PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION Professional Practice and Building Laws JPT Review Center (Arch. Pedro Santos Jr.) 1.
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Construction in a building involving changes in the materials used, partitioning, locations / sizes of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and equipment without increasing the overall area. a. Alteration b. Renovation c. Slum upgrading d. Redecoration The transfer of buildings or portions thereof from an original location to another, either within the same lot or to a different one. a. Evacuation b. Reassembly c. Moving d. Disaster displacement Any physical chang e made on a buil ding/ structure to increase its value, utility and/ or to improve its aesthetic quality a. Slum upgrading b. Renovation c. Interior design d. Architectural interiors
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Which of the following is NOT true about the building official, according to Rule II of the IRR of PD 1096? a. The building official must either be a duly registered architect or civil engineer b. The building official must be of good moral character c. The building official must have at least five years of diversified and professional experience in building design and construction d. All of the above are true
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Which of the following violations is the gravest, according to Rule II of the NBC IRR? a. Failure to post Certificate of Occupancy b. Use or occupancy of building/structure without appropriate Certificate of Occupancy c. Non-compliance with work stoppage order for construction or demolition without permit d. Non-compliance with the work stoppage order for the alteration, addition, conversion, or repair without permit
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Whose duty is it to declare buildings as ruinous or dangerous? a. This is the building official’s duty b. This is the secretary’s duty c. This is the architect’s duty d. This is the PRBOA’s PRBOA’s duty
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Which of the following does NOT require a building permit? a. A small patio, only 25 sq m. in area, resting directly on the ground b. A low garden masonry w all that is only 6 mete rs long and only 1.5 meters high c. A greenhouse that measures 2 meters x 3 meters only d. A mini-aviary measurin g 3 meters x 4 meters with a maximum height of less than 6 meters measured from the ground to the apex of the roof What is the minimum distance required between eaves and the rear and side property lines? a. 500mm b. 750mm c. 1000mm d. None of the above. Setbacks are measured not to the eaves, but to the exterior faces of the walls.
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Review Center)
9.
A written authorization gr anted by the Buildi ng Official to an applicant allowing him to proceed with construction after plans, specifications and other pertinent documents have been found to be in conformity with the Code a. Building permit b. Occupancy permit c. FSIC d. FSEC
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According to Rule II of the NB C IRR, which does no t fall under civil/structural documents? a. Roof framing plans b. Boring and load tests c. Seismic analysis d. All of the above are included under civil/structural documents
11.
Firewalls are not allowed for R1 developments. However, an abutment of up to 3.20m in height is allowed, provided that above ____, the abutment shall be made of perforated concrete blocks. a. 1.00m b. 1.20m c. 1.50m d. 1.70m
12.
Does the law permit the owner to proceed with ground preparation and excavation works before the issuance of the building permit? a. No. The owner must wait for the building permit to be issued before he can proceed with excavation works. b. Yes, as long as the Building Official issues the Ground Preparation and Excavation Permit and as long as the owner follows the corresponding rules/requirements. c. The NBC is silent on this matter. d. Both A and C.
13.
Does the law permit the owner to occupy completed portions of the building even though other parts are still being constructed? a. No. The entire building must be completed first and the Certificate of Occupancy for the entire building must be issued before anyone can occupy any portion of the building. b. No, this is extremely dangerous. There must be no ongoing works within the building before anyone may be allowed to occupy it. c. Yes, if the Building Official grants a Partial Certificate of Occupancy to the owner . d. Both A and B
14.
For a sloping lot with a 2.00m difference between the highest and lowest points of the lot, where will the established grade line be for building height determination? a. The lowest point of the lot b. The highest point of the lot c. The average between the two points d. None of the above
15.
What is the minimum parking slot size for a standard truck? a. 2.50m x 5.00m b. 3.00 x 9.00m c. 3.60 x 12.00m d. 3.60 x 18.00m
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If you add the ISA and the USA, what will you get? a. TOSL b. PSO c. MACA d. AMBF
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If you subtract the ISAmax from the MACA, what will you get? a. TOSLmin b. PSOmax
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c. d. 18.
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USAmin BHL
If you multiply the FLAR by the TLA, what will you get? a. AMBF b. GFA c. TGFA d. MACA What is the minimum area for habitable rooms, according to the National Building Code? a. 1.20 sqm b. 3.00 sqm c. 6.00 sqm d. 12.00 sqm What is the minimum air space provision per person for habitable rooms? a. 3.00 cubic meters b. 12.00 cubic meters c. 14 cubic meters d. 18 cubic meters What is the minimum width for an access road serving an interior lot? a. 3.00m b. 4.00m c. 5.00m d. 8.00m What is the minimum ceiling height required for the seventh floor of a naturally-ventilated building? a. 1.80m b. 2.10m c. 2.40m d. 2.70m For agricultural areas, the NBC requires at least _____ of easement for each side of the waterway. a. 3.00m b. 10.00m c. 20.00m d. 40.00m Townhouses are typical of which zoning classification? a. R-2 b. R-4 c. R-5 d. C-1 According to Article 1723 of the Civil Code, wh o shall be held liable if a building collapses due to the use of inferior materials? a. The architect or the engineer who drew up the plans b. The contractor and the construction supervisor c. The building official who reviewed and approved the plans d. Both B and C Before using or occupying a completed building, this document must be issued first. a. Building permit b. Certificate of inspection c. Certificate of compliance d. Certificate of occupancy The Building Code requires that the owner hire a fulltime inspector for the construction. This inspector must be a: a. Licensed architect b. Licensed mechanical engineer c. Licensed contractor d. Either A or B What are the allowable firewall configurations for an R3 project?
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
a. Allowed on one side of property b. Allowed on both sides of the property c. Allowed on one side and the rear d. Both B and C 29.
This term refers to any new construction which increases the height or area of an existing building. a. Addition b. Alteration c. Renovation d. Conversion
30.
This uses wood construction with protective fireresistant materials and is one-hour fire-resistive throughout. a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III and IV d. Type V
31.
The provisions of the National Building Code apply to all public and private buildings except for: a. BP 220 projects b. Buildings made of native materials like wood, nipa, and lumber c. Projects that only involve non-structural repairs d. Both A and B
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Which is not included among the valid grounds for declaring a building as dangerous? a. Structural hazard b. Aesthetic deficiency c. Unsafe electrical wiring d. Inadequate sanitation
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Type I constructions are not allowed in which zones? a. Non-fire restricted zone b. Fire restrictive zone c. Highly fire restrictive zone d. Both B and C
34.
On a non-arcaded RROW, signs may be allowed to project by as much as a. 300mm b. 600mm c. 900mm d. 1200mm
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Should a sign be allowed to project beyond the property line and into an arcaded RROW, a minimum vertical clearance of ___ must be maintained from the road surface to the bottom of the sign. a. 3.00 m b. 4.27 m c. 5.00 m d. 6.00 m
36.
For glass panels that need to larger than 3.00m x 3.00m, the minimum thickness needs to be: a. 8mm b. 10mm c. 12mm d. 15mm
37.
According to the NBC, the ma ximum speed of escalators is a. 90 feet per minute b. 120 feet per minute c. 36 meters per minute d. 38 meters per minute
38.
According to the NBC, the mi nimum stairway width for buildings with an occupant load of 10-50 is a. 1.10m b. 0.90m c. 0.75m d. 0.60m
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For protection of pedestrians, what will be required when the distance between the OFB and the inner
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edge of the sidewalk is equal to 75% of the building height? a. A fence only b. A canopy only c. A fence and a canopy d. A fence, a canopy, and a safet y net 40.
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Every fence or building corner must be truncated at the corner to form a chaflan on roads that are less than 3.60m wide. What is the minimum width of a chaflan? a. 3.00m b. 3.60m c. 4.00m d. 5.00m Which formula could be used to yield building bulk? a. PSOmax * AMBF b. TLA * PSOmax * BHLmeters c. PSOmax * TLA / BHLmeters d. [ (FLAR * TLA) * BHLstoreys] * BHLmeters Which would be included when obtaining GFA? a. Balconies with an area of 5 square meters b. Parking areas equivalent to half the area of one floor c. Utility areas equivalent to not more than one-third of one floor d. Fire escape structures if complying to standards stair measurements of the NBC
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What is required to be provided at the bottom and the top of a ramp? a. A turnabout space with a minimum dimension of 1.50m b. A vestibule with a level space at least 1.50m wide and 2.00m deep c. A curb with a minimum height of 100mm d. A level area not less than 1.80m in length
50.
What are the minimum dimensions of a toilet stall for PWDs? a. 1.50m x 1.50m b. 1.50m x 1.80m c. 1.70m x 1.80m d. 1.80m x 2.00m
51.
What are the minimum dimensions required for elevators? a. Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10m x 1.40m b. Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.40m c. Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70 d. Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70
52.
What is the maximum travel distance allowed for accessible elevators? a. 10.00m from entrance b. 15.00m from entrance c. 20.00m from entrance d. 30.00m from entrance
43.
What is the maximum allowable slope for PWD ramps, according to BP 344? a. 10% b. 12% c. 1:10 d. 1:12
53.
For PWD washrooms, what is the maximum height allowed for a lavatory counter? a. 750mm b. 800mm c. 850mm d. 900mm
44.
For ramps using the maximum allowable slope, a landing must be provided after every 6.00 meters of horizontal travel distance. What is the minimum length of this landing? a. 1.00m b. 1.20m c. 1.50m d. 2.00m
54.
What is the minimum clear width for doors according to BP 344? a. 600mm b. 700mm c. 800mm d. 900mm
55.
A central refuge area with a minimum depth of 1.50m is required for crossings if the width of the road to be crossed exceeds a. 6.50m b. 8.00m c. 10.00m d. 12.00m
56.
What is the minimum headroom for walkways according to BP 344? a. 1.80m b. 2.00m c. 2.10m d. 3.00m
57.
For drainage purposes, a maximum cross gradient of ____ toward the road is allowed for dropped curbs. a. 1:12 b. 1:20 c. 12% d. 20%
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Based on the prescribed hierarchy of roads and road widths in BP 220 and PD 957, which of the following is the narrowest? a. Minor road b. Alley c. Interconnecting road d. Pathwalk
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What is the maximum allowable riser height for stairs in BP 220? a. 150 mm. b. 175 mm. c. 200 mm.
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What is the minimum width required for a curb cutout leading to a 1.20m-wide crossing? a. 0.90m b. 1.00m c. 1.20m d. 1.50m What is the minimum dimension of the required turnabout space for walkways and what should be the maximum distance between two turnabout spaces? a. Minimum dimension of 1.20m, maximum distance of 15.00m b. Minimum dimension of 1.50m, maximum distance of 12.00m c. Minimum dimension of 1.20m, maximum distance of 12.00m d. Minimum dimension of 1.50m, maximum distance of 15.00m Handrails are required for ramps, stairs, and dropped curbs at crossings. These handrails should be installed at what height/s? a. 700mm and 900mm b. 800mm and 900mm c. 900mm and 1000m d. 900mm only What is the minimum width of an accessible parking slot? a. 2.15m b. 2.50m c. 2.70m d. 3.70m
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
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d. 60.
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250 mm.
What is the prescribed ratio for saleable and nonsaleable lots in BP 220? a. 30% saleable, 70% non-saleable b. 70% saleable, 30% non-saleable c. 60% saleable, 40% non-saleable d. None of the above What is the prescribed ratio for saleable and nonsaleable lots in PD 957? a. 30% saleable, 70% non-saleable b. 70% saleable, 30% non-saleable c. 60% saleable, 40% non-saleable d. None of the above Which of the following is true? a. An alley may be used as property access for socialized developments only b. A pathwalk may be used as property access for socialized and economic developments c. A pathwalk length of up to 60.00 m. is allowed d. An alley must have a minimum width of 1.20 m. What is the minimum ceiling height required for socialized and economic housing (not including mezzanines)? a. 2.70 m. b. 2.40 m. c. 2.10 m. d. 2.00 m.
68.
What is the smallest door permitted by BP 220? a. 600 mm. wide x 1800 mm. tall b. 700 mm. wide x 1800 mm. tall c. 700 mm. wide x 2000 mm .tall d. 800 mm. wide x 2000 mm. tall
69.
What is the acceptable range of handrail heights according to BP 220? a. 800-900 mm. from the floor b. 800-100 mm. from the floor c. 800-1200 mm. from the floor d. 800-1500 mm.from the floor
70.
What is the minimum side setback required for socialized and economic housing? a. 1.00 m. b. 1.50 m. c. 2.00 m. d. 4.50 m.
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Parks and playgrounds are required for projects that have a minimum gross area of ___ a. 1 hectare b. 2 hectares c. 3 hectares d. 10 hectares
74.
Which of the following are the last three items on the list of minimum basic needs of human settlements prescribed by BP 220? a. Water, power, storm drainage b. Water, power, parks and playgrounds c. Solid and liquid waste disposal, parks and playgrounds, power d. Storm drainage, parks and playgrounds, power
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For medium-cost and open market housing developments, what is the minimum area required for parks and playgrounds? a. 3.5% of gross area b. 4.0% of gross area c. 5.0% of gross area d. 9.0% of gross area
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What is the minimum floor area required for open market housing? a. 18 sqm. b. 22 sqm. c. 30 sqm. d. 42 sqm.
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What is the minimum level of completion required for PD 957? a. Shell house b. Shell house with doors and windows c. Complete house d. Complete house without interior partitions
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What is the minimum lot area required for open market, duplex housing? a. 50 sqm. b. 80 sqm. c. 96 sqm. d. 120 sqm.
79.
For BP 220, what is the minimum thickness required for firewalls? a. 4 inches b. 5 inches c. 6 inches d. 8 inches
80.
Subdivisions abutting main public roads must provide setbacks on both sides of the subdivision entrance for public utility vehicles. What are the minimum dimensions required for the setback? a. 2.50 m. x 5.00 m. b. 3.00 m. x 5.00 m. c. 3.00 m. x 9.00 m. d. 3.60 m. x 12.00 m.
81.
What is the minimum floor area required for a medium cost family condominium according to PD 957? a. 12 sqm. b. 18 sqm.
Which of the following is prohibited by BP 220 and PD 957? a. A rowhouse cluster of 10 units b. A rowhouse cluster of 20 units c. A rowhouse cluster 100 m. long d. A block 500.00m long with a 2.00m-wide alley approximately at the center
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72. In terms of cost, which of the following is the most expensive? a. Economic housing b. Socialized housing c. Open market housing d. Medium cost housing
For long blocks, an alley must be provided when the block becomes _____ long or longer. a. 200 m. b. 250 m. c. 300 m. d. 500 m.
66.
For socialized housing, what is the minimum lot frontage required for single-detached developments? a. 6.00 m. b. 8.00 m. c. 10.00 m. d. 12.00 m.
What is the minimum tread width for stairs in BP 220? a. 200 mm. b. 225 mm. c. 250 mm. d. 300 mm.
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For economic housing, what is the minimum lot area required for single-detached developments? a. 64 sqm. b. 72 sqm. c. 18 sqm. d. 22 sqm.
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
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c. d. 82.
22 sqm. 36 sqm.
An integrated piping system connected to a source of extinguishing agent which suppressed fires when actuated by its automatic detecting deviceStandpipe system a. Standpipe system b. Automatic fire suppression system c. Fire extinguisher d. Fire hose
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The maximum number of persons that may be allowed to occupy a particular building or space a. Maximum occupancy b. Building load c. Occupant load d. Occupant total
84.
How many sets of drawings should the Building Official send the Fire Marshall, according to RA 9514? a. 3 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
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This document is issued upon determination that design and specification is in accordance with the provisions of the Fire Code. a. FALAR 1 b. FALAR 2 c. FSIC d. FSEC
86.
Who is violating the Code of Ethics? a. An architect who recommends the method of arbitration when it comes to settling disputes b. An architect who informs his colleague that he is being hired by the latter’s former client as a new architect for a project c. An architect who refuses to ma ke schematic sketches without payment for a client who is short of money d. An architect who credits half of his commission from the supplier to the owner’s bill (to add to the owner’s discount)
87.
Are architects allowed to accept gifts from suppliers? a. Only when the gift does not exceed the contract amount awarded to that supplier b. Only when the gift will not cloud the architect’s judgment and objectivity c. Only when the gift was solicited by the architect d. The architect is never allowed to accept gifts, no matter how small
88.
Who is not violating the Code of Ethics? a. An architect who asks to be considered for a project even though the owner has already begun negotiations with another architect (but no contract yet) b. An architect who accepts a commission to remodel a building after notifying the original architect of the commission and ensuring that the previous architect’s contract was properly terminated c. An architect who fails to pa y his draftsmen according to the work contract because of his firm’s financial difficulties d. All of these architects are vi olating the Code of Ethics
89.
Which of the following shall take precedence over the other? a. An architect’s duty to his clien t b. An architect’s duty to the public c. Both A and B are equally important d. None of the above
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
90.
An architect registered and licensed under R.A. No. 9266, who is directly and professionally responsible and liable for the construction supervision of the project a. Architect of record b. Architect in charge of construction c. Architect builder d. Consulting architect
91.
Which is not a duty of the PRBOA? a. Conduct seminars and workshops as part of the Continuing Professional Development (CPD) program and as an automatic CPD provider b. Adopt an official seal c. Suspend the Certificate of Registration of an architect, if necessary d. Administer oaths in connection with the Architecture Act
92.
Which is not grounds for removal of a member of the PRBOA? a. Inability to perform his or her duties due to sickness b. Manipulation of grades in the exams c. Removing “Site Planning” from the syllabus of the exam. This subject should be included because it is extremely important in architecture. d. Spreading malicious rumors about an architect that turn out to be false information
93.
Who cannot be elected as a member of the PRBOA today ? a. An architect who ceased all teaching functions and connections with any school or review center on September 24, 2010 only b. An architect who started practicing architecture on September 24, 2003 only c. An architect who has never been convicted of crimes involving moral turpitude and who has plenty of related experience as current chairman of the Philippine Institute of Architects d. An architect who has never received a commission for high-rise building projects
94.
Can a person who is not a citizen of the Philippines take the licensure examination for architects? a. Absolutely. The PRC encourages and freely allows all architecture graduates from other countries to take the exam as part of the globalization initiative. b. Yes, but there are conditions. c. No. Only Filipinos are allowed to take the examination. d. Yes, if they have experience working under a Filipino mentor for a project on Philippine soil.
95.
What is the minimum average score required to pass the board exam? a. 50% b. 60% c. 70% d. 75%
96.
Which of the following is grounds for suspension/revocation of an architect’s license? a. Fraud in the exam application b. Unprofessional conduct c. Violation of the minor provisions of RA 9266 d. All of the above
97.
Which person is violating RA 9266? a. An architecture graduate who posts an advertisement on www.OLX.ph that he can prepare plans that are just as good as a licensed architect’s
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b. A secretary who, upon her boss’ instruction, offers her boss’ architectural design services even though her boss is not a licensed architect c. A person who uses another name instead of his/her registered name because the new name is more marketable and is easier to remember d. All of these persons are violating RA 9266 98.
When the project is not yet executed, what happens to the intellectual property of the design/drawings? a. The intellectual property for the design does not exist until the project is built b. The intellectual property for the design is the owner’s until the project is built c. The intellectual property for the design remains the same because the construction of the project is irrelevant to intellectual property d. The intellectual property for the design is still the architect’s because it only becomes the owner’s AFTER the project is built
99.
Which will need to be registered with the SEC? a. A sole proprietorship b. A corporation c. An architectural firm d. Both B and C
100.
Which method of selection is recommended for small projects? a. Direct selection b. Comparative selection c. Architectural design competition d. All of the above are recommended
101.
In an architectural design competition, which is true about the jury? a. The jury should be even-numbered b. There should be at least seven members c. All of the jurors must be lice nsed architects because only then will they be qualified to judge the designs d. None of this is true
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How many representatives of the owner can sit on the jury in an architectural competition? a. Only one b. Up to two c. Less than half of the jury d. The owner cannot have representatives on the jury because he needs to uphold the decisions of the jury This refers to the detailed analysis of the project based on pre-feasibility studies will determine the viability of a proposed development. This requires primary data gathering and analysis. a. Pre-feasibility studies b. Feasibility studies c. Site utilization and land use studies d. Architectural programming As defined by SPP 201, the goal of this is to achie ve an unimpaired program at minimum cost. a. Value engineering b. Value management c. Cost estimation d. Architectural research Which method of rendering services is NOT allowed in SPP 201 (Predesign Services)? a. Rendering the service as an individual architect b. Rendering the service with the architect’s staff c. Rendering the service in collaboration with another firm d. All of these are allowed by SPP 201 In the multiple of direct personnel expenses, what is added to the “Fee” to get the total cost charged to the client?
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
a. b. c. d.
The consultant’s fee Reimbursibles Income taxes Healthcard
107.
When there is a continuing relationship with the owner involving a series of projects, which method of compensation is recommended? a. Lump sum b. Multiple of direct personnel expense c. Honorarium d. Professional fee plus expenses
108.
For cases where the client requests an architect to do work that will require his personal time, what is recommended to be charged to the client? a. Per diem b. Honorarium c. Reimbursible expenses d. All of the above
109.
Which is not a phase in the regular design services of the architect? a. Project definition b. Design development c. Bidding d. Site development
110.
Which is NOT part of the architect’s scope of work when rendering regular design services? a. Preparation of change orders b. Monitoring of maintenance and upkeep services of the building c. Periodic visits to the construction site d. Responding to questions from bidders
111.
Which is not an architect’s duty when he functions as a construction manager? a. Quality control of work (QC) b. Keeping of records for the project c. Design revisions d. Cost and time control
112.
The orderly arrangement within a piece of land or property on which vertical structures such as buildings, monuments and the like a. Site planning b. Physical planning c. Master development panning d. Comprehensive planning
113.
Forensic architecture is a a. Regular design service b. Specialized allied service c. Specialized architectural service d. Specialized predesign service
114.
Which SPP document covers Construction Management (CM) services? a. SPP 203 b. SPP-204A c. SPP-204B d. SPP-201
115.
Upon moving in to your new condominium building, you discovered that your friend who is an RLA works in your building and collects condo dues from the residents. Your friend is probably rendering a. Specialized architectural services b. Specialized allied services c. Comprehensive architectural services d. Post-construction services
116.
Your boss offered to his client the option to award to your boss the entire range of professional services, all the way from predesign to post-construction services so that the client does not have to deal with too many professionals and award too many contracts. What kind of service did your boss offer? a. Comprehensive architectural services
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b. Regular design services c. Specialized architectural services d. An illegal service 117.
For the multiple of direct personnel expense method of compensation, what is the multiplier recommended by the SPP? a. 1.0-2.0 b. 1.5-2.5 c. 3.5-5.0 d. 5.0-7.5
118.
During regular design service, when should the architect submit or update the SPPCC? a. Schematic design phase b. Design development phase c. Contract documents phase d. All of the above
119.
In SPP 202, projects are classified according to the degree of complexity of the project. Which falls under Group 2? a. Printing plants b. Auditorium c. Mausoleum d. Mall
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In SPP 202, projects are classified according to the degree of complexity of the project. Which falls under Group 3? a. Airport b. Aquarium c. Gymnasium d. All of the above In SPP 202, projects where the plan / design and related Contract Documents are re-used for the repetitive construction of similar buildings without amending the drawing and the specifications is classified as a. Group 4 b. Group 5 c. Group 6 d. Group 7 Once the Architect has prepared all contract documents, the Architect is considered to have completed the Detailed Design and Contract Documents Phase of his services. This is equivalent to a. 80% of his work b. 85% of his work c. 90% of his work d. 100% of his work When construction is suspended for a period of 8 months, what happens to the architect’s fee for the remaining works? a. It is withheld by the owner until completion of the project. b. It is withheld by the owner until the issues on-site are resolved. c. It is doubled. d. Nothing. It stays the same.
124.
The architect’s fee is a a. Net amount b. Immune to all forms of taxes c. Incomplete amount d. Both A and B
125.
Which is not part of the PCC? a. Cost of electrical fixtures b. Cost of the air-conditioning system c. Cost of acquiring the lot d. All of these are not part of the P CC
126.
Which is the largest amount? a. PCC b. PDC
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
c. d.
The architect’s fee Both A and B
127.
This planning service places heavy emphasis on the non-physical and non-engineering components of the master development plan a. Site planning b. Physical planning c. Master planning d. Comprehensive development planning
128.
In the project team, whose responsibility is it to plan, program and monitor the various activities, and act as an adviser on material costs and construction methods? a. The contractor’s b. The project manager’s c. The owner’s d. The estimator’s
129.
When an architect renders a design-build service, is he allowed to guarantee a maximum project construction cost? a. Yes, because this is one of the me thods of rendering design-build services according to the SPP b. No, because estimates should never be guaranteed by the architect c. No, because the architect is not allowed to build his own project and must hire a third party contractor d. Both B and C
130.
Who is supposed to prepare the FALAR 2? a. The architect b. The fire protection consultant c. The contractor d. The owner
131.
Who is supposed to prepare the FALAR 1? a. The fire marshall b. The architect c. The construction manager d. The building official
132.
What is the minimum tread required for new stairs in RA 9514? a. 180mm b. 200mm c. 250mm d. 280mm
133.
What is the minimum riser height required for new stairs in RA 9514? a. 100mm b. 180mm c. 200mm d. None of the above
134.
Which handrail height NOT allowed by RA 9514? a. 760mm b. 770mm c. 850mm d. 870mm
135.
For sleeping departments of hospitals, what is the minimum area that needs to be allotted per person in the determination of the occupant load, based on RA 9514? a. 1.40sqm b. 1.90sqm c. 11.10sqm d. 22.30sqm
136.
For the basement level of a store that is used for back-of-house offices, how much area per person should be allotted based on RA 9514? a. 2.80sqm b. 5.60sqm c. 9.30sqm
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d. 137.
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145.
18.60sqm
Based on RA 9514, how many exits are required if the occupant load is 600? a. 1 exit b. 2 exits c. 3 exits d. 4 exits What is the minimum lot frontage required for a socialized duplex housing unit? a. 3.00m b. 4.00m c. 5.00m d. 6.00m The minimum tread for existing stairs, according to RA 9514. a. 200mm b. 230mm c. 250mm d. 280mm Minimum ramp width, according to RA 9514. a. 915mm b. 1120mm c. 1200mm d. 1420mm Minimum elevator pit depth according to the NBC. a. 300mm b. 500mm c. 600mm d. 800mm Area per person for places of assembly, standing rooms. a. 0.18sqm b. 0.28sqm c. 0.65sqm d. 1.40sqm Firewall extension under the eaves, according to the NBC. a. 200mm b. 300mm c. 400mm d. 600mm Minimum floor area of a single-occupancy condominium for medium cost housing. a. 12sqm b. 15sqm c. 18sqm d. 20sqm Minimum width of a pathwalk, according to BP 220. a. 2.00m b. 3.00m c. 6.50m d. 8.00m
c. d.
900mm from the floor 1200mm from the floor
149.
Minimum width of stairs for OL greater than 10, according to the NBC a. 0.75m b. 0.90m c. 1.10m d. 1.50m
150.
Minimum depth of tactile strip that needs to be provided at the top and the bottom of stairs, according to BP 344. a. 300mm b. 500mm c. 600mm d. 1200mm
151.
Maximum longitudinal gradient of a walkway, according to BP 344. a. 1:10 b. 1:12 c. 1:20 d. 1:100
152.
Maximum cross gradient of a walkway, according to BP 344. a. 1:10 b. 1:12 c. 1:20 d. 1:100
153.
Maximum projection of gratings from the surface of the walkway, according to BP 344. a. 3.0mm b. 6.5mm c. 13mm d. 25mm
154.
Minimum clearance of a handrail that is vertically mounted on top of a ledge, according to BP 344. a. 30mm b. 40mm c. 50mm d. 60mm
155.
Minimum clearance of a handrail that is horizontally mounted onto a wall, according to BP 344. a. 20mm b. 30mm c. 40mm d. 50mm
156.
Maximum crossing speed for pedestrians prescribed by BP 344. a. 0.50m/sec b. 0.70m/sec c. 0.90m/sec d. 1.10m/sec
157.
If there are 24 water closet stalls for women and 18 water closet stalls for men (all located on one floor), how many accessible toilet stalls need to be provided for the entire floor? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
146.
Minimum width of passageway for courts according to NBC. a. 1.00m b. 1.20m c. 1.50m d. 2.00m
147.
Maximum distance of the required turning space from a dead end, according to BP 344. a. 2.00m b. 3.50m c. 4.50m d. 6.00m
158.
Which is an acceptable height for a doorknob, according to BP 344? a. 925mm b. 1100mm c. 1200mm d. None of the above
148.
Maximum height of a flush control device for PWD toilets, according to BP 344. a. 800mm from the floor b. 850mm from the floor
159.
The minimum distance required from a major road intersection and the ingress point of a traffic generating building a. 25m
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
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b. c. d. 160.
161.
50m 75m 100m
According to the NBC, minimum foundation thickness for Group A dwellings a. 150mm b. 200mm c. 225mm d. 250mm
Minimum width of a single-loaded aisle, according to the NBC. a. 600mm b. 750mm c. 800mm d. 1200mm
163.
Which does NOT require a wet standpipe, according to the NBC? a. Group H or I occupancy of any height b. Group C occupancy 2 or more storeys in height c. Groups B, D, E F and G 3 or more storeys in height d. Group H buildings without stage whose seating capacity is less than 500
165.
166.
The approved form of security furnished by the contractor and his surety as a guarantee of good faith on the part of the Contractor to pay all obligations arising from the contract. a. Proposal bond b. Payment bond c. Performance bond d. None of the above
171.
The approved form of security furnished by the contractor and is surety as a guarantee to the quality of materials and equipment installed and the workmanship performed by the Contractor. a. Proposal bond b. Payment bond c. Performance bond d. None of the above
172.
The person, firm or corporation who provides the guarantee for the Contractor’s Bonds. a. Proposal bond b. Payment bond c. Performance bond d. None of the above
173.
Printed documents stipulating the procedural and the administrative aspects of the contract. a. Contract agreement b. General conditions c. Special provisions d. Proposal agreement
174.
Shall be understood to mean “Purchase and/or fabricate and deliver to the jobsite or other location when so designated.” a. Work b. Furnish c. Provide d. Install
175.
Shall mean to build in, mount positions, connect or apply any object specified ready for the intended use. a. Work b. Furnish c. Provide d. Install
176.
Shall be understood to mean “furnish and install” a. Work b. Furnish c. Provide d. Install
177.
When is the work considered “substantially completed?” a. When the amount of completed work is equal to 95% or more of the contract amount b. When the amount of completed work is equal to 97% or more of the contract amount c. When the amount of completed work is equal to 98% or more of the contract amount d. Only after the Period of Making Good of Known Defects or Faults
178.
The Period of Making Good of Known Defects or Faults usually lasts for 60 days maximum, unless otherwise stated in the contract. When does this period begin? a. When the Certificate of Completion is issued b. When the contractor receives the Notice to Proceed c. When the work completed is equivalent to at least 95% of the contract amount d. Three months after the date of the final payment
179.
Unless any agreement otherwise is made, who shall shoulder the costs for permits and licenses needed for the project, according to UAP Doc. 301?
Minimum vertical clearance from the top of the sidewalk to the lowest part of the street canopy (for pedestrian protection) a. 2.00m b. 2.40m c. 2.70m d. 3.00m
162.
164.
170.
Maximum inclination of an escalator according to the NBC a. 25 degrees from horizontal b. 25 degrees from vertical c. 30 degreees from vertical d. 30 degrees from horizontal For a condominium project with 12 condo units and which is 900 meters away from the nearest public park, how much space should be allotted to parks and playgrounds inside the condo development? a. 50 sqm b. 53 sqm c. 56 sqm d. The requirement can be waived Minimum width of main door according to BP 220 a. 600mm b. 700mm c. 800mm d. 900mm
167.
According to the NBC, wha t is the minimum rear setback for R1? a. 1.50m b. 2.00m c. 3.00m d. 4.50m
168.
Minimum area of windows for habitable rooms according to the NBC a. 5% of floor area but not less than 240sqmm b. 5% of floor area but not less than 1sqm c. 10% of floor area but not less than 240sqmm d. 10% of floor area but not less than 1sqm
169.
The approved form of security furnished by the Contractor and his Surety as a guarantee of good faith on the part of the contractor to execute the work in accordance with the terms of the contract. a. Proposal bond b. Payment bond c. Performance bond d. Surety
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
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a. b. c. d. 180.
The owner The architect The contractor The PM
Who is responsible for the establishment of boundary lines of the property? a. The owner b. The architect c. The contractor d. The PM
181.
If there is conflict between the specs and the drawings, which should be followed? a. The drawings b. The specs c. The service agreement d. The general conditions
182.
Which is not part of the contract documents? a. General conditions b. Special provisions c. Specifications d. All of these are part of the contract documents
183.
Minimum ceiling height for a one-storey artificially ventilated structure according to NBC a. 2.10m b. 2.40m c. 2.70m d. 3.00m
184.
Area per person for places of assembly, according to the NBC. a. 0.28 sqm b. 0.65 sqm c. 0.90 sqm d. 1.40sqm
185.
Maximum length of dead ends according to the NBC. a. 4.50m b. 6.00m c. 7.50m d. 10.00m
186.
An architect registered and licensed or permitted to practice under RA 9266, who is professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or recognized expertise or specialization in any branch of architecture. a. Expert architect b. Consulting architect c. Foreign consultant d. Architect of record
187.
According to the IRR of RA 9 266, the term “architectural company” is considered synonymous to a. Sole proprietorship b. Partnership c. Corporation d. All of the above
188.
The proprietary rights retained by an architect over any architectural work that he prepares, including the right to control the erection of any building which reproduces his design whether in whole or in part. a. Copyright b. Ownership c. Authorship d. Statute of limitations
189.
If any additional drawing issued by the architect during construction involves additional cost due to changes from the original design, is the contractor entitled to charge additional costs to the owner? a. No. The cost must be charged to the architect because it is he who issued the drawings and the changes contained in the drawing.
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
b.
No. The contract is fixed and cannot be changed, so the contractor needs to follow the original design. c. Yes, as long as he gives written notic e to the architect regarding the extra cost within 15 days of receiving the instruction. d. Yes, but owner has the right to charge the cost to the architect because the owner did not order the change. 190.
The proprietary rights to an architectural work by a person who commissions the Architect for the said work. These proprietary rights shall be limited to use of the design for one project only. a. Copyright b. Ownership c. Authorship d. Statute of limitations
191.
Which is not a document that needs to be submitted when applying to take the licensure examination for architects? a. Certificate of Live Birth in National Statistics Office (NSO) Security Paper b. Marriage Contract in NSO Security Paper for married male applicants c. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) Clearance d. All of these are required
192.
Who decides on the design of the Architect’s seal? a. The IAPOA b. The PRBOA c. The President of the Philippines d. The architect is free to choose his own seal design
193.
The provision of RA 9266 regarding the ownership of plans, specifications, and other contract documents needs to be incorporated by all architects in all contract documents and other instruments of service. Which is this provision? a. Section 23 of RA 9266 b. Section 32 of RA 9266 c. Section 22 of RA 9266 d. Section 33 of RA 9266
194.
What happens when the architect is only able to condemn inferior work a month before substantial completion? a. The contractor still needs to rectify it because it is inferior work, at no cost to the owner. b. The contractor will rectify the inferior work but will charge the cost of rectification to the owner because the condemnation period expires no later than 6 months from substantial completion. c. Since the condemnation period has already expired, the owner may cross charge to the architect the cost for rectification. This may be deducted from the architect’s remaining fee for construction supervision. d. Both B and C
195.
In order for a corporation to be registered for the corporate practice of architecture, at least ____ of the owners, shareholders, members, etc. of that firm must be RLAs. a. 1/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. Majority (50% + 1)
196.
Who shall nominate persons for the vacant positions in the PRBOA? a. The President of the Philippines b. The UAP as the IAPOA c. The other board members d. Any RLA is entitled to make nominations for the vacancy
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197.
Foreign nationals must work with a Filipino counterpart in order to perform architectural services on Philippine soil. Between them, who shall be the architect of record? a. The foreign national b. The Filipino counterpart c. Either of the two d. Both of them
198.
According to UAP Document 301, who shall be responsible for making the necessary arrangements with utility companies to provide water, power, and telephone services to the jobsite? a. The owner b. The architect c. The construction manager d. The contractor
199.
If any section of the IRR of RA 9266 is declared unconstitutional, what happens to the other sections of the IRR? a. They shall be invalidated as well b. They shall not be affected c. They need to be passed into law again in order to take effect d. Their validity will be cast in doubt
200.
Which is not true about the IAPOA? a. The UAP is the current IAPOA b. The IAPOA must be a non-profit, non-stock corporation c. The IAPOA must be registered with the DTI and the PRBOA d. All registered architects automatically become members of the IAPOA
Arch. Pedro Santos Jr. (JPT Review Center)
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