) aft CG location 4) forward CG location 5) high altitude 6) low altitude The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 2, 3, 6 918. Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? 1) As the bank angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA increases 2) When the bank angle is increased beyond 5 degrees, there is an increasing risk of fin stall 1) is correct 2) is correct 919. Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? 1) As the bank angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA will remain approximately constant 2) At any bank angle above 5 degrees, VMCA will decrease correspondingly 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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920. Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? 1) As the bank angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA increases 2) At any bank angle beyond 5 degrees, VMCA will decrease correspondingly 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 921. Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? 1) Equilibrium of moments about the normal axis is provided by rudder deflection 2) Equilibrium of forces along the lateral axis requires either bank angle or side slip or a combination of both 1) is correct 2) is correct 922. Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? 1) Because VMCA must be determined for the case where the critical engine suddenly fails, there is no need to obtain equilibrium of moments about the normal axis 2) Equilibrium of forces along the lateral axis does not require any side slip during a wings level condition 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 923. Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? 1) Equilibrium of moments about the normal axis is provided by rudder deflection 2) Equilibrium of forces along the lateral axis does not require any side slip during a wings level condition 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 924. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? 1) VMCG must be determined using both lateral and directional control 2) During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than half the distance between the runway centreline and runway edge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 925. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? 1) VMCG must be determined using rudder control alone 2) During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be not more than half the distance between the runway centreline and runway edge 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 926. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? 1) In order to simulate a wet runway, nose wheel steering may not be used during VMCG determination 2) During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the aft limit 1) is correct 2) is correct 927. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? 1) In order to simulate a wet runway, nose wheel steering may not be used during VMCG determination 2) During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the forward limit 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 928. Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or incorrect? 1) During VMCG determination, nose wheel steering may be used 2) During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the aft limit 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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929. When vortex generators are fitted they will normally be found: Near the wing leading edge in front of control surfaces 930. The type of trailing edge flap named Fowler flap: Increases camber and wing area 931. The purpose of deploying leading edge slats is to: Increase the stalling angle 932. Flaps are used in order to: Decrease stalling speed and reduce max angle of attack thereby achieving a more nose down attitude near and at stalling speed 933. It is possible to reduce the spanwise airflow over swept wings, due to adverse pressure gradients, by: Wing fences 934. On an airfoil the centre of pressure will be most forward: Just below the stalling angle 935. If ice is present on the leading edge of the wings, it may increase the landing distance due to higher Vth with: 30-40 % 936. When a trailing edge flap is lowered during flight from take-off position to fully down position, one will experience A small increase in lift and a large increase in drag 937. The L/D ratio in flight will be at its highest value at: The optimum angle of attack 938. How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport aeroplane? Stick shaker and/or aerodynamic buffet 939. During which type of stall does the angle of attack have the smallest value? Shock stall 940. When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first shockwaves will occur: At the wing root segment, upperside 941. The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be : (assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight) Buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down 942. The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable load factor because exceeding that altitude: Turbulence may induce Mach buffet 943. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will: Decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation 944. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing: Decrease wave drag 945. Shock stall: Occurs when the lift coefficient, as a function of Mach number, reaches its maximum value
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946. In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by: The Mach Number 947. Which of the following flight phenomena can only occur at Mach numbers above the critical Mach number? Mach buffet 948. Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number? Dutch roll 949. The Mach trim system will: Adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number 950. The Mach trim system will prevent: Tuck under 951. The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence of: Local sonic flow 952. The critical Mach Number can be increased by: Increasing wing sweepback 953. A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g incremental the pilot must: Fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number 954. The critical Mach number of an aeroplane is the Mach number: Above which, locally, supersonic flow exists somewhere over the aeroplane 955. The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of: Changes in the position of centre of pressure 956. When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of: Higher critical Mach number 957. "Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer. (i) aft (ii) decreasing 958. How does stall speed (IAS) vary with altitude? It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to compressibility effects 959. What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart? The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes 960. Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: Somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally 961. Which of the following (1) aerofoil and (2) angles of attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values? (1) thick and (2) large 962. In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight because: Aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing
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963. To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the: Mach Number 964. The formula for the Mach Number is: (a= speed of sound) M= TAS / a 965. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will: Increase 966. Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach number up to the tropopause the TAS will: Decrease 967. The speed of sound is determined only by: Temperature 968. An aeroplane is flying through the transonic range whilst maintaining straight and level flight. As the Mach number increases the centre of pressure of the wing will move aft. This movement requires: A pitch up input of the elevator or the stabilizer 969. Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct? The static temperature increases 970. Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are: Thin aerofoil and sweep back of the wing 971. A normal shock wave is a discontinuity plane: That is normal to the local flow 972. The critical Mach number for an aerofoil is the free stream Mach number at which: Sonic speed (M=1) is first reached on the upper surface 973. At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): Increases 974. An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed? It increases as temperature increases 975. Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave? The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic 976. If the Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 480 kts, what is the speed of sound? 600 kts 977. Behind a normal shock wave on an aerofoil section the local Mach number is: Less than 1 978. When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will Increase 979. When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will Increase 980. When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is Increased
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981. The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that Kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy 982. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a Higher compression 983. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock wave has a Higher loss in total pressure 984. The buffet margin: Increases during a descent with a constant IAS 985. What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS? The value of Mcrit: Increases 986. The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called the Transonic range 987. Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear at the Upper side of the wing 988. If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper side of the wing Moves into trailing edge direction 989. Shock induced separation results in Decreasing lift 990. When shock stall occurs, lift will decrease because: Flow separation occurs behind the shock wave 991. Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number? No, this is not acceptable 992. To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil section: Its thickness to chord ratio should be reduced 993. The critical Mach number can be increased by Sweepback of the wings 994. Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to Apply area rule 995. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will Decrease the shock wave induced separation 996. The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the Wave drag 997. Tuck under can happen: Only above the critical Mach number 998. The high speed buffet is induced by Boundary layer separation due to shock waves
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999. What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS? Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack 1000. Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct? Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature 1001. How do 1) static pressure 2) dynamic pressure 3) total pressure 4) static temperature 5) total temperature 6) velocity Change in a divergent inlet duct of a turbine engine flying as transonic speed? 1, 4 increase, 2, 6 decrease, 3, 5 remain constant 1002. Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph? Aerodynamics 1003. At an aircraft weight of 80.000 lbs in 1 G level flight at FL350, your low speed buffet boundary will be: 222 kts
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1004. An aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL350 at constant altitude with a bank angle of 50°. The lowspeed buffet boundary is.... (i) and the high-speed buffet boundary is .... (ii): (i) M 0,69 (ii) M 0,84
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1005. What are the low and high buffet onset speeds, given the following conditions? FL350 Mass: 110.000 kg Bank angle: 50° M 0,73 and M 0,83
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1006. Given: Level flight (1G) Cruise level FL340 Aircraft mass 110.000 kg CG: 35 % The low-speed buffet boundary is .... (i) and the high-speed buffet boundary is .... (ii): (i) M 0,52 (ii) M 0,84
1007. The speed range from approximately M=1.3 to approximately M=5 are called the: Supersonic range 1008. Which statement with respect to the transonic speed range is correct? The transonic speed range starts at Mcrit and extends to Mach numbers above M=1 1009. What is the effect of aeroplane mass on shock wave intensity at constant Mach number? Increasing mass increases shock wave intensity
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1010. What will happen if a large transport aeroplane slowly decelerates in level flight from its cruise speed in still air at high altitude? Stick shaker activation or low speed buffeting 1011. Which type of buffet will occur if a jet aeroplane slowly accelerates in level flight from its cruise speed in still air at high altitude? Mach buffet 1012. Which of these statements on shock stall is correct? Shock stall is a stall due to flow separation caused by a shock wave 1013. Shock induced separation can occur: Behind a strong normal shock wave, independent of angle of attack 1014. As altitude increases, the stall speed (IAS): Initially remains constant but at higher altitude increases 1015. The increase in stall speed (IAS) with increasing altitude is due to: Compressibility effects 1016. When altitude increases, the stall speed (IAS) will: Increase due to increasing compressibility effects as a result of increasing Mach number 1017. Mach buffet occurs: Following boundary layer separation due to shock wave formation 1018. The effect of increasing angle of sweep is: An increase in the critical Mach number 1019. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect? 1) Increasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit 2) Increasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number 1) is correct 2) is correct 1020. Mcrit is increased by: Sweepback, thin aerofoil and area ruling 1021. A supercritical wing: Will develop no noticeable shock waves when flying just above Mcrit 1022. In comparison to a conventional aerofoil section, typical shape characteristics of a supercritical aerofoil section are: A larger nose radius, flatter upper surface and negative as well as positive camber 1023. One advantage of a supercritical wing aerofoil over a conventional one is: It allows a wing of increased relative thickness to be used for approximately the same cruise Mach number 1024. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect? 1) Increasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit 2) Increasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1025. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect? 1) Increasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit 2) Increasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1026. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect? 1) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit 2) Decreasing wing sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1027. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect? 1) Decreasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit 2) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1028. Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or incorrect? 1) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit 2) Decreasing wing sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number 1) is correct 2) is correct 1029. When the speed over an aerofoil section increases from subsonic to supersonic, its aerodynamic centre: Moves from 25% to about 50% of the chord 1030. As the Mach number increases from subsonic to supersonic, the centre of pressure moves: To the mid chord position 1031. The movement of the aerodynamic centre of the wing when an aeroplane accelerates through the transonic range causes: An increase in static longitudinal stability 1032. In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is: Rectangular 1033. When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is: Decreased 1034. In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are: Within a conical zone, dependent on the Mach number 1035. The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number is due to: Wave drag 1036. The bow wave will appear first at: A free stream Mach number just above M=1 1037. How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it? Density will increase, temperature will increase When a shock wave occurs in supersonic flow, pressure increases accross the shock wave, this means pressure before the shock wave is lower than behind. This compression leads also to a temperature increase. Density is increased by the pressure increase while the temperature rise has an opposing effect on density. But the pressure increase has always a much stronger effect on density than the temperature increase and therefore both, density and temperature increase across a shock wave 1038. If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the Mach cone angle will: Decrease 1039. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will Decrease
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1040. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will Increase 1041. When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will Decrease 1042. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow? 1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind. 2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind. 1 and 2 are correct 1043. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow? 1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind it. 2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it. 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect 1044. In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is Small but still supersonic 1045. If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed, the aerodynamic centre will move: Aft to approximately mid chord 1046. At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface? The ground speed of the aeroplane 1047. The critical speed where the speed is too low and too high at the same time is called: Coffin corner 1048. Tuck under is a phenomenon which occur: On a/c in transonic flight 1049. Mcrit is the speed at which Sonic flow is first achieved above the surface of the airfoil 1050. Stick pusher is installed in aircraft when: The a/c has failed to meet the stalling requirements by normal category 1051. Superstall is a condition Which is a stable stall with almost a constant pitch attitude 1052. What is the danger when recovering from an emergency descent? Structural damage 1053. How is the Mach angle calculated? Sin (mu) = 1/M 1054. When supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shock wave, how do (1) static pressure, (2) density, and (3) local speed of sound change? (1) increases, (2) increases, (3) increases
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1055. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 2) The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 1) is correct,2) is correct 1056. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 2) The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1057. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 2) The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1058. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 2) The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 1) is correct,2) is correct 1059. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The density in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 2) The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1060. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 2) The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1061. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 2) The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 1) is correct,2) is correct 1062. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than behind it 2) The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than behind it 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1063. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The density behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 2) The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 1) is correct,2) is correct 1064. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The density behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 2) The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1065. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The density behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 2) The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect
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1066. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 2) The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1067. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 2) The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1068. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 2) The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1069. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 2) The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 1) is correct,2) is correct 1070. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 2) The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1071. Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or incorrect? 1) The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front of it 2) The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front of it 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1072. In supersonic flight, any disturbance around a body affects the flow only: Within the Mach cone 1073. 1.4
What is the value of the Mach number if the Mach angle equals 45°?
1074. The relation between the Mach angle (mu) and the corresponding Mach number is: Sin mu = 1/M 1075. The sonic boom of an aeroplane flying at supersonic speed is created by: Shock waves around the aeroplane
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1076. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where: Pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack 1077. "Tuck under" is: The tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime 1078. "Tuck under" may happen at: High Mach numbers 1079. Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct? A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number 1080. In the event of failure of the Mach trimmer: The Mach number must be limited 1081. The dihedral construction of an aircraft wing provides: Lateral stability about the longitudinal axis 1082. Compared to straight wings, swept back wings have Better directional stability 1083. The phugoid motion is a long term oscillation around the Lateral axis 1084. Which statement concerning sweepback is correct? Sweepback provides a positive contribution to static lateral stability 1085. If an airplane has poor longitudinal stability in flight, what can be done to increase the stability? Increase stabiliser surface area 1086. Deflecting the elevator up, when the trim tab is in neutral will cause the tab to: Remain in line with the elevator 1087. A swept wing will for a given angle of attack and wing area: Be more laterally stable and produce less lift 1088. Dutch roll occurs when: Lateral stability is too great compared to directional stability 1089. Ventral fin has its greatest effect at Low speed, high angle of attack 1090. If the radius of a turn, flown at constant IAS is increased, the angle of bank will Decrease 1091. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect? 1) "Tuck under" is caused by an aft movement of the centre of pressure of the wing 2) "Tuck under" is caused by a reduction in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser 1) is correct,2) is correct 1092. What is the effect of exceeding Mcrit on the stick force stability of an aeroplane with swept-back wings without any form of stability augmentation? A decrease, due to loss of lift in the wing root area
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1093. An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if: At transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane displays an unacceptable decrease in longitudinal stick force stability 1094. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect? 1) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is a forward movement of the centre of pressure of the wing 2) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is an increase in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1095. Which of these statements about "tuck under" are correct or incorrect? 1) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is a forward movement of the centre of pressure of the wing 2) A contributing factor to "tuck under" is a reduction in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1096. Consider an aeroplane with: 1) a trim tab 2) fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal stabiliser For both cases and starting from a trimmed condition, how will the neutral position of the control column change, after trimming for a speed increase? 1 moves forward, 2 does not change 1097. Consider two elevator control systems: 1) is fitted with a trim tab 2) is fitted with fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal stabiliser For both cases and starting from a trimmed condition, how will the neutral position of the control column change, after trimming for a speed decrease? 1 moves aft, 2 does not change 1098. The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Which of these statements about the stick force stability is correct? An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more effect on the stick force than an increase of 10 kt from the timed position at high speed 1099. How can a pilot recognise static stick force stability in an aeroplane during flight? To maintain a speed below the trim speed requires a pull force 1100. The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point. Which of these statements about the stick force stability is correct? An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at high speed has less effect on the stick force than an increase of 10 kt from the timed position at low speed 1101. When moving the centre of gravity forward the stick force per g will: Increase 1102. Stick force per g: Is dependent on CG location 1103. If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force per g, this problem can be resolved by installing: A bob weight in the control system which pulls the stick forwards 1104. Which statement is correct? 1) Stick force per g is independent of altitude 2) Stick force per g increases when the centre of gravity moves forward 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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1105. What is the effect of elevator trim tab adjustment on the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane? No effect 1106. Which statement concerning longitudinal stability and control is correct? A bob weight and a down spring have the same effect on the stick force stability 1107. During a phugoid, the speed: Varies significantly, whereas during a short period oscillation it remains approximately constant 1108. During a short period oscillation, the altitude: Remains approximately constant, whereas during a phugoid it varies significantly 1109. Which statement is correct? The short period oscillation should always be heavily dampened 1110. What is the recommended action following failure of the yaw damper(s) of a jet aeroplane, flying at normal cruise altitude and speed prior to encountering Dutch roll problems? Reduce altitude and Mach number 1111. If the static lateral stability of an aeroplane is increased, whilst its static directional stability remains constant: Its sensitivity to Dutch roll increases 1112. An aeroplane is sensitive to Dutch roll when: Static lateral stability is much more pronounced than static directional stability 1113. An example of a combined lateral and directional periodic motion is a: Dutch roll 1114. An example of a combined lateral and directional aperiodic motion is a: Spiral dive
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1115. A control surface has its limitations in movement by: Primary stops at the surface 1116. A primary stop is mounted on an elevator control system in order to: Restrict the range of movement of the elevator 1117. What is the reason for mass balancing a control surface? To move the centre of gravity forward thereby preventing flutter 1118. Yaw
Rudder controls:
1119. The purpose of the horizontal stabilizer is to: Give the aeroplane sufficient longitudinal stability 1120. The pilot use the rudder to provide control around the: Normal axis 1121. Pitch is movement around the Lateral axis 1122. The following is true concerning a balance tab. It is: A form of aerodynamic balance 1123. The movement of an aircraft is defined along three axes which all pass through: The centre of gravity 1124. It is possible to have an aileron control aerodynamically balanced by: Setting the hinge back into the control surface 1125. Some airplanes have spring tabs mounted into the control system: This is to provide: A reduction in the pilots’ effort to move the controls against high air loads 1126. A balance tab is installed to provide: Reduced control column movement resistance 1127. A yaw damper is a system which: Increase directional stability 1128. When inner and outer ailerons are mounted, outer ailerons are used: At low speeds 1129. When ice is present on the stabilizer, deflection of flaps may cause: The stabilizer to stall and a vertical dive 1130. The lateral axis is also called the Pitch axis 1131. A downward adjustment of a trim tab in the longitudinal control system has the following effect: The stick position stability remains constant 1132. Upward deflection of a trim tab in the longitudinal control results in: The stick position stability remaining constant
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1133. A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly increased from an equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the: CG 1134. An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and both inboard and outboard ailerons. Roll control during cruise is provided by: Inboard ailerons and roll spoilers 1135. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct? In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection 1136. In what phase of flight are the outboard ailerons (if fitted) not active? Cruise 1137. Outboard ailerons (if present) are normally used: In low speeds flight only 1138. The most important factor determining the required position of the Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser (THS) for takeoff is the: Position of the aeroplane's centre of gravity 1139. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) When trimmed for zero elevator stick force an elevator trim tab causes more drag 2) A horizontal trimmable stabiliser enables a larger CG range 1) is correct 2) is correct 1140. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) When trimmed for zero elevator stick force a horizontal trimmable stabiliser causes more drag 2) A horizontal trimmable stabiliser enables a larger CG range 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1141. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) When trimmed for zero elevator stick force an elevator trim tab causes more drag 2) An elevator trim tab enables a larger CG range 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1142. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) A trim tab is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range 2) A stabiliser trim is a more powerful means of trimming 1) is correct 2) is correct 1143. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) A stabiliser trim is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range 2) A trim tab is a more powerful means of trimming 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1144. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) A trim tab is less suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range 2) A trim tab is a more powerful means of trimming 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1145. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) A stabiliser trim is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes 2) A trim tab runaway causes less control difficulty 1) is correct 2) is correct 1146. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) An elevator trim tab is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes 2) A stabiliser trim runaway causes less control difficulty 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1147. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) A stabiliser trim tab is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes 2) A stabiliser trim runaway causes less control difficulty 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1148. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) The effects of a trim tab runaway are more serious 2) A jammed stabiliser trim causes less control difficulty 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1149. Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) The effects of a trim tab runaway are more serious 2) A jammed trim tab causes less control difficulty 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1150. When comparing a stabiliser trim system with an elevator trim system, which of these statements is correct? A stabiliser trim is less sensitive to flutter 1151. Mass balancing of control surfaces is used to: Prevent flutter of control surfaces 1152. Control surface flutter can be eliminated by: Mass balancing of the control surface
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1153. Wing flutter may be caused by a: Combination of bending and torsion of the wing structure 1154. For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is: The speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW 1155. A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: MMO 1156. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach Number with constant mass. The operational speed limit that may be exceeded is: VMO 1157. The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula: (SQRT= square root) VA= VS SQRT (2.5) 1158. By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%? 10% lower 1159. Which load factor determines VA? Manoeuvring limit load factor 1160. What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA? It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards 1161. 2.5
What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram?
1162. VA is: The maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed 1163. Load factor is: Lift/Weight 1164. is: 4.4
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration
1165. Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is correct? At constant IAS the Mach number increases 1166. 2.0
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:
1167. Flutter sensitivity of an aeroplane wing is reduced by: Locating the engine ahead of the torsional axis of the wing 1168. Vra is the speed recommended for: Penetration of severe turbulence 1169. On FAR 23 airplane, the limit load factor in normal category is +3,8 G
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1170. The significance of VA for jet transport aeroplanes is reduced at high cruising altitudes because: Buffet onset limitations normally become limiting 1171. VMO: Should be not greater than VC 1172. Assuming no compressibility effects, the correct relationship between stall speed, limit load factor (n) and VA is: VA>=VS*SQRT (n) 1173. A fundamental difference between the manoeuvring limit load factor and the gust limit load factor is, that: The gust limit load factor can be higher than the manoeuvring limit load factor 1174. Which factor should be taken into account when determining VA? The limit load factor 1175. Which statement regarding the manoeuvre and gust load diagram in the clean configuration is correct? 1) The gust load diagram has a symmetrical shape with respect to the n=1 line for speeds above VB 2) The manoeuvre load diagram does not extend beyond the speed VC 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1176. The manoeuvring speed VA, expressed as indicated airspeed, of a transport aeroplane: Depends on aeroplane mass and pressure altitude 1177. The stall speed lines in the manoeuvring load diagram originate from a point where the: Speed = 0, load factor = 0 1178. The stall speed lines in the manoeuvring load diagram runs through a point where the: Speed = VA, load factor = limit load factor 1179. The stall speed line in the manoeuvring load diagram runs through a point where the: Speed = VS, load factor = +1 1180. Flutter of control surfaces is: A divergent oscillatory motion of a control surface caused by the interaction of aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and the stiffness of the structure 1181. Wing flutter can be prevented by: Ensuring that the wing CG is ahead of its torsional axis 1182. Aileron flutter can be caused by: Cyclic deformations generated by aerodynamic, inertial and elastic loads on the wing 1183. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) Wing mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter suppression 2) Excessive free play or backlash reduces the speed at which control surface flutter occurs 1) is correct 2) is correct 1184. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) Moving the engines from the wing to the aft fuselage improves wing flutter suppression 2) Excessive free play or backlash increases the speed at which control surface flutter occurs 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1185. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) Wing mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter suppression 2) Excessive free play or backlash increases the speed at which control surface flutter occurs 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1186. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) Aero-elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics 2) Occurrence of flutter is independent of IAS 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1187. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) Aero-elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics 2) The risk of flutter increases as IAS increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1188. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) Aero-elastic coupling affects flutter characteristics 2) Occurrence of flutter is independent of IAS 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1189. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) If flutter occurs, IAS should be reduced 2) Resistance to flutter increases with increasing wing stiffness 1) is correct 2) is correct 1190. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) If flutter occurs, IAS should be kept constant 2) Resistance to flutter increases with increasing wing stiffness 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1191. Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? 1) If flutter occurs, IAS should be reduced 2) Resistance to flutter increases with reducing wing stiffness 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1192. The first action in event of propeller runaway (overspeed condition), should be to: Close the throttle 1193. A typical fixed pitch propeller (C-172) is designed to achieve its optimum angle of attack at: Cruise speed 1194. A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear tends to rotate the aircraft to the Left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis 1195. A variable pitch propeller during take-off will move towards: Fine pitch to ensure that the engine can develop its maximum power 1196. The windmilling of a propeller will cause: Drag to be produced instead of thrust 1197. If an increase in power tends to make the nose of the aircraft to dip, this is the result of the: Line of thrust being above the centre of gravity
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1198. With the propeller windmilling after an engine failure, the ATM and CTM will act in the same direction ATM: Aerodynamic twisting moment The aerodynamic force that acts on the propeller blade creates a twisting moment on the blade. The axis of rotation of a blade is near the center of its chord line and the center of pressure is between the axis and the leading edge. Aerodynamic lift acting through the center of pressure normally tries to rotate the blade to a higher pitch angle but in case of a windmilling propeller it tries to rotate the blade to a lower pitch angle. CTM: Centrifugal twisting moment The force moment, acting about the longitudinal axis of a propeller blade, which tries to rotate the blade toward a low pitch angle? As the engine rotates, centrifugal force tries to flatten the blade so all of its mass rotates in the same plane. Centrifugal twisting moment (CTM) opposes aerodynamic twisting moment (ATM), but normally CTM is the greater. The resultant of these two twisting moments is a force on a rotating propeller that tries to move the blades towards a low pitch angle 1199. The output of a turboprop engine is usually indicated by, Torque 1200. The greatest drag produced by the variable pitch propeller on a piston engine will occur when the propeller is: Windmilling 1201. The purpose of the feathering stop on a variable pitch propeller is to: Prevent the propeller blades from moving beyond the feather position 1202. The twisting of a propeller blade from root to tip has been made to: Provide a constant angle of attack from root to tip 1203. A propeller is said to be "double acting" when it: Uses oil pressure to move the blade toward fine and coarse 1204. The de-icing of a propeller by fluid is achieved through: Slinger rings 1205. In a single engine a/c with clockwise rotating propeller, a left yaw is generated due to: The slipstream, striking the fin on the left side 1206. The four forces of lift, weight, thrust and drag in level flight act through: The C of G 1207. The glide range of an aircraft is affected by: The lift/drag ratio 1208. Vmcg is defined as the minimum speed which directional control on the ground can be recovered and maintained under which condition: By use of rudder only 1209. During a take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a four-engine jet aeroplane with wing-mounted engines experiences an engine failure. The failure of which engine will cause the greatest control problem? The left outboard engine 1210. The stick force per g or a heavy transport aeroplane is 300 N/g. What stick force is required, if the aeroplane in the clean configuration is pulled to the limit manoeuvring load factor from a trimmed horizontal straight and steady flight? 450 N
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1211. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and temperature? Decreases, because the engine thrust decreases 1212. VMCL is the: Minimum control speed approach and landing 1213. During a take-off roll with a strong crosswind from the right, a four-engine jet aeroplane with wing-mounted engines experiences an engine failure. The failure of which engine will cause the greatest control problem? The right outboard engine 1214. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 360 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 180 N/g 1215. Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to the value for minimum glide angle is: Point 2
1216. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 39% 1217. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 83%
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1218. The load factor is less than 1 (one): During a wings level stall before recovery 1219. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.8, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1220. Static lateral stability will be decreased by: The use of a low, rather than high, wing mounting 1221. Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg Lift/drag ratio: 12 Thrust per engine: 30000 N Assumed g: 10m/s2 For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a three-engine aeroplane, the all-engines climb gradient is: 9.7 % 1222. Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane? 1) Pitch down produces left yaw 2) Left yaw produces pitch down 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1223. The speed range between high and low speed buffet: Increases during a descent with a constant IAS 1224. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1225. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes 1) is correct 2) is correct 1226. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1227. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
1228. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1229. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1230. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1231. An aeroplane is flying in the transonic speed range in straight and level flight. If the Mach number decreases, what additional input or action will be required to maintain straight and level flight to compensate for the centre of pressure's movement, whilst exiting the transonic region? A pitch down input to the elevator or the stabiliser
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1232. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) Flying at M = 0.8 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset 2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75 1) is correct,2) is correct
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1233. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset 2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is lower at M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1234. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset 2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1235. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. Determine the maximum mass with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for FL 400: 110 tons 1236. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. Determine the maximum altitude with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for a mass of 120 tons: FL 380 at M = 0.80 1237. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. To avoid low speed buffet in a turn at 30 degrees of bank and at a mass of 100 tons the following conditions must be fulfilled (approximately): FL < = 410 at M > = 0.69 or FL < = 380 at M > = 0.64 1238. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 90 tons is approximately: 1.75g at M = 0.80 1239. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 104 tons is approximately: 1.5 g at M 0.80 1240. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 250 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately: 2g at M = 0.80 1241. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 400 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately: 1g at M = 0.80 1242. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 140 tons: the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL 360 is from approximately M = 0.74 to M = 0.84 1243. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 140 tons: Buffet free flight at 1g at FL 410 is not possible 1244. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 140 tons: At FL 400 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only 1245. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 130 tons: The buffet free range in 1g flight at FL 410 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83 1246. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 90 tons carries out a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.6 at FL 380. The buffet free speed range extends approximately from: M = 0.74 to M = 0.84
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1247. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 100 tons carries out a steady level 50 degree bank turn at FL 360. The buffet free speed range extends approximately from: M = 0.72 to M > 0.84 1248. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1249. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1250. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1251. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change 1) is correct,2) is correct 1252. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1253. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1254. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range increases 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1255. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1256. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range decreases 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1257. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect
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1258. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range increases 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1259. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1260. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range increases 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1261. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1262. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1263. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1264. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1265. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1266. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1267. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1268. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect
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1269. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1270. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1271. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1272. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1273. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1274. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1275. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1276. From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane it is determined that at FL 310 at a given mass buffet free flight is possible between M = 0.74 and M = 0.88. In what way would these numbers change if the aeroplane is suddenly pulled up, e.g. in a traffic avoidance manoeuvre? The lower Mach number increases and the higher Mach number decreases 1277. The maximum cruise altitude can be limited by a 1.3g load factor because when exceeding that altitude: Turbulence may induce high speed or low speed buffet 1278. Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the highest Mcrit values? (1) thin and (2) small. 1279. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: Its leading edge radius is increased 1280. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: It is flown at higher angles of attack 1281. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: Its camber is increased 1282. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: Its thickness to chord ratio is increased
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1283. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if: Its leading edge radius is decreased 1284. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if: It is flown at lower angles of attack 1285. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if: Its camber is decreased 1286. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 240 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 120 N/g 1287. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 100 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 50 N/g 1288. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 360 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 180 N/g 1289. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 150 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 75 N/g 1290. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 150 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 100 N/g 1291. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 450 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 300 N/g 1292. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 250 N/g 1293. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 225 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 150 N/g 1294. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 75 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 225 N 1295. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 450 N 1296. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 125 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 375 N 1297. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 50 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 150 N
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1298. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 100 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 150 N 1299. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 300 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 450 N 1300. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 250 N/g 1301. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 250 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady level trimmed flight is: 375 N 1302. The tab in the figure represents A servo tab
1303. The tab in the figure represents: A balance tab that also functions as a trim tab
1304. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a given load factor greater than 1 will be: Larger 1305. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be: Smaller 1306. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be: Larger
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1307. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve an increase in load factor will be: Smaller 1308. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane in the clean configuration at VD may not be less than: 0 1309. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane in the clean configuration up to VC may not be less than: -1 1310. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration may not be less than: -1.76 1311. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean configuration may not be less than: -1.52 1312. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic category in the clean configuration may not be less than: -3.0 1313. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic category in the clean configuration may not be less than: 6.0 1314. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean configuration may not be less than: 3.8 1315. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 2.00 1316. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1317. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.8, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1318. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.7 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.7, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1319. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.6, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.6 VS with that gust 1320. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.5, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.5 VS with that gust
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1321. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.4 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.4, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.4 VS with that gust 1322. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.3 VS with that gust 1323. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.2, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.2 VS with that gust 1324. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.1, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.1 VS with that gust 1325. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.95 the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 2.00 1326. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 2.00 1327. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.8 VS would be: n = 1.90 1328. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.3 VS would be: Not greater than 1.69, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.3 VS 1329. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct? Propeller angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and relative airflow Which definition of propeller parameters is correct? Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane 1330. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 2.25 The speed will have increased by 50 kt 1331. For a fixed-pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack Decreases during the take-off 1332. The effective pitch of a propeller is the: Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution 1333. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1334. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch 2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect
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1335. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1336. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1337. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is correct,2) is correct 1338. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be resolved into two components: - a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust) - a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during reverse operation is: Diagram 2
1339. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 15° and a TAS of 530 kt? 650 s 1340. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 380 kt? 125 s
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1341. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 288 kt? 95 s 1342. 6
Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1343. 4
Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1344. 5
Which diagram shows a right co-ordinated turn?
1345. 3
Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1346. 1
Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1347. 2
Which diagram shows a left co-ordinated turn?
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1348. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use: More right rudder
1349. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use: Less right rudder 1350. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use: Less left rudder 1351. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use: More left rudder 1352. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use: Less bank angle 1353. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use: More bank angle 1354. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use: More bank angle 1355. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use: Less bank angle 1356. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: Less left bank 1357. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More left rudder
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1358. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More left bank 1359. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: Less left rudder 1360. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: Less right bank 1361. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More right rudder 1362. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More right bank 1363. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 15 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rate one turn? 45 degrees 1364. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 30 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rate one turn? 90 degrees 1365. Compared with a level, co-ordinated turn, in order to maintain constant speed during straight and level flight, the pilot must: Decrease thrust and angle of attack 1366. When shock stall occurs: There will be flow separation 1367. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1368. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge 1) is correct 2) is correct 1369. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1370. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1371. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1372. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity increases as the streamlines diverge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1373. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity increases as the streamlines diverge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1374. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity increases as the streamlines diverge 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1375. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines converge 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1376. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1377. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge 2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge 1) is correct 2) is correct 1378. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1379. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1380. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1381. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity decreases as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1382. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1383. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1384. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity does not change as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1385. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure does not change as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity increases as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1386. Which of these statements about a steady subsonic airflow are correct or incorrect? 1) the static pressure increases as the streamlines converge 2) the velocity increases as the streamlines converge 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1387. An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical gust. The point on the wing, where the instantaneous variation in wing lift effectively acts is known as the: Aerodynamic centre of the wing 1388. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.96: The speed will have increased by 40 kt 1389. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.69: The speed will have increased by 30 kt 1390. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 200 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.69: The speed will have increased by 60 kt 1391. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.69: The speed will have increased by 90 kt 1392. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.44: The speed will have increased by 60 kt 1393. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.69: The speed will have increased by 90 kt 1394. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 200 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.44: The speed will have increased by 40 kt
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1395. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.44: The speed will have increased by 20 kt 1396. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 1.21: The speed will have increased by 10 kt 1397. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 200 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value 1.21: The speed will have increased by 20 kt 1398. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 100 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Decrease to 0.25 1399. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 80 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Decrease to 0.36 1400. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 60 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Decrease to 0.49 1401. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 40 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Decrease to 0.64 1402. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 20 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Decrease to 0.81 1403. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 10 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Decrease to 0.90 1404. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 100 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 2.25 1405. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 80 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 1.96 1406. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 60 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 1.69 1407. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 40 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 1.44 1408. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 20 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 1.21
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1409. An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 10 kt. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially: Increase to 1.10 1410. Which of these statements about the strenght of wing tip vortices are correct or incorrect? 1) Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip vortices inceases as the angle of attack decreases 2) The strength of wing tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1411. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases, induced drag decreases 2) When mass decreases, induced drag decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1412. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases, induced drag increases 2) When mass decreases, induced drag increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1413. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases, induced drag decreases 2) When mass decreases, induced drag increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1414. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases, induced drag increases 2) When mass decreases, induced drag decreases 1) is correct 2) is correct 1415. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases, induced drag increases 2) When mass increases, induced drag increases 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1416. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases, induced drag decreases 2) When mass increases, induced drag decreases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1417. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases, induced drag increases 2) When mass increases, induced drag decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1418. Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases, induced drag decreases 2) When mass increases, induced drag increases 1) is correct 2) is correct
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1419. In straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 25% 1420. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 28% 1421. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 31% 1422. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.7 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 35% 1423. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 39% 1424. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 44% 1425. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.4 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 51% 1426. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.2 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 69% 1427. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be: 83% 1428. VS1g
The minimum speed at which lift equals weight is called:
1429. VSR
The reference stall speed is represented by the following:
1430. VS0
The stall speed in the landing configuration is represented by the following:
1431. VS1
The stall speed in a specified configuration is represented by the following:
1432. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or incorrect? 1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 1) is incorrect 2) is correct
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1433. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or incorrect? 1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1434. Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of pressure location are correct or incorrect? 1) The centre of pressure on an unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 2) When sweep back increases the centre of pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1435. The load factor is less than 1 (one): During a push-over manoeuvre 1436. The load factor is greater than 1 (one): During a pull-up manoeuvre 1437. The load factor is less than 1 (one): During a wings level stall before recovery 1438. The load factor is less than 1 (one): During a steady wings level descent 1439. The load factor is less than 1 (one): During a steady wings level climb 1440. The load factor is less than 1 (one): When weight is greater than lift 1441. The load factor is less than 1 (one): When lift is less than weight 1442. The load factor is equal to 1 (one): In steady wings level horizontal flight 1443. The load factor is greater than 1 (one): During recovery after a wings level stall 1444. The load factor is greater than 1 (one): During a steady co-ordinated horizontal turn 1445. The load factor is less than 1 (one): During a push-over manoeuvre 1446. The load factor is greater than 1 (one): When weight is less than lift 1447. When flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will: Eventually remain the same 1448. The highest value of the CL/CD ratio of an aeroplane is obtained: In the clean configuration 1449. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: TAS remains constant 1450. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: IAS decreases
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1451. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: Lift coefficient increases 1452. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: TAS remains constant 1453. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: IAS increases
1454. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: Lift coefficient decreases 1455. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: TAS decreases 1456. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: IAS decreases 1457. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: Lift coefficient increases 1458. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: Lift coefficient increases 1459. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: TAS increases 1460. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant Mach number and aeroplane mass, the: IAS increases 1461. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will: Move aft as Mach number is increased 1462. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will: Move forward as Mach number is decreased 1463. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will: Move slightly forward in front of a upward deflecting aileron 1464. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will: Move slightly aft in front of a downward deflecting aileron 1465. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1466. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is equal to the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1467. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1468. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD decreases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1469. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD increases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1470. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is equal to the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD increases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1471. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD increases above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is correct 2) is correct 1472. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD remains practically constant above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1473. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number 2) Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD remains practically constant above the drag divergence Mach number 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1474. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD decreases as the Mach number decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1475. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD decreases as the Mach number decreases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1476. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases 1) is correct 2) is incorrect 1477. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect
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1478. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases 1) is incorrect 2) is incorrect 1479. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes 1) is correct 2) is correct 1480. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1481. Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are correct or incorrect? 1) The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit 2) Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes 1) is incorrect 2) is correct 1482. An aeroplane is flying in the transonic speed range in straight and level flight. If the Mach number decreases, what additional input or action will be required to maintain straight and level flight to compensate for the centre of pressure's movement, whilst exiting the transonic region? A pitch down input to the elevator or the stabiliser
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1483. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) Flying at M = 0.8 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset 2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75 1) is correct,2) is correct
1484. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset 2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is lower at M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect
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1485. Regarding to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? 1) Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with respect to buffet onset 2) The maximum altitude that can be achieved with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations is higher at M = 0.82 than at M = 0.75 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1486. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. Determine the maximum mass with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for FL 400: 110 tons 1487. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. Determine the maximum altitude with respect to buffet onset according EASA/CS regulations for a mass of 120 tons: FL 380 at M = 0.80 1488. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. To avoid low speed buffet in a turn at 30 degrees of bank and at a mass of 100 tons the following conditions must be fulfilled (approximately): FL < = 410 at M > = 0.69 or FL < = 380 at M > = 0.64 1489. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 90 tons is approximately: 1.75g at M = 0.80 1490. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 380 at a mass of 104 tons is approximately: 1.5 g at M 0.80 Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. 1491. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 250 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately: 2g at M = 0.80 1492. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. The maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL 400 at a mass of 140 tons is approximately: 1g at M = 0.80 1493. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 140 tons: the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL 360 is from approximately M = 0.74 to M = 0.84 1494. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 140 tons: Buffet free flight at 1g at FL 410 is not possible 1495. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 140 tons: At FL 400 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only 1496. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. At a mass of 130 tons: The buffet free range in 1g flight at FL 410 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83 1497. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 90 tons carries out a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.6 at FL 380. The buffet free speed range extends approximately from: M = 0.74 to M = 0.84 1498. Refer to the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart below. A jet transport aeroplane with a mass of 100 tons carries out a steady level 50 degree bank turn at FL 360. The buffet free speed range extends approximately from: M = 0.72 to M > 0.84
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1499. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1500. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1501. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range decreases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1502. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) The the CG moves aft the buffet free range increases 2) When the Mach number decreases the buffet free range does not change 1) is correct,2) is correct 1503. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1504. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1505. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range increases 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1506. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When the Mach number increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the load factor decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1507. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range decreases 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1508. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect
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1509. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range increases 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1510. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed decreases the buffet free range does not change 2) When the CG moves forward the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1511. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range increases 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1512. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1513. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1514. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When speed increases the buffet free range does not change 2) When altitude decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1515. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1516. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1517. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range increases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1518. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When altitude increases the buffet free range decreases 2) When load factor increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1519. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct
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1520. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1521. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1522. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range decreases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1523. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) During a push-over manoeuvre the buffet free range increases 2) When the mass increases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1524. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1525. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1526. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1527. Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1) When initiating a steady horizontal turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases 2) When mass decreases the buffet free range increases 1) is correct,2) is correct 1528. From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane it is determined that at FL 310 at a given mass buffet free flight is possible between M = 0.74 and M = 0.88. In what way would these numbers change if the aeroplane is suddenly pulled up, e.g. in a traffic avoidance manoeuvre? The lower Mach number increases and the higher Mach number decreases 1529. The maximum cruise altitude can be limited by a 1.3g load factor because when exceeding that altitude: Turbulence may induce high speed or low speed buffet 1530. Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the highest Mcrit values? (1) thin and (2) small. 1531. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: Its leading edge radius is increased 1532. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: It is flown at higher angles of attack
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1533. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: Its camber is increased 1534. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if: Its thickness to chord ratio is increased 1535. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if: Its leading edge radius is decreased 1536. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if: It is flown at lower angles of attack 1537. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if: Its camber is decreased 1538. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 240 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 120 N/g 1539. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 100 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 50 N/g 1540. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 360 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 180 N/g 1541. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 150 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 100 N/g 1542. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 450 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 300 N/g 1543. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 250 N/g 1544. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 225 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 150 N/g 1545. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 75 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 225 N 1546. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 450 N 1547. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 125 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 375 N 1548. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 50 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 150 N 1549. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 100 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 150 N
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1550. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 300 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is: 450 N 1551. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level trimmed flight is 375 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability of that aeroplane is: 250 N/g 1552. The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 250 N/g. The stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady level trimmed flight is: 375 N 1553. The tab in the figure represents: A servo tab
1554. The tab in the figure represents: A balance tab that also functions as a trim tab
1555. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a given load factor greater than 1 will be: Larger 1556. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be: Smaller 1557. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve a decrease in load factor will be: Larger 1558. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve an increase in load factor will be: Smaller 1559. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane in the clean configuration at VD may not be less than: 0 1560. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane in the clean configuration up to VC may not be less than: -1
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1561. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility category in the clean configuration may not be less than: -1.76 1562. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean configuration may not be less than: -1.52 1563. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic category in the clean configuration may not be less than: -3.0 1564. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the aerobatic category in the clean configuration may not be less than: 6.0 1565. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the normal category in the clean configuration may not be less than: 3.8 1566. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 2.00 1567. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1568. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.8, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1569. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.7 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.7, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 3.00 1570. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.6 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.6, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.6 VS with that gust 1571. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.5, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.5 VS with that gust 1572. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.4 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.4, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.4 VS with that gust 1573. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.3 VS with that gust 1574. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.2, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.2 VS with that gust 1575. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.1 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.1, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: Irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.1 VS with that gust 1576. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.9 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.95 the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 2.00
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1577. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.8 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.9, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be: n = 2.00 1578. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.75, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.8 VS would be: n = 1.90 1579. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS. If, at this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 3, the load factor n caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.3 VS would be: Not greater than 1.69, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.3 VS 1580. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct? Propeller angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and relative airflow 1581. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct? Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane 1582. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially and the load factor reaches a value of 2.25 The speed will have increased by 50 kt 1583. For a fixed-pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack Decreases during the take-off 1584. The effective pitch of a propeller is the: Actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution
1585. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is incorrect, 2) is correct 1586. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch 2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1587. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is correct, 2) is incorrect 1588. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with little blade twist is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a significant blade twist is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is incorrect, 2) is incorrect 1589. Which statement is correct? 1) A propeller with a small blade angle is referred to as being in fine pitch 2) A propeller with a large blade angle is referred to as being in coarse pitch 1) is correct,2) is correct
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1590. A rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be resolved into two components: - a force T perpendicular to the plane of rotation (thrust) - a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine power The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during reverse operation is: Diagram 2
1591. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 15° and a TAS of 530 kt? 650 s 1592. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 380 kt? 125 s 1593. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a horizontal steady co-ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 288 kt? 95 s
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1594. 6
Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1595. 4
Which diagram shows a right turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1596. 5
Which diagram shows a right co-ordinated turn?
1597. 3
Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is not enough bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1598. 1
Which diagram shows a left turn, where there is too much bank for a co-ordinated turn?
1599. 2
Which diagram shows a left co-ordinated turn?
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1600. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use: More right rudder
1601. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use: Less right rudder 1602. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use: Less left rudder 1603. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use: More left rudder 1604. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 4 should use: Less bank angle 1605. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 3 should use: More bank angle 1606. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 2 should use: More bank angle 1607. To perform a co-ordinated turn the aeroplane in diagram 1 should use: Less bank angle 1608. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: Less left bank 1609. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More left rudder 1610. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More left bank
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1611. An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: Less left rudder 1612. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: Less right bank 1613. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More right rudder 1614. An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral. One way to co-ordinate the turn is to apply: More right bank 1615. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 15 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rate one turn? 45 degrees 1616. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 30 seconds in a steady co-ordinated horizontal rate one turn? 90 degrees 1617. Compared with a level, co-ordinated turn, in order to maintain constant speed during straight and level flight, the pilot must: Decrease thrust and angle of attack 1618. During a left turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the right. What is the reason? The bank angle is too small or the turn rate too large 1619. During a left turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the left. What is the reason? The bank angle is too large or the turn rate too small 1620. During a right turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the left. What is the reason? The bank angle is too small or the turn rate too large 1621. During a right turn, the slip indicator is deflected to the right. What is the reason? The bank angle is too large or the turn rate too small
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