CTET Child development and Pedagogy MCQs 1. A major strength of ecological theory is its framework for explaining (a) Environmental influences on development. (b) Biological influences on development. (c) Cognitive development. (d) Affective processes in development. 2. All of the following advanced principles of child development that are closely allied to the stimulus response learning theory, except (a) Pavilov (b) J B Waston (c) Hull (d) Gesell 3. The process whereby the genetic factors limit an individual's responsiveness to the environment is known as (a) Canalization. (b) Discontinuity. (c) Differentiation. (d) Range of reaction. 4. In order to develop the spirit of labour in students (a) The teacher himself should indulge in labour (b) The teacher should deliver lectures on the importance of labour (c) Students should be given opportunities o pportunities to do labour from time to time (d) Students should be given examples of laboring people 5. A child has been admitted to your school who belongs to a back ward family/background from the cultural viewpoint. You will (a) Keep him in a class in which, there are many more students of backward background from the cultural viewpoint (b) Send a teacher to know more about the backward cultural background of the child (c) Keep him in a normal class but will make special arrangements for teaching him, keeping his special needs in view (d) Advise him to take up vocational education 6. All of the following can be signs that a child is gifted, except (a) Early development of a sense of time (b) Interest in encyclopaedias and dictionaries (c) Uneasy relationships with peers. (d) Easy retention of facts 7. If heredity is an important determinant of a specific behaviour, what prediction can we make about expression of the behaviour in identical twins reared apart compared to its expression in fraternal twins reared apart? (a) Fraternal twins will express the behaviour more similarly than identical twins. (b) There will be little similarity in the expression of the behaviour in either set of twins. (c) Identical twins will express the behaviour more similarly than fraternal twins. (d) The behaviour will be expressed exp ressed as similarly by identical twins as it is by fraternal twins.
8. Frobel’s most important contribution to education was his d evelopment of the (a) Vocational school (b) Public high school (c) Kindergarten (d) Latin School 9. Of the following, the main purpose p urpose of state certification of teachers is to (a) Monitor the quality of teacher training institutions (b) Provide for a uniform standard of entry-level teacher competency throughout the state (c) Exclude from the profession those not trained in pedagogy (d) Exclude from the profession those who are mentally unhealthy 10. The key difference between evolutionary and cultural change is that evolutionary change alters __________ whereas cultural change alters ____________. (a) Reproduction; environment (b) Heredity; environment (c) Environment; behavior (d) Development; learning 11. (a) (b) (c) (d)
The current view of childhood assumes that Children are similar similar to adults adults in most ways. Children are best treated as young adults. Childhood is basically a "waiting period." Childhood is a unique period of growth growth and change.
12. to: (a) (b) (c) (d) test
In preparing a fifth fifth grade class to take a standardized standardized reading test the teacher is best advised Tell the children the test test is very important and they should do the best they can Ditto key questions from a previous test and allow the the pupils to answer them Coach the below grade level readers, as the rest of the class class will do well anyway Give the pupils practice in answering questions similar to the type that will appear on the
13. A normal child of twelve years of age is most likely to (a) Have difficulty with gross motor coordination (b) Have feelings of anxiety about pleasing adults (c) Confine his/her interests to here and now (d) Be eager for peer approval 14. Creative writing writing should be an activity activity planned for (a) Only those children reading on grade level (b) Only those children who can spell and also, can write cohesive sentences (c) Only those children who want to write for the newspaper of the class (d) All children 15. Of the following, the most most promising step for for a teacher to take in order to improve class discipline is to (a) Note specific infractions of class rules in the marking book (b) Evaluate his/her materials, methods and approaches to children (c) Consult the class and agree upon a graduated series of punishments (d) Call a parent – teacher meeting to discuss the situation
16. The question "Will "Will the shy child child who never speaks turn into a quiet, shy adult or wilL the the child become a sociable, talkative person?" is concerned with which developmental issue? (a) Maturation (b) Continuity and discontinuity (c) Cultural universals versus cultural relativism (d) Nature and nurture 17. A child from a disorganized disorganized home will experience the greatest difficulty difficulty with: (a) Well structured lessons (b) Independent study (c) Programmed instruction (d) Workbooks 18. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Most psychologists believe that that development is due Largely to nature. Largely to nurture. To nature and nurture acting acting separately. To an interaction interaction of nature nature and nurture. nurture.
19. The normal twelve –year –old child is most likely likely to: (a) Have difficulty with with gross motor motor coordination (b) Have anxiety feelings feelings about pleasing pleasing adults (c) Confine his/her interests interests to the here and now (d) Be eager for peer approval 20. The reason why students run from school is (a) Lack of interesting class teaching work (b) Lack of interest in studies on the part p art of students (c) Not giving punishment to students (d) Callous attitude of teachers towards the problem 21. You find a student to be intelligent. You will (a) Remain pleased pleased with him (b) Not give him additional homework (c) Motivate him so that he can make more progress (d) Inform his parents about the fact that he is intelligent 22. If some students are not in a mood to study in the class, you will (a) Force them to study (b) Tell those students to leave the class and enjoy (c) Warn them that they must study else you yo u will report the matter to the Principal (d) Tell them some interesting things related to their interests or your own subject 23. (a) (b) (c) (d)
Child development is defined as a field of study study that Examines change in human abilities. Seeks to explain behaviour across the life life span. Compares children to to adults to senior citizens. Accounts for the gradual evolution of the child's cognitive, social, and other other capacities.
24. The term ‘identical ‘identical elements’ is closely associated with: with:
(a) Group instruction (b) Transfer of learning (c) Jealousy between twins (d) Similar test questions 25. Organismic theories theories of development hold that (a) Psychological structures and processes within the child help determine determine his/her development. (b) Physical structures and processes within the child help determine his/her development. (c) Passively developed structures and processes within the child help determine determine his/her development. (d) Slowly developed structures and processes within within the child help determine determine his/her development. 26. A Person believes that nurture strongly strongly influences the the development of his child. He would not agree with the importance of: (a) Genetic factors. (b) Exposure to peers. (c) The types of toys at home. (d) The warmth displayed by the the parents. 27. If student is too shy to participate in the class, you will (a) Not ask questions from him (b) Ask only those questions from him whose answers ca n be given by him (c) Not ask those questions from him whose answers are beyond his means and due to which, he may become objects of ridicule in the class (d) Ask questions from him only when he is keen to answer them 28. How will you bring a hyperactive child on the right path? (a) Make him sit in front of the class and keep a strict vigil on him (b) Allocate a seat for him in a corner of the class (c) Give him tasks of watering trees, cleaning the blackboard, making toys of clay etc. (d) None of above 29. Knowledge of child psychology is a must for a primary teacher. That is because (a) It helps in making children disciplined (b) The examination result is improved (c) It becomes a convenient mode for motivating children (d) It helps the teacher in understanding the behavior of children 30. The current movement of behavior modification, modification, wherein tokens are awarded for correct responses, is a reflection of: (a) Herbart’s Five Steps (b) Lock’s Tabula rasa (c) Thorndike’s Law of Effect (d) Thorndike’s Law of Exercise Exercise
Child Development and Pedagogy and below are some questions on the same section. 1. Absenteeism can be tackled by :
(1) teaching (2) punishing the students (3) giving the sweets (4) contacting the parents 2. Discipline means: (1) strict-behaviour (2) severe punishment (3) obedience (4) going by the rules 3. If any girl child does not corne to school regularly you will (1) no bother (2) struck off her name (3) complain to the Principal (4) meet the parents and encourage them . 4. In co-education you want't to : (1) make separate rows of boys and girls (2) you give preference to boys over girls (3) you. give preference to none (4) you deal according to need 5. One of the basic priniclples of socializing Individuals is : (1) religion (2) caste (3) educational (4) imitation Directions (6-10) : Which of the' skills do you consider most essential for a teacher? 6. (1) Oration skill (2) Listening skills (3) Managerial skills, (4) Teaching skills 7. (1) encourage children to search for knowledge (2) have all the information for the children (3) ability to make children memorize materials (4) enable children to do well in tests 8. (1) identify gifted children (2) have an understanding of all children abilities (3) identify children with learning disabilities (4) none of the above 9. (1) _ ability to help children understand texts thoroughly (2) ability to help h elp children do all the exercises (3) ability to raise possible actions from the texts (4) ability to help children from their own opinions on the text 10. (1) to communicate well {2) to use difficult language (3) to impress students (4) to read out the textbook 11. Success in developing values is mainly dependent upon: (1) government (2) society (3) family (4) teacher 12. Good reading aims at developing: (l) understanding (2) pronunciation (3) sensitivity (4) increasing factual knowledge 13. The primary duty of a teacher is to be responsible to his/her: (1) family (2) students (3) society (4) nation 14. Which of the following is not n ot related to educational achievement? (1) Heredity (2) Experiences (3) Practice (4) Self learning 15. One of,the students of a class hardly talks in the class. How would you encourage him to express himself? (1) By orgariising discussions (2) By encouraging children to take part in
classroom activities (3) By organizing educational games/ programmes in which - children feel like speaking(4) By giving good marks to those who express them'selves well
ANSWERS 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c) Answers: 1.4, 2. 4, 3. 4, 4. 4, 5. 3, 5. 4, 7. 1, 8. 2, 9. 4, 10. 1, 11. 3, 12. 1, 13. 2, 14. 1, 15. 3
ctet objective math sample paper
Test of Numerical Ability for Forthcomming Exam 1. Let A = (x + 1)/(x – 1 ) and B = (x – 1)/(x + 1). Determine the value of A – B a. 0 b. x/(x² - 1) c. 4x/(x² - 1) d. None of these 2. Ashok had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as one of the multipliers, he took 53. As a result, the product went up by 540. What is the new product ? a. 1050 b.1590 c. 1440 d. none of these 3. A ladder on a road when inclined on a wall reaches a point 12 m above ground. Placing at the same position if it is inclined on to other side of a road, it reaches a point 9m above the ground. If the length of ladder is 15 m, what is the width of the road ? a. 17 m b. 23 m c. 19 m d. 21 m 4. The rate of interest on two bonds is in the ratio of 4 : 5. A person wants to invest his savings in these bonds in such a way that he received equal half yearly interest from both the bonds. He should invest in these bonds in the ratio : a. 5 : 2 b. 2 : 5 c. 4 : 5 d. 5 : 4 5. A student secured 60, 75 and 85 in Mathematics monthly test. If monthly scores were given equal weightage and final scores are given double weightage , what are his average marks in
Mathematics ? a. 65 b. 75 c. 80 d. None of these 6. A sells a product having a printed price of Rs.2,400 at a discount of 10% on printed price. He earns a profit of 25% in this sale. What was w as the purchase price on which A purchased this product ? a. Rs.1980 b. Rs.1728 c. Rs.2160 d. Rs.1800 7. A wheel travels a distance of 22 km in 2500 revolutions. Find the diameter of the wheel. a. 1.4 m b. 2.8 m c. 5.6 m d. None of these 8. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a sum of money at the rate of 10% p.a. for 2 years is Rs.50. Find the principal amount. a. Rs.5,500 b. Rs.4,000 c. Rs.5,000 d. None of these 9. If the numerator of a fraction is doubled and the denominator is increased by 3, the new fraction is 3/5. What is the original fraction if its denominator is more than twice the numerator by 1 ? a. 3/7 b. 6/13 c. 1/3 d. 5/11 10. Three taps A, B and C can fill the tank in 30 minutes, 45 minutes and 60 minutes respectively. All the three taps are opened simultaneously and after 10 minutes, tap C is closed and another tap D is opened. It took another 20 minutes to fill the tank. How much time does tap D take to empty a full tank ? a. 18 minutes b. 24 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 36 minutes 11. A rod of length 300 inches is to be cut into three pieces of integer length such that length of the first piece is square of the second and that of the second is square of the third. What is the length of the left out portion, if the left out portion has to be the least ? a. 12 inches b. 24 inches c. 8 inches d. 30 inches
12. The amount on a certain sum for 3 and 4 years at a certain rate of compound interest are Rs.18250.50 and Rs.20988.10 respectively. What is the rate of interest ? a. 10% b. 12% c. 13% d. None of these 13. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 10% p.a. is Rs.4200. The sum is : a. Rs.20,000 b. Rs.16,000 c. Rs.24,000 d. None of these 14. In an examination A gets 40% of total marks and B gets 80% of that of A. C gets 60% of A’s and B’s marks taken together. D gets 45% of A’s and C’s marks taken together. If the required pass percentage is 36, how many of these four students passed the examination ? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 15. In a school, the number of girls exceeds the number of boys by 60. If the number of girls is increased by 15% and the number o boys is increased by 50%, there would be 15 boys more than girls. Find the original strength of the class ? a. 540 b. 360 c. 720 d. 600 16. An investor invested a sum of Rs.10 lakhs in shares of company X and of company Y. Company X’s share yields 24% in cash each year and the rate of interest on company Y’s debentures is 16%. He received a total of Rs.2,08,000 in the form of dividend and interest from these two companies. How much money was invested in company X ? a. 400000 b. 600000 c. 650000 d. None of these 17. A dry fruit seller purchased 3 kinds of nuts at the rate of Rs.100/kg, Rs.100 /kg, Rs.80/kg and Rs.60/kg respectively. He then mixed them in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 by weight and sold the same to a customer at 50% profit. The price per kg at which he sold the mix to the customer is : a. Rs.110 b. Rs.90 c. Rs.70 d. None of these 18. A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 : 6. D died and his share was distributed equally among the surviving partners. What will be the new profits sharing ratio ? a. 4 : 5 : 6
b. 2 : 3 : 4 c. 3 : 4 : 5 d. None of these 19. A vehicle changed hands 3 times and at each time the loss to the earlier owner was 10%. If the overall loss was Rs.4,065, find the original price of the vehicle (in rupees). a. 10,000 b. 10,500 c. 15,000 d. 5,000 20. What is the three digit number which is a 2 more than a perfect square and 2 less than a perfect cube ? a. 627 b. 402 c. 123 d. None of these 21. If it costs Rs.Y to whitewash the 4 walls of a room, how much would it cost(in rupees), if all the dimensions were to be 5 times the original dimensions ? a. 5 Y b. 25 Y c. 25 Y² d. 20 Y 22. A sum of Rs.4000 was lent partly at 6% and partly at 8% simple interest. If the interest received after one year is Rs.272, find the ratio in which the money was lent. a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 1 : 2 d. None of these 23. A man pays off 3/20 of his debt every month . At the end of 6 months, his remaining debt is Rs.290. How much amount (in rupees) has he cleared off every month ? a. 400 b. 435 c. 450 d. 500 24. Y wanted to borrow Rs.1000 from a moneylender for a period of one year. However, the moneylender deducted Rs.200 as interest charges and gave Rs.800 to him. What is the rate of interest at which Y has borrowed the money ? a. 20% b. 22.5% c. 25% d. 27.5% 25. If the interest compounded annually an nually on a certain sum at a certain rate of interest for 2 years is equal to 55% of the simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest for twice the time period, find the rate of interest. a. 12%
b. 20% c. 24% d. None of these ANSWER 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. D 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. B 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. a16. b 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. C 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. b
ctet test paper Environmental Science (EVS) for Paper-I Environmental Science (EVS) for Paper-I (MCQ) Teacher Eligibility Test (Practice Paper 01) 1. We have days and nights because of: (a) Earth’s rotation (b) Earth’s revolution (c) Sun’s rotation (d) Sun’s revolution 2. The tail of flying birds acts as rudder. rudd er. By this statement we can understand und erstand that the tail acts as: (a) A part of the body which is beautiful (b) A part which wards off flies and mosquitoes (c) A part which guides the bird while flying (d) A part which helps the bird take off 3. The combination of which of the following soils is best for plant growth (a) Clay, sand & gravel (b) Humus, clay & gravel (c) Sand, humus & gravel (d) Humus, sand & clay 4. Which of the following does not belong to the group formed by the other trees? (a) Mango (b) Coconut (c) Tamarind (d) Neem 5. In spring which of the following occurs? (a) The days are longer & nights are shorter (b) The nights are longer & days d ays are shorter (c) Days and nights are of almost equal duration (d) None of the above 6. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall (a) Evaporation (b) Condensation (c) Both evaporation & condensation (c) Filteration 7. A human body consists of ________ number of bones (a) 205 (b) 206 (c) 207
(d) 208 8. Sanjay has a sugar cube in her mouth, in which part of his tongue, will the cube be sweetest? (a) Front (b) Middle (c) Rear (d) Sides 9. The mosquito repellent (coils, mats and liquids) that we generally use in our homes are: (a) Pesticides (b) Fertilizers (c) Sedatives (d) Insecticides 10. Cows have strong grinding teeth teeth at the back of the mouth, but they they cannot eat the flesh of the of other animals. This is because: (a) They do not need to eat the flesh (b) They don’t have strong grinding teeth at the front (c) They don’t have long sharp pointed teeth (d) They dislike eating flesh ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
ctet and bihar tet sample paper Environmental Science Paper-2 Environmental Science (EVS) for Paper-I (MCQ) Teacher Eligibility Test Test (Practice Paper 02) 1. During summer the earth is (a) Closer to the sun (b) Away from the sun (c) Closer to the moon (d) Away from the moon 2. Non-green plants like mushroom can’t make their own food because: (a) They are too small (b) They lack chlorophyll (c) They lack photo-tropism (d) They lack roots to suck su ck water 3. Most of the reptiles like snakes, crocodiles, etc. eat their food by: (a) Tearing its flesh (b) A process called cud chewing (c) Swallowing it as a whole (d) Sucking its blood 4. How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation? (a) 24 hrs. (b) 1 day (c) 1 year (d) Both A & B
5. How many muscles are there in a human body? (a) 600 (b) 700 (c) 800 (d) 900 6. Which of the following is not a part of the excretory system? (a) Eyes (b) Kidneys (c) Lungs (d) Skin 7. During breathing which gas is most required by us? (a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen (c) Carondioxide (d) Nitrogen 8. Which part of the body controls all the other organs? (a) Heart (b) Eyes (c) Brain (d) Stomach 9. Flamingos have ______ kind of feet (a) Perching (b) Wading (c) Webbed (d) None of these 10. The tomato plant falls under the category of: (a) Herbs (b) Shrubs (c) Trees (d) Grass ANSWERS 1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
ctet/Bihar tet- test paper (EVS)-3 Evironmental Science (EVS) for Paper-I (MCQ) Teacher Eligibility Test (Practice Paper 03) 21. Which Indian scientist has got a Nobel Prize for his contribution in physics? (a) Rabindra Nath Tagore (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Albert Einstein (d) Hargovind Khurana 22. When some sugar is dissolved in a glass of water, the water level: (a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same
(d) None of the above 23. The nature of relationship between condensation & evaporation is: (a) They are the same (b) They are opposite (c) They are similar but not in all respects (d) None of the above 24. We slip very easily on a wet floor because (a) Water reduces the friction (b) Water increases the friction (c) We slip because we lose our balance (d) None of the above 25. The process of solid changing into liquid upon the supply of heat is called: (a) Condensation (b) Evaporation (c) Melting (d) Boiling 26. When we exhale, our lungs have to: (a) Contract (b) Expand (c) Be still (d) None of the above 27. Our head is made up of only one movable bone; it is called: (a) Skull (b) Cranium (c) Jawbone (d) Collarbone 28. The young ones of the frog are called: (a) Young frogs (b) Frog cubs (c) Puppies (d) Tadpoles 29. Paper is mainly made up of: (a) Cellulose & starch (b) Polythene & cotton (c) Bamboo & grass (d) Sunflower & Maize 30. Our sun is: (a) Planet (b) Satellite (c) Comet (d) Star ANSWERS 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
CTET SAMPLE PAPERS FOR ENGLISH
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Each sentence has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence meaningfully. 1. He went to the library ……… to find that it was closed. (A) seldom (B) never (C) only (D) solely Ans : (C) 2. The ties that bind us together in common activity are so ………that they can disappear at any moment. (A) tentative (B) tenuous (C) consistent (D) restrictive Ans : (B) 3. Her reaction to his proposal was ………. She rejected it ………. (A) inevitable–vehemently (B) subtle–violently (C) clever–abruptly (D) sympathetic–angrily Ans : (A)
4. His ……… directions misled us we did not know which of the two roads to take. (A) complicated (B) ambiguous (C) narrow (D) fantastic Ans : (B) 5. It would be difficult for one so ……… to believe that all men are equal irrespective of caste, race and religion. (A) emotional (B) democratic (C) intolerant (D) liberal Ans : (C) Directions—(Q. 6–10) In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not accepted in standard English. Identify that part and mark its letter (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your as answer. 6. Gaze for a thing (A) that are not (B) available easily (C) in the country is a universal phenomenon. (D) Ans : (B) 7. It is foolish to be expecting (A) one person to be like another (B) person, for (C) each individual is born (D) with his characteristics traits. Ans : (A) 8. The tendency to believe (A) that (B) man is inherently dishonest is something (C) that will be decried. (D) Ans : (D) 9. I have not come across very (A) few (B) people who (C) think of thing beyond (D) their daily work. Ans : (B)
10. He managed to board (A) the running train (B) but all his luggages (C) was (D) left on the station. Ans : (C)
CTET OBJECTIVE MATH SAMPLE PAPER
Test of Numerical Ability for Forthcomming Exam 1. Let A = (x + 1)/(x – 1 ) and B = (x – 1)/(x + 1). Determine the value of A – B a. 0 b. x/(x² - 1) c. 4x/(x² - 1) d. None of these 2. Ashok had to do a multiplication. Instead of taking 35 as one of the multipliers, he took 53. As a result, the product went up by 540. What is the new product ? a. 1050 b.1590 c. 1440 d. none of these 3. A ladder on a road when inclined on a wall reaches a point 12 m above ground. Placing at the same position if it is inclined on to other side of a road, it reaches a point 9m above the ground. If the length of ladder is 15 m, what is the width of the road ? a. 17 m b. 23 m c. 19 m d. 21 m 4. The rate of interest on two bonds is in the ratio of 4 : 5. A person wants to invest his savings in these bonds in such a way that he received equal half yearly interest from both the bonds. He should invest in these bonds in the ratio : a. 5 : 2 b. 2 : 5 c. 4 : 5 d. 5 : 4 5. A student secured 60, 75 and 85 in Mathematics monthly test. If monthly scores were given equal weightage and final scores are given double weightage , what are his average marks in Mathematics ? a. 65 b. 75 c. 80 d. None of these 6. A sells a product having a printed price of Rs.2,400 at a discount of 10% on printed price. He earns a profit of 25% in this sale. What was w as the purchase price on which A purchased this product ? a. Rs.1980 b. Rs.1728 c. Rs.2160 d. Rs.1800
7. A wheel travels a distance of 22 km in 2500 revolutions. Find the diameter of the wheel. a. 1.4 m b. 2.8 m c. 5.6 m d. None of these 8. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a sum of money at the rate of 10% p.a. for 2 years is Rs.50. Find the principal amount. a. Rs.5,500 b. Rs.4,000 c. Rs.5,000 d. None of these 9. If the numerator of a fraction is doubled and the denominator is increased by 3, the new fraction is 3/5. What is the original fraction if its denominator is more than twice the numerator by 1 ? a. 3/7 b. 6/13 c. 1/3 d. 5/11 10. Three taps A, B and C can fill the tank in 30 minutes, 45 minutes and 60 minutes respectively. All the three taps are opened simultaneously and after 10 minutes, tap C is closed and another tap D is opened. It took another 20 minutes to fill the tank. How much time does tap D take to empty a full tank ? a. 18 minutes b. 24 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 36 minutes 11. A rod of length 300 inches is to be cut into three pieces of integer length such that length of the first piece is square of the second and that of the second is square of the third. What is the length of the left out portion, if the left out portion has to be the least ? a. 12 inches b. 24 inches c. 8 inches d. 30 inches 12. The amount on a certain sum for 3 and 4 years at a certain rate of compound interest are Rs.18250.50 and Rs.20988.10 respectively. What is the rate of interest ? a. 10% b. 12% c. 13% d. None of these 13. The difference between simple interest and compound interest on a certain sum of money for 2 years at 10% p.a. is Rs.4200. The sum is : a. Rs.20,000 b. Rs.16,000 c. Rs.24,000
d. None of these 14. In an examination A gets 40% of total marks and B gets 80% of that of A. C gets 60% of A’s and B’s marks taken together. D gets 45% of A’s and C’s marks taken together. If the required pass percentage is 36, how many of these four students passed the examination ? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 15. In a school, the number of girls exceeds the number of boys by 60. If the number of girls is increased by 15% and the number o boys is increased by 50%, there would be 15 boys more than girls. Find the original strength of the class ? a. 540 b. 360 c. 720 d. 600 16. An investor invested a sum of Rs.10 lakhs in shares of company X and of company Y. Company X’s share yields 24% in cash each year and the rate of interest on company Y’s debentures is 16%. He received a total of Rs.2,08,000 in the form of dividend and interest from these two companies. How much money was invested in company X ? a. 400000 b. 600000 c. 650000 d. None of these 17. A dry fruit seller purchased 3 kinds of nuts at the rate of Rs.100/kg, Rs.100 /kg, Rs.80/kg and Rs.60/kg respectively. He then mixed them in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 by weight and sold the same to a customer at 50% profit. The price per kg at which he sold the mix to the customer is : a. Rs.110 b. Rs.90 c. Rs.70 d. None of these 18. A, B and C were partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 : 6. D died and his share was distributed equally among the surviving partners. What will be the new profits sharing ratio ? a. 4 : 5 : 6 b. 2 : 3 : 4 c. 3 : 4 : 5 d. None of these 19. A vehicle changed hands 3 times and at each time the loss to the earlier owner was 10%. If the overall loss was Rs.4,065, find the original price of the vehicle (in rupees). a. 10,000 b. 10,500 c. 15,000 d. 5,000 20. What is the three digit number which is a 2 more than a perfect square and 2 less than a perfect cube ?
a. 627 b. 402 c. 123 d. None of these 21. If it costs Rs.Y to whitewash the 4 walls of a room, how much would it cost(in rupees), if all the dimensions were to be 5 times the original dimensions ? a. 5 Y b. 25 Y c. 25 Y² d. 20 Y 22. A sum of Rs.4000 was lent partly at 6% and partly at 8% simple interest. If the interest received after one year is Rs.272, find the ratio in which the money was lent. a. 2 : 3 b. 3 : 2 c. 1 : 2 d. None of these 23. A man pays off 3/20 of his debt every month . At the end of 6 months, his remaining debt is Rs.290. How much amount (in rupees) has he cleared off every month ? a. 400 b. 435 c. 450 d. 500 24. Y wanted to borrow Rs.1000 from a moneylender for a period of one year. However, the moneylender deducted Rs.200 as interest charges and gave Rs.800 to him. What is the rate of interest at which Y has borrowed the money ? a. 20% b. 22.5% c. 25% d. 27.5% 25. If the interest compounded annually an nually on a certain sum at a certain rate of interest for 2 years is equal to 55% of the simple interest on the same amount at the same rate of interest for twice the time period, find the rate of interest. a. 12% b. 20% c. 24% d. None of these ANSWER 1. c 2. b 3. d 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. b 24. c 25. b
CTET Social Science for Paper-II
Sample Questions in Social Sciences 1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? 1. ILO - London 2. ICJ - Hague 3. UNESCO - Washington 4. WHO - Paris 2. Arrange the following Indo-Pak Indo-Pak events in correct chronological order. A. Creation of Bangladesh B. Tashkant Declaration C. Simla Agreement D. Lahore Declaration Which order is correct? 1. A C D B 2. B A C D 3. D B A C 4. A B C D 3-4 Direction: Read the following statement statement and answer the questions that follow. "India with over 2 percent of the world's geographical area is inhibited by 16 percent of the world population". 3. From the above statement, it is inferred that in the world population almost every 1. 5th person is Indian 2. 6th person is Indian 3. 7th person is Indian 4. 8th person is Indian 4. Which of the following following countries fits in a completely reverse position explained in the above statement? 1. China 2. Bangladesh 3. United Kingdom 4. Australia 5. Which pairs are correctly matched? Select the correct alternative. a. Brahmo Samaj - Dayanand Saraswati b. Arya Samaj- Vivekananda c. Ramakrishna Mission - Raja Ram Mohan Roy d. Aligarh Movement - Syed Ahmed Khan e. Veda Samaj - Cembeti Sridharlu Naidu 1. a and d 2. b and e 3. d and e 4. c and d 6. Some persons and events are stated below: A. Warren Hastings I Theosophical Society of India B. Col. Olcott II Duel Government in Bengal C. Lord Ripon III The French Revolution D. Tipu Sultan IV The Local Self Government Which of the following indicates the correct matching of the above 7 1. A I B. II C. Ill D. IV 2. A II B. III C. II D. I
3. 4.
A II B. I A IV B. II
C. IV C. I
D. III D. III
7. Stated below are some statements. a. The Modern Age suddenly came into existence b. The Renaissance emphasized the value of reason and scientific temper in life. c. The Industrial Revolution in England England led to the decline of Cottage Industries Industries in India. Which statements are true? 1. a and b 2. b and c 3. a and c 4. a, b and c 8-9. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that that follow. The later part of the eighteenth century saw two revolutions, which played an important role in the making of the modem world. The first one involved English Government against its thirteen colonies. Most of the people settled in these colonies had come from England. 8. The passage is referring to to two revolutions. Which of the following are these? 1. Russian Revolution and French Revolution 2. American Revolution and French Revolution 3. American Revolution and Chinese Revolution 4. French Revolution and Chinese Revolution 9. Which of the following Revolutions is related to the thirteen English Colonies? 1. Russian Revolution 2. American Revolution 3. Industrial Revolution 4. French Revolution 10. A volcano erupts on the ocean floor and a ship is is located on the oceanic surface very close to the epicentre. Which one of the following conditions will the ship face? 1. get toppled 2. drift away 3. wreck 4. not much of a change 11. Read the following statements A. The towns in Canadian prairies developed after the construction of Canadian Pacific Railway. B. Most of the Cities of India were connected by railways after these had already developed. Which one of the following is correct? 1. A is true, B is false 2. A is false, B is true 3. Both A and B are true 4. Both A and B are false 12 12. Which one of the following sequences of the atmospheric atmospheric layers will a space shuttle encounter while returning to the earth? 1. Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere 2. Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Troposphere
3. Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere 4. Ionosphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere 13. Given below are some characteristics of a region. a. Rainfall is scanty b. Difference between day and night temperature is high c. Very little vegetation is found Which of the following regions has all these features? 1. coasts 2. deserts 3. plateaus 4. plains 14. Given below is the scale, which shows in sequence the limits of crust, outer mantle, inner mantle, outer core and inner core represented by 1,2,3,4 and 5 respectively. Which of the following scales represents the correct pattern of measurement? 15. Read the following: a. 80% of forests have been cleared. b. A quarter of world's mammals are at risk of extinction. c. Global warming will trigger a devastating rise in sea levels. Which of the following best explains all of the above? 1. Increasing industrialization 2. Large scale urbanization 3. Increased human activity 4. Large scale mechanizatio Solutions to Questions on Social Science Q.No. Key Rationale 1. 2 International Court of Justice is located at Hague. WHO is not at Paris, Paris, UNESCO at not at Washington, and ILO ILO not at London. Therefore alternative 2 is the answer. 2. 3 Lahore Lahore Declaration took took place in 1929, Tashkent Declaration in 1966, creation of Bangladesh in 1971, and Shimla Agreement in 1972. Therefore alternative 3 is the answer. 3 2 16% of the World Population means 1/6th of the population, which implies that every 6th person is an Indian. 4 4 Australia has a large area of land but is sparsely populated. All the other three countries are thickly populated. Therefore, the answer is alternative 4. 5 3 The answer key gives the clue. 6 3 Warren Hastings was associated with dual Gov ernment in Bengal, Col. Olcott with Theosophical Society of India, Lord Ripon with the Local Self Government and Tipu Sultan Sultan with the French French Revolution. The answer therefore is at alternative 3, which shows the c orrect matching. 7 2 In this question question you have to reason out which statements are true. true. Here the first first statement is not true, as the Modern Age could not come into existence suddenly. Hence, alternative 2 is correct which shows that statements statements b and c are true. 8 2 This question is based on a given passage. You have to find out which revolutions the passage passage is referring referring to. For the first first revolution the the hint is given in the passage. It involved 13 English Colonies, where where the settlers were from from
England. You will realize that their colonies were located in America. So one Revolution is American Revolution, and the second one is French Revolution as it was important important in shaping the modern world. The Russian Revolution and the Chinese Revolution took place place in 20 th Century only. So the answer is alternative 2. 9 2 This question is related to the first question. You can reason it out because the 13 colonies mentioned here were in America. America. So the answer is 2. 14 10 4 The rest of the questions questions you may reason out yourself. 11 3 12 1 13 2 14 1 15 3
ctet social Science for Paper-II (Practice Paper 03)
Social Science for Paper-II Teacher Eligibility Test Teacher Eligibility Test (Practice Paper 03) 21. “Workers have nothing to lose but their chains” was said by: (a) Hitler (b) Napoleon (c) Karl Marx (d) Stalin 22. The fall of the Czar, Nicholas II (USSR) is known as the: (a) Industrial (b) February revolution (c) Red revolution (d) Social revolution 23. Burma was captured by (a) America (b) Britain (c) Russia (d) Portugal 24. The Council of Ministers at the centre cen tre is responsible to: (a) The President (b) The chief Minister (c) The Supreme Court (d) The Lok Sabha 25. The fundamental duties have been included in the Constitution under the: (a) Article 351 (b) Article 72 (c) Article 51A (d) Article 65 26. Right to equality in our Constitution has abolished the practice of: (a) Child Labour
(b) Untouchability (c) Gender discrimination (d) All of these 27. Bronze was made by mixing: (a) Copper and Manganese (b) Copper and zinc (c) Copper and lead (d) Iron and Tin 28. The earliest language of the Aryans was: (a) Sanskrit (b) Urdu (c) Tamil (d) Afghani 29. Feudalism centered round: (a) Art (b) Business (c) Land (d) Surgery 30. A new language developed in in India during the the Medieval age: (a) Urdu (b) English (c) Dutch (c) Spanish ANSWERS 21. (c)
22. (b)
23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a)
29. (c)
30. (a)
