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Copyright © 2008, New Age International (P) Ltd., Publishers Published by New Ag e International (P) Ltd., Publishers All rights reserved. No part of this ebook may be reproduced in any form, by photostat, microfilm, xerography, or any other means, or incorporated into any information retrieval system, electronic or mec hanical, without the written permission of the publisher. All inquiries should b e emailed to
[email protected] ISBN (13) : 978-81-224-2931-2 PUBLISHING FOR ONE WORLD NEW AGE INTERNATIONAL (P) LIMITED, PUBLISHERS 4835/24, Ansari Road, Daryaganj, N ew Delhi - 110002 Visit us at www.newagepublishers.com
This book is dedicated to PROF. B.G. SHIVANANDA Principal Al-Ameen College of Phar macy Pharmacy BANGALORE For his Her culean ef for ts in bringing Herculean effor forts APTI to a high pedestal
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FOREWORD Multiple choice questions (MCQs) test a candidates ability to apply his or her k nowledge acquired during the regular course of study. Framing a question paper b ased on MCQs is time consuming but evaluating the answers is easy.subjectiveness of the examiner associated with evaluation of essay type of answers is inherent in the evaluation process & depends upon several variables such as hand writing , methods of presentation etc. These variables do not exist during evaluation of answers based on MCQs. I am of the opinion that for the examination system at t he undergraduate level, the entire testing of theoretical knowledge should be MC Q based since the evaluation can be computerized & human bias can be largely eli minated. In this book, the multiple choice questions have been prepared with gre at care such that the questions framed are precise & clear enabling the reader t o make correct choices. A wide coverage of topics is given. I strongly recommend this book for all related to Microbiology & College Libraries. PROF DR. KANTI G OR Vice Chancellor K.S. K. V. Kachchh University Bhuj, Gujarat
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PREFACE The book is primarily meant for students appearing for PG competitive examinatio ns. In USMLE, GATE, AFMC, AIIMS & other Medical, Paramedical entrance examinatio ns for admissions to PG Programme, Microbiology is one of the important componen t of the syllabus. The main objective of this book is to help students to review their knowledge of Microbiology acquired through standard textbooks. A sound kn owledge of Microbiology is essential for students of Medicine, Pharmacy, Dentist ry & Nursing for understanding the subject with logical reasoning. This book is specially designed to complement any standard microbiology textbook and to provi de the students with a feedback on their progress & an opportunity to improve. T hus the book can serve as a self assessment guide. With the explosion of knowled ge in medical sciences, examinations in all faculties (Medicine, Pharmacy, Denti stry & Nursing) is completely becoming MCQ oriented because this system of asses sment is more accurate, reliable & quicker. A welcome trend in this direction is already discernible Both the teachers & students of microbiology will find this book useful. A quick persuation of the questions will provide evidence that the book intends to stimulate reasoning Suggestions & criticism about the book are welcome. G. Vidya Sagar
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ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS It gives me pleasure to acknowledge with deep appreciation for all those who hav e extended their co-operation during the preparation of the book. • • Prof. Dr. B. Suresh President, Pharmacy Council of India Sri. Harish Padh Director, Sri B. V. Patel PERD centre Ahmedabad, Gujarat Prof. Dr. Ajay K. Saluja A.R. College of Pharmacy Vallabh Vidyanagar Gujarat Dr. E. Bhanoji Rao Principal, Rolland Insti tute of Pharmaceutical Sciences Behrampur, Orissa Dr. K. Senthil Kumar Principal , Padmavathy College of Pharmacy Dharmapuri, Tamilnadu • • • Finally, I express my gratitude to Mr. Soumya Gupta, MD, Manager, New Age Intern ational (P) Limited, New Delhi, for his encouragement and support. - Author
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CONTENTS Preface (ix) Chapter 1 HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY Chapter 2 1 9 25 33 37 39 45 51 61 77 BACTERIA & GRAM STAINING Chapter 3 STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA & PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES Chapter 4 GENERAL PROPERTIES OF MICROORGANISMS Chapter 5 BACTERIAL NUTRITION Chapter 6 BACTERIAL GROWTH Chapter 7 STRUCTURE Chapter 8 OF DNA & RNA IMMUNOLOGY Chapter 9 MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY Chapter 10 INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY
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CHAPTER 1 HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY 1. According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is true a. Living organisms discriminate between stereoisomers b. Fermentation is a aerobic proces s c. Living organisms doesn’t discriminate between stereoisomers d. Both a and b 2. “I found floating therin earthly particles, some green streaks, spirally wou nd serpent-wise, and orderly arranged, the whole circumstance of each of these s treaks was abut the thickness of a hair on one’s head”…. These words are of a. L eeuwenhoek c. Pasteur b. A. Jenner d. Koch 5. Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air was free of dust. a. Abbc Spallanzani b. John Tyndall c. Francisco Redi d. Paste ur 6. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for a. b. c. d. a a a a patient wit h tuberculosis patient who has had minor surgery patient with glaucoma patient w ith leukemia 7. The symptome “ general feeling of illness and discomfort “ is called a. Cysti tis b. Malaise c. Anaphylactic shockd. Arthritis 8. On soybean which of the foll owing forms symbiotism a. b. c. d. Azatobactor paspali Rhizobium Nostoc Bradyrhi zobium 3. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanobac teria is a. Chlorophyll a c. Porphyrin b. Chlorophyll b d. Rhodapsin 4. During Bio Geo chemical cycle some carbon was utilized by the microorganisms. The phenomenon isamount calledof aselemental a. b. c. d. Dissimilation Immob ilization Decomposition Neutralization 9. Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but not protein ente rs the host cell during infection a. b. c. d. Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard Tatum i n 1951. Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in 1951. Alfred D.Hershey & Martha C hase in 1952. Alfred D.Hershey & Macleod in 1952.
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 10. Spirulina belongs to a. Xanthophyceae c. Rhodophyceae b. Cyanophyceae d. Phe ophyceae 19. The image obtained in a compound microscope is a. Real c. Real inve rted b. Virtual d. Virtual inverted 11. The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was a. IgG c. IgA b. I gM d. IgD 20. Enzymes responsible for alcoholic fermentation a. Ketolase c. Peroxidase a. Conidia c. Ascospores b. Zymase d. Oxidase b. Sporangiospores d. None of these 12. The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme a. b. c. d. Coenzyme Q Luciferase Lactose dehydrogenase Carboxylase reductase 21. Which type of spores are produced sexually? 22. Bacterial transformation was discovered by a. b. c. d. Ederberg and Tatum Be adle and Tatum Griffith None of these 13. Pick out the vector using in human Genome project a. b. c. d. Phagemid vecto r Yeast artificial chromosomes Cosmid vectors Yeast episomal plasmids 23. Father of microbiology is a. Louis Pasteur b. Lister c. A.V. Leeuwenhock d. Robert Koch 24. The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by a. Lwanowski c. Edward Jenner a. Robert Koch c. Lister a. Pasteur c. Hugo devries a. Antony von c. d. Johnsen & Jenner Hans a.b. Pasteur b. b. Lord Listerd. d.None Beijerinck b.b. Louis Paste ur Edward Darwinc. d.Koch Lamark Pasteur of these Jenner d. A.L.Hock 14. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they a. b. c. d. Make them acid Produc e a hypotonic environment Deplete nutrients Produce a hypertonic environment 15. In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of a. Glass c. Polyth ene b. Quartz d. None of these 25. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by 26. The term mutation was coined by 16. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of a. Biological process b. Lig htining c. Ultraviolet light d. All of the above 17. Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in a bone marrow transplant unit? a. Candida al bicans b. Aspergillus c. Blastomyces d. Cryptococus 18. Direct microscopic count can be done with the aid of a. Neuberg chamber b. Anaerobic chamber c. Mineral oil d. Olive oil 27. Compound microscope was discovered by 28. Father of Medical Microbiology is 29. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as a. Spor adic c. Epidemic b. Pandemic d. Endemic
HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY 30. Prophylaxis of cholera is a. b. c. d. Protected water supply Environmental s anitation Immunization with killed vaccines All of these 39. Tuberculosis is a a . b. c. d. Water borne disease Air borne disease Food borne disease Atthropod bo rne disease ! 31. In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lense? a. b. c . d. Magnetic coils Superfine glass Aluminium foils Electrons 40. Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by a. Louis Pasteur c. Metchnikof b. Al exander Fleming d. Robert Koch 41. Meosomes are also known as a. b. c. d. Mitochondria Endoplasmic reticulum Pl asmids Chondroids 32. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is a. b. c. d. Absence of locomotio n Absence of nuclear envelope Absence of nuclear material Absence of protein syn thesis 42. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by. a. b. c. d. Kohler and Milstein Robert Koch ‘D’ Herelle Land Steiner 33. The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called a. Glyoxysom es c. Oxysomes b. Peroxisomes d. Spherosomes 34. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by a. Lord Lister c. Beijernick b. Iwanowski d. Edward Jenner 43. The minimum number of bacteria required to produce clinical evidence of deat h in a susceptible animal under standard condition is called a. LD50 c. MLD b. I D d. All of these 35. Kuru disease in Humans is caused by a. Bacteria c. Prions b. Viroides d. Myc oplasma 44. In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from a. Mercury lamp c. both a and b b. Tungsten metal d. None of these 36. A mutation that produces termination codon is a. b. c. d. Mis-sense mutation Neutral mutation Non-sense mutation Reverse mutation 45. Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation first in a. H. inf luenzae c. Pneumococci b. Bacillus species d. E.coli 37. During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred through a. Cell wall c. Pili a. Joseph Lister c. Pasteur b. Medium d. Capsule b. Ernest Abbe d. Beijerink 46. The resolution power of the compound microscope is a. 0.2 micron b. 0.2 mill imeter c. 0.2 Angstrom units d. 0.2 centimeter 47. The capacity of a given strai n of microbial species to produce disease is known as a. Pathogen c. Infection b . Virulence d. None of these 38. Antiseptic surgery was discovered by
" 48. Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the name of a. Burnet c. Milstein kohler b. Medwar d. Owen MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 58. The causative organism of rocky mountain spotted fever was first described b y a. Howard Ricketts c. Both a and b b. da Rocha-lima d. Robert Koch 49. Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of a. Conjunction c. Muta tion b. Transformation d. Plasmids 59. The term bacteriophage was coined by a. De’Herelle c. Beijernick b. F.W. Two rt d. Jwanosky 50. Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by a. Robert Koc h c. Jenner b. Louis Pasteur d. Leeuwenhock 60. Viral infection of bacteria was discovered by a. De’Herelle c. Beijernick b. F.W. Twort d. Jwanoksy 61. Eye cannot resolve any image less than a. 1ìm c. 7ìm b. 2ìm d. 5ìm 51. Electron microscope gives magnification upto a. 100 X c. 50,000 X b. 2000 X d. 2,00,000 X 62. Compound was 63. discovered byMicroscope a. A.V. Lewenhoek b. Pasteur c.Prof. Jansse n and Hans d.Microscope None of these Electron was discovered by a. F ritz c. Knoll and Ruska b. Janssen and Hans d. None of these 52. Term vaccine was coined by a. Robert Koch c. Needham b. Pasteur d. None of t hese 53. The inventor of Microscope is a. Galileo c. Pasteur b. Antony von d. Koch 64. Magnification range of light microscope is a. 1000x – 5000x c. 500x – 1000x b. 1000x – 2000x d. None of these 54. First Pasteur conducted fermentation experiments in a. Milk c. Fruit juices b. Food material d. Both a and c 65. Condensation of light in light Microscope is by a. Objective c. Ocular b. Co ndensor d. All of these 55. Modern concepts of chemotherapy was proposed by a. Paul Ehrlich c. Elie Metc hnikoff b. Joseph Lister d. None of these 66. Light gathering capacity of Microscope is called a. Numerical aperture b. An gular aperture c. Both a and b d. None of these 67. If 10x and 40x objectives ar e used (air is the medium), the numerical aperture is a. 1.5 c. 1.0 b. 2.0 d. 1. 8 56. The role of phagocytosis was discovered by a. Paul Ehrlich c. Elie Metchikof f b. Joseph lister d. Pasteur 57. L – forms are discovered by a. Klein Berger b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Antony von Leeuwenhock 68. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objec ts, is called. a. Resolving power c. N.A. b. Wave length d. None of these
HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY 69. Limit of resolution of compound microscope is a. 0.018 Ao c. 5 ìm b. 0.1 mm d. 1 mm 79. Primary mediators in anaphylaxis a. Histamine c. Heparin b. Seratoni n d. All of these # 80. Arthus reaction was discovered by a. Marrice Arthus c. Richet b. Von Perquit d. Porter 70. Source of light in fluorescence microscopy is from a. Mercury lamp c. Both a and b b. Sunlight d. None of these 81. Serum sickness reaction was discovered by a. Marrice Arthus c. Richet b. Von perquit d. Porter 71. Who perfected a magnetic lens in 1927 a. Gabor c. Busch b. Broglie d. None o f these 82. Hybridoma technique was developed by a. Kochler & Milston b. Niel’s Jerne c. Both a and b d. None of these 83. Disease that effects many people at different countries is termed as a. Sporadic c. Epidemic b. Pandemic d. Endemic 72. The magnefication power of electron microscope developed by Knell and Ruska is a. 10,000x c. 15,000x b. 12,000x d. 20,000x 73. In electron microscope source of electrons is from a. Mercury lamp c. Both a and b b. Tungsten metal d. None of these 84. If the vectors transmit the infection mechanically they are called a. b. c. d. Biological vectors Mechanical vectors Biological reservoir Both a and c 74. The electron passed out from the specimen are called a. Primary electrons b. Secondary electrons c. Tertiary electrons d. None of these 75. Mycorrhiza was f irst observed by a. Funk c. Fisher b. Frank d. Crick 85. If a person can be infected by direct contact with infected tissue of anothe r person, it is termed as a. b. c. d. Indirect contact transmission Attachment D irect contact transmission None of these 76. The transfer of genetic material during transformation is proved basing on G riffith’s experiment by a. b. c. d. Avery Macleod & Mc.Carthy Lederberg & Taulum Zinder & Lederberg Watson & Crick 86. Reduction of virulence is known as a. Exaltation c. Both a and b b. Attenuat ion d. None of these 87. Enhancement of virulence is known as a. Exaltation c. Both a and b b. Attenu ation d. None of these 77. Phagocytic theory was proposed by a. Louis Pasteur c. Behring b. Elie Metchn ikoff d. Widal 78. Anaphylaxia was first observed by a. Parter & Richet c. Gell b. Coombs d. No ne of these 88. of a pathogen is usually measured by a. LD c. ID b. MLD d. All of The the virulence above
$ 89. The lethal dose required to kill 50% of the lab animals tested under standar d called a. ID c. ID50 a. Adhesions c. Toxigenicity e. All of the above b. LD50 d. MLD b. Invasiveness d. Enzymes MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 99. Staphylococcus aureus was isolated by a. b. c. d. Rosenbach Louis Pasteur Pa sset Sir Alexander Ogston 90. The most important virulence factors are 100. Pseudomonas aeruginosa was first named a. b. c. d. Schroeter and Gessard Ro bert Koch Louis Pasteur Edward Jenner 91. The ability of a pathogen to spread in ths host tissues after establishing t he infection is known as a. Adhesion c. Toxigenicity b. Invasiveness d. None of these 101. T. pallidum was discovered by a. b. c. d. Robert Koch Schaudinn and Hoffman Louis Pasteur Edward Jenner 92. Which is the following enzyme acts as a spreading factor? a. Hyaluronidase c . Catalase a. Koch c. John Snow a. Louis Pasteur c. Shiga b. Coagulase d. DNase b. Metchnikoff d. Virchow b. Escherich d. Robert Koch 93. Vibrio Cholerae was discovered by 102. Neisseria gonorrhoeae was first described by a. Neisser in 1879 c. Robert K och b. Pasteur in 1878 d. None of these 94. E.coli was first isolated by 103. Rh factor of the blood was discovered by scientist a. b. c. d. e. Louis Pas teur Landsteiner and Weiner Janskey Moss None of these 95. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was first discovered by a. Robert Koch c. Louis P asteur a. Robert Koch c. Edward Jenner b. Edward Jenner d. None of these b. Hans en d. Louis Pasteur 96. Mycobacterium lepree was discovered by 104. Trepanema pallidum was discovered by a. b. c. d. e. Schaudinn and Hoffman L ouis Pasteur Burgey Laennec None of these 97. Streptococcus pneumoniae was isolated by a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Robert Koch Edward Jenner Antony von Leewenhock Louis Pasteur Louis Pasteur Robert Koch Ant onyvon Leewenhok None of these 105. Fluroscent substance used in fluorescent microscopy are a. Quinine sulphate b. Auramine c. All of these d. None of these 98. B.anthracis was isolated by
HISTORY OF MICROBIOLOGY % ANSWERS 1. a 7. b 13. b 19. b 25. d 31. a 37. c 43. c 49. a 55. a 61. d 67. c 73 . b 79. d 85. c 91. b 97. d 103. b 2. a 8. d 14. d 20. b 26. c 32. b 38. a 44. b 50. d 56. c 62. c 68. a 74. b 80. a 86. b 92. a 98. b 104. a 3. a 9. c 15. c 21 . c 27. c 33. b 39. b 45. c 51. d 57. a 63. c 69. b 75. b 81. b 87. a 93. b 99. b 105. c 4. b 10. b 16. d 22. a 28. c 34. a 40. c 46. a 52. b 58. c 64. b 70. a 76. a 82. c 88. d 94. b 100. a 5. b 11. b 17. b 23. c 29. b 35. c 41. d 47. b 53 . b 59. a 65. b 71. a 77. b 83. a 89. b 95. a 101. b 6. a 12. c 18. a 24. b 30. b 36. c 42. a 48. a 54. c 60. b 66. a 72. b 78. a 84. b 90. e 96. b 102. b
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CHAPTER 2 BACTERIA AND GRAM STAINING 1. Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria a. Pseudomonas b. E.coli c. H aemophilus influenza d. Haemophilus streptococcus 2. In Streptococcus fecalis, t he conjugation takes place at a. Pili c. Cell wall b. Cell membrane d. Flagella 7. The functions of plasmid are a. DNA replication b. Protein synthesis c. Cell wall synthesis d. None of the above 8. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that a. F ail to reproduce on artificial meida b. Have a rigid cell wall c. Are resistant to penicillin d. Stain well with Gram’s stain 9. The etiologic agent of botulism is a a. Neurotoxin c. Enterotoxin b. Endotoxin d. All of the above 3. The infected mad dogs may contain a. Nergi bodies c. Negri bodies b. Niagri b odies d. Neisser bodies 4. What disease the Nesser will produce? a. Mumps c. Polio b. Rubella d. Measles 10. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during a. Lag phase c. Stati onary b. Log d. Decline 5. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to a. Lipolytic organisms b. Proteolytic or ganisms c. Toxigenic microbes d. Saccharolytic microbes 6. The Baterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is a. Escherichia c. Proteius b. Klebs iella d. Serratia 11. Protein particles which can infect are called a. Virons c. Nucleoida b. Prio ns d. None of these 12. In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are a. B 850 & Fe-S c. B 845 & B 875 b. B 850 & B 875 d. B 850 & B830
13. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in a. Peptidoglycan c . Theichoic acid b. Lippolysacharide d. Inner membrane MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY c. Tetrahymena thermophila d. Cryptaporiclium 22. Which of the following is most similar to Rickettsia and Chlamydia? a. Bdellovibrio c. Mycobacterium b. Clostr idium d. Mycoldaima 14. Which one of the following was Gramnegative, chemolithotrophic bacteria? a. Siderococcus c. Spirellum b. E.coli d. Mycoplasms 15. The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is a. Budding c. Binary fission b. Bursting d. Binary fusion 23. How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E-cloi? a. Gram staining b. Morphology c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration d. All of the above 24. Whi ch of the following is pathogenic to humans? a. Spirogyra c. Prototheca b. Cepha leuros d. Both b and c 16. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses? a. b. c. d. Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA RNA, helical with envelo pe ds DNA, brick shape 17. Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearance colonies on solid media? a. Mycobacteria c. Mycoplasms b. Mycoplasts d. Bacteroides 25. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of a. Avirulent p hases b. Single cell proteins c. Transgenic plants d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria 2 6. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are a. Fungi c. Bacteriophages b. Commensels d. None of these 18. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium ch loride resembles a. Halophile c. Barophile b. Basophile d. Xerophile 19. A population of cells derived from a single cell are called a. Monclonal cel ls c. Protoplasts a. b. c. d. Lactic Lactic Lactic Lactic b. Clones d. Sub cultu re 27. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from a. Cattle c. Rats b. Sh eeps d. Both a and b 20. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce acid only acid + H2O + CO2 acid + CO2 acid + alchohol + CO2 28. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkey’s medium are a. Purple co lored c. Pale colored b. Pink colored d. Green colored 21. In which of the follwing microorganism, conjunction tube was not produced du ring conjunction process? a. Thiobaillus thiooxidence b. T. ferroxidance 29. Staining material of gram positive bacterium is a. Fast green c. Crystal vio let b. Haematoxylon d. Safranin
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 30. The pigment present in red algae is a. Rhodochrome b. Fucoxanthin c. Chlorop hyll only d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin 31. During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the phase called a. Telophase c. Prophase b. Anaphase d. None of the above
39. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by a. Glycolysis 40. Virus will co ntain a. Cell membrane c. DNA b. Cell wall d. DNA or RNA b. Kreb’s cycle c. Elec tron Transport d. HMP shunt 41. The bacterial pili mainly contain a. Carbohydrates c. Proteins b. Lipids d. Minerals 32. Which of the following change is a transition? a. ATGC’!ATCC c. ATGC’!AGGC b . ATGC’!ATGG d. None of these 42. The wonder drug of second world war is produced by a. Algae c. Bacteria b. F ungi d. Plants 33. Citrus canker is caused by a. Phytomonas c. Lactobacillus b. Salmonella d. H ay bacillus 43. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is a. Photosynthesis b. Chemosynthesis c. B reakdown of organic compounds d. Assimilation of nitrogen compounds 44. Centrome re is that part of chromosome where a. Nucleoli are formed b. Crossing over take s places c. haploid Chromatids are attached d.Vertebrates Naking occurs 45. Somatic cell of thed. adu lt body are in many except a. c. Fungi b. Invertebrates V ascular plants 34. Bacteria that are responsible for fermentation of dairy milk are a. Azetobac ter c. Lactobacillus b. Rhizobium d. Hay bacillus 35. The fungal disease that affect the internal organs and spread through the bo dy are called a. Mycoses c. Mycotoxicosis b. Systemic mycoses d. Superficial myc oses 36. The staining technique used to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebac terium a. Giemsa stain b. Alberts stain c. Acid fast staining d. Both a and b 37 . The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell is called a. Re production c. Growth b. Cell division d. All of the above 46. Congential diseases are a. Diseases present at birth b. Deficiency disease c . Occur during life d. Spread from one individual to another 38. The causative organism of cholera, i.e., Vibrio show the movement called a. Gliding movement b. Darting movement c. Pseudopoidal movement d. None of these 47. The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molecules is called a. Lyases c. Polymerases b. Diastases d. Hydrolase
48. Meosomes are the part of a. Plasma membrane b. ER c. Lysosomes d. Golgi 49. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except a. Mycoplasms c. Actinomyce tes b. Sperochetes d. Methanogena MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 58. The potorespiration involves a. Calvin cycle c. Glycolate cycle b. Hatch-Sla ck cycle d. Kreb’s cycle 59. Bioleaching is done by a. Protozoa c. Algae b. Bacteria d. All of the above 50. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall a. Lysozome c. Protease b. Reductase d. Lysozyme 60. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called a. Elementary bodies b. Pas cheur bodies c. Negri bodies d. Guarnieri bodies 61. Which of the following gene ra is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving high temperature? a. Vibrio c. Torula b. Pseudomonas d. Coxiella 51. Cows can digest straw because they contain a. b. c. d. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms Protein hydrolyzing bacteria Lipid hydrolyzing microorganisms Am ino acid degrading bacteria 52. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending a. Chroma tin c. m RNA molecule b. A DNA template d. A pecialized protein 62. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as a. Cofactors of enzymes b. Building blocks of important amino acids c. Constituents o f hormones d. Binder of cell structure 63. The apparatus used to maintain a cont inuous culture a. Chemostat c. Thermostat b. Autostat d. Both a and c 53. The site of energy production in a cell a. Micro body c. Ribosome b. Chromos ome d. Mitochondria 54. Thylakoid is present in a. Mitochondria c. ER b. Chloroplast d. Golgi appara tus 55. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engin eering work in plants? a. b. c. d. Clostridum septicum Xanthomonas oriza Bacillu s coagulens Agrobacterium tumefaciens 64. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by bacteria a. Ne ssler’s reagent test b. Proteolytic test c. Lactose test d. Rose aindole reagent test 65. Diphtheria is caused by a. Corynebacterium b. Staphylococcus c. Strept ococcus d. None of these 66. Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is cha racteristic feature of the disease a. Rubella c. Mumps b. Measles d. Influenza 56. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the produc tion of a. Insulin c. Vaccines b. Interferons d. Edible proteins 57. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of a. Protein and DNA b. Protein and mRNA c . Protein and rRNA d. Protein and tRNA
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 67. A bacterium containing prophage is called as a. Lytic c. Lytogen b. Lysogen d. None of these c. Frchs bacillus d. Koch’s bacillus !
77. Acridine dyes are more effective against a. Gram positive c. Ricke Hsia b. G ram negative d. Mycoplasma 68. The most infectious food borne disease is a. Tetanus c. Gas gangrene b. Dyse ntery d. Botulism 78. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are a. Chloroplast c. Sphaeroplast b. Protoplast d. Chromatophores 69. An example for common air borne epidemic disease a. Influenza c. Encephaliti s b. Typhoid d. Malaria 79. The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was developed by a. A.H. Gram c. N.C. Gram b. H.C. Gram d. H.A. Gram 70. Vrial genome can become integrated into the bacterial genomes are known as a . Prophage c. Bacteriophage b. Temperatephage d. Metaphage 80. Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses which are intrac ellular parasites are called a. Mucoplasmas c. Prions b. Rickettsias d. Virusoid es 71. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of a. b. c. d. Toxigenic mi crobes Proteolytic microbes Saccharolytic microbes Lipolytic microbes 81. Bacillus is an example of a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteri a c. Virus d. Viroid 82. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by a. Plasmodium b. Paramecium c. Yeast d. Entamoeba histolytica 83. Viral genome that can become integrated into bacterial genome is called a. Prophage c. Bacteriophage 84. Cyt ochromes are a. Oxygen acceptors b. ATP acceptors c. Electron acceptors d. Prote in acceptors 85. The cells having F plasmid in the chromosomes were termed as a. Hfr c. Hbr b. F– + d. C b. Temperate phage d. Metaphage 72. Virion means a. b. c. d. Infectious virus particles Non-infectious particles Incomplete particles Defective virus particles 73. Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by a. Attenuation c. Inactiva tion b. A virulence d. Freezing 74. The test used for detection of typhoid fever a. WIDAL test c. Rosewaller tes t b. ELISA d. Westernblotting 75. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called a. Temperate c. Virulen t b. Avirulent d. None of these 76. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as a. Fried-Landers bacillus b. Kleb’ s hofflers bacillus
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86. Recombination process occurring through the mediation of phages is a. Conjun ction c. Transformation b. Transduction d. Transfection MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 97. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are a. Mesosomes c. Mitochondria 98. S pirochete is a. Gonococci b. Strphylococci c. Treponema pallidum d. Streptococci 99. Histones are found in a. Prokaryotes c. Viruses b. Eukaryotes d. None of th ese b. Plasmids d. Chromophores 87. Mordant used in grams staining is a. Crystal violet c. Saffranin a. Capsule c. Endospores b. Iodine d. All of these b. Cell-wall d. Flagella 88. Parasitic form must contain 89. Gram staining is c. Negative staining a. Staphylococcus c. agilis b. Animals d.
an example for a. Simple staining b. Differential staining d. None of these 90. Following Cocci are non-motile except Gonococcus a. Birds c. Man b. Meningococcus d. Rhodococcus All of them
100. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is a. Thick b. Lipids are present c. Te ichoic acids are absent d. None of these 101. Cytoplasmic streaming is present i n a. Prokaryotes c. Eukaryotes b. Animals d. Both a and b 91. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect 92. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is secreted by a. Enterococci b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Enterobacteriaceae d. Straphylococci 93. Autolysis is d one by a. Mitochondria c. Golgi bodies b. Lysosomes d. Peroxisomes 102. The motile bacteria is a. S. typhi c. B. anthracis b. K. pneumoniae d. Shig ella 103. The stain used to demonstrate fungus a. Albert b. Nigerosin c. Lactophenol cotton blue d. None of these 104. Exotoxina are a. Heat labile b. Heat stable c. Part of cell wall d. Polymerized complexes 105. The viruses that attack bacteri a are a. Bacterial viruses c. Bacteriophages b. Bacterial pathogens d. Various 94. A facultative anaerobic is a. Only grow anaerobically b. Only grow in the pr esence of O2 c. Ordinarily an anaerobe but can grow with O2 d. Ordinarily an aer obe but can grow in absence of O2 95. The percentage of O 2 required by moderate anaerobe is a. 0% c. 2 – 8% b. < 0.5% d. 5 – 10% 96. Interferon is formed by a. Lymphocytes c. Fibroblasts b. Lymphoblasts d. All of these 106. The size of virus particle may range a. 0.02–0.2 ìm c. 0.015–0.2 ìm b. 0.5– 10 ìm d. 0.1–100 ìm
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 107. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by a. Mitosis c. Conjugation b . Meiosis d. Binary-fission #
117. The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is shown t o reside in the a. Cell wall c. Cell membrane b. Nucleus d. Mesosomes 108. Rod shaped bacteria are known as a. Cocci c. Bacilli a. Mycobacteria c. Clo stridia b. Comma forms d. Plemorphic froms b. Mycoplasmas d. Rickettsia 118. Capsule formation occurs in the presence of a. Albumin c. Serum b. Charcoal d. Starch 109. All the groups of bacteria have cell wall 119. The virulence determining antigens of microorganisms may be a. Proteins and polysaccharides b. Carbohydrate – protein complexes c. Polysaccharide – Phospho lipid – Protein complexes d. All of these 120. Organelles with hydrolytic enzyme s are a. Mitochondria c. Lysosomes b. Golgi complex d. Ribosomes 110. Thickness of cell wall ranges from a. 9-10 nm c. 10-25 nm b. 12-13 nm d. 30 -40 nm 111. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in a. b. c. d. Gram positive bacteria Gram negative bacteria Fungi None of these 121. Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by a. Fimbria c. Cytoskeleton a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. b. Flagella d. Both a and b 112. Meosomes are a. b. c. d. Kind of ribosomes Formed during cell lysis A part of cell wall Principal sites of respiratory enzymes 122. Fimbriae are demonstrated by Culture Gram stain Biochemical reactions Haema ggulation test Salmonella typhi Klebsiella pneumoniae Bacillus anthracis Shigell a flexneri b. Meningococcus d. Rhodococcus agilis 113. The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of a. Capsul e c. Cell membrane b. Cell wall d. Slime layer 123. The motile bacteria is 114. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of a. b. c. d. Polypeptide Polynuc leotides Polysaccharides Polypeptides or polysaccharides 124. Following cocci are non-motile except a. Staphylococcus c. Gonococcus 115. The cell wall deficient form of bacteria is a. Mycoplasma c. Protoplast b. ‘L’ form d. Spheroplast 125. Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of a. b. c. d. Lipids Protei ns Polymetaphosphates Polysaccharide 116. Mesosomes are also known as a. Mitochondria c. Golgi complex b. Chloroplast s d. Chondroids
$
126. Metachromatic granules can be stained with a. Saffranine c. Crystal violet 127. Bacteria multiply by a. Spore formation c. Conjugation 128. Bacterial spore s are a. Weakly acid fast c. Alcohol fast b. Strongly acid fast d. Non acid fast b. Simple binary fission d. Gametes b. Methylene blue d. Pienic acie MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 135. The action of alcohol during Gramstaining is a. Allows the color b. It adds color c. Decolorises the cells d. None of these 136. Lipid contents is more in a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Same in both d. None of t hese 137. Cell-wall is a. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative b. Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive c. Equal in both d. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent 138. The Lipid content present in Gram positive bacterial cell-wall is a. 1-10 % c. 2-8 % b. 1-5 % d. None of these 129. Endospores can be stained with a. Safranine c. Methylene blue b. Crystal vi olet d. Malachite green 130. The following bacteria produce pigment, except a. Pseudomonas pyocyaneus b. Serratia marcescens c. D. pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus 131. The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is a. Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcoho l, Saffranine b. Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranine, Alcohol c. Alcohol , Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine d. All of these 132. The percentag e of alcohol used in Gramstaining is a. 75% c. 60% b. 90% d. 25% 139. Rickettsiae stained by this techniqued. responds a. Gram b. occur Gram negative c. Between positive and negative None ofas these 140.positive Chlamydiae in a. Elementary bodies b. Reticulate bodies c. Complex structures d. a and b 1 41. Chlamydiae can be stained better with a. Ziehl neelsen staining b. Castaneda & Machiavello stains c. Giminez stains d. Both b and c 142. Algae means a. Fres h water organisms b. Sea weeds c. Fresh water weeds d. None of these 133. Gram positive bacteria appear as a. Pink c. both a & b b. Violet d. None of these 134. Gram negative bacteria appear as a. Pink c. both a & b b. Violet d. None of these
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 143. The study of algae is known as a. Algalogy c. Mycology b. Phycology d. Bact eriology %
154. The extra cellular infections virus particle is called a. Capsid c. Virion b. Nucleocapsid d. None of these 144. The free floating algae are known as a. Phytoplankins c. Sea weeds b. Benth ons d. None of these 155. Shape of bacteriophage is a. Brick shape c. Helical shape b. Bullet shape d . Tadpole shape 145. Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by a. Isogamy c. Oogamy b. Anisogam y d. All the above 156. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen a. Simple staining b. Neg ative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these 157. Other than the sam ple (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called a. Simple stai ning b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these 158. If more than one stain is used, such staining is called a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these 159. ‘Fluorescence’ was first observed by a. Kohler c. Both a and b b. Coons d. None of these 146. In algae, advanced type of sexual reproduction is a. Isogamy c. Oogamy b. A nisogamy d. None of these 147. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of a. Red algae c. G reen algae b. Brown algae d. Red and brown algae 148. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called a. Saphrophytes c. Commensals b. Parasites d. None of these 149. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between a. 0o – 25oC c. 10o – 25oC b. 0o – 35oC d. 10o – 35oC 160. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was developed by a. Kohler c. Both and b b. Coons d. None of these 150. Examples for actinomycetes a. Streptomyces c. Frankia e. All of the above b . Spirillospora d. Dermatophillia 161. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves contrast of specimen is a. Positive staining c. Shadow staining b. Negative staining d. None of these 151. Pellicle is found in only a. Algae c. Bacteria 152. The Largest virus is a. Parvo virus c. Rhabdo virus 153. The smallest virus is a. Parvo virus c. Pox vi rus b. Rhabdo virus d. Adeno virus b. Pox virus d. None of these b. Fungi d. Pro tozoans 162. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are a. Nitr ates c. Ammonium salts b. Nitrites d. All of these 163. Archaeo bacteria are known as a. b. c. d. Halophiles Red extreme halophiles Osmophiles Extreme thermophiles
&
164. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria a. Nitrosomonas c. Nitrob acter b. Nitrosocytes d. Azatobacter 173. Phycobiont is MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY a. The algal part in Lichens b. The fungal part in Lichens c. Laustoria formatio n d. None of these 174. Parasitic form must contain a. Capsules c. Endospores b. Cell-wall d. Flagella 165. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is a. Alcaligenes c. Thiobacillus 166. Bacillus Schlegelli is a. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria b. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria c . Iron-Oxidising bacteria d. Nitrite oxidizing bacteria 167. The group of bacter ia which deopends on organic sources in nature for their energy requirements. Th ey are said to be a. Chemotrophs c. Heterotrophes b. Phototrophs d. Organotrophs 177. b. Pseudomonas d. None of these 175. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is a. Genome c. Gen e pool a. Bacteriophages c. λ –phage b. Gene map d. None of these b. Temperate p hages d. A
of these
176. Transformation was observed main y in Capsu ated forms of bacteria are a. Viru ent c. Usefu c
b. A viru ent d. Symbioti
168. Majority of bacteria are a. Saprophytes c. Commensa s 169. Symbionts are a. Bacteria in symbiotic association b. The group of fungi in symbiotic associatio n c. The groups participating in symbiotic association d. A of these 170. The best examp e for symbiotic association is a. E.co i in intestine of man b. Liche ns c. Norma f oraof skin d. A of the above 171. The enzymes responsib e for d ecomposition is a. Lipo ytic c. Lysozyme b. Proteo ytic d. Both a and b b. Symbi onts d. Parasites 178. The bacteria ce s participating in conjugation are a. Conjugants c. Excon jugants 179. Phagocytes are a. Monocytes c. Basophi s b. Macrophages d. A of t hese b. Ferti e ce s d. None of these 180. The microorganism engu fed by phagocyte resides in a vacuo e is known as a. Phagosome c. both a and b b. Lysosome d. None of these 181. Toxic products in phago ysosome are a. b. c. d. H2SO4 Sing et O2 Superoxide radica s A of these 172. Urea is decomposed by the species a. Micrococcus sps. b. Nitrosomonas sps. c. Proteus sps. d. Both a and c 182. During destruction of antigen partic e in phago ysosome the product formed in phago ysosome the product formed during formu ation is a. Acetic acid c. Citr ic acid b. Lactic acid d. None of these
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 183. The coating of a bacterium with antibody or comp ement that eads to enhanc ed phagocytosis of the bacterium by phagocytes is ca ed a. Opsonisation c. CFT 184. Attenuation means a. b. c. d. Ki ing of the bacteria (microorganism) Inact ivation of bacteria More activating the bacteria Both 1 and 2 b. Aggu ation d. N one of these ' 192. Vibrio cho era differs from vibrio e tor by a. b. c. d. It shares some Inab a, Ogawa subtypes with e tor Resistant to po ymuxin E tor is non-moti e Causes ess subc inica
infections as compared to e tor b. 3 – 6 months d. 9-12 months
193. Cho era vaccine gives protection for a. 1 – 3 months c. 6 – 9 months a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. 194. Prophy axis of cho era is Protected water supp y Environmenta sanitation I mmunisation with ki ed vaccines A of these Sh.shiga Sh.schmitzi Both a and b Sh.para dysenteriae b. Staphy ococci d. A of the above 185. Infection that resu ts in pus formation are ca ed a. Foca infection b. Ac ute infection c. Pyogenic infection d. Chronic infection 186. Presence of viab e bacteria in the b ood stream is ca ed a. Viraemia c. Bacteraemia b. Septicaemi a d. Bactericida 195. Sh.dysenteriae is a so known as 187. Presence of viruses in the b ood stream is known as a. Viraemia c. Septicae mia 188. Opsonin is the a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Ce wa component P asma compon ent Serum component Cytop asm component Streptococcus pyogenes Str. pneumoniae S tr. viridans Str. faeca is b. Bacteraemia d. Pyemia 196. Acid fast bacteria are a. Neisseria c. Mycobacteria a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. 197. Mycobacteria are stained with Gram’s staining Simple staining Both a and b
Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining Corynebacterium M. tuberculosis M. bovis M. avium Is negative in tubercular leprosy Positive in lepromatous type Indicated delayed hy persensitivity test Indicates infection 189. β-haemolytic
acteria is
198. Niacin test is positive in case of 190. The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is a. Flies c. Man a. d. . Horse d. None of these
. c.
199. Lepromin test 191. Main cause for Cholera is Poverty and insanitation Mosquitoes Toxin produce d y pesticides None of these 200. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections? a. Fever c. Pyogenic . Zoonotic d. None of these
201. Streptococcus pyogenes classification is . Protein T d. Polysaccharide C
ased on a. Protein M c. Protein R
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 211. Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect a. Bacillus anthracis . Brucella c . Corynae acterium d. None of these 212. Gasgangarene acillus is a. . c. d. Fa cultative anaero e O ligate anaero e Facultative aero e O ligate aero e 202. α-h emolytic streptococci
re
lso known
s
. Str. pyogenes c. Virid ns gr
oup b. Virulence group d. None of these 203. Streptolysin O is in ctiv ted by . CO2 c. Oxygen 204. Streptolysin ‘S’ is . Oxygen unst ble b. Thermost ble c. Oxygen st ble d. None of these 205. Influe nz virus is identified by using . b. c. d. H em ggulutinin inhibition test Tis sue culture method Embryon ted eggs Pl que form tion b. Nitrogen d. Serum 213. Co gul se test is used for Pneumococcus 214. HIV is belonging to r myxo Virid e
. b. c. d. S lmonell
St phylococcus Bordetell
. b. c. d. Retro Virid e Rh bdo Virid e Tog
215. Speci l fe ture of Retro viruses cted DNA polymer ses Both & b Boils
Virid e P
. b. c. d. Reverse tr nscript se RNA dire
206. Growth of influenz virus is identified by . Cytop thic effects b. Hel ce lls c. Both nd b d. None of these 207. Glut mic cid is oxidized by the speci es except . B. bortus c. B. suis b. B. melien sis d. B.c nis 216. AIDS virus is . RNA virus c. Retro virus 217. AIDS is c used by I c. HTLV – III b. Buny virus d. All b. DNA virus d. Entero virus 208. “Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in rucell Streptococcus Bordetell pertusis
. HTLV –
. b. c. d. A typic l mycob cteri
218. Which of the following org nisms is most commonly moni ? . b. c. d. Klebsiell Str. pneumoni Mycopl sm is
B
ssoci ted with AIDS pneu Mycob cterium tuberculos
209. Of the following, this is c psul ted org nism . B cillus nthr cis b. Es cherichi -coli c. Coryneb cterium d. Brucell 210. Anthr x is . Vector borne c. Wound bone b. Zoonotic infection d. Soil borne 219. Sero conserv tion in HIV infection t kes pl ce in 6 weeks d. 12 weeks
. 3 weeks c. 9 weeks b.
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 220. Following is the m rker of HIV infection in blood: script se DNA polymer se RNA polymer se None of these
. b. c. d. Reverse tr n
230. Di gnosis of b cteri l dise se c n be m de by . Finding b cteri in p thol ogic l fluids b. Isol tion of b cteri by culture from exud tes or blood c. Both nd b d. None of these 231. St phylococcus ureus re ch r cterized by . For m tion of cid in sucrose, dextrose b. Liquific tion of gel tin due to productio n of gel tin se c. Str ins re c t l se positive d. All of bove e. None of thes e 232. Choler occurs in _______ form . Endemic c. Spor dic e. None of these R.mooseri c. R.prow zekii e. None of these b. Epidemic d. ll 221. Which of the following is the most specific in di gnosis of AIDS? d. IHA Western blot ELISA Immuno electrophoresis
.
. b. c.
222. The interv l period between HIV infection nd ppe r nce of ntibodies in s erum is c lled . Intrinsic period c. Window period . Western blot test c. Both nd b . Western blot test c. K rp s test b. Incub tion period d. None of the se b. ELISA test d. VDRL test b. ELISA test d. Fujerbio test 223. Screening test for AIDS is 233. Endemic typhus is c used by b. R.quint n
d.
ny of them
224. Confirm tory test for AIDS is 225. The most common infection in AIDS is b. CMV . LGV c. Pnemocystis c rnii d. Syphilis 226. During AIDS, HIV infects . CD3 lymphocytes b. CD4 lymphocytes c. CD2 lymphocytes d. Blymphocytes 227. L b di gnosis of Leishm ni sis is done by . CFT c. Blood culture b. Peripher l sme r d. All of these 234. A m n is usu lly infected for tick typhus by – . b. c. d. Drinking milk of sick nim ls Tending c ttle Inh ling infected dust All of these 235. In Gr m positive b cteri , r tio of RNA to DNA is . 8 : 1 c. Almost equ l . Simple st in c. Differenti l st in b. 1 : 2 d. None of these b. Counter st in d. None of them 236. Ziehl – Neelson st in is
______
228. Those fungi which do not h ve sexu l st ge re cl ssified s . Phycomyce tes c. B sidiomycetes 229. Tine c pitis is . b. c. d. Ring worm of the foot Ri ng worm of sc lp Ring worm of non-h iry skin of body Both nd c b. Ascomycetes d. Fungi imperfecti 237. Wet mount slide prep r tions re used in microbiology s they llow to see . b. c. d. e. Size nd sh pe of individu l org nisms Ch r cteristic rr ngement or grouping of cells Motility of the org nism All of these None of these
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 238. Org nism resist nt to degr d tive lysosom l enzymes includes . M.tuberculo sis b. Legionell pneumophil c. M.lepr e d. Both nd b e. Both b nd c 239. F reeze-etch p rticles (used in prep ring cell for electron microscopy) c n be loc ted in the . Cytopl sm c. Cell membr ne b. Cell w ll d. Nucleus b. Inv sion of mucous membr ne c. Cont min tion of wounds with conidi or myceli t fr gments d . All of these e. None of these 245. Fungi differs with b cteri in th t it – . Cont in no peptidoglyc n b. Are prok ryotic c. Susceptible to griseofulvin d. H ve nucle r membr nes e. All of these 246. A polys cch ride c psule is present o n cryptococci which – . Inhibits ph gocytosis b. Is n id to di gnose c. Cross re cts with rheum toid f ctor d. All of these 247. The l rgest protozo is – . B l ntidium coli b. Ent moeb coli c. Trichomonus v gin lis d. Toxopl sm gondi i 248. Premunition is p rticul rly seen in – . Asc ris c. Pl smodium b. Gi rdi d. None of these 240. The properties common to Gr m positive nd neg tive cell w lls re . Equ l susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme b. Peptide crosslinks between polys cc h rides c. Rigid peptoglycon ctivity d. Gre ter resist nce to drying th n veget tive cell. e. All of these 241. The m in difference in true b cteri nd mycopl sm is th t it does not posses – . Fl gell c. ATP synthesis b. Cell w ll d. A c psule 242. The org nism responsible for ret rding penetr tion of host cell by n inhib itor of ATP synthesis. . M.pneumoni e b. Rickettsi rickettsii c. Chl mydi tr chom tis d. Chl mydi psit cci 243. Mycopl sm s differ from Ch l my-di e in th t , it w.ll h c. s susceptible bility to c to usepenicillin urin ry trd. ctAll infection b.e. l None ck ofoftrue b 244. cteriFun l cell of these these g l dise se in hum n is c used by – . Inh l tion of conidi 249. Which of the following v ccine cont ins c. Polio b. TAB d. Choler
ttenu ted form of b cteri ?
. BCG
250. The b cteri , which is motile t 22oC but non-motile t 37oC is . Tr nform tion c. Conjug tion 251. Techoic cid is – . Found in the w lls of Gr m positi ve b cteri b. Provide receptors for ph ges c. M ke up outer w ll of Gr m neg ti ve b cteri d. Influence the perme bility of the membr ne b. Tr nsduction d. Cel l fusion
BACTERIA & GRAMSTAINING 252. One fl gelium t one end of the org n is c lled – . Monotrich te c. Iophot rich te b. Amphitrich te d. Peritrich te 261. Choler red re ction is identified by . Sulphuric cid b. Nitric cid c. Hydrochloric cid d. C rbolic cid ! 253. Wh t is the function of b cteri l c psule? . Production of org nism from p h gocytosis b. Helps in dherence of b cteri to surf ce in its environment c. B oth nd b d. None of these 254. Which of the following is the ch r chteristic of b cteri l spore? . b. c. d. Highly refr ctile Usu lly dehydr ted Sensitive t o form ldehyde All of these 262. Di gnosis of c rrier of s lmonell typhi m y be shown by . Urine culture b. Bile culture d. All of these 263. D isy he d colony is ssoci ted with iphtheri e d. None of these
. Fec l culture c
. M.tuberculosis c. Cl. tet ni b. C.d
264. Neil mooseri re ction is rel ted to . Rickettsi e c. Spiroch etes periring ens b. Chl mydi e d. C l o s t r i d i u m 255. Which of the following re cid f st structures? b. B cteri l spores d. All of these 265. All of the following re DNA viruses except – s b. P r myxo virus d. Pix virus
. Mycob cteri
c. Noc rdi
. P rvo virus c. Herpes viru
256. All of the following re cid f st structures except keleton b. B cterium spores d. None of these
. Clostridium c. Exos
266. The dengue fever virus is – Orthomyxo virus
. Arbo virus c. Entero virus b. Echo virus d.
267. Dengue fever is c used by –
. B cteri
c. Fungi b. Virus d. Rickettsi
257. All of the following re energy source of b cteri except . b. c. d. Oxid tion of inorg nic compounds Oxid tion of org nic compounds Absorption of he t Ut ilis tion of visible light 268. Which of the following ch r cters n nim te culture medi b. Not sensitive zymes d. Insensitive to interferon 269. . Fox virus c. Me sles virus b. Mumps 258. Identify the oblig te r d. S rcin e
n erobes
re rel ted to viruses? . No growth on i to ntibiotics c. No energy producing en M in c us tive org nism of chiken pox is virus d. None of these
. S lmonell
c. Cl. tet ni b. Vibrio chole
259. Streptococci which re destroyed t 60°C for 30 minutes . Preptostreptococ ci b. Strepto virid ns c. Strepto hemolyticus d. All of these 260. Toxins or enz ymes which re not produced by streptococcus pyrogens . Hy luronides c. Hemolys in b. Phosph te d. Streptokin se 270. Rickesi re st ined with . Giesn nd C st ned d Gimnezst ins c. Both nd b d. M l chite green
st ins b. M cchi vello
n
" ANSWERS 1. c 7. d 13. b 19. b 25. c 31. c 37. c 43. c 49. 55. d 61. c 67. b 73. 79. b 85. 91. b 97. d 103. c 109. b 115. b 121. d 127. b 133. b 139. b 1 45. d 151. d 157. b 163. b 169. c 175. c 181. d 187. 193. b 199. c 205. 211. 217. d 223. b 229. c 235. 241. b 247. 253. c 259. d 265. b 2. c 8. c 14. b 20. d 26. c 32. d 38. b 44. c 50. d 56. c 62. 68. d 74. 80. b 86. b 92. d 98. c 104. 110. c 116. d 122. d 128. 134. 140. d 146. c 152. b 158. c 164. c 170. b 176. b 182. b 188. c 194. d 200. d 206. b 212. b 218. d 224. 230. c 236. c 242. b 248. c 254. d 260. b 266. 3. c 9. 15. c 21. 27. d 33. 39. 45. c 51. 57. c 63. 69. 75. 81. 87. b 93. b 99. b 105. c 111. 117. 123. 129. d 135. c 141. d 147. b 153. b 159. 165. c 171. b 177. c 183. 189. 195. c 201. 207. d 213. b 219. c 225. c 231. c 237. d 243. b 249. 255 . d 261. 267. b 4. d 10. b 16. 22. c 28. c 34. c 40. d 46. 52. c 58. c 64. 70. b 76. b 82. d 88. b 94. d 100. c 106. c 112. d 118. c 124. d 130. c 136. 142. b 148. 154. c 160. b 166. 172. d 178. 184. b 190. c 196. c 202. c 2 08. b 214. 220. 226. b 232. d 238. e 244. d 250. d 256. 262. d 268. d MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 5.
11. b 17. c 23. c 29. c 35. b 41. c 47. c 53. d 59. b 65. 71. d 77. 83. 89. d 95. c 101. c 107. d 113. b 119. d 125. c 131. 137. 143. b 149. b 15 5. d 161. b 167. c 173. 179. d 185. c 191. 197. d 203. c 209. 215. c 221. b 227. d 233. 239. c 245. e 251. 257. c 263. b 269. d 6. 12. b 18. 24. c 30. d 36. b 42. b 48. 54. b 60. c 66. c 72. c 78. d 84. c 90. 96. d 102. 108. c 114. d 120. c 126. b 132. b 138. b 144. 150. d 15 6.228. 162. d 168. d 174. 180.252. 186.258. c 192. d 198.270. b 204. c d 234. c 240. d 246. c 264. c c 210. b 216. c 222.
CHAPTER 3 STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA AND PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES 1. The medium used in membr ne filter technique w s . EMB g r c. L ctose broth 2. Lysol is . Sterilent c. Antiseptic b. Disinfect nt d. Antifung l gent b. EMR-Vp medium d. Endo g r 7. Therm l de th time is . Time required to kill l l cells t given temper ture b. Temper ture th t kills ll cells in given ti me c. Time nd temper ture needed to kill ll cells d. All of the bove 8. A cul ture medium the ex ct composition of which is not known w s c lled s . Simple c. Defined b. Complex d. N tur l 3. Which of the following is miems d. M l chite green
neutr l st in?
. Picric
cid c. Neutr l red b. G
4. Peptone w ter medium is n ex mple for . Synthetic medium b. Semisynthetic m edium c. Differenti l medium d. None of these 5. The method in which the cells re frozen dehydr ted is c lled . P steuriz tion c. Disinfection b. Dessic tion d. Lypophiliz tion 9. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of . Tet ni toxin b. Cho ler toxin c. Diophtheri toxin d. Toxoid 10. Temper ture required for p steuriz tion is . Above 150oC c. 110oC b. Below 100oC d. None of these 11. Sep r tion of single b cteri l colony is c lle ing b. Sep r tion d. All of these
. Isol tion c. Pure cultur
6. The usedc. toSurgic void lll microorg nisms is ccomplished by . tion Sterliz tion b.technique Disinfection steriliz tion d. Disinfection Steriliz 12. Which of the following is ionizing r di tion? . None of these
. U.V. r ys c. γ-rays b. IR d
$ 13. Which of the followin dimerisation of thymine? a. X-rays c. ã-rays b. U.V. rays d. None of these induces MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 22. The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular components is kn own as a. Reproduction c. Binary fission b. Growth d. None of these 14. When food material are preserved at a temperature just above freezin temper ature, the process is called. a. Freezin c. Chillin b. Pasteurisation d. Frost in 23. Theobacillus thio oxidans
row at pH a. 7.0 c. 6.0 b. 1.0 d. 9.5
24. Slow freezin requires the conditions a. b. c. d. 0oC to 15oC for 15 min. – 6 oC to – 10oC for 10 min. – 15oC to 3 to 72 hrs. None of these 15. Which of the followin method of sterilization has no effect on spores? a. D ryin c. Autoclave b. Hot air oven d. None of these 25. Discontinuous heatin is called a. Pasteurization c. Fermentation 26. Isolat ion is a. b. c. d. Purification of culture Introduction of inoculum Separation o f a sin le colony To row microor anisms on surfaces b. Sterilization d. Tindali sation 16.Bri Treponema pallidum can c. be Dark best field indentified usin d. a.Flourescence Fluorescencemicroscope microscope1 b. ht field microscope microscope 7. Autoclavin is carried at a. Dry heat b. Atmospheric pressure c. 120oC d. All of these 18. Temperature in pasteurization is a. 62.8oC c. 68.2oC b. 35.7oC d. 60.8oC 27. The condition required for autoclave a. b. c. d. 121oC temp.and 15 lbs. pres sure for 20 min. 120oC temp.and 20 lbs. pressure for 30 min 150oC temp. for 1 hr . 130oC temp for 2 hr. 28. Lysozyme is effective a ainst a. b. c. d. Gram ne ative bacteria Gram positi ve bacteria Protozoa Helminthes 19. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is a. Inoculum c. Dilu tion 20. Al ae are rich in a. Carbohydrates c. Vitamins b. Proteins d. All of th ese b. Suspension d. None of these 29. Blood a ar medium is a. b. c. d. Enrichment medium Enriched medium Selective medium Differential medium 21. L-Lysine is produced from a. Corynebacterium inum c. Mycobacterium sps d. Pseudomonas
lutamicum b. Clostridium botul
30. Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Chemical method d. Mechanical method
STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA & PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES 31. Lyophilization means a. b. c. d. Sterilization Freeze-dryin Burnin to ashe s Exposure to formation 40. Glassware are sterilized by a. Autoclavin c. Incine ration a. Tyndall c. Koch a. Lab media c. Livin cells 43. By pasteurization a. b. c. d. b. Hot air over d. None of these b. Pasteur d. Jenner b. Broth d. None of these % 41. Tyndallisation was proposed by 32. Temperature used for hot air oven is a. b. c. d. 100oC for 1 hour 120oC for 1 hour 160oC for 1 hour 60oC for 1 hour 42. Viruses can be cultivated in 33. Phenol co-efficient indicates a. b. c. d. Efficiency of a disinfectant Dilut ion of a disinfectant Purity of a disinfectant Quantity of a disinfectant All the microor anisms can be removed Only patho enic forms can be removed Only non-patho enic forms can be removed All of these are correct 34. This is an a ar plate method and is commonly used for estimation of the numb er of bacteria in milk. a. b. c. d. Standard Plate Count (SPC) Spread plate Lawn culture Roll tube method 44. The temperature required for pasteurization is a. Above 100oC c. 100oC b. Be low 100oC d. None of these 45. In the medium other than nutrients, if any substance is used in excess, that medium is a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. Enriched medium Special medium En richment medium None of these Nutrient A ar Nutrient broth Wilson and Blair Czap eck-dox medium Robertson cooked-meat medium Nutrient a ar Nutrient broth Mac-Con key’s a ar 35. A ar is obtained form a. Brown al ae c. Green al ae b. Red al ae d. Blue- re en al ae 36. A ram positive or anism which produces swarmin monella c. Staphylococci b. Clostridium d. Proteus
on culture medium is a. Sal
46. Example for indicator medium is 37. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is known as a. Patho enicity c. Exaltat ion b. Attenuation d. Toxi enicity 47. Example of Anaerobic medium is 38. For effective sterilization in an autoclave the temperature obtained is a. 5 0oC c. 120oC 39. Spores are killed by a. 70% alcohol c. Autoclavin b. Glutarald ehyde d. Both b and c b. 100oC d. 180oC 48. The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the medium used is a. b. c. d. Wilson & lair Blood A ar Tetra thionate broth Mac-Conkey’s A ar
& 49. Best method for ettin r slant d. None of these
pure culture is a. Streak-plate c. Both a & b b. A a
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 58. Aldehydes, which are most powerful disinfectants a. Formaldehyde b. Acetalde hyde c. Glutamal aldehyde d. Both a and c 59. Accridine dyes are more effective a ainst a. Gram positive c. Mycoplasmas b. Gram ne ative d. Rickttsiae 50. To transfer cultures from one place to another, the device used is a. Slant c. Inoculation loop b. Needle d. Autoclave 51. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture is a. Inoculum c. Dilution b. Suspension d. None of these 60. The sterilizin etrachloride
a ent is a. Ethelene oxide c. Nitro en b. Oxy en d. Carbon t
52. Separation of a sin le colony is a. Pure-culturin n d. Both a and b
c. Separation b. Isolatio
61. Salts of heavy metals used as disinfectants are a. Thiomersal nitrate c. Mer curochrome b. Phenyl d. All of these mercury 53. Growth period of the culture is a. Inoculation c. Incineration b. Incubation d. Isolation 62. Cultures are prepared by penetratin the inoculation loop with suspension in to the medium, they are a. Stock cultures c. Sub-cultures b. Stabcultures d. Non e of these 54. At the temperature 160oC for one hour, complete sterilization occurs in a. A utoclave c. Laminar flow b. Hot air oven d. Incubator 63. The principle involved in the streak plate method is a. Separation c. Isolat ion b. Streakin d. Dilution 55. In autoclave, the principle involved is a. Dry heat b. Moist heat c. Steam u nder pressur d. Both b and c 56. The spores of th bacteria which can withstand t he moist heat effect also a. Bacillus subtilis b. Coxiella burnetti c. Bacillus stearothermophilus d. Pseudomonas 57. Factors on which disinfectivity of a disin fectant depends a. Concentration of the substance b. Time of action c. pH of the medium and temperature suitable for the chemical d. All of the above 64. Culture media for fun i are a. Potato dextrose a ar (PDA) b. Sabouraud’s a a r c. Czapekdox a ar d. All of the above 65. Spores of actinomycetes are very sen sitive, killed at room temperature of a. 52oC for 30 min. b. 65oC for 30 min. c. 70oC for 30 min. d. 43oC for 30 min. 66. The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pasteurization but does not row at hi her temperatures a. Thermophiles b. Extreme thermophiles c. Thermoduric d. Facultative thermophiles
STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA & PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES 67. A common laborator y method of cultivatin anaerobic micro-or anisms is a. G as pack system b. Brewer jar system c. Pyro allic acid over the cotton d. None o f these 68. Alkaliphiles row at pH value between a. 1 to 6 c. 1 to 11 b. 6 to 9 d. 7 to 12
76. On Mac Conkey’s medium Esch. Coli forms a. b. c. d. Colorless colonies Green ish pi mentation Pink coloured colonies Medusa head appearance 77. C.diphtheriae requires a. b. c. d. LJ medium Mac Conkey’s medium Potassium t ellurite medium PDA medium 69. The micro-or anisms row at hi h salinity are a. Osmophiles c. Both a and b b. Halophiles d. None of these 78. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis a. b. c. d. L J medium Mac Con key’s medium Wilson blair medium None of these 70. Non-lactose fermentin colonies seen on Mac Conkey’s medium are a. Salmonell a typhi b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Shi ella shi ae 71. Wils on and Blair medium is used for isolation of a. Staphylococci c. Vibrio cholerae b. Salmonella typhosa d. Shi ella shi ae 79. Lepra bacillus is pi bestAny cultured a. b. c. d. Armadillo’s brain Foot pad of mice Liver of uinea of theon above 80. Culture medium for clostridia spp. a. b. c. d. 76 Lower stein Jensen’s mediu m Mac Conkey’s medium Robertson’s cooked meat medium None of these 72. Laboratory dia nosis of enteric fever is based on a. Blood culture b. Urine and stool culture c. Widal test d. All of the above 73. Shi ella was first isola ted by a. Shi a c. Sonnei b. Schmitz d. Robert Koch 81. Clsotridium welchii is positive for a. b. c. d. Elek’s t Na ler’s test Weil felix test Bacitracin test
el precipitation tes
82. Na ler’s reaction detects a. Coa ulase c. Lecithinase b. Hyaluronidase d. No ne of these 74. Which of the followin are as producin suis b. S.enteritidis d. S.typhimurium
Salmonella? a. S.typhi c. S.cholera
83. Incubation period of Cl. welchii is a. 8-12 hours c. 5-7 hours b. 7-10 hours d. 2-4 hours 75. Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect a. Salmonella spp. c. E.coli b. Shi ella spp. d. None of these 84. The avera e incubation period of tetanus is a. 2-3 days c. 14-21 days b. 7-1 0 days d. 3-4 weeks
! 85. Salt a ar is used for a. Streptococcus c. Vibrio b. Staphylococcus d. Shi el la MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 92. Match the followin tests with their respective applications A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Schick test Mantoux test Sterility test Potency test A. B. Tuberculo sis Detection of extraneous microor anisms Detection of infection caused by Rick ettsia prowazeki Usefulness of immunolo ical products 86. Culture medium of Leishmania is a. Sabousand’s medium b. NNN medium c. Wilso n Blair medium d. Czapek – dox medium 87. A simple asexual spore which develops by buddin is known as a. Chlamydospore c. Arthospore b. Blastospore d. Conidia C. Diphtheria toxin D. E. 93. Match the followin equipments with their respective methods of sterilizatio n A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Glass syrin es Disposable instrument Respiratory parts Dialysis mach ine C. Dry heat D. E. -Radiation Chicken pox in children A. B. Autoclave Chemic al 88. Culture medium used for fun us is a. Sabouraud’s medium b. Nutrient a ar c. Nutrient broth d. Minimal a ar medium 89. For sterilization of fermentation equi pment the method followed is a. Radiation c. Heatin b. Chemicals d. All of thes e 94. The items listed from A to D can be identified by the tests iven below : 1. 2. Coomb’s test Coa ulase test A. B. D. Candida albicans Virulent staphylococ cus aureus Non-a lutinatin antibodies C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis 90. Listed below are substances which are assayed by or anisms mentioned in A to E. Match them correctly: 1. 2. 3. 4. Crystal Violet I.P. Ampicillin I.P. Rifampicin A. B. D. E. Pasteurel la pestis Bacillus cerus Lactobacillus aureus Lactobacillus aureus 95. D.pneumoniae can be cultivated in a. b. c. d. e. Glucose broth Serum broth A ar and blood a ar Chocolate a ar All of these Plaque Vaccine I.P. C. Micrococcus luteus F. Bacillus subtillus 96. D.pneumoniae can be identified by a. b. c. d. e. Microscopic exam Culture of sputum/blood Animal inoculation All of these None of these 91. Match the followin terms with their respective formulations A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Lysol Black fluids White fluids Iodophores A. B. D. E. Hi her boilin fractions of the tar acids Prepared from refined tar acids Basic molecules has varyin numbers of amino roups Iodine combined with complex or anic chemicals C. Solution of cresol with soap 97. The dia nosis of tuberculosis is carried out by a. Emulator c. Petroff’s met hod e. All of these b. Antiformin method d. Concentration method
STERILISATION, CULTURE MEDIA & PURE CULTURE TECHNIQUES 98. The size of the virus can be determined by a. b. c. d. Micro raphy Ultra-cen trifu ation at hi h speed Ultra-filteration All of these ! 100. Electron microscope studies does not help in identifyin the section of bac terial spore a. Core c. Capsule b. Spore cortex d. All of these 99. Differential stainin
of bacteria spore is related to a. b. c. d. Albert’s s
tainin
Moller’s stainin
Lu ol’ s stainin
Indian ink preparation
101. Wilson and Blair bismuth sulphite medium is used for the rowth a. Salmonel la typhi c. Vibrio cholerae b. Shi ella dysenteriae d. E. coli 102. Which Rickettsia can be rown on blood a ar media? a. Lactobacilli c. Bacil lus anthrax b. Streptobacillus d. Vibrio cholerae ANSWERS 1. b 2. b 7. b 8. a 13. b 14. c 19. a 20. d 25. d 26. c 31. b 32. c 37. c 38. c 43. b 44. b 49. c 50. b 55. d 56. c 61. d 62. b 67. c 68. d 73. c 74. b 79. b 80. c 85. b 86. b 90. 1.d, 2.c, 3.a, 4.e 93. 1.c, 2.d, 3.e, 4.b 97. e 98. d 3. c 4. b 9. c 10. b 15. a 16. b 21. a 22. b 27. c 28. b 33. a 34. a 39. d 40. b 45. a 46. c 51. a 52. b 57. d 58. d 63. d 64. d 69. c 70. a 75. a 76. c 81. b 82. c 87. b 88. b 91. 1.c, 2.a, 3.b, 4.e 94. 1.d, 2.a 99. c 100. c 5. d 6. a 11 . a 12. c 17. c 18. a 23. b 24. c 29. b 30. d 35. b 36. d 41. a 42. c 47. a 48. d 53. b 54. b 3.b, 59. a4.e 60.95. a 65. b 66. c 71. b 72.ad 77. c 78. a 83. a 84. b 89. d 92. 1.c, 2.a, e 96. e 101. a 102.
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CHAPTER 4 GENERAL PROPERTIES OF MICROORGANISMS 1. When a bacterial cell and mitochondria are treated with cyanide and carbon mo noxide what happens initially? a. b. c. d. Respiration inhibits Photosynthesis i nhibits Protein synthesis inhibits No effect occurs b. Ammonifiaction bacteria c . Nitrification bacteria d. Denitrifyin bacteria 7. A cell becomes flaccid when placed in a a. b. c. d. Isotonic solution Hypertonic solution Hypotonic solutio n Normal solution 2. Which virus was first observed? a. b. c. d. Hepatitis Virus TMV Cauliflower m ossaic virus None of these 8. A mutation causin a substitution of one amino acid is called a. Point mutati on b. Silent mutation c. Missence mutation d. None of these 9. The formation spi ndle fibres in the process of cell division is prevented by a. Corchicine c. Hyd razine b. ATP d. All of these 3. The most important ener y-yieldin cosis c. KDPG b. EMP d. Both b and c
reaction for an aerobic or anism is a. Gly
4. A disease that can be transmitted by an infectious a ent from one individual to another was called a. Epidemic c. Communicable b. Pandemic d. Comma 10. Important class of respiratory enzymes: a. NAD c. ATPase b. Cytochromes d. H ydrolases 5. Cell cycle re ulated by a. Cyclins b. Cdks c. Cyclins and Cd ks d. None of th ese 6. The proteinaceous compound are converted to ammonia by a. Putrification b acteria 11. The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis virus: a. Flies c. Person to person b. Milk d. Food and water 12. Genetic constitution of the cell is a. Phenotype c. Cryptotype b. Genotype d . Histotype
!" 13. The primary mode of transmission of poliomyelitis is a. Oral route c. Milk b . Blood d. Person to person MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 21. The followin or anisms lack definite cell wall a. Mycoplasma c. Both a and b b. L-forms d. Bacteria 14. Cerebral malaria is caused by a. b. c. d. Plasmodium vivox P.ovale P.falsipa rum P.malaria 22. The followin disease are caused by Mycoplasma except a. b. c. d. Pneumonia in human bein s Little leaf of Brinjal Dwarf disease of Mulbery Citrus canker 15. Er ot disease is caused by a. Puccinia c. Claveceps b. Rhizopus d. Penicilli um 23. Mycotoxins are produced by a. b. c. d. Bacteria Fun i Al ae Protozoans 16. Most bacteria require vitamins as a. b. c. d. Growth Factors Sources of ener y Sources of carbon Sources of electron donars 24. Size, shape and mode of arran ements is typical of certain microor anisms. M atch them correctly : 1. 2. 3. 4. Streptococci Sarcina Bacillus Anthracis Comma and S shaped form Gram arran E. ed Gram in chains C. Multiples of ei ht Lar e bacilli, rectan ular an dpositive ram positive ne ative cocci F. Rod shaped-acid fast A. B. 17. Which of these is a trace element for bacteria? a. M +2 c. Ca+2 b. Na+ d. Mn +2 18. Virulent factor in pneumococcus is a. b. c. d. Cell wall Capsule Mesosomes E mdotoxins Vibrios and Spirilla D. 25. Match the followin microor anisms with their respective characteristic A to E : 1. Bacteria Much similar, contains one type of nucleic acid, do not reproduce by binary fission B. Parasites on bacteria, hi hly specific to one type of C. Livi n or anism, unicellular, motile, microscopic and show reproduction D. Grows in atmospheric oxy en, visible without microscope, produces, disease E. Tiny microo r anism, enable to row outside livin cells, retained by bacteria proof filters A. 19. The Bacteria move in response to ma netic field is a. b. c. d. Spirochets Tr eponema Aquaspirillum Ma netotacticum None of these 2. 3. Rickettsia Viruses 20. Na ler reaction detects a. b. c. d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae Clostridium tetani Clostridium perfrin ens Clostridium botulinum 4. Bacteriopha es
GENERAL PROPERTIES OF MICROORGANISMS !# ANSWERS 1. a 7. b 13. c 19. c 2. b 8. c 14. c 20. c 3. d 9. c 15. c 21. c 4. c 10. b 16. a 22. d 5. c 11. d 17. b 23. b 6. b 12. b 18. d 24. 1.b, 2.c, 3.d, 4.a 25. 1.c,2 .e, 3.a, 4.b
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CHAPTER 5 BACTERIAL NUTRITION 1. The main product of lycolysis under aerobic conditions is a. Pyruvate c. Non e of these b. Lactate d. Both a and b 6. An example of competitive inhibition of an enzyme is the inhibition of a. b. c. d. Succinic dehydro enase by malonic acid Cytochrome oxidase by cyanide Hexok inase by lucose-6-phosphate Carbonic anhydrase by carbon dioxide 2. The protein moiety of an enzyme is known as a. Holo enzyme c. Co enzyme a. A Vitamin c. B Vitamin a. b. c. d. b. Apo enzyme d. Enzyme b. Proteins d. Carbohyd rates 7. The followin or anisms have been proposed as sources of sin le cell protein a. Bacteria c. Al ae b. Yeasts d. All the three 3. Yeast extract is an excellent source of 8. Nitrites are oxidized to nitrates by a microor anism a. Nitrosomonas c. Nitro bacter a. Fats c. Polysaccharides b. Nitrosococcus d. Azatobacter b. Aminoacids d. Polypeptides 4. Example of anaerobic medium Wilson blair medium Mac conkey broth Robertson’s cooked meat medium EMB a ar 9. The major constituents in a ar are 5. Biolo ical Oxy en Demand (BOD) is a measure of: a. Industrial wastes poured i nto water bodies b. Extent to which water is polluted with or anic compounds c. Amount of carbon monoxide inseparably combined with haemo lobin d. Amount of oxy en needed by reen plants durin ni ht 10. Match the followin expressions with their respective bacteria A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. K = lo (a/a –x) x t1 K = Cn t K1/K2 = q(T2-T1) x2 = 4D t In (mo/m) A. Temperature effect B. Watson’s expression C. Concentration of bactericide D. Film coefficient E. Fi ck’s law ANSWERS 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. 1.b,2.c,3.a,4.e
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CHAPTER 6 BACTERIAL GROWTH 1. Multiple antibiotic resistance is mediated by a. Episome c. Colplasmid b. Pla smid d. Both b and c ketone bodies for ATP production? a. Liver c. Brain b. Muscle d. R.B.C 2. “Anta onism “ is seen in a. La se
phase c. Lo
phase b. Plasmids d. None of the
8. Which one of the followin mineral elements play an important role in biolo i cal nitro en fixation a. Copper c. Zinc a. Lo c. Lack b. Ma nesium d. Molybdenu m b. La d. None of these 3. the first phase of a Both a and b 9. Rapid bacterial
rowth curve is a. Lo
phase c. γ phase b. La
phase d.
rowth phase is known as
4. In ram positive and ram ne ative bacteria the electron transport contains a . Naphthquinone c. Ubiquinone b. Plastoquinone d. Both a and b 10. Clostridium welchii spore formation can be induced only on specified media s uch as a. b. c. d. Wilson-Blair medium Macconkey medium Ellner medium Thayee-Mar tion medium b. Lo phase d. Stationary phase 5. Growth in a closed system, affected by nutrient limitation and waste product accumulation is called a. Batch culturin c. Fruitin body b. Ascus d. Sporan io sphore 11. Mycotoxins are formed durin
the end of a. La
phase c. Death phase
6. Cells are active and synthesizin new protoplasm. This sta e of led a. La phase c. Lo phase b. Stationary phase d. All of these
rowth is cal
12. Bacteria which need oxy en for rowth are called a. b. c. d. Thermophilic ba cteria Microaerophilic bacteria Facultative anaerobic bacteria Mycobacteria 7. Which one of the followin
tissues can metabolize
lucose, fatty acids and
" 13. pH required for the 8.2 d. 8.0 – 14.0
rowth of bacteria is a. 6.8 – 7.2 c. 3.0 – 6.0 b. 5.6 –
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 22. Sulphur can be utilized by bacteria in the form of a. b. c. d. Or anic compo unds Inor anic compounds Elemental compounds All of the above 14. Dru resistance in bacteria is mainly determined by factor: a. F c. Col b. R d. Lyso enic factor 15. The ion that is required in trace amounts for the alcium c. Cobalt b. Ma nesium d. Sodium
rowth of bacteria is a. C
23. Phosphorous is an essential component of a. b. c. d. Nucleotides Nucleic aci ds Phospholipids and Heichoic acids All the above 16. The most important vitamin for the amin D b. Vitamin A d. Vitamin C
rowth of bacteria is a. B-complex c. Vit
24. Trace elements are a. b. c. d. Zn+2, Cu+2, Mn+2 MO6+, Ni2+, B3+ and CO2+ Bot h a and b None of these 17. The principle in microbiolo ical assays is a. At certain ran e the concentra tion of rowth factor will bear a linear relationship to the amount of nutrients added b. Concentration of a rowth factor have linear relationship the ro wth of the or anism c. Both and b d. None ofathe above 18. If the with source of en er y for bacteria is from chemical compounds they are said to be a. b. c. d. Pho totrophs Autotrophs Chemotrophs Chemolithotroph 25. Most bacteria do not require the ion a. M 2+ c. Na+ 26. Vitamin function as a. b. c. d. Co-enzymes Co-melecules Buildin blocks of cell None of these b. Ca2 + d. Fe+2 27. The vitamin required for Lactobacillus species is a. Riboflavin c. Pyridoxin e b. Niacin d. Folic acid 19. In the synthesis of cell components the major element required is a. Nitro e n c. Carbon b. Sulphur d. Oxy en 28. Vitamin K is necessary for the species a. b. c. d. Lactobacillus spp. Bacill us anthracis Bacteroides melanino enicus All of these 20. For the formation of cell-components the elements required are a. Nitro en c . Sulphur b. Oxy en d. All of these 21. For the synthesis of amino acids cysteine, cystine and methionine the elemen t required is a. Sulphur c. Nitro en b. Oxy en d. None of these 29. The bacteria which are able to row at 0°C but which row at 20°C to 30°C, a re known as a. b. c. d. Psychrophiles Facultative psychrophiles Avera e psychrop hiles Mesophiles
BACTERIAL GROWTH 30. Radical shifts can be prevented by addin ne of these
a. Acids c. Buffer b. Alkali d. No
" 39. The no. of enerations per hour in a bacteria is a. Growth rate c. Si moid c urve b. Generation time d. None of these 31. The orderly increase in the quantity of all the cellular components is known as a. Reproduction c. Binary fission b. Growth d. None of these 40. In the si moid curve (or) a. 3 c. 2 b. 4 d. 5
rowth curve of bacteria how many sta es are there
32. The most common mode of cell division in bacteria is a. b. c. d. Binary fiss ion Transverse binary fission Lon itudinal binary fission None of these 41. The reproduction rate is equal to death rate in which sta e a. Decline phase c. La phase b. Stationary phase d. Lo phase 42. Minimum rowth temperature is a. The rowth of or anisms at lowest temperatu re b. The lowest temperature at which the microor anisms row c. The maximum tem perature at which the rowth is stable d. None of these 43. Optimum rowth tempe rature is reater that 45oC is a. Mesophiles c. Psychrophiles b. Thermophiles d. None of these 33. How much time a bacterium take for the complete duplication? a. 30 min. c. 2 0 min. b. 10 min. d. 25 min. 34. The eneration time is a. b. c. d. The time required for the cell to divide The total division of the cell durin its life time The total no.of cells formed None of these 35. In bacteria, the increase in population is in the manner a. b. c. d. Geometr ic pro ression Multiplication Doublin None of these 44. The or anisms which can row both in presence and absence of oxy en a. b. c. d. Aerobes Anaerobes Faculative anaerobes Strict aerobes 36. Physiolo ically the cells are active and are synthesizin new protoplasm in which sta e of the rowth in bacteria a. Lo phase c. Stationary phase b. La ph ase d. None of these 45. The or anisms which can row best in the presence of a low concentration of oxy en a. Aerophilic c. Aerobic b. Microaerophilic d. Anaerobic 37. The most active sta e in the si moid curve of bacteria in which maximum row th is attained a. La phase c. Decline phase b. Stationary phase d. Lo phase 46. The compound that is added to the medium to absorb oxy en for the creation o f anaerobic conditions a. Sodium Thio lycollate b. Nitrous acid c. Citrate d. No ne of these 38. Lo -phase is also known as a. Death phase c. La -phase b. Exponential phase d. None
" 47. The utilization of li ht ener y to drive the synthesis of ATP is called as a . b. c. d. Photolysis Photophosphorylation Photosynthesis Respiration MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 56. Mycotoxins are formed durin hase d. Stationary phase 57. Match the followin ran es A to E :
the end of a. La
phase c. Death phase b. Lo
p
rowth characteristics with their respective temperature
1. 2. 3. 4. Psychrotrophs Mesophils Thermophils A. B. Grows between 55 to 65oC M ay survive above 60oC 48. Durin cyclic phosphorylation NADP is formed or not. a. b. c. d. No NADP for mation No NADP utilization NADP is converted into NADPH All are correct C. Grow well between 25 to 45oC Grow below 25oC Multiply slowly at 0-4oC E. ve etable bacteria D. 49. Cyclic phosphorylation is b. Al ae d. Plants
enerally present in a. Cyanobacteria c. Bacteria
58. Match the followin microor anisms with their respective sources A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Achrommobacter . A. spp Asper illus flavus Oscillatiria scytonema Cl ostridium eat Bread ni ereticans E. Milk and cheese products D. Salad B. Water supply C. M 50. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is also known as a. b. c. d. Oxy enic photos ynthesis Photosynthesis Anoxy enic photosynthesis Photophosphorylation 51. The number of ATP molecules formed durin c. Four b. Two d. Six
cyclic phosphorylation are a. One
59. Match the followin microor anisms with their respective appearance of colon ies on bismuth Sulphite a ar from A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Salmonella typhi Salmonella choleraesuis Shi ella flexneri Escherich ia coli C. Green D. E. Yellow Black A. B. Brown No rowth 52. Artificial transformation in laboratory is carried out by treatin with a. M Cl2 c. NaCl b. Cacl2 d. HCl
the cells
53. The process of formation of mesozy ote is called a. Meromixis c. Mitosis b. Exozy ote d. Meiosis 60. The suitable temperature to transport viral culture is – a. 30oC c. 25oC e. None of these b. 5oC d. 45oC 54. Which of the followin or anisms requires tryptophan for enza c. Gonococci b. Vibrio d. S.typhi
rowth? a. H.influ
61. Growth curve does not include followin phases of bacteria – a. Decline phas e c. La phase b. Stationary phase d. Synchronous rowth 55. Tubercular bacilli row best in a. Absence of O2 c. Presence of O2 b. Presen ce of CO2 d. None of these 62. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of . Decline phase c. La phase b. Stationary phase d. Lo phase
rowth curve? a
BACTERIAL GROWTH "! ANSWERS 1. b 7. b 13. a 19. c 25. c 31. b 37. d 43. a 49. a 55. b 2. d 8. d 14. d 20. d 26. c 32. c 38. c 44. a 50. b 56. a 3. b 9. a 15. c 21. d 27. b 33. c 39 . b 45. b 51. d 60. b 4. a 10. c 16. a 22. a 28. a 34. c 40. b 46. b 52. b 61. d 5. a 11. a 17. b 23. d 29. c 35. a 41. d 47. c 53. a 62. d 6. a 12. b 18. c 24. d 30. c 36. c 42. b 48. a 54. d 57. 1.b, 2.c, 3.d, 4.a 58. 1.e,2.a,3.b,4.c 59.1.e,2.c,3.a,4.b
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CHAPTER 7 STRUCTURE OF DNA & RNA 1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxy en, what is it? a. Cyt b c. Cyt d b. Cyt c d. Cyt o chimeric vectors. The cloned fra ments are called a. Clones c. mRNA b. Genomic l ibrary d. None of these 2. The
enetic material in HIV is a. ds DNA c. s RNA b. ss DNA d. None of these
7. Trans enic animals are produced when GH GH d. FIX
ene fused with a. MT
ene c. GRF b.
3. Which one of the followin muta ens act only on replicatin DNA? a. b. c. d. Ethidium bromide Nitroso eranidine Acridine oran e None of above 8. In which medium the hydridoma cells row selectively? a. Polyethylene lycol b. Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine c. Hypoxathin - uanin phosphoribosyl tran sferase d. Both b and c 9. The enzymes which are commonly used in enetic en ine erin are a. b. c. d. Exonuclease and li ase Restriction endonuclease and polyme rase Li ase and polymerase Restriction endonuclease and li ase 4. Poly A tail is frequently found in a. Histone in RNA c. eukaryotic RNA b. Bac terial RNA d. TRNA 5. Which of the followin is an example of RNA virus? a. b. c. d. SV 40 T4 pha e Tobacco mosaic virus Adeno virus 10. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusin a. b. c. d. Plasma cells and p lasmids Plasma cells and myeloma cells Myeloma cells and plasmids Plasma cells a nd bacterial cells 6. Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into fra ments of reasonable size by a restr iction endonuclease and then inserted into a clonin vector to enerate
"$ 11. The technique involved in comparin the DNA components of two samples is kno wn as a. b. c. d. Monoclonal antibody techniques Genetic fin er printin Recombi nant DNA technolo y Polymerase chain reaction MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY d. Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere 18. Malate dehydro enase enzyme is a a. Transferase c. Isomerase a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. b. Hydrol ase d. Oxido reductase 19. In E.Coli att site is in between Gal and bio enes Bio and niacin enes Gal a nd B enes None of these Relaxed control plasmid Strin ent control plasmid Both a and b None of these 12. Plasmids are ideal vectors for ene clonin as a. They can be multiplied by culturin b. They can be multiplied in the laboratory usin enzymes c. They can replicate freely outside the bacterial cell d. They are self replicatin within the bacterial cell 13. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How ma ny autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell? a. 46 c. 47 b. 23 d. 44 20. The best vector for
ene clonin
21. A ene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is a. Structural c. Operator ene a. G1 – phase c. G2 – phase b. Re ulator ene d. Promoter b. S – phase d. M – phase
ene ene
22. DNA replicates durin 14. Pasteur effect is due to a. Chan e from aerobic y en to anaerobically respirin structures c. Rapid thesis of ATP 15. A mechanism that can cause a ene up to another is a. Trans location c. Crossin over
to anaerobic b. Providin ox utilization of ATP d. Nonsyn to move from one linka e ro b. Inversion d. Duplication
23. A human cell containin 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome is probably a a. b. c. d. Male somatic cell Zy ote Female somatic cell Sperm cell 24. Crossin -over most commonly occurs durin a. Prophase I c. Anaphase I a. Con servative c. Dispersive a. Translation c. Transcription a. Alanine c. Lysine b. Prophase II d. Telophase II b. Semiconservative d. None of the above b. RNA spli cin d. Transposition b. Adenine d. Ar inine 16. The smallest unit of enetic material that can under o mutation is called a. Gene c. Replicon b. Cistron d. Muton 25. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of 17. The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent a. Replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase b. Homolo ous chromosomes of a diploid set c. Non-h omolo ous chromosomes joined at the centromere 26. Production of RNA from DNA is called 27. Nucleic acids contain
STRUCTURE OF DNA & RNA 28. What are the structural units of nucleic acids? a. N-bases c. Nucleotides b. Nucleosides d. Histones "% 37. Microor anisms usually make acetyl CO-A by oxidizin Pyruvic acid α-ketoglut ric cid Fum ric cid 29. The most import nt function of Hormones d. DNA
a. b. c. d. Acetic acid
gene is to synthesize
38. The method of DNA replic tion proposed by W tson mi conserv tive Conserv tive Dispersive Rolling loop
. Enzymes c. RNA b.
nd Crick is
. b. c. d. Se
30. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in hum ns is concer ned with . b. c. d. B ldness Red-green colour b ldness F ci l h ir/moust che in m les Night blindness 39. The dist nce between e ch turn in the helic l str nd of DNA is 8 Ao b. 34 Ao d. 42 Ao 31. Peptide link ges re formed in between lucose molecules Sucrose
. 20 Ao c. 2
. b. c. d. Nucleotides Amino
cids G
40. Self-replic ting, sm ll circul r DNA molecules present in b cteri l cell
re
known . Pl smids c. Pl smomeros b. Cosmids d. pl stides 32. The nucleic cid of polio viruses is . DNA c. t-RNA 33. R bies virus is . b. c. d. N ke RNA virus N ked DNA virus Enveloped RNA virus Enveloped DNA virus b. RNA – (+) type d. m-RNA 41. Western blotting is the technique used in the determin tion of teins b. DNA d. All of these 42. m RNA synthesis from DNA is termed orm tion d. Replic tion 34. Ex mple for DNA virus: irus
. RNA c. Pro
. Tr nscription c. Tr nsl tion b. Tr nsf
. Polio virus c. Echo virus b. Adeno virus d. Poty v
43. Western blotting is technique used in the determin tion of in b. RNA d. Polys cch rides
. DNA c. Prote
35. In genetic engineering bre ks in DNA re formed by enzymes known d. Restriction enzymes Lig ses Nucle ses Hydr l ses 44. Building blocks of Nucleic sides d. Nucleo proteins
cids
re
. Amino
s
. b. c.
cids c. Nucleotides b. Nucleo
45. DNA finger printing is b sed on . b. c. d. Repetitive sequences Unique sequ ences Amplified sequences Non-coding sequences 36. DNA tr nsfer from one b cterium to nother through ph ges is termed nsduction c. Tr nsfection b. Induction d. Infection
s
. Tr
"& 46. The enzyme required for DNA from RNA templ te: . b. c. d. RNA polymer se Re verse tr nscript se DNA polymer se Termin l tr nsfer se MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 53. The length of e ch coil in DNA str nd is
. 15 Ao c. 30 Ao b. 34 Ao d. 5 Ao
54. Nucleic cids re highly ch r ged polymers due to . There is phosphodiester bond between 5’hydroxyl of one ribose nd 3’–hydroxyl of next ribose b. They h ve positive nd neg tive ends c. Nucleotides re ch rged structures d. Nitrogeno us b ses re highly ionized compounds 55. The best studied ex mple for speci liz ed tr nsduction is . P1 ph ge c. ë-ph ge b. P22 ph ge d. Both nd c 47. Double st nd rd RNA is seen in Rh bdo virus d. Retro virus
. Reo virus c. P rvo virus
. b. c. d. e. b.
48. Ex mple for DNA viruses: Adeno virus B cterioph ge T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6 P pov virus Herpes virus nd c uliflower mois ic All of the bove 49. The following re the RNA viruses, except . b. c. d. e. Reo viruses Retro v iruses B cterioph ge Φ C Tmv and Bacteriophages Ms2, 2 Dahila mosaic virus and Bacteriophages Φ × 174, M12, M13 56. The diagrammatic representation of the total no. of genes in DNA is a. Genom e c. Gene-structure b. Gene map d. Chromatin 57. During specialized transduction a. Large amound of DNA is transferred b. A f ew no. of genes are transferred c. Whole DNA is transferred d. None of these 58. The cell donating DNA during transformation is a. Endogenate c. Mesozygote b. E xogenate d. Merosite 50. The two strands of DNA are joined noncovalently by a. b. c. d. Ionic bonds C ovalent bonds Hydrogen bonds between bases Polar charges 51. The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with a. b. c. d. Double hydrogen bo nds Single hydrogen bonds Triple hydrogen bonds Both b and c 59. Genetic information transfer DNA to RNA is called – a. Transcriptase c. Tran sformation b. Transduction d. Recombination 52. The no. of hydrogen bonds existing between Guanine and Cytosine are a. 5 c. 3 b. 2 d. None of these 60. The gene transfer occurs by – a. Transformation c. Conjugation b. Transducti on d. Cell fusion
STRUCTURE O
DNA & RNA
"' ANSWERS 1. d 7. a 13. d 19. a 25. b 31. b 37. a 43. a 49. e 55. c 2. a 8. b 14. b 20. a 26. c 32. b 38. a 44. c 50. c 56. b 3. c 9. a 15. a 21. a 27. b 33. c 39 . b 45. b 51. a 57. b 4. c 10. b 16. d 22. b 28. c 34. b 40. a 46. b 52. c 58. b 5. c 11. b 17. a 23. b 29. a 35. b 41. b 47. a 53. b 59. a 6. b 12. d 18. d 24. a 30. b 36. a 42. a 48. e 54. a 60. a
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CHAPTER 8 IMMUNOLOGY 1. Which of the following is called serum Hepatitis? a. HCV c. HBV b. HAV d. HIV c. Centromeres d. Protein axes 8. How much of globulin is present in human serum ? a. 8% c. 16% b. 12% d. 4% 2. Which of the following was a non-neural vaccine for rabies? a. HEPV c. BPL b. Card vaccine d. Simple 9. The substance which acts as antimetabolites are called a. Activators c. Inhib itor a. Lipids c. Carbohydrates a. b. c. d. a. b. c. d. b. Substrates d. Cofacto r b. Proteins d. None of these 3. Which type of antibodies will associate in blood cell coagulation? a. IgE c. IgM a. Immunogenic c. Antigenic b. IgA d. IgG b. Non-immunogenic d. None of thes e 10. Enzymes are chemically 4. In a antigen haptens are 11. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by Hybridoma technology Biotechnology er mentation Technology None of these Antibody molecules Unbroken skin Antigen mole cules Phagocytic cells 5. The antibody that is first formed after infection is a. IgG c. IgD a. B-lymph ocytes c. Monocytes b. IgM d. IgE b. T-lymphocytes d. RBC’s
12. First line of body defence is 6. Antibodies in our body are produced by 7. The points at which crossin over has taken place between homolo us chromosom es are called a. Chiasmata b. Synaptonemal complex 13. What is the stren th of the bond between anti en and antibody? a. Affinity c . Covalent b. Avidity d. None of these
# 14. Syphillis is caused by a. Staphylococcus aureuss b. Yersinia psdtis c. Trepo nema pallidum d. Streptococcus syphilitis 15. Ner ibodies produced by rabies vir us show characteristic _____ inner ranues a. Basophilic c. Neutrophilic b. Eosi nophilic d. Acidophilic MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 22. The cellular immune response is mediated by a. B cells c. BT cells b. T cell d. Endothelial cells 23. The major immuno lobulin present in the human serum is a. I G c. I E b. I A d. I G 24. Rea enic type antibody is a. I G c. I M b. I A d. I E 16. The widely used yeast for the production of sin le cell protein is a. Saccha romyces cerevisiae b. Rhizopus c. Candida utilis d. All of the above 17. Analysi s of protein anti en is by a. Southern blot c. Western blot b. Northern blot d. None of these 25. Blood roup anti ens are a. Species specific c. Autospecific b. Isospecific d. Or an specific 26. The reaction of soluble anti en with antibody is known by a. Precipitation c . A lutination b. Flocculation d. Complement fixation 18. Which of the followin can provide naturally acquired passive immunity for t he new born. a. I A c. I E b. I G d. I M 27. Interferon is composed of a. Lipids c. Glycoprotein b. Lipoprotein d. Nuclei c acid 28. A lutination reaction is stron est with the immuno lobulin: a. I M c. I A b . I G d. I D 19. AIDS disease is caused by a virus which belon s to a. Retro virus roup b. R habdo virus roup c. Hepatitis virus roup d. Adeno virus roup 20. Complement b ased reaction is known as a. Haem a lutination b. Coplement fixation c. Con lut ination d. Schultz Dale Phenomenon 21. Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme involv ed in the synthesis of a. DNA b. Soluble RNA c. m-RNA from DNA d. Nucleotides a lutination 29. The use of monoclonal antibodies is a. Immunotherapy b. Gene therapy c. Bloo d transfusion d. Or an transfusion 30. Hybridoma technique is used for a. b. c. d. Monoclonal antibodies Polyclonal antibodies Both a and b None of these 31. Test used for AIDS is a. Widal test c. A 32. Antibody havin
luatination b. ELISA d. CFT
hi h valency is a. I G c. I D b. I A d. I M
IMMUNOLOGY 33. Intensity of attraction between anti en and antibody molecule is known as a. Affiniy c. Reaction b. Avidity d. None of these #! 43. Durin recombination, the strain that donates enetic material frequently wi th hi h rate: a. Hfr-Strain c. F-Strain b. F+-Strain d. both a and c 34. Active immunity is induced by a. b. c. d. Infection Placental transfer of an tibodies Injection of antibodies Injection of amma- lobulins 44. The character acquired by the cell due to recombination is a. Inheritable c. Dominatin b. Syppressed d. Heritable 35. Pasteur developed the vaccines for a. Anthrax c. Chicken cholera b. Rabies d . All of the above 45. T-cells are produced from a. Bonemarrow c. Spleen b. Thymus d. None of these 36. Delayed type of hypersensitivity is seen in a. Penicillin aller y c. Arthus reaction b. Contact dermatitis d. Anaphylaxis for the 46. Antibodies are produced from a. T-cells c. NK cells b. â-cells d. Eosinophil s 37. The followin are usedEther preservation of virus, except a. b. c. d. Freezin 20°C–70°C) Lyophilization Formaldehyde
(–
47. Incomplete anti ens are called a. Immuno ens c. Haptens b. Epitomes d. Parat ope 48. To be anti en, the chemical molecule (protein) needs a. Hi h molecular wei h t b. Chemical complexity c. Both a and b d. None of these 49. The parts which fi lter lymph are a. Lymph nodes c. Thymus b. Spleen d. Bone marrow 38. Antibody formation depends on a. b. c. d. A e of the person Amount of anti e n Well bein of the person All of the above 39. Local immunity is important in a. Influenza c. Polio b. Aller y d. All of th ese 40. Role of ma nesium in vaccine is a. Adjuvant c. Conditioner b. Stabilizer d. All of these 50. The primary cells involved in immune response are a. NK-cells c. Lymphocytes b. K-cells d. None of these 41. Immunity is life lon w fever
followin
a. Diphtheria c. Measles b. Tetanus d. Yello
51. Plasma cells are the end cells of a. T-cells c. Killer cells b. β-cells d. N k-cells 42. To prepare vaccine for small pox, the material used y Edward Jenner is a. S mall pox material . Chicken pox material c. Cow-pox material d. Measles materia l 52. Basophils have receptors for anti odies a. IgG c. IgM
. IgA d. IgE
#" 53. Because of denaturation, antigens ecome functionless, these are called: a. . c. d. Cross-reactive antigens Epitopes Hidden epitopes Forssman antigens MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 63. For the separation of antigens the method used is a. horesis Flocculation Agglutination None of these
. c. d. Immunoelectrop
54. Capacity of antigen to reakdown into small fragments eachwith a single epit opic region is known as a. Solu ility c. Denaturation . Froeignness d. None of these 64. Counter immunoelectrophoresis is useful for detection of a. igen/anti ody Two antigens/anti ody More than two None of these 55. Antigenic specificity is due to a. teric configuration All of these
. c. d. One ant
. c. d. Chemical complexity Solu ility S
65. When a particular antigen is mixed with anti ody in the presence of an elect rolyte at suita le temperature and pH the particles are clumped, this is called: a. Precipitation c. Electrophoresis . Agglutination d. CIE 56. Anti odies are a. Proteins c. Phospholipids e 66. Toxins andd. viruses can e detected Agglutination None of these
. Glycoproteins d. None of thes
y a. Precipitation c. Neutralisation
57. General purpose anti ody is a. IgA c. IgM
.
. IgG d. IgD
67. Which is most antigenic? a. Exotoxins c. Viruses se 58. Anti ody present in colostrums is a. IgG c. IgM
. Endotoxins d. All of the
. IgA d. IgE
68. Shick test is used for the detection of a. Diphtheria c. Cholera Typhoid
. T.B. d.
59. Which anti ody is called millionaire molecule? a. IgA c. IgG 60. IgE is disc overed y a. Ishizaka c. Richet . Porter d. None of these . IgM d. IgD 69. Secondary function of complements are a. Haemolysis c. Both a and cytosis d. None of these 61. Antigen-anti ody reactions are a. Reversi le c. Specific Both a and
. Phago
. Irreversi le d.
70. Very effective, less time consuming and at a time so many samples can ected y a. ELISA c. Neutralization . CFT d. Agglutination
e det
62. Serological reactions are useful for a. . c. d. Detection of antigens Detec tion of anti odies Both a and None of these 71. â-cells are involved in a. . c. d. Humoral immunity Cell-mediated immunity Active immunity Passive immunity
IMMUNOLOGY 72. Innate immunity is a. Specific c. Active . Non-specific d. Passive 82. Anth rax vaccine is prepared y a. . c. d. Attenuated acilli Killing the acilli Li ve acilli None of these ## 73. Innate immunity is developed riers Both a and None of these
y a.
. c. d. Mechanical
83. Attenuated, oral poliomyelitis vaccine is a. in vaccine TAB vaccine
ar
. c. d. BCG Measles vaccine Sa
74. Acquired immunity is a. Natural c. Active & Passive these 84. Killed, polio vaccine is a. Sa in vaccine c. BCG 75. Acquired immunity can e developed tificial means d. None of these
arriers Chemical
. Artificial d. All of
. Salk d. TAB
y a. Natural means c. Both a and
85. Measles vaccine is given to children at the age of a. hs etween 9 months and 10 years None of these
. Ar
. c. d. 1 year 7 mont
76. Immediate type hypersensitivity reactions are a. Type-I c. Type-III II d. All a, and c 77. Immediate type of hypersensitivity reactions are mediated ast cells . β-cells d. Macrophages
. Type-
y a. T-cells c. M
86. Pertussis vaccine is a. Heat killed c. Attenuated 87. DPT is a. Triple vacci ne c. Tetanus toxoid . Dou le vaccine d. All of these . Formalin killed d. liv e 78. Example for cell-mediated immunity are a. Tu erculin type c. Granulomatous . Contact dermatitis d. All of these 88. DPT, is used as vaccine for a. Diphtheria c. Tetanus toxoid cine d. All of these
. Pertussis vac
79. Mountax reaction is used for detection of a. T.B. c. Cholera . None of these
. Diphtheria d
89. DPT is given to children at the age of 1624 months, as the dose is a. . c. d. 0.5 ml at intervals of 4 weeks A ooster dose of 0.5 ml Both a and None of these 80. All the anti odies produced from a â-cell are having a. Similar specificity . Different specificities c. Similar size d. None of these 81. Hy ridoma format ion in hy ridoma technique is from a. Spleen cell – Myeloma cell . Spleen cell – Spleen cell c. Myeloma cell – Myeloma cell d. None of these 90. If more than one kind of immunizing agent is included in the vaccine, it is a. . c. d. Cellular vaccine Recom inant vaccine Mixed vaccine Toxoid vaccine
#$ 91. Vaccines are prepared from killed micro es, they are a. . c. d. Inactivated (killed) vaccine Attenuated vaccines Autogenous vaccine None of these MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 99. Match the following terms with their respective definitions A to E used in v irology : 1. Haemagglutination A. A phenomenon of acquiring resistance to infection y a i nfection y a second virus B. A virus does not cause cytopathogenic changes in t issue culture C. Determination of the num er of infective units in the virus sus pension D. A su stance y which viruses can attack themselves to red E. Su stance used to destroy virus
lood cells
2. Virus titre 92. Vaccines used against viral infections are a. . c. d. Measles and Mumps vac cine Cholera vaccine Typhoid vaccine Anti-rickettsial vaccine 3. Virus interference 4. Interferon 93. micro esvaccines used in Anti the vaccine arevaccines o tainedAutogenous from patient, they None are a. . c.If d.the Anti viral acterial vaccines of these 100. Match the following vaccines with their respective contents A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Typhoid vaccine Typhus vaccine Measles vaccine Smallpox A. B. C. D. E. Killed rickettsia Killed acteria Attenuated viruses Killed viruses Attenuate d acteria 94. Vaccines prepared from toxins and chemicals are a. . c. d. Cellular vaccine s Su -cellular vaccines Attenuated vaccines Heterologous vaccines 101. Match the following immunglo ulins with their respective occurrences A to E : 1. 2. 3. 4. IgM IgG IgA IgE In the seromucous secretions After the primary antig enic stimulus C. Synthesized during secondary response D. Plasma E. Serum A. B. 95. Example for live vaccine is a. & Tetanus Hepatitis A & Ra ies
. c. d. Ru ella & BCG Polio & TAB Diphtheria
96. DPT is given for the prevention of a. . c. d. Diphtheria, Tetanus Diphtheri a, Pertusis Diphtheria, Tetanus & pertusis None of these 102. Match the following viral vaccines with their source materials A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Influenza Ra ies Smallpox Yellow fever Fluid from cultures of human diploid cells B. Dermal scraping from infected animals C. Allantoic fluid from f ertile hen’s eggs D. Fluid from cultures of ra it kidney E. Aqueous homogenate of chick em ryo A. 97. The live vaccines are availa le against the following viruses, except: a. In fluenza c. Ra ies . Measles d. Polio 98. HIV can these
e transmitted through a. Blood c. Vaginal fluid
. Semen d. All of
103. Animals are naturally immune to infection caused and . S.typhosa d. None of these
y a. V. Cholera c. Both a
IMMUNOLOGY 104. The immunity acquired y inoculation of living organism of attenuated virul ence is a. . c. d. Artificial active immunity Passive immunity Natural active i mmunity Local immunity #% 110. Antitoxin is used for _____ immunization. a. Active c. Both a and ive d. None of these 111. The agglutinin test is used for _______ a. Identification of isolated
. Pass
acte
ria . Typing of acterial species c. Study of antigenic structure of acteria d . All of these e. None of these 112. In lood transfusion it is essential that a . Blood of hologous group should always e same . Direct matching etween patie nt’s serum and donor’s corpuscles e performed c. Both a & d. None of these 11 3. To e anaphylactic, the sensitizing su stance should e a. Protein in nature . Should have a large molecular weight c. Solu le in tissue fluids d. All of th e a ove e. None of these 114. The asics of pathology in asthama, allergic rhini tis, urticaria are a. Local vasodilation . Increased capillary secretion c. Exc ess eosinophils in tissue secretion and lood d. All of these 115. Which test is used for detecting suscepti ility of an individual to diphtheria toxin? a. Schi ck tests c. V-P test . Dick test d. Precipitin test 105. Or ganisms can e attenuated for inoculation y a. Growing it at a temperat ure higher than optimum . By passage through animals of different species which are less suscepti le to it c. By continous cultivation in presence of antagonis ticfor su the stance d. Any one ofa. the.ac. ove these 106. 10 Passive las ts period of a out d.e. 10None daysof 2 – 3 months yearsimmunity None of the a ove 107. The markers helpful in detecting antiimmunity are a. . c. d. e. Hyper gamm a glo ulinaemia Circulating anti odies Response to cortisone Lymphoid hyperplasi a All of these 108. Following su stance may act as an antigen a. . c. d. e. Egg al umin RBC an d serum Vegeta le protein Snake venom All of these 109. H antigen are present in a. None of these
. c. d. Motile organ Non-motile organ Both a &
116. Syndromes associated with Human T lymphotropic virus type I(HTLV-I) are a. Adult T-cell lymphoma . Hairy cell leukemia c. Adult T cell leukemia d. All of these
#& 117. Plague and Tularemia vaccine can e prepared from a. Chemical fraction of t he causative acteria . Heat killed suspension of virulent acteria c. Formalin inactivated suspension of virulent acteria d. Avirulent live acteria e. All o f these 118. AIDS patients suffer from pneumoniae due to a. Pneumocystisis carin ii . Cryptospodidium c. S.pneumoniae d. Toxoplasma 119. Statements applica le t o human lice: a. Cause pruritic skin lesions. . Are wingless c. Transmit epidem ic typhus, relapsing fever and Trench fever d. Pediculus humanus and phthirus pu is are two species e. All of these 120. Natural killer cells a. Belongs to B-ce ll lineage . Belongs to T-cell lineage c. Display cytotoxic effect on tumour ce ll d. Require previous antigen exposure for activation 121. Immunoglo ulin is as sociated with anaphylactic delayed hypersensitivity reaction a. IgE c. IgD e. Ig G 122. The most a undant anti ody found in serum is a. IgA – 1 c. IgG – 2 e. IgG – 4 . IgG – 1 d. IgG – 3 . IgA d. IgM MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 123. Patients suffering from AIDS have following immune a normalities a. . c. d . e. Decreased CD4 + T cells Increased CD8 + T cells Hypergammaglo ulinemia CD4 +/CD8 + ratio greater than 21 Both & d 124. Immunoglo ulin which cannot activate complement a. IgM c. IgA 125. Hydatid disease is identified d. Freis test
y a. Schick test c. Casoni test
. IgE d. IgG . Dick test
126. Prausnitz kustner reaction is generated y a. IgA c. IgG . IgE d. IgD 127. Immunoglo in which are found in asthma at elevated level: a. IgA c. IgM IgE d. IgD
.
128. What is the similarity etween IgM & IgG? a. A compliment fixation . Place ntal transport c. Heat sta ility at 56oC d. Sedimentation coefficient 129. What is the technique for quantitative estimation of immunoglo ulin? a. Single diffus ion in one dimension . Single diffusion in two dimension c. Dou le diffusion in one dimension d. Dou le diffusion in two dimension 130. Cell mediated immunity can e identified y a. Sheep red lood corpuscles roasette formation . Microp hase inhi iting factor c. Skin test for delayed hyper sensitivity d. All of thes e
IMMUNOLOGY 131. Out of the following which are the examples of autoimmune disease? a. Acqui red Haemolytic anaemia . Rheumatoid arthritis c. Hashiomoto disease d. All of t hese 132. Which of the following is a true statement regarding Purified Protine Derivative (PPD) used in tu erculin test? a. Prepared from tu ercle acilli . I t is inferior to old tu erculin c. Consists of filtrate of glycerol roth d. Non e of these # 133. Which of the following are inactive viral vaccines? a. Ra ies Russian spring summer encephalitis All of these pes virus
. c. d. Influenzae
. Small pox virus d. Her
134. Antigenic variation is most extensive in a. Influenza virus c. Measles viru s 135. Which is the correct statement related to hepatitis B virus? a. Paramyxo vi rus c. Reo viruses . Orthomyxo virus d. Retro viruses ANSWERS 1. c 2. a 7. a 8. a 13. 14. c 19. a 20. a 25. 26. a 31. 32. d 37. c 38. d 43. a 44. d 49. a 50. c 55. c 56. 61. d 62. c 67. a 68. a 73. c 74. d 79. a 80. a 85. c 86. 91. a 92. a 97. c 98. d 101. 1. , 2.c, 3.a, 4.e 103. c 1 04. a 109. a 110. 115. a 116. 121. a 122. a 127. 128. a 133. d 134. a 3. c 9. c 15. a 21. a 27. 33. a 39. d 45. 51. 57. 63. a 69. c 75. c 81. a 87 . a 93. c 99. 1.d, 2.c, 102. 1.c, 2.a, 105. d 111. d 117. e 123. e 129. 135. c 10. 16. 3. c 22. a 28. a 4.e 34. 106. a 40.a 112. 46. c 118. 52. dd58. a 70. a 76. .4. a 88. d 94. , 4.a 3. , 124. 64. 130. d 5. 6.da82 1 1. a 12. 17. c 18. 23. a 24. d 29. a 30. a 35. d 36. 41. c 42. c 47. c 48. c 53. c 54. a 59. 60. a 65. 66. c 71. a 72. 77. 78. d 83. c 84. a 89. c 90. c 95. a 96. c 100. 1. , 2.a, 3.d, 4.c 107. e 113. 119. e 125. c 131. d 10 8. c 114. e 120. c 126. 132. a
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CHAPTER 9 MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 1. Food poisoning is caused y a. iptheria Clostridium otulinum
. c. d. Clostridum tetani Clostridum Welchi D
c. They have 70 S ri osomes d. None of the a ove 7. AIDS is caused y a. Retrovi rus c. Rha dovirus 8. Penicillin is a a. Primary meta olite . Secondary meta ol ite c. Tertiary meta olite d. None of the a ove 9. The rejection of an organ tra nsplant such as a kidney transplant, is an example of _____ Hypersensitivity. a. Immediate c. Allergy
. Delayed d. None of these
. Prion d. Retroprison
2. Koplic’s spots will develop in a. HIV c. Mumps
. Measles d. Ru ella
3. Viral DNA is resistant to DNA of the host cell c. 5’-CHM . 5’-HMA d. 5’MHC
ecause it contains a. 5’-HMC
4. Which of the following is an example of live vaccine? a. pertusis c. cholera . mumps d. ra ies 10. Listeriosis was ______ disease. a. Food . Air orne
orne c. Milk
orne
. Water
orne d
5. Triple toxoid vaccine gives protection against a. . c. d. Diphtheria, tetanu s and ra ies Tetanus, whooping cough, Tu erculosis Whooping cough, tetanus and D iphtheria Whooping cough, cancer and T.B. 11. Pus-forming forms are called as a. Pyoderm c. Pyrogen the a ove
. Pyogenic d. None of
6. Higher does of chloramphenicol affects the eukaryotic cells ave 30 S ri osomes . They have mitochondria 12. In Elisa technique, the anti odies are la eled ral red . Alkaline phosphate d. Bromothymol lue
ecause a. They h
y a. Acridine orange c. Neut
$ 13. _____ is a genetic disease charachterized y a total or partial ina ility to synthesize glo ulins. a. Apitososis . Agamma glo ulinemia c. Gammaglo ulinemma d. Sickle-cell anemia. 14. A study involving analysis of risk for genetic defec ts in a family is a. Genetic Engineering . Genetic counseling c. Genetic drift d. Genetic equili rium 15. Viral antigens are likely a. Proteins c. Lipo protein s . Glyco proteins d. Both a and MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 22. Anti iotic produced from streptomyces orientalis is a. Streptomycin c. Vanco mycin
. Penicillin d. Both a and
23. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is a. Griseofulv in c. Gentian violet 24. Botulism means a. . c. d. a. . c. d. a. . c. d. Food adultration Food poisioning y streptococcus acteria Chemical contamination of food Food processing Streptomyces griseus Streptomyces venezuelae Streptomyces pyrogenes None of these Streptococcus species Streptomyces griseus Straphylococc us aureus None of these . Amphoterein B d. Nystatin 25. Chloramphenicol is o tained from 16. The suita le assay method for anti iotics is a. Enzymatic assay . Tur idome tric assay c. End point determination assay d. Meta olic assay 17. ELISA test is used for the identification of a. Janudice c. Cancer . AIDS d. Dia etis 26. Streptomycin is o tained from 27. The treatment required for small odies of water is a. Disinfection c. Purif ication a. . c. d. a. . c. d. a. . c. d. . Filtration d. All of these 18. Incu ation period for infective Hepatitis disease a. 45 – 80 days c. 35 – 50 days . 15 – 35 days d. 5 – 15 days 28. Surface ropiness is caused y Alkaligenes viscolactis Streptococcus oth a a nd None of these Bacteria in lood Toxin in lood Pus in lood Multiplication of acteria and toxins in lood Interleukin – 2 infusion Azathioprine Alpha inte rferon None of these 19. All of the following are acteriostatic chemotherapeutic agents except a. Ba citracin c. Novo iocin . Chloramphenicol d. Tetracycline 29. Septicaemia is 20. Kinetosomes are o served in a. Algae c. Protozoa
. Fungi d. Viruses
30. In AIDS, Kaposis sarcoma may respond to 21. β-lactum ring is present in a. Erythromycin c. Tetracyclins Chromphenical
. Penicillin d.
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 31. Ciprofloxacin acts y inhi iting a. Cellwall synthesis . RNA synthesis c. F olate synthesis d. DNA gyrase 32. Lyme disease is caused y a. Bacteria c. Spiro chaete . Fungi d. Virus $! 42. A num er of viruses are known to infect mycoplasmas, called a. eriophages Mycoplasma phages Virions Tiny strains 43. The following are true a out Rickettsiae. a.
. c. d. Bact
. c. d. e. Unicellular organis
ms Prokaryotic intracellular parasites Presence of 70 S ri osomes It causes hemo lysis in human eings Gram negative plemorphic rods 33. Toxic shock syndrome is caused h. aureus d. None of these
y a. Staph. al us c. Strep. viridana
34. Black water fever is caused one of these
y a. P. vivax c. P. ovale
44. The causative agent of scru ettsii d. R.prowazekii
typhus: a. R.Quintana c. R.orinetalis
35. Mantoux test detects a. M. tu erculosis c. Clostridia th a and
. Stap
. P. falciparum d. N
. R.rick
. Cynao acteria d. Bo
45. Lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV) is a sexually d. transmitted disease is caused a. Copthalmia c. C.pneumonias . C.trachomatis C.psittasi 36. The anti iotic acting on cell wall is a. Bactracin c. Cyclosporine llin d. All of these
y
. Penici
46. Intradermal test employed for diagnosis of LGV is a. Frei test c. Schick tes t . Mantoux test d. Dick test 37. Aflatoxin is produced sps d. None of these
y a. Aspergillus sps c. Alternaria sps
. Penicillium
47. Which algae is pathogenic to human? a. Cephaloeuros c. Macrocystis ix d. Prototheca 38. Penicillin is discovered
y a. Fleming c. Koch
. Pasteur d. None of these
48. Erythromycin is o tained from a. S.griseus c. S.sca ies ythraeus
. S.rimosus d. S.er
39. Anti iotics used in com ination may demonstrate a. Synergism c. ginism d. None of these 49. Common cold is caused . Pox virus
. Ulothr
y a. Adeno virus c. Hepatitis virus
oth
. Anta
. Corono virus d
40. The drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is a. Histamine c. Epinephrine orticosteroid d. None of these
. C
50. The causative agent of conjunctivitis: a. Adeno virus c. Paramyxo virus orono virus d. None of these
. C
41. Drugs of choice for treatment of Mycoplasma infections: a. Tetracyclines c. a and . Erythromycin d. Penicillins
51. Anti iotics used for treatment of cholera are a. Tetracyclines c. Streptomyc ines . Penicillins d. None of these
$" 52. Salmonella typhi is causative organism of a. Undulent fever c. Dengue fever . Remittent fever d. Enteric fever MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 61. Coryne acterium is a. Gram positive . Resistant to Penicillin tive d. Resistant to Chloramphenicol 62. C. diphtheriae consists of ranules . Polymeta phosphate granules c. Lipid granules d. None of e incu ation period of diphtheriae is a. Upto 2 weeks c. 2–4 weeks k d. None of these
c. Gram nega a. Startch g these 63. Th . Upto 1 wee
53. Which of the following Salmonella paratyphi is the commonest in India? a. A c. C . B d. None of these 54. In enteric fever, the organ lodging maximum num er of the organism is a. Liv er c. Small intestine . Gall ladder d. Large intestine 55. True a out Enteric fever is a. . c. d. Bacteraemia in first week Carrier in 90% All serotypes cause the disease Rosy spots on 18th day 64. Diphtheria virulence test is a. Ascoli’s thermoprecipitation test . Eleck’s gel precipitation test c. C.R.P test d. M.R.T. test 65. Diptheria toxoid is pre pared y using a. Aldehyde c. Phenols . Formalin d. None of these 56. Gastroenteritis is caused
y a.
. c. d. Shigella V.cholerae V.cholera Parah
aenolyticus S.typhi 57. E.coli produces the following toxins: a. Enterotoxins c. Verocytotoxins ndotoxins d. Hemolysins 66. Diphtheria is an example of a. Bacteraemia c. Septicemia mia
. E
. Pyaemia d. Toxae
58. The following infections caused y Esch. Coli, except a. . c. d. e. Urinary tract infections Septic infections of wounds Diarrhoea Dysentery Meningitis 67. Main symptom of tu erculosis is a. Tu ercle formation . Liquid formation c. Both a and d. None of these 68. BCG vaccine is for the prevention of a. Bruce llosis c. Botulism . Diphtheria d. Tu erculosis 59. Diphtheria is caused Jeikeium C. equi
y a.
. c. d. Coryne acterium diphtheriae C. Bovis C.
69. Dose of BCG vaccine is a. 0.2–0.5 ml c. 0.05 ml
. 0.1 ml d. 0.2 to 0.3 ml
70. Negative Mantoux test is important in a. Pulmonary Koch’s syndrome dosis c. Carcinoma ronchus d. Lymphoma 60. Causative organism of diphtheria was first demonstrated Lois Pasteur c. Kle s and Loeffler d. Volhard and Fahr
. Sarcoi
y a. Ro ert Koch
.
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 71. Bacilli Calmette Guerin (BCG) contains the avirulent strains of a. . c. d. Human tu ercle acilli Avian tu ercle acilli Bovine tu ercle acilli A typical myco acteria $# 79. In human eing str. pneumoniae causes a. Septicaemia c. Pneumomnia a. d. . Paronychia d. None of these
. c.
80. Virulence factor for Stre. pneumoniae: Capsular polysaccharide Specific solu le su stance Vi-antigen Forsmann antigen
. Pneumococcus d. None of these
72. Drugs used against tu erculosis (TB) are a. . c. d. Refampicin, Isoniazid P yrazinamide, Streptomycin Both a and None of these 81. Conjunctivitis in a new
orn is caused
y a. Streptococcus c. Meningococci
73. The greatest num er of tu ercle acilli is present in a. . c. d. Large size d tu erculomas Miliary tu erculosis Tu erculous lymphadinitis Tu erculous cavity of the lung 82. Influenza is elonging to a. Orthomyxoviridae . Retroviridae c. Both a and d. None of these 83. Influenza virus contains a. . c. d. Eight segments of RN A Two strands of RNA Single RNA None of these . St.pyogenes d. None of these 74. Histoid Hansen islepramatous a veriety of a. . c. d.leprosy Tu erculoid Leprosy Borderline tu erculoid Borderline Lepronmetous 84. ‘Reye’s syndrome’ is caused
y a. St.pneumoniae c. Influenza a.
. c. d.
75. Streptococcus pyogens produces all of the following lesions, except a. d. Impetigo contagiosa Erysipeals Boil Paronchia
. c.
85. Geraman measles is also known as Ru ella / 2-day measles Ru ella / 3day meas les Ru ella / 4-day measles Ru ella / 1-day measles 76. Causative agent of Scarlet fever: a. . c. d. Staphylococcus aureus Streptoc occus viridans Stre. pyogens None of these 86. The commonest cause of ru ella in new ornes a. . c. d. Congential ru ella Post natal ru ella Expanded ru ella syndrome (ERS) Both a and c 87. Mumps virus is elonging go a. Retroviriae . Paramyxoviriae c. Orthomyxo vi ridae d. None of these 88. Measles is characterized y a. . c. d. Negri odies B a es-Ernest granules Koplik’s spots Fever 77. Rheumatic fever is most commonly caused . Str. pyogenes d. None of these
y a. Str. viridans c. Stph. aures
78. Penicillin is the drug of choice for a. Scarlet fever c. Brucellosis ping cough d. Cholera
. Whoo
$$ 89. Brucella causes a. Pertusis c. Brucellosis
. Plague d. None of these
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 99. Neurological complications following ra ies vaccines is common with a. Chick em ryo vaccine . HDCS vaccine c. Semple vaccine d. BPL vaccine 100. Which anti ra ic vaccine has een recommended y WHO as the most effective? a. Duck em ryo vaccine . HDCS vaccine c. Sheep rain vaccine d. BPL vaccine 101. The causativ e agent of tetanus is a. Clostridium otulinum . Cl. tetani c. Cl. welchii d. C l. perfringens 102. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxin from lood to rain is a. Via lymphaties . Arterial lood c. Cranial nerves d. None of these 103. Tetanus is caused y spread of a. Exotoxin in sympathetic system . Exotoxin in para sympathetic system c. Endotoxin in sympathetic system d. Endotoxin in paras ympathetic system 104. The first symptom of tetanus is a. Lock jaw c. Anorexia . Trismus d. Dyspagia 90. Mediterranian fever is caused phi d. Brucella
y a. M. tu erculosis c. C.neoformans
. S. ty
91. Which of the following test is specific for Brucellosis? a. Frei c. Castaned a strip . Weil d. Rose water 92. Malignant pustule is caused f these
y a. Anthrax c. Diphtheria
. Tetanus d. None o
93. d. TheHepatic commonest form of anthrax in man is a. Alimentary c. Pulmonary ous
. Cutane
94. The animals most frequently infected with anthrax are a. Sheep c. Goats attle d. All of these 95. Virus causing Ra ies is a. Orthromyxo virus d. Toga viruses
. C
. Paramyxo virus c. Rh do virus
96. Rha do viruses are elonging to the family: a. Rha do viridae . Toga virida e c. Paramyxo viridae d. None of these 97. Ra ies Virus isolated from natural hu man or animal infection is termed as a. Street virus c. Both a and . Fixed vi rus d. None of these 105. Of which clostridia, the neurotoxin is most powerful? a. Cl. tetani c. Cl. otulism . Cl. welchii d. Cl. septicum 98. Ra ies virus can multiply in a. The central nervous system only heral nerves c. Muscle tissues d. All the a ove 106. Toxin produced d. Cholaragen
y C.
otulism is a. Botulin c. Tetanolysin
. The perip
. Tetanospasmin
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 107. “Toxic shock syndrome” is caused y the toxin of a. . c. d. Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pyoge Vi rio cholerae Candida 116. Virulence in gonococcus is due to $% a. Pili . Cell mem rane c. Its cellular location d. Cyclic enzymes 117. Japanes e encephalitis is caused y a. Toga Viruses . Ar o Viruses c. Para myxo Viruses d. Ortho myxo Viruses 118. In India, Japanese encephalitis was first isolated from the mosquitoes of the a. . c. d. Culex tritaeriorhynchus Culex annulirost ris Culex vishnui None of these 108. Causative agent of syphilis a. T. pallidum c. T. carateum T. endemicum
. T. pertenue d.
109. Spirochaelis are sensitive to a. Penicillin . Chloramphenicols c. Erythrom ycin d. Tetracyclins 110. Specific test for syphilis is a. VDRL test c. FTA 111. VDRL test is a a. Agglutination test . Slide flocculation test c. Precipitatio n test d. None of these 112. The following characters are true a out Neisseria g onorrhoeae except a. Gram-negative, aero ic acteria . Non-motile diplococci c. Oxidase positive organisms d. Air orne infection 113. Gonorrhoea is a. . c. d . Air orne disease Water orne disease Sexually transmitted venereal disease Bo th a and c . ELISA d. None of these 119. Dengue virus is transmitted from man to man ypti . Ticks d. Culex 120. Yellow fever is caused ne of these
y the a. Sand fly c. Aedes aeg
y a. Bunya virus c. Ar o virus
121. Vector for leishmaniasis is a. Tick c. Sand fly
. Calci virus d. No
. Mite d. Tsetse fly
122. Splenomegaly is an important manifestation of a. Kala-agar c. Malaria phoid d. All of these 123. Which of the following is most severly affected in Kala-azar? a. iver Spleen Adrenal gland Bone marrow
. Ty
. c. d. L
124. In India, malaria most often spreads y a. . c. d. Anophels cucifacies Ano pheles fluvatis Anopheles stephensi Anopheles minimus 114. Bartholin cyst is caused . Gonococcus
y a. Candida c. Staphylococcus
. Streptococcus d
115. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes a. Urethritis c. Arthritis All of the a ove
. Conjuctivitis d.
125. Man is intermediate host for a. Guinea Worm c. Malaria zar
. Filaria d. Kala-a
$& 126. Which of the following prefera ly infects reticulocytes? a. P. ovale c. P.f alciparum . P.vivax d. P.malaria MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 135. Penicillic acid is produced lum d. None of the a ove
y a. A. ochraceus c. Both a and
. P. pu eru
136. Fungi producting mycelium are called a. Moulds c. Both a and us fungi d. Yeasts
. Filamento
127. In which type of material parasite in the exoerythrocytic stage a sent? a. P.ovale c. P.falciparum . P.vivax d. P. malariae 137. Candidiasis is caused y a. Candida al icans . Aspergillus spp. c. E. floc cosum d. M. audouinii 138. Candida al icans is capa le to form a. Single cells . Pseudomonas c. Multicellular forms d. None of these 139. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect a. A. niger c. A. flavus . A. fumigatus d. A. oryzae 128. In falciparum malaria, all of the following stages are seen except a. Ring stage c. Gametocyte . Schizont d. None of these 129. Sporozite vaccine in malaria has a. . c. d. Induces anti odies Prevents on ly asexual forms with reproduction No effects on clinical illness None of the a ove 140. A.fumigates can produce a. Endotoxins c. Enterotoxins of these
. Exotoxins d. None
130. Growing trophozoites and schizonts are not seen in the peripheral malaria due to a. P. falciparum c. P.ovale . P.vivax d. P. malaria
lood in
141. The drug of choice for dermal, oral and vaginal candidiasis is a. Griseoful vin c. Gentian violet . Amphotericin B d. Nystatin 131. Thin lood smear for malaria is used to identify a. Plasmodium c. Type of p arasite . Gametocytes d. Schizont 142. The following Penicillium species are pathogenic except a. P. commune c. P. glaucum . P. icolor d. P.notatum 132. The radical teatment of malaria is to half a. rocytic phase Erythrocytic phase All of these
. c. d. Gametocyte Exo-eryth
143. Tinea versicolor is caused y a. Candida al icans . Malassezia furfur c. A spergillus niger d. None of these 144. Causative agent of Tinea nigra a. . c. d . Malassezia furfur Exophiala werenekii Candida al icans Aspergillus flavus 133. Symptoms of acute aflatoxicosis a. ukemia Malaise & Anorexia Both a and
. c. d. Osteogenic sarcoma Lymphatic le
134. Most important Penicillium toxins are a. ic acid All of the a ove
. c. d. Citrinin Patulin Penicill
145. Causative agent of African histoplasmosis a. . c. d. Histoplasma capsulatu m Histoplasma du oissi Aspergillus niger Aspergillus flavus
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 146. Sun ray fungus is a. . c. d. Actinomyces irraeli Chromo lastomycosis Strep tomyces griseus Cryptococcosis 155. acitracin sensitivity test is done for a. P neunocci . Group ‘A’ Streptococci c. Gonococci d. Staphylococci $ 147. Which agent on addition to a colony inhi its its growth and on removal the colony regrows is? a. Bacteriostatic c. Anti iotic . Bactericidal d. Antiseptic 156. The effect of anti iotics on of cell-wall synthesis . Damage ucleic acid and protein synthesis on cell wall is a. Penicillin c.
micro organisms is mainly due to a. Inhi ition to the cytoplasmic mem rane c. Inhi ition of n d. All of the a ove 157. The anti iotic acting Cyclosporin . Bacitracin d. All of the a ove
148. Griseofluvin is o tained from a. . c. d. Penicillium notatum Streptomyces griseus Penicillium griseofluvin None of these 149. β-lactum ring is present in a. Erythromycin c. Tetracyclins . Chloramphenicol
. Penicillin d
158. Erythromycin elongs to chemical class of anti iotics a. â-lactose c. Macro lides . Tetracyclines d. Aminoglycosides 150. All of the following drugs act on cell mem rane, except a. Novo iocin c. Ch loromycetin . Nystatin d. Colicins 159. Bacterial resistance to anti iotics is transmitted tation . Transformation d. Plasmids
y a. Transduction c. Mu
151. Cycloserine related to the amino acid in structure a. Serine c. Alanine Aspergine d. None of these
.
160. Erythromycin inhi its protein synthesis y a. Attaching to 30 S ri osome un it . Attaching to 50 S unit or ri osome c. By the attachment to t-RNA d. By the attachment to m-RNA 161. The function of (THFA) Tetrahydrofolic acid coenzyme i nclude a. Amino acid synthesis . Thymidine synthesis c. Protein synthesis d. Bo th a and 162. Resistant to drugs in tu erculosis develops y a. Transduction c . Conjugation . Transformation d. Mutation 152. In Tu erculosis therapy mainly used anti iotic is a. Penicillin c. Chloramp henol . Streptomycin d. Cycloserine 153. The anti acterial action of penicillin is due to its effect on a. . c. d. Cell mem rane permea ility Cell wall synthesis DNA synthesis Protein synthesis 154. The anti iotic produced from Bacillus su tilis is a. Vancomycin c. Both a a nd . Bactiracin d. None of these
% 163. Which of the following is penicillinase resistang acid la ile penicillin? a . Amoxycillin c. Car enicillin . Cloxacillin d. Methicillin MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY a. MIC (minimum inhi itory concentration) . Thermal death point (TDP) c. Death rate d. None of these 172. Clear-zones formation around anti iotic disc is due t o a. Growth of the acterium surrounding of the disc . Lysis of the acterial c ells surrounding the disc c. The destruction of paper disc (anti iotic) d. None of these 173. Bacitracin is o tained from a. B. su tilis c. B. cereus . B. anth racis d. B. anthracoid 164. Which of the following does not inhi it cell wall synthesis? a. Penicillin c. Amikacin . Car enicillin d. Vancomycin 165. The anti tumor anti iotics act y inhi iting a. Cell wall synthesis . RNA synthesis c. Cell mem rane synthesis d. The DNA structure & function 166. Drug r esistance to sulphonamides is due to a. Production of PABA . Folic acid synthet ase c. Drug alteration d. Low affinity for drug synthesis y acteria 167. Amoxy cillin is com ined with clavulanic acid to inhi it a. DNA gyrace c. Protein synt hesis . Cell synthesis d. β-lactamase enzymes 174. Vancomycin is o tained from a. Streptococcus species . Aspergillus niger c . Streptomyces orientalis d. Bacillus anthracis 175. â-lactum anti iotics are a. Penicillin c. Both a & . Cephalosporin d. None of these 168. Drug of choice for methicillin resistant staph. Aureus is a. Ampicillin c. Neomycin . Erythromycin d. Vancomycin 176. Following are the test organisms used for the I.P micro iological assay of anti iotics match them correctly: 1. 2. 3. 4. Rifampicin Tetracyclin Streptomycin Chloramphenol A. B. D. E. Escher ichia Coli Kle siella pneumonia Bacillus su tilis Bacillus cereus 169. Nalidixic acid activity is due to a. The inhi ition of DNA synthesis . Inh i ition of protein synthesis c. The inhi ition of cell wall synthesis d. Both and c 170. The est test for the suscepti ility of a microorganism to anti iotic s and other chemotherapeutic agents: a. Tu e-dilution test c. Both a and . Pa per-disc test d. None of these C. Micrococcus luteus 177. The drugs mentioned elow are produced y the species mentioned from Ato E. Match them correctly : 1. 2. 3. 4. Rifampicin Nystatin Amphotericin B Candicidin A. B. D. E. Streptomyc es griseus Bacillus polymyxa Streptomyces nodosus Streptomyces noursei 171. The smallest amount of chemotherapeutic agents required to inhi it the grow th of the organism in Vitro is known as C. Streptomyces mediterranei
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 178. Match the correct method of sterilization listed A to E for the following d rugs : 1. 2. 3. 4. Tetracyclin injection A. Insulin injection Quinine injection B. Ster ilised y dry heat Sterilised y heating with a acteria Prepared y aseptic met hod Sterilised y heating in an autoclave % 183. Match the following strains with their respective produced anti iotics A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Streptomyces griseus. Streptomyces aureofaciens Streptomyces rimosus Streptomyces griseus var. purpurea A. B. Oxytetracycline Neomycin sulphate C. Sterilised
y aseptic method E.
Morphine injection D. C. Viomycin D. E. Chlortetracycline Streptomycin 179. Match the following rickettsial disease with their respective organisms: 1. 2. 3. 4. Epidemic typhus Scru typhus Trench typhus Murine typhus A. B. D. E. Rickettsia rickettsi Rickettsia prowazeki Rickettsia Quintana Rickettsia typhus 184. Match the following anti iotics with their respective disease A to E to cured :
e
1. 2. 3.infections 4. Streptomycin Cycloserine Novo tu iocin Griseofulvin A. B. D. E. Staphyl ococcus Tu erculosis Pulmonary erculosis Anti-spirochaetes C. Rickettsia typhus C. Fungal tu erculosis 180. Match the following antimicro ial with their respective side effects A to E : 1. 2. Acridines Benzalkonium chloride Parahydroxy enzoates Formalin A. B. Showe d adverse effects on proteins exhi it synergism and unsuita le for preservative in eye drops 185. Match the following anti iotics with their respective side effects A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Novo iocin Neomycin Cycloserine Chloramphenol A. B. Damages 8th cram ial nerve Damages CNS haemopoietic 3. 4. C. Haemolytic D. E. Very toxic Toxic to leucocytes and retard granulation proces s C. Damages system D. E. Skin rashes Kidney pro lems 181. Match the following anti iotics with their respective modes of administrati on A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Penicillin V Benzathine penicillin Methicillin sodium Ampicillin A. B. Intramuscular suspension Oral 186. following anti iotics with their modes of actionA. A to 1. 2.Match 3. 4.the Tetracyclines Erythromycin Novo iocin Griseofulvin B. E: D. E. Form an irreversi le complex with sterols Chelation of light divalent salts Interfere s with the conjugation of iliru in Influences mitosis
C. Blocks protein synthesis C. Both as oral and injection D. E. Locally applied Intramuscular injection 182. Match the following anti iotics with respective strains A to E used for the ir production : 1. 2. 3. 4. Tetracyclin Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Cycloserine A. B. D. E. Str eptomyces erythreus Streptomyces garyphalous Streptomyces viridifaciens Streptom yces venezuelae 187. Match the following dosage forms with their respective anti iotics A to E: 1. 3. 4. Ta lets Capsules Intramuscular injection A. Vancomycin Hcl Colistin Gen tamycin Paromomycin sulphate 2. Intravenous injection B. D. E. C. Polymixin B sulphate C. Streptomyces niveus
% 188. Match the following side effects with their respective anti iotics A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Nephrotoxic Rashes Hypersensitivity Gastric irritation A. B. C. D. E . Triacetyloleandomycin Polymixin B sulphate Cephaloridine Gentamycin Sodium fus idate MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 193. Virus causing mumps is also responsi le for a. Measles c. Ra ies is A d. Variola
. Hepatit
194. Epidemic pleurodynia and myocarditis of new orn infants are oth caused y a. Group B cox sack virus . Reovirus c. Polyomavirus d. Cytomegalovirus 195. H uman papillomavirus causes following tumors: a. Hepatic carcinoma . Cervical ca ncer c. Condyloma acuminatum d. Plantar wart 196. Viral infection is caused due to a. Acute self limited illness . No apparent symptoms c. Chronic infection wi th persistent viral shedding d. All of these 197. Viruses which do not carry enz ymes for DNA synthesis as a part of their virion are a. Hepatitis B virus . Pox yviruses c. Heepes simplex virus d. Retroviruses e. All of these 198. Following virus is known to esta lish latent infections: a. Adeno virus c. Cytomegalovirus e. All of these 199. Viruses which have teratogenic property are a. Herpes simp lex virus . Cytomegalovirus c. Ru ella virus d. All of these . Varicella-zoste r virus d. Hepes simplex virus 189. Match the following anti iotics with their respective activity spectra A to E: 1. 2. 3. 4. Bacitracin Gentamycin fusidate Gram Framycetin A. B. C. D. Gram ne gative Mainly staphylococci MainlySodium Ps. Aeruginosa positive 190. Match the following enzymes with their activities A to E: 1. 2. Hyaluronidase Collagenase Inactivate leucocytes and aid acterial invasion B. Reversi ly catalyzes the reakdown of a major component C. Disintegrates a c onstituent of muscle, cartilage and one D. Haemolysis of erythrocytes and the n ecrosis of other cells E. Clots plasma and surrounds the acteria A. 3. 4. Lecithinase Leucocidins 191. Match the following aggresins with their respective modes of action from A to E: 1. 2. Hyaluronidase Haemolysis Destroys RBC’s and other tissues B. Breaks down c onnective tissues, increases permea ility of tissue space C. Causes lysis of RBC ’s and other tissues D. Digest the fi rin of lood E. Dissolves collagen A. 3. 4. Streptokinase Lecithinase 192. Match the following terms with their respective effects A to E: 1. Brucella melitensis 2. 3. 4. A. Causes trachoma, conjunctivitis and nongonoco ccal gamets Causes influenza like fever Causes Malta fever in goats Contaminates pharmaceutical products Weil’s disease (jaundice) Flavo acterium B. species Chlamydia C. trachomatis Leptospira D. icterohaemorrha giae E.
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY 200. Kawasaki syndrome is a. Most prevalent in Japan and Hawaii . Patients show rickettsia like acteria in skin iopsies c. Strain involved may e propioni ac terium d. All of these 201. Mode of action of quinolone anti iotics on growing acteria was thought to e a. Inhi ition of â lactamase . Prevention of the cros s linking of glycine c. Inhi ition of DNA gyrase d. Inhi ition of reverse transc riptase 202. The role that human play in the plague life cycle is a. Secondary r eservoir . Primary transmission vector c. Primary host d. Accidental intruder i n rat flea cycle e. None of these 203. Patient with presence of penile chancre s hould e advised y physician – a. To take rest at home . To swa the chancre a nd culture on ThayerMartin agar c. To Gram stain the chancre fluid d. To repeat VDRL test in 10 hours e. Perform dark field microscopy for treponemes 204. Which organism is responsi le for causing fever to a man dealing with goats? a. Trepa nema Pallidum . c. d. e. M.tu erculosis Clostridium novyl Brucella melitensis N one of these %! 206. Skin of the healthy person has normal micro ial flora which includes a. c. d. e. Entero acteriaceae Aero ic diphtheria acilli Anaero ic diphtheriae illi Nonhemolytic staphylococci All of these
. ac
207. Which of the following organisms can infect humans if improperly cooked mea t is used? a. . c. d. e. Trichinella spiralis Taenia saginata Taenia solium Dip hyllo othrium latum Both a and c 208. The parasite related Loa to ancylostoma duodenale is a. crofti Necatur americanes loa Trichinella spiralis
. c. d. Wuchereria
an
209. Which of the following amoe a does not live in large intestine ? a. . c. d . Entamoe a coli Entamoeda histolytica Endolimax nana Entamoe a gingivalis 210. Which of the following is not related to congenital syphilis? a. Aneurysm c . Still irth . Saddle nose d. Hutchiso’s teeth 211. Streptococcus pyogens produce infection – a. . c. d. Streptococcal sore th roat Acute glomerulo nephritis Rheumatic fever None of these 205. Diphtheria toxins are produced from the strains of C.diphtheriae, which are a. Encapsulated . Sucrose fermentors c. Of the mitis and strain d. Glucose fer mentors e. Lysogenic for β prophase 212. Salmonella which can cause prolong septicaemia. a. . c. d. Salmonella anet um Salmonella cholerasuis Salmonella typhimurium Salmonella entritidis
%" 213. E.coli produce which type of toxins? a. Exotoxins c. Leucocidin ns d. Both a and
. Endotoxi
MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 217. Diagnostic test for the identification of primary syphilis: a. VDRL test . Treponema pallidum immo ilization test c. Kahn’s test d. Dark ground microscopi c examination 218. Sporadic summer diarrhea may e caused y a. E.coli c. Hafnia . Entero acter d. Serratia 214. Main causative organism of gas gangrene is a. B.anthrax c. Cl.deficile lostridium tetani d. Cl.perfringens
. C
215. Causative organism of whooping cough is a. . c. d. Bordetella pertussis Bo rdetella parapertussis Bordetella ronchi septica None of these 219. Biological false reaction in VDRL is related to a. Lepra acterium diphtheria c. Cl.welchi d. None of these
acilli
. Coryne
216. Pfeiffer phenomenon is related to a. Vi rio cholerae c. Rickettsial pox B.anthrax d. All of these
.
ANSWERS 1. d 7. a 13. 19. a 25. 31. d 37. a 43. d 49. 55. a 61. a 67. a 73 . d 79. c 85. 91. c 97. a 103. a 109. 115. d 121. c 2. 8. 14. d 20. c 26 . a 32. c 38. a 44. c 50. a 56. c 62. 68. d 74. d 80. a 86. d 92. a 98. d 104. 110. a 116.75. a 122. d a 3.87. a 9. 93. a 15. 99. d 21. 27.cd111. 33. 39. c 45. 63. c 69. d 81. c 105. 117. 123. 51. 4.ac57. 10. a 16. c 22. c 28. d 34. 40. c 46. a 52. d 58. e 64. 70. a 76. c 82. a 88. 94. d 100. 106. a 112. d 118. c 124. a 5. c 11. 17. 23. d 29. d 35. a 41. c 47. d 53. a 59. a 65. 71. c 77. 83. 89. c 95. c 101. 107. a 113. c 11 9. c 125. c 6. 12. 18. d 24. c 30. c 36. d 42. 48. d 54. 60. c 66. d 72. c 78. a 84. c 90. d 96. a 102. c 108. a 114. d 120. c 126.
MEDICAL MICROBIOLOGY %# 127. c 128. 129. a 130. a 131. c 132. c 133. d 134. d 135. c 136. a 137. a 138 . 139. d 140. a 141. c 142. d 143. 144. 145. 146. a 147. a 148. c 149. 150. d 151. c 152. d 153. 154. 155. 156. d 157. d 158. c 159. d 160. 16 1. d 162. d 163. d 164. c 165. d 166. 167. d 168. d 169. a 170. c 171. a 172. 173. a 174. c 175. c 176. 1.d, 2.e, 3.a, 4.a 177. 1.c, 2.e, 3.d, 4. 178. 1.d, 2.c, 3.e, 4. 179. 1. , 2.c, 3.d, 4.e 180.1.e,2.c,3. ,4.a 181. 1. , 2.a, 3.e, 4 .c 182. 1.d, 2.e, 3.a, 4. 183. 1.e, 2.d, 3.a, 4.c 184.1. ,2.d,3.a,4.c 185. 1.d, 2.e, 3. , 4.c 186. 1. , 2.c, 3.d, 4.e 189. 1.e, 2.a, 3.d, 4. 187. 1. , 2.a, 3. e, 4.c 188.1. ,2.c,3.a,4.e 90. 1. , 2.c, 3.d, 4.a 191. 1. , 2.a, 3.d, 4.c 192.1. c,2. ,3.a,4.e 193. a 194. a 195. a 196. d 197. e 198. e 199. d 200. d 201. c 202 . d 203. e 204. d 205. e 206. e 207. e 208. 209. d 210. a 211. a 212. 213. d 214. d 215. a 216. a 217. d 218. a 219. a
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CHAPTER 10 INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY 1. The est medium for the production of Penicillin is a. Nutrient agar . Corn steep liquor c. Sulfite waste liquor d. Whey 2. Industrially important Anti ioti c producing organisms shall e isolated y a. . c. d. Disk plate method Direct plate method Serial dilution method Crowded plate method 6. A major ingradient of penicillin production media is a. Corn meal . Corn ste ep liquor c. Cane steep liquor d. None of these 7. the outstanding example of tr aditional micro ial fermentation product is a. Vinegar c. Citric acid lin d. Tetracyclin
. Penicil
8. Which of the following involves the formation of nitrate from ammonia a. Ammo nification c. Nitrification . Denitrification d. Nitrogen fixation 3. Industrial alchohol will e produced y using starter culture a. Top yeast c. Bottom yeast . Middle yeast d. Feeder yeast 4. Pyruvate decar oxylase acetaldehyde + CO2 = This reaction is specially o serv ed in a. . c. d. Lactic acid fermentors Ethanol fermentors Algae Plants 9. First genetically engineered and iotechnologically produced vaccine was agai nst a. AIDS c. Herpes simplex . Small pox d. Hepatitis B. 10.c. one of322 the . standard cloning vector widely used in gene cloning is a. Ti pasm id pBR EMBL 3 d. EMBL 4 5. The pyruvate, dehydrogenase → multienzyme complex does not occur in a. . c. d. Aero ic acteria Microphilic acteria Facultative anaero ic acteria Strictly anaero ic acteria 11. In alchoholic fermentation, CO2 is evolved during a. Decar oxylatin of pyruv ic acid . Formation of acetaldehyde c. Oxidation of acetaldehyde d. Both a and
%& 12. In the industrial production of streptomycin, the secondary meta olite or products is a. Vitamin – B12 c. Vitamin – B6 . Vitamin – C d. Ethanol MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 20. Penicilin is commercially produced genum d. P.roquefortii
y a. P.notatum c. P.citrinum
y
. P.chryso
21. The most commonly used microorganism in alchohol fermentation is a. . c. d. A spergilus niger Bacillus su tilis Sacharomyces cerevisiae Escherichia coli 13. To acco and tea leaves are fermented to give flavour and taste. This type of fermentation is known as a. . c. d. Alcohol fermentation Curing Degradation La ctic acid fermentation 22. V itamin B 12 can e estimated and determined y using organism a. . c. d. a. . c. d. Lacto acillus sps Lacto acillus Leichmanni Bacillus su tilis E.Coli Closed system Open system Fed-Batch system Su -merger system 14. Vinegar fermentation involves a. Yeasts only . Yeasts with lactic acteria c. Yeasts with acetic acid acteria d. Yeasts with utric acid acteria 15. Carc inoma refers to a. Malignant tumours of the connective tissue . Malignant tumor s of the skin or mucous mem rane c. Malignant tumours of the colon d. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue 16. By-product of acetone- utanol fermentation i nclude a. Ri oflavin c. Isopropanol . Penicillin d. All of these 23. Batch fermentation is also called 24. To differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors the medium used is a. c. d. Mac Conkey’s medium Stuart’s medium Sugar medium Citrate medium 25. The micro-organism useful for fermentation are a. Bacteria c. Fungi d. None of these
.
. Yeast
17. Transgenic animals are for improvement of the quality of a. Milk c. Eggs Meat d. All of the a ove
.
26. Industrial micro iology, mainly depends on the phenomenon a. Pasteurisation c. Vaccination a. Fi rionolysin c. Coagulase a. . c. d. . Fermentation d. Both and c . Catalase d. Hyaluronidase 18. Thermo resistant reezing c. Chemicals
acteria are important in the preservation of foods . Canning d. Irradiation
y a. F
27. Streptokinase is also termed as 19. The fungus used in the industrial production of citric acid: a. . c. d. Rhi zopus Oryzac Fusarium moniliformae Rhizopus nigricans Aspergillus nigricans 28. Streptokinase is produced Str. faecalis Str. pyogenes
y Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus pneumoniae
INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY 29. Large vessel containing all the parts and condition necessary for the growth of desired microorganisms is called a. Bio reactor c. Impeller . Auto reactor d. None of these 38. Protoplasts can e prepared from a. . c. d. Gram positive acteria Gram negative acteria Both a & None of these % 30. Basic principle in industrial micro iology is a. . c. d. Suita le growth co nditions Fermentation Providing aseptic conditions All of these 39. Upto the production of desira le production in the fermentor is called a. c. d. Upstream process Downstream process Surface fermentation None of these
.
31. For thorough mixing of medium of medium and inoculum the part of fermentor u seful is a. Shaft c. Impeller . Headspace d. Sparger 40. The purification and recovery of the production after fermentation is called a. . c. d. Upstream process Downstream process Surface fermentation None of th ese 32. Infermentor the top portion left without r . Head space d. Sparger
roth is called a. Shaft c. Impelle
41. If the microorganisms are allowed to nutrient medium is called a.
. c. d. S
u merged fermentation Surface fermentation Dual fermentation All of these 33. Over heating of fermentator during fermentation is controlled y a. Cooling jacket c. Cool air 34. Antifoam agent is a. Silicon compounds . Corn oil c. Soy a ean oil d. All of these 35. The capacity of la oratory fermentors is a. 12–15 liters c. 500 liters . 2000 gallons d. 10000 gallons . Steam d. None of these 42. Su merged fermentations are a. tation Both a and None of these
. c. d. Batch fermentation Continuous fermen
43. Batch fermentation is also called a. Closed system c. Fed- atch system en system d. None of these 36. For the production of ethanol the raw material used is a. Cellulose Sulphite waste liquor None of these
. Op
. c. d. Molasses
44. If more than one microorganism is used to o tain the required product, that type of fermentation is called a. Batch c. Dual . Continuous d. Fed- atch 37. Different methods of strain improvement are a. . c. d. Protoplast fusion Re com inant DNA technique Genetic recom ination All of these 45. L. lysine is produced from a. . c. d. Coryne terium sps. Myco acterium sps. None of these
acterium glutamicum Coryne ac
& 46. Methods used to get immo ilized enzymes: a. Adsorption . Encapsulation c. C ovalent onding d. All of these 47. Raw-material used for the production of alco hol is a. . c. d. Molasses Starch Sulphite waste water All of these MCQs IN MICROBIOLOGY 55. Industrial Production of Vitamin-B12 is from a. Propioni acterium sps. . Ps eudomonas sps. c. Both a and d. None of these 56. Clostridium aceto utylicum i s used for the production of a. Acetone - Butanol . Ethanol c. Vitamin-B12 d. N one of these 57. In the production of ethanol industrially the yeast used is a. K.pneumoniae c. S. cerevisiae 58. Citric acid is used as a. Flavouring agent in food . As an antioxident c. As preservative d. All of the a ove 59. Citric acid is produced in aero ic conditions y the fungi a. Aspergillus c. Mucor . Penic illin d. All of these . Kluyreromyces fragilis d. Both and c 48. Microorganisms used for alcohol production a. . c. d. Saccharomyces serevic eae Bacillus su tilis Penicillium chrysogenum None of these 49. For streptomycin production the microorganisms required are a. . c. d. Stre ptomyces griseus Streptomyces niger Saccharomyces cereviceae All of these 50. The y-product during streptomycin production is a. Vitamin A c. Vitamin B12 . Proline d. None of these 51. For acetic acid production the methods followed are a.
. c. d. Orleans proc
ess Rapid process Su merged process All of these 60. The raw material for citric acid production is a. Corn c. Starch d. None of these
. Molasses
61. Aspergillus niger is used generally for the production of a. Ethanol c. Citr ic acid . Penicillin d. Lactic acid 52. For amylase production the micro organism required is a. B. su tilis c. A. n igar . S. cereviceae d. None of these 62. In the citric acid production, the pH to e maintained in the fernmenter is a. 7.0 c. 8.0 to 9.0 . 5.0 to 6.0 d. 1.0 to 6.0 53. Pectinase is industrially produced from a. S.cereviceae c. A. nigar oderma Koningi d. None of these 54. Cellulose are produced from a. S.cereviceae c. A. nigar gi d. None of these
. Trich
. Trichoderma Konin
63. The required temperature for the production of citric acid is a. 10oC – 80oC c. 20oC – 50oC . 30oC – 50oC d. 25oC – 30oC
INDUSTRIAL MICROBIOLOGY 64. The penicillin produced in large scale su merged fermentations are a. Penici llin-A c. Penicillin-G . Penicillin-D d. None of these & 66. 6-amino penicillic acid is prepared from penicillin sps se Punicillin acylase Penicillinone None of these
y a.
. c. d. Acyla
65. The strain of fungi used for the large scale production of penicillin is a. . c. d. Penicillium chrysogenum P-notatum Streptomyces Aurecus Saccharomyces sp s 67. The pH, to . 6.5 d. 5.0 ANSWERS 1.
e maintained for the production of penicillin is a. 7.5 c. 8.0
7. a 13.
2. d 8. c 14. c 20. 3. c 9.
19. d 25. 26.
32.
31. c 37. d 43. a 49. a 55. c 61. c 67. 38.
15. d 21. a 27. a 33. a 39.
44. c 50. c 56.
62.
45. a 51. d 57. d 63. d
4.
10. c 16. a 22.
28. d 34. d 40.
46. d 52. a 58. d 64. c
5.
11. d 17. d 23. a 29. a 35. a 41.
47. d 53. c 59. d 65. a
6.
12. a 18.
24. a 30.
36. c 42. c 48. a 54.
60. a 66.
