1. On-condition maintenance of reciprocating engine is covered under A. CAR series D part I. B. aircraft rule 70. C. aircraft rule 72. D. CAR series D part III. 2. Aircraft maintenance programme and their approval are covered under A. IAF 60(2). B. IAR 62. C. CAR series D part II. D. Both a and c are correct. 3. Alert value means A. maximum reliability index. B. minimum reliability index. C. maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range. D. None of the above. 4. When the operator is in the alert area the RAO will A. monitor the corrective programmes closely to determine their effectiveness and indicate the necessity of the amendment. B. keep the DGCA informed of the progress and effectiveness of the corrective programme. C. inform the manufacturer of the aircraft for taking corrective action. D. Both a and b is correct. 5. Reliability is a function of A. maintenance. B. basic design. C. personal training. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above are correct. 9. S.S.I. Are A. solid structure items. B. structuallly significant instruction. C. significant service instruction. D. structural significant item. 10. S.S.I are A. structural assembly. B. structural assembly which is judge significant because of the reduction in aircraft residual strength. C. damage tolerant item. D. None of the above. 11. On-condition maintenance implies the philosophy A. of fit and forget it. B. of fit until failure. C. a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 12. Condition monitoring implies the philosophy A. of fit and forget it. B. of fit until failure. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 13. Substantial damage means A. any damage beyond repair. B. any damage which necessitate the replacement of any component. C. any damage necessitating the replacement or extensive repair of any major component. D. any damage beyond economical repair. 14. Approved maintenance process is monitored by A. hard time maintenance. B. on-condition maintenance. C. Both a and b are correct. D. aircraft mechanical delay & PDR.
6. IAR 60 (2) authorise DGCA to A. specify the standard of balloons maintenance. B. specify the standard of glider maintenance. C. specify the standard of aircraft maintenance. D. None of the above. 7. Restoring an aircraft unit to it original design performance level after replacing/re-working parts to a given standard is termed as A. maintenance. B. overhaul. C. top overhaul. D. None of the above. 8. An item is judge damage-tolerant A. if structural element or assembly is judged significant because of reduction in aircraft residual strength or loss of structural function. B. if it can sustain damage & the remaining structure can withstand reasonable load or excessive structural deformation when the damage is detected. C. a and b are correct. 1
15. The continuing capability of the aircraft to perform in a satisfactory manner the flight operation for which it was designed is termed as A. maintenance. B. condition monitoring. C. airworthiness. D. on-condition. 16. Hard time maintenance is carried out at A. calendar time. B. no. of cycles. C. no. of landing. D. any one of the above is correct. 17. In an approved maintenance process, pilot report is computed as A. rate per 1000 hrs of operation/per 100 departures. B. rate per 100 hrs of operation/per 100 departures.
C. rater per 1000 hrs of operation/per 500 departures. D. any one of the above is correct. 18. S.S.I.D contains A. significant structural item, method of inspection and required corrective action. B. supplemental structural inspection document. C. approved programme to be included in a.c. manual. D. None of the above. 19. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameter in a A. tabulated form. B. graphical form. C. graphical form if feasible or tabulated form. D. graphical & tabulated form. 20. The engine parameters are recorded under stabilized condition A. during take off. B. during landing. C. during ground rein. D. during cruise level flying. 21. The life record of all the engine acessories is available in A. T.B.O charts. B. J.L.B. C. Engine log book. D. O/H procedure sheet. 22. Every engine parameter has an alert value which is fixed by A. operator. B. DGCA. C. RAO. D. operator in consultation with RAO. 23. Engine overhaul records are preserved for a period of A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years. 24. Alert values are A. reference values only. B. accepting limits only. C. both a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 25. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded A. in the engine log log book. B. in the aircraft log book. C. by an AME. D. both a and b are correct.
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26. The average fuel and oil consumption of engine will be recorded A. after post overhaul test of the engine. B. after the partial/top overhaul or repair of the engine followed by a test run/test flight, as applicable. C. at periods approved as per the approved maintenance schedule. D. All the above are correct. 27. The daily upliftment of fuel and oil consumption in aircraft fuel and oil register is signed by A. lincensed AME. B. QCM. C. Dy QCM. D. any authorised person. 28. The reliability of engines fitted to aircraft is measured in terms of A. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to number of engine flight hours. B. the number and nature of all flameouts in relation to number of airframe flight hours. C. the number and nature of all in-flight shut down in relation to number of airframe hours. D. the number and nature of all in flight shut down in relation to propeller flight hours. 29. If the operator's reliability index is above the alert value, he will A. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 25th day of the month. B. submit a corrective programme to the DGCA by the 10th day of the month. C. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 25th day of the month. D. submit a corrective programme to the RAO by the 10th day of the month. 30. Reliability index is A. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of airframe and engine combination. B. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 1000 hours of engine operation on that particular type of airframe and engine combination. C. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of airframe. D. the rate of total engine in-flight shut down per 100 hours of engine operation on that particular type of engine. 31. Reliability monitoring unit for its functioning will gather information from A. un-schedule maintenance & schedule maintenance. B. un-schedule removals. C. sampling inspection. D. All the above are correct.
32. Alert value is numerically equal to A. 'Mean value' plus "standard deviation". B. 'Mean value' plus "two standard deviation". C. 'Mean value' plus "mode value". D. 'Mode value' plus "two standard deviation".
A. category 'B'. B. category 'C'. C. category 'D'. D. category 'E'. 42. A firm approved in carrying out FTD of Avionics sets is approved in A. category 'A'. B. category 'E'. C. category 'D'. D. category 'C'.
33. The requirements to CAR are applicable to all A. schedule airlines. B. private airlines. C. air taxi operator. D. All are correct. 34. Alert notice is issued by A. the DGCA. B. the RAO. C. the QCM. D. the RMU.
43. A firm approved in carrying out non-destructure test of aircraft approved A. category 'A'. B. category 'B'. C. category 'D'. D. category 'E'.
35. A person of issue of ATPL shall have A. 1500 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. B. 2000 flight hours with 500 hours as PIC. C. 1500 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. D. 3000 flight hours with 1000 hours as PIC. 36. Validity of ATPL of pilot below 25 years of age is A. 06 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months. 37. Alert Notice will be issued by the R.M.U. A. to all concerned persons of the organisation. B. in duplicate to the RAO. C. in duplicate to the RAO on 25th of every month. D. Both a and c are correct. 38. Organisation approved for manufacture of aircraft is approved in A. category 'A'. B. category 'C'. C. category 'B'. D. None of the above. 39. A firm doing processing of aircraft components by electroplating, anodic treatment, metal spraying, heat treatment, etc. is approved in A. category 'A'. B. category 'B'. C. category 'D'. D. category 'F'. 40. A firm approved in category 'A' A. carries out maintenance of aircraft. B. carries out manufacture of aircraft. C. carries out storage & distribution. D. carries out manufacture storage & distribution. 41. A firm approved in carrying out C of A aircraft is approved in 3
44. An organisation approved in carrying out propeller overhaul is approved in A. category 'C'. B. category 'B'. C. category 'D'. D. category 'E'. 45. Firms approvedin category 'E' A. can carry out maintenance of aircraft. B. can carry out manufacture of aircraft. C. can carry out training of aircraft personel. D. can carry out distribution of fuels. 46. A firm carrying out chemical analysis physical test and metallurgical tests is approved in A. category 'E'. B. category 'D'. C. category "E & D'. D. All these are correct. 47. One copy of all documents used in the system of quality control in respect of activities performed including all incoming certification is preserved for a minimum period of A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years. 48. Release and rejection notes are preserved for a period of A. six months. B. one year. C. two years. D. five years. 49. Release notes are distributed as follows A. 1st copy to consignee, 2nd copy to organisation records. B. 1st copy to organisation records, 2nd copy to consignee.
C. 1st copy to supplier, 2nd copy to RAO. D. 1st copy to RAO, 2nd copy to supplier.
A. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of airframe, engine, aircraft components or items of equipment to approved specifications and drawings. B. an organisation engaged in the manufacture of aircraft. C. an organisation engaged in the maintenance of aircraft. D. All the above are correct.
50. First copy of 'Rejection note' is issued to A. organisation records. B. supplier. C. consignee. D. RAO. 51. 'Release notes' is signed by A. a person approved by DGCA. B. a person approved by RAO. C. a person named in terms of approval. D. Both a and c are correct.
58. Type certificate means a certificate issued A. to an organisation engaged in the manufacture of particular 'type of aircraft'. B. to a particular type of aircraft or for a series of aircraft. C. by RAO to signify the design of a type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment. D. by DGCA to signify the design of a type of aircraft, aircraft component or item of equipment.
52. Certificate of approval is cancelled by A. DGCA. B. RAO/DAI. C. Director of Airsafety. D. Both b and c are correct. 53. To get type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments, one should submit the following A. maintenance manual. B. detailed drawing. C. type instruction & type service manual. D. All of the above. 54. Which of the following statement is false? A. in case any conponent or equipment fitted on aircraft is due for replacement earlier than the validity of flight release certificate issued by AME, the FRC automatically ceases to be valid the item or component is not removed in a stipulated time. B. FRC is invalid if aircraft suffers any major damage. C. The validity of FRC is 12 hrs of operation of four days, whichever is earlier. D. The pilot can certify pre-flight inspection schedule in respect of an aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation provided he is approved by DGCA. 55. Approved maintenance organisation, maintaining private aircraft may reflect the arrangement in their A. Maintenance system manual. B. Quality Control manual. C. Operation manual. D. Engineering Organisation manual. 56. As per CAR series E part I, storing and distribution of previously certified aircraft goods by a firm is approved in A. category 'C'. B. category 'D'. C. category 'A'. D. category 'F'. 57. Manufacturer means 4
59. An organisation engaged in manufacture of aircraft component issues A. certificate of maintenance. B. certificate of airworthiness. C. certificate of approval. D. certificate of manufacture. 60. An organisation desiring approval in category 'B' for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA A. ten specimens of 8"x2"x16swg. B. twelve specimens of 8"x2"x16swg. C. ten specimens of 6"x2"x16swg. D. twelve specimens of 6"x2"x16swg. 61. 'Aircraft goods' means A. any part of the soundness and correct functioning of which is essential to the continued airworthiness or safety of the aircraft. B. aircraft components and items of equipment. C. aircraft components or materials, including paints, dopes, thinner, fuel lubricant and special petroleum products intended in use in civil aircraft. D. Both a & b are correct. 62. Certificate of approval A. is a document issued by an approved organisation and defines the scope of organisation. B. is a document issued by an organisation to state its approval in category viz, 'A', 'B' etc. C. is a document issued by DGCA to an approved organisation and giving the scope of approval. D. Both a & b are correct. 63. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials and goods and certifying that the same were obtained from an approved source after manufacture /repair /overhaul is called A. sale certificate. B. release certificate.
C. release note. D. None of the above.
B. RAO. C. DGCA in consultation with RAO. D. Director Aeronautical Inspection.
64. Rejection note is a document A. issued by DGCA to an approved organisation to cover the return of aircraft component received under incoming certificate. B. issued by an approved organisation for purpose of advising the details of rejection of certified aircraft goods which fail to meet applicable requirements. C. issued by RAO to cover the return of any aircraft component received under incoming release note. D. Both a & c are correct. 65. All AME's should be medically checked up by at least MBBS doctor once A. in a year. B. in two years. C. in six years. D. in five years. 66. An organisation seeking approval in any of the categories A to G should A. apply to RAO in duplicate. B. apply to DGCA in duplicate. C. apply to DGCA in duplicate along with the enclosures. D. apply to RAO in duplicate along with the enclosures. 67. An organisation seeking approval will normally submit A. two different types of manual. B. three different types of manual. C. three different types of manual in three sets. D. None of the above. 68. Three different manuals required for approval of an organisation are A. Q.C. manual, M S Manual, Structural Repair manual. B. Q.C. manual, Structural Repair manual, Engine Overhaul manual. C. Q.C. manual, Engine Overhaul manual M S manual. D. Q.C. manual, M S manual, Engineering Organisation manual. 69. Engineering Organisation manual is A. approved by DGCA. B. approved by RAO. C. organisational set-up (organisation tree) of the firm with particular reference to the duties and responsibilities of the various major units of engineering facility like production, quality control D. approved by operator.
71. Maintenance System manual is approved by: A. DGCA. B. DGCA in consultation with RAO. C. Controller of Airworthiness. D. RAO in consultation with DGCA. 72. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity wherever applicable in respect of periodic maintenance of aircraft component is contained in A. Engineering Organisation manual. B. Q.C. manual. C. M.S. manual. D. None of the above. 73. Procedure for release of aircraft by 'maintenance' to 'operation' is contained in A. Q.C.manual. B. M.S. manual. C. Engineering Organisation manual. D. Both a and b are correct. 74. As per rule 52 of IAR minimum mandatory instruments and equipments required for having single engine are A. altimeter, ASI, RPM indicator. B. altimetr, ASI, watch. C. altimeter, ASI, fire extinguisher. D. altimeter, ASI. 75. Installation of FDR is a must for issue/renewal/validity of C of A on A. all turbine engined aircraft. B. all aircraft above 15000 kg. C. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 5700 kg and above. D. all turbine engined aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above. 76. A sensitive altimeter and electrical power failure indicator is a must on aircraft A. with AUW above 15000 kg and flying in IFR. B. manufactured after 30th June 1978. C. intended to cruising above 30000 feet. D. on international flight over international waters. 77. The installation of CVR is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft with A. piston engines having AUW below 5700 kg. B. turbine engine having AUW of 5700 kg or above. C. as in (b) having AUW of 15000 kg or above. D. None is correct. 78. Certification of AME 'R' for flight release on private aircraft may not necessary if ground facilities are not available the certification may be deferred to
70. Quality Control manual is approved by A. DGCA. 5
A. inspection associated with next flight certification. B. next 100 hours schedule. C. align with any schedule within 50 hours. D. Any one of the above. 79. Mechanical stream means the trades of A. airframe and engines. B. machine and engines. C. instruments and autopilots. D. None is correct. 80. Avionic stream means the trades of A. radido communication and navigation system. B. electrical and instruments system. C. autopilots and radar systems. D. All are correct. 81. Concurrent experience means A. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of the same stream. B. experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of different streams. C. experience acquired simultaneously on engine and instruments system. D. Both b and c are correct. 82. Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding A. 24 months. B. 12 months. C. 6 months. D. 3 months. 83. AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to A. ICAO type I licence. B. ICAO type II licence. C. ICAO type III lincece. D. ICAO type IV licence.
87. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will have to show on additional experience of A. 12 months with 3 months recent experience. B. 24 months with 6 months recent experience. C. 6 months with 3 months recent experience. D. 6 months. 88. An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which A. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 3 month recent experience. B. 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience. C. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 12 month recent experience. D. 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience. 89. AME licence in category 'B' is given to helicopter A. with AUW below 5700 kg. B. with AUW below 15000 kg. C. with AUW below 3000 kg. D. with AUW below 2000 kg. 90. Person having valid AME licence covering aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an extension of glider will have to show a recent experience of A. 12 months on particular type of glider. B. 6 months on particular type of glider. C. 3 months on particular type of glider. D. 1 month on particular type of glider. 91. AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston engines A. below 500 BHP. B. below 450 BHP. C. below 300 BHP. D. below 250 BHP.
84. AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to A. ICAO type I licence. B. ICAO type II licence. C. ICAO type III licence. D. ICAO type IV licence. 85. Paper IV of AME licence exam is related to specific type of A. aircraft. B. engine. C. electrical equipment. D. All are correct. 86. An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (LA) on aircraft of similar construction will have to show an additional experience of A. three months. B. six months. C. twelve months. D. None is correct. 6
92. For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C' the candidate should have A. 12 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience. B. 12 months experience on type on which 3 months should be recent experience. C. 24 months experience on type on which 12 months should be recent experience. D. 24 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience. 93. For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate must possess A. a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical test. B. a licence in category E,I and R.
C. BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have undergone an approved training course on integrated avionics system. D. All are correct. 94. Licence in category 'X' is issued for A. overhaul of V.P. propeller. B. overhaul of radio equipment. C. overhaul of electrical system installed on light aircraft. D. Both a and b are correct. 95. An applicant may be allowed to appear for paper I, II and III of AME licence examination after he/she has acquired at least A. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience. B. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience. C. 3 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category. D. 2 years of aeronautical engineering experience in relevant category. 96. The licence in category R pertaining to heavy aircraft will be endorsed as A. valid for communication/navigation/radar system installed on the under mentioned aircraft. B. HF, VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega, DME weather radar etc. on particular type of aircraft. C. 'valid for heavy aircraft'. D. Both a and b are correct. 97. Airborne communication system includes A. VHF, HF, CVR, FDR, audio equipment. B. VHF, HF, VLF/omega ADF, audio equipment. C. VHF, HF, CVR, audio equipment. D. VHF, HF, VOR, ILS audio equipment. 98. Airborne navigation system includes A. ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic equipment. B. ADF, VHF, HF, FDR, VLF/omega and CW hyperbolic equipment. C. WX Radar, DME, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder. D. WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder. 99. Airborne radar system includes A. ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder. B. ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder HF. C. WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC transponder. D. WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder. 100. CAR are issued by DGCA A. to amplify any specific aircraft rule for the understanding of the operator. 7
B. as a statutory requirement, non-compliance of which is a violation. C. to meet the technological developments and changes in maintenance concept on sophisticated new generation aircraft. D. All above are correct. 101. The purpose of itnroduction of CAR series C is A. to stipulate the requirement of recording, reporting, investigation, rectification and analysis of defect. B. to raise in general the safety consciousness of the operator quality control organisation. C. to indicate an analytical approach to reliability monitoring during maintenance to insure safety of operation and timely preventive maintenance measures. D. to introduce a procedure by which operator maintenance standard can be monitored from a distance. 102. All major defects experienced by an organisation engaged in maintenance/major maintenance A. should only be reported to DGCA in the manner specified in the CAR. B. may also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft / aircraft componentsw for seeking advice to prevent recurrence of defects. C. It is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of major defects to undertake continuous assessment of structural integrity. D. Both b & c are correct. 103. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at A. identifying potential problems. B. optium utilisation of aircraft. C. achieving operational economy. D. keeping in force with present day technology. 104. An "item of equipment" means A. functionally significant item on aircraft. B. an essential unit on aircraft for safety of aircraft or its components. C. it is a self contained unit. D. a combination of all. 105. The content/scope/frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised A. only when maker so desires. B. only when DGCA so desires. C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA. D. only after incorporation of a major modification. 106. A critical I.F.S.D means A. engine failure in air beyond pilot's control. B. any IFSD associated with training flights/test flights.
C. a "shut down" affected by pilot on observing abnormal indication. D. Both b & c are correct. 107. According to CAR series D part II "condition monitoring" component means A. that contains those units and system which may be operating for a limited period. B. either approved by DGCA or the QCM of the organisation. C. that contains those units and system which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without affecting the safety and airworthiness of the aircraft. D. a configuration deviation list (CDL) in respect of transport category aircraft. 108. In the event of any damage caused to the aircraft while taxying by an authorised individual it should be promptly intimated to A. owner/operator of the aircraft. B. International Airport authority of India. C. concerned regional/sub regional inspection office. D. Both a & c are correct. 109. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category may be used for A. research or experimental purpose. B. racing aircraft. C. carrying passengers/mails/goods or for imparting training. D. normal category after obtaining permission from DGCA. 110. While operating an agricultural aircraft the minimum requirement for preflight inspection A. must be carried before each flight. B. may be carried out once before the first flight of the day unless the aircraft is suspected to have suffered from any defect or damage. C. need not be carried out if the flight release certificate is valid. D. None of the above is correcty.
113. In determining the proven 'service life' of an aircraft or any of its component might be the factor that will be kept in view will be the A. area of operation, manufacturer recommendation and applicant's own service experience on similar type of components. B. number of landings effecting on flight sector I.e. shorthaul and longhaul operation. C. other operator service experience of similar equipment. D. All are correct. 114. The periodical inspection schedules are prepared by the QCM of the firm and is submitted for approval. This is not applicable in case of A. non-schedule operators. B. private operators. C. gliding clubs. D. schedule operators. 115. The application form for change of ownership of aircraft is A. CA 23. B. CA 28. C. CA 27. D. CA 98. 116. With effect from 1st Jan 80 passenger safety information briefing card should be provided at every passenger seat by A. schedule operator. B. non-schedule operator. C. state aircraft. D. All the above are correct. 117. Deficiency list is to be approved by DGCA. This is applicable to A. schedule operator. B. non-schedule operator. C. private operator. D. Both a & b are correct.
111. If the defects observed in the aircraft other than public transport aircraft at places other than normal base they may be recorded in the A. defect register which must be carried on board. B. loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect register kept at normal base. C. JLB for ultimate transferring to defect register. D. All the above are correct.
118. Alert value means maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but within the allowable operating range which will not cause malfunction to an extent where aircraft safety is in jeopardy. This is applicable to A. all aircraft engines. B. piston engines only. C. turbine engines only. D. small aircraft engine operator only.
112. As per CAR series 'C' part I the records associated with the defects and their rectification shall be preserved for a period of A. one year. B. six months. C. two years. D. Not required to be preserved.
119. The formal for maintenance of records of fuel and oil uplift and consumption in respect of light aircraft engine is given in A. advisory circular no. 4 of 1976. B. CAR series D part V. C. not given anywhere. The operator has to make for himself and get it approved by DGCA.
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D. AME notice no. 1 of 1970. 120. The grant of approval to an organisation in any category will depend upon A. the request of the applicant. B. capability/capacity to perform the work. C. qualification of QCM/Dy QCM and other technical staff. D. All the above are correct. 121. How you will know the mandatory modification status of your aircraft? A. From the pink page of relevant log book. B. From the green page of log book. C. From the white page of log book. D. From the manufacturer. 122. All aircraft registered in India must have A. fire extinguisher and defuelling means. B. fire extinguisher and first aid Kit, contents of which, has been certified by an AME. C. play-card indicating up-to what estent smoking is allowed. D. Both b & c are correct. 123. As per IAR on aircraft involved in an accident which has major defect A. aircraft engine caught fire during refuelling on the departure day. B. a passenger is badly injured during time of take off. C. under-carriage accidentally retracts during a major inspection. D. All the above are correct. 124. Mark the correct statement A. MEL does not include flying controls, complete engine and landing gears. B. MEL may not include items like galley equipment entertainment systems, passengers, convenience equipment which do not effect the airworthiness of the aircraft. C. not withstanding the MEL, AME need not to certify the aircraft for flight release or a pilot need not to accept the aircraft for flight if it is feared that it is unsafe to do so. D. All are correct. 125. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on A. the capacity of the firm to undertake the job. B. the equipment available and technical literature. C. suitable & QCM & Dy QCM. D. All the above are correct. 126. Only one of the following need not have the approval of the maintenance organisation A. private owner of aircraft. B. non-schedule operator. C. schedule operator. D. aircraft owned by state govts. 9
127. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation is approved by the A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation. B. Quality Control Manager of only Indian Airlines and Air India. C. Controller or Director of Airworthiness of the region. D. Only b & c are correct. 128. The dailyreview board meeting is obligatory on the part of schedule operator A. to examine the nature of defect experience on the previous day. B. to satisfy if rectification action are adequate. C. to decide action on defects of repetitive nature. D. to discuss analysis and decide action on defects in co-operation with AID. 129. If during an investigation the cause of the defects is attributed to wilful negligence of the aircraft maintenance engineer A. the person concerned is suspended by the QCM immediately. B. the offender is issued show-cause notice. C. the Quality Control Manager should be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action. D. action by QCM should not be taken in consultation with the DGCA to avoid duplication of penal action. 130. All major defects experienced by an organisation during maintenance should be reported to DGCA A. in the manner specified in CAR. B. should also be reported to the manufacturer of the aircraft component for seeking advise on prevention of recurrence of similar defects. C. or it is necessary for an operator to apprise the manufacturer of only structural defects. D. Both a & b are correct. 131. For effective monitoring of aircraft and engine system for functioning in flight, the crew member should record all necessary parameter readings A. once during each sector of flight. B. only under stabilised cruise condition. C. during climbing phase soon after take off. D. only under emergency condition of flight. 132. On public transport aircraft the defects reported by the pilot are recorded in A. jib column II. B. flight report book and the aircraft can only be released for further flight when duly rectified by the AME. C. flight report book only when the nature of the defect is major. D. defect register maintained by the Quality Control Manager to ensure corrective action.
133. Analytical study of in-flight instrument reading of engine parameters (EGT/EPR/TAS/N1/N2) is intended to A. evaluate alert values. B. detect in-service deterioration. C. establish aerodynamic cleanliness. D. determine reliability index. 134. An alert notice in the event of system reliability exceeding alert value is issued by A. manufacturer. B. the DGCA. C. the RMU. D. the QCM.
D. any one of the above. 141. The purpose behind recording of defects and inflight instrument reading is to achieve A. smooth functioning of the reliability and statistical quality control system. B. effective monitoring. C. timely corrective action. D. All of the above.
135. Reliability programme followed by the quality control organisation of a schedule operator is aimed at A. optimum utilisation of aircraft. B. achieving operational economy. C. identifying potential areas. D. keeping in pace with present day technology.
142. When an aircraft registered outside India is in Indian territory sustains major damage or a major defect is found A. DGCA may prohibit the aircraft from flying. B. DGCA should not prohibit the aircraft from flying without concurrence of the appropriate authority of the country of registration of the aircraft. C. instead of prohibiting the aircraft from flying DGCA informs the fact to the country of registration and allows the aircraft to fly. D. None of the above is correct.
136. Aircraft noise level requirements A. are applicable to supersonic aircraft. B. relate to restriction only in the vicinity of airports. C. may be exempted by DGCA for any aircraft or class of aircrafts. D. should have been complied with an aircraft before 21.12.85.
143. Critical shut-down are those A. which cause aircraft structural damage, generate projection or fires adversely effecting the controllability of aircraft. B. shut down for test or training. C. those which cannot be put down or feathered. D. Both a and c are correct.
137. The circumstances under which an aircraft may be released with GPWS as unserviceable will be spelt out in A. M E L. B. C D L. C. Flight Manual. D. M S manual.
144. A current list of all in-flight shut down rate, engine hours flown and reliability index is submitted in a consolidated manner to the RAO A. by the 15th of each month. B. by the end of each month. C. by the tenth of each month. D. None of the above.
138. Maintenance procedure for GPWS will be included in A. Quality Control Manual. B. Maintenance System Manual. C. Flight Manual. D. appropriate maintenance schedule.
145. When a new issue of any CAR parts becomes effective A. the earlier parts stand cancelled. B. the earlier issued stands cancelled. C. the earlier issue of that particular CAR part stands cancelled. D. the earlier series stand cancelled.
139. The contents of scope and frequency of preventive maintenance can be revised A. only when makers so desire. B. only when DGCA so desires. C. only when justification based on operator's experience is acceptable to DGCA. D. only after the incorporation of a major modifications. 140. A major defect investigation A. should not be done in haste. B. should be done with speed for preventive/curative action. C. to pin-point the cause is more important.
timely
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146. At present one copy of each CAR is supplied free to A. all AME's. B. all pilots. C. all owners/operators of the aircraft. D. All the above. 147. Reflection of the requirements of the CAR in the quality control-cum-maintenance system manual is the responsibility of the A. operator/owner. B. head of the organisation. C. AME.
D. QCM. 148. When minor changes are made to a CAR part A. a new issue is issued. B. a new part is issued. C. an amendment is issued. D. new series are issued.
B. steady parking light and such switches may be operated. C. no special precautions are necessary for ground power supply. D. the ground power unit, tractor and similar equipment shall be located outside the defined "danger zone".
149. Whenever a new issue of a CAR part is issued it is given A. an issue number. B. a part no. C. issue number along with the date of issue. D. issue number along with the date of issue & date of effectively.
156. The form used for applications for approcal of firm in any of the categories mentioned in the CAR series E part I is A. CA 180. B. CA 182. C. CA 28. D. CA 23.
150. The certification to the effect that any servicing, modification, repair, inspection have been carried out in accordance with airworthiness requirements of the DGCA is called A. certificate of maintenance. B. certificate of flight release. C. certificate of maintenance review. D. release note.
157. Mark the correct statement A. A normal category aircraft can be used for only manoeuvre which is suitable for normal category. B. Aerial work aircraft can be used for private and agricultural spraying. C. Aerobatic category can be used for all categories. D. None of the above.
151. Public transport aircraft can A. undertake aircraft work. B. also be a private aircraft. C. carry passengers but not cargo. D. carry persons or cargo for renumeration. 152. Flight time as per aircraft rules means A. the moment aircraft first moves under its own power for taking off until it comes to rest at the end of the flight. B. synonymous to the term "block to block". C. synonymous to term "chock to chock". D. All the above are correct. 153. Contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with another state. B. contracted for a particular condition for carrying passengers. C. which is for the time-being a party to the convention of the ICAO. D. which is for the time-being a party to the IATA. 154. Flight manual is a manual A. associated with the C of A. B. associated with the C of R. C. associated with the FRC. D. which need not be carried on board. 155. During refuelling of aircraft A. aircraft radio and electrical, radar switches may remain 'ON'. 11
158. On an India registered aircraft a mandatory modification is to be carried in a non-contracting state. The following can carry the modification: A. An approved person of the non-contracting state. B. A person having qualification recognised by DGCA. C. An approved person of contracting state. D. All of the above. 159. The following documents have to be carried by all aircraft on all flights: A. C of A, C of R cockpit and emergency check-list. B. FRC, JLB. C. Route guide. D. Both a & b are correct. 160. For taxying an aircraft, a person having AME cat 'C' licence should possess the following: A. RT licence if required. B. Qualified to use radio communications. C. A person should know layout of aerodrome. D. a, b & care correct. 161. To get a type approval for an aircraft component equipment including instruments should contain the following: A. Maintenance manual. B. Detailed drawings. C. Types instructions and typed service manual. D. All the above. 162. Disposable load is A. Fuel that can be thrown out of the aircraft during emergency conditions. B. All persons and their belongings.
C. Empty load and variable load. D. Fuel and oil which is unusable.
B. C of R. C. type certificate. D. log book.
163. Engine power check on ground is done on helicopter by A. an AME having vast experience. B. an AME having licence on that engine. C. flight crew. D. All the above. 164. An aicraft which is flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome and coming back without landing at any other place, should carry the following document (I) C of A (II) C of R (III) Cockpit & Emergency check-list (IV) FRC (V) MEL (VI) Route Guide (VII) Pilot Crew Licences (VIII) Flight Manual if applicable. A. 1,2,3,4. B. 2,6,7,3. C. 4,5,8,3. D. All the above. 165. The installation of flight data recorder is mandatory on all Indian registered aircraft having A. turbine engines & permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above. B. piston engine and permissible AUW of 5700 kg or above. C. any type of engine and permissible AUW 5700 kg or above. D. as in (a) but permissible AUW of 15000 kg or above. 166. A Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a document A. which contains those units and systems which may remain inoperative in service for a limited period. B. approved by the DGCA. C. which contains those units and systems which may be inoperative in service for a limited period without effecting safety and airworthiness of the airc. D. Both (b) & (c) are correct. 167. The quanitity of unusable fuel is required to be determined if not available in the flight manual before A. C of A renewal. B. type certifcation of aircraft. C. complete overhaul of the aircraft. D. no. (a) above, as specified in operation manual. 168. Approved maintenance organisation maintaining private aircraft may reflect this arrangement in their A. maintenance system manual. B. quality control manual. C. operation manual. D. engineering organisation manual. 169. For information regarding name and address of the owner of the aircraft the document referred to is A. C of A. 12
170. Certificate of flight release shall be preserved for a period of A. one year from the date of issue. B. six months from the date of issue. C. six months from the date of expiry. D. None of the above is correct. 171. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported into India. The minimum standard of manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be A. as laid down in CAA -B CAR secs 'K' & 'D'. B. as laid down in FAA -FAR pts 23 & 25. C. as laid down by australian govt. for agricultural aircraft. D. Both (a) & (b) are correct. 172. The two preventive maintenance processes are known as A. hard time & condition monitoring. B. hard time & conditioning. C. on-condition & condition monitoring. D. on-condition & hard time. 173. The minimum conditions to be complied with under aircraft rules, before any aircraft is allowed to be flown are: A. the aircraft has been maintained as per stipulated maintenance schedules by the DGCA. B. Maintenance has been carried out by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person. C. Maintenance carried out has been certified by appropriately licensed/authorised/approved person in the specified period. D. Aqll are correct. 174. One of the following conditions does not result in automatic suspension of C of A A. Whenever an aircraft develops a defect which effects primary structure. B. Whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing. C. Approved inspection schedules are not completed when due. D. Whenever "lifted" components are not removed at their stipulated T.B.S.'s. 175. Certification of airworthiness of aircraft shows that it is valid for normal category sub-division "Private Aircraft". This aircraft can be used for A. experimental purposes. B. aerial works. C. aerobatic purposes. D. flying executives to their factory without any remuneration.
176. A public transport aircraft is categorised in "Normal category" sub-division a) passenger. Can it execute any steep turns? A. No. B. Yes. C. Limited bank if specified in flight manual. D. Angle of bank should not exceed 60 degree due to increase in G-forces. 177. A manual associated with C of A containing limitation within which the aircraft is considered to be airworthy is called A. operating manual. B. Q C manual. C. maintenance system manual. D. flight manual. 178. 'cockpit check-list' and 'Emergency check-list' are applicable as per rules on which of the following category/classification of aircraft. A. For all aircraft engaged in public transport. B. For state aircraft. C. For aircraft engaged in non-schedule operation including training aircraft. D. All aircraft registered in India. 179. MEL is applicable to aircraft operated by: A. private operator. B. non-schedule operator. C. schedule & non-schedule operator. D. by all aircraft having C of A. 180. MEL allows the aircraft to A. keep on flying for unlimited period. B. keep on flying for limited period. C. fly from transit station to base station where maintenance facilities exist. D. All the above are correct. 181. Invoking MEL for a period longer than absolutely necessary will result in A. increased crew load and increased airworthiness. B. increased crew load and decreased airworthiness. C. decreased crew load and increased airworthiness. D. decreased crew load and decreased airworthiness.
184. Deficiency list includes A. wings, flight controls, landing gears. B. complete Engine & its accessories. C. galley equpment, entertainment system. D. none of the above. 185. An AME after releasing the aircraft after invoking MEL A. shall inform the pilot of the aircraft of the same. B. shall inform the RAO of the same. C. shall make an entry in the technical log and placard the inoperative system. D. Both (a) & (c) are correct. 186. Deficiency list (MEL) is applicable A. to transit station. B. to terminal station. C. only to main base station. D. All the above. 187. When an aircraft is flying on MEL A. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours. B. the operator has to inform the RAO and DGCA in writing within 24 hours. C. the operator has to inform the RAO in writing within 24 hours if aircraft is released under the purview of MEL from the parent base. D. None of the above. 188. The MEL pre-amble contains A. procedure for release of aircraft with items of equipment unserviceable as per MEL. B. when and where the defects/items will be rectified/replaced. C. defining the main base and transit stations. D. (a), (b) & (c) are correct. 189. Cockpit and Emergency check-list are prepared under the purview of aircraft rule A. 60 A. B. 62 B. C. 7 B. D. 70 B. 190. Cockpit check-list means A. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after the flight. B. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew after and before the days of flight. C. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft. D. a list containing items of inspections/actions to be performed by the flight crew & ground crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of a aircraft.
182. MMEL stands for A. Main Minimum Equipment List. B. Manufacture Minimum Equipment List. C. Master Minimum Equipment List. D. Mandatory Minimum Equipmet List. 183. MEL is framed on A. operator experience. B. the basis of MMEL. C. approval by DGCA. D. All the above.
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191. A list containing items of action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed, whenever emergent situations develop in flight on account of failures/malfunction of aircraft systems/components and requiring extra alertness on the part of flight crew is A. safety list. B. emergency list. C. emergency check list. D. Cockpit check-list. 192. A list containing items of inspections/action to be performed by the flight crew in the order as listed and in the circumstances as indicated for ensuring safe operation of aircraft is A. check-list. B. cockpit check-list. C. emergency check-list. D. safety list. 193. Bonded store is a store where A. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting DGCA approval. B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources. C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources. D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval. 194. Quarantine store is a store where A. airtworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting DGCA approval. B. airworthy and serviceable material are awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources. C. material bear evidence of having been received from approved sources. D. airworthy and serviceable materials are awaiting manufacturer approval. 195. Separate stores are maintained for A. inflammable goods. B. bearings. C. propellers. D. hardwares. 196. Incoming release notes or other equipvalent documents shall be preserved for A. two years. B. five years. C. ten years. D. till the life of covered item. 197. Release note contains A. a cross reference to the outgoing certification document. 14
B. a cross reference to the incoming certification document. C. details from the outgoing certification of any deviation from the approved design document. D. All the above are correct. 198. 'Chief Instructor' is a mandatory requirement for organisation approved in A. category 'A'. B. category'C'. C. category 'F'. D. category 'G'. 199. The 'Pass marks' in approved training school shall not be less than A. 80%. B. 70%. C. 60%. D. 90%. 200. In case of re-examination of failed candidate in approved training school the passing mark shall not be less than A. 80%. B. 90%. C. 70%. D. 60%. 201. The duration of training period for specialised course for specific aircraft/engines shall be decided by A. DGCA. B. RAO. C. manufacturer of aircraft/engines. D. organisation. 202. In an organisation approved in category 'G' during any course the practical training shall not be normally A. less than 50% of total training time. B. less than 40% of total training time. C. more than 50% of total training time. D. more than 40% of total training time. 203. A candidate appearing for examination in any approved course should have at least A. 60% attendance. B. 70% attendance. C. 80% attendance. D. 90% attendance. 204. The Q.C.M. & Dy Q.C. M. are approved by the A. Chief Engineer of an airline operator. B. controller of Airworthiness. C. Managing Director of an organisation. D. DGCA. 205. The maintenance schedule of an aircraft organisation are approved by the A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation.
B. Q.C.M of only Indian Airlines & Air India. C. controller of Director of Airworthiness of the region. D. Both b and c are correct. 206. The component life list is a part of A. Maintenance System manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation. B. Quality Control manual & may be revised as per maker's recommendation. C. Maintenance system manyual and may be revised in concurrence of the DGCA. D. Quality control manual, once approved by DGCA can be revised by the Quality Control Manager.
A. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D. B. extend co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D. in supervising the engineering activities. C. Both a & b are correct. D. Both a& b are not correct. 213. A.I.D. Officers monitor the airworthiness standards stipulated by D.G.C.A. A. through medium of spot checks. B. through investigation of defects reported to them. C. through the D.G.C.A. D. Both a & b are correct.
207. When any component or item is drawn from the bonded stores by the AME, he should ensure that there is a A. proper release note available. B. certificate of maintenance release available. C. certificate of safety available. D. consignment note available.
214. Technical officers of R A O may require owners/operators to submit their aircraft/aircraft components for inspection. A. whenever they like. B. when the operator / owner is ready. C. at a pre-determined stage to ensure compliance with prescribed airworthiness standards. D. All the above.
208. Every Inidian registered aircraft is required to possess A. certificate of Airworthiness. B. current and valid certificate of airworthiness before it is flown. C. certificate of Airworthiness only for test flight. D. None of the above.
215. The main objective of the Airworthiness authority is to ensure A. design levels of reliability. B. operating safety of civil registered aircraft. C. promulgation and enforcement of highest achievable standards of airworthiness. D. All are correct.
209. To ensure that the aircraft has a current and valid C of A is the responsibiloity of A. D.G.C.A. B. Regional Airworthiness Office. C. Manufactuere of the Aircraft. D. Owner/Operator of the Aircraft.
216. An unintentional landing effected on account of failure/malfunction of an aircraft component or a system is A. forced landing. B. heavy landing. C. normal landing. D. emergency landing.
210. The aircraft is mainteined in airworthy condition by subjecting the aircraft & component to A. periodical inspections as approved by D.G.C.A. B. replace "lifed" components at intervals approved by the D.G.C.A. C. carry out repairs/modifications as required by D.G.C.A. D. All the above are correct.
217. The maintenance process requiring assembly inspection of aircraft and aircraft components at fixed period is A. preventive maintenance. B. hard time maintenance. C. on-condition maintenance. D. None.
211. It is the responsibility of the owner to A. see his pilots operate the aircraft as per operating limitations. B. report all defects encountered in flight or during routine maintenance to A.I.D. C. record such defects as per procedure specified in C.A.R. series 'C'. D. a,b,c are correct.
218. The maintenance process for locating and resolving problem areas through analytical study of failure or malfunction not affecting safety of aircraft is called A. hard time maintenance. B. on-condition maintenance. C. condition monitoring. D. preventive maintenance.
212. Operator co-operation to unauthorised officers of A.I.D.
219. Accomplishment of repetitive (1) visual inspection or (2) physical measurement or (3) in situ/bench test, etc. to determine the continued
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serviceability of aircraft and aircraft components without having to dismantle them completely and before such components reach a critical stage in their operation is termed as A. hard time maintenance. B. on-condition maintenance. C. condition monitoring. D. preventive maintenance. 220. Preventive maintenance is A. on-condition. B. hard line. C. on-condition and hard time. D. condition-monitoring.
D. None. 227. Training aircraft operators would furnish the information concerning major defect/ incident /accident to D.G.C.A. A. every month. B. every six months. C. every three months. D. None. 228. If the A.I.D. observes adverse 'trends' in performance of aircraft he A. suggests additional preventive maintenance. B. proposes varying the frequency of existing preventive maintenance. C. suggests incorporation of modifications on mandatory basis. D. All are correct.
221. Condition monitoring is A. hard time maintenance. B. preventive maintenance. C. a & b is correct. D. None of the above. 222. Preventive maintenance is A. hard time. B. work performed at pre-determined intervals to maintain an aircraft, aircraft component or aircraft system in an airworthy condition. C. on condition. D. a, b, c are correct. 223. Private operator shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the D.G.C.A. A. every month. B. every six months. C. every nine months. D. every twelve months. 224. Non-schedule operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to the D.G.C.A. A. every month. B. every three months. C. every six months. D. every nine months. 225. Schedule operators would furnish the information concerning major defect / incident/ accident to the D.G.C.A. A. every month. B. every six months. C. every nine months. D. every year. 226. Aerial work operators shall furnish the information concerning major defect /incident /accident to D.G.C.A. A. every month. B. every six months. C. every three months. 16
229. Despatch reliability is the percentage ratio between A. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per 1000 Hrs. B. number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on account of engineering defects per number of scheduled service during the period. C. number of services which were despatched in time per 1000 hrs. D. number of services which were despatched in time per no. of scheduled service during the period. 230. If there is no information concerning individual major defect /incident /accident the operator A. does not have to send any information to R.A.O. B. does not have to send any information to D.G.C.A. C. has to send a "NIL' information. D. All the above. 231. CAR is issued under rule A. 133 A. B. 133 B. C. 133 C. D. 62 B. 232. Procedure for issuing of CAR including amendments, if any, is covered in CAR A. series A part I. B. series B part I. C. series B part II. D. series A part II. 233. CAR series A part III refers to A. procedure for issue of CAR. B. objective of AID. C. targets of AID. D. Both b & c are correct. 234. Mark the correct statement
A. CAR is issued bearing different series identification serial as I, II, III etc. B. CAR is issued bearing different parts such as A,B,C etc. C. CAR is issued bearing different series identification alphabetical letter such as series A,B,C etc. D. None of the above.
D. All are correct.
235. A current list of all CAR with amendments, is also issued A. at the beginning of each year. B. at the end of each year. C. in the middle of each year. D. Both a & b are correct.
243. No pilot may carry out acrobatic man cover in an aircraft unless A. a crash helmet is worn. B. a headgear is worn. C. pilots wearing spectacles must weare flying goggles over and above the spectacles. D. All are correct.
236. When substantial changes are made to a CAR part A. a new issue is issued. B. a new part is issued. C. new series are issued. D. new series and part are issued. 237. All pilots before flying as PIC of multi engined aircraft of licensed air transport service shall demonstrate to a check pilot let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use, variation in speed during descent not to exceed A. 5 MPH above the stipulated speed. B. 5 MPH below the stipulated speed. C. 5 MPH above or below the stipulated speed. D. 10 MPH above or below the stipulated speed. 238. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot check loss in height shall not exceed A. 500 feet. B. 1000 feet. C. 1500 feet. D. 2000 feet. 239. The PIC of every aircraft shall before commencing any flight satisfy himself of the A. valid flight release in respect of the aircraft. B. sufficient length of runway is available. C. engines are developing correct power. D. All are correct. 240. The responsibility of briefing the passengers of smoking limitation lies with A. PIC. B. Co-pilot. C. AME. D. QCM. 241. Critical phase of flight includes A. taxying. B. take off and landing. C. all flight operations conducted below 10000 feet except cruise flight. 17
242. Duties not required for safe operation of the aircraft includes company required calls made A. for ordering galley supplies. B. for confirming passenger's connections. C. for promoting airlines. D. All are correct.
244. Minimum fuel and oil requirements for public transport aircraft is contained in A. CAR series F part II. B. CAR series F part III. C. CAR series O part II. D. CAR series O part III. 245. PIC shall ensure that the aircraft carries sufficient amount of fuel for the flight considering A. adverse affects of weather. B. availability of an alternate aerodrome. C. emergency that may be expected during the flight. D. All are correct. 246. The fuel and oil carried in the case of propeller driven aircraft when alternate airport is not required shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned. B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes. C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes. D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes. 247. The fuel carried in case of propeller driven aircraft (when alternate airport is required) shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned hence to an alternate. B. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 30 minutes. C. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 45 minutes. D. as in (a) and thereafter for a period of 60 minutes. 248. The fuel carried on turbo jet aircraft (when an alternate aerodrome is not required) shall be at least the amount sufficient to allow the aircraft A. to fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned. B. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes. C. as in (a) & to fly for 45 minutes. D. as in (a) & to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 metres above the destination aerodrome.
249. The fuel on board a turbo jet aircraft when no suitable alternate aerodrome is available to fly to which the flight is planned and there-after for a period of A. 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption. B. 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption. C. 60 minutes at normal cruise consumption. D. 120 minutes at normal cruise consumption.
256. A helicopter with performance such that in case of power unit failure at any point in the flight profile a forced landing must be performed is called A. performance class I helicopter. B. performance class II helicopter. C. performance class III helicopter. D. performance class IV helicopter.
250. In computing fuel and oil required for aircraft operation one should consider A. meteorological forecast. B. anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays. C. one instruments approach at the destination aerodrome including one missed approach. D. All are correct.
257. All helicopters below 2000 kg AUW must be equipped with A. an accurate time piece showing time in hour minutes and seconds. B. pilot may use his personal watch in lieu of (a). C. as in (b) provide the watch is accurate and shows time in hours, minutes and seconds. D. All are correct.
251. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to A. fly to first point of intended landing. B. as in (a) thereafter for 15 minutes. C. as in (a) thereafter for 20 minutes. D. as in (a) thereafter for 45 minutes.
258. Helicopter operating in IFR condition in addition to instruments in VFR flying shall have A. slip indicator. B. position lights. C. landing lights. D. All are correct.
252. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under IFR condition is to A. fly to first point of intended landing. B. fly to first point of intended landing and then to alternate. C. as in (b) thereafter for 20 minutes. D. as in (b) thereafter for 45 minutes.
259. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio equipment capable of receiving signals providing A. guidance to a point from which a visual landing can be effected. B. guidance to a point from which instrument landing can be effected. C. guidance to ATC transponder. D. guidance to WX radar.
253. Minimum fuel required for operation of supersonic aircraft A. is same as for turbo prop aircraft. B. is same as for turbo jet aircraft. C. is same as for helicopter. D. None is correct. 254. A helicopter with such performance that in case of critical power unit failure it is able to land on the rejected take off aread or safely condinue the flight to an appropriate landing area, depending on the failure occurred is called A. performance class I helicopter. B. performance class II helicopter. C. performance class III helicopter. D. performance class IV helicopter. 255. A helicopter with such performance that, in case of critical power unit failure it is able to safely continue the flight, except when the failure occurs prior to a defined point after take off or after a defined point before landing, in which case a forced landing may be required is called A. performance class I helicopter. B. performance class II helicopter. C. performance class III helicopter. D. performance class IV helicopter. 18
260. All helicopters intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a permanent or rapidly deployable means of floatation if distance from land corresponds to more than A. 10 minutes at normal cruise speed. B. 15 minutes at normal cruise speed. C. 30 minutes at normal cruise speed. D. 45 minutes at normal cruise speed. 261. Flight data recorders are 'must' for all helicopters A. with AUW of over 7000 kg. B. with AUW of over 5700 kg. C. with AUW of over 2700 kg. D. with AUW of over 2000 kg. 262. CVR's are must for all helicopter A. with AUW of over 7000 kg. B. with AUW of over 5700 kg. C. with AUW of over 2700 kg. D. with AUW of over 2000 kg. 263. FDR used on helicopter shall be A. type IV FDR. B. type III FDR. C. type II FDR.
D. type I FDR. 264. FDR used on helicopter shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least A. the last 25 hours of operation. B. the last 10 hours of operation. C. the last one hour of operation. D. the last 30 minutes of operation. 265. CVR used on helicopters shall be capable of retaining the information recorded during at least A. the last 25 hours of operation. B. the last 10 hours of operation. C. the last one hour of operation. D. the least 30 minutes of operation.
272. Civil twilight ends in the A. evening when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon. B. morning when the centre of sun's disc is 6 degree below the horizon. C. evening at 6 P.M. D. morning at 6 A.M. 273. The colour of marking of 'break in points' in aircraft shall be A. red. B. yellow. C. outlined in white to contrast with the background. D. All are correct.
266. Operation of helicopter is contained in A. CAR series F part I. B. CAR series F part IV. C. CAR series O part I. D. CAR series O part IV.
274. Installation of anti-collision light is applicable to all aircraft issued with C of A for the first time after A. 31-12-1970. B. 31-12-184. C. 01-12-1970. D. 01-12-1984.
267. Aerodrome operating minima is the limits of usability of an aerodrome for either take-off or landing usually expressed in times of A. MDA/G. B. DA/H. C. MDA/H. D. All are correct.
275. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board when flown beyond A. 20 nautical miles away from land. B. 50 nautical miles away from land. C. 100 nautical miles away from land. D. All are correct.
268. An alternate aerodrome A. is always the aerodrome of departure. B. may be aerodrome of departure. C. is at least 500 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure. D. is at least 450 nautical miles from the aerodrome of departure.
276. Flight recorders are not required for aircraft below A. 15000 kg. B. 7000 kg. C. 5700 kg. D. None is correct. 277. The radio equipment installed in aircraft registered in India shall A. not be operated in flight unless it has been inspected and certified as being in proper working order by a person authorised by the DGCA. B. be installed and operated with a licence issued by DGCA. C. be operated only by a person who holds appropriate licence issued by DGCA. D. All are correct.
269. Decision altitude (DA) is referenced to A. mean sea level. B. average sea level. C. threshold elevation. D. tower elevation. 270. Decision height (DH) is referred to A. mean sea level. B. average sea level. C. threshold elevation. D. tower elevation. 271. MDA/H is specified altitude or height in a A. non-precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference. B. non-precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference. C. precision approach below which descent may not be made without visual reference. D. precision approach below which descent may be made without visual reference. 19
278. CAR series R Part I pertains to A. aircraft radio equipment. B. installation of communication equipment. C. installation of navigation equipment. D. installation of radar equipment. 279. While installing anew avionic system on an aircraft in the absence of manufacturer's guidelines the AME 'R' shall make a feasibility study to check that A. empty weight of the aircraft remains same after installation.
B. empty weight C.G. remains same after installation. C. loaded weight C.G. remains same after installation. D. C.G. should remain in limit after installation.
A. CAR series E part II. B. CAR series E part III. C. CAR series R part II. D. CAR series R part III.
280. For approval of an avionic installation, in absence of manufacturer's guidelines, AME 'R' shall submit the modification details along with A. six copies of drawing to RAO. B. six copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs). C. three copies of drawing to RAO. D. three copies of drawing to DGCA (Hqrs).
288. Maintenance check carried out on radio equipments are A. in situ checks & bench checks. B. bench check only. C. boroscope checks. D. NDT checks.
281. On comletion of structural and electrical wiring on an aircraft the complete wiring shall be checked for A. continuity. B. insulation and continuity. C. bonding and insulation. D. All are correct.
289. FRC of a radio communication system installed on a flying training club aircraft is A. valid for 24 hours. B. 12 hours or 7 days elapsed time. C. 10 hours or 4 days elapsed time. D. None is correct.
282. The antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper insulation to ensure that A. radio interference is least. B. static interference is maximum. C. precipitation static interference is minimum. D. static interference is minimum.
290. FRC of a radio communication/navigation system installed on a flying training club aircraft is A. valid for 24 hours. B. valid for 200 hours. C. valid for 90 days. D. valid for 30 days.
283. After installation of new avionic system on an aircraft the EWCG shall be amended accordingly by A. AME cat 'R'. B. AME cat A & C. C. AME cat A, C & R. D. AME cat 'B'.
291. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days inspection schedule of radio system it is a must to carry out A. VSWR of HF & VHF transmitter. B. bonding of RF cables. C. insulation of radio equipments. D. All are correct.
284. Installation of a new avionic system on an aircraft can be carried out only after obtaining A. the permission from DGCA. B. the permit from DGCA. C. short term aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications. D. permanent aeromobile licence from WPC wing of Ministry of Communications. 285. CAR series R part III pertains to A. aircraft radio equipment. B. installation of aircraft radio equipment. C. maintenance of airborne radio equipment. D. installation and maintenance of airborne radio equipment. 286. Aircraft shall be equipped with radio apparatus as may be specified is required as per IAR A. 9A. B. 9 Sub-rule 3. C. 51 A, sub-rule 3. D. Both a and c are correct. 287. Maintenance of airborne communication and navigation equipments shall be carried out in accordance with 20
292. FTD checks of ADF, VHF, HF, VOR & ILS equipment are carried out A. once in six months. B. once in a year (for valve equipment). C. once in 2 years (for valve equipment). D. None is correct. 293. Final test data check of solid state equipment shall be carried out A. once in six months. B. once in a year. C. once in 2 years. D. once in a 2 years linked with C of A or any major check. 294. Pilot shall file de-briefing report regarding the range and performance of WX Radar, Omega NAV, HIS, RMI, DME and R NAV after A. the day's flying. B. 10 days of flying. C. 90 days of flying. D. 180 days of flying. 295. Aircraft after flying through electrical storm or lightning strike has to be inspected for A. loop antenna which is to be demagnetised.
B. all digital and CRT indicator shall be inspected for any possible damage to glass components. C. all antenna shall be inspected for any damage to the wire. D. All are correct. 296. Major modifications regarding safety of aircraft radio equipment shall be carried out by A. AME cat 'R'. B. AME cat 'B' (radio). C. AME cat A & B (radio). D. AME cat 'X' (radio). 297. CAR series S part I pertains to storage of A. aircraft instruments. B. aircraft hardware. C. aircraft engines. D. aircraft tyres. 298. Aircraft tyres should be stored vertically in racks having support tubes so that each tyre is supported at two point on the treads. The tyres should be turned to a new position A. every month or so. B. every 2 months or so. C. every 3 months or so. D. every 6 months or so. 299. The storage temperature of rubber parts should A. between 50 degree F and 70 degree F. B. between 50 degree C and 70 degree C. C. between 50 degree F and 90 degree F. D. between 50 degree C and 90 degree C.
D. 4 years. 304. The service life of group B hoses are A. 10 years. B. 8 years. C. 6 years. D. 4 years. 305. The service life of group A and group B hoses can be increased by A. 8 years. B. 6 years. C. 4 years. D. 2 years. 306. Group 'A' hoses are A. fuel, oil. B. pneumatic pressure hoses. C. hydraulic pressure hoses. D. All are correct. 307. Group 'B' hoses are A. fuel, oil. B. hydraulic return line and instrument hoses. C. fuel return line. D. All are correct. 308. The 'shelf life' of valve seats used in hydraulic system is A. 10 years from the cure date. B. 8 years from cure date. C. 6 years from the cure date. D. 4 years from the cure date.
300. The relative humidity of the room where hoses are stored shall be around A. 50%. B. 60%. C. 65%. D. 75%. 301. Aircraft hoses should be stored A. in coiled state. B. in coiled state supported in racks having support tubes. C. in coiled state with french chalk sprayed. D. in coiled and supported state so as to relieve stresses. 302. The storage/shelf life of group A hoses are A. 10 years from the cure date. B. 6 years from the cure date. C. as in (a) before installation pressure test should be carried out 1.5 times the working pressure. D. None is correct. 303. The service life of group A houses are A. 10 years. B. 8 years. C. 6 years. 21
309. Rubber seals which have been stored for more than four years should be checked for deterioration by stretching the seal to A. 10% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. B. 20% of their internal dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. C. 10% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. D. 20% of their external dia and seeing for crack under XIO magnification. 310. The maximum service life of rubber seals shall not exceed A. 8 years. B. 6 years. C. 5 years. D. 4 years. 311. The calendar life of reciprocating engines are A. 10 years. B. 8 years. C. 6 years. D. None is correct.
312. Series aircraft means A. aircraft manufactured in series. B. arcraft supplied in series. C. aircraft belonging to 'A' series. D. None is correct.
manufacturer/DGCA, while effecting climb at the 'best climbing speed'. D. All are correct.
313. Flight test means the flying of an aircraft A. without any passenger on board for the purpose assessing the deterioration in performance. B. as in (a) and also assessing the satisfactory completion of maintenance. C. as in (a) and can carry passengers. D. as in (a) and (b) and can carry passengers. 314. Test flight of an Indian airlines aircraft will be carried out A. during C of A renewal. B. after 'top-overhaul'. C. after 'block-overhaul'. D. Both a and c are correct. 315. A private aircraft shall be flight tested A. during C of A renewal. B. subsequent to change of an engine. C. for the purpose of evaluation of engine power. D. All are correct. 316. On a four-engine aircraft the test flight may not be carried out after change of A. one engine provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out. B. two engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out. C. three engines provided satisfactory ground run has been carried out. D. All are correct. 317. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement by A. an overhauled engine. B. re-installation of the engine in the same position. C. engine removed from any position of the same aircraft to any other aircraft. D. All are correct. 318. Test flight shall be continued if practicable at A. maximum AUW. B. minimum AUW. C. 3/4 of maximum AUW. D. 1/2 of maximum AUW.
320. The responsibility of recording the results of test flight lies entirely with A. PIC. B. Co-pilot. C. Flight Engineer. D. AME. 321. The observed actual climb performance is related to the test condition A. means altitude. B. means temperature. C. means weight. D. All are correct. 322. When an India registered aircraft suffers major damage of defect then it shall be the responsibility of A. the operator to inform the RAO. B. the operator to inform the DGCA. C. the operator to inform the DAI. D. None is correct. 323. On receipt of a report regarding major defect/damage to an aircraft, officer incharge of RAO A. may formally suspend the C of A. B. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft. C. may suspend C of A, if reasonable doubts exist to the safety of aircraft or as to the safety of this type of aircraft to which the aircraft belongs. D. Both a and b are correct. 324. The owner/operator during carrying out rectification of major defect A. shall not submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection. B. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection during rectification work. C. shall submit the aircraft to airworthiness officers for inspection only when rectification is complete. D. None is correct. 325. When a suspended C of A is revalidated it is A. for one year. B. for the period the original revalidation would have lasted had the suspension not taken place. C. for six months. D. Both b and c are correct.
319. The routine test flight procedure will at least insure A. that the cruise speed at the cruising engine power is within the range specified. B. that the stalling speed has not increased beyond the figure specified by the manufacturer/DGCA. C. that 'al-engine-operating' climbed performance is within acceptable limits specified by the 22
326. Aircraft rule 53 and 53A together A. prescribes the requirement regarding use material process to be used during maintenance aircraft. B. prescribes the requirement regarding use material process to be used during maintenance
of of of of
aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft. C. prescribes the persons authorised to certify the maintenance of aircraft. D. prescribes the requirement regarding use of material process to be used during manufacture of aircraft and also the persons authorised to certify the manufacture of aircraft. 327. CAR series F part VI deals with A. rebuilding of aircraft. B. rebuilding of damaged aircraft. C. rebuilding of aircraft wreckage. D. All are correct. 328. Only those aircraft are permitted to be rebuilt A. which were earlier type certificated. B. which were flying with C of A. C. which has sufficient data regarding maintenance and prformance standards. D. All are correct. 329. Rebuilding means A. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards and fitted in an aircraft to be type certificated. B. assembling an aircraft from parts which are already manufactured to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then fitted to type certificated aircraft. C. assembling an aircraft from parts approved by AME to an acceptable airworthiness standards and then fitted to an aircraft to be type certificated. D. None is correct. 330. An approved firm can undertake the rebuilding of A. all aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. B. all pressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. C. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 2000 kg. D. all unpressurised aircraft upto the weight 3000 kg. 331. Rebuilt aircraft will be assigned a serial number by the constructor. This number will normally be the number assigned A. to the wing. B. to complete aircraft. C. to the fuselage. D. None is correct. 332. The constructor number in case of rebuilt aircraft will be affixed A. to the wing by permanent means. B. to the fuselage by permanent means. C. to the cockpit by permanent means. D. All are correct. 333. Registration number assigned to a rebuilt aircraft A. will be the same registration number which was given to aircraft of which fuselage was a part. 23
B. will be the same registraqtion number which was given to aircraft of which airframe was a part. C. in case of new fuselage or imported fuselage new registration mark will be allotted. D. Both a and c are correct. 334. Before starting rebuilding of an aircraft the constructor must insure that A. proper history of parts are available. B. parts purchased are genuine. C. parts are imported. D. Both a and b are correct. 335. AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must be endorsed in A. category 'A'. B. category 'B". C. category 'C'. D. category 'D'. 336. Aircraft parts are completely stripped/inspected /overhauled prior to assembling of aircraft during rebuilding if the parts had been in storage for more than A. ten years. B. eight years. C. five years. D. two years. 337. Series F part VII contains A. C of A renewal procedure. B. suspension of C of A. C. spcial flight permit. D. None of the above. 338. Aircraft with suspended C of A due to defect or damage shall not undertake any flight without specific permission of DGCA vide A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2. B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3. C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4. D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5. 339. DGCA may permit special flight for an aircraft when the C of A is suspended vide A. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 2. B. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 3. C. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 4. D. Aircraft rule 55 sub-rule 5. 340. A special flight authorisation is a permission accorded A. by DGCA. B. to ferry-fly an aircraft. C. to carry special persons (VIPs). D. Both a and b are correct. 341. A special flight permit is a permission
A. to ferry fly to a base without passengers on board where repairs, modifications and maintenance required to remove the suspension of the C of A can be performed. B. for production flight testing new production aircraft. C. to authorise flight for special purposes. D. All are correct. 342. The operator who wishes to avail a special flight permit must submit an application to RAO indicating A. the crew required to operate the aircraft. B. the crew required to operate the equipment. C. the purpose of flight. D. All are correct. 343. The RAO may authorise a special ferry flight subject to A. inspection or tests by the operation for determining the safety of aircraft for the intended flight and certified to that effect by appropriately licensed AME. B. limitation that the operating weight on any ferry flight must be the minimum necessary. C. manufacture for which the aircraft is limited. D. All are correct. 344. Special flight authorisation issued by regional/sub-regional airworthiness office is valid A. for one week. B. upto arrival at destination airport. C. upto arrival at destination or date whichever is applicable. D. All are correct. 345. On completion of special flight the operator with render A. to RAO any abnormality encountered during flight. B. to DGCA any abnormality encountered during flight. C. to DGCA action taken at base to render aircraft airworthy. D. Both b and c are correct. 346. General requirements regarding maintenance and certification of Aircraft is dealt in A. CAR series F part V. B. CAR series F part VI. C. CAR series F part VII. D. CAR series F part VIII. 347. Operator who do not have their own facility for maintenance and certification of aircraft A. can't maintain & fly their aircraft. B. have to request DGCA for certification. C. C of A of their a/c will be cancelled. D. can get maintenance and certification performed by organisation approved for the purpose.
24
348. Important schedules like heavy landing, post lighting strike, post propeller strike etc. should be submitted to the RAO for approval in A. duplicate. B. triplicate. C. quadruplicate. D. None. 349. All works on a/c must be recorded in the relevant log books within A. an hour of completion. B. six hours of completion. C. 24 hours of completion. D. 48 hours of completion. 350. If aircraft log book is not readily available because of aircraft being away from the base then A. one copy of log book entry should be kept in the JLB. B. one copy of log book entry should be sent to the RAO. C. aone copy of log book entry should be sent to DGCA. D. All are correct. 351. FRC will become invalid A. if unapproved parts are used. B. if unapproved manoeuvers are taken. C. if aircraft suffers major damage. D. None of the above. 352. Validity of FRC of schedule operator including corporation is A. 12 hours of aircraft operator operation. B. 24 hours. C. as stated in approved QC manual. D. as stated in approved maintenance system manual. 353. Validity of FRC of flying training aircraft A. is valid for every 24 hours (one day). B. is valid for 12 hours of aircraft operation when aircraft is away from main base. C. is valid for 4 days elapsed time when aircraft is away from main base. D. All are correct. 354. FRC of aerial work aircraft is A. 10 hours of aircraft operation time whichever is earlier. B. 12 hours of aircraft operation time whichever is earlier. C. 10 hours of aircraft operation time whichever is earlier. D. 12 hours of aircraft operation time whichever is earlier.
or 7 days elapsed or 4 days elapsed or 4 days elapsed or 7 days elapsed
355. FRC of private aircraft is valid for A. 50 hrs/30 days. B. 25 hrs/15 days.
C. 10 hrs/7 days. D. Both a and b are correct. 356. Validity of FRC of State Govt. aircraft is A. 50 hrs/30 days. B. 50 hrs/60 days. C. decided by the RAO is consultation with the operator. D. None is correct. 357. Validity of FRc of Radio communication equipment of training aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time. B. 60 days elapsed time. C. 90 days elapsed time. D. None is correct. 358. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of training aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time. B. 60 days elapsed time. C. 90 days elapsed time. D. None is correct. 359. Validity of FRC of Radio communication equipment of private aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time. B. 60 days elapsed time. C. 90 days elapsed time. D. 180 days elapsed time. 360. Validity of FRC of Radio navigation equipment of private aircraft is A. 30 days elapsed time. B. 60 days elapsed time. C. 90 days elapsed time. D. 180 days elapsed time. 361. FRC for aircraft of AUW of 15000 kg and above is signed by A. persons authorised in two category. B. persons authorised in three category. C. persons authorised in four category. D. persons authorised in five category. 362. In case of private aircraft the schedule of inspection lower than 50 hrs may be carried out by A. the pilot holding C.P. licence on that particular type of aircraft. B. the pilot having vast experience. C. the pilot having at least ALTP. D. None is correct. 363. Flight release certificate is signed in A. duplicate. B. triplicate. C. quadruplicate. D. None is correct. 25
364. FRC is preserved for A. one month from the date of issue. B. six months from the date of issue. C. one year from the date of issue. D. Not required to be preserved. 365. Distribution of FRC is done as follows: A. one copy to RAO. B. one copy is kept in aircraft. C. one copy is with organisation record. D. Both b and c are correct. 366. Rule 53 of aircraft rule specifies that A. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment on such aircraft shall periodically be inspected/overhauled and certified. B. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must be obtained from approved sources. C. all aircraft and aircraft component and items of equipment must possess a valid release note. D. All are correct. 367. Schedule maintenance includes the following work A. replacement of "life limited" item. B. heavy landing schedule. C. lighting sticks schedule. D. All are correct. 368. Unschedule maintenance includes the following work A. special inspections such as x-rays. B. replacement of "lifed" components. C. heavy landing schedule. D. All are correct. 369. Aging aircraft requires more frequent inspection of structural components for damage due to A. environmental deterioration. B. accidental damage. C. fatigue. D. All are correct. 370. To ensure structural integrity of aging aircraft manufacturers have issued A. SSIP. B. CPCP. C. SSIP & CPCP. D. fatigue prevention document. 371. The owner/operator shall inform to RAO/subRAO in writing at least 15 days in advance about the commencement of all the inspection schedules A. of 100 hrs and above. B. of over 100 hrs. C. of over 300 hrs. D. All are correct.
372. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's of components upto a maximum of A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). B. 3% or 3 months (whichever is less). C. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). D. None is correct. 373. Regional airworthiness offices may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection schedules and TBO's of components upto a maximum of A. 10% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). B. 3% or 50 hrs (whichever is less). C. 10% or 3 months (whichever is less). D. Both b and c are correct. 374. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years. 375. Damage due to environment in form of corrosion and stress corrosion is A. environmental damage. B. corrosion damage. C. fatigue damage. D. accidental damage.
C. 20 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes. D. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. 381. Design economic life of B 747 is A. 25 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. B. 25 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes. C. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes. D. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes. 382. Design economic life of B707 is A. 50 years, 60,000 hrs, 51,000 flight cydes. B. 50 years, 75,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. C. 50 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. D. 20 years, 20,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. 383. Design economic life of Douglas, F27 & HS-748 are A. 20 years. B. 30 years. C. 40 years. D. 50 years. 384. The control system of which inspections are carried out are A. flying controls. B. engine controls. C. engine controls & flying controls. D. flying, engine and associated controls.
duplicate
385. Duplicate inspection of all control system shall be made A. after rigging. B. before the first flight of all aircraft after assembly and rigging. C. before the first flight after C of A. D. before C of A flight.
376. Aging aircraft are those aircraft which have A. completed their life. B. completed their service life. C. completed their designed service life. D. completed their designed economic life. 377. Multiple site damage are A. five or more dents on one site. B. five or more cracks on one site which link up in to longer crack. C. fatigue crack at number of fasteners which stand to link up into longer crakcs. D. All are correct. 378. At present SSID have been issued for A. B 200C, C 90A, B 737. B. A 35, B 55, C 90a. C. B 737, B 747, HS 748. D. J 3C, PA 12, FA 152.
386. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is at the base is carried out by A. persons approved for the purpose in an approved organisation. B. a flight engineer. C. a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the type of aircraft. D. Both a and c are correct. 387. Duplicate inspection when the aircraft is away from the base in carried out by A. by a flight engineer whose licence is endorsed for the aircraft. B. by any CPL holder. C. by a person specially authorised by the DGCA. D. Both a and b are correct.
379. Design economic life of Airbus is A. 10 years. B. 20 years. C. 30 years. D. 50 years.
388. RAO can authorise a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if A. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 6 months experience of the type of aircraft involved.
380. Design economic life of B 737 is A. 25 years, 51,000 hrs, 75,000 flight cydes. B. 20 years, 60,000 hrs, 60,000 flight cydes. 26
B. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and 3 months maintenance experience on the type of aircraft involved. C. a person has at least 3 years general maintenance experience and one year maintenance experience on the type of aircraft involved. D. All are correct. 389. Series 'F' part XII deals with A. inspection of wooden aircraft. B. duplicate inspection of flying controls. C. duplicate inspection of engine controls. D. Both b and c are correct. 390. Aircraft of composite contruction shall be inspected before issue/renewal or validation of certificate of airworthiness and thereafter in periods not exceeding A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years.
D. CAR series F part XIV. 396. The C of A of gliders is renewed only during test flight A. stall test has been satisfactorily carried out. B. spin test has been satisfactorily carried out. C. loop test has been satisfactorily carried out. D. All are correct. 397. If 'loop test' is not carried out during test flight of a glider then its C of A A. will not be renewed. B. will not be renewed in any case. C. will not be renewed temporarily. D. will be renewed provided the glider is suitably placarded that 'loop manoeuvres are prohibited. 398. Components and spare parts used on gliders A. should be covered by a release note. B. should be covered by a certificate of maintenance. C. should be covered by a rejection note. D. None is correct.
391. Factors causing wood deterioration are A. chemical action of glue due to aging. B. mechanical forces mainly due to timber shrinkage. C. development of fungus. D. All are correct.
399. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders is valid for A. six months. B. three months. C. one month. D. one day.
392. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are especially prove to A. timber shrinkage. B. glue deterioration. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct.
400. 'Certificate of safety' for gliders should be preserved for A. one month. B. three months. C. six months. D. not required to be preserved.
393. Certificate of compliance is a certification to the effect that all the works on A. the aircraft have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA. B. the aircraft component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA. C. the glider component have been performed in accordance with the requirements specified by DGCA. D. Both a and b are correct.
401. Gliders should be weighed A. on a routine basis. B. every three years. C. before issue of C of A. D. None is correct.
394. All gliders shall be equipped with A. variomate. B. RPM indicator. C. VOR. D. ADF. 395. The constructions of gliders shall be maintained and overhauled in accordance with the procedure in A. CAR series I part I. B. CAR series I part II. C. CAR series F part XIII. 27
402. Procedures/work sheets pertaining to gliders which meet with accidents and damages beyond economical repairs shall be preserved A. for one year after the date of accident. B. for five years after the date of accident. C. for ten years after the date of accident. D. for two years after the date of accident. 403. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A, the C of A is issued on form A. CA 23. B. CA 23A. C. CA 56. D. CA 57.
404. Rejection note is a document issued byan approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of rejection of aircraft good/parts A. for which high prices are quoted. B. common to automobile industry. C. ground equipment. D. which fail to meet applicable requirement. 405. Scope of approval of an organisation depends on A. capacity of the firm to undertake the job. B. equipment available and technical literating. C. suitable QCM & Dy. QCM. D. all the above. 406. Only one of the following need not have the approval of maintenance organisation A. private owner of aircraft. B. non-schedule operator. C. shceduled airlines. D. aircraft owned by State Govt. 407. The certificate of flightr release of an aircraft below 15000 kg AUW remains valid provided the pre flight inspection is carried out by A. a pilot as per approved schedule. B. an AME. C. a pilot having AME licence also. D. an approved person as per approved schedule. 408. As per appendix 'A' of CAR series 'F' part IV and aircraft certified in normal category shall not be used for purpose mentioned either in A. special category or aerobatic category. B. special category or passenger sub-division. C. aerobatic category or aerial work sub-division. D. racing aircraft sub-division or goods aircraft subdivision. 409. An aircraft certified in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake A. carriage of mails. B. carriage of goods. C. aerial work. D. None of the above. 410. As per CAR series 'F' part IV the duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls of an aircraft away from base can be carried out by a pilot A. provided his CPL/CHPL is endorsed on the type of aircraft. B. or any AME or flight engineer. C. the answer (a) is correct subject to the condition that person authorised as per para 3.3.1 of the CAR do the second check on arrival of the aircraft at the base. D. any 'B' and /or 'D' licensed engineer. 411. For the purpose of C of A revalidation if the aircraft has been maintained in accordance with 28
continuous cycle of maintenance the aircraft is subject to A. any schedule due and/or a 100 hrs inspection schedule. B. a major schedule next to 100 hrs inspection schedule. C. a normal DI followed by a higher schedule of inspection. D. 500 hrs inspection schedule. 412. An aircraft above 2000 kg is required to be weighed A. every two years. B. every three years. C. every three years unless required to be weighed in accordance with para 4.3 of the CAR series 'X' part II. D. only when it sustains damage requiring extensive repair. 413. The maintenance schedules of an organisation are approved by the A. Chief Aircraft Engineer of the organisation. B. QCM of only Indian Airlines and Air India. C. Controller of Director of Airworthiness of region. D. Both b and c are correct. 414. The lives of the components of an aircraft are approved by A. DGCA. B. QCM. C. CAW of the region. D. CE of an organisation. 415. The C of A an imported aircraft can be revalidated by the DGCA A. if the C of A for export is issued by the country of origin. B. if the aircraft meets the type certificate issued by the country of origin. C. if it meets all requirements and standards laid down by the DGCA. D. All are correct. 416. C of A renewal of aircraft under continuous maintenance system can be effected A. while the aircraft is flying. B. after completion of the minimum of 100 hours inspection schedule. C. provided all mandatory modifications and major defects are not outstanding. D. All are correct. 417. An aircraft can be ferry-flown only when the A. DGCA permits on application. B. pilot in command certifies it as safe. C. QCM of the operator permits. D. None is correct.
418. Weighing requirements in respect of aircraft less than 2000 kg AUW are A. every C of A renewal. B. every three years. C. need not be re-weighed on routine basis. D. every overhaul. 419. An aircraft for agricultural operation is required to be imported in to India the minimum standard of manufacture for issue of Indian C of A shall be A. as laid down in CAA, B CAR section 'K' & 'D'. B. as laid down in FAA FAR parts 23 & 25. C. as laid down by Australian Govt. for agricultural aircraft. D. Both a and b are correct. 420. Certificate of Airworthiness of an aircraft shows that it is valid for 'Normal category' - sub-division private aircraft. This aircraft is used for A. experimental purposes. B. aerial-work. C. aerobatic purposes. D. carriage of executives of his factory without any remuneration. 421. One of the following conditions does result in automatic suspension if C of A A. whenever aircraft develops a defect that effects primary structure. B. whenever an aircraft is involved in forced landing. C. approved inspection schedules are not completed when due. D. whenever 'lifed' components are not remjoved as stipulated in T.B.O.'s. 422. For powered gliders, following instruments are required A. free air temperature gauge. B. free air temperature gauge is not required if cqarburettor heating gauge is there. C. oil temperature gauge. D. Both a and c are correct. 423. Validity of flight release for radio equipment for flying club aircraft is A. 90 days. B. 30 days. C. 50 hrs/30 days. D. 100 hrs/90 days. 424. For purpose of C of A in case the final inspection is carried out after the expiry date of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A would start from the date of A. test flight. B. inspection. C. expiry of C of A. D. None of the correct. 29
425. For the purpose of snag rectification an aircraft can always be taxied from bay to the maintenance hangar by A. an appropriately licensed AME. B. pilot under training may be allowed. C. an individual authorised by the QCM of the firm. D. None of the above is correct. 426. Ground proxiity warning system as per CAR series I part II is mandatory for all turbine engine aeroplane registered in India after 1-7-79 which are A. authorised to carry more than 30 passengers. B. having seating capacity of 100 or more. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None of f the above is correct as it is applicable to all aircraft. 427. An India registered aircraft having C of A as per IAR can fly as A. passenger aircraft can fly as freight aircraft. B. freight aircraft can fly as passenger aircraft provided seats are installed. C. aerial work aircraft can be operated as public transport aircraft. D. None is correct. 428. Mark the correct statement A. flight release should be preserved for six weeks. B. aircraft log book should be preserved for 5 years. C. journey log book should be preserved for 2 years. D. None is correct. 429. For flight over water by public transport aircraft at a distance of more than 100 nautical miles from the shore the equipments required are A. life saving rafts in sufficient number. B. two days food. C. survival radio equipment operated on VHF. D. Both a and c are corret. 430. An aircraft certificated in sub-division of passenger aircraft in normal category can undertake A. carriage of mails. B. carriage of goods. C. aerial work. D. None is correct. 431. Gyro instruments are overhauled at every A. 2 years/1000 hours. B. 1 year/2000 hours. C. 3 years/2000 hours. D. 2 years. 432. Life of automatic pilots (except gyro units) are A. 2 years. B. 2 years/1000 hours. C. 3 years/2000 hours. D. one year. 433. Life of engine instruments are
A. 2 years. B. 2 years/1000 hours. C. 3 years/2000 hours. D. one year.
C. radio apparatus as required. D. All are correct. 442. All aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with a seat/berth for each person over the age of A. two years. B. three years. C. five years. D. All are correct.
434. altimeters are to be overhauled A. every year. B. every alternate year. C. every 2 year. D. 2 years/3000 hours. 435. Free air temperature gauge has to be A. overhauled every year. B. overhauled every 2 years. C. bench-checked every 2 years. D. bench-checked every 3 years.
443. All aircraft issued with a C of A for the first time after A. 1-9-76 shall have safety hareness for aircraft crew. B. 1-10-76 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew. C. 1-12-86 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew. D. 1-1-87 shall have safety harness for aircraft crew.
436. Temperature required for storing of instruments is A. 15 degree centigrade. B. 15 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. C. 5 degree centigrade to 25 degree centigrade. D. below 5 degree centigrade.
444. All aircraft shall be fitted with an ELT meeting requirements as laid down in A. FAA TSO C 91a. B. FAR Part 91. C. B CAR C 91a. D. None of the above.
437. Places storing instruments shall have humidity below A. 60%. B. 70%. C. 75%. D. 80%.
445. ELT of aircraft flying over land should be activated due to impact of more than A. 3 g. B. 4 g. C. 5 g. D. 8 g.
438. The shlelf life of instruments other than gyro instruments shall not exceed A. one year. B. two years. C. four years. D. six years.
446. The requirement of ELT for training aircraft is/will be effected from A. 30th April 1992. B. 31st July 1992. C. 31st December 1992. D. 31st December 1993.
439. The shelf life of gyro instruments must not exceed A. one year. B. one year and at the end of six months bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations. C. two years. D. two years and at the end of one year bearing lubricated as per maker's recommendations.
447. The ELT must be installed on the aircraft A. as far as possible. B. in the Radome section. C. as aft as possible. D. in the centre of the aircraft.
440. Instruments installed on aircraft has not been operated for a continuous period of six months A. The aircraft shall be subject to test flight before use. B. shall be subject to bench check before use. C. shall be subject to overhaul before use. D. All are correct. 441. Aircraft rule 57 requires that every aircraft shall be fitted and equipped with A. instruments as required. B. equipments as required. 30
448. Aeroplane on flight over water shall be provided with one approved life jacket for each person on board A. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles. B. when flown beyond 35 nautical miles away from the land. C. when the take off approach path is so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there would be a possibility of ditching. D. All are correct. 449. Two sets of portable, water resistant, selfsurvival radio equpment operated on VHF shall be carried on board on long range over water flights by all A. aircraft.
B. private aircraft only. C. public transport aircraft only. D. non-schedule operators.
A. 100 persons. B. 30 persons. C. 10 persons. D. 5 persons.
450. CHT gauge is mandatory on each A. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. B. air-cooled engine having rated BHP above 300. C. water cooled engine having rated BHP above 250. D. Both a and c are correct. 451. Aircraft certificated for night flying shall have navigation light as A. red light on the right tip side and green light on left tip side and red light near the tail. B. red light on the left tip side and green light on right tip side and red light near the tail. C. red light on the left tip side and green light on the right tip side and white light near the tail. D. All are correct. 452. Electrical power failure indicator is mandatory for A. all aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. B. aircraft having AUW of 5700 kg and above. C. all aircraft above 15000 kg AUW. D. all aircraft, irrespective of weights. 453. All turbine engined aeroplane of 5700 kg or more shall be provided with VOR and DME when flying at or above A. FL 180. B. FL 200. C. FL 220. D. FL 240. 454. All jet aircraft imported in to the country for public transport shall be equpped with digital flight data recorder (DFDR) capable of recording minimum of A. 7 parameter continously for 25 hours. B. 15 parameter continously for 25 hours. C. 25 parameter continously for 25 hours. D. 33 parameter continously for 25 hours. 455. Black box contains A. CVR, FDR/DFDR. B. CVR, DFDR, ELT, DME/VOR. C. CVR, DFDR, VOR/ILS. D. CVR, FDR, ELT, VOR/ILS.
458. Unpressurised aeroplanes shall not be operated at altitude at which the atmosphere pressure in flight crew/passenger compartments will be less than A. 700 metres. B. 600 metres. C. 375 metres. D. All are correct. 459. Whenever a pressurised aeroplane flies at analtitude of 10000 to 13000 feet it shall carry sufficient stored breathing oxygen for A. all crew members and passengers. B. pilot and co-pilot only. C. all crew members and 30% passengers. D. all crew members and 10% passengers. 460. All pressurised aeroplanes are equpped with a device to provide positive warning to the pilot of any dangerous loss of pressurisation when they fly at an altitude of A. 4000 metres. B. 7600 metres. C. 10000 metres. D. 13000 metres. 461. CAR series I part III deals with A. aircraft equipment. B. aircraft instruments. C. maintenance of test equipment. D. All are correct. 462. During a planned cloud flying glider can carry on board A. pilot and co-pilot. B. one passenger. C. two passengers. D. pilot and one passenger. 463. Glider certificated for cloud flying shall be equipped with A. first aid kit. B. artificial horizon. C. turn and bank indicator. D. All are correct.
456. An anti-collision light, intended to attract attention to the aircraft is mandatory for all aircraft A. having AUW of 3000 kg and above. B. having AUW of 5700 kg and above. C. having AUW of 15000 kg and above. D. All are correct. 457. For flight on which licensed navigator is required according to rules drift indicator is mandatory for machines with a seating capacity of more than 31
464. All helicopters shall be equipped with A. RPM indicator for main rotor. B. RPM indicator for tail rotor. C. floats when operated over water beyond auto rotative/gliding distance from land. D. Both a and c are correct. 465. When an unpressurised aeroplane flies at an altitude in such an atmospheric pressure is less than
620 mb in its compartment it shall carry sufficiently stored breathing oxygen for A. all crew members. B. for all crew and passengers. C. for all crew and 10% passengers. D. for all crew and 30% passengers.
B. as in (a), also to go to another place if it cannot land at destination. C. as in (b) additionally the helicopter to fly for 45 minutes at straight and normal flight with cruise speed. D. None of above.
466. Batteries used in the ELT must be replaced A. when the transmitter has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hours. B. when 50% of their useful life has expired. C. when 50% of their useful life of charge (for rechargeble batteries) has expired. D. All are correct.
473. Transistorised or IC equipped radio comm has to be certified in case of non-scheduled aerial work aircraft A. 200 hours/180 days. B. 50 hours/30 days. C. 25 hours/15 days. D. 100 hours/90 days.
467. The requirement of ELT operating on 406.0 MHZ is/will be mandatory from A. 30th April 1992. B. 31st December 1992. C. 31st December 1993. D. None is correct.
474. During refueling of aircraft A. aircraft radio electrical and radar swtiches may remain 'on'. B. steady parking light and such switches may be operated. C. no special precaution is necessary for ground power supply. D. the ground power unit tractor and siilar equipment shall be located outside the defined 'danger zone'.
468. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate ratings for replacement of those accessible in flight are carried on board. Their numbers should be at least A. 1 of each rating. B. 2 of each rating. C. 3 of each rating. D. 4 of each rating. 469. The radio equipment installed on India registered aircraft shall be operated with A. consent of DGCA. B. a license issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1895 and amended from time to time. C. a licence issued under the Indian Telegraph Act of 1885 and amended from time to time. D. None is correct. 470. Ammeters and voltmeters are A. overhauled every two years. B. bench checked every year. C. bench checked every two years. D. None is correct. 471. The pilot friction of compass shall be determined by deflecting the compass needle 10 degrees and allowing it to return to the magnetic Meridian. The change in indication from the original heading shall not exceed A. one degree. B. two degrees. C. three degrees. D. five degrees. 472. Helicopter flying under IFR condition should carry the following amount of fuel A. amount to reach the destination. 32
475. Other conditions remaining unchanged during refuelling of the aircraft A. passengers embarking/disembarking are not permitted under any condition. B. smoking is not permitted within 30 metres from aircraft or fuelling equipment. C. a little spilage if, can be washed into the drain. D. All the above statements are correct. 476. According to IAR check correct statement A. helicopter is aeroplane. B. balloon is an aircraft. C. kite is a flying machine. D. All are wrong. 477. For certification of ignition apparatus of light aircraft the AME should have his licence in A. Category 'A'. B. Category 'B'. C. Category 'C'. D. Category 'X'. 478. The Indian Aircraft Rule 61 9revised) became effective from A. 1st Jan 1991. B. 31st Jan 1991. C. 1st April 1991. D. 1st April 1992. 479. Application for appearing in the AME licence examination is submitted on from A. CA 9. B. CA 9 (Revised). C. CA 9 (annex I).
D. CA 9 (Appendix A). 480. The written paper of AME licence examination comprised A. general papers, basic papers. B. general papers, basic papers & specific papers. C. basic papers and specific papers. D. general paperss and specific papers. 481. The basic paper consists of A. Paper I, II. B. Paper I, II, III. C. Paper III. D. Paper II, III. 482. The pass percentage in AME examination is A. 80%. B. 70%. C. 80% in quiz type and 70% in essay type. D. 70% in quiz type and 60% in essay type.
licence
A. of two months' duration. B. of three months' duration for heavy aircraft. C. of one month duration for heavy aircraft. D. of one month duration for light aircraft. 488. AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C' is issued in combined form whose A. AUW is below 5700 kg. B. AUW is below 3000 kg. C. AUW is below 2000 kg. D. None is correct. 489. A combined specific paper for airframe and engine is undertaken for helicopter whose A. AUW is below 15000 kg. B. AUW is below 5700 kg. C. AUW is below 3000 kg. D. AUW is below 2000 kg. 490. A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify A. all parts of airframe for assembly and condition. B. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor. C. main gear boxes. D. All are correct.
483. The pass percentage of specific paper is A. 80%. B. 70%. C. 60%. D. None of the above. 484. Defence personnel appearing in AME licence exam are exempted from appearing in A. paper I, II, III. B. paper II, III. C. multiple chioce question of Paper I, II, III. D. multiple choice question of paper II, III. 485. Those applicants who are not engaged in any organisation but meet all the requirements for appearing in the AME licence exam A. can't appear in the AME licence exam. B. can't appear in the AME licence exam after obtaining permission from the RAO. C. can appear in the AME licence exam after getting his form forwarded by the QCM of the organisatioin he last worked. D. may directly send their application to Director of Airworthiness (CEO) New Delhi.
491. An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter can certify A. balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor. B. main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes. C. engine mounts and cowls for condition & security of attachment. D. All are correct. 492. Certification of electrical system for condition, proper functioning and rectification of minor defects of helicopter fall under purview of AME licensed in A. category 'A'. B. category 'B'. C. category 'E'. D. category 'X'. 493. Endorsement of AME licence is contained in A. CAR series L Part I. B. CAR series L Part II. C. CAR series L Part III. D. CAR series L Part IV.
486. The candidates who have passed all the written papers and are due to appear in oral-cum-practical test for issue or extension of AME licence will be intimated and CEO will issue for their oral form A. CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organisation. B. CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region. C. CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region. D. CA 73 to the candidate.
494. A candidate applying for endorsement in category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in general paper III if he A. has vast experience. B. has open rating in category 'D'. C. has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'. D. has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of aircraft for which endorsement is required.
487. DGCA will recognize the approved course of a foreign country provided it has been approved by that country and is
495. According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part IV group V contains
33
A. pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW. B. pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW. C. piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg AUW. D. Both a and b are correct. 496. In accordance with CAR series L Part IV all turbine engine helicopter not exceeding 3000 kg AUW comes under A. group IV. B. group V. C. group VI. D. group VII. 497. Turbojet/Turbofan engines in accordance with CAR series L part IV appendix 'B' are in A. group IV. B. group V. C. group VI. D. group VII. 498. Avionics system includes instruments, electrical and radio systems of A. Boeing 737. B. Boeing 747. C. Airbus A 300. D. Airbus A 320. 499. The privileges of AME licence shall be exercised only in respect of such operation A. and aircraft as are entered on his licence. B. and airframes, powerplants, aircraft systems including electrical instruments and radio systems and component as are entered on his licence. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct. 500. An AME can exercise his privileges only A. when within the preceding 24 months exercised the appropriate privileges of AME less than 12 months. B. when within the preceding 24 months exercised the appropriate privileges of AME less than six months. C. when within the preceding 12 months exercised the appropriate privileges of AME less than 3 months. D. when within the preceding 24 months exercised the appropriate privileges of AME less than 3 months.
he has for not he has for not he has for not he has for not
501. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for A. certification of major modification. B. certification of major repair. C. certification of minor repair. 34
D. certification components.
of
replacement
of
approved
502. A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for A. certification of major modification. B. certification of major repair. C. certification of replacement of approved components. D. All are correct. 503. The holder of category 'A' licence for light aircraft is entitled to issue A. certificate of maintenance for instruments. B. certificate of maintenance for electrical systems. C. certificate of maintenance for autopilots. D. All are correct. 504. The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue A. certificate of maintenance for airframe. B. certificate of maintenance for engine controls. C. certificate of maintenance for engine fuel, oil & coolant system. D. All are correct. 505. An AME licenced in category 'C' undertake A. dismantling of main casing of a turbine engine. B. dismantling of main rotating assembles of a turbine engine. C. dismantling of piston engines, other than piston/cylinder assemblies. D. None is correct. 506. Certification of DR compass will be done by person holding licence in A. cat 'X' for compass. B. cat A with a note valid for DR compass. C. cat D with a note valid for DR compass. D. Both b and c are correct. 507. A person will be deemed to be engaged in aircraft maintenance if A. he has undergone an approved refresher course run by approved training schools. B. he is employed in production division of aircraft manufacturer. C. he is employed as an AME in an airline. D. All are correct. 508. If an AME has certificated the work on appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by A. any other AME. B. Chief Engineer. C. Quality Control Manager. D. All are correct. 509. Grant of open AME licences is contained in A. CAR series L PART VII.
B. CAR series L part VI. C. CAR series L part V. D. CAR series L part IV.
B. held an AME 'R' licence for five years continuously. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct.
510. Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover A. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg. B. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg. C. twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg. D. single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg. 511. 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston engines not exceeding A. 500 BHP. B. 400 BHP. C. 300 BHP. D. 250 BHP. 512. 'Open' rating in cat 'R' and 'X' is given for aircrafts A. with AUW below 15000 kg. B. with AUW below 5700 kg. C. with AUW below 3000 kg. D. 'open' rating in cat 'X' is not given. 513. For obtaining an open rating on single engine aircraft of all metal contruction with AUW below 3000 kg an AME should A. have held an AME licence for 5 years continuously. B. have at least 5 types of aeroplanes endorsed on his licence. C. as in 'b' the weight of 3 aeroplanes should not exceed 3000 kg. D. All are correct. 514. For 'open rating endorsement' on all single engined aircraft of composite construction with an AUW not exceedign 3000 kg the applicant should have A. held an AME licence in cat A/B for five years continuously. B. alleast three types of aeroplanes of composite construction of which at least two should be single engined aircraft with AUW not exceeding 3000 kg. C. as in 'b' and licenced endorsed in cat A/B as applicable. D. All are correct. 515. An applicant desirous of having an open rating in category 'R" for aircraft below 5.700 kg AUW must have A. held an AME 'R' licence for three years continuously. 35
516. A composite construction of an aeroplane means A. its skin covering is of one material. B. its skin covering is of two different materials. C. its skin covering is of two or more different materials. D. its skin covering (including flight control surface) is of two or more different materials. 517. An organisation seeking approval for cadmium plating will submit to DGCA A. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg. B. three specimens of 8"x2"x16swg. C. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar. D. all of the above. 518. An organisation seeking approval for any electroplating will submit to DGCA A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar. B. three specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg. C. twelve specimens of 3"x3/4"x16 swg. D. None of the above. 519. A firm seeking approval for hand chromium plating has to submt A. three specimens of 6"x1/2" round bar. B. three specimens of 12"x1/2" round bar. C. three specimens of 12"x1" round bar. D. three specimens of 6"x1" round bar. 520. A certificate issued in respect of a complete aircraft by appropriately licensed AME/AME's approved or authorised persons certifying that the aircraft has been inspected as per approved schedule and is airworthy in all respects and is safe for flight for a period specified in the certificate, is called A. certificate of flight release. B. certificate of flight approval. C. release note. D. certificate of maintenance. 521. An organisation undertaking calibration of instruments of master gauges and tools as applied to the activities of CAD is approved in A. catory 'A'. B. catory 'D'. C. catory 'F'. D. catory 'E'. 522. An organisation approved in category 'D' after completion of work issues a A. certificate of maintenance. B. certificate of manufacture. C. test report. D. rest flight report.
523. Certificate of manufacture contains A. signature of AME. B. firms approval number. C. a and b are correct. D. none of the above is correct.
531. Check-list is carried A. in safe place in aircraft. B. in laminated form and is readily accessible to the flight crew in flight. C. need not be carried on board it forms a part of flight manual. D. both (b) & (c) are correct.
524. A firm approved in category 'E' can carry out A. distribution of aviation fuel. B. blending of aviation fuel. C. distribution of paints. D. Both a and b are correct. 525. The number allotted to a petroleum product which is considered as one lot for sampling and listing is called A. serial number. B. batch number. C. part number. D. identification number. 526. Aviation fuel consigned for storage prior to loading into organisation fueling equipment shall be certified on A. approved release note quoting batch no. B. test report number and specification. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None of them is correct. 527. The Indian Oil refueling station shall issue voucher to the customer with each consignment of aviation fuel A. to certify the quality of the product. B. to certify the quantity of the product. C. to certify the contents of the product. D. None of the above. 528. Refueling voucher shall be A. serially numbered with the batch number specification details and quantity to be delivered. B. shall be prepared in triplicate. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None of them is correct. 529. Stores where materials bearing evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked called A. current store. B. quarantine store. C. airworthy store. D. bonded store. 530. Stores where airworthy and serviceable materials, awaiting evidence of having been received from approved sources are stocked is called A. stand-by store. B. quarantine store. C. airworthiness store. D. bonded store. 36
532. Alteration to check-list on the basis of operator's own experience must be carried only after obtaining the concurrence of A. DGCA. B. RAO. C. Manufacturer. D. FAA. 533. Alteration to the Check-list may also by made by A. RAO. B. DGCA. C. manufacturer. D. Both (b) & (c) are correct. 534. CAR Series B part I pertains to A. cockpit & emergency check-lists. B. emergency check-list. C. deficiency list (MEL). D. None of the above. 535. CAR Series B part II pertains to A. cockpit & emergency check-lists. B. emergency check-list. C. deficiency list (MEL). D. None of the above. 536. Any part, the soundness and correct functioning of which when fitted on an aircraft is essential to the continues airworthiness or safety of the aircraft or its occupants is termed as A. aircraft system. B. aircraft component. C. aircraft item. D. All the above. 537. A condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising out of any cause other than damage which would preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function that would reduce the expected service life of the aircraft or aircraft component is termed as A. snag. B. P D R. C. defect. D. minor defect. 538. Defect means A. a condition existing in an aircraft or aircraft component arising from any cause other than damage.
B. a condition which preclude it or another aircraft component from performing their intended function. C. a condition which would reduce the expectable service life of the aircraft or aircraft component. D. All the above are correct. 539. Maintenance means any type of A. overhaul, repair, adjustment, testing. B. inspection, testing, adjustment, repair. C. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, treatment, repair, replacement or modification. D. overhaul, inspection, adjustment, testing, treatment, repair, replacement, reconditioning or modification. 540. A defect of such a nature that reduces the safety of the aircraft or its occupants and includes defects discovered as a result of the occurrence of any emergency or in the course of normal operation or maintenance is called A. repetitive defect. B. minor defect. C. major defect. D. defect. 541. Repetitive defect means A. a defect in an aircraft which recurs in spite of rectification. B. continuous defect. C. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft. D. a defect in an aircraft which recurs, in spite of rectification attempt on the same aircraft or on another aircraft of the same type. 542. An aircraft operator who operates its fleet whole or part of it as per published schedule is known as a A. normal operator. B. private operator. C. schedule operator. D. non-schedule operator. 543. All major detects shall be reported to concerned RAO (AID) A. within 24 hours. B. in writing. C. in writing or on telephone followed by written information. D. All are correct. 544. All particulars of the initial information format of defect report shall be submitted by the operator to the RAO A. within one month. B. within four months. C. within 7 days. D. within 15 days.
37
545. Initial information format of major defect contains A. aircraft type & registration, date and place of occurrence, nature of defect. B. modification action taken, defect report as made by the pilot/AME. C. no information. D. Both a & b are correct. 546. Investigation of major defect shall be completed A. within one month. B. within six months. C. within four months. D. within two months. 547. Which of the following forms a part of final investigation report? A. Apparent on actual cause of defect. B. Action taken by the operator against manufacturer. C. Duration of defect. D. Aircraft type & registration. 548. Mechanical delay is any delay of A. 15 minutes or more. B. 30 inutes or more. C. 15 minutes or more to schedule services. D. 30 minutes or more to schedule services. 549. Any mechanical delay has to be reported to the RAO within A. 24 hours. B. 7 days. C. 24 hours of receipt of information by the main base station. D. None of the above. 550. The final defect investigation report has to be sent A. in duplicate to DGCA. B. in duplicate to RAO. C. in triplicate to RAO. D. in triplicate to DGCA. 551. Records associated with the defect shall be preserved for a period of A. two weeks. B. six weeks. C. one year. D. ten years. 552. Component associated with major defect shall be preserved for a period of A. one week from the date of intimation of defect. B. two weeks from the date of intimation of defect. C. three weeks from the date of intimation of defect. D. need not be preserved.
553. Failure of a component or a system that results in taking emergency action in flight is a A. defect. B. major defect. C. repetitive defect. D. minor defet. 554. Which one of the following is known as major defect A. significant contamination of fuel. B. fuel starvation in flight. C. none of the above. D. Both a & b are correct. 555. Defect leading to critical malfunctioning of any system or depriving the pilot some of the critical aspect of its controls is A. minor defect. B. major defect. C. repetitive defect. D. snag. 556. Recording of in-flight instrument readings and reporting of flight defect is contained in CAR A. series A part II. B. series C part I. C. series C part II. D. series D part II. 557. Recording of all parameters readings, as indicated by the respective instruments under appropriate columns of the approved flight report including the A.V.M. readings is the responsibility of A. AME. B. QCM. C. Flight crew. D. Chief Engineer. 558. In-flight instruments reading should be recorded A. at least once in each sector of flight. B. at least once in each sector of flight under stabilized cruise condition. C. in the event of emergency condition of flight. D. both b & c are correct. 559. If there is no defect reported by the crew in a previous day's flight A. AME will release the aircraft for next day's flight. B. AME will not release the aircraft for next day flight. C. AME will consult the QCM and release the aircraft for next day's flight. D. AME will release the aircraft if a 'NIL' entry has been made in the PDR by the pilot duly signed. 560. Defects observed at a place away from the normal base are recorded in A. JLB. B. airframe log book, section III. 38
C. JLB, (col XI). D. defect register. 561. Series C Part-IV refers to A. reporting of defects observed on all aircraft. B. recording of in-flight instrument readings. C. analytical study of in-flight instrument readings. D. All the above. 562. If deterioration is observed in aircraft's performance in respect of engine A. RAO may require accomplishment of such curative measures as considered necessary. B. may even require replacement of the deteriorated engine. C. RAO may requrie the carrying out of test flight to determine the increase in drag. D. Both a & b are correct. 563. The main purpose of investigation of defects A. is to avoid recurrence of defects. B. to find the person who has caused the defects. C. as in (a) and to find the cause of defects. D. None of the above. 564. If it is determined that defect was caused by the careless and casual attitude or negligence of technical staff A. DGCA will take action as per the aircraft Act and aircraft rules against the staff. B. operator will take departmental penal action as per the rules against the staff. C. DGCA action does not stop an operator from taking penal action against its staff. D. All of the above are correct. 565. All major defects shall be reported to RAO A. in writing within 12 hours. B. telephonically only. C. in writing (or telephone followed by a letter) within 24 hours (working hours of AID). D. in writing when full information is available. 566. After initial reporting of major defects to the regional airworthiness office, the remaining detailed information must be furnished within A. 7 days in an approved defect report form. B. 4 months, after awaiting investigation report. C. as in (a) followed by a defect investigation report within 4 months of the occurrence of the defect. D. a period stated in the quality control manual. 567. After the completion of 1st flight the pilot has not observed any defect… A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry been signed and dated by crew. B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engg. Maintenance. C. the AME can write 'NIL' on behalf of pilot.
D. the 'NIL' report need not be signed.
D. training school.
568. Approved release note contains A. series no. of engine if component is for engine. B. serial no. of aircraft if component is for airframe. C. DGCA approval no. and date. D. signature of the chief engineer of the firm.
576. After completion of test flight pilot has not observed any defect A. the flight release shall be issued after 'NIL' entry has been signed and dated by crew. B. the flight release can be issued after carrying out engineering maintenance. C. the AME can write NIL on behalf of pilot. D. the NIL report need not be signed.
569. For making changes in maintenance control by reliability programme you need the due approval of A. owner of aircraft. B. operator of aircraft. C. airworthiness authorities. D. C.E.M./QCM. 570. Air & Fuel consumption in cause of light aircraft should be A. recorded in engine log look after 25 hours. B. recorded in engine and aircraft log books. C. recorded after post overhaul of the engine. D. None of the above. 571. FDR contains A. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading, vertical acceleration against a time scale. B. time, altitude, airspeed & magnetic heading. C. vertical acceleration, altitude and airspeed against time scale. D. altitude, airspeed, magnetic heading against time scale. 572. To get an organisation approved under approval system the organisation has to A. fill CA-182 form. B. fill one form and offer for inspection to RAO. C. submit the form to DGCA headquarter for inspection and approval. D. Both b & c are correct.
577. Amendment of quality control-cum-maintenance system manual in accordance with latest issues of CAR are the responsibility of A. CEM/QCM. B. airworthiness authorities. C. owner of the aircraft. D. operator of the aircraft. 578. Any commercial watchmaker/watch repairing agencies are permitted to overhaul/repair the clock/watches installed on aircraft having AUW below A. 15000 Kgs. B. no aircraft is permitted to have the watch repaired from commercial watch maker. C. 2000 kgs. D. 3000 kgs. 579. As per CAR series E part I storing & distribution of previously certified aircraft/part, by a firm is approved in A. category 'C'. B. category 'D'. C. category 'A'. D. category 'F'.
573. Entry in log book can be signed A. by appropriately licensed AME. B. by a technician. C. by key persons of organisation. D. by an AME having vast experience.
580. Rejection note is a document issued by an approved organisation for the purpose of advising details of rejection of aircraft goods/parts A. for which high prices quoted. B. common to automobile industry. C. ground eqiupment. D. which fails to meet applicable requirement.
574. Petroleum in bulk means A. petroleum contained in any receptacle of 900 litres. B. petroleum contained in receptacle exceeding 900 litres. C. petroleum contained in receptable but less than 900 litres in capacity. D. None is correct.
581. When an approved flight manual is carried on board the aircraft to form a part of the C of A is issued on form A. CA 23. B. CA 23A. C. CA 56. D. CA 57.
575. Approval under category 'E' according to CAR series E refers to A. fuel oil and lubricants storage & distribution. B. testing laboratories. C. manufacture of aircraft, aircraft component and item of equipment.
582. Certification of maintenance release of aircraft component after major maintenance for aircraft AUW of 15000 kg and above can be done by A. any authorised person with appropriate BAMEC and 3 years experience in the specific shop.
39
B. any person having appropriate BAMEC with requisite experience in specific training and QCM approval. C. the key person of the concerned shop. D. Any one of above as the circumstances demand. 583. The DGCA can validate the type certificate of an imported component provided A. it belongs to an aircraft issued with C of A by the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer. B. it meets DGCA's standard. C. it is approved by CAA/FAA only. D. Both A and b and correct.
590. Whenever an approved school introduces a new course or modifies the existing course DGCA should be informed at least A. two weeks in advance. B. two months in advance. C. one month in advance. D. not required to be informed. 591. Quality control check of the products is carried out by A. representative of DGCA. B. CEM. C. QCM/Dy QCm. D. Both b and c are correct.
584. S.S.I.D identifies fatigue proof areas to specify A. appication of specific NDT. B. frequency of SSI. C. the damage tolerance retaining. D. all of the above.
592. Regional airworthiness office receive the A. 1st copy of release note. B. 1st copy of rejection note. C. 3rd copy of rejection note. D. Both a and b are correct.
585. An AME school shall submit to the DGCA for approval of A. a training manual. B. a school organisation manual. C. quality control manual. D. Both a and b are correct.
593. CAR series 'F' part I refers to A. procedures relating to registration of aircraft. B. procedures relating to registration of microlight aircraft. C. procedures relating to registration of balloon. D. All are correct.
586. The chief instructor or his deputy shall keep the records of A. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses. B. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of more than two months duration. C. progress records in respect of all students attending ab-initio courses of any duration. D. Both a and b are correct.
594. IAR 30 empowers the Govt. of India A. to register an aircraft in India. B. to import an aircraft in India. C. to fly aircraft in India. D. to maintain an aircraft in India.
587. Examination papers of an approved training school shall be preserved for a period of A. three months from the date of examination. B. six months from the date of examination. C. nine months from the date of examination. D. twelve months from the date of examination. 588. For any change in course material prior permission of A. DGCA is must. B. RAO is must. C. Controller/director of that region is must. D. Both b and c are correct. 589. Instructors who are employed full time on instructional duties relating to specific types of aircraft/engine/equipment shall have job experience of A. not less than 100 hrs in a year (2 months). B. not less than 200 hrs in a year (4 months). C. not less than 500 hrs in a year (6 months). D. not less than 1000 hrs in a year (1 year). 40
595. Rule 5 of the aircraft rules requires than no person shall fly any aircraft unless A. it has been registered. B. it bears nationality & registration. C. it bears name & address of the owner. D. All are correct. 596. The nationality and registration mark should be affixed on the aircraft in accordance with aircraft rule A. 37. B. 30. C. 35. D. 33. 597. Registration of the aircraft by the DGCA A. is for the purpose of controlling the safety of aviation in India. B. is for establishing the legal ownership of an aircraft. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct. 598. An aircraft in India is registered in A. Three categories. B. Two categories.
C. One category only. D. Four cateries. 599. Aircraft registered in category 'B' is A. owned by a citizen of India. B. by a company or corporation registered. C. by a company whose chairman and at least two thirds of directors are citizens of India. D. None of them is correct. 600. An aircraft registered in category 'B' is owned by A. a person residing/resident in or carrying on business in India without citizenship. B. a person resident/residing in or carrying on business in India without citizenship. C. citizen of India. D. a foreign national. 601. Application for registration of aircraft is given in A. CA 23. B. CA 23A. C. CA 28. D. CA 28 (appendix A). 602. Certificate of registration is valid for A. one year. B. six months. C. two years. D. None of the above.
606. For issue of a duplicate certificate of registration the owner has to apply to A. RAO. B. DGCA. C. DAI. D. All of the above. 607. When C of R of Indian registered aircraft is lost, for issuance of a duplicate C or R the owner has apply along with A. mutilated C of A. B. photostat copy of C or R. C. original C of A. D. the prescribed fees. 608. A register of all civil aircraft registered in India is maintained at A. Ministry of Civil Aviation. B. DGCA. C. HAL. D. All of them are correct. 609. The nationality mark of all Indian registered aircraft are A. E.I. B. I.O. C. A.V.U. D. V.T.
603. When an aircraft is solid to another person or company or ceases to be owned by the owner indicated on its certificate of registration its registration is deemed to have been cancelled in accordance with A. rule 30. B. rule 28. C. rule 28 (appendix A). D. rule 33. 604. When a person buys an old aircraft already registered in India then the certificate of registration must be accompanied by A. the previous certificate of registration duly endorsed on the reverse by the old owner. B. an affidavit duly authenticated by notary public/oath commissioner from the owner confirming his ownership. C. an affidavit indicating that he has sold the aircraft to the new owner and has received the sale proceeds in the full. D. All are correct. 605. Temporary certificate of registration is valid A. for one month. B. for one week. C. until the first landing at a custom aerodrome in India. D. until the validity of the C of A. 41
610. The size and method of affixing the registration marking is given in A. CAR series F part II. B. CAR series F part III. C. car SERIES X part I. D. None of the above. 611. Procedure for issue/revalidation of type certificate of aircraft and its Engines/propeller is contained in A. CAR series E part II. B. CAR series E part III. C. CAR series F part II. D. CAR series F part III. 612. Aircraft rule 49 empowers A. the DGCA to revalidate C of A. B. the DGCA to issue C of A. C. the DGCA to issue type certificate for aircraft. D. All are correct. 613. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of aircraft rules A. 49A. B. 49B. C. 49C. D. 49.
614. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate for aircraft is to be submitted in the form as in A. IAR 49. B. IAR 49 c Annexure II. C. CAR series F part II annexure U. D. CAR series F part II Annexure II. 615. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor craft is submitted in the form as per the A. CAR series F part I annexure I. B. CAR series F part I annexure II. C. CAR series F part II annexure II. D. CAR series F part II annexure I. 616. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA confirms that the aircraft meets with the requirements of A. FAR 23 & 25. B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. C. FAR 27 & 29. D. Both a and b are correct. 617. Type certificate of a rotor craft imported in India can be revalidated by the DGCA if its design and construction confirms with the A. FAR 23 & 25. B. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. C. FAR 27 & 29. D. BCAR 27 & 29. 618. An aero engine manufactured outside India can be type certificated by the DGCA if it confirms to A. FAR 33. B. JAR 33. C. FAR 30. D. Both a and c are correct. 619. DGCA revalidates the type certificate in respect of engine/propeller under the purview of A. Aircraft rule 49. B. Aircraft rule 49A. C. Aircraft rule 49B. D. Aircraft rule 49C. 620. For revalidation of type certificate of the aircraft imported to India which of the following document is not required A. type-certificate. B. type-design datasheet. C. the basis on ETOPS certification if applicable. D. Quality Control & Maintenance system manual. 621. Before revalidation of type certificate DGCA may visit the country of manufacturer A. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the representative of the manufacturer.
42
B. to discuss specific design/manufacturing issues with the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer. C. Both a and b are correct. D. Both a and b are not correct. 622. DGCA has to revalidate the type certificate of imported aircraft A. just as it is. B. it can modify it. C. it can impose special condition for safe operation of aircraft in India. D. it cannot modify it. 623. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to DGCA A. test flight report of the aircraft. B. test flight schedule of scrutiny and approval. C. test schedule of scrutiny and approval. D. None of the above is correct. 624. The certification of aircraft/aircraft component manufactured in India shall be done by approved authorised person as per A. aircraft rule 53. B. aircraft rule 53A. C. aircraft rule 53B. D. aircraft rule 53C. 625. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of the aircraft shall be preserved for a period of A. 1 year. B. 2 years. C. 5 years. D. 10 years. 626. The test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out as in accordance with A. form CA 57. B. form CA 56. C. approved manufacturer test flight schedule. D. test flight schedule approved by the DGCA. 627. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft/aircraft component A. approval of DGCA is must. B. written approval of manufacturer is must. C. approval of QCM/CEM is must. D. All are correct. 628. A major modification is one A. which has no appreciable effect on the weight and balance. B. which has no appreciable effect on the structural strength. C. which has appreciable effect on the reliability and operational characteristic affecting the airworthiness of the aircraft/aircraft component.
D. None of them is correct. 629. A minor modification is one A. which has appreciable effect on the weight and balance. B. which has appreciable effect on the structural strength. C. which has appreciable effect on the flight characteristic of aircraft/aircraft component. D. None of them is correct. 630. Designs submitted for type approval shall bear A. description title & drawing number. B. description title and date of issue. C. description title, issue number and date of issue. D. Both a and c are correct. 631. A person holding open rating endorsement on his AME licence can exercise his privileges A. straight way on a new aircraft. B. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of six months. C. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of three months. D. after familiarising himself with the new aircraft for a minimum period of one month. 632. For renewal of AME licence the applicant has to apply on form A. CA 29. B. CA 29 (revised). C. CA 68 B. D. CA 68 A. 633. AME's licence will be renewed only if in the preceding 24 months he has been engaged in aeronautical engineering duties for a period of A. 24 months. B. 18 months. C. 12 months. D. 6 months. 634. Which of the following AME's will be considered to be employed in AME activity and will be considered for renewal of their licences A. refuelling operation of approved aircraft fuel vendors. B. as a member of flying crew. C. approved organisation stocking aircraft components. D. All of the above. 635. An AME to keep his licence valid will have to submit a medical certificate A. every 6 months. B. every 12 months. C. every 24 months. D. it depends on the age of AME. 43
636. When an AME licence has remained lapsed for a period of more than one year but less than two years, his licence can be renewed after A. an oral check by the RAO. B. AME has appeared in the specific paper I.e. paper IV. C. a warning to the AME. D. All are correct. 637. AME's shall submit their licence for renewal at least A. 7 days before expiring. B. 15 days before expiring. C. 30 days before expiring. D. None is correct. 638. If an AME submits his licence between 15 days to 30 days after expiry A. it will be renewed with a warning to AME. B. it will be renewed from the date of receipt. C. it will be renewed from the date of last validity. D. None is correct. 639. The licence of Indian AME's working aboard will be renewed A. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working. B. by the airworthiness authority of the country where they are working in consultation with the DGCA hqrs. C. by any authority acceptable to ICAO. D. by the DGCA Hqrs. 640. BAMEC is issued when a candidate passes A. Paper I, II of AME licence exam. B. Paper I, II, III of AME licence exam. C. Paper I, II, III, IV of AME licence exam. D. All are correct. 641. BAMEC is issued under the provision of A. CAR series L part VIII. B. CAR series L part VII. C. CAR series L part VI. D. CAR series L part V. 642. BAMEC is issued in A. four categories. B. five categories. C. six categories. D. seven categories. 643. The candidate for issuance of BAMEC must be of A. 17 years. B. 18 years. C. 20 years. D. 21 years.
644. Application for grant of Authorisation to an AME/approved person is forwarded to A. QCM. B. RAO/Sub-RAO. C. DGCA. D. Chief Engineer. 645. An AME proposed for authorisation should be A. holder of current AME licence in relevant category. B. employed with the organisation on a full-time basis. C. having at least 3 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft /engine /equipment etc. D. All are correct. 646. If authorisation is wanted for an aircraft having all AUW exceeding 5700 kg then the AME must A. possess licence in category B. B. possess at least 6 months practical experience on similar type of aircraft. C. pass a familiatisation course on the aircraft with at least 70% marks in the examination. D. All are correct. 647. Authorisation will not be issued to a person A. failing in the examination for issue of licence in which the subject of authorisation is covered. B. being considered blameworthy in any investigation of defect. C. being considered blameworthy in any investigation of accident by the DGCA during the preceding 6 months. D. All are correct. 648. The validity of an authorisation may be extended to a maximum period of A. twleve months. B. six months. C. three months. D. one month. 649. For grant of approval to certify overhaul the candidate should be of A. 17 years. B. 18 years. C. 20 years. D. 21 years. 650. For grant of approvl a candidate must be A. 20 years of age. B. at least a matriculate. C. Holding BAMEC in relevant category. D. All are correct. 651. Approval is granted in A. duplicate, one copy to person and one copy to RAO.
B. triplicate, one copy to person, one copy to RAO and one coyp to DGCA. C. only single copy. D. All are correct. 652. Approval is valid for A. 3 months. B. 6 months. C. 12 months. D. 24 months. 653. Flight Engineer Examiners are appointed as per rule A. 41A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937. B. 61A, sub-rule to of IAR 1937. C. CAR series L part V. D. CAR series L part VI. 654. A person appointed as Check Flight Engineer must have held a A. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE. B. Current F.E's licence for a minimum period of three years and at least 3000 hours flight experience as FE. C. current F.E's licence for a minimum period of two years and at least 2000 hours flight experience as FE. D. None is correct. 655. Flight Engineer Examiner should have at least 500 hours flight experience of which not less than A. 100 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application. B. 100 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application. C. 50 hours should be during 12 months preceding the date of application. D. 50 hours should be during six months preceding the date of application. 656. Flight Engineer Examiner appointment is valid for A. 24 months. B. 12 months. C. 6 months. D. None is correct. 657. A Flight Engineer Examiner's appointment may be renewed subject to the condition that he has A. 50 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. B. 25 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. C. 20 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. D. 10 hours of flight experience as FE in preceding 6 months. 658. A Check Flight Engineer should be sponsored by
44
A. an approved organisation. B. air transport operator. C. Central Govt. Organisation. D. State Govt. Organisation.
A. 70%. B. 80%. C. 90%. D. None is correct.
659. In order to seek approved welder's certificate, apart from other requirements the candidate is required to submit A. two different test pieces, as per DGCA requirements. B. three different test pieces, as per FAA requirements. C. three different test pieces, as per CAR series L part VI. D. two one test piece, as per CAR series L part VI.
667. Re-examination in GETS can be held after 15 days break within A. 30 days from the date of completion of the main course. B. 45 days from the date of completion of the main course. C. 60 days from the date of completion of the main course. D. 90 days from the date of completion of the main course.
660. Welder's approval is issued A. materialwise. B. processwise. C. material and processwise. D. material and jointwise.
668. Candidate under GETS will have to repeat main course if he A. fails to secure 80% marks in aggregate in main course. B. fails in any one phase with less than 60% marks in the main course. C. fail in the tandem course. D. All are correct.
661. Unpressurised aircraft operating at altitude between 620mb to 700 mb for more than thirty minutes of flight should be provided with A. adequate supply of oxygen for crew plus 10% pax. B. all crew and passengers are to be provided with sufficient oxygen. C. only pilot and co-pilot are to be provided with oxygen. D. None is correct. 662. Engineers undergoing training under GETS shall have A. degree in engineering. B. P.G degree in engineering. C. P.G degree in electronics. D. All are correct. 663. GETS is eligible to appear for paper I of AME/BAMEC examination after the completion of A. 6 months of training. B. 12 months of training. C. 18 months of training. D. 24 months of training. 664. GETS at present is run by A. Pawan Hans Ltd. B. Indian Airlines & Air India. C. Both a & b are correct. D. The passing marks in GETS is. 665. The passing marks in GETS is A. 70% in each and 80% in aggregate. B. 60% in each and 70% in aggregate. C. 80% in each and 90% in aggregate. D. None is correct.
669. GETS candidate fails in three oral-cumpracticual examinations, he again undergoes a refresher course and will be again eligible for A. three oral-cum-practical examinations. B. two oral-cum-practical examinations. C. only one oral-cum-practical examination. D. None is correct. 670. If a GETS candidate fails in oral-cum-practical test again after taking the refresher course A. he will get two more chances to appear in oralcum-practical test. B. he will get one more chance to appear in oral-cumpractical test. C. he will have to take the main course again. D. All are correct. 671. The pass marks in refresher course of GETS is A. 70% in each phase and 80% in aggregate. B. 60% in each phase and 80% in aggregate. C. 60% in each phase and 70% in aggregate. D. 80% in each phase and 90% in aggregate. 672. When an AME licence is lost by the holder (other than act of God) then for a duplicate licence A. he has to pay no fees. B. he has to pay only half fees. C. he has to submit FIR, of the lost licence. D. Both b and c are correct. 673. An AME will have to pay no fees for issuance of a duplicate AME licence if A. the licence is more than 25 years old. B. the licence is more than 20 years old. C. the licence is more than 10 years old.
666. Pass marks in GETS re-examination is 45
D. the licence is more than 5 years old.
D. All are correct.
674. Mandatory modification/inspection is issued under the purview of aircraft rule A. 49A. B. 49B. C. 49D. D. 51A.
682. A consolidated list of all mandatory/modifications /inspections of aircraft engines and equipment are compiled and distributed by A. DGCA. B. RAO. C. manufacturer. D. approved organisation.
675. Mandatory modifications/inspections are carried out in accordance with aircraft rule A. 49A. B. 49D. C. 50A. D. 50D. 676. Aircraft rule 52 A. lays down the acceptable standards for modification/repair. B. provides for incorporation of modification in aircraft. C. requires modification/inspection to be carried out in aircraft. D. All are correct. 677. Mandatory modifications/inspections prescribe the mandatory action required for A. continued safe operation of the aircraft. B. continued airworthiness of aircraft. C. keeping the C of A valid. D. All are correct. 678. Airworthiness directive means an instruction issued by an airworthiness authority A. which amends an approved document. B. which requires a modification. C. to keep aircraft, aircraft components in an airworthy condition. D. All are correct. 679. Mandatory modifications and inspections are promulgated by A. the manufacturer of the aircraft. B. the DGCA. C. the airworthiness authority. D. the airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer of aircraft. 680. DGCA will declare only those service bulletins/instructions as mandatory in respect of those A. whom DGCA thinks so. B. are issued in red colour. C. in respect of which AD's are issued. D. None of the above. 681. DGCA will declare all modifications issued by A. DGCA as mandatory. B. FAA as mandatory. C. CAA as mandatory. 46
683. C of A will not be renewed if it is observed than A. any modification is due on aircraft. B. only mandatory modification is due on aircraft component. C. any inspection is due on item of equipment. D. All are correct. 684. CAR series 'O' part I deals with minimum requirements to be compiled with by operator engaged in A. schedule operator. B. non-schedule operator. C. private aircraft. D. All are correct. 685. Aircraft rule 140 requires than all aircraft owners/operators shall comply with A. the engineering requirements as specified by the DGCA. B. the maintenance requirements as specified by the DGCA. C. the safety requirements as specified by the DGCA. D. All are correct. 686. List of components with approved overhaul lives is given in A. quality control manual. B. maintenance system manual. C. engineering organisation manual. D. All are correct. 687. Single engined aircraft undercarriage shall not be used in A. schedule, VFR operation. B. non-schedule VFR operation. C. non-schedule night operation. D. All are correct.
with
retractable
688. A multi-engined aircraft when loaded to the maximum gross weight shall be capable of maintaining level flight with one engine inoperative at an altitude of not less than A. 2000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute. B. 1000 feet above the valley level at the highest point on the airroute. C. 3000 feet above the water. D. Both a and c are correct.
689. Operation manual is not a necessary requirement of A. non-schedule operator. B. schedule operator. C. flying training aircraft. D. private aircraft. 690. The maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members is contained in A. quality control manual. B. maintenance system manual. C. operation manual. D. All are correct. 691. The maximum flight altitude for each route as required for scheduled operations forms a part of A. operation manual. B. route guide. C. flight manual. D. All are correct. 692. Operation manual contains A. the procedure for refuelling the aircraft. B. the condition under which oxygen shall be used. C. a list of navigational equipment to be carried. D. All are correct. 693. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight may be continued should any instrument have become inoperative is in A. flight manual. B. emergency check list. C. operation manual. D. all are correct. 694. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operation manual and airplane flight manual then precedence will be given to A. operation manual. B. flight manual. C. flight crew operation manual. D. any one can be accepted. 695. For operation of single engined aircraft there shall be an emergency landing ground at intervals of not more than A. 150 miles. B. 260 miles. C. 150 km. D. 260 km. 696. When an aircraft is landing under INE, it shall be provided with a radio equipment capable of receiving signals A. from VOR station. B. from ATC transponder. C. providing guidance to a point from which visual landing can be effected. 47
D. from ILS system. 697. The required number of aircrew on a licensed air transport service is found in aircraft A. flight manual. B. C of A. C. C or R. D. Both a and b are correct. 698. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by the DGCA that they are familiar A. with its loading. B. with ATC system. C. a and b are correct. D. None is correct. 699. The first pilot of an airlines shall have made at least A. one flight as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR condition. B. two flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly in VFR conditions. C. three flights as first pilot along the route over which he is required to fly VFR conditions. D. as in (a) also in IFR condition. 700. All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local proficiency check A. once a year. B. once in two years. C. twice a year. D. None is correct. 701. Proficiency check of licenced air transport service pilots shall be carried out at an interval of A. not less than 4 months and not more than 8 months. B. not less than 3 months and not more than 6 months. C. not less than 6 months and not more than 8 months. D. not less than 3 months and not more than 8 months. 702. Instruments rating check of a pilot is carried out A. every year. B. every two years. C. twice a year. D. every six months. 703. The IR check of a pilot carried out by an approved check pilot includes A. let down procedure applicable to the aerodrome in use. B. recovery from spins. C. recovery from loops. D. All are correct. 704. During an IR check the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to port and starboard variation in height shall not exceed A. 100 feet.
B. 150 feet. C. 200 feet. D. 300 feet.
A. 60 cm. B. 50 cm. C. 20 cm. D. 30 cm.
705. The expected climbed performance shall be obtained from A. flight manual. B. operations manual. C. pilot's notes. D. All are correct.
713. The width of each letter of (except letter I) and the length of hyphens shall be A. two-third of the height of the letter. B. three-fourth of the height of the letter. C. three-eighth of the height of the letter. D. one-half of the height of the letter.
706. The observed actual climb performance (in terms of feet per minute) shall in no case be lower by more than A. 2% of the 'expected climbed performance'. B. 3% of the 'expected climbed performance'. C. 5% of the 'expected climbed performance'. D. 7% of the 'expected climbed performance'.
714. The thickness of the lines of letters of registration marking shall be A. one-eighth of the height of letter. B. one-eighth of the width of letter. C. one-sixth of the height of letter. D. one-sixth of the width of letter.
707. ROC correction factor graph for constant speed propellers is available in A. CAR series C part I. B. CAR series C part II. C. CAR series T part I. D. CAR series T part II.
715. The separation between the letter of registration marking shall not be less than A. one-quarter of letters length. B. one-quarter of letters width. C. one-third of letters length. D. one-third of letters width.
708. The varaiables of ROC graphs as given in CAR series T part II are A. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F). B. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree C). C. pressure altitude (in feet), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor. D. pressure altitude (in metres), temp (degree F) and rate of climb factor.
716. The separation between the letters of registration marking shall not be less than A. one-quarter of letters height. B. one-third of letters height. C. two-third of letters height. D. one-sixth of letters height.
709. The nationality and registration marks of an airship appears A. on the fuselage and wing. B. on the hull. C. on the fuselage and stabilizer. D. on the fuselage and vertical fin. 710. The registration marking on the aircraft shall appear A. on the right half of the lower surface of the wing. B. on the left half of the lower surface of the wing. C. as in (a) and on the fuselage. D. as in (b) and on the fuselage. 711. The height of registration marks on an aircraft shall be at least A. 60 cm. B. 50 cm. C. 22 inches. D. 50 inches. 712. The height of registration marks on the aircraft fuselage shall be at least 48
717. Weight and balance control of aircraft is dealt in A. IAR 58. B. IAR 56. C. IAR 49. D. None is correct. 718. Aircraft weight schedule shall include A. type of engine. B. type of aircraft. C. registration marking of aircraft. D. Both b and c are correct. 719. During weighing of aircraft the equipment installed are A. oil should be full. B. hydraulic fluid should be full. C. all instruments should be installed. D. all are correct. 720. The aircraft shall be weighed in the presence of A. chief engineer. B. QCM. C. representative of RAO. D. All are correct.
721. The weight schedule of an aircraft shall be retained A. for 10 years. B. for 5 years. C. for 2 years. D. till it is replaced by a fresh schedule. 722. The calculated C.G. position for 'take off & land before take off are computed for A. aerial work aircraft. B. private aricraft. C. public transport aircraft. D. All are correct. 723. The 'load sheets' of a schedule operator shall preserved for a period of A. one month from the date of issue. B. six months from the date of issue. C. one year from the date of issue. D. two years from the date of issue. 724. Mark the wrong statement A. During loading it must be ensured that the aircraft cabin floor loading limitation are not exceeded. B. The load must be securely tight. C. The load must be placed behind the passengers the cabin. D. The load tying ropes must be of sufficient strength to withstand the loads imposed on it in flight. 725. The first aid kit container shall be A. of steel. B. of aluminium alloy. C. moisture and dust proof. D. All are correct. 726. The words 'FIRST AID KIT' on first aid kit box shall by at least A. 1 inch high. B. 3/2 inches high. C. 2 inches high. D. 5/2 inches high. 727. First aid kit whenever used shall be replenished and certified by a A. private medical practitioner. B. Govt. medical practitioner. C. any medical practitioner. D. any medical practitioner holding M.B.B.S. degree. 728. The drugs contained in the physician's kit are intended to be administered only by A. an air hostess. B. PIC. C. Co-pilot. D. medical practitioner. 729. All aircraft with passenger-carrying capacity of 50 shall be equipped with A. one first aid kit and one physician kit. 49
B. two first aid kits and one physician kit. C. three first aid kits and one physician kit. D. one first aid kit only. 730. Physician's kit is must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of more than A. 150. B. 100. C. 60. D. 20. 731. To check on the aircraft that the first aid kits are intact and properly sealed is the respnosibility of A. QCM. B. Pilot in command. C. AME. D. M.B.B.S. doctor. 732. The contents of the first aid kit of a public transport aircraft shall be examined by medical officer once in A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months. 733. The contents of the first aid kit of training aircraft shall be examined by medical oficer once in A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months. 734. the training of the crew members of public transport aircraft engaged in schedule and nonschedule services in application of first aid is undertaken by A. owner/operator. B. RAO. C. DGCA. D. Director of Air Safety. 735. Contents of the physician's kit shall be certified by A. Chief Medical Officer. B. Medical Officer incharge. C. medical practitioner. D. medical practitioner with at least M.B.B.S. degree. 736. Details of furnishing materials used in aircraft are contained in A. CAR series F part IV. B. CAR series X part IV. C. FAR part 25. D. Both b and c are correct. 737. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and havign AUW as 15000 kg or above shall be
A. self-extinguishing. B. at least flame-resistant. C. flame resistant. D. Both a and c are correct.
D. as long as the log books are kept.
738. Furnishing material used on private aircraft shall be A. self-extinguishing. B. at least flame-resistant. C. flame resistant. D. None is correct. 739. Resistant to fire (as given in appendix F to FAR 25 part II) aircraft seats shall be installed in all aircraft A. above 15,000 kg AUW. B. above 5,700 kg AUW. C. above 3,000 kg AUW. D. above 2,000 kg AUW. 740. Concession means A. a permission by the DGCA for free flight. B. a permission by the DGCA to use a limited quantity or material not in conformity with that approved by manufacturer. C. a permission by the DGCA to rebuild an aircraft. D. Both b and c are correct. 741. Requrest from grant of 'concessions' for use of material, effecting major modification is submitted to A. DGCA. B. RAO. C. DGCA and RAO. D. DAW. 742. Concession form is submitted to the RAO in A. duplicate. B. triplicate. C. quadruplicate. D. None is correct. 743. Concession application for carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary structure is submitted to A. QCM. B. DGCA. C. RAO. D. DAW. 744. DGCA's prior approval is not required if a major repair is carried out strictly in conformity with the standard aeronautical practice spelt out in A. AC 43.13 manual, CAIP. B. Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures of CAA (UK). C. BCAR 43, CAA 43, JAR 21. D. None is correct. 745. An approved copy of concession form is preserved by the applicant for A. 10 years. B. 2 years. C. 2 years after the aircraft is withdrawn form use. 50
746. Aircraft log books are made under the pursuance of A. IAR 67. B. IAR 68. C. IAR 57. D. None is correct. 747. The number of different log books requirement for an aircraft as stated in CAR series X-part VI are A. three. B. four. C. five. D. six. 748. DGCA shall issue A. JLB. B. Engine log book. C. Airframe log book. D. All are correct. 749. Detailed record of replacements, major repair & overhaul of aircraft component or system is entered in the A. first section of the log book. B. second section of the log book. C. third section of the log book. D. third section of the JLB. 750. The third section of the airframe log book will contain A. routine inspection records. B. modification records. C. replacement records. D. overhaul records. 751. The first section of journey log book contains A. routine inspection records. B. minor repair records. C. major repair records. D. None is correct. 752. In accordance with CAR flight is recorded as A. chock to chock. B. take-off to touch down. C. take-off to touch down may be adopted after obtaining approval from RAO. D. All are correct. 753. When a component having its own log book is removed from aircraft, the reason for removal should be entered in A. the component relevant log book. B. flight log book and aircraft log book. C. aircraft log book. D. Both a and c are correct.
754. When an engine is changed, the hours flown, the serial members and part numbers as appropriate of 'lifed' parts, which are not changed with the engine should be entered in A. the relevant log book. B. the log book of the replacement engine. C. as in (b) and also in aircraft log book. D. as in (c) and also in JLB. 755. When a pilot carries out an inspection schedule of below 25 hours its entries will be made in the A. JLB and signed by the pilot. B. flight log book & JLB and signed by the pilot. C. relevant log book and signed by an appropriately licenced AME. D. relevant log book and signed by the pilot. 756. Log books carried on board an aircraft are A. JLB. B. JLB, flight log book, aircraft log book. C. working copies of airframe and engine log books. D. Both a and c are correct. 757. When an aircraft meets with an accident and is damaged beyond repair, then the A. aircraft log book is preserved for 2 years. B. engine log book is preserved for 2 years. C. propeller log book is preserved for 2 years. D. All are correct. 758. Log book other than aircraft, engine & propeller log book are preserved for A. two years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use. B. ten years after the aircraft is withdrawn from use. C. ten years. D. ten years from the date of last entry. 759. When aircraft engine log book is not kept in the manner and form as prescribed in aircraft rule 67 A. the C of A will cease to be valid. B. the C of A will be cancelled. C. the C or R will be cancelled. D. the FRC will be cancelled. 760. Valid documents are carried on board an India registered aircraft in accordance with A. CAR series X part VII. B. CAR series X part VII IAR 7. C. CAR series X part VII IAR 57. D. CAR series X part VII IAR 67. 761. 'Group A' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft are/is A. C or R. B. C of A. C. FRC. D. All are correct.
51
762. 'Group B' documents carried on board an India registered aircraft is/are A. FRC. B. Flight Manual. C. C or R. D. All are correct. 763. The documents as required in group A and group B shall be carried on board all aircraft A. at all times. B. with AUW below 5700 kg. C. with AUW below 15,000 kg. D. None is correct. 764. An aircraft which does not leave the vicinity of its starting place and returns without landing elsewhere to its starting place, needs to carry A. only documents, of group A. B. only documents, of group B. C. documents of group A and group B. D. None is correct. 765. Passenger safety information briefing card is carried on A. all aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above. B. all aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above. C. all passenger aircraft of 15,000 kg AUW or above. D. all passenger aircraft of 5,700 kg AUW or above. 766. Application for type approval has to be submitted in form A. as per annexure I of IAR 49A. B. as per annexure I of IAR 49. C. as per annexure I of CAR series F part I. D. as per annexure I of CAR series X part IX. 767. Application for type approval is submitted to A. DGCA. B. DGCA (via RAO). C. DGCA (atten : Director of Aeronatucial Inspection). D. DGCA (Atten : Director of Airworthiness). 768. Application for type approval is submitted in A. duplicate. B. triplicate. C. quadruplicate. D. None is correct. 769. Applicant for type approval shall submit A. C of A. B. C of R. C. a complete list of drawing. D. All are correct. 770. Along with the application for type approval the applicant should submit A. C of A no of the aircraft. B. nationality and registration marking of the aircraft.
C. endurance (based on operational experience). D. All are correct. 771. If at any time the DGCA feels that the safety of aircraft is jeopardised it can A. cancel or suspend a type certificate. B. endorse a type certificate. C. incorporate a modification in type certificate. D. All of them are correct. 772. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR series F part II annexure I A. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm. B. three unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. C. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted : size (10x15) cm. D. five unmounted photographs of the aircraft have to be submitted: size not less than (10x15) cm. 773. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to the DGCA A. length of fuselage. B. length over all, height over all. C. a and b are correct. D. None is correct. 774. For obtaining type certificate of a rotor craft the manufacturer has to submit the following dimension to the DGCA A. length of fuselage. B. overall length. C. diameter of main rotor and tail rotor, main rotor blade chord. D. All are correct. 775. Aircraft rule 50 empowers the A. Govt. of India to issue/renew C of A. B. RAO to renew/revalidate c of A. C. DGCA to issue/revalidate C of A. D. Both b and c are correct. 776. All aircraft registered in India must possess a current and valid C of A before it is flown is a requirement as per A. Aircraft rules 50. B. Aircraft rules 30. C. Aircraft rules 15. D. Aircraft rules 50 A. 777. CAR series 'F' part III A. lays down the procedure for obtaining certificate of registration. B. lays down the procedure for obtaining Indian certificate of registration.
C. lays down the procedure of obtaining Indian certificate of airworthiness. D. lays down the procedure of obtaining certificate of airworthiness. 778. For issuing of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy that the aircraft/rotor craft manufactured/imported meets the approved airworthiness standards of A. BCAR 23 & JAR 25. B. FAR 23 & FAR 25. C. FAR 27 & FAR 29. D. All are correct. 779. C of A aircraft which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the DGCA A. cannot be issued/renewed. B. the operator may consult the DGCA (DAW) before buying/importing such aircraft so that acceptance standards is conveyed to him. C. both a and b are correct. D. none of them is correct. 780. Application for obtaining C of A is to be submitted in form A. CA 23 (Appendix A ). B. CA 23A. C. CA 25 (Appendix A). D. CA 25. 781. For issuance of C of A the owner/operator shall supply free of cost A. original log books along with record of modification with a certificate from the Chief of Inspection that no modification/airworthiness directive/inspection is pending. B. two sets of type certificate. C. two sets of MMEL. D. all are correct. 782. In case any deficiency is noticed during inspection by airworthiness officer for issuance of C of A A. the owner will be informed and he will be responsible for making up all the deficiencies pointed out. B. C of A will not be issued. C. the owner may be asked to carry out any modification/airworthiness directives which is considered essential for the safety of the aircraft. D. both a and c are correct. 783. For issuance of C of A partially filld Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA A. to the manufacturer for completion. B. to the owner/operator for completion. C. to the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion. D. All are correct. 784. Validity of C of A is
52
A. for one year. B. for six months. C. restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft. D. Both a and b are correct. 785. C of A validity of imported aircraft is A. for one year. B. for six months. C. the validity period shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A. D. both a and c are correct. 786. Validity of C of A A. is for one year. B. is restricted in case it is found necessary in the interest of safety of aircraft. C. shall begin from the date of issue of original export C of A. D. both a and c are correct. 787. Short-term C of A is issued for A. un-airworthy aircraft. B. aircraft imported from outside the country under Indian registration marking. C. aircraft imported from outside the country under foreign registration marking. D. aircraft having service life of less than one year. 788. The DGCA may refuse a C of A to an aircraft if A. he feels so. B. required data are not made available. C. reasonable apprehension exists regarding its airworthiness. D. both b and c are correct. 789. Documents which must accompany the application for the issue of C of A are/is A. form CA 83. B. form CA 84. C. documents as required vide AME notice no 2 of 1969. D. All of the above.
B. in special category. C. in specific sub-division (s) certificated. D. None is correct. 793. Private aircraft means A. all aircraft other than aerial work aircraft or public transport aircraft. B. shall not be used for hire or reward. C. shall not be used of any kind of remuneration. D. All are correct. 794. A state Govt. aircraft certificated in normal category sub-division shall be a A. passenger aircraft. B. private aircraft. C. research aircraft. D. racing aircraft. 795. Research aircraft is a subdivision of A. normal category. B. aerobatic category. C. special category. D. experimental category. 796. Racing aircraft is a subdivision of A. normal category. B. aerobatic category. C. experimental category. D. special category. 797. Aircraft certificated in normal category shall not be used in A. special category. B. aerobatic category. C. private category. D. All are correct. 798. Aircraft certificated in aerobatic category A. may be used in special category. B. may be used in normal category. C. may be used for experimental work. D. may be used for racing. 799. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in normal category are between A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g. D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
790. The three general categories of aircraft are A. normal, special, aerobatic. B. passenger, mail, goods. C. aerial, private, agricultural. D. passenger, normal, special. 791. Normal category aircraft are A. passenger, mail. B. goods, aerial. C. private, passenger. D. All are correct.
800. Limit load factors for structures of aircraft classified in aerobatic category are between A. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1g & -1.5g. B. +4.5g & +6g & -1.76g & -3g. C. +3.5g & +5g & -1.5g & -3g. D. +2.5g & +3.8g & -1.76g & -3g.
792. Aircraft certificated in normal category can be used A. in all sub-divisions. 53
801. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the requirements of A. FAR 15. B. FAR 26. C. FAR AD (87-01-40). D. FAR 21. 802. Class II & Class III aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by A. export C of A. B. airworthiness approval tag. C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA. D. None of the above. 803. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by A. export C of A. B. airworthiness approval tag. C. airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA. D. None of the above. 804. Complete aircraft comes under A. class I aeronautical product. B. class II aeronautical product. C. class III aeronautical product. D. class IV aeronautical product. 805. An aircraft which is being exported to India via flyway should A. display Indian nationality and registration marking. B. display foreign nationality and registration marking. C. have ferry flight authorisation. D. Both a and b are correct. 806. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported to India is the responsibility of A. exporter of the aircraft. B. importer of the aircraft. C. DGCA. D. FAA. 807. 'Noise standards' acceptable in India for issuance of Indian C of A are A. same as required for issuance of US C of A. B. same as required for issuance of UK C of A. C. same as required for issuance of CAA C of A. D. same as required in JAR 21. 808. Class II & III aeronautical products imported in India must accompany A. airworthiness approval tag. B. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part R). C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part P). D. compliance with FAR 20 (sub part L). 54
809. Engine/propellers imported in India must accompany A. export C of A. B. airworthiness approval tag. C. compliance with FAR 21 (sub part L). D. both a and c are correct. 810. Reconditioned/used/surplus certified as per
parts
must
be
A. FAR part 145. B. FAR part 65. C. FAR part 43. D. All are correct. 811. Requirement for renewal of C of A is contained in A. CAR series 'F' part IV. B. CAR series 'F' part III. C. aircraft rule 5. D. both b and c are correct. 812. Validity of C of A can be extended for A. 3% of flight hours. B. 10% of calendar period. C. no extension is granted. D. both a and b are correct. 813. Application of renewal of C of A should be made preferably A. 10 days in advance of expiry of C of A. B. 15 days in advance of expiry of C of A. C. 7 days in advance of expiry of C of A. D. none is correct. 814. In case of the C of A of the aircraft has expired then fcr renewal A. the quantum of work required has to be decided by oficer incharge RAO. B. the quantum of work required has to be dcided by operator/QCM. C. the quantum of work required has to be decided by manufacturer. D. None of the above. 815. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO A. All log books. B. JLB. C. Procedure sheets cf past one year. D. All the above. 816. For renewal of C of A the operator has to submit to RAO A. C of A, C of R. B. WT license. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct.
817. Renewal of certificate of airworthiness of Indian registered aircraft abroad A. cannot be carried out and should be avoided. B. can be carried out with full justification of such exigencies to the DGCA. C. C of A will be renewed in the normal manner. D. Both b and c are correct. 818. C of A shall cease to be valid if A. approved inspection schedule is completed when due. B. 'lifted' components are replaced on expiry of stipulated lives. C. unapproved repairs/modifications are carried out. D. All are correct. 819. If mandatory modifications are not carried out as and when called for A. the C of R will cease to be valid. B. the C of A will cease to be valid. C. the WT license will cease to be valid. D. All are correct. 820. Aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above are required to be maintained by A. individual AMEs. B. airlines. C. approved organisation. D. All are correct. 821. Aircraft with AUW below 5700 can be maintained by A. individual AMEs. B. approved organisation. C. authorised personnel of approved organisation. D. All are correct. 822. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and above is issued by A. DGCA. B. RAO. C. QCM. D. All are correct. 823. Certificate of maintenance review in case of aircraft with AUW of 15000 kg and below is issued by A. individual AMEs. B. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'B' to cover the type of aircraft involved. C. AME having his license endorsed in cat 'D' to cover the type of engine involved. D. Both b and c are correct. 824. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A 55
A. will start from the date of inspection. B. will start from the expiry of last C of A. C. will start from the date of submitting the application. D. All are correct. 825. Application for renewal of C of A is submitted on A. form CA 25. B. Appendix to form CA 25. C. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part III. D. Appendix to CAR series 'F' part IV. 826. Suspended C of A will be revalidated A. only upto the date the previous currency of the C of A had remained valid, if it had not been suspended. B. for another one year. C. cannot be revalidated. D. None is correct. 827. Aircraft rules 55(1) A. provides for automatic suspension of C of A. B. empowers the DGCA to suspend C of A. C. empowers the DGCA to cancel C of A. D. All are correct. 828. DGCA can suspend or cancel the C of A of an aircraft under the purview of A. Aircraft rules 55. B. Aircraft rules 55 (1). C. Aircraft rules 55 (2). D. Aircraft rules 55A. 829. Suspension of C of A is dealt in A. CAR series F part II. B. CAR series F part IV. C. CAR series F part III. D. CAR series F part V. 830. The certification of airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended if A. it is modified or repaired otherwise then in accordance with approved procedure. B. suffers major damage. C. develops a major defect. D. All are correct. 831. Certification by AME 'R' for flight release of private aircraft may not be necessary if ground facilities are not available till A. inspection associated with next flight certfication. B. next 100 hrs schedule. C. align with any schedule within 50 hours. D. Any one of the above. 832. OAT gauge is a must A. on all aircraft intended for flying. B. on aircraft undertaking night flying on VFR.
C. on aircraft fitted with engine with carburettor air temp. control but without carburettor air temperature gauge. D. Both a and b are correct. 833. A two-way communication system and navigation equipment are essential A. when an aircraft is flying under IFR. B. when an aircraft is flying through controlled air space. C. suplemented with appropriate ground facilities. D. comprehensively all above. 834. CAR series L part I deals with A. issue of AME licences. B. classification of AME licences. C. experience requirements for issue of AME licences. D. Comprehensively all above. 835. Aircraft rule 61 lays down the A. minimum qualification for issue of AME licence. B. minimum experience for issue of AME licence. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct. 836. Light aircraft means an aircraft A. with AUW below 5700 kg. B. with AUW below 15000 kg. C. with AUW below 30000 kg. D. None is correct.
B. 300 kg. C. 350 kg. D. 450 kg. 842. All airworthy mcrolight aircraft should possess a A. valid certificate of airworthiness. B. valid certificate of safety. C. valid permit to fly. D. All the above. 843. The registration markings assigned to the microlight aircraft shall be painted A. on the lower surface of the wings. B. also on each side of fuselage. C. or on the upper half of the vertical fin. D. All are correct. 844. A permanent placard should be affixed on the microlight aircraft in full view of the occupants stating that A. valid for day flying only. B. the aircraft has not been certificated for cloud flying. C. the aircraft has not been certificated to international requirements. D. All the above are correct. 845. Permit to fly is valid for A. six months. B. nine months. C. one year. D. two years.
837. Heavy aircraft means an aircraft A. with AUW of 5700 kg and above. B. with AUW of 15000 kg and above. C. with AUW of 3000 kg and above. D. None is correct. 838. Registration and airworthiness of Microlight aircraft is contained in A. CAR series F part XIV. B. CAR series F part XV. C. IAR 62. D. IAR 62 B. 839. Microlight aircraft includes A. hang gliders. B. powered hang gliders. C. light aircraft. D. None is correct.
846. In respect of microlight aircraft a pilot can carry out the pre flight and all inspections up to A. 5 hours. B. 10 hours. C. 20 hours. D. 25 hours. 847. Only appropriately licensed AME can perform any schedule higher than A. 10 hours in case of microlight aircraft. B. 15 hours in case of microlight aircraft. C. 20 hours in case of microlight aircraft. D. 25 hours in case of microlight aircraft. 848. All columns of microlight aircraft log book should be filled by A. an AME and signed by him. B. an appropriately licensed AME. C. QCM and signed by him. D. the pilot and signed by him.
840. Microlight aircraft means A. a single seater or two seater aircraft. B. a fixed wing aircraft. C. wing area not less than 10 sq meters. D. all are correct.
849. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the entire air space over the territory of A. Delhi. B. Jammu and Kashmir. C. Tamilnadu.
841. Maximum AUM of a microlight aircraft is A. 250 kg. 56
D. Punjab. 850. A microlight aircraft shall not be flown over the areas falling within A. 10 km from international border. B. 20 km from international border. C. 25 km from international border. D. 50 km from international border. 851. The restricted flying areas are notified by the A. DGCA in consultation with the Home Ministry. B. Defence Ministry. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None of the above. 852. Application for permit to fly for microlight aircraft is submitted on A. from CA 28. B. appendix to CAR series F part II. C. annex I to CAR series F part XIV. D. from CA 182. 853. Requirement for manufacture registration and airworthiness control of hot air balloons is contained in A. IAR 62. B. IAR 15. C. CAR series F part XIV. D. CAR series F part XV. 854. Ballon means A. a power-driven lighter than aircraft. B. a non power-driven lighter than aircraft. C. a non power-driven heavier than aircraft. D. a power-driven heavier than aircraft. 855. Envelope means the enclosure A. in which the lifting medium is contained. B. in which balloon is contained. C. which is used to accommodate balloon occupants. D. which is used to cover the balloon.
859. The identification plate of balloon shows A. registration markings. B. constructor's name. C. balloon's serial number. D. All the above. 860. Flight release for a balloon has to be issued carry A. 24 hours. B. 36 hours. C. 48 hours. D. seven days. 861. A pilot can carry out inspection schedules up to A. 5 hours in case of balloons. B. 10 hours in case of balloons. C. 15 hours in case of balloons. D. 25 hours in case of balloons. 862. Only an AME can carry out any inspection schedule higher than A. 10 hours in case of ballons. B. 15 hours in case of ballons. C. 25 hours in case of ballons. D. 50 hours in case of ballons. 863. Procedure/worksheet pertaining to balloon shall be preserved for at least A. two years after completion of work. B. five years after completion of work. C. ten years after completion of work. D. None of the above is correct. 864. Records/worksheet pertaining to components of balloons shall be preserved for A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years.
'lifed'
865. All-India registered balloon must carry on board A. certificate of registration. B. certificate of airworthiness. C. cockpit and emergency check list in laminated form. D. All the above are correct.
856. 'Basket' of balloon means A. the container suspended beneath the envelope. B. the container suspended beneath the balloon. C. basket used for the balloon occupants. D. Both a and c are correct. 857. A hot air balloon used for personal flying a pilot A. must have a permit to fly. B. must have a type certificate. C. need not have a type certificate. D. Both a and b are correct. 858. All manned free balloons are required to be registered as per A. CAR series F part XV. B. CAR series X part XV. C. CAR series X part I. D. CAR series F part I. 57
866. The operating of the balloon flight will only be undertaken during A. day time under VFR condition. B. past noon session. C. pre noon session. D. between sunrise to sunset. 867. In general a flight manual contains A. three sections. B. four sections. C. five section. D. six sections.
868. Guidance for the preparation of flight manual is given in A. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part III section (9) chapter II. B. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section (9) chapter III. C. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part 9 section III chapter II. D. ICAO airworthiness technical manual Part II section III chapter 9. 869. If an approved flight manual is not ammended up-to-date A. the C of A will be valid. B. the C of A would cease to be valid. C. the C or R would cease to be valid. D. Both b and c are correct. 870. All amendment incorporated in the flight manual of an imported aircraft shall be intimated to A. RAO. B. sub-RAO. C. DGCA. D. Both a and b are correct. 871. Which aircraft rule prohibits use of component items of equipments from being modified, repaired, replaced, inspected or overhauled except by an approved person of contracting state whose approval is recognised by the DGCA A. Rule 60. B. Rule 61. C. Rule 56. D. Rule 51. 872. Normally no parts should be used from the parts pooled beyond A. 25 hours of operation. B. 50 hours of operation. C. 100 hours of operation. D. 200 hours of operation. 873. The quantity of unusable fuel in most cases is included in the appropriate A. flight manual. B. QCM. C. cockpit check list. D. emergency check list.
A. with aircraft in level flight altitude drawn the fuel system from the lowest point in the supply line. B. thereafter measure the quantity of residual fuel in each tank. C. then additional at least 5 litres of fuel per main tank shall be added to arrive at the zero datum for the fuel quantity gauge. D. All are correct. 876. The fuel gauges shall be calibrated with zero datum at A. five litres. B. ten litres. C. zero litres. D. unusable fuel. 877. A fuel quantity gauge is calibrated A. at every C of A. B. at the time of installation. C. at the nearest major check. D. All are correct. 878. A properly calibrated dip stick is carried on board A. all aircraft. B. all light aircraft and helicopters. C. all helicopters. D. all heavy aircraft. 879. Aircraft fuelling procedure is laid down in A. CAR series H part II. B. CAR series H part I. C. IAR 25 A. D. Both a and c are correct. 880. Fuelling zone is regarded as the area extending A. 25 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. B. 15 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. C. 10 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. D. 06 metres radially from the aircraft fuelling point. 881. As a general guide the fuelling place should be at least A. 30 metres from the hangar. B. 25 metres from the hangar. C. 20 metres from the hangar. D. 15 metres from the hangar. 882. The aircraft shall not be fuelled within A. 30 metres of radar equipment in use. B. 25 metres of radar equipment in use. C. 20 metres of radar equipment in use. D. 15 metres of radar equipment in use.
874. CAR series 'H' Part I deals with A. unusable fuel supply. B. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of aircraft. C. calibration of fuel quantity gauge of helicopter. D. All are correct. 875. Light aircraft for which the unusable fuel data is not available the procedure recommended to determine, is 58
883. The fuel quantity should be delivered in terms of A. density. B. kg. C. tonnes. D. volume.
884. Exhaust of the refuelling vehicle shall not pass over the A. fuelling hose. B. intake hose. C. both a and b is correct. D. none is correct.
persons shall be evacuated from the effected area to a place at least A. 6 metres from the spillage. B. 15 metres from the spillage. C. 30 metres from the spillage. D. 43 metres from the spillage.
885. Whenever wing fuelling is employed the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded A. to the fuelling equipment. B. to the fuelling equipment before filler capt is removed. C. to the aircraft structure before filler capt is removed. D. None is correct.
892. Aircraft instruments shall be overhauled and inspected in accordance with the requirement of A. CAR series I part I. B. CAR series I part II. C. CAR series I part III. D. All the above are correct.
886. Fuelling operation shall cease when a turbo prop jet aircraft manoeuvres so as to bring the rear jet outlets within A. 50 metres of the aircraft. B. 43 metres of the fuelling equipment. C. 30 m,etres of the aircraft. D. 33 metres of the aircraft fuelling equipment. 887. Vehicles moving in the danger zone shall be fitted with A. spark arrestors. B. flame traps. C. fire extinguishers. D. both a and b are correct. 888. No photographic flash bulbs and electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used within A. 5 metres of fuelling equipment. B. 6 metres of fuelling equipment. C. 15 metres of fuelling equipment. D. 30 metres of fuelling equipment. 889. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent. D. None of them correct. 890. Fixed wing aircraft with a seating capacity of less than 20 shall A. be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. B. not be permitted to be refuelled with passengers on board. C. be permitted to be refuelled with QCM consent. D. None of them correct. 891. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation covering an area greater than 5 square metres, then all 59
893. Instruments shall be inspected prior to installation to insure that A. the instruments are approved for the type of aircraft. B. the range of the dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of the aircraft power plant or equipment and to precisely indicate the appropriate operating limitation. C. the range of any coloured sector marked on instrument dials corresponds with the ranges specified in the aircraft flight manual or aircraft/engine manufacturer manual as applicable. D. All are correct. 894. Aircraft magnetic compasses shall be calibrated and compensated A. at the time of initial installation of a compass. B. as specified in operator's MS manual. C. after installation of a new electrical system. D. All are correct. 895. Flame resistant material as per CAR Series X part IV A. is not susceptible to combustion to the point of propagating a flame after ignition source is removed. B. susceptible to combustion or to the point of smouldering. C. which will not catch fire at all. D. which will not ignite fire to any material. 896. The test flight is not necessary for an engine change in an aircraft A. having 4 engines. B. having 2 engines. C. having single engine. D. only C above is wrong. 897. On a two-engine aircraft, a test flight after an engine change is A. mandatory. B. not mandatory. C. mandatory for aircraft above 5700 kg AUW. D. mandatory for aircraft above 15,000 kg AUW.
898. A fire-proof metal plate is affixed on the aircraft to indicate A. C of A number and its date of issue. B. name of manufacturer and date of manufacturer. C. name and address of registered owner, registration mark. D. smoking is permitted.
905. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air-taxi operations/charter hire for public transport shall not A. have completed 50,000 pressurization cycles. B. have completed 45,000 pressurization cycles. C. have completed 30,000 pressurization cycles. D. have completed 40,000 pressurization cycles.
899. Regarding the log books, mark the correct statement: A. In engine log book repairs are entered in sectionIII. B. In propeller log book, major repairs are entered in section-2. C. Log book entry must be made within 24 hours. D. Component log book must be preserved for six months after permanent withdrawal of component.
906. DGCA would not allow any aircraft to be imported for operation if it is more than A. 50 years old. B. 25 years old. C. 20 years old. D. 15 years old.
900. Aircraft having AUW less than 15000 kg should have seats upholstery, harness, belts etc. are made of A. self-extinguishing materials. B. flame resistance materials. C. no smoking type materials. D. flame proof materials. 901. Validity or C of A in case of imported aircraft shall A. be six months. B. be one year. C. begin from the date of issue of Indian C of A. D. begin from the date of issue of original export of C of A and will normally be for a period of one year. 902. Validity of C of A would remain continuous A. if the inspection is carried out more than one month in advance of the expiry date. B. if the inspection is carried out not more than 15 days in advance of the expiry date. C. if the inspection is carried out not more than 7 days in advance of the expiry date. D. if the inspection is carried out not more than 30 days in advance of the expiry date. 903. If an aircraft makes a series of take-offs on the same day, the pre-flight inspection may be carried out A. before each take-off. B. after every three take-offs. C. once before the first flight of the day. D. None is correct. 904. Jet aircraft allowed to be imported into India for air taxi operations/charter hire for public transport shall not A. be more than 15 years in age. B. be more than 10 years in age. C. be more than 12 years in age. D. None is correct.
907. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public transport shall not be A. more than 20 years in age. B. more than 15 years in age. C. more than 10 years in age. D. None is correct. 908. Turbo-prop aircraft allowed to be imported into India by DGCA for air taxi operation for public transport shall not have A. completed 50,000 pressurization cycles. B. completed 45,000 pressurization cycles. C. completed 40,000 pressurization cycles. D. completed 30,000 pressurization cycles. 909. For the import of tools/equipments required for maintenance/testing etc. of imported aircraft the importer A. should contact FAA. B. should contact CAA. C. should contact DGCA. D. should obtain No Objection Certificate from DGCA. 910. For the export of aircraft spares/items of equipment to be overhauled abroad in certain exigencies the operator shall A. obtain a No Objection Certificate from DGCA. B. contact the aircraft manufacturer. C. contact the airworthiness authority of place of manufacturer. D. Both b and c are correct. 911. Fuel in delivery hoses should be recirculated if no fuel has been dispensed from on in relation for a period of A. 7 days. B. 3 days. C. 2 days. D. 24 hours. 912. All refuelling tanks shall be cleaned A. once in two years.
60
B. once a year. C. once in six months. D. every month. 913. All-lined tank should be inspected for lining defects and internally inspected for cleanliness A. every five years. B. every three years. C. every two years. D. every year. 914. Fuelling vehicles should be purged of water and sediments A. once in three days. B. once in two days. C. every day. D. every week. 915. Hose and protection filters of 100 mesh gauze should be inspected A. every day. B. every week. C. every fortnight. D. every month. 916. Water sampling extraction pits should be checked for water A. daily. B. weekly. C. monthly. D. yearly. 917. Barrelled AVGAS is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period less than A. 12 months. B. 9 months. C. 6 months. D. 3 months. 918. Barelled ATF is fit for use in aircraft if it is stored for a period of less than A. 12 months. B. 9 months. C. 6 months. D. 3 months. 919. AVGAS should be dispensed direct into aircraft tanks only through A. 100 mesh gauze. B. 150 mesh gauze. C. 180 mesh gauze. D. 200 mesh gauze. 920. Fuel is assessed as unsatisfactory for use in aircraft if a sample shows A. Globules of water. B. Cloudiness. C. more than a trace of sediment. D. All are correct. 61
921. Fuel taken out of fuel bulk storage and aircraft fuelling vehicle for checking the state of fuel should be at least A. 5 gallons. B. 3.5 to 4.5 gallons. C. 0.75 to 1 gallon. D. None is correct. 922. Master gauges for checking fuel samples shall be calibrated once in A. 10 years. B. 5 years. C. 2 years. D. once a year. 923. Primary Indicator colour for AVGAS pipeline is A. Red. B. Black. C. Violet. D. Yellow. 924. Primary Indicator colour for Jet A-1 pipeline is A. Red. B. Black. C. Violet. D. Yellow. 925. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for microbiological growth A. once in two years. B. once in 18 months. C. once in a year. D. once in 6 months. 926. Aviation delivery hoses shall confirm to A. I.S./BS/API Specifications. B. IS/BS/DGCA Specifications. C. IS/DAW/BS Specifications. D. IS/BS/DAW Specifications. 927. Deliveries of AVGAS from the vehicles should be made through a micrfilter with a nominal rating of A. 20 microns. B. 15 microns. C. 10 microns. D. 5 microns. 928. Vehicles delivering aviation turbine fuels should be fitted with a microfilter or a filter separator monitor with a nominal rating of A. 20 microns. B. 15 microns. C. 10 microns. D. 5 microns. 929. A hand glider if unpowered weighs less than A. 300 kgs (AUW). B. 250 kgs (AUW). C. 200 kgs (AUW).
D. 150 kgs (AUW). 930. A single-seater powered hang glider weighs less than A. 375 kgs (AUW). B. 300 kgs (AUW). C. 275 Kgs (AUW). D. 150 Kgs (AUW). 931. A double seater powered hang glider weighs less than A. 375 Kgs (AUW). B. 300 Kgs (AUW). C. 275 Kgs (AUW). D. 150 Kgs (AUW). 932. A powered hang glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than A. 100 knots calibrated air speed. B. 90 knots calibrated air speed. C. 80 knots calibrated air speed. D. 70 knots calibrated air speed. 933. Hang glider shall have a power-off stall speed not exceeding A. 50 knots calibrated air speed. B. 40 knots calibrated air speed. C. 30 knots calibrated air speed. D. 25 knots calibrated air speed. 934. All hang gliders before flight must possess a A. Valid c of A. B. permit to fly. C. Both a and b are correct. D. None is correct.
A. pilot incharge. B. AME. C. person authorized by the DGCA. D. None is correct. 939. Hang glider must be equipped with A. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge. B. Altimeter, ASI, rpm gauge, ELT. C. Altimeter, ASI & ELT. D. ASI & ELT. 940. The examiner/instructor for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have A. 50 hrs of hang glider. B. 25 hrs of hang glider. C. 10 hrs of hang glider. D. 25 hrs of hang glider and at least 10 hours on dual machine. 941. Reweighing of Aircraft of AUW more than 2999 kg shall be done A. every 5 years. B. every 3 years. C. every 2 years. D. every year. 942. The first aid kit container shall be of A. white background with red cross. B. red background with white cross. C. green background with white cross. D. white background with green cross. 943. Standard weight for CREW for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 85 kgs. B. 75 kgs. C. 70 kgs. D. 65 kgs.
935. All hang gliders must possess A. Valid C of A. B. permit to fly. C. C or R. D. Both b and c are correct.
944. Standard weight for PASSENGER for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 85 kgs. B. 75 kgs. C. 70 kgs. D. 65 kgs.
936. Validity of permit to fly for hang glider is A. one year. B. six months. C. three months. D. None is correct. 937. Higher than 50 hours inspection schedules and overhaul of powered hang glider engine and its components shall be carried out by A. pilots. B. AMES. C. persons authorized by the DGCA. D. None is correct. 938. Pre-flight inspection and inspection schedule upto 50 hours on powered hang glider is carried out by 62
945. Standard weight for CHILDREN for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 50 kgs. B. 40 kgs. C. 35 kgs. D. 30 kgs. 946. Standard weight for INFANTS for load calculation in civil registered aircraft is taken as A. 30 kgs. B. 20 kgs. C. 15 kgs. D. 10 kgs.
947. The second copy of load and trip sheet shall be kept by the operator for a period of A. 5 years. B. 2 years. C. 1 years. D. 6 months. 948. Electromagnetic Interference whether conducted or radiated can be categorized by A. band width. B. amplitude behaviour. C. waveform and occurrence. D. All are correct. 949. The occurrence of electromagnetic interference can be categorized as A. periodic & random. B. periodic & aperiodic. C. periodic & instant. D. Both a and b are correct. 950. Global Positioning Systems (GPS) act as A. navigation equipment. B. an aid to navigation. C. communication equipment. D. radar system. 951. An AME trainee clears paper I, II, III on HS 748 aircraft of AME's licence examination. The operator will consider him for grant of approval only after A. he clears the BAMEC in category 'PA'. B. he has successfully completed a specific training subsequent to obtaining of the BAMEC from the DGCA and adjugded fit for approval. C. he has proved himself fit for approval before a board chaired by QCM. D. None is correct. 952. In the event of an aircraft involved in an accident required to be notified under aircraft rules 68 of the aircraft rule 1937 A. pilot in command of the effected aircraft can always exercise the privilege of his pilot's licence as long as it is valid. B. co-pilot can always exercise the privilege of his licence if he is permitted by the aircraft operator. C. pilot in command and co-pilot can exercise the privilege of their licence only after obtaining special authorisation from the DGCA. D. None is correct. 953. Aircraft should be flight tested A. at the time of C of A. B. subsequent to maintenance repair or modification which effects operational or flight characteristic of the aircraft. C. on three engine aircraft, if two engines are changed a test flight shall be carried out. D. All are correct. 63
954. Glider is a A. aircraft. B. airship. C. aerodyne. D. All are correct. 955. According to IAR 1937 aerial work Aircraft means an aircraft used for A. an industrial or commercial purpose or any other remunerative purpose. B. as in (a) is not used for public transport. C. as in (a) also used for public transport. D. All are correct. 956. 'Aerodrome' means any difinite or limited A. ground or water are intended to be used either wholly or in part for the landing or departing of aircraft. B. as in (a) and includes all buildings & sheds. C. as in (b) and also includes vessels, piers and other structures. D. None is correct. 957. An aircraft whose support in flight is derived dynamically from the reaction on surfaces in motion relative to the air is called A. aerodyne. B. aeroplane. C. gyroplane. D. aerostat. 958. An aricraft supported in the air statically and includes all airships and balloons is termed as A. aerodyne. B. aerostat. C. gyrostat. D. None of them. 959. Any machines which can derive support in the atmosphere from reaction of the air other than reactions of the air against the earth surface is called A. aeroplane. B. aircraft. C. aerostat. D. aerodyne. 960. A power driven heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of flight is termed as A. aerodyne. B. aerostat. C. aeroplane. D. aircraft. 961. A powe driven lighter-than-aircraft is a A. airship. B. flying machines. C. aerostat.
D. All are correct. 962. An aeroplane capable of taking off from and alighting on either land or a soled platform or water is called a A. seaplane. B. gyroplane. C. hydroplane. D. amphibian. 963. Kite is an A. aerodyne. B. aircraft. C. Both a and b are correct. D. aerostat.
970. Arms and ammunitions can be carried by air only with the special permission of A. director of Civil Aviation Security. B. commissioner of Airport Security. C. DGCA. D. All are correct. 971. No alcoholic drink shall be consumed by the operating crew members A. 6 hours before the commencement of the flight. B. 8 hours before the commencement of the flight. C. 10 hours before the commencement of the flight. D. 12 hours before the commencement of the flight. 972. No animals/reptiles shall be carried by air without permission from A. a doctor, authorised for it. B. NAA. C. DGCA under rule 34-A. D. DGCA under rule 24-C.
964. Balloon is A. aerostat. B. aerodyne. C. kite. D. All are correct. 965. 'Contracting state' means any state which is for the time being a party to A. a convention on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7, 1944. B. a suit on International Civil Aviation concluded at Chicago on December 7 1944. C. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at New York on December 7 1944. D. an agreement on Indian Civil Aviation concluded at Delhi on December 7, 1944.
973. Minimum age for solo control of aeroplane is A. 16 years. B. 17 years. C. 18 years. D. 21 years. 974. Minimum age for solo control of glider is A. 16 years. B. 17 years. C. 18 years. D. 21 years.
966. Convention means A. the convention relating to ICAO. B. the convention relating to air safety. C. the convention relating to air traffic. D. the convention relating to International air safety.
975. Minimum age of issue of CPL is A. 16 years. B. 17 years. C. 18 years. D. 21 years.
967. 'Dangerous goods' means A. explosive. B. non-explosive. C. any good which is likely to endanger the safety of aircraft or person or thing on board the aircraft. D. All are correct.
976. No paper containing printed matter shall be dropped from aircraft unless written permission of A. District Magistrate is obtained. B. Commissioner of Police is obtained. C. Director Air Safety is obtained. D. Both a and b are correct.
968. Flying machine/s may be A. helicopter. B. aeroplane. C. gyroplane. D. All are correct.
977. For aircraft having a seating capacity of not less than 10 and not more than 50 passengers the number of cabin attendents required are A. one. B. two. C. three. D. four.
969. State aircraft includes A. military aircraft. B. State Government aircraft. C. Central Government aircraft. D. All are correct.
978. contracting state as per aircraft rules means any state A. that has signed a bilateral agreement with a nother state. 64
B. contracted for any particular condition for carriage of passengers. C. which is for the time being a party to convention of the ICAO. D. which is for the time being a party to ICAO. 979. Aircraft rule 62 deals with A. fee payable for all licence exams of DGCA. B. fee payable for AME licence exams of DGCA. C. fee payable for renewaql of AME licence exam. D. Both b and c are correct.
D. None is correct. 987. Slaughtering of animal is prohibited within A. 5 km of aeroplane reference point. B. a radius of 8 km of aerodrome. C. a radius of 10 km of aerodrome reference point. D. a radius of 5 km of aerodrome reference point. 988. Period of validity of aerodrome licence is A. one year. B. two years. C. five years. D. ten years.
980. Aircraft 69 refers to A. notification of accidents. B. report on accidents. C. removed and preservation of damaged aricraft. D. Both a and b are correct. 981. When an accident occurs it has to be notified by the PIC/operator/owner to the A. DGCA. B. District Magistrate. C. DM & officer-in-charge of the nearest police station. D. as in (c) and (a). 982. Information of accident to DGCA shall be made within A. an hour of occurrence. B. 12 hours of occurrence. C. 24 hours of occurrence. D. 48 hours of occurrence. 983. Initial accident information to DGCA shall contain A. nationality and registration marks of the aircraft. B. the region in which the aircraft is based. C. cause of accident. D. all are correct. 984. Passenger and crew's personal luggage shall be removed from a wrecked aircraft under the supervision of A. a magistrate. B. an officer of police department. C. an officer of CAD. D. All are correct. 985. Mails from a wrecked aircraft shall be removed under the supervision of A. a magistrate. B. an officer of CAD. C. an officer of post and telegraph department. D. All are correct.
989. Route guide contains A. communication facilities, navigation aids available on the route to be flown. B. meterological minima for each of the aerodromes to be flown. C. instruments let down procedure for aerodrome on route. D. as in a.b.c and specific instruments for computation of the quantities of fuel and oil to be carrie don board. 990. An applicant for Assistant Flight Instructor rating shall be of atleast A. 19 years. B. 20 years. C. 21 years. D. 25 years. 991. Air traffic control service means a service provided for purpose of A. signalling aircraft. B. preventing collisions between aircraft. C. manoeuvring and obstruction. D. All are correct. 992. Cruising level means level maintained during A. descent. B. ascent. C. straight and level flight. D. significant portion of a flight. 993. Area over which flight by aircraft is prohibited, is A. the area included within in a radius of 1 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay. B. the area included within in a radius of 2 km from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay. C. the area included within in a radius of 1 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay. D. the area included within in a radius of 2 mile from the tower of silence on Malabar Hills, Bombay. 994. Student for issuance of student pilot licence shall pass A. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology.
986. Investigation of accident is carried out in A. one way. B. two ways. C. three ways. 65
B. a written examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology air navigation. C. an oral examination in air regualtion aircraft and engine aviation meteorology. D. an oral examination in air regulation aircraft and engine aviation meteorology and air navigation. 995. An applicant for issuance of private pilot licence shall produce evidence of having flown A. 15 hours solo. B. 20 hours solo. C. 25 hours solo. D. 30 hours solo. 996. Cross country flight for issuance of PPL licence may be a flight to a point beyond A. 10 nm from the aerodrome of departure. B. 20 nm from the aerodrome of departure. C. 30 nm from the aerodrome of departure. D. 40 nm from the aerodrome of departure. 997. An applicant for issuance of private pilot must have at least A. one full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure. B. two full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure. C. three full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure. D. four full stop landing at a suitable aerodrome, other than the aerodrom of departure. 998. The validity of PPL is A. 12 months from the date of issue. B. 24 months from the date of issue. C. 12 months from the date of issue for person below 38 years of age. D. 12 months from the date of issue for person above 38 years of age. 999. Night rating is valid only when the licence holder has carried out 5 take-off and 5 landing by night as pilot in command within the A. preceding 3 months. B. preceding 6 months. C. preceding 9 months. D. preceding 12 months. 1000. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so that there is a danger of collision A. each shall alter its heading to the right. B. each shall alter its heading to the left. C. one shall dive and other shall climb. D. all are correct. 1001. an overtaking aircraft is a aircraft that approaches another from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than A. 60 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. 66
B. 70 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. C. 80 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. D. 90 degrees with the plane of symmtry of the latter. 1002. When two or more heavier than aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing A. aircraft at higher altitude shall land first. B. aircraft at lower altitude shall land first. C. aircraft at higher altitude shall give way to aircraft at the lower altitude. D. aircraft at lower altitude shall give way to aircraft at the higher altitude. 1003. Aerobatic in aircraft shall be carried out at a height of at least A. 500 m above the ground. B. 600 m above the ground. C. 1000 m above the ground. D. 2000 m above the ground. 1004. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ground visibility is less than A. 3 kms. B. 5 kms. C. 8 kms. D. 10 kms. 1005. VFR flight within a control zone shall not be conducted if the ceiling is less than A. 200 m. B. 300 m. C. 500 m. D. 1000 m. 1006. Which of the signal means that grave and imminent danger threatens and immediate assistance is requested A. a parachute flare showing red light. B. a signal sent by radio telegraphy saying "MAYDAY". C. rocket or shells throwing red light. D. All are correct. 1007. The two flag signals corresponding to the letter NC of the international code of signal means A. urgency signal. B. assistance signal. C. distress signal. D. All are correct. 1008. Which of the following is an urgency signal? A. Repeated switching on and off of the landing light. B. Repeated switching on and off of the navigation light. C. a succession of white pyrotechnical light. D. all are correct. 1009. A signal said by a radio telegraphy consisting of spoken work "SECURITE" means
A. urgency signal. B. distress signal. C. safety signal. D. All are correct.
A. land on runway. B. land, take off on runway. C. taxi on tzxiway only. D. All are correct.
1010. A series of green flashes from aerodrome traffic control means A. clear to land. B. clear for take off. C. return for landing. D. All are correct.
1018. A horizontal white dumbel with black bar perpendicular to the shaft across each portion of the dumbel indicates that aircraft are required A. to land & take off on runway only. B. other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways. C. taxi on taxi ways only. D. Both a and b are correct.
1011. A steady red light directed towards the aircraft in flight means A. aerodrome unsafe do not land. B. do not land for the time being. C. give way to other aircraft and continue circulating. D. None is correct. 1012. A series of white flashes directed towards an aircraft in flight means A. return for landing. B. return to starting point on the aerodrom. C. clear to take. D. All are corret. 1013. Red pyrotechnical light directed towards an aircraft flight means A. stop approach. B. aerodrome unsafe do not land. C. not with-standing any previous instructions do not land for time being. D. All are correct. 1014. A steady green light direted towards an aircraft on the ground means A. cleared for taxi. B. taxi clear of landing area in use. C. cleared for take off. D. return to dispersal. 1015. A series of red flashes directed towards an aircraft on the ground means A. return to starting point on the aerodrome. B. aerodrome unsafe do not land. C. taxi clear of landing area in use. D. returned for landing. 1016. A horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals indicate that A. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited. B. landing at the aerodrome is prohibited and the prohibition is liable to be prolonged. C. special precaution must be observed in approaching to land. D. special precaution must be observed in landing. 1017. Horizontal dumbel indicates that the aircraft are required to 67
1019. Crosses of white colour displayed horizontally on the manoeuvring area indicates that area is A. fit for landing. B. fit for movement of aircraft. C. unfit for movement of aircraft. D. None is correct. 1020. A black ball displayed on a mast and clearly visible to the aircraft on the manoeuvring area indicates that A. the direction of take off is to be decided by PIC. B. the direction of take off is to be verified with the aerodrome control tower. C. the aircraft can take off from any direction. D. None is correct. 1021. The letter 'C' displayed vertically in black against yellow background indicates A. the place at which weather information are available. B. the place at which report concerning air traffic services are made. C. the place at which catering facility is available. D. None is correct. 1022. Whoever wilfully flies any aircraft in such a manner as to cause danger to any person or to any property on land or water or in air shall be punishable with imprisonment up to A. 3 months. B. 6 months. C. 9 months. D. 12 months. 1023. A signal man repeatedly crosses arms above his head indicate A. a straight ahead signal. B. a stop signal. C. power cut signal. D. All are correct. 1024. Left arm downward, right arm repeatedly moved upward and backward is a signal for A. turn to y9our left. B. turn to your right. C. start right engine.
D. start left engine. 1025. Arms down palm facing in-wards swing arms from extended position inwards in a signal for A. chocks away. B. insert chocks. C. start moving. D. cut power.
1033. For tail to star board point left arm down and right arm brought from overhead vertical position to horizontal forward position repeating right arm movement A. turn while backing. B. straight back. C. this bay. D. all clear.
1026. Circular motion of right hand at head level with left arm pointing to the engine is a signal to A. start engine. B. start turning. C. rate of turning. D. slow turning.
1034. Arms extended horizontally sideways is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. keep hovering. B. move upward. C. move downwards. D. None is correct.
1027. Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward is signal for A. slow down. B. cut motor. C. start engine. D. None is correct.
1035. Arms extended horizontally to the beckoning upwards with palms turned up is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. move side ways. B. move down wards. C. move up wards. D. None is correct.
1028. Arms down with palm towards ground then moved up and down several times is a signal for A. slow down. B. speed up. C. expedite taxi. D. None is correct. 1029. Arms down palms facing outwards swing arms outwards is a signal for A. slow down. B. cut motors. C. chocks away. D. insert chocks. 1030. Arms down with palms towards grounds, then either right or left hand waved up and down indicating that A. slow down motor on left side. B. slow down motor on right side. C. slow down motor on indicated side. D. None is correct. 1031. Arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inwards is a signal for A. all clear. B. this bay. C. straight back. D. slow down. 1032. Arms above head in vertical position palms facing forward brought down quickly to horizontal forward position repeating is a signal for A. straight ahead. B. straight back. C. this bay. D. all clear. 68
1036. Appropriate arm extended horizontally sideways in direction of movement and other arm swing in front of body in same direction, in a repating movement is a signal for hovering helicopters to A. move horizontally. B. move partially. C. move upwards. D. move downwards. 1037. Arms crossed and extended downwards in front of the body is a signal for hovering helicopter to A. land. B. move horizontally. C. move downwards. D. move upwards. 1038. No pilot of a flying machine shall in his capacity as such pilot, fly for more than A. 100 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. B. 125 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. C. 150 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. D. 75 hours during any period of 30 consecutive days. 1039. Log books of flight crew personnel shall be preserved for a period of not less than A. 2 years for the date of last entry. B. 3 years for the date of last entry. C. 4 years for the date of last entry. D. 5 years for the date of last entry.
1040. An open rating is given for all conventional types of aeroplanes having an AUW A. not exceeding 450 kg. B. not exceeding 500 kg. C. not exceeding 1000 kg. D. not exceeding 1500 kg. 1041. A pilot opting for open rating shall have not less than A. 150 hours of flight time as PIC. B. 200 hours of flight time as PIC. C. 250 hours of flight time as PIC. D. 500 hours of flight time as PIC. 1042. For night rating a pilot must have at least A. 20 hours of night flight as PIC. B. 50 hours of night flight as PIC. C. 100 hours of night flight as PIC. D. 150 hours of night flight as PIC. 1043. The projection on the earth surface of the path of an aircraft the direction of which at any point is usually expressed in degrees from true north is called A. true heading. B. magnetic heading. C. track. D. None is correct. 1044. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group XXX means A. distress signal. B. urgency signal. C. safety signal. D. None is correct. 1045. A radio-telegraphy signal consisting of group 'TTT' means A. PAN PAN signal. B. urgency signal. C. May-day signal. D. safety signal. 1046. The period of validity of a CPL for a person over 40 years but below 45 years is A. 24 months. B. 18 months. C. 12 months. D. 6 months. 1047. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by night which shall consist of a flight on stipulated route of not less than A. 60 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere. B. 100 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere. C. 120 mm, returning to place of departure without landing elsewhere. D. None is correct. 69
1048. A person for issue of CPL shall undergo cross country flying test by day and shall consist of a flight on a stipulated route of not less than A. 150nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome. B. 200 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome. C. 250 nm, with one full stop landing on designated aerodrome. D. All are correct. 1049. Aircraft certified in experimental or amateur category are those which are built for A. Development or Research. B. Sports. C. Education. D. all are correct. 1050. Experimental or amateur built aircraft can be flown only by persons having at least A. ATPL. B. SCPL. C. CPL. D. PPL. 1051. DGCA inspection carried out in case of amateur built aircraft are A. Pre-cover inspection. B. Final Airworthiness Inspection. C. Precover and Final Inspection. D. None is correct. 1052. Maintenance of amateur built aircraft can be carried out by A. any AME. B. by any person acceptable to DGCA. C. any approved person. D. All are correct. 1053. It is mandatory for amateur built aircraft that A. 50 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME. B. 100 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME. C. 200 Hrs and above inspection to be carried out by AME. D. 100 Hrs/C of A renewal to be carried out by AME. 1054. 'Permit to Fly' of an aircraft is valid A. for 3 months. B. for 6 months. C. for 12 months. D. Until C of A is issued. 1055. Initially the life of amateur built aircraft is restricted to A. 10 years. B. 5 years. C. 2 years.
D. 1 year. 1056. Experimental built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at least A. 50 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. B. 25 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. C. 10 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. D. 5 Hrs for a type certified engine/propeller combination. 1057. Amateur built aircraft will initially be limited to operation within an assigned flight test area for at least A. 50 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. B. 40 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. C. 30 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. D. 20 Hrs for an uncertified engine/propeller combination. 1058. The acceptable standard of Quality Assurance for aircraft manufactured in India is A. ISO 9000. B. ISO 9001. C. ISO 8000. D. ISO 2000. 1059. Global positioning system at present is accepted as A. an aid to navigation. B. sole means of navigation. C. a replacement to GNS. D. none is correct. 1060. Barreled AV Gas should be stored under cover, clear off the ground on their sides with the bungs A. in the 3'O clock position. B. in the 5'O clock position. C. in the 7'O clock position. D. in 3 or 9'O clock position.
1062. The upper sample of fuel is taken from upto A. 1/10th of the depth of the product below surface. B. 1/8th of the depth of the product below surface. C. 1/6th of the depth of the product below surface. D. 1/4th of the depth of the product below surface.
a depth the top the top the top the top
1063. Fuel sampling shall be carried out preferrably before A. 10 am. B. 8 am. C. 6 am. D. 5 am. 1064. pressure Gauges, Thermometers, Hydrometers used for inspection of fuel should be calibrated every A. 3 months. B. 6 months. C. 12 months. D. 2 years. 1065. A clean room as per CAR series I part IV should always A. be slightly pressurised. B. be slightly below the normal pressure. C. be at prevailing outside atmospheric pressure. D. be at sea level pressure. 1066. A clean room as per CAR series I Part IV in general should have a humidity level of not less than A. 10%. B. 20%. C. 30%. D. 40%. 1067. Certificate of First Aid Kit should be signed by A. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree. B. A doctor holding at least MBBS degree and it should also be endorsed by an AME. C. Any Registered Medical Practitioner. D. a and c are correct. 1068. Production Test Flight of 'Series' type of aircraft can be carried out by A. a person holding at least CPL on that type of aircraft. B. a person holding at least ATPL on that type of aircraft. C. a person specifically endorsed for Test Flight. D. a person holding at least CPL and approved by DGCA to carry out production Test Flight.
1061. Fuel samples should be checked for A. traces of sediments. B. Globules of water. C. Cloudiness. D. All are correct.
70
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) OF PAPER-2 1. Engineering Drawing is a representation of object: A. In Roman language. B. As a graphic representation. C. Printing. D. None of the above.
9. Engineering Drawing gives the details of any object: A. Shape. B. Size. C. All information required for manufacture or inspection of the object. D. Material.
2. Set squares are used in Engineering Drawing to draw. A. Horizontal lines. B. Vertical lines. C. Straight lines. D. All straight lines except horizontal lines.
10. The instrument used to draw irregular curves of changing radius is called : A. Bow compass. B. Compass. C. French curve. D. Divider.
3. Compass is used in Engineering Drawing to draw. A. Circles of 15 cm radius. B. Draw circles of 30 mm radius without attachment bar. C. Draw circles of 30 cm radius with attachment bar. D. Draw circles of 30 mm radius with attachment bar.
11. Thickness of Drawing board is : A. 15 mm. B. 20 mm. C. 26 mm. D. 25 mm.
4. Eraser should be used to. A. Erase the unwanted line. B. Erase the unwanted line. C. Erase the unwanted line without erasing the surrounding wanted lines. D. Both B & C.
12. The pencil used for drawing should be kept sharp to stab should not be. A. Less than 60 mm. B. More than 85 mm. C. Less than 75 mm. D. More than 65 mm.
5. Dividers are used in Engineering drawing to. A. Divide curved or straight line. B. To transfer dimensions from one part of the drawing to another part. C. Set off given distances. D. All the above.
13. An angle which is more than 180 degree but less than 360 degree is ;A. Obtuse angle. B. Straight angle. C. Reflex angle. D. Adjacent angle.
6. For fixing the paper draughting tape and chips are used because. A. It appears good. B. It hold the drawing paper and board. C. It will not damage the paper or board. D. Both B & C.
14. When two angles together make 180 deg They are said to be. A. Complementary angles. B. Supplementary angles. C. Reflex angles. D. Acute angles.
7. In the figure ellipse the line passing through center perpendicular to major axis is called: A. Shorter axis. B. Minor axis. C. Longer axis. D. None of the above.
15. When two angles together make 90 deg they are said to be. A. Supplementary angle. B. Acute angle. C. Adjacent angle. D. Complementary angle.
8. Engineering Drawing language for who are engaged in: A. Manufacturing. B. Inspection. C. Maintenance work. D. All the above.
16. Modern Roman letter is consisting of. A. Thick lines. B. Thin lines. C. Wide lines. D. Heavy and light line.
71
17. In engineering Drawing normal lettering ratio height and width is. A. 9:6. B. 6:2. C. 3:1. D. 7:4.
D. Perspective. 26. In third angle projection method. A. The view from the above placed underneath and vice versa. B. The view from the above placed above and vice versa. C. The view from the left placed on the left and vice versa. D. Both B & C.
18. Good style of lettering should aim at. A. Uniformity of thickness. B. Uniformity of shape, size and style. C. Uniformity of spacing. D. All the above.
27. In first angle projection method the projection are made on. A. Elevation projected on VP. B. Plan projected on HP. C. End view projected on auxiliary plane (right to left). D. All the above.
19. At the bottom of the drawing sheet to make title block the line used is. A. Thin line. B. Medium line. C. Thick line. D. Extra thick line.
28. The representation fraction or scale of drawing is equal to. A. Length of object in the drawing by actual length of the object. B. Width of the object in the drawing by actual width of the object. C. Area of the object in the drawing by actual area of the object. D. Either B or C.
20. Wider lines are drawn as. A. Short dashes. B. Short and long dashes. C. Short dashes closely and evenly spaced. D. Short double dashes. 21. The breaks used on cylindrical metal are often refers to as. A. F brakes. B. L brakes. C. T breaks. D. S breaks.
29. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111 A. -11011. B. - 00100. C. + 11011. D. + 00100.
22. The following lines are drawn as thin lines. A. Section lines. B. Center lines. C. Outline. D. Both A & B.
30. Complement of a complement equal to A. Zero. B. Complement. C. One. D. Original.
23. The ratio of the dimension of the drawing to the corresponding dimension of the object is the. A. Isometric drawing. B. Oblique drawing. C. Representation factor. D. Both B & C.
31. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the number that results when : A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
24. One of the three dimensional drawing but far side will appear converging is known as : A. Isometric drawing. B. Oblique drawing. C. Perspective drawing. D. Non pictorial drawing.
32. Binary equivalent of 34.4(8) is : A. 10100.1100. B. 11000.0011. C. 10011.0101. D. 11100.100.
25. In Engineering drawing, if the length is drawn half the actual length and face at an angle of 450 drawing is known as : A. Isometric. B. Cabinet. C. Cavalier.
33. Among the following, the output device in a computer is: A. Key board. B. Printer. C. Mouse. D. Joy stick. 72
34. Many dot matrix printers are: A. Unidirectional. B. Tri-directional. C. Bi-directional. D. Quadra-directional.
C. Compass. D. French curve. 43. In the blue print process, when sensitized paper is washed in running water, the portion covered by black tracing line turn in to: A. Blue. B. White. C. Red. D. Green.
35. Compass is used to draw circles of: A. Up to 25 cm. B. up to 10 cm. C. up to 20 cm. D. up to 15 cm.
44. Triangles or set squares comes in pair of: A. 450- 1200- 1800 and 600 - 900 -1800 B. 450 - 600 -900 and 600 - 900. - 1800 C. 450 - 900 - 450 and 300 - 900 - 600 D. 450 - 600 - 1800 and 300 - 900 - 600
36. T' Square is used for: A. Drawing horizontal line. B. Drawing vertical line. C. Drawing curved line. D. Drawing semi circular line.
45. In convention of lines, thinnest line a draftsman is able to draw is: A. 20 mm. B. 0.02 mm. C. 0.20 mm. D. 0.002 mm.
37. Now a days fixing the paper on the board, the following pins is used: A. Drawing pin. B. Round head pin. C. Clips and tape. D. Paper pin.
46. A good style of lettering should aim at: A. Uniformity of thickness. B. Uniformity of shape and size. C. Uniformity of spacing and style. D. All the above.
38. Colour of paper usually used in Engineering Drawing is: A. Black. B. Blue. C. Brown. D. White.
47. The inclination angle in a slanting type of lettering is: A. 95 deg. B. 85 deg. C. 75 deg. D. 65 deg.
39. If two angles together make 90 deg, they are said to be: A. Straight angle. B. Complementary angle. C. Reflex angle. D. Adjacent angle.
48. An instrument used for making curve lines is known as: A. French curve. B. File pad. C. Shield. D. Square.
40. One of the three dimensional drawing far side will appear converging is known as: A. Isometric drawing. B. Oblique drawing. C. Perspective drawing. D. Non-pictorial drawing.
49. Leader lines are used for: A. Decoration. B. Projection. C. Dimension. D. Section.
41. The special tool drafting machine marked on drawing board does not cover the function of: A. T' Square. B. Set Square. C. Compass. D. Protractor.
50. In engineering drawing, a thick free hand irregular lines indicate: A. Break line. B. Section line. C. Adjacent parts. D. Parts to be sectioned.
42. The drawing tool, which is used to draw or measure such angle, which cannot be withdrawn with set square is: A. Protractor. B. Bow compass. 73
51. When two angles together make 180 deg , they are said to be: A. Supplementary angle. B. Complementary angle. C. Acute angle. D. Obtuse angle.
B. Elevator. C. Aileron. D. Fin. 60. Hinged rear positions of the main plane which move in the same direction on Port and Star board wings are: A. Elevator. B. Aileron. C. Fin. D. Flaps.
52. A drawing of an entirely finished product with the components assembled together in the correct relative position is known as: A. Detail drawing. B. Assembly drawing. C. Pictorial drawing. D. General drawing.
61. A fixed vertical surface affecting the directional stability of an aero plane is : A. Rudder. B. Fin. C. Flaps. D. Elevator.
53. To show yards, feet and inches on a scale, the scale will be suitably constructed as: A. Plain scale. B. RF scale. C. Diagonal scale. D. Vernier scale.
62. A fixed horizontal surface situated at the rear of an aircraft affecting the longitudinal stability is : A. Main plane. B. Fuselage. C. Tail plane. D. Fin.
54. A thick small dash and two small dashes are used in the line to express. A. Long break. B. Short break. C. Cutting plane. D. Hidden parts.
63. One of the thrust augmentation device used in jet engine is : A. Exhaust pipe. B. Turbine. C. After burner. D. Compressor.
55. Dot matrix printer is an example of: A. Line printer. B. Laser printer. C. Drum printer. D. Character printer.
64. A supporting surface of a aerodyne is : A. Main plane. B. Tail plane. C. Fuselage. D. Fin.
56. A keyboard is a most common: A. Memory unit. B. Input device. C. Control device. D. Output device.
65. The capacity of a material to absorb the energy in elastic range. A. strength. B. stiffness. C. resilience. D. Resistance.
57. A movable vertical surface for controlling the motion of an aerodyne about the normal axis is: A. Rudder. B. Elevator. C. Aileron. D. Fin.
66. The property being permanently extended or flattened by hammering rolling or pressing without rupture. A. Elasticity. B. Swaging. C. Malleability. D. Tenacity.
58. The left side of an aircraft when facing the front as seen from the cockpit is : A. Star board. B. Port side. C. Rear side. D. None of the above.
67. The property whereby a metal can be drawn out into a wire with out cracking. A. Elasticity. B. Ductility. C. Savaging.
59. Movable aerofoil situated at the rear end of each wing and designed to impart a rolling movement to the aerodyne about longitudinal axis is
A. Rudder. 74
D. Drawing.
D. Extrusion.
68. The liability of a metal to fracture on receiving a blow or shock. A. Malleability. B. Tenacity. C. Fusibility. D. Brittleness.
77. The body of a twist drill is lesser in diameter towards the shank end by: A. 0.002". B. 0.001". C. 0.004". D. 0.003".
69. The permissible difference in dimension to allow for various fits is termed as : A. Clearance. B. Allowance. C. Resistance. D. Tolerance.
78. Hide faced hammer is classified by: A. Size and weight. B. Type and weight of the head in ounce. C. Weight only. D. The number stamped on it. 79. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under a constant stress is called: A. Strength. B. Creep. C. Resilience. D. Stiffness.
70. Pig Iron is. A. weak and brittle. B. ductile and malleable. C. Hard and Brittle. D. none of the above. 71. The cast steel is produced by : A. Cementation process. B. Crucible process. C. Open hearth process. D. Electric process.
80. The property of a material to resist heat and electricity is known as. A. Stiffness. B. Resistivity. C. Conductivity. D. Ductility.
72. Pure iron has a tensile strength of : A. 20 Tons /Sq.inch. B. 18 Tons/ Sq Inch. C. 55 Tons / Sq inch. D. 50 Tons / Sq inch.
81. The straight part of the tread, which connect the crest and root is known as: A. Crest. B. Flank. C. Root. D. Thread angle.
73. Pig iron is used as the basic material for producing A. Cast iron. B. Cast iron, wrought iron and steel by suitable process. C. Marking off and surface plate. D. Steel.
82. While soldering low voltage ceramic capacitors, the soldering time should be kept less than 5 seconds, and temperature should not exceed A. 3500C. B. 2000C. C. 2250C. D. 2500C.
74. The constituents of brass are: A. Copper, Zinc. B. Copper, Tin. C. Tin, Lead. D. Copper, Lead.
83. Hand brace is used for drilling small holes up to: A. 1/2" diameter. B. 1/8" diameter. C. 1/4" diameter. D. 1" diameter.
75. Metal is a substance which posses certain physical properties such as: A. They conduct heat or electricity. B. They generally have ringing tones. C. They have metallic lusture or shine. D. All the above.
84. The accuracy of micrometer in metric system is: A. 0.02 mm. B. 0.01 mm. C. 0.05 mm. D. 0.04 mm.
76. Forcing plastic material through die of required shape by means of hydraulic pressure is called: A. Plasticity. B. Swaging. C. Stamping.
85. Large component and number of parts can be soldered in one operation by: A. Hard soldering. 75
B. Sweat soldering. C. Dip soldering. D. Silver soldering.
A. Flux. B. Solvent. C. Solder. D. Wax.
86. A type of thread used for transmitting great pressure in one direction only, is called: A. Worm thread. B. Acme thread. C. Square thread. D. Buttress thread.
95. Brazing is used to give strong joint for: A. Brass. B. Zinc. C. Nickel. D. Silver.
87. To calibrate the torque wrenches, the number of comparison reading required at least is: A. Two times. B. Three times. C. Five times. D. Six times.
96. In aluminothermic soldering iron, the source of heat is: A. Brazing lamp. B. MOX tablet. C. Electrical heating element. D. Open flame.
88. In switch board connection, the red coloured cable is used for: A. Earth line. B. Neutral line. C. Live line. D. Lifeline.
97. The key seat rule is made of: A. Graphite carbon steel. B. Spring carbon steel. C. Low carbon steel. D. High carbon steel. 98. All the precision instruments are made of: A. Invar steel. B. Silver. C. Nickel. D. Steel.
89. The size of split pins is determined by its: A. Diameter and colour code. B. Diameter and length. C. Diameter and breadth. D. Diameter and material.
99. The accuracy of the feeler gauge for measuring thickness is: A. 0.001". B. 0.004". C. 0.005". D. 0.003".
90. The type of locking device suitable for Pressurised cabin, fuel and oil tanks is A. Nylon stiff nut. B. Phillips stiff nut. C. Air tight stiff nut. D. Nyloc cap nut.
100. The type of capacitor suitable for use in AC circuits such as in AC motor starter is : A. Paper capacitor. B. Electrolytic capacitor. C. Polorised electrolytic condenser. D. Non-polarized electrolytic capacitor.
91. Lubricating oil is graded by: A. Colour. B. Amount of hydro carbon present. C. Code. D. Viscosity. 92. Lubricant oil is mixture of: A. Trichloroplylene. B. Fluid lubricants. C. Hydro carbon. D. Non-leaded petrol.
101. The tenacity with which a magnetic material holds on to its magnetism is called : A. Coercive force. B. Retentivity. C. Coercivity. D. Magnetic Hysterisis.
93. Use correct size of spanner so that: A. The over tightening is avoided. B. The time delay is avoided. C. The possibility of cross threading is avoided. D. The bolt head or nut is not damaged.
102. In DC generator staggering slots are used to minimize ripple in the. A. Input voltage. B. Input and out put voltage. C. Output voltage. D. Output current.
94. A filler material used to join the parent metal is known as: 76
103. The total capacitance in an electrical circuit having three capacitors of 2 micro farads, 3 micro farads and 6 micro farads connected in series: A. 11F. B. 11 mF. C. 0.1 mF. D. 10 F.
A. Fleming's right hand rule. B. Fleming's left hand rule. C. Faraday's law. D. Lenz's law. 112. The total capacitance in electrical circuit having three capacitors of 2mF, 3mF and 6mF connected in series is: A. 11 F. B. 11 Mf. C. 1 F. D. 1 mF.
104. In iron cored transformer with 8: 1 ratio is connected to 120V mains, the voltage across secondary will be: A. 20 V. B. 15 V. C. 10 V. D. 25 V.
113. By decreasing the flux, the speed a shunt motor will be: A. Remain constant. B. Increase. C. Decrease. D. Diminish because torque is insufficient.
105. For high voltage the insulator used is: A. Trace paper. B. Melinex. C. Impregnated. D. Tissue paper.
114. Kirchoff's law are more comprehensive than ohms law are used for solving: A. Electrical conductance. B. Electrical temperature co efficient. C. Electrical resistance network. D. Electrical net work.
106. Any machine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is known as. A. Motor. B. Stator. C. Generator. D. Amplifier.
115. Resistance offered by 100 cm length of wire having an area of cross section of 100cm.sq. is called:
A. Specific temp. co- efficient. B. Specific conductance. C. Specific co-efficient. D. Specific resistance.
107. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the direction of: A. Field. B. Motion of the conductor. C. Direction of induced emf. D. Direction of current.
116. The isometric drawing represent three dimensions of the object: A. Lenght, breadth and height of the object. B. Breadth, height and are of the object. C. Height, lenght and circumference of the object. D. Length, breadth, height and depth of the object.
108. In delta connected alternators the 3 phase windings are joined in: A. Auto transformer. B. Step up transformer. C. Step down transformer. D. Voltage transformer.
117. Computer which doesn't compute directly with the number is called : A. Mini computer. B. Micro computer. C. Digital computer. D. Analog computer.
109. In transformerif K is greater than one, then the transformer is called: A. Greater accuracy. B. Robust in construction. C. To provide equal amount of frequency. D. Cooling purpose.
118. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary : A. 111. B. 1110. C. 10000. D. 1111.
110. The maximum value, positive or negative of an alternating quantity is known as: A. Time period. B. Frequency. C. Amplitude. D. Cycle.
119. Which of the following is not octal number: A. 19. B. 7. C. 15. D. 101.
111. The direction of motion of a DC motor is given by: 77
120. Junction diode is a : A. Bipolar device. B. Constant voltage device. C. Unipolar device. D. Constant current device.
129. Semiconductor memory in computer is based on A. Magnetic circuit operation. B. Transformer operation. C. Transistor operation. D. Non magnetic circuit operation.
121. A register stores : A. One word of data. B. A byte. C. One instruction. D. 4 bits data.
130. The only function of a NOT gate is to: A. Stop a signal. B. Re-complement a signal. C. Invert an input signal. D. Act as a universal gate.
122. Not gate is known as : A. Converter. B. Inverter. C. Rectifier. D. Amplifier.
131. The first generation computer was introduced with: A. Solid state transistors. B. Vacuum tubes. C. Chips. D. IC's.
123. Computer hardware usually refers to : A. Hard metallic component of a computer. B. Various associated program. C. CPU. D. Central processor input/output devices and backing storage.
132. Pitot pressure is connected to: A. Altimeter. B. ROCI. C. ASI. D. Cabin altimeter.
124. Which of the statement is correct : A. NAND gate = Bubbled AND gate. B. NOR gate =Bubbled OR gate. C. Bubbled OR gate = NAND gate. D. AND gate = OR and NOR gate.
133. Any error in indication of accelerometer along the horizontal axis is cancelled by: A. A strong coiled spring. B. Two compensating sector gears. C. The restraining springs. D. The stop spring fitted both sides.
125. In high level language, the source program is translated into object program with the help of : A. Computer. B. Converter. C. Compiler. D. Translator.
134. The principle of accelerometer is that two masses electrically suspended in parallel about: A. Vertical axis. B. Arthwardship axis. C. Fore and aft axis. D. ' Z' Axis.
126. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is applied to a NOT gate its output signal is a: A. 01011. B. 10101. C. 10100. D. 00101.
135. The type of damping used in accelerometer type 480/01 is: A. Eddy current damping. B. Low viscosity oil type damping. C. Air damping. D. Calculated spring type of damping.
127. Truth table of a logic functions : A. Summaries its output value. B. Tabulates all its input conditions. C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. D. Is not based on the logic algebra.
136. Moving coil instrument can be used to measure: A. AC only. B. DC and AC. C. DC or rectified AC. D. AC and pulsating DC.
128. A static memory is one that. A. Is capable of storing binary information indefinitely. B. Requires periodic restoration of information. C. Is volatile. D. Has destructive read out.
137. The oscillation of the pointer about its final deflected position in a indicating instrument is minimized by: A. Controlling force. B. Damping force. C. Restoring force. D. Balancing force. 78
138. Moving coil instrument works on the principle of: A. Fleming's left hand rule. B. Fleming's right hand rule. C. Kirchoff's law. D. Generator principle.
147. In ratio meter type thermometer, the two coils in moving coil unit is so connected that the torque produced by them: A. Oppose each other. B. Assist each other. C. Are in same direction. D. Do not influence each other.
139. In bourden tube pressure gauge, the indicating mechanism is coupled to the: A. Open end of the tube. B. Free end of the tube. C. Either a or b. D. None of the above.
148. Variable capacitance of the tank circuit measures the quantity of fuel in the fuel contents gauge indicator in a form of: A. Alternating current. B. Direct current. C. AC or DC. D. Fluctuating direct current.
140. In bourden tube for measuring very high ranges, the tube is made of: A. Phosphor bronze. B. Mild steel. C. Beralium bronze. D. Beralium copper.
149. The float arm type fuel content gauges work on the principle of: A. Selsyn transmission system. B. Desyn transmitting system. C. Magnesyn transmission system. D. Variable capacitance system.
141. In moving coil instrument, the temperature variation is compensated by: A. The air gap between pole pieces and former. B. A weak small permanent magnet. C. The variation of current in the moving coil. D. Two hair springs coiled in opposite direction.
150. In float arm type fuel content gauge, the pointer returns to off scale position by: A. Hair spring. B. A strong permanent magnet. C. Coil. D. Weak permanent magnet.
142. In torque measuring system, indicator work on: A. Selsyn system. B. Desyn system. C. Data Selsyn system. D. Two wire Selsyn system.
151. The vapour pressure type thermometer is used for measuring: A. The temperature of engine oil. B. Coolant temperature in liquid cooled engine. C. Temperature of fuel in the tank. D. Humidity of air.
143. The ammeter used to measure AC only is: A. Electromagnetic type. B. Permanent magnet type. C. Induction type. D. Moving iron type.
152. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve is prevented by: A. Capacitor. B. Suppressor grid. C. Control grid. D. Choke.
144. In tachometer indicator, the pointer movement is controlled by: A. The drag cup. B. The permanent magnet. C. A hair spring. D. The interaction of the magnetic fields.
153. The common base PNP junction transistor has reverse biased arrangement between: A. Emitter and base. B. Emitter and collector. C. Collector and base. D. Base and emitter.
145. Oscillation of the pointer at lower range of Tacho indicator may be due to: A. Defective indicator. B. Synchronizing point is too low. C. Two indicators are connected in parallel. D. Indicator not being in synchronism with generator.
154. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is reverse biased, collector current: A. Is reversed. B. Increases. C. Decreases. D. Stops.
146. Tachometer indicator comprises a: A. Three phase induction motor. B. Three phase, self starting synchronous motor. C. Three phase synchronous motor. D. Single phase, self starting synchronous motor. 79
155. If acid is splashed in eyes, it should be washed with : A. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate. B. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate and plenty of water. C. 2% solution of nitrogen. D. 5% solution of alkali and plenty of water.
B. Cast Iron. C. Pig iron. D. Both (a) and (c.). 165. The properties of nickel are. A. Hard, brittle ad corrosion resistant. B. Hard, ductile, corrosion resistant, withstand high tempt. C. Soft, poor corrosion resistant and brittle. D. soft, ductile, malleable, corrosion resistant.
156. Pitching movement of a/c is controlled by: A. Aileron. B. Rudder. C. Elevator. D. Fin.
166. The carbon contents in the high carbon steel is. A. 0 to 0.25 %. B. 0.25 % to 0.75 %. C. 0.75% to 1.5 %. D. 0.75% to 1.25 %.
157. The constituents of Bronze are. A. Copper, Zinc. B. Copper, Tin. C. Tin, Lead. D. Copper, lead.
167. Cast iron is manufactured by. A. Cementation process. B. crucible process. C. Cupola furnace. D. Open-hearth process.
158. The properties of Al are. A. Light, ductile, soft and malleable. B. soft, poor corrosion resistance and brittle. C. soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant. D. soft, ductile and malleable.
168. Chisel are classified by: A. Shape overall length and width of the cutting edge. B. Shape and overall length. C. Material and size. D. Type and cutting edge.
159. A great advantage of the electric furnace is : A. Very easy to operate. B. absence of gas fume and impurities. C. no maintenance is required. D. very economical.
169. Hand vice are classified by weight : A. In ounces. B. In grams. C. And length of the jaw. D. Of the body.
160. The blister steel is manufactured by : A. Electric process. B. open hearth process. C. Bessemer process. D. Cementation process.
170. Chisel used for cutting the narrow flat bottom grooves is: A. Flat chisel. B. Cross cut chisel. C. Diamond point chisel. D. Half round chisel.
161. Plastic is an organic material, which shows the property of. A. Elasticity. B. Ductility. C. Malleability. D. Plasticity.
171. The file used on soft material is : A. Single cut. B. Double cut. C. Dreadnought. D. Rasp.
162. Pig Iron contains an average about: A. 94% Iron and 4% carbon + remainder impurities. B. 98% Iron and 2% carbon. C. 95 % Iron and 2 % carbon. D. 97% Iron and 2 % carbon + 1 % impurities.
172. Files are classified by. A. Length, section cut and grade. B. Type of material and size. C. Type and overall length. D. Length section and type.
163. The properties of lead are: A. Soft, brittle and poor corrosion resistant. B. Soft, ductile and malleable. C. Soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant. D. Malleable and corrosion resistant.
173. Die nut is used for: A. Cutting external thread. B. Cutting internal thread. C. Cutting starting thread. D. Clearing the damage thread.
164. One of the purest forms of iron produced is : A. Wrought Iron. 80
174. The drill which is used for cutting the counter sinking holes are. A. Peg or Arboring drill. B. Bottoming drill. C. Rose bit drill. D. Twist drill.
183. Lubricant used for drilling High carbon and alloy steels. A. Turps or Kerosene. B. Cutting oil or soapy water. C. None. D. Water.
175. Scribers are made of : A. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. B. High carbon steel. C. High carbon and alloy steel. D. Alloy steel hardened and tempered.
184. Reamers are classified by : A. Type and size. B. Type material and size. C. Type size and length. D. Type and angle of cutting edge.
176. Sharpening the scribes is done. A. On a grinding stone. B. By smooth file. C. By dead smooth file. D. Either by smooth file or dead smooth file.
185. The taps are used for cutting. A. Internal screw threads. B. External screw threads. C. Starting threads. D. Finishing threads.
177. Surface plates are classified by. A. Type material and size. B. Length and breadth. C. Type and weight. D. Type and Size.
186. The tool used to rundown an existing thread that has become burred or damaged, is : A. Die plate. B. Second tap. C. circular Die. D. Die nut.
178. The accuracy of surface plates are tested by. A. Vee blocks. B. Master Surface plate. C. Fitter's square. D. Vernier caliper.
187. Screw drivers are classified by A. Type material and size. B. Type and length of blades. C. Width of the tip. D. Length of the blade.
179. If the zero of the micrometer thimble crosses the datum line. A. It is to be subtracted from the measurement. B. It is to be added to the measurement. C. It is to be neglected. D. It is to be adjusted with the help of concealed nut.
188. Spanner are classified by A. Type and length. B. Type material and size. C. Type material and size of nut or bolt on which it fits. D. Type and size.
180. Play in the spindle threads of micrometer is taken up by A. Using a 'c' spanner. B. Adjusting anvil in the frame. C. Adjusting the thimble on the spindle. D. Adjusting a nut at the thimble end of the barrel.
189. The pliers used for lead bending of wires and lead forming are : A. Flat more pliers. B. Pliers round nose. C. Half round nose pliers. D. Pliers combination.
181. The lubricant used for drilling mild steel and wrought iron is. A. Kerosene. B. Soapy water. C. Cutting oil or soapy water solution. D. None of the above.
190. The property of resisting breakage when under the application of a pulling force. A. Tenacity. B. Fatigue. C. Hardness. D. Spinning.
182. Lubricant used for drilling magnesium and its alloys. A. None. B. Soapy water. C. Kerosene. D. Cutting oil.
191. The position on the crord line of an aerofoil at which the resultant force act is: A. Laminarised part of the air flow. B. Pressurised part of the air flow. C. Centre of pressure. D. Centre of gravity. 81
192. At the critical angle of attack, the flow of air from top surface of aerofoil becomes turbulent, which is termed as : A. Burbling. B. Curling. C. Knurling. D. Rolling.
A. Volatile memory. B. Non volatile memory. C. Main memory. D. Secondary memory. 201. Daisy wheel printers is a : A. Non impact printer. B. Impact printer. C. Ink jet printer. D. Laser printer.
193. In flight the lift of an aerofoil can be altered by: A. Angle of attack only. B. Speed of an a/c only. C. Angle of attack and speed of an a/c. D. Density and pressure of air.
202. For opening the existing file next time remember A. File name. B. Pass word. C. Document name. D. none of the above.
194. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain amount of horizontal force known as: A. Thrust. B. Weight. C. Drag. D. Forward movement.
203. Laser printers is a : A. Impact printer. B. Non impact printers. C. Drum printer. D. Line printer.
195. Honey comb construction is often used in the manufacture of. A. Flying control surface. B. AC canopy. C. Main plane. D. Tail plane.
204. Stored data goes off from the computer memory when the power supply is turned off is termed as : A. Volatile memory. B. Non volatile memory. C. Secondary memory. D. Non of the above.
196. MS dos file name is primarily ment for: A. Plus 5 extension characters. B. Plus 2 extension characters. C. No extension characters. D. Plus 3 extension characters.
205. The commands that do not require any specific files for being excuted and are brought into the memory as soon as the computer is switched on is termed as : A. Common commands. B. External commands. C. Internal commands. D. Acutal commands.
197. A computer keyboard is a most common : A. In put device. B. Out put device. C. Electronic device. D. Mechanical device.
206. The first name in the file name of Dos can have : A. 01 to 03 characters. B. 01 to 08 charaters. C. only 05 charaters. D. Unlimited charaters.
198. All physical requirements to construct a computer is known as : A. Software. B. Hardware. C. Electronic components. D. Mechnical components.
207. The main directory is called : A. Files. B. Programmes. C. Sub directory. D. Root directory.
199. Before taking a printout of document all the spelling mistakes and the grammatical mistakes have to be carried out MS word provides a helpful feature to carryout this task is called : A. Check. B. Spell check. C. Automatic spell check. D. Correction.
208. The memories that retain the stored data even when the power to the device is shut off is termed as : A. Volatile memory. B. Non volatile memory. C. Secondary memory. D. Non of the above.
200. Booting is the process of loading the operating system into main memory from : 82
209. To close the presentation file, click on the close option from the : A. File menu. B. End show. C. Mouse bottom. D. View menu.
C. Plenty of cold water. D. 5% solution of soda bi-carbonate and plenty of warm water. 218. In the lead acid type of batteries, the positive plate is made of: A. Spongy lead. B. Carbon. C. Iron oxide. D. Lead per oxide.
210. To create a new file, the command used is : A. CopyCON . B. Copy CON . C. Copy . D. Copy .
219. Laminated steel core used is for transformers instead of solid iron cores in order to: A. Have more supply. B. Reduce eddy currents. C. Produce eddy currents. D. Reduce the weight.
211. Very large scale intergation circuits are introduced in : A. Second generation of Computers. B. First generation of computers. C. Third generation of computers. D. Fourth generation of computers.
220. The core of the transformer is laminated to: A. Increase eddy current. B. Reduce eddy current. C. Increase output voltage. D. Decrease output voltage.
212. When you open a new document in work, the top and bottom margins are preset at : A. 1 inch. B. 1.25 inch. C. 2 inch. D. 2.5 inch.
221. Transformer is used in a circuit for: A. Raising DC voltage. B. Lowering DC and AC voltage. C. Raising or lowering DC voltage. D. Raising or lowering AC voltage.
213. Which of the following cannot be sensed by our sence organs : A. Software. B. Hardware. C. Soft and Hardware. D. None of the above.
222. Variation of voltage in a circuit is obtained by fitting a: A. Transformer. B. Suppressor. C. Regulator. D. Rheostat.
214. You should save your active documents every A. 10 to 15 minutes. B. 15 to 20 minutes. C. 5 to 10 minutes. D. 20 to 25 minutes.
223. The wattage of omni light is. A. 60w. B. 45w. C. 100w. D. 25w.
215. The grammer you use while typing a command is called : A. Syntex. B. Format. C. PROM. D. EPROM.
224. In relation to amplitude modulation, the disadvantage of frequency and phase modulation is. A. very heigh range. B. very low range. C. low range. D. heigh range.
216. Capacity test on batteries are carried out: A. After every initial charge. B. Once in every three months. C. Whenever capacity of the battery is suspected to be low. D. All above.
225. In an alkaline charging room, boric acid solution, first aid outfit, saw dust and boric acid crystals are: A. First aid. B. Neutralising agents. C. Neutral agent. D. First aid agents.
217. If acid is split in eyes, it should be washed with: A. Ammonia in diluted solution. B. Olive oil.
83
226. When alkali acid has been split on skin or clothing apply: A. Boric acid. B. Boric acid followed by cool water. C. Boric acid followed by warm water. D. Boric acid followied by sopy water.
B. Ditto line. C. Long break line. D. Cutting plane line. 235. Dimension line should be placed: A. Horizontal to dimension line. B. Perpendicular to dimension line. C. Close to the object. D. Out side to feature wherever possible.
227. The common form of threads used are : A. V and sqare thread. B. BAvthread. C. Sqare and round thread. D. V and round thread.
236. Free hand and wavy line used for detail and assembly drawing is represented by: A. Short break line. B. Ditto line. C. Hidden line. D. Focus line.
228. The type of sectional view used when a view is needed showing both the exterior and interior construction of a symmetrical object is: A. Full section. B. Half section. C. Partial section. D. Revolved section.
237. In engineering drawing the long dash and dot alternately placed to represent an alternate position or indication of the limiting position of moving parts is known as: A. Indicating line. B. Long break line. C. Phantam line. D. Locus line.
229. When the cutting plane cuts an object laterally or cross wise it is called A. Longitudinal section. B. Lateral section. C. Half section. D. Cross section.
238. In engineering drawing thin long chain represents: A. False and developed view. B. Boundary lines. C. Hidden detail. D. Centre line.
230. In engineering drawing the minium length of pencil stub to be kept as: A. 50mm. B. 30mm. C. 45mm. D. 75mm.
239. Short and zig zag line is used to show: A. Limited portion of a larger object. B. Limited portion of a smaller object. C. Boundary line of any object. D. Broken line of any object.
231. set sqare are used for drawing the different lines of A. Curved lines. B. Oblique lines. C. Vertical&inclined lines. D. None above.
240. The dimension should not be scaled from blue print because: A. Dimensions are always not be scale. B. Dimensions are inconsistant. C. The Paper is subjected to slight shrinking due to washing and drying up. D. Dimensions may not beadequate.
232. The hidden lines are to be drawn, the grade of pencil used is : A. H. B. B. C. HB. D. 2 H.
241. The title block is located in the drawing sheet at A. Top left hand corner. B. Bottom any corner. C. Bottom right hand corner. D. Top right hand corner.
233. In Modern roman letter type elementary strokes are: A. Vertical. B. Horizontal. C. Accented. D. Longitudinal.
242. White lines can be added to a blue print even after printing process i s over by : A. Ferric salt solution. B. Potassium terrocynide. C. Ferro- prussiate. D. Strong washing soda solution.
234. A line having one long and two short dashes alternately and evenly spaced is: A. Short break line. 84
243. The category of drawing, where sides will look smaller which are away from the viewer than that which is near is: A. Oblique drawing. B. Isometric drawing. C. Pictorial drawing. D. Perspective drawing.
D. Five categories. 251. To read workshop drawing of a mechine parts means to make cut the sequ ence of operation in process of: A. Manufacturing of parts. B. Checking of parts. C. Dismantling of parts. D. Assembling of parts.
244. The drawing which gives the drawing of a single part which cannot be f urther sub divided is called: A. Simple drawing. B. Assembly drawing. C. Detail drawing. D. Spot drawing.
252. In third angle orthographic plan view taken from A. Left on the front elevation. B. Right on the front elevation. C. Top of the front elevation. D. Bottom of the front elevation.
245. Type of drawing shows a number of components in an assembled condition to from a self contained unit is: A. Detailed drawing. B. Assembly drawing. C. General arrangement drawing. D. Auxiliary drawing.
253. In four stroke cycle engine the cycle of operation comprises of : A. 2 revolution of the crank shaft. B. 1 revolution of the crank shaft. C. One upward and one down ward movement of the piston. D. One upward and two down ward movement of the piston.
246. In engineering drawing, the projection of the top side of the object o n the horizontal plane is called: A. Front elevation. B. Plane. C. Single plane. D. Side elevation.
254. In turbojet engine the initial ignition is rovided by : A. Sparking plug. B. Compresion ignition. C. Hot ignition. D. Igniter pump.
247. The chief characteristic of third angle projection is that each view i s so placed that it represents the side of the object: A. Remote from it in the adjacent view. B. Near to it in the adjacent view. C. Opposite to it in the adjacent view. D. At an angle to it in the adjacent view.
255. The compressor's main parts are : A. Compressor, rotor and diffuser. B. Compressor, diffuser and zet nozzle. C. Turbine, exhaust pipe and compressor. D. Compressor, rotor and zet nozzle.
248. The projection consists of plan and side view, but arranged in such a way that each view is drawn to represent that nearside of adjacent vie w is: A. First angle projection. B. Third angle projection. C. Orthographic projection. D. General section view.
256. The electric field of the primary coil is mode to collapse to generate high voltage in secondary coil by the help of : A. Choke. B. Contact breaker. C. Rectifier. D. Sealed discharge gap.
249. In orhtographic drawing, the object is imagined to be placed in front of a vertical plane known as: A. Front elevation. B. Horizontal plane. C. Ground plane. D. Reference.
257. The principle of electric starter is to convert the A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy. B. Electrical energy into mechanical energy. C. Magnetic energy into electrical energy. D. Magnetic energy into mechanical energy. 258. The purpose of a vent line on the top of a fuel tank is to : A. Over flow the excess fuel. B. Vent fuel vapour to atmosphere. C. Reduce the fire risk. D. Vent fuel vapour and maintain differential atmospheric pressure.
250. Orthographic projection are classified in number of categories accordi ng to the object placed in the four quadrants are : A. Two Categories. B. Four Categories. C. Three Categories. 85
259. Altimeter works on the principle of : A. Moving coil milivolt meter. B. Thermocouple. C. Aneroid. D. Dynamic pressure.
D. Steering arm. 268. The towing apparatus used in conjuction with a towing vehicle for pull ig light aircraft forward is A. Towing frame. B. Towing bridle. C. Towing bridle aof wire cable. D. Lightly manufactured towing arm.
260. At high altitude pilot is provided with oxygen to avoid : A. Loss of judgement and giddiness. B. Blood pooling and frost bite. C. Loss of judgement and forst bite. D. Loss of vision and blood pooling.
269. What is the operatus to be used for aircraft with tail wheel for towin g forward on soft or uneven ground : A. Towing bridle and steering arm. B. Towing arm or bar. C. Towing bridle of wire cable. D. Towing frame.
261. Jet pipe temperature gauge is a : A. Moving coil milivolt meter. B. Moving coil volt meter. C. Ohm meter. D. Power meter.
270. While marshalling arms repeatedly moved upward, back ward, back on-ing on ward will indicate : A. Stright ahead. B. Stright backward. C. Slow down engine. D. Chocks away.
262. The air speed indicator works on : A. Static pressure. B. Dynamic pressure. C. Difference between pitot and static pressure. D. Bowden tube principle. 263. The induced EMF in exhauset gas temperature gauge depends upon : A. Material of thermocouple. B. Difference between hot junction and cold junction temperature. C. Velocity of gas. D. All above.
271. A ladder mounted on wheels with a working platform adjustable for high t is : A. Swing back ladder. B. Special elevating ladder. C. Shelt ladder. D. Swing ack flat ladder. 272. Damage to the hyd system of pillar hyd jack is prevented by providing : A. Small over flow holes at the upper end of pressure cylinder. B. Small over flow holes at the lower end of pressure cylinder. C. Cut out valve. D. Vent valve.
264. Aircraft fuel tanks are not normally left empty or partially empty ove r night This is to : A. Ensure long life of the tank. B. Avoid gum formation. C. Ensure setting of sediments. D. Prevent water contamination. 265. Aircraft must not be left overnight with partially empty tanks because rapid condensation is liable to take place in :A. Reservoir. B. Refuellers. C. Fuel tanks. D. Fuel rankers.
273. For dealing with small gasolene, oil or kerosene fire the fire extingu sher used is :A. CO2. B. Soda acid. C. CTC. D. Pyrene fire extingusher.
266. For aeroengine ground run a suitable fire extingusher to be positioned is :A. CTC. B. CO2. C. Methyl Bromide. D. Foam type.
274. For servicing large aircraft the servicing ladder used is :A. Shell ladder. B. Special elevating ladder. C. Swing back ladder. D. Swing back flat ladder.
267. The aircraft should be towed on soft ground by :A. Towing arm. B. Towing frame. C. Towing bridle.
275. In aircraft marshalling signals, if right or left arm down, other arm moved accross body and entended will indicate : A. Turn which backing tail to port/stbd. 86
B. All clear marshalling finished. C. Proceed under guidance to next marshaller. D. Slow down port engine/stbd engine.
C. Pulse receiving power. D. Peak receiving power. 284. The light rays flows in sinusoidal path in: A. step index fibre. B. Mono index fibre. C. Graded index fibre. D. Single index fibre.
276. Marshalling signals of arms down palm facing out wards swing arms from extended postion out wards wil indicate : A. Chocks away. B. Insert chocks. C. Slow down engine. D. Stop engine.
285. Black box is a: A. Ground equipment. B. Trans-receiver. C. Air-borne device. D. Test equipment.
277. On of the main advantages of CO2 as an enxtinguishing agent is : A. Its rapidity of discharge. B. It prevent burning and makes to starve fire. C. Being inert gas it effectively blankets a fire. D. It cuts of the oxygen.
286. Digital flight data recorder is located in. A. cockpit. B. ATC. C. CUR. D. Black-box.
278. On receipt of AOG demand the senior logistic officer is to ensure for identifications tally with standard publication and signals to be send to : A. BRDs. B. Appropriate Equipment depot. C. Civil agency. D. Manufacturer agency.
287. The number of satellites to cover the whole earth by INTELSAT is: A. two. B. three. C. four. D. five.
279. Prior to starting of aero engines the suitable type of fire enxtinguis her to be positioned is : A. CTC. B. CO2 type. C. Methyl bromide. D. Foam.
288. Laser stand for: A. Light amplification by stimulated emission radiation. B. Light amplification by simulated emission radiation. C. Light amplification by stimulated emmission radiowaves. D. Light amplification by simulated emission electric radiation.
280. Signalling by left arm extended forward horizontally cleanched right h and making horizontal slicing movement below the left palm, downward is for :A. Winch down. B. Winch UP. C. Hover. D. Release load.
of of of of
289. The otto cycle consists of. A. Two constant volume line and two adiabatic. B. Two constant volume line and a adiabatic line. C. One constant volume line and Two adiabatic. D. Two constant volume line only.
281. The fire extinguisher which is designed primarily to extinguish aircra ft engine starting up fire is : A. Methyl bromide. B. CO2. C. CTC. D. Foam.
290. Radius gauges are used to check the: A. Out side circumrence of a component. B. Inside circumference of a component. C. Inside radius of a component. D. Inside or outside radius of a component.
282. CRT stands for: A. Code rate timer. B. Cathode ray tube. C. Clutter reduction technique. D. Call relay timer.
291. A metric micrometer having a plus error of 0.01 mm, when set to 8.5mm on barrel scale and 31 divisions on thimble scale, the actual measurem ent will be : A. 8.8 mm. B. 8.81 mm. C. 8.79 mm. D. 11.59mm.
283. PRP stands for: A. Peak repetition period. B. Pulse repetition period. 87
292. The lenght of the vernier scale of a metric vernier caliper 24/25 syst em is: A. 0.5 mm. B. 1 mm. C. 12 mm. D. 49 mm.
C. Lead screen. D. Wooden screen. 301. While using ultrasonic flowdector air gap between the probe and the su rface under tests eliminated by: A. Use of rubber padding. B. Use of rubber boots. C. Applying oil. D. Clamping the probe tightly.
293. DTI (metric system) is designed to read a range of: A. 1 mm left or right. B. 0.5 mm clockwise. C. 0.5 mm counterclockwise. D. 0.5 mm clockwise and 0.5 mm anticlockwise.
302. In the order of corrodibility the least corrodable metal is: A. Chromium. B. Nickle. C. Alluminium. D. Erass.
294. In bevel protractory one vernier scale division is equal to: A. 5 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 55 minutes. D. 115 minutes.
303. Light alloys and stainless steel are: A. Susceptable to intercrystaline corrosion. B. Not susceptable to corrosion,ht. C. Susceptable to surface. D. susceptable to corrosion due to galvanic action.
295. In screw pitch gauge (or profile gauge) the number of teeth per teeth per inch is marked on: A. Tip of first blade. B. Body. C. Tips of last blade. D. Each blade.
304. To file concave surface and elongating circular opening, the standard section of file used is: A. Round. B. Half round. C. Three square. D. Square.
296. Limit gauges are used to determine: A. High limit dimension. B. Low limit dimension. C. Internal and external dimension. D. Internal dimension within specified limit.
305. If the point of a scriber is blunt it is to be: A. Sharpened on oil stone. B. Sharpened on grinding wheel but dipped into water time to time to protect its temper. C. Sharpened by using a file to avoid over heating. D. Discard the scriber and chage with a new one.
297. The angle between the cutting edge and axis of the drill is called: A. Clearence angle. B. Web angle. C. Flute angle. D. Cutting angle.
306. Surface plates are made from: A. Cast iron. B. Wrought iron. C. Pig iron. D. High carbon.
298. For enlarging the size of hole and bushes,the reamer used is : A. Hand expanding reamer. B. Shell reamer. C. Hand taper reamers. D. Hand parallel reamers.
307. While using scribing the bent end of scribed should point: A. Upwards. B. Downwards. C. Towards your right. D. Towards your left.
299. Prior to drilling hole,to locate drill center punching is done by a ce nter punch having angkle of: A. 450. B. 900. C. 600. D. 1200.
308. While using scribing block lines can be scribed paralled to the edge o f the table with the help of : A. Straight end of the scriber. B. Bent end of the scriber. C. Marker piece. D. Dowels.
300. Electro magnetic crack detection is applid to: A. All types of metals. B. Fabric screen. 88
309. Key seat rule is made of A. Low carbon steel hardened and tempered. B. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. C. Medium carbon steel case hardened. D. Plain carbon steel annealed and normalised.
B. 50 mm to 65 mm. C. 60 mm to 75 mm. D. 50 mm to 75mm. 318. Diminishing resistance to fracture caused by fluctuating stresses is t ermed as: A. Toughness. B. Hardness. C. Fatigue. D. Brittlennes.
310. Fitters square is made of A. Medium carbon steel hardened. B. High carbon steel hardened and tempered. C. Vanadium (blade) and mild steel (stock). D. Spring steel and cast iron.
319. The capacity of a material to return to its original diensions on the removal of distorting forces : A. Elasticity. B. Conductivity. C. Ductility. D. Tenacity.
311. The legs of the callipers are curved outwards at the extrimities is kn ow as; A. Jenny callipers. B. Out side callipers. C. Inside callipers. D. common callipers. 312. Spanners used in restricted spaces is; A. Splined tube spanner B. Peg spanner. C. crow foot spanner. D. Terry set.
320. The capacity of material to observe the energy in electrical range is called. A. Elasticity. B. Tenacity. C. Resilience. D. Resistivity.
313. A metric micrometer having minus error 0.02mm when set to 7 5mm on bar rel scale and 13 divisions on thimble scale ,the actual measurement will be; A. 7.61mm. B. 7.63mm. C. 7.65. D. 7.67mm.
321. The property of being permanently extended or flattened by hammering r olling or pressing without rupture is known as : A. Tenacity. B. Malleability. C. Softness. D. Plasicity.
314. If the spindle of micrometer is worn out ,the errour shown by the micr ometer should by : A. Subtraced from the reading. B. Added to the reading. C. Ignored. D. micrometer is not to be used.
322. The property of resisting breakage when subjected to bending sudden bl ow or twist is termed as; A. Hardness. B. Brittleness. C. Toughness. D. fatigue.
315. In external metricmeter of 25-50mm size, if the thimble is rotated for four complete turns from 'o'the reading will be: A. 25.04mm. B. 27mm. C. 24.96mm. D. 2.00mm.
323. The resistance offered by deformation at the elastic state is. A. Strength. B. Toughness. C. Ductility. D. Stiffness.
316. The minimum measurement that can be taken with collar with the largest extension rod of an internal metric micrometer is: A. 265mm. B. 285mm. C. 235mm. D. 325mm.
324. The slow and progressive deformation of material over a period of time under a constant stress and elevator temperature is called. A. Conductivity. B. Creep. C. Plasticity. D. Tenacity.
317. The smallmest size of extension rod avilable in a set of 50mm to 300mm metric internal micrometer is: A. 50 mm to 100 mm.
325. A permissible range of dimensions of finished components provided to cover unavoidable inaccuracies in manufacture is: 89
material
for
A. Allowance. B. Clearance. C. Tolerance. D. Variation.
C. Mix of kerosene and lubricating oil with french chalk. D. Mix of trichlorethylene and lubricating oil with french.
326. The class of fit suitable for various type of moving parts is: A. Driving fit. B. Running fit. C. Push fit. D. Force fit. 327. Type of fit suitable for detachable or locating parts is: A. Force. B. Interference. C. Transition. D. Clearance.
334. The flourescent solution remaining in the flows or cracks will reveal clearly as; A. Bright lines or patches of light . B. Dull red in colour with broken lines. C. Thin black lines or bright patches. D. Thin red lines with bright patches.
328. The key fits into a key-way in the shaft and will transmit high power is: A. Feather key. B. Flat saddle key. C. Woodruff key. D. Gib headed key.
336. A common grade file used for ordinary engineering work where finish is not important is: A. Dead smooth. B. Second cut. C. Bastard. D. Rough.
329. Colour of small stainless steel bult which has no recognised standard marking is: A. Brown lacquer. B. Blue. C. Green anodic. D. Yellow lacquor.
337. The length of file is measured between: A. Shoulder to the tip of blade. B. Full length. C. Shoulder and tang end. D. Teeth cut portion end to end.
335. Hammers are classified by its : A. Weight and number stamped on the side. B. Type and weight of the head in ounces. C. Type and weight of the head in grammes. D. Number stamped on the side of the head.
338. To induce toughness to a new file process used is: A. Pickling. B. Pinning. C. breaking in. D. Draw filing.
330. Aluminium alloy nuts are identified by: A. Washed face machined on one face of a nut. B. Washed face machined on both face of a nut. C. Letter 'L'stamped on one side. D. Letter 'AA' stamed on one side. 331. To identify a brass nut of 9/16 inch BSF, left hand thread the code le tter marked on the face of the nut is; A. PBL. B. BPL. C. LPB. D. BLP.
339. The property of resisting breakage when under the application of pulling force is known as. A. Elasticity. B. Tenacity. C. Ductility. D. Conductivity. 340. A plain carbon ateel with carbon content of 0 67% is; A. Low carbon steel . B. Medium carbon steel. C. Blister steel. D. high carbon steel.
332. The hot fluid chalk method is used where: A. A small component can be removed. B. A big component can be removed. C. A small component can not be removed. D. A big component can not be removed. 333. What is the mixture used in cold fluid chalk test method of crak detec tion: A. Mixture of methylated of fruit and french chalk. B. Lubricating oil and french chalk.
341. Eliments added to steel to get greater strength,toughness and resistan e to fatigue is: A. Chromium. B. nickel. C. Tungsten. D. Molybdenum. 90
342. Property induced by adding 3% of chromium to alloy steel is: A. Strength. B. Toughness. C. Hardness. D. Hardness at high temperature.
350. To secure maximum strength and hardness to duralumin which have been a nnealed must be: A. Age hardened. B. solution treated. C. Precipitation treated. D. Anodised.
343. The element added with steel to get the great strength,greater resista nce to fatigue is. A. Cobalt. B. Tungsten. C. chromium. D. Vanadium.
351. Duralmin tubing should be solution treated: A. Prior to bending or flaring. B. After bending or flaring. C. Prior and after bending or flaring. D. only on rebending or flaring. 352. What type of heat treatment is given to brass: A. Hardening. B. Case hardening. C. Annealing. D. Blueing.
344. 'Y' alloy is used for making: A. Air craft structural parts. B. Piston and cylinder heads. C. Stressed skin of aircraft. D. Rivts.
353. When alumium alloy is quenched from high temperature the excess copper comes out of solution This is known as: A. Decoppering. B. Annealing. C. Evaporation. D. Precipitation.
345. Indicate the false statement Modulation is used to. A. reduce the bandwidth. B. separate differing transmissions. C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance. D. allow the use of practical antennas.
354. Advantage of case hardening by nitriding process is: A. Retention of hardness at low temperature. B. Retention of hardness at high temperature. C. The depth of hardened case may be 0.08". D. It is easy and cheap.
346. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1 The transmitted power is: A. Unchanged. B. Halved. C. Doubled. D. Increased by 50%.
355. Which of the following process does not require quenching after case h ardening: A. open hearth process. B. Box. C. Nitriding. D. cyanids.
347. In communication system noise is most likely to affect the signal. A. At the transmitter. B. In the information source. C. In the channel. D. At the destination.
356. If a body is stressed beyond it elastic limt, the strain thus produced will not retreat completely on removal of force This residual or rema ining strain is called: A. Sheer stress. B. Tensile strain. C. permanent set. D. Tensile stress.
348. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the. A. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency. B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency. C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the RF. D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above the carrier frequency.
357. Electro-magnetic crack detection method is suitable for the components made of : A. Magnesium alloy. B. nickle chromium. C. ferrous metal and can be magnetised. D. Non ferrous metals:
349. One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB This is the A. Filter system. B. Phase shift method. C. Third Method. D. Balanced Modulator.
91
358. Non distructive tests of crack detection are preferred because they: A. Are cheaper and faster. B. Can be used easily. C. Do not damage the component. D. Can be used at any part of the component.
D. Interference drag. 366. If the aspect ratio of wing is higher, the effect of it will: A. Increase the induced drag. B. Decrease the induced drag. C. Keep the aircraft stable while landing. D. Keep the aircraft stable while taking off.
359. The flourescent solution remaining in the flows or cracks will reveal clearly as: A. B. C. D.
367. If the aspect ratio is higher, the induced drag is: A. Higher. B. Lower. C. Constant. D. Increased.
360. When testing a component for crack detection by flourescent dye penetr ant method,the flows will: A. Reveal as violet lines or patches under ultra violet rays. B. Show bright lines or patches under ultra violet rays. C. reveal bluish lines or patches under ultra violetrays. D. Show thin black lines or patches under ultra vilot rays.
368. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain amount of horizontal forc is known as: A. Thrust. B. Weight. C. Drag. D. Forward movement. 369. The principal factor affecting induced drag is: A. Plan form of the wing. B. Shape of fuselage. C. Design of the tail plane. D. Type of control surfaces.
361. While performance x ray crack detection the operations are protected f rom stray radiation by: A. Metal screen. B. Fabric screen. C. Lead screen. D. Wooden screen.
370. The point on the main plane at which the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow is: A. Stagnation point. B. Transition point. C. Critical point. D. Separation point.
362. Lift is obtained at the expense of a certain amount of horizontal forc is known as: A. Thrust. B. Weight. C. Drag. D. Forward movement.
371. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled The noise power generated is therefore: A. halved. B. quadrupled. C. doubled. D. unchanged.
363. At the critical angle of attack, the flow of air from top surface of aerofoil becomes turbulent which is termed as. A. Burbling. B. Curling. C. Knurling. D. Rolling.
372. Indicate the noise whose source is in the category different from that of the other three. A. Solar noise. B. Cosmic noise. C. Atmospheric noise. D. Galactic noise.
364. The point on the main plane at which the boundary layer changes from laminar flow to the turbulent flow is. A. Stagnation point. B. Transition point. C. Critical point. D. Separation point.
373. In a low level AM system amplifier is following the modulated stage must be. A. Linear devices. B. Harmonic devices. C. Class C amplifier. D. Non linear devices.
365. Drag which varies inversely to the square of the indicated air speed i. A. Profile drag. B. Wing drag. C. Induced drag.
374. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed the percentage power saving will be. 92
A. 50. B. 150. C. 100. D. 66.6.
C. LC. D. Low-pass. 382. In a radio receiver with simple AGC. A. an increase in the signal strength produces more AGC. B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC. C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more accurate the output. D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between stations.
375. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance. A. Input noise voltage. B. Noise temperature. C. Equivalent noise temperature. D. Noise figure. 376. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by the two Sine waves with the modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4; the total modulation index is. A. 1. B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relations are known. C. 0.5. D. 0.7.
383. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming frequency. A. To help the image frequency rejection. B. To permit easier tracking. C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced. D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching.
377. In the spectrum of frequency modulated wave. A. The carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is large. B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index. C. The total number of sidebands depends on the modulation index. D. The carrier frequency cannot disappear.
384. If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false statement). A. Image frequency rejection is very good. B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable. C. The selectivity will be poor. D. Tracking will be improved.
378. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by. A. boosting the bass frequencies. B. amplifying the higher audio frequencies. C. pre-amplifying the shole audio band. D. converting the phase modulation to FM.
385. One of the following cannot be used to demodulate SSB. A. product detector. B. diode balanced modulator. C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator. D. complete phase shift generator.
379. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM. A. better noise immunity is provided. B. lower bandwidth is required. C. the transmitted power is more useful. D. less modulating power is required.
386. Distance near The skip distance should be used for sky wave propagation. A. to avoid tilting. B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference. C. to avoid the faraday effect. D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency.
380. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantage of SSB over double sideband, full carrier AM. A. More channel space is available. B. Transmitter circuit must be more stable, giving better reception. C. The signal is more noise resistant. D. Much less power is required for the same signal strength.
387. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of. A. Ground waves. B. Sky waves. C. Surface waves. D. Space waves. 388. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the transmitter, because of. A. interference from. B. loss of line of sight conditions. C. maximum single hop distance limitation. D. tilting. 389. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use.
381. The most commonly used filters in SSB generation are. A. Mechanical. B. RC. 93
A. ISB. B. Carrier. C. SSB with pitot carrier. D. Lincompex.
A. 3 full adders and one half ader. B. 4 full adders. C. 4 full subtractors. D. 3 full subtractors and one half subtractors.
390. In EM waves polarization is. A. caused by reflection. B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves. C. results from longitudinal nature of the waves. D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium.
399. A Flip Flop is a. A. Astable Multivibrator. B. Bistable Multivibrator. C. Monostable Multivibrator. D. None of the above.
391. The emitter of a transistor is doped. A. to a lesser extent than collector. B. depends upon specification. C. heavily. D. so that most of emitter injected electron ea go to the base of transistor.
400. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it will be : A. Saturated. B. Cut off. C. Destroyed. D. None of the above.
392. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is A. the base and collecter power supplies are same. B. base and collecter resistors are returned to collector supply. C. it cannot be used in switching circuits. D. Beta dc varies with current and temperature.
401. The transistor of Class B push pull Amplifiers are biased at : A. Cut off. B. Center of DC load line. C. Saturation. D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer.
393. In the collector feedback bias. A. the Beta dc generally varies. B. the base resistor is grounded. C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to power supply. D. difficult to set a stable Q-point.
402. The varactor is usually. A. F Biased. B. R Biased. C. Unbiased. D. In the breakdown region. 403. For nomal operation of the transistor the collector diode has tobe. A. F B. B. R B. C. Non conducting. D. Operating in breakdown region.
394. Amplification factor for triode is given by. A. = rp/gm. B. = gm.rp. C. = gm/rp+gm. D. None of the above. 395. The transistor used in power amplifier have. A. large current ratings. B. large voltage ratings. C. large power dissipating capacity. D. neither of these characteristics.
404. If an amitter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ =mA and re = 1 K the maximum peak to peak unclipped output is. A. 1V. B. 2V. C. 5V. D. 10V.
396. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier are. A. Always equal. B. Out of phase. C. Always negative. D. In phase.
405. The common grade of files used to give good finish quickly and has about 40 teeth per inch is called: A. Rough. B. Bastard. C. Second cut. D. Smooth.
397. (0.85) in binary is. A. 101010. B. 110110. C. 011111. D. 111100.
406. Drills are classified by :A. Type, material and size. B. Type, cut, width & blade. C. Length, type and material. D. Size , length and cut.
398. A 1’s complement 4 bit paralles bibary subtractor requires : 94
C. 25mm. D. 15mm.
407. The material used to make precision instrument is known as :A. Stainless steel. B. INVAR steel. C. Cast Iron. D. High Carbon steel.
416. To find out the appropriate center of round bar, the clipper used is : A. Even leg clipper. B. utside clipper. C. Inside clipper. D. Odd leg clipper.
408. The term " Hand brace" is associated with: A. Drilling. B. Filing. C. Screwing. D. Tinning.
417. In lead acid battery (charged state) electrolyte used is. A. Dilute H2SO4. B. Concentrated sulphuric acid. C. KOH. D. Unaffected.
409. The property whereby a metal can be drawn out into a wire without cracking is known as : A. Fusibility. B. Plasticity. C. Ductility. D. Tenacity.
418. In Ni-Cd battery (charged state), positive plate used is. A. PbO2. B. PbSO4. C. Ni2O2. D. Cd.
410. These tools are used for gripping or cutting purpose : A. Ring Spanners. B. Lead Hammers. C. Pliers. D. Dies.
419. In lead acid battery (discharged state), negative plate used is. A. PbO2. B. PbSO4. C. Ni(OH)2. D. Cd(OH)2.
411. The metal which is having the properties of soft, plastic, malleable and acid resistant is : A. Zinc. B. Lead. C. Aluminum. D. Copper.
420. In lead acid battery (charged state) negative plate used is. A. PbO2. B. PbSO4. C. Ni(OH)2. D. Cd(OH)2.
412. It is a process of shaping of metals by pressure or by hammer in a die of required shape is called:
A. Stamping. B. Forging. C. Stretching. D. Swaging.
421. (0.85) in binary is. A. 101010. B. 110110. C. 011111. D. None of the above.
413. The process by which a new file is first used on soft metal is called : A. Breaking in. B. Pickling. C. Safe edge. D. Pinning.
422. In any group If 1’s are completely overlapped by other grouping, the group is called : A. Overlap. B. Irredundant. C. Redundant and should be eliminated. D. None of the above.
414. In metric system Hacksaw blade length is measured from : A. Centre to centre. B. Edge to edge. C. Centre to handle. D. centre to edge.
423. A 1’s complement 4 bit parallel binary subtractor requires: A. 3 full adders and one half adder. B. 4 full adders. C. 4 full subtractors. D. 3 full subtractors and one half subtractors. 424. A Flip Flop is a. A. Astable Multivibrator.
415. The range of Micro-Meter is : A. 35mm. B. 45mm. 95
B. Bistable Multivibrator. C. Monostable Multivibrator. D. None of the above.
433. To safe guard the finished surface of job against damage by the teeth of the vice jaws, clamps used are of : A. Copper, steel and magnesium. B. Copper, lead and aluminium. C. copper, iron and aluminium. D. Silver foil, lead and aluminium.
425. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it will be : A. Saturated. B. Cut off. C. Destroyed. D. None of the above.
434. The plier suitable for holding screw heads and nuts : A. Bernard. B. Hellerman. C. Flat nose. D. Slip joint plier.
426. The colour of corrosion on steel is. A. Brown. B. Black. C. Gray. D. Reddish brown.
435. Material used for insulation between commutator segment is : A. Micanite. B. Paxolin. C. Mica. D. Ebonite.
427. The process of shaping hot metals by means of hammer and presses in. A. Stamping. B. Forging. C. spinning. D. drawing.
436. Low carbon steel is having carbon content of : A. 0.75% to 1.5%. B. 0.25% to 0.75%. C. 0.25% to 1.5%. D. Upto 0.25%.
428. Aircraft parts like oleo legs and ball bearing are plated with. A. Nickel. B. chromium. C. Zinc. D. Cadmium.
437. The capacity of an organic material to get deform or change the shape under heat and pressure is : A. Elasticity. B. Resilience. C. Plasticity. D. Extrusion.
429. The least count of matric vernier caliper is. A. 0.001 ". B. 0.01 mm. C. 0.02 mm. D. 1 mm.
438. While soldering LDRs and thermisters the temperature should not exceed above. A. 350 deg C. B. 250 deg C. C. 200 deg C. D. 150 deg C.
430. The purpose of standard wire gauge is to measure : A. The clearance between two surfaces. B. The size of wires and sheets. C. The inside and outside radius of the component. D. Slot widths and caliper settings.
439. If inter-crystalline corrosion is detected on aircraft part, it should be : A. Electroplated. B. Replaced. C. Covered with enamel paint. D. Given anodic treatement.
431. The process of using a new file first on soft metal is called : A. Draw filing. B. Pinning. C. Pickling. D. Breaking in.
440. Files, thin bladed of fine grade made out of special steel, hardened and tempered are: A. Equalizing file. B. Geneva file. C. Rasp file. D. Swiss file.
432. Hacksaw blade may loose its correct temper if it is : A. Loosely fitted. B. used with more pressure. C. Cutting at faster rate. D. Fitted too light.
441. Pin vice is used for holding: A. Square jobs. B. Small rods. 96
C. Bigger jobsBigger rods. D. Bigger rods.
C. Eliminating. D. Oration.
442. Needle files are used for: A. Making hole in the needle. B. Filing in odd places. C. Pierce design work in thick metals. D. Pierce design work in thin metals.
451. First type of adding machine was invented by: A. John Napier. B. Charles Babbage. C. Blaise Pascal. D. Dore Fiet.
443. Wardling files are used for: A. Filing the electrical contacts. B. Pierced design work. C. Making key and key ways. D. For curved surface.
452. Hybrid computer is a : A. Special purpose computer. B. Combination of analog and digital computer. C. General purpose computer. D. Digital computer.
444. Fine point pliers are used for: A. Removal of parts from restricted place. B. Watch spring. C. Holding small rods and pins. D. Holding delicate parts.
453. Name the computer which directly with the number: A. Mini computer. B. Micro computer. C. Digital computer. D. Analog computer.
445. Bolley set screw drivers are usually available in: A. 8 different sizes. B. 3 different sizes. C. 4 different sizes. D. 5 different sizes.
doesn't compute
454. Digital computer is used for : A. Business and engineering calculation. B. To solve specific Programme. C. To perform variety of a operation. D. To solve navigational problem.
446. The metal having crystalline structure, becomes very hard when chilled : A. Pig iron. B. Wrought iron. C. Steel. D. Cast iron.
455. Flip flops are clocked to achieve : A. Synchronization. B. Optimization. C. More propagations time. D. 'O' as output of all flip flop.
447. In a twist drill the narrow strips along the cutting edge of the blutes is known as : A. Shank. B. Lands. C. Body. D. Axis.
456. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary : A. 111. B. 1110. C. 10000. D. 1111. 457. Which of the following is not octal number: A. 19. B. 7. C. 15. D. 101.
448. One complete turn of the thimble of the micrometer gives a travel of : A. 0.5 cm. B. 0.1 cm. C. 0.5 mm. D. 0.1 mm.
458. Junction diode is a : A. Bipolar device. B. Constant voltage device. C. Unipolar device. D. Constant current device.
449. Dividers are classified by : A. The materials of the legs. B. The distance between the legs. C. The perimeter of the arcs and circles. D. the length of the legs.
459. A register stores: A. One word of data. B. A byte. C. One instruction. D. 4 bits data.
450. Process of eliminating errors in computer program is known as: A. De bugging. B. Rearranging. 97
460. To feed fresh program in the memory, use: A. New. B. List. C. Write fresh. D. Print.
469. Semi conductor memory in computer is based on. A. Magnetic circuit operation. B. Transformer operation. C. Transistor operation. D. Non magnetic circuit operation.
461. Not gate is known as: A. Converter. B. Inverter. C. Rectifier. D. Amplifier.
470. Half adder is called so because it : A. Can add half the bits in a binary number. B. Works for half time only. C. Performs addition in two halves. D. Can not accept a carry from previous additions.
462. Computer hardware usually refers to: A. Hard metallic component of a computer. B. Various associated program. C. CPU. D. Central processor input/output devices and backing storage.
471. The only function of a NOT gate is to: A. Stop a signal. B. Re-complement a signal. C. Invert an input signal. D. Act as a universal gate.
463. The JK Flip flop out put changes with each trigger when: A. Both J and K are zero. B. J is zero k is one. C. K is Zero and J is one. D. J and K are both on.
472. In a half adder when the input signal A=1 and B=1 the: A. Sum =1,carry=0. B. Sum =1, carry =1. C. Sum=0,carry=0. D. Sum =0,carry=1.
464. Which of the statement is correct: A. NAND gate = Bubbled AND gate. B. NOR gate =Bubbled OR gate. C. Bubbled OR gate = NAND gate. D. AND gate = OR and NOR gate.
473. A full adder consists of: A. Two half adders cascaded together. B. Two half adders and one OR gate. C. Two half adders and one AND gate. D. Two NAND gates.
465. In high level language, the source program is translated into object program with the help of A. Computer. B. Converter. C. Compiler. D. Translator.
474. The type of memory, which provides very large storage capability with. A. Dynamic memory. B. Magnetic disc memory. C. Magnetic memory. D. Bi polar memory.
466. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is applied to a NOT gate its ouput signal is a A. 01011. B. 10101. C. 10100. D. 00101.
475. The first generation computer was introduced with: A. Solid state transistors. B. Vacuum tubes. C. Chips. D. IC's.
467. Truth table of a logic functions: A. Summaries its output value. B. Tabulates all its input conditions. C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. D. Is not based on the logic algebra.
476. Second generation of computer started with the introduction of transis. A. 1950. B. 1958. C. Early 60. D. Late 70.
468. A static memory is one that. A. Is capable of storing binary information indefinitely. B. Requires periodic restoration of information. C. Is volatile. D. Has destructive read out.
477. John Napier invented. A. First type adding machine. B. Computograph. C. Logarithmic table. D. Complex computer. 98
478. The input devices handles the flow of information to the computer. A. Prior to the execution of the program. B. At the time of the execution of program. C. After the execution of the program. D. When ever the floe of information are required.
487. General purpose high-level language is: A. Cobol, FORTRAN, Lisp and basic. B. D8 base Multiplan, pli and ALGOL. C. FORTRAN, basic, pli ,ALGOL and d base. D. Cobol, lisp, word processor and multi plan.
479. Control unit process the data using: A. Input and out put unit. B. AL. C. ALU with the help of memory unit. D. Only input unit.
488. When 10111 base 2 is added to 101111 base 2 the result is. A. 1000110 base 2. B. 1001001 base 2. C. 1100100 base 2. D. 1010100 base 2.
480. 2's complement of 1000 is: A. 1000. B. 001. C. 1110. D. 0111.
489. The binary equivalent of 12.5 base 10 is. A. 1100.01 base 2. B. 1100.001 base 2. C. 1010.01 base 2. D. 1100.1 base 2.
481. Binary equivalent of decimal number 26 base 10 is: A. 10110 base 2. B. 11010 base 2. C. 10111base 2. D. 11001 base 2.
490. The process in which heat is transmitted from one point to the other. A. Conduction. B. Convection. C. Radiation. D. Evaporation.
482. The decimal equivalent of binary 101.11 base 2 is: A. 5.75. B. 6.75. C. 3.5. D. 9.75.
491. If the dry bulb and wet bulb temperature are known, the parameter can. A. Dew point of the air. B. Relative humidity. C. Grains of moisture. D. Dry bulb temperature.
483. In computer the data are processed by : A. Memory unit. B. Arithmetic logic unit. C. Control unit. D. Out put section.
492. The process in which the heat is transferred from one place to other. A. Conduction. B. Convection. C. Radiation. D. Evaporation.
484. The instruction written in binary form is known as : A. High level language. B. Symbolic language. C. Computer language. D. Machine language.
493. Transfer of heat from one point to another is carried out by: A. Conduction, convection and radiation. B. Transformation. C. Boiling and heating. D. None of the above.
485. A Programme in any language above machine language is called: A. A source program. B. An object program. C. Derived program. D. System program.
494. The process in which heat is transmitted from one place to another place. A. Conduction. B. Convection. C. Radiation. D. Evaporation.
486. A binary number that is equivalent to octal number 61 is. A. 111000 base 2. B. 101010 base 2. C. 11000 base 2. D. 110110 base 2.
495. T' Square is used for: A. Drawing horizontal line. B. Drawing vertical line. C. Drawing curved line. D. Drawing semi circular line. 99
496. The Acronym 'CAD' in engineering drawing represents: A. Computer aided drawing. B. Computer aided drafting. C. Computer aided design. D. Computer aided dimensioning.
505. The weather proofing material used for push switches and terminal lugs are: A. PVC conduit. B. Cotton tape, rubber tape. C. Weather proofing caps. D. Washers and gaskets.
497. Colour of paper usually used in Engineering Drawing is: A. Black. B. Blue. C. Brown. D. White.
506. The disturbance set up by the radio interference originates as radiation of. A. High tension discharge. B. High frequency AC. C. Sparking at contacts. D. Electromagnet waves at radio frequencies.
498. A new bush of correct dimension of correct hole to be fixed in the plate while re cond. A. Force fit. B. Driving fit. C. Push fit. D. Running fit.
507. When under carriage is in the locked UP position, the indication is : A. All red lights are ON. B. All lights are OFF. C. All green lights are ON. D. All green lights starts flashing.
499. If the pivot is deeply pitted, do only: A. Stoning. B. Lapping. C. Lapping and grinding. D. Stoning and lapping.
508. The 200 Hrs servicing comes under : A. Minor star. B. Intermediate. C. Major. D. Minor.
500. During refueling the danger of sparking due to static electricity is avoided by: A. Bonding. B. Screening. C. Weather proofing. D. Switching off the aircraft battery.
509. The working voltage of a capacitor to which a.c. or pulsating d.c. is applied should be A. the same as or greater than the applied voltage B. at least 50 percent greater than the applied voltage C. 1.41 times the applied voltage D. 707 times the applied voltage
501. During refueling or defuelling of an aircraft, there should not be any naked flame or. A. 10 ft. B. 200 ft. C. 100 ft. D. 50 ft.
510. If a circuit contains 10 ohms of resistance, 20 ohms of inductive reactance, and 30 ohms of capacitive reactance, it is said to be A. inductive B. impedence C. reluctance D. inductive reactance
502. The correct replacement of an item, which has previously been removed, is termed as: A. Out fit. B. Correct fit. C. Refit. D. Fit.
511. The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is calle A. conductivity B. impedance C. reluctance D. inductive reactance.
503. The fire extinguisher for electric fire is: A. Normal extinguisher. B. Water methanol extinguisher. C. Foam extinguisher. D. Pyrene extinguisher.
512. An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of a circuit? A. Inductance and frequency B. Capacitance and voltage C. Resistance and voltage D. resistance and capacitive reactance.
504. Workman errors are caused due to lack of: A. Knowledge. B. Skill. C. Experience. D. All the above. 100
513. In an alternating current circuit the effective voltage A. is equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage B. is greater than or less than the maximum instantaneous voltage C. may be greater than or less than the maximum instantaneous voltage D. is less than the maximum instantaneous voltage
519. which of these following will required most electrical power during operation? (1hp=745 watts) A. A 12 volt motor requiring 8 amperes B. four 30 watt lamps in a 12 volt parallel circuit C. two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24 volt parallel system D. a 1/10 hosepower, 24 volt meter which is 75 percent efficient
514. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to A. the distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area B. the plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates C. the plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates D. the distance between the plates and is not affected by the plat area
520. How much power must a 24 volt generator furnish to a system which contains the following loads? UNIT RATING onemotor (75percentefficient)…. 1/5hp three position lights …. 20 watts each one heating element…. 5amp one anticollision light…. 3 amp(1hp=746 W) A. 18.75 watts B. 402 watts C. 385 watts D. 450 watts
515. A transformer with a step-up rate of 0 to 1 has a primary voltage of 24 volts and a secondary amperage of 0.20 ampere. What is the primary amperage (disregard Losses)? A. 1 ampere B. 4.8 amperes C. 0.40 ampere D. cannot be determined from the information given
521. If a unit in a 28 volt aircraft electrical system has a resistance of 10 ohms, how much power will it use? (1 hp = 746 watts) A. 280 watts B. 7.84 watts C. 78.4 watts D. 28 watts
516. What is the capacitive reactance in ohms of the parallel a.c. circuit in Fig. 1? A. 5 B. 20 C. 10 D. 15
522. A 12 volt electric motor has 1.000 watts input and 1 horsepower output. Maintaining the same efficiency, how much input power will a 24 volt, 1 horsepower electric motor require? (1 hp = 746 watts) A. 1,000 watts B. 2,000 watts C. 500 watts D. cannot be determined from the information given 523. How many amperes will a 28 volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance of 5 ohms each? A. 1.11 amperes B. 1 ampere C. 0.9 ampere D. 25.23 amperes
517. What is the phase relationship between the current and voltage in an inductive circuit? A. the current lags the voltage by 00 B. The current lags the voltage by 900 C. the current leads the voltage by 900 D. the current leads the voltage by 00
524. The wattage rating of a carbon resistor is determined by A. a gold band B. a silver band C. the size of the resistor D. a red band
518. Current flow is measured in terms of A. amperes B. volts C. watts D. electron flow 101
525. The potential difference between two conductors which are insulated from each other is measured in A. ohms B. volts C. amperes D. coulombs
A. A B. B C. C D. D
526. The ratio of the true power to the apparent power in an a.c. electrical circuit is called the power factor. If the true power and the power factor of a circuit are known, the apparent power can be determined by A. multiplying the true power times 100 times the power factor B. multiplying the power factor times 100 times the true power C. dividing the true power times 100 by the power factor D. dividing the power factor times 100 by the input power
531. If resistor R3 is disconnected at terminal D, what will the ohmeter read? (Fig. 4) A. infinite resistance B. 0 ohm C. 10 ohms D. 20 ohms
527. A 24 volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of equal value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor? A. 12 volts B. 6 volts C. 3 volts D. 24 volts 528. When calculating power in a reactive or inductive a.c. circuit, the true power is A. more than the apparent power B. more than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and less than the apparent power in an inductive circuit C. less than the apparent power in a reactive circuit and more than the apparent power in an inductive circuit D. less than the apparent power
532. With an ohmmeter connected into the circuit as shown, what will the ohmmeter read in fig 5? A. 20 ohms B. infinite resistance C. 0 ohm D. 10 ohms
529. Determine the power furnished in watts by the generator of the circuit in fig 2. A. 288 watts B. 24 watts C. 48 watts D. 12 watts
533. In Fig 6 how many instruments (meters & ammeters) are installed correctly? A. three B. one C. two D. four
530. Concerned to Fig (3), all the resistance are of 1000 ohms. Which among the above give an equivalent resistance of 1500 ohms? 102
A. four terminals per stud B. three terminals per stud C. two terminals per stud D. as many terminals as you can stack on and still have the required number of threads showing through the nut 541. What would be the measured voltage of the series circuit in Fig. 7 between terminals A and B? A. 1.5 V B. 3.0 V C. 4.5 V D. 6.0 V
534. The secondary voltage of a transformer depends upon the efficiency of the transformer and the rate of the number of turns in the primary winding to the A. number of turns in the secondary winding B. amount of current flowing in the primary winding C. material from which the core is constructed D. distance separating the windings 535. The correct way to connect a test voltmeter in a circuit is A. in series with a unit B. between source voltage and the load C. in parallel with a unit D. to place one lead on either side of the fuse.
542. the efficiency of power in an a.c. circuit is expressed by what term? A. volt-amperes B. true power C. power factor D. apparent power
536. A cabin-entry light of 10 watts and dome light of 20 watts are connected in parallel to a 30 volt source. If the voltage across the 10 watt light is measured it will be A. one third of the input voltage B. twice the voltage across the 20 watt light C. equal to the voltage across the 20 watt light D. half the voltage across the 20 watt light
543. The current in a 60-watt, 120 volt electric light bulb is A. 0.8 amp B. 2 amp C. 1/3 amp D. 1/2 amp
537. What device is used to measure the very high insulation resistance of electric cables? A. high-resistance voltmeter B. moving iron-yane meter C. megger D. multimeter
544. which of the following will require the most electrical power? (note: 1 hp = 746 watts) A. four 30 watt lamps arranged in a 12 volt paralle circuit B. a 12 volt landing gear retraction motor which requires 8 amperes when operating the landing gear C. a 1/10 horsepower, 24 volt motor which is 75 percent efficient D. a 24 volt anticollision light circuit consisting of two light assemblies which require 3 amperes each during operation
538. Before troubleshooting an electrical circuit with a continuity light, the circuit must be A. connected to the aircraft battery B. connected to the aircraft generator C. isolated D. connected to an external source of power
545. What unit is used to express electrical power? A. Coulomb B. Volt C. watt D. ampere
539. A 14 ohm resistor is to be installed in a series circuit carrying 05 ampere. How much power will the resistor be required to dissipate? A. at least .70 milliwatt B. at least 35 milliwatts C. less than .035 watt D. less than .70 milliwatt
546. What is the operating resistance of a 30 watt light bulb designed for a 28 volt system? A. 30 ohms
540. What is the maximum number of electrical wire terminals that can be installed on one stud? 103
B. 1.07 ohms C. 26 ohms D. 0.93 ohm
553. find the voltage across the 5 ohm resistor using the drawing in Fig 8 A. 2.4 volts B. 12 volts C. 20.4 volts D. 24 volts
547. Which of the following statements is correct when made in reference to a parallel circuit? A. the current is equal in all portions of the circuit B. the current in amperes is the product of the EMF in volts times the total resistance of the circuit . . . Ohms C. the total current is equal to the sum of the currents through the individual branches of the circuit D. the current in amperes can be found by dividing the EMF in volts by the sum of the resistors in ohms
554. Find the total resistance of the circuit in fig 9 A. 16 ohms B. 10.4 ohms C. 2.6 ohms D. 21.2 ohms
548. Diodes are used in electrical power circuits primarily as A. current eliminators B. circuit cutout switches C. rectifiers D. power transducer relays 549. If three resistors of 3 ohms, 5 ohms and 22 ohms are connected in series in a 28 volt circuit, how much current will flow through the 3 ohm resistor? A. 9.3 amperes B. 1.05 amperes C. 1.03 amperes D. 0.93 amperes
555. Which of the following is correct in reference to electrical resistance? A. two electrical devices will have the same combined resistance if they are connected in series as they will have if connected in parallel B. if one of three bulbs in a parallel lighting circuit removed, the total resistance of the circuit will become greater C. an electrical device that has a high resistance will have more power than one with a low resistance with the same applied voltage D. a 5 ohm resistor at a 12 volt circuit will use less current than a 10 ohm resistor in a 24 volt circuit.
550. A good conductor of electricity is a material A. through or along which electrons move freely B. whose protons are all on the outside C. that contains few electrons D. through or along which protons move freely 551. A circuit has an applied voltage of 30 volts and a load consisting of a 10 ohm resistor in series with a 20 ohm resistor. What is the voltage drop across the 10 ohm resistor? A. 15 votls B. 10 volts C. 20 volts D. 30 volts
556. An electric cabin heater draws 25 amps at 110 volts. How much current will flow if the voltage is reduced to 85 volts? A. 19.3 amps B. 44.0 amps C. 4.4 amps D. 1.93 amps
552. find the total current flowing in the wire between points C and D in Fig 8 A. 5.0 amperes B. 2.4 amperes C. 3.0 amperes D. 0.6 amperes
557. Determine the total current flow in the circuit in Fig. 10. A. 0.2 amp B. 1.4 amps C. 0.4 amp D. 0.8 amp
104
B. 80 Ohms C. 120 Ohms D. 240 Ohms
558. The total resistance of thecircuit in Fig 11 is A. 25 ohms B. 35 ohms C. 37 ohms D. 17 ohms
564. In Fig 12, the equivalent resistance of the circuit is 20 ohms.Then the value of R2 is A. 40 Ohms B. 80 Ohms C. 120 Ohms D. 240 Ohms
559. A 48 volt source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of three resistors of equal value. What is the value of eachresistor? A. 36 ohms B. 4 ohms C. 8 ohms D. 12 ohms 560. Which is correct concerning a parallel circuit? A. total resistance will be smaller than the smallest resistor B. total resistance will decrease when one of the resistances is removed C. total voltage drop is the same as the total resistance D. total amperage remains the same, regardless of the resistance
565. What would be the effect if the PCO relay in Fig 13 failed to operate when the left hand tank was selected? A. The fuel pressure crossfeed valve would not open B. the fuel tank crossfeed valve would open C. the fuel tank crossfeed valve open light would illuminate D. the fuel pressure crossfeed valve open light would not illuminate
561. The voltage drop in a conductor of known resistance is dependent on A. the voltage of the circuit B. the amount and thickness of wire insulation C. only the resistance of the conductor and does not change with a change in either voltage or amperage D. the amperage of the circuit
566. The TCO relay in Fig 13 will operate if 24 VDC is applied to the bus and the fuel tank selector is in the A. right hand tank position B. crossfeed position C. left hand tank position D. normal position
562. An electric motor malfunctions causing it overheat, which will cause an incorporated thermal switch to A. prevent an open circuit B. break the circuit C. close the circuit D. break the circuit when cooled
567. With power to the bus and the fuel selector switched to the right-hand tank (see Fig 13) how many relays in the system are operated? A. three B. one C. two D. four
563. In Fig 12, the equivalent resistance of the circuit is 20 ohms.Then the value of R1 is A. 40 Ohms
105
Fig 13
Fig 14
Fig. 13
Fig. 14
Fig. 15
106
568. When electrical power is applied to the bus (Fig 13) which relays are engaged? A. PCO and TCC B. PCC and TCC C. TCC and TCO D. PCO and PCC 569. Energize the circuit with the fuel tank selector switch selected to the left hand position. Using the schematic in Fig 13, identify the switches that will change position A. 5,11,12,13,15,9,10 B. 5,6,3,7,11,13 C. 5,6,11,15,12,13 D. 5,7,11,15
A. no. 5 B. no. 13 C. no. 8 D. no. 6
570. Which of the components in fig 15 is a potentioneter? A. D B. E C. C D. M
576. When the landing gears are up and the throttles are retarded (see Fig 16) the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire A. No. 5 B. No. 7 C. No. 13 D. No. 6
571. In Fig 14, what electrical symbol is represented at E? A. Fixed capacitor B. fixed resistor C. variable resistor D. variable capacitor
577. Schematic diagrams indicate the location of individual components in the aircraft A. with aircraft station numbers of each component B. on the title block by federal stock number C. with respect to each other within the system D. with detail drawings of each component
572. When the landing gears are up and the throttles are retarded (see Fig 15) the warning horm will not sound if an open occurs in wire A. no 4 B. no 2 C. no 9 D. no 10
578. when referring to an electrical circuit diagram, what point is considered to be at zero voltage? A. the ground reference B. the current limiter C. the fuse D. the switch
573. The control valve switch should be placed in the neutral position when the landing gears are down (see Fig 15) to A. permit the test circuit to operate B. Provide a ground for the red light C. prevent the warning horn from sounding when the throttles are closed D. remove the ground from the green light
579. Trouble-shooting an open circuit with a voltmeter as shown in this circuit (see Fig 17) will A. permit current to flow and illuminate the lamp B. create a low resistance path and the current flow will be greater than normal C. restrict current flow and no voltage will appear on the voltmeter D. permit the battery voltage to appear on the voltmeter
574. Using Fig 16 under which condition will a ground be provided for the warning horn through both gear switches when the throttles are closed? A. right gear up and left gear down B. anytime the gears malfunction C. both gears up and the control valve out of neutral D. left gear up and right gear down 575. When the throttles are retarded with only the right gear down (see Fig 16) the warning horn will not sound if an open occurs in wire 107
A. neutralize the spilled battery acid by applying sodium bicarbonate, or sodium borate dissolved in water to the affected area followed by a water wash B. apply sodium bicarbonate in powder form to the affected area C. apply water to the affected area until the spilled battery acids turn a cloudy white D. wipe the affected area with an oil-soaked cloth. 584. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not….. until extremely low temperatures are reached because A. the acid is in the . . .thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution B. most of the acid is in the solution C. the increased internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent . . . . D. gases which act as an insulator are always present above the solution
580. A battery containing six lead-acid cells connected in series (2.1 volts per cell) has a terminal voltage of 10 volts when delivering 2 amperes to a load. What is the internal resistance of the battery? A. 1.3 ohms B. 2.6 ohms C. 5.0 ohms D. 6.3 ohms 581. In Fig.18 the equivalent resistance of the circuit is 20 ohms. Then the value of R3 is A. 40 Ohms B. 80 Ohms C. 120 Ohms D. 240 Ohms
585. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while it is being charged by a constant voltage source? A. the number of cells in the battery B. the total plate area of the battery C. the state of charge of the battery D. the ampere hour capacity of the battery 586. when installing batterieson a constant current battery charger it is important to know that batteries of A. more than one voltage rating may be connected in series and charged at the same time B. more than one voltag rating may be connected in parallel and charged at the same time C. only one voltage rating may be connected in series and charged at the same time D. only one voltage rating may be connected in parallel and charged at the same time
Fig. 18 582. Which symbol in Fig 19 represents a variable resistor? A. C B. A C. B D. D
587. Aircraft batteries are usually rated according to voltage and ampere-hour capacity. A 35 ampere-hour battery rating based on the 5-hour discharge rate, indicates A. the battery will supply a current of 7 amperes for 5 hours B. the battery will not become discharged in less than 5 hours C. a battery discharge rate of 35 amperes must not be continued for more than 5 hours D. the battery will supply a current of 35 amperes for 5 hours 588. Some aircraft use more than one battery to increase the power available for starting and for operating emergency loads. How are the batteries connected so that the output power will increase but the voltage will remain the same? A. by connecting the batteries to separate loads B. it is not possible C. by connecting the batteries in parallel
583. If an inspection discloses that a considerable amount of acid from a lead-acid battery has been spilled in the general area of the battery compartment, which of the following procedures should be followed?
108
D. by connecting the batteries in series
596. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when A. the battery is being charged B. the battery is fully charged C. the battery is in a discharged condition D. the battery is under load condition
589. What is the rated voltage-per-call of a nickelcadmium battery? A. 1.30 volts B. 2.00 volts C. 2.25 volts D. 1.55 volts
597. What is the cell voltage of charged . . . . .nickel-cadmium battery? A. 1.2 to 1.3 volts B. 1.4 to 1.5 volts C. 1.7 to 1.8 volts D. 1.8 to 1.9 volts
590. The electrolyte used in the nickel-cadmium battery is a A. potassium hydroxide solution B. hydrochloric acid solution C. sulfuric acid solution D. potassium peroxide solution
a
fully
598. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a low fluid level because the A. fluid evaporates through the vents. B. battery is fully charged C. fluid level was not periodically replenished. D. electrolyte becomes absorbed in the plates
591. Most aircraft storage batteries are rated according to A. open-circuit voltage and closed- circuit voltage B. voltage and ampere hour capacity C. the maximum number of volt-amperes (power) the battery can furnish to a load D. battery voltage and volts per call
599. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined? A. by measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte B. by a measured discharge C. by the temperature of the plates D. by the level of the electrolyte
592. (1) The electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery acts as a conductor (2) The electrolyte in a nickel-cadmium battery provides an insulator between the plates. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. only no 1 is true B. only no 2 is true C. both no 1 and no 2 are true D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
600. Which of the following may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully charged? A. the cell temperatures will run too low for proper output B. the electrolyte will be absorbed by the plates during the charging cycle C. no adverse results since water may be added anytime D. excessive spewing will occur during the charging cycle
593. Which of the following is an indication of improperly torqued cell link connections of a nickelcadmium battery? A. Light spewing at the cell caps B. low temperature in the cells C. toxic and corrosive deposits of potassium carbonate crystals D. heat or burn marks on the hardware
601. Overcharging of nickel-cadmium batteries causes A. excessive wetness around the cells, connectors and cases B. consistently low electrolyte level C. formation of an excessive amount of potassium carbonate D. excessive plate sulfation
594. What is the most probable cause of an excessive amount of potassium carbonate formation on a nickelcadmium battery? A. battery overcharging B. good battery ventilation C. diluted electrolyte solution D. high internal resistance in the battery
602. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer? A. medium-weight dashed line B. light solid line C. alternate short and long heavy dishes D. zigzag or wavy line
595. When should water be added to a nickelcadmium battery? A. 3 to 4 hours after the charging cycle is completed B. before starting the charging cycle C. during the charging cycle D. immediately after the charging cycle is completed 109
603. A line used to divide a drawing into equal or symmetrical parts is a A. centre line B. section line C. extension line D. cutting plane line
A. only no 1 is true B. only no 2 is true C. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true D. both no 1 and no 2 are true 607. Identify the bottom view of the object shown in Fig 21. A. A B. C C. B D. D
604. In the isometric view (see Fig 20) of a typical aileron balance weight, identify the view indicated by the arrow A. A B. B C. D D. C
608. What is a fuselage station number? A. A measurement in inches from the datum or some other point chosen by the manufacturer B. a zone number used to locate a particular point C. a measurement in inches from the centerline or zero station of the aircraft D. a measurement in inches which always starts at the nose of the aircraft
605. Schematic diagrams A. indicate the location of individual components in the aircraft B. do not give individual component location in the aircraft C. do not locate components within the system D. are used to locate parts and assemblies of parts for installation in aircraft.
609. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing to represent the exposed surfaces of an object in sectional view? A. sectioning line B. leader line C. break line D. outline or visible line
606. (1) A detail drawing is a description of a single part. (2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of two or more parts. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true?
110
616. (1) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of individual components in the aircraft (2) Schematic diagrams indicate the location of components with respect to each other within the system. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true A. only no 1 is true B. both no. 1 and no. 2 are true C. only no 2 is true D. neither no. 1 nor no. 2 is true
610. How many views are possible with an orthographic projection? A. four B. six C. three D. five 611. In an orthographic projection, which of the following is true? A. there are always at least two views B. it could have as many as eight views C. it must be accompanied with a pictorial drawing D. one-view, two-view and three-view drawings are the most common
617. Identify the phantom line in aircraft drawings A. __ _____ __ _____ __ ______ __ _____ __ B. __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ C. __ _____ __ __ _____ __ __ _____ __ __ D. __ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____ _____
612. Identify the left side view of the object shown in fig 22 A. A B. B C. C D. D
618. Which of the following is used extensively in all aircraft maintenance and repair manuals and are
613. Where is the title block usually located on a drawing? A. lower right corner B. lower left corner C. upper right corner D. upper left corner 614. A line used to show in edge which is not visible in a A. position line B. phantom line C. hidden line D. break line
invaluable in identifying and lcoating components and understanding the operation of various systems? A. drawing sketches B. pictorial drawings C. assembly drawings D. installation diagrams
615. Identify the bottom view of the object in Fig 23. A. B B. A C. C D. D
619. What are the proper procedural steps for sketching repairs and alterations? (see Fig 24) A. C,A,d, b B. B,C,A,D C. D,B,C,A 111
D. A,C,D,B
(2) On occasion, a mechanic may need to make a simple sketch of a proposed repair to an aircraft, a new design, or a modification. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. only no 1 is true B. only no 2 is true C. both no 1 and no 2 are true D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
620. What is the next step required for a description of the ilustration, Fig 25? A. darken the object outlines B. sketch extension and dimension lines C. add notes, dimensions, title and date D. sketch at least two more views of the object
626. What are the six possible of an object in Orthographic projection? A. Front, top, inside, rear, right side and left side B. front, outside, bottom, rear, right side and left side C. front, top, bottom, rear, right side, and left side D. front, top, bottom, inside, right side and left side 627. What is the dimension of the chamber in Fig 26? A. 0.0625 x 45" B. 0.0625 R C. 0.4062 R spherical D. 0.5000 diameter 621. When an aircraft drawing contains three separate views, the drawing is known as A. separate view projection B. side-view drawing C. an isometric three-view D. an orthographic projection 622. Which of the following statements is applicable when using a sketch for making a part? A. the sketch may be used only if supplemented with three-view orthographic projection drawings B. the sketch must show all information to manufacture the part C. the sketch need not show all necessary construction details D. a part is never made solely from a sketch
Fig 26 628. Identify the bottom view of the object shown in fig 27? A. A B. B C. C D. D
623. In orthographic projection drawings, it is often possible to portray an object clearly by the use of three views. When three-view projection is used, which of the following views are usually shown? A. top, front and bottom B. front, left-side and right-side C. top, front and right-side D. front, back and left-side 624. What should be the first step of the procedure in sketching an aircraft wing skin repair? A. draw heavy guidelines B. layout the repair C. draw the details D. block in the views
629. What are the means of conveying measurements through the medium of drawings? A. dimensions
625. (1)According to FAR91, repairs to an aircraft skin should have a detailed dimensional sketch included in the permanent records 112
B. tolerances C. edge distances D. bend allowances
B. 0.3125 C. 0.3185 D. 0.31255
630. Identify the extension line in Fig 28. A. C B. A C. B D. D 631. The diameter of the holes in the finished object of Fig 29 is A. 10 R B. 8 R C. 12 R D. 12 D
633. What would be the minimum diameter of 4130 round stock required for the construction of the clevis in Fig 30 that would produce a machined surface? A. 55/64 inch B. 1 inch C. 7/8 inch D. 1-1/16 inch 634. Using the information in fig 30, what size drill would be required to drill the clevis bolt holes? A. 21/64 inch B. 19/64 inch C. 5/16 inch D. 9/32 inch
632. What is the diameter of the hole for split pinin fig 30? A. 0.500
Fig 30
113
Fig 29
Fig 32
635. The purpose of cross-hatching in a drawing is to show A. the type of material used B. the type of construction employed C. the method of finishing D. the cross-section of an object
B. used to indicate different sections of the aircraft C. used to locate parts in the aircraft D. not used on working drawings 637. Schematic diagrams are used for A. locating components in the aircraft B. trouble shooting C. identifying items in the aircraft D. manufacturing aircraft parts
636. Zone numbers on aircraft blueprints are A. used to locate parts, sections and views on large drawings 114
638. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 + 0.005 -0.002 A. the maximum acceptable size is 4.389 B. the tolerance is 007 C. the maximum acceptable size is 4.285" D. the minimum acceptable size is 4.387"
D. 225 645. An aircraft reciprocating engine has 2,800 cubic inch displacement, develops 2,000 BHP and indicates 270 brake mean effective pressure. What is the engine speed (RPM)? (Use Fig 32) A. 2,200 B. 2,100 C. 2,300 D. 2,400
639. What is the allowable manufacturing tolerance for a bushing where the outside dimensions shown on the blueprint are: 1.0625 + 0.0025 - 00037 A. .0028 B. 1.0650 C. 1.0647 D. 0.0025
646. Using Fig 33, determine the cable size of a 40 feet length of single cable in line with a continuous rating running from a bus to the approx. 20 volt system with a 15 ampere load and a 1 volt drop A. No. 10 B. No. 11 C. No. 18 D. No. 6
640. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the A. specific location of the individual components within the aircraft B. direction of fluid flow through the system C. type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid D. part of model numbers of the individual components
647. Using Fig 33, determine the smallest size wire acceptable for carrying 80 amperes of continuous current using a single wire in free air A. No. 2 B. No. 8 C. No. 6 D. No. 4
641. What is the meaning of print tolerance as used in the title block of an aircraft blueprint? A. describes the size of the blueprint paper B. shows proprietary righgts of the bluepring C. establishes the tolerance for a part when not otherwise shown by a dimension line D. overrides any other dimension that may be shown on the blueprint
648. Using Fig 33, determine the maximum length of a No. 14 single wire in free air, running from a bus to the equipment in a 28 volt system with a 30 ampere continuous load and a 1 volt drop A. 11 feet B. 9 feet C. 13 feet D. 15 feet
642. In fig 31 the vertical distance between the top of the plate and the bottom of the lowest 15/64" hole is A. 2.250 B. 2.242 C. 2.367 D. 3.312
649. Using fig 33, determine the minimum wire size of a 15 foot length of single cable in a bundle supplying current to a component rated at 14 volts, with a 20 ampere load and an allowable 5 volt drop A. no. 12 B. no 10 C. no 16 D. no 18
643. Determine the engine speed (RPM) necessary to develop 850 brake horsepower in a 2,000 cubic inch displacement aircraft reciprocating engine operating at 185 BMEP (see Fig 32) A. 1.800 B. 1.200 C. 1.400 D. 1.600
650. Determine the minimum wire size of a single cable in a bundle carrying a continuous current of 20 amperes for 10 feet from the bus to the equipment in a 28 volt system with an allowable 1 volt drop (see Fig. 33) A. no. 12 B. no. 14 C. no. 16 D. no. 18
644. An aircraft reciprocating engine has 1,830 cubic inch displacement, develops 1,250 brake horsepower at 2,500 RPM. What is the brake mean effective pressure? (Fig 32) A. 217 B. 190 C. 205
115
651. Using Fig 34, determine the proper tension for a 3/16 inch cable (7x19 extra flex) if the temperature is 87 degree F A. 132 lb B. 140 lb C. 136 lb D. 144 lb
655. Which of the following tasks are completed prior to weighing an aircraft to determine its empty weight? A. remove all items on the aircraft equipment list drain fuel and hydraulic fluid B. remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and hydraulic fluid
652. In Fig 35, The power dissipated across the resistor is A. 4 W B. 40 W C. 25 W D. 2.5 W 653. In Fig 35 The energy transformed in to heat in 5 minutes is A. 28.6 K Cal B. .286 K Cal C. 2.86 K Cal D. 286 K Cal
C. remove all items on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel, compute oil and hydraulic fluid weight D. remove all items except those on the aircraft equipment list, drain fuel and fill hydraulic reservoir 656. The useful load of an aircraft consists of the A. crew, fuel, passengers and cargo B. crew, fuel, oil and fixed equipment C. crew, passengers, fuel, oil, cargo and fixed equipment D. crew, powerplant, fuel, oil, cargo and passengers
654. When computing weight and balance, an airplane is considered to be in balance when A. all moment arms of the plane fall within CQ range B. the movement of the passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range C. the pilot is able to compensate for unbalance by use of elevator trim D. the average moment arm of the loaded airplane tells within its CG range
657. Before weighing an aircraft, it is necessary to become familiar with the aircraft empty weight and CG range in the weight and balance information in 116
A. the particular aircraft's weight and balance records B. advisory Circular 43.13-1A, chapter 12 C. the applicable aircraft specification or type data sheet D. the manufacturer's service bulletins and letters
664. What determines whether the value of the moment is preceded by a plus (+) or a minus (-) sign in aircraft weight and balance? A. the addition or removal of weight B. the location of the weight in ference to the datum C. the result of a weight being added or removed and its location relative to the datum D. the location of the datum in reference to the aircraft center of gravity.
658. When preparing an aircraft for weighing, which of the following should be filled unless otherwise noted in the aircraft specifications or manufacturer's instructions? A. Hydraulic reservoirs B. Lavatory tanks C. Wash water reservoirs D. drinking water reservoirs
665. The maximum weight of an aircraft is the A. empty weight plus crew, maximum fuel, cargo and baggage B. empty weight plus crew, passenger and fixed equipment C. empty weight plus useful load D. empty weight plus crew and fixed equipment
659. (1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to be weighed periodically (2) Private airccraft are required to be weighed after making any alteration. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true B. only no 1 is true C. only no. 2 is true D. both no. 1 and no. 2 are true
666. In the theory of weight and balance, the influence of weight is directly dependent upon its distance from the A. centerline of the aircraft B. center of the fuselage C. center of gravity D. center of longitudinal axis
660. What document will reference the required equipment needed to maintain validity of a standard airworthiness certificate? A. manufacturers maintenance manual B. advisory circular 43.13-1A C. the aircraft's latest weight and balance information D. aircraft Specification or type certificate data sheet
667. When computing weight and balance for a helicopter you must consider that A. the flight altitudes of a helicopter are such that the weight and balance is not critical B. it is different from a fixed-wing aircraft, because the whirling rotor makes it difficult to locate the mean aerodynamic chord C. the arm of tail-mounted components is subject to constraint change D. it is computed the same as a fixed-wing aircraft
661. Which of the following designates the location of the reference points for levelling aircraft on the ground for weighing purposes? A. certificated A and P mechanic B. Federal Aviation Administrator C. Certificated repair station D. Aircraft manufacturer
668. Which of the following should be clearly indicated on the aircraft weighing form A. minimum allowable gross weight B. weight of unusable fuel C. weighing points D. zero fuel weight
662. To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the center of gravity, it is necessary that an aircraft be weighed A. with the main weighing points located within the normal CG limits B. in a level flight altitude C. with all items of useful load installed D. with at least minimum fuel in the fuel tanks.
669. The reference datum line is usually placed near the nose of the aircraft because A. this is the only location from which all arms can be measured B. all manufacturers have agreed on this point for purposes of standardization C. all measurements will be positive numbers, contributing to accuracy D. measurement of arms from the nose involves less movement of cargo
663. What unit of measurement is used to designate moment arm in weight and balance computation? A. pound/feet B. inches C. feet D. pound/inches
670. Zero fuel weight is the A. basic operating weight plus the weight of full passengers and cargo B. maximum weight of a loaded airplane less fuel 117
C. gross weight plus fuel, passengers and cargo D. basic weight plus the weight of items such as oil, crew and crew's baggage
676. Improper loading of a helicopter which results in exceeding either the fore or aft center of gravity will be hazardous due to the A. reduction or loss of effective cyclic pitch control B. override feature of the sprag clutch assembly C. controls effect being translated to the fuse large. D. reduction of loss of effective collective pitch control
671. The empty weight of an airplane is determined by A. adding the gross weight on each weighing point and multiplying by the measured distance to the datum B. adding the net weight of each weighing point and multiplying the measured distance to the datum C. subtracting the tare weight from the scale reading and adding the weight of each weighing point D. multiplying the measured distance from each weighing point to the datum times the sum of scale reading less the tare weight
677. How is the useful load of an aircraft determined? A. Subtract the empty weight from the maximum allowable gross weight B. add the empty weight and maximum allowable gross weight C. subtract the tare weight from the emptry weight D. multiply the total moment by the empty weight
672. When dealing with weight and balance of an aircraft, the term maximum weight is interpreted to mean the maximum A. weight of the empty aircraft B. weight of the useful load C. authorized weight of the aircraft and its contents D. weight of all optional or special equipment that can be installed in the aircraft
678. The maximum weight as used in weight in balance control of a given aircraft, can normally be found A. in the back of the aircraft logbook B. by weighing the aircraft to obtain empty weight and mathematically adding the weight of fuel, oil, pilot, passengers and baggage C. in the aircraft specifications or Type Certificate Date Sheets D. by adding the empty weight and payload.
673. The most important reason for aircraft weight and balance control in today's aircraft is A. efficiency in flight B. to reduce noise levels C. safety D. to increase payloads
679. An aircraft with an empty weight of 2,100 pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of +32.5 was altered as follows: (1) two 18 pound passenger seats located at +73 were removed (2) structural modifications were made at +77 increasing weight by 17pound: (3) a seat and safety belt weighing 25 pounds were installed at +74.5 and (4) radio equipment weighing 35 pounds was installed at +95. What is the new empty weight center of gravity? A. 30.44 B. +34.01 C. +33.68 D. +34.65
674. An aircraft has an empty weight of 2.886 lbs and a total moment of 107,865.78 inch-pounds. The following modifications were made: two seats weighing 15 lbs each were removed from station 73 and replaced with a cabinet weighing 97 lbs, one seat weighing 20 lbs was installed at station 73, communication gear weighing 30 lbs was installed at station 97. The new empty weight center of gravity is located A. 1.63inchesforwardoftheoldCG B. 2.05 inches forward of the old CG C. 1.63 inches aft of the old CG D. 2.05 inches aft of the old CG
680. The amount of fuel used for computing weight and corresponding center of gravity is A. empty fuel tanks B. unusable fuel C. full fuel tanks D. the amount of fuel necessary for 1/2 hour of operation
675. When determining the empty weight of an aircraft certificated under current airworthiness standards for the issue of type certificates (FAR Part 23) the oil contained in the supply tank is considered A. a part of the empty weight B. a part of the useful load C. the same as the fluid contained in the hydraulic system and reservour D. a part of the payload
681. An aircraft as loaded weighs 4.954 pounds at a centre of gravity of +30.4 inches. The center-ofgravity range is +32.0 inches to +42.1 inches. Find the minimum weight of the ballast necessary to bring the center of gravity within the center-of-gravity range. The ballast arm is +162 inches. 118
A. 61.98 lb B. 30.58 lb C. 46.24 lb D. 57.16 lb
and main gear center point . . . . . . 360.25" Net weight at right main gear. . . . . . 980lb Net weight at left main gear . . . . 9.770lb Net weight at tail gear. . . . . . . . . 1,970lb The following items were in the aircraft when weighed a. Lavatory water tank full (34lb at +352) b. Hydraulic fluid (22lb at -8) c.Removable ballast (146 lb at +380) What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft described above? A. 62.92 inches B. 60.31 inches C. 58.54 inches D. 59.50 inches
682. As weighed, the total empty weight of an aircraft is 5,862 pounds with a moment of 885,957. However, when the aircraft was weighed, 20 pounds of alcohol were on board at +84 and 23 pounds of hydraulic fluid were in a tank located at +101. What is the empty weight CG of the aircraft? A. 150.700 B. 151.700 C. 154.200 D. 151.365 683. Two boxes which weigh 10 pounds and 5 pounds are placed in an airplane so that their distance aft from the center of gravity are 4 feet and 2 feet respectively. How far forward of the center of gravity should a third box, weighing 20 pounds, be placed so that the center of gravity will not be changed? A. 3 feet B. 2.5 feet C. 6 feet D. 8 feet
687. When making a rearward weight and balance check to determine that the CG will not exceed the rearward limit during extreme conditions, the items of useful load which should be computed at their minimum weights are those located forward of the A. forward CG limit B. empty weight Cg C. datum D. rearward CG limit 688. When an empty aircraft is weighed, the combined net weight at the main gears is 3.540 pounds with an arm of 195.5 inches. At the nose gear, the net weight is 2.322 pounds with an arm of 83.5 inches. The datum line is forward of the nose of the aircraft. What is the empty CG of the aircraft? A. 151.1 B. 158.7 C. 155.2 D. 146.5
684. When the empty weight center of gravity of an aircraft fails within the empty weight center-ofgravity range listed in the aircraft specifications or type certificate data sheet, the A. critical rore-and-aft-loaded center-of-gravity positions computations are unnecessary B. aircraft must be loaded in accordance with nonstandard arrangements C. critical forward-loaded center-of-gravity position must be computed D. critical reward-loaded center-of-gravity position must be computed.
689. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1.500 pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of +28.4 was altered as follows: (1) two 12 pound seats located at +68.5 were removed: (2) structural modifications weighing +28 pounds were made at +73; (3) a seat and safety belt weighing 30 pounds were installed at +70.5 and (4) radio equipment weighing 25 pounds was installed at +85 What is the new empty weight centre of gravity? A. +23.51 B. +30.81 C. +31.35 D. +30.30
685. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,000 pounds and am empty weight centre of gravity of +31.5 was altered as follows: (1) two 15 pound passenger seats located at +72 were removed (2) structural modification increasing the weight 14 pounds were made at +75 (3) a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were isntalled at +73.5 and (4) radio equipment weighing 20 pounds is installed at +30 A. +30.61 B. +35.04 C. +31.61 D. +32.69
690. The following alteration was performed on an aircraft. A model B engine weighing 175 lbs was replaced by a model D engine weighing 185 lbs at a -62.00" station. The aircraft weight and balance records show the previous empty weight to be 998
686. Datum is forward of the main gear center point . . . . . . . . . . 30.24" Actual distance between tail gear 119
pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of 13.48". What is the new empty weight center of gravity? A. 12.99 inches B. 13.96 inches C. 14.25 inches D. 12.73 inches
B. are not normally permitted C. must be routed in separate enclosures which must be drained and vented to the outside atmosphere D. must not contain any fittings or connections within the entryways or compartments. 696. From the following sequences of steps, indicate the proper order you would use to make a single flare on piece of tubing: a. Place the tube in the proper size hole in the flaring block; b. Project the end of the tubes lightly from the top of the flaring tool, about the thickness of a dime c. Slip the fitting nut and sleeve on the tube d. Strike the plunger several light blows with a light weight hammer or mallet and turn the pfunger one half turn after each blow. e. Tighten the clamp bar securely to prevent slippage. f. Center the plunger or flaring pin over the tube. A. F, E, B, A, D, C B. A, C, E, B, D, F C. C, A, F, B, E, D D. C, B, F, E, A, D
691. When computing the maximum forward loaded center of gravity of an aircraft, minimum weights, arms and moments should be used for items of useful load that are located aft of the A. reward CG limit B. forward CG limit C. datum D. empty weight CG 692. An aircraft with an empty weight of 1,800 pounds and an empty weight center of gravity of +31.5 was altered as follows: (1) two 15 lbs passenger seats located at +50 were removed (2) structural modifications increasing the weight 14 lbs were made at +76 (3) a seat and safety belt weighing 20 pounds were installed at +73.5; and (4) radio equipment weighing 30 pounds was installed at +30 What is the new empty weight center of gravity? A. +31.97 B. +31.67 C. +32.69 D. +33.95
697. High-pressure hydraulic tubing which is damaged in a localized area to such extent that repair is necessary. May be repaird. A. with a union and two sets of connecting fittings B. only by replacing the entire tubing using the same size and material as the original C. by cutting out the damaged section of tubing and installing a short piece of high-pressure flexible host with nose clamps D. by cutting out the damaged section and weilding in a replacement section of tubing
693. Find the empty weight center-of-gravity located for the following tricycle gear aircraft. Each main wheel weighs 753 lbs, nose wheel weighs 72 lbs distance between nose wheel and main wheel is 87.1 inches, nose wheel location is +1.875 inches from datum with 1 gallon of hydraulic fluid at -21.0 inches indicated in the weight scale A. +97.375 inches B. +94.89 inches C. +95.61 inches D. +96.11 inches
698. What is an advantage of a double flare on aluminum tubing? A. It is less concentric than a single flare B. Ease of construction C. it is less resistant to the shearing effect of torque D. it is more resistant to the shearing effect of torque 699. If failure of a flexible hydraulic hose equipped with swaged-end fittings occurs, which of the following repair procedures should be follows? A. insert a nonmetallic hose liner which is approved for use with the type of fluid contained in the system and clamp firmly at both ends B. remove the hose fittings and reuse on a new flexible line of the correct length C. replace the hose with rigid tubing equipped with end fittings of the same type as those used in other parts of the system D. install a replacement hose of the proper length which has been factory equipped with swaged-end fittings
694. Which coupling nut should be selected for use with 1/2 inch aluminium oil lines which are to be asserted. Using flared tube ends and standard AN nuts, sleeves end fittings? A. AN-818-2 B. AN-818-8 C. AN-818-5 D. AN-818-12 695. Hydraulic lines located in entryways of passenger, crew or baggage compartments A. should be suitably supported and protected against physical damage 120
700. Select the correct statement in reference to flare fittings A. AN fittings can easily be identified by the shoulder between the end of the threads and the flare cone B. all parts of the AN fitting assemblies are interchangeable with AC fitting assemblies with the exception of the sleeves C. AC and AN fittings are identical except for the material from which they are made and the identifying color D. AC fittings have generally replaced the older AN fittings
used when a tubing flare is required. The use of this type connector eliminates A. the need for flexible lines interconnecting movable and stationary components B. the flaring operation prior to assembly C. the possibility of reducing the flare thickness by wiping or ironing during the tightening process D. wrench damage to the tubing during the tightening process 708. Which of the following statements about Ms (Military Standard) flareless fittings is correct? A. Ms flareless fitting sleeves must not be preset on the line prior to final assembly. B. During installation, MS flareless fittings are normally tightened by turning the nut a specified amount after the sleeve and fitting sealing surface. C. MS flareless fittings shold not be lubricated prior to assembly D. MS flareless fittings must be tightened to a specific torque.
701. Flexible lines should be installed A. where bends are necessary B. only aft of the firewall C. with just enough slack to make the connection D. with 5-8 percent slack 702. The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length to make such a connection should be A. 54-1/2 inches B. 50-3/4 inches C. 51 inches D. 52-1/2 inches
709. When flaring aluminium tubing for use with AN coupling nuts and sleeves, the flare angle should be A. 30 degree B. 37 degree C. 67 degree D. 45 degree
703. How should a flexible hose be installed? A. Stretched tightly between two fittings B. with slack or bend in the hose C. with as small a bend radius as possible D. to allow maximum flexing during operation
710. Scratches or nicks on the straight portion of aluminium alloy tubing may be repaired if they are no deeper than A. 20 percent of the wall thickness B. 1/32 inch C. 1/16 inch D. 10 percent of the wall thickness.
704. Which of the following colors identifies an aft aluminium flared-tube fitting? A. Green B. Black C. Red D. Blue
711. Which of the following is used in aircraft plumbing to connect moving parts with stationary parts in locations subject to vibration? A. flexible aluminium tubing B. corrosion-resistant steel tubing C. thin wall aluminium tubing D. flexible hose
705. Soft aluminium tubing (1100,3003 or 5052) may be bent by hand if the size is A. 5/16 inch or less B. 7/16 inch or less C. 5/8 inch or less D. 1/4 inch or less
712. If it is necessary to route hydraulic lines and electrical power cables adjacent to each other, the electrical cable should be A. routed below the hydraulic line and clamped securely to the structure B. routed above the hydraulic line and clamped securely to the structure C. attached securely to the line by clamps that will maintain a separation between the line and cable equal to at least four times the diameter of the fluid line D. grounded at intervals not to exceed four times the distance separating the fluid line and the cable
706. The material specifications for a certain aircraft require that a replacement oil line be fabricated from 3/4 inch, 0.072 5052-0 aluminium alloy tubing. What is the inside dimension of this tubing? A. 0.606 inch B. 0.572 inch C. 0.688 inch D. 0.750 inch 707. In most aircraft hydraulic systems, two piece tube connectors consisting of a sleeve and a nut are 121
713. When installing a hydraulic line, the tube flare should meet the fitting squarely and fully before starting the nut. The flare should never be drawn to the fitting with the nut because this may A. deform the line B. strip the threads on the fitting C. deform the flare D. strip the threads on the nut
C. a tube may be pulled in line if nut will start on threaded coupling D. tension is desirable because it cannot shift when pressurized 720. A fluid line marked with the letters PHDAN A. carries hydraulic fluid back to the reservoir B. is a high-pressure fluid line. The letters mean Pressure High Discharge at Nacella C. is carrying a fluid which may be dangerous to personnel D. must be made of a nonphsphorous metal
714. Flexible hose used in aircraft plumbing is classified in size according to the A. outside diameter B. cross-sectional area C. wall thickness D. inside diameter
721. The principal advantage of Teflon hose is A. its operating strength B. its low cost C. its corrosion resistance D. its flexibility
715. A scratch or nick in aluminium alloy tubin can be repaired by burnishing provided the scratch or nick does not A. exceed 5 percent of the tube diameter B. appear in the heel of a bend in the tube C. exceed 20 percent of the wall thickness of the tube D. exceed 10 pecent of the tube diameter
722. Which of the following statements concerning Bernoulli's principle is true? A. the pressure of a fluid increases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases B. the pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the velocity of the fluid increases C. it has no practical application in today's aircraft D. it applied only to gases
716. Which of the following tubings has the characteristics (medium strength, workability) necessary for use in a medium-pressure (1,500 PSI) hydraulic system? A. 2024T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy B. Copper or hard plastic C. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy D. carbon steel or chrome molybdenum
723. (1) Bonded clamps are used for support when installing metal tubing (2) Unbonded clamps are used for support when installing wiring Concerning the above statements A. only No. 2 is true B. only no 1 is true C. both no 1 and no 2 are true D. neither no 1 nor no 2 is true
717. Which of the following tubings has the characteristics (high strength, abrasion resistance) necessary for use in a high-pressure (3,000 PSI) hydraulic system for operation of landing gear and flaps? A. copper or hard plastic B. 2024-T or 5052-0 aluminium alloy C. corrosion-resistant steel annealed or 1/4 H D. 1100-1/2H or 3003-1/2H aluminium alloy
724. Flexible nose may be used in aircraft fluid systems A. to replace only low-pressure fluid system lines B. to replace any fluid system line not subject to heat C. according to the manufacturer's specifications D. to replace any fluid system line
718. When installing bonded clamps to support metal tubing A. paint removal from tube is unnecessary as it will inhibit corrosion B. paint clamp and tube after clump installation for slippage identification C. paint clamp and tube after clamp installation to prevent corrosion D. remove paint or anodizing from tube at clamp location
725. Which of the following nondestructive inspection methods would be most suitable for inspecting wing internal structures? A. continuous magnetic particle inspection B. penetrant inspection C. Radiographic inspection D. residual magnetic particle inspection 726. Magnetic particle inspection is used primarily to detect A. distortion B. irregular surfaces C. porosity and thickness of ferromagnetic metals D. flaws on or near the surface
719. In a metal tubing installation A. rigid straight line runs are preferable B. tension is undesirable because pressurization will cause it to expand and shift 122
727. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material being checked must A. have subsurface cracks B. be magnetic C. be nonmagnetic D. have surface cracks
734. The magnetic particle inspection is somewhat unreliable for distinguishing or detecting A. laps and fatigue cracks B. cold shuts C. hairline discontinuities and small cracks D. discontinuities which are below the surface
728. Which of the following nondestructive testing methods is most successful in detecting integranular corrosion in nonferrous metal? A. spectography inspection B. Radiography inspection C. magnetic particle inspection D. eddy current inspection
735. What type of discontinuities are formed by a parting or a rupture of the metal being magnetically tested? A. lap or voids B. cold shut and inclusions C. inclusion and laps D. pipes or voids
729. Which of the following nondestructive inspection methods would normally be the most satisfactory to determine the internal structural condition of a highly stressed cast aluminium alloy fitting? A. X-ray or radiographic inspection B. dye penetrant inspection C. Magnetic particle inspection D. fluorescent penetrant inspection
736. Which statement relating to the residual magnetizing inspection method is true? A. it requires careful and intelligent interpretation and evaluation of the discontinuities it reveals B. it is used in practically all circular and longitudinal magnetizing procedures C. it may be used only with steels which have been heat treated for stressed applications D. it indicating medium is applied when the magnetizing force is being maintained/
730. What is the principal advantage of the radiographic inspection method of nondestructive testing? A. minimum safety precautions required B. little or no disassembly of structure C. simplicity of equipment operation D. low cost
737. what two types of indicating mediums are available for magnetic particle inspection? A. iron and ferric oxides B. wet and dry process materials C. penetrant and fluorescent material D. high retentivity and low permeability material
731. What method a magnetic particle inspection is used most often to inspect aircraft parts for invisible craks and other defects? A. residual B. inductance C. continuous D. intermittent
738. Which of the following metals can be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? A. magnesium alloys B. aluminium alloys C. iron alloys D. copper
732. Which of the following factors is considered basic knowledge of X-ray exposure? A. the density, thickness, size and shape of the object to be exposed B. the X-ray unit's capabilities and its proper operation C. the distance and angle for 1 minute exposure D. the type and exact size of the discontinuity to be detected
739. How is an item demagnetized after a magnetic particle inspection? A. rinse it with a nonmagnetic solution B. lay it aside for a period of time C. subject it to an alternating current energized coil D. subject the item to direct current 740. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetization? A. 45 degree B. longitudinal C. transverse D. circumferential
733. which method of magnetization produces the greatest sensitivity in locating subsurface discontinuities? A. continuous circular with a solenoid B. continuous longitudinal with a solenoid C. residual circular with a conductor bar D. residual longitudinal with a conductor bar
741. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be detected by A. the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers 123
B. heating the part to approximately 750 degree and observing the surface for any material that may have been forced out of a crack C. magnetic particle inspection D. submerging the part in a concentrated solution of caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) and rinsing with clear water
D. the part was not thoroughly washed before developer was applied 749. Which type of current is usually used to demagnetize aircraft parts? A. alternating, decreasing B. direct, increasing C. alternating, increasing D. direct, decreasing
742. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection requires A. that the developer be applied to a wet surface B. a shorter than normal penetrating time C. a longer than normal penetrating time D. the surface to be highly polished
750. When using the dye penetrant test, it is well if remember that the A. smaller the defect, the longer the required penetrating time B. larger the defect, the longer the required penetrating time C. smaller the defect, the shorter the required penetrating time D. penetrating time is independent of the size of the defect
743. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetisation should be used to A. reveal all possible defects B. prevent permanent magnetization C. prevent one-way polarization D. ensure uniform current flow
751. If a pure metal is heated above its critical temperature and cooled to room temperature, it will A. form a mechanical mixture B. return to its original structure C. form a combination of a solid solution and mechanical mixture D. form a complex solution
744. What is the primary limitation of the dye penetrant method of inspection? A. the defect must be open to the surface B. the smaller the defect, the longer the penetrant time required C. the washing or rinsing operation causes unreliable results D. it is limited in use to a small number of metals
752. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle buildup forming A. a fernlike pattern B. a single line C. a smooth outline D. parallel lines
745. What is the purpose of the developer as used dye penetrant inspection? A. it removes penetrant from surface B. it causes penetrant to glow in the dark C. it causes penetrant on surface to seep into cracks D. it brings out the penetrant to show defects
753. A part which is being prepapred for dye penetrant inspection should be cleaned A. by sandblasting B. with a volatile petroleum-base solvent C. with the penetrant developer D. with water-base solvents only
746. Dye penetrant inspection method will detect A. surface defects B. subsurface flaws C. deteriorated molded rubber D. cracks in any porous material
754. Which type crack will probably cause the most buildup in the magnetic particle indicating medium? A. heat-treated B. shrink C. fatigue D. grinding
747. Before applying dye penetrant to an aluminum part, first A. clean the part thoroughly B. apply the developer C. mix the penetrant with water D. mix the penetrant with the developer
755. Under magnetic particle inspction a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which of the following conditions? A. the discontinuity pattern is straight B. the discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part. C. the discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part D. the discontinuity pattern is not clear
748. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that A. the part was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied B. the part is not damaged C. the part is badly damaged over an extensive area of its surface 124
756. The main disadvantage of dye penetrant inspection is that A. the chemicals used are dangerous to the inspection personnel B. the defect must be open to the surface C. it does not work on nonferrous metals D. it is excessively time consuming
A. forms a hard case on a part to resist wear B. decreases the size of the grain structure C. toughness steel to increase its tensile strength D. increases bearing heat resistance 764. The difference between annealing and normalizing steel is that normalizing usually requires temperatures A. higher than critical point, with slower cooling B. lower than critical point, with faster cooling C. lower than critical point, with slower cooling D. higher than critical point, with faster cooling
757. What defects will be detected by magnetizing a part using continuous longitudinal magnetization with a cable? A. defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part B. defects parallel to the long axis of the part C. defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part D. defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part
765. Why is steel tempered after being hardened? A. to increase its hardness and ductility B. to decrease its ductility and brittleness C. to increase its strength and decrease its internal stresses D. to relieve its internal stresses and reduce its brittleness
758. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect which of the following defects? A. defects parallel to the long axis of the part B. defects perpendicular to the long axis of the part C. defects perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part D. defects parallel to the concentric circles of magnetic force within the part
766. Which of the following aluminum alloy designations indicates that the metal has been solution heat treated and artificially aged? A. 3003 F B. 7075-T6 C. 5052-H36 D. 6061-O
759. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat-treated? A. stress B. intergranular C. surface D. fretting
767. Alloy 2024 rivets should be driven within 10 minutes after they have been quenched; otherwise, before being used they must be A. aged B. anodised C. reheat treated D. refrigated
760. If too much time is allowed to elapse during the transfer of 2017 or 2024 aluminum alloy from the heat treatment medium to the quench tank, it may result in A. case hardening B. a dull,stained or streaked surface C. retarded age hardening D. impaired corrosion resistance
768. Which of the following qualities of magnesium alloy are improved by precipitation heat treatment? A. ductility and toughness B. ductility and yield strength C. hardness and yield strength D. hardness, ductility and yield strengh
761. Which heat-treating process of metal produces a hard, wear-resistant surface over a strong, tough core? A. case hardening B. annealing C. tempering D. normalizing
769. Which type of steel is best suited for case hardening? A. low-carbon, low alloy B. high carbon, low alloy C. low carbon, high alloy D. high carbon, high alloy
762. When heat treating a small aluminum forging, a cold water quench should be used to produce A. maximum hardness B. minimum distortion C. minimum diffusion D. maximum corrosion resistance
770. Which of the following cannot be heat treated repeatedly without harmful effects? A. unclad aluminum alloy in sheet form B. products which are molded of steel C. 6061-T9 stainless steel D. clad aluminum alloy
763. Nitriding is a process which 125
771. Metal to be tested on the Rockwell Hardness Tester must meet which of the following specification(s)? A. it must be ground smooth on one side only and cleaned B. the two opposite ground surfaces must be free of scratches and foreign matter C. the two opposite surfaces must be parallel but not necessarily cleaned D. the two opposite ground surfaces should be perpendicular and cleaned
D. to be mounted in a vertical position 778. The society of Automotive Engineers and the American iron and Steel Institute use a numerical index system to identify the composition of various steels. The symbol 1020 indicates a plain carbon steel containing an average of A. 20.00 percent carbon B. 2.00 percent carbon by volume C. 2.00 percent carbon by weight D. 0.20 percent carbon by weight
772. What will determine the hardness of steel ordinary temperatures? A. the number of particles of iron carbide in the mixture B. the size of the particles of iron austnite in the mixture C. the distribution of the particles of iron carbide throughout the mixture D. the transformation of pearlite to austnite in the mixture 773. Unless otherwise specified, toruqe values to tightening aircraft nuts and bolts relate to A. dry, thoroughly degreased threads B. tightly oiled threads C. well oiled threads D. threads lubricated with a dry lubricant
779. Which of the bolt head code markings shown in Fig 36 identifies a corrosion resistant AN standard steel bolt? A. A B. B C. C D. D
774. Which of the following is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine firewalls? A. aluminium alloy sheet B. stainless steel C. chrome-molybdenum alloy steel D. magnesium-titanium alloy steel
780. Which of the following statements regarding aircraft bolts is correct? A. AN standard steel bolts are marked with two raised dashes on the bolt head B. when tightening castellated nuts on drilled bolts, if the cotter pin holes donot line up, it is not permissible to overtighten the nut to permit alignment of the next slot with the cotter pin hole. C. in general, bolt grip lengths should equal the material thickness D. alloy steel bolts smaller than 1/4 inch diameter should not be used in primary structure
775. Unless otherwise specified or required, aircraft bolts should be installed so that the bolt head is A. upward, or in a rearward direction B. upward, or in a forward direction C. downward, or in a forward direction D. downward, or in a rearward direction 776. Alclad is a metal consisting of A. aluminium alloy surface layers and a pure alumium core B. pure aluminum surface layers on an aluminum alloy core C. a homogeneous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy D. alternating layers of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy
781. Generally speaking, bolt grip lengths should be A. one and one half times the thickness of the material through which they extend B. equal to the thickness of the material through which they extend plus approximately one diameter C. equal to the thickness of the material through which they exten D. at least three times the thickness of the thinnest sheet
777. A fiber-type self-locking nut should never be used on an aircraft if the bolt is A. under shear loading B. under tension loading C. subject to rotation
782. Select the grip length of a bolt used to fasten two 5/8 inch steel plates together A. 1- 3/8 inches B. 1-1/4 inches 126
C. 3/4 inch D. 7/8 inch
789. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an A. AN aluminum alloy bolt B. NAS standard aircraft bolt C. NAS close tolerance bolt D. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt
783. When the specific torque value for nuts is not given, where can be recommended torque value be found? A. AC 43, 13-2A B. FAR part 43, Appendix D C. Technical Standard Order D. AC 43,13-1A
790. The core material of ALCLAD 2024-T4is A. commercially pure aluminum, and the surface material is strain-hardened aluminum alloy B. heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum C. commercially pure aluminum and the surface material is heat-treated aluminum alloy D. strain-hardened aluminum alloy and the surface material is commercially pure aluminum
784. Identify the clevis bolt illustrated in Fig 37 A. A B. B C. D D. C
791. The high purity aluminum code number 1100 identifiers what type of aluminum? A. Aluminum alloy containing 11 percent copper B. heat treated aluminum alloy C. aluminum alloy containing zinc D. 99 percent commercially pure aluminum 792. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a A. class 1 fit for the threads B. class 2 fit for the threads C. class 3 fit for the threads D. class 4 fit for the threads
785. A bolt with a single raised dash on the head is classified as an A. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt B. NAS standard aircraft bolt C. NAS close tolerance bolt D. AN aluminium bolt
793. In the four-digit aluminum index system number 2024, the first digit indicates A. zinc has been added to the aluminum B. the percent of alloy added C. the different alloys in that group D. copper is the major alloying element
786. How is a clevis bolt used with a form-end cable terminal secured? A. with a self-locking nut with a lock washer to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork B. with a shear nut tightened to a snug fit, but with no strain imposed on the fork and safetied with a cotter pin C. with a castle hut tightened until slight binding occurs between the fork and the fitting to which it is being attached D. with a shear nut and cotter pin or a think selflocking nut tightened enough to prevent rotation of the bolt in the fork
794. How is the locking feature of the fiber-type lock nut obtained? A. by a saw-cut fiber insert with a pinched in thread the locking section B. by the use of an unthreaded fiber locking insert C. by a fiber insert held firmly in place at the base of the load carrying section D. by placing the threads in the fiber insert out of phase with the load carrying section
787. A cross inside a traigle on the head of a bolt used on approved aircraft installations would indicate the bolt is a A. standard corrosion-resistant bolt B. special purpose bolt C. magnetically inspected bolt D. close tolerance bolt
795. Identify the weld in Fig 38, caused by a excessive amount of acetylene A. D B. A C. C D. B 796. Using fig 38 select the illustration which depicts a cold weld A. C B. A C. B
788. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane? A. in loading gear assemblies B. for tension and shear load conditions C. where external tension loads are applied D. only for shear load applications 127
D. D
803. One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at a distance from the weld of more than A. 1/2 inch B. 1 inch C. 1/8 inch D. 1/4 inch
797. It is necessary to reweld a joint A. use an oversize welding rod B. remove all the old weld C. preheat before rewelding D. increase the temperature to ensure proper penetration
804. What type weld is shown at A in Fig 39? A. fillet B. butt C. lap D. edge
798. Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding? A. to relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal B. to born out any excess carbon deposited during welding C. to introduce a slight amount of carbon to improve the surface hardness of the weld D. to remove the surface scale formed during welding
805. What type weld is shown at B in Fig 39? A. Fillet B. double butt C. flat D. edge 806. What type weld is shown at G in fig 39? A. lap B. butt C. flat D. edge
799. Holes and a few projecting globules are found in a weld. What action should be taken? A. fill the holes with solder B. reheat the bead to melt the globules C. remove all the old weld and reweld the joint D. file the rough surface
807. Which tool can be used to measure axle end play? A. depth gage B. dial indicator C. axle gage D. protractor
800. Select a characteristic of a good gas weld A. the depth of penetration shall be sufficient to ensure fusion of the filler rod B. the weld should be built up 1/8 inch C. the weld should taper off smoothly into the base metal D. no oxide should be formed on the base metal
808. Hardened Steel bars of various lengths used to set up a piece of work to a required angle are known as A. Sinc bars. B. System bars. C. Parallel bars. D. Protractor bars.
801. Which of the following is an unacceptable characteristic of a weld on an aircraft? A. projecting globules B. smooth seam C. a smooth taper into the base metal D. an extra thickness built up at the joint
809. What is the measurement reading on the vernier caliper scale in Fig 41? A. 1.411 inches B. 1.436 inches C. 1.461 inches D. 1.700 inches
802. What is the most important characteristic that contributes to a sound weld? A. inclusions B. fusion C. pudding D. porosity 128
A. combination set B. surface gage C. dial indicator D. micrometer caliper 816. If it is necessary to accurately measure the diameter of a hole approximately 3/8 inch in diameter the mechanic should use a A. telescoping gage and read the measurement directly from the gage B. telescoping gage and determine the size of the hole it taking a micrometer reading of the adjustable end of the telescoping gage C. 0 to 1 inch inside micrometer and read the measurement directly from the micrometer D. small hole gage and determine the size of the hole it taking a micrometer reading of the ball and of the gage
810. Which tool should you use to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a surface being checked for flatness? A. depth gage B. surface gage C. thickness gage D. dial indicator 811. If the thumble of a standard micrometer caliper, graduated in thousandths of an inch, in turned one full revolution, the spindle it moves A. 0.010 inch B. 0.10 inch C. 1.10 inch D. 0.0010 inch
817. The measurement reading on the micrometer appearing in Fig 43 is A. 2958 B. 2902 C. 2812 D. 2885
812. Which of the following represents the vernier scale . . . . . . .of a micrometer? A. 0.00001 B. 0.001 C. 0.0001 D. 0.01
818. Which of the following is generally used to set a divider to an exact dimension? A. machinist scale B. surface gage C. thickness gage D. dial indicator
813. In the above circuit (Fig. 42), the voltage across C1 is A. 300 V B. 600 V C. 900 V D. 450 V
819. Which of the following is generally used to calibrate a micrometer of check its accuracy? A. Gage block B. dial indicator C. surface gage D. machinist scale
814. In the above circuit (Fig. 42), the voltage across C2 is A. 300 V B. 600 V C. 900 V D. 450 V
820. what precision measuring tool is used for measuring crankpin and main bearing journals for out of round wear? A. dial gage B. V blocks C. micrometer caliper D. depth gage
815. Which tool is used to find the center of a shaft or other cylindrical work? 129
821. The side clearance of piston rings is measured with a A. depth gage B. thickness gage C. hole gage D. telescopic gage
B. Micrometer caliper C. dividers D. dial indicator 829. During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a compressed air starter, a hung start occurred. Select the proper procedure from the following A. advance the power lever B. increase airpower to the starter C. re-engage the starter D. shut the engine down
822. Crankshaft alignment runout can be checked by rotating the shaft on V blocks and a surface plate. The measurements are taken with a A. height gage B. dial gage C. depth gage D. telescopic gage
830. When towing an aircraft A. discharge all hydraulic pressure to prevent accidental operation of the landing gear, retracting mechanism B. all tailwheel aircraft must be towed backwards C. if the aircraft has a steerable nosewheel, the locking scissors should be set to full swivel D. all nosewheel aircraft must be towed backwards
823. How can the dimensional inspection of a bearing in a rocker arm be accomplished? A. depth gage and micrometer B. thickness gage and V blocks C. thickness gage and push . . . . . . . . . D. telescopic gage and micrometer
831. When starting an aircraft, engine equipped with a float-type carburetor, the carburetor air heat control should be placed in A. the COLD position B. the COLD position under nonicing conditions and in the HOT position under icing conditions C. the HOT position to reduce the engine warmup period D. a position between HOT and COLD
824. The twist of a connecting rod is checked by installing push-fit arbors in both ends supported by parallel steel bars on a surface plate . Measurements are taken between the arbor and the parallel bar with a A. dial gage B. height gage C. thickness gage D. depth gage 825. The clearance between the piston rings and the ring lands is measured with a A. micrometer caliper B. thickness gage C. dial gage D. depth gage
832. When approaching the front of an idling turbojet engine, the hazard area extends forward of the engine approximately A. 35 feet B. 5 feet C. 15 feet D. 25 feet
826. Piston-ring gap is measured at a point inside the cylinder, even with the cylinder flange, using a A. depth gage B. thickness gage C. dial gage D. height gage
833. The most satisfactory extinguishing agent for use in case of carburetor or intake fire is A. dry chemical B. carbon tetrachloride C. carbon dioxide D. fine water spray
827. Which statement is correct concerning a valve that is strentched? A. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage and the valve stem B. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage and the valve face C. a gap will be noticeable between the stretch gage and both the valve stem and the valve face D. the stretch gage will touch only in the radius that connects the valve stem to the valve face
834. Identify the signal to engage rotor on a rotorcraft in Fig 44 A. A B. B C. D D. C
828. Which tool can be used to determine piston pin out of round wear? A. Telescopic gage 130
840. If fuel flows steadily from the internal supercharger drain valve during an attempt to start an engine, which of the following is a possible cause of the trouble? A. excessive booster pump pressure B. the fuel pump relief valve is out of adjustment C. an improper setting of the misture control D. a fatigued carburetor fuel supply line
835. Starting a reciprocating engine which has a liquid lock in one of the cylinders could cause A. compressive failure of the valve bodies B. starter clutch damage C. removal of the lubricating film on the cylinder walls D. major structural damage
841. Which of the hand signals in Fig 45, would you give if a taxing aircraft were in danger of striking some object? A. C B. A C. B D. D
836. The priming of a fuel injected horizontally opposed engine is accomplished by placing the fuel control lever in which of the following? A. AUTO-LEAN position B. IDLE-CUTOFF position C. AUTO-RICH position D. FULL-RICH position 837. Which of the following can be a cause of preignition? A. high intake manifold pressure B. vaporized fuel compressed to a critical pressure C. feathered edges on valves D. excessive spark plug gap
842. Induction fires during starting can be extinguished by A. directing carbon dioxide into the air intake of the engine B. directing carbon dioxide into the exhaust system C. closing the fuel shutoff valve D. closing the throttle
838. Which action would be required if the turbine inside temperature exceeds the specified maximum during the starting sequence of a turboprop engine? A. turn off the fuel and ignition switch, discontinue the start and make an investigation B. advance the power lever and observe for excessive smoke, if present, discontinue the staff C. continue the start since temperature will stabilize as soon as 5,000 RPM is reached D. turn off the fuel and ignition switch, discontinue the start, then wait 5 minutes and initiate the starting sequence
843. Which of the following indicators should be checked immediately after starting a reciprocating engine? A. oil pressure B. manifold pressure C. tachometer D. cylinder head temperature 844. During the starting sequence of a turboprop engine, there is no oil pressure indication at 5,000 RPM for either the reduction gear or the power unit. What action is required? A. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue the start and replace the oil pressure gauge B. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, let the engine motorize for 5 minutes and restart C. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue the start and make an investigation D. turn off the ignition switch and fuel, discontinue the start, wait for 5 minutes and initiate the starting sequence
839. How is a flooded engine, equipped with a floattype carburetor, cleared of excessive fuel? A. crank the engine with the starter or by hand, with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and the throttle fully open until the fuel charge has been cleared B. crank the engine with the starter or by hand with the mixture control in cutoff, ignition switch off and the throttle closed, until the fuel has been cleared C. turn off the fuel and the ignition. Discontinue the starting attempt until the excess fuel has cleared D. crank the engine with the starter or by hand with the mixture control in cutoff ignition switch on & the throttle fully open until the excess fuel has cleared on until the engine starts.
845. When starting an engine equippped with a floattype carburetor with an idle cutoff unit, the mechanic should place the mixture control in the A. IDLE-CUTOFF position B. FULL-LEAN position 131
C. FULL-RICH positon while priming the engine, however, the mixture control should be returned to the IDLE-theengine D. FULL-RICH position
852. what is the identification color for turbine fuel? A. blue B. green C. straw D. purple
846. When approaching the rear of an idling turbojet engine, the hazard area extends aft of the engine approximately A. 80 feet B. 100 feet C. 50 feet D. 5 feet
853. How are aviation fuels which possess greater antiknock qualities than 100 octane classified? A. as antidetonants B. according to the mililiters of lead C. by reference to normal heptane D. by performance numbers
847. During starting of a turbojet powerplant using a compressed air starter, a hot start occurrence was recorded. Select what happened from the following A. the pneumatic starting unit overheated B. the pneumatic starter overheated C. the powerplant was preheated before starting D. the fuel/air mixture was excessively rich
854. Why is ethylene dibromide added to all grades of aviation gasoline? A. to prevent detonation at takeoff power settings B. to remove zinc silicate deposits from the spark plugs C. to scavenge lead oxide from the cylinder combustion chambers D. to increase the antiknock rating of the fuel
848. Aviation gasoline mixed with jet fuel will have the following effects on turbine powerplant efficiency A. no disadvantages B. the tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the turbine blades C. the tetraethyl lead in the gasoline forms deposits on the compressor blades D. continuous use will not affect engine efficiency
855. Both gasoline and kerosene have certain advantages for use as turbine fuel. Which of the following is a true statement in reference to the advantages of each? A. kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit weight than gasoline B. gasoline is a better lubricant than kerosene (important in regard to fuel metering pumps). C. gasoline has a higher heat energy per unit volume than kerosene D. kerosene has a higher heat energy per unit volume than gasoline
849. What would be the action to take if avaition gasoline in an aircraft was contaminated with jet fuel? A. determine the type jet fuel, then contact the engine manufacturer for guidance B. adjust mixture to compensate for lower octane C. determine the amount of fuel put in tanks and if under 25 percent of total volume, do nothing, if over 25 percent, drain the tanks and refill. D. drain fuel tanks and fill with proper octane rating fuel.
856. What characteristic of a fuel reduces its tendency to vapor lock? A. low latent heat of vaporization B. high volatility C. low vapor pressure D. high octane rating or performance number
850. Jet fuel is more susceptible to contamination than aviation gasoline (1) let fuel is of higher viscosity and therefore holds contaminants better (2) viscosity has no relation to contamination of fuel Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. only no 1 is true B. only no 2 is true C. both no 1 and 2 are true D. neither no 1 nor the no 2 is true
857. characteristics of detonation are A. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature and an increase in engine power B. cylinder pressure remains the same excessive cylinder head temperature and decrease in engine power C. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature and a decrease in engine power D. rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head, temperature normal and a decrease in engine power
851. Identify the colour of low-lead 100LL aviation gasoline A. blue B. green C. orange D. purple
858. A fuel that vaporizes too readily may cause A. hard starting B. detonation C. slow warmup D. vapor lock 132
867. When an anodized surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partically restored by A. use of a metal polish B. chemal surface treatment C. complete penetration of an inhibitor D. a suitable mild cleaner
859. Jet fuel number identifiers are A. performance numbers to designate the volatility of the fuel B. performance numbers and are relative to the fuels performance in the aircraft engine C. type numbers and have no relation to the fuel's performance in the aircraft engine D. type numbers used to designate the vaporization rate at atmospheric pressure
868. If a nickel-cadmium battery electrolyte is spilled on the hands, what agent may be used to rinse the affected area? A. boric acid solution B. baking soda solution C. ammonia solution D. potassium hydroxide solution
860. The second number in a fuel rating (100/130) is the A. lean mixture antiknock rating B. percent of iso-octane in the fuel C. percent of normal heptane in the fuel D. rich mixture antiknock rating
869. Select the solvent recommended for wipedown of cleaned surfaces just before painting A. aliphatic naptha B. trichloroethane C. dry-cleaning solvent D. kerosene
861. Characteristics of aviation gasoline to A. retard to formation of corrosives B. lubricate the valve seats C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine D. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
870. Which of the following is used for general cleaning of aluminum surfaces by mechanical means? A. carborundum paper B. aluminum wool C. crocus cloth D. steel wool
862. Tetraethyl lead is added to gasoline to A. retard the formation of corrosives B. lubricate the valve seats C. improve the gasoline's performance in the engine D. dissolve the moisture in the gasoline
871. Select the solvent used to clear acrylics and rubber A. aliphatic napths B. methyl ethyl ketons C. aromatic naptha D. methyl chloroform
863. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause A. vapor lock B. detonation C. hard starting D. surface ignition
872. Select the solvent used to clean metal surfaces and as a paint stripper for small areas A. kerosone B. methyl ethyl ketone C. dry-cleaning solvent D. methyl choloroform
864. Which of the following materials would be used to clean an engine crankcase prior to painting? A. dichromate solution B. acetone C. MEK (Methyl Ethyl Ketone) D. 20 percent caustic soda solution
873. Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of A. electrostatic charge buildup B. electrochemical attack C. entrapping corrosive materials D. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide
865. How many magnesium engine parts be cleaned? A. soak in 20 percent caustic soda solution B. wash with gasoline C. spray with MEK (Methyl Ethyl Ketone) D. wash with a commercial solvent, decarbonize and scrape or grit blast
874. What effect does a caustic cleaning product have on aluminum structures? A. electrochemical B. mechanical C. strengthening D. corrosive
866. Which solvent is recommended for removing grease from 'abric prior to doping? A. Kerosene B. Acetone C. toluene D. turpentine
875. Fretting corrosion between closely metting metal parts 133
A. is cause for rejection of the part B. may occur when steel bush melting with aluminum parts with too tightly C. occurs only when two dissimilar metals are in contact D. may be repaired by light oiling and retightening of the parts. 876. the lifting or flaking of a metal surface is known as exfolitation. This delamination of the grain boundaries is sometimes known as A. dissimilar metal corrosion B. integranular corrosion C. stress corrosion D. climatic condition corrosion
883. The artificial production of a film of hydroxide on the surface of aluminum or any of its alloys is commonly called A. alodizing B. parco lubrizing C. anodizing D. dichromating 884. Why are parts rinsed thoroughly in hot water after they have been heat-treated in a sodium and potassium nitrate bath? A. to prevent corrosion B. to prevent blistering C. to reduce warpage D. to retard discoloration
877. Select the metal on which corrosion forms a greenish film A. copper and its alloy B. aluminium and its alloy C. steel and iron D. titanium and its alloy
885. Intergranular corrosion in structural aluminum alloy parts A. is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heattreated sheet aluminum B. may be detected by the white, powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal C. is not likely to occur, in parts fabricated from aluminum coated alloys (ALCLAD or PURECLAD) D. cannot always be detedted by surface indications
878. Alodizing is a chemical treatment for aluminum to improve their paint-bonding qualities and to A. increase their corrosion resistance B. make their surface slightly alkaline C. relieve their surface stresses D. increase their corrosion resistance 879. Metals and alloys of greatly differing composition could not be in direct contact with each other because A. of the possibility of generating static charges which interfere with radio reception B. of the different rates of expansion C. of their unequal tensile strengths D. deterioration may result from electrochemical action at point of contact
886. Integranular corrosion is caused by A. improper heat treatment B. dissimilar metal contact C. improperly assembled components D. poor application of zinc chromate primer 887. Which of the following types of corrosion may exist in aircraft structure and not be visible? A. Electrolytic corrosion B. bonderizing corrosion C. climatic condition corrosion D. surface corrosion
880. what is the best means of removing rust from steel? A. mechanical B. electrical C. chemical D. biochemical
888. Corrosion should be removed from magnesium parts with a A. steel wire brush B. carborundum abrasive C. stiff, hog-bristle brush D. steel burnishing tool
881. How is alodine applied to aluminum alloys? A. as part of the priming process B. by dipping C. as part of the manufacturing process D. concurrently with the alclad
889. Why is it important not to rotate the propeller shaft after the final spraying of corrosion-preventive mixture into cylinders installed on removed engines? A. the link rods may be damaged by hydraulic lock B. the corrosion preventive mixture will be excessively diluted C. the engine may fire and cause injury to personnel D. the seal of corrosion preventive mixture will be broken
882. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product buildup is called A. brinelling B. electrolysis C. transgranulation D. exfoliation
890. Why is a plastic surface flushed with fresh water before it is cleaned with soap and water? 134
A. to prevent crazing B. to prevent scratching C. to remove oil and grease D. to prevent softening the plastic
C. impairing the corrosion resisting qualities of the metal D. difficulty in preparing the surface for painting 897. What power of ten is equal to 1,000,000? A. 10 to the third power B. 10 to the fourth power C. 10 to the fifth power D. 10 to the sixth power
891. What should be done to prevent rapid deterioration when a tire becomes covered with lubricating oil? A. wipe the tire with a dry cloth and then dry with compressed air B. wipe the tire with a dry cloth followed by a washdown with soap and water C. wash the tire with a petroleum solvent and then dry with compressed air D. wash the tire with alcohol or lacquer thinner to neutralize the action of the oil
898. Find the square root of 1,746 A. 41.7852 B. 41.7752 C. 40.7742 D. 42.7854 899. The result of nine raised to the fourth power is which of the following? A. 6.491 B. 6.461 C. 6.941 D. 6.561
892. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact may best be prevented by A. applying a nonporous dielectric material between the surfaces B. priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primer C. special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded D. application of paper tape between the surfaces
900. Find the square root of 3,722.18359 A. 61.00971 B. 61.00 C. 61.009 D. 61.0097 901. find the square of 212 A. 40,144 B. 43,924 C. 44,944 D. 44,844
893. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of A. excessive anodization B. contact between two unlike metals C. the wrong quenching agent D. excessive etching 894. to prevent corrosion between dissimilar metal joints in which magnesium alloy is involved A. prime only the magnesium part with one coat of zinc chromate primer and put a leather gasket between the pieces B. the magnesium part must be plated with the same metal at the part it will be in contact with C. coat both mating surfaces with an aluminized varnish D. prime both parts with two coats of zinc chromate primer and place a layer of pressure sensitive vinyl tape between them
902. Find the value of ten raised to the negative sixth power A. 0.000001 B. 0.0000101 C. 0.0001 D. 0.00001 903. What is the square root of four raised to the fifth power? A. 32 B. 64 C. 16 D. 20
895. The interior surface of sealed structural steel tubing is best protected against corrosion by A. purging the interior with dry air before sealing B. a coating of hot linseed oil C. evacuating the tubing before sealing D. a coating of zinc chromate paint
904. The number 3.47 x 10 to the negative fourth power is equal to A. 3,470.00 B. 34,700.0 C. 0034.70 D. 000347
896. Failure to quench a piece of aluminum in the minimum required time could result in A. failure of the ALCLAD to adhere properly B. causing the aluminium to become extremely brittle
905. Which alternative answer is equal to 16,300? A. 1.63 x 10 to the fourth power B. 1.63 x 10 to the negative third power C. 163 x 10 to the negative second power 135
D. 1,630 x 10 to the negative first power 906. Find the square root of 125.131 A. 111.8 x 10 to the third power B. 1118 x 10 to the negative second power C. 1.118 x 10 to the negative second power D. 11.186 x 10 to the negative third power 907. What is the square root of 16 raised to the fourth power? A. 1,024 B. 64 C. 4,096 D. 256
913. What size sheet of metal is required to fabricate cylinder 20 inches long and 8 inches in diameter? (Note: C = 3.1416 x d) A. 20" x 25-5/32" B. 20" x 24-9/64" C. 20" x 25-9/64" D. 20" x 24-5/32"
908. Solve the following : 2
31 + 2 13 (17 ) 2
914. Find the area of the right triangle shown in Fig 47? A. 5 sq in B. 6 sq in C. 9 sq in D. 12 sq in
A. .0297 B. .1680 C. 7132 D. 0419 909. The result of seven raised to the third power plus the square root of 39 is equal to A. 349.24 B. 27.24 C. 343.24 D. 2,407.24
Fig 47
910. Find the square root of 1,824 A. 42,708 x 10 to the negative second power B. .42708 C. 4,270.8 D. .42708 x 10 to the second power
915. What force is exerted on the piston in a hydraulic cylinder if the area of the piston is 1.2 square inches and the fluid pressure is 850 PSI? A. 1,020 lb B. 1,220 lb C. 960 lb D. 850 lb
911. The total piston displacement of a specific engine is A. dependent on the compression ratio B. dependent on the volumetric efficiency C. the volume displaced by all the pistons during one revolution of the crankshaft D. the volume displaced by one piston during one revolution of the crankshaft
916. The cylinder of an aircraft engine has a bore of 4.75 inches and a stroke of 4.5 inches. What is the piston displacement of one cylinder? A. 64.34 cu. In. B. 33.58 cu in C. 318.81 cu in D. 79.74 cu in
912. Compute the area of the trapezoid in Fig 46 A. 40 square feet B. 32 square feet C. 240 square feet D. 960 square feet
917. A rectangular-shaped fuel tank measures 60 inches in length, 30 inches in width and 12 inches in depth. How many cubic feet are within the tank? A. 12.5 B. 15.0 C. 18.5 D. 21.0 918. Compute the area of the trapezoid in Fig 48. A. 8 sq ft B. 24 sq ft 136
C. 48 sq ft D. 10 sq ft
4.0 inches from the bottom of the cylinder. What is the approximate piston displacement of this engine? A. 200 cubic inches B. 360 cubic inches C. 320 cubic inches D. 235 cubic inches 924. A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 37-1/2 inches in length, 14 inches in width, and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many cubic inches are within the tank? A. 525 B. 433.125 C. 4,331.25 D. 309.375 925. Select the fraction which is equal to 0.020 A. 3/16 B. 1/5 C. 2/7 D. 1/50
919. Determine the area of the triangle formed by points A,B and C in Fig 49 A to B = 7.5 sq inches A to D = 16.8 inches A. 7.07 sq in B. 42 sq in C. 63 sq in D. 126 sq in
926. Select the decimal which is equal to the mixed number 1-7/32 A. 1.2188 B. 1.3932 C. 1.7320 D. 1.3270 927. If the volume of a cylinder with the piston at bottom center is 84 cubic inches and the piston displacement is 70 cubic inches, then the compression ration is A. 7:1 B. 1:2:1 C. 6:1 D. 1:9:1
920. What is the piston displacement of a master cylinder with a 1.5 inch diameter bore and a piston stroke of 4 inches? A. 1.7671 cu in B. 9.4247 cu in C. 7.0685 cu in D. 6.1541 cu in
928. Express 7/8 as a percent A. .785 percent B. 78.5 percent C. .875 percent D. 87.5 percent
921. How many gallons of fuel will be contained in a rectangular shaped tank which measures 2 feet in width, 3 feet in length and 1 foot 8 inches in depth? (7.5 gal. = 1 cu ft) A. 66.6 B. 75 C. 110 D. 45
929. What is the speed of a spur gear with 42 teeth driven by a pinion gear with 14 teeth turning 420 RPM? A. 14 RPM B. 42 RPM C. 160 RPM D. 140 RPM
922. A rectangular shaped fuel tank measures 27-1/2 inches in length, 9 inches in width and 8-1/4 inches in depth. How many gallongs will the tank contain? (231 cu in = 1 gal) A. 18.8 B. 6.4 C. 8.8 D. 16.4
930. An engine develops 108 horsepower at 87 percent power. What horsepower would be developed at 65 percent power? A. 80 B. 94 C. 70 D. 64
923. A four-cylinder aircraft engine has a cylinder bore of 3.78 inches and is 8.5 inches deep. With the piston on bottom center the top of the piston measures 137
931. Which of the following alternatives is the decimal equivalent of the fraction 43/32? A. 1.34375 B. 1.43325 C. 1.32435 D. 1.74415
939. An engine of 125 horsepower maximum is running at 65 percent power. What is the horsepower being developed? A. 93.05 B. 30.85 C. 81.25 D. 38.85
932. Select the fractional equipvalent for a 0.09375thick sheet of aluminum A. 5/64 B. 5/32 C. 3/64 D. 3/32
940. An engine of 98 horsepower maximum is running at 75 percent power. What is the horsepower being developed? A. 87.00 B. 33.30 C. 73.50 D. 41.30 941. A blueprint shows a hole of 0.17187 to be drilled. Which fraction size drill-bit is most nearly equal? A. 11/64 B. 9/64 C. 9/32 D. 11/32
933. Express 5/8 as a percent A. 62 percent B. .625 percent C. .620 percent D. 62.5 percent 934. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to 77/64 A. 1.8311 B. 0.8311 C. 1.2031 D. 1.3120
942. Which of the following decimals is most nearly equal to a bend radius of 31/64? A. 0.0645 B. 0.6450 C. 0.48437 D. 0.3164
935. An airplane flying a distance of 875 miles used 70 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will it need to travel 3,000 miles? A. 108 gallons B. 120 gallons C. 240 gallons D. 144 gallons
943. Sixty-five engines are what percent of 80 engine? A. 71 percent B. 81 percent C. 65 percent D. 52 percent
936. What is the speed ratio of a gear with 36 teeth meshed to a gear with 20 teeth? A. 12 to 5 B. 12 to 6.6 C. 9 to 5 D. 17 to 10
944. The radius of a piece of round stock is 7/32. Select the decimal which is most nearly equal to the diameter. A. 0.2187 B. 0.5343 C. 0.4375 D. 0.3531
937. A pinion gear with 14 teeth is driving a spur gear with 42 teeth at 140 RPM. Determine the speed of pinion gear A. 588 RPM B. 196 RPM C. 420 RPM D. 240 RPM
945. Maximum engine life is 900 hours. Recently, 27 engines were removed with an average life of 635.30 hours. What percent of the maximum engine life has been achieved? A. 71 percent B. 72 percent C. 73 percent D. 74 percent
938. The parts department's profit is 12% on new magneto. How much does the magneto cost if the sellihg price is $145.60? A. $128.12 B. $120.00 C. $125.60 D. $130.00
946. What is the ratio of 10 feet to 30 inches? A. 4:1 B. 1:3 C. 1:4 D. 3:1 138
947. How much current does a 30V motor, 1/2 horsepower, 85 percent efficient, draw from the bus? A. 14.6 amperes B. 12.4 amperes C. 12.3 amperes D. 14.1 amperes
C. 3-5/16 D. 4-3/4 956. solve the following: 5/9 (41+40) - 40 = A. 5 B. 4.55 C. 22.3 D. 73.8
948. Solve the following: [(4 x -3)+ (-9 x + 2)] / 2 = A. 0 B. -30 C. -15 D. -5
957. Solve the following: (32 x 3/16) / (1/2) = A. 16 B. 12 C. 72 D. 1.5
949. solve the following: (64 x 3/8) / (3/4) = A. 16 B. 24 C. 32 D. 72
958. Solve the following: 2/4 (30 +34).5 = A. 117 B. 160 C. 345 D. 640
950. Solve the following: -18.4 + 0.07 - 2.2 + 8.36 = A. +12.17 B. -12.31 C. +12.31 D. -12.17
959. Solve the equation in fig 50 A. 16.51 B. 174.85 C. -81.49 D. 14.00
951. Solve the following: 1/2 + 7/8 - 1/3 = A. 1-11/16 B. 1-1/24 C. 1-1/12 D. 1-3/8
( − 35 + 25 )( − 7 ) + (π ) (16 −2 )
Fig. 50
25
960. Solve the following equation: − 4 125
952. Solve the following: (1-1/2 x 7/5) / (1/4) = A. 1-11/16 B. 1-3/4 C. 1-9/16 D. 1-17/32
− 6 −36 A. +31.25 B. -5.20 C. -31.25 D. +6.05
953. Solve the following: (32 x 3/8) / (1/6) = A. 16 B. 12 C. 2 D. 72
961. Solve the following: 4 - 3{-6(2+3) +4} = A. 82 B. 33 C. -25 D. -71 962. Solve the following: -5 [ -9(-8 +4) -2(7+3)] = A. 16 B. -332 C. 215 D. -96
954. What is the ratio of a gasoline fuel load of 200 gallons to one of 1.680 pounds? A. 3:7 B. 5:7 C. 2:3 D. 5:42
963. Solve the following: 5 [4 - (+3 -4) +13] -6 = A. 84 B. 21 C. 17 D. -16
955. Solve the following: (2-1/2 x 1-3/8) / (2-3/4) = A. 6-3/16 B. 6-1/4 139
970. Which of the following is a powerplant, major repair? A. Installation of an accessory which is not approved to the engine B. Separation of a crankcase of a reciprocating engine equipped with an integral supercharger C. Overhaul of pressure-type carburators and pressure type fuel and oil pumps. D. Disassembly of a crankshaft of a reciprocating engine equipped with a spur-type propeller reduction gear.
964. Which of the following provides a place for indicating compliance with FAA airworthiness Directives or manufacturers' service bulletins? A. Structural repair manual B. Aircraft overhaul manual C. aircraft logs D. Illustrated parts catalog 965. An aircraft was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection and the owner wanted to be the aircraft to another maintenance base. Which statement is correct? A. The owner must obtain a special flight permit B. The aircraft must be approved for return to serve previous to any flight C. The aircraft may be flown to another maintenance base if the discrepancies are not safety of flight items. D. The owner must obtain a restricted category type certificate.
971. Which of the following is an airframe major repair? A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires B. Changes to the wing or to fixed or movable control surfaces which affect flutter and vibration characteristics C. Rewinding the field coil of an electrical accessory D. The repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.
966. When should special inspection procedures be followed to determine if any damage to the aircraft structure has occurred? A. Progressive inspection B. 100 hour inspection C. Overweight landing D. Annual inspection
972. What maintenance action should follow if the maintenance record contained the following entry? "During flight the aircraft engine experienced sudden deceleration." A. Perform power output check (static and idle RPM) B. Perform the engine group inspection for the annual/progressive C. Perform powr output check with vibration analyzer (static and idle RPM) D. Perform sudden stoppage inspection.
967. During an annual inspection, if a defect is found which makes the aircraft unairworthy, the person disapproving must A. remove the airworthiness certificate from the aircraft B. submit a Malfunction of Defect Report C. provide a written notice of the defect to the owner D. repair the defect before completion of the inspection
973. Which of the following aircraft record entries best describes a repair of a 6-1/4 inch crack in the top skin of a stabilizer? A. Stop-drilled the crack. Make permanent repair at next scheduled annual inspection B. Stop-drilled the crack using a 1/8 inch drill, installed a patch plate two times the length of the crack, two-row rivet spacing two times the diameter of the rivet used. C. Cut out the defective area, installed a flush repair using the same rivet size, spacing materials, and pattern as the adjacent area. D. Cut out the defective area, installed a flush repair using the same material, revet size and unit spacing as the adjacent area and a rivet edge distance of two times the diameter of the rivets used.
968. What is the means by which the FAA notify aircraft owners and other interested persons of un…….. conditions and prescribes the condition under which the product may continue to be operated? A. Airworthiness Directives B. supplemental Type Certificates C. Malfunction or Defect Reports D. Technical Standard Orders. 969. where should you find this entry? "Removed right wing from aircraft and removed skin from outer 6 feet. Repaired buckled spar 49 inches from tip in accordance with Fig. 8 in the manufacturer's structural repair manual NO. 28-1" A. Aircraft engine log B. AD compliance record C. FAA Form 337 D. Service bulletin compliance record
974. Which of the following statements best describes the entry made in an aircraft record for the repair of a 2-inch crack located in the center of a plastic side window? A. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of plastic 1-1/2 inches larger than the crack, heated the patch in an oil bath and formed to the contour to be 140
patched, applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and let dry under pressure for 3 hours. B. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of plastic 3/4 inch larger than the crack, heated the patch in an oil bath and formed to the contour to be patched, applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and let dry under pressure for 3 hours. C. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack, cut a piece of plastic 3/4 inch larger than the crack,heated the patch in an oil bath or boiling water and formed to the contour to be patched and applied plastic adhesive, pressed in place and let dry under pressure for 3 hours. D. Stop-drilled both ends of the crack. Glued a piece of plastic over the crack. 975. Which of the following aircraft record entries best describes a repair of a dent in a tubuler steel structure dented at a cluster? A. Removed and replaced all the members of the cluster B. Removed and replaced the damaged member C. Welded a reinforcing plate over the dented area D. Filled the damaged area with a molten metal and dressed to the original contour
D. The owner of the aircraft must report the repair to the FAA 980. After making a major repair to an aircraft engine that is to be returned to service. FAA Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration, must be prepared. How many copies are required and what is the disposition of the completed forms? A. Two; both copies for the FAA B. Two:one copy for the aircraft owner and one copy for the FAA C. Three: one copy for the aircraft owner and two copies for the FAA D. Three one copy for the aircraft owner, one copy for the FAA and one copy for the permanent records of the repairing agency or individual. 981. Who is responsible for maintaining the required maintenance records for an airplane? A. Authorised inspector B. Repair station operator C. Certified mechanic D. Aircraft owner 982. Each person performing an annual or 100 hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in the appendix of A. FAR Part 43 B. FAR Part 65 C. FAR Part 91 D. Advisory Circular 43.13-3
976. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100 hour, or progressive inspection? A. The person performing the inspection B. The owner or operator of the aircraft C. The person approving or disapproving for return to service D. The pilot performing the test flight.
983. An FAA Form 337 is used to record and document which of the following? A. Preventive and routine maintenance B. Major repairs and major alterations C. Minor repairs and minor alterations D. Airworthiness Directive compliance
977. An aircraft owner was provided a list of discrepancies on an aircraft that was not approved for return to service after an annual inspection. Which statement is correct concerning who may correct the discrepancies? A. Only a mechanic with an inspection authorization B. Any certificated mechanic C. Any certificated repair station D. Holder of a pilot certificate if he/she owns or operates the aircraft.
984. After a mechanic holding an airframe and powerplant rating completes a 100 hour inspection, what action is required before the aircraft is returned to service? A. Obtain a renewal for the airworthiness certificate B. Make the proper entries in the aircraft's maintenance record C. Complete an operational check of all systems D. A mechanic with an inspection Authorization must approve the inspection
978. When entering a major repair in an aircraft logbook, a mechanic must enter A. the date the major repair was started B. total time in service for the aircraft C. his or her name and date the work was performed D. total aircraft time since the last overhaul.
985. Which statement is correct, concerning the completion of an FAA Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration Form? A. The certificate number of the person approving the major repair or alteration need not be recorded on the form B. Weight and balance computations are not necessary if the empty weight change is less than 1 percent
979. What action is required when a minor repair is performed on a certificated aircraft? A. An FAA Form 337 must be completed B. The aircraft specifications must be amended C. An entry in the aircraft's permanent records is required 141
C. A clear, concise, and legible description of the work to be accomplished. D. Flight test results should be recorded on the form.
993. Which of the following is the actual amount water vapor in a mixture of air and water? A. Relative humidity B. Dew point C. Absolute humidity D. Vapor pressure
986. Each person performing an annual or 100 hour inspection shall use a checklist that contains at least those items in FAR 43, Appendix A. D B. A C. B D. C
994. Under which of the following conditions will the rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or jet) be the greatest? A. Unmetered pressure - 18 PSI metered pressure - 17.5 PSI atmospheric pressure - 14.5 PSI
987. A certificated airframe and powerplant mechanic authorised to approve and return to service an aircraft after a A. 100 hour inspection B. certification inspection C. major alteration D. major repair 988. The force that can be produced by an actuating cylinder whose piston has a cross-sectional area of square inches operating in a 1,000 PSI hydraulic system is most nearly A. 300 pounds B. 3000 pounds C. 334 pounds D. 1000 pounds
B. Unmetered pressure metered pressure atmospheric pressure
- 23 PSI - 12 PSI - 14.3 PSI
C. Unmetered pressure metered pressure atmospheric pressure
- 17 PSI - 5 PSI - 14.7 PSI
D. Unmetered pressure metered pressure atmospheric pressure
- 15 PSI - 12 PSI - 14.7 PSI
995. Which of the following is the portion of atmospheric pressure exerted by the moisture in the air? A. Absolute humidity B. Relative humidity C. dew point D. Vapor pressure
989. The boiling paint of a given liquid varies A. inversely with volume B. directly with pressure C. inversely with pressure D. directly with volume 990. One of the following equals 1 horsepower A. 2,000 ft/lb of work per minute B. 550 ft/lb of work per minute C. 2000 ft/lb of work per second D. 33,000 ft/lb of work per minute
996. Using Fig 51 the amount of force applied to rope A to lift the weight is A. 12 pounds B. 15 pounds C. 20 pounds D. 30 pounds
991. Which of the following is not considered of heat transfer? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Diffusion D. Radiation
997. Which of the following will weigh the least? A. 98 parts of dry air and 2 parts of water vapor B. 35 parts of water vapor and 65 parts of dry air C. 100 parts of dry air D. 50 parts of dry air and 50 parts of water vapor
992. An engine that weighs 350pounds is removed from an aircraft by means of a mobile hoist. The engine is raised 3 feet above its attachment mount and the entire assembly is then moved forward 12 feet. A constant force of 70 pounds is required to move the loaded hoist. What is the total work input required to move the hoist? A. 840 ft/lb B. 22,680 ft/lb C. 1,890 ft/lb D. 1.050 ft/lb 142
1004. Which of the following atmospheric conditions will cause the true landing speed of an aircraft to be the greatest? A. low temperature with high humidity B. low temperature with low humidity C. high temperature with low humidity D. high temperature with high humidity 1005. If the fluid pressure is 800 PSI in a 1/2 inch line supplying an actuating cylinder with a piston area of 10 square inches, the force exerted on the piston will be A. 4,000 pounds B. 1600 pounds C. 8000 pounds D. 800 pounds
998. Which of the following is the ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the airware saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure? A. Absolute humidity B. Relative humidity C. Dew point D. vapor pressure
1006. How many of the following factors are necessary to determine power? (1) Force exerted (2) Distance the force moves (3) Time required to do the work. A. None B. One C. Two D. Three
999. If a 120 pound force moves a 3,200 pound object 20 feet in 20 seconds along a straight horizontal path, how much power was expended? A. 100 ft/lb per second B. 2,400 ft/lb per second C. 3,200 ft/lb per second D. 120 ft/lb per second 1000. If the container volume of a confined gas is doubled (assume temperature remains constant), the pressure will A. increase in direct proportion to the volume increases B. remain the same. C. be doubled D. be reduced to one-half its original value.
1007. What force must be applied to roll a 120 pound barrel up an inclined plane 9 feet long to a height of 3 feet (disregard friction)? L/I = R/E L = Length of ramp, measured along the slope I = Height of ramp R = Weight of object to be raised or lowered. E = Force required to raise or lower object. A. 40 lb B. 120 lb C. 360 lb D. 393 lb
1001. If the temperature of a confined liquid is held constant and its pressure is tripled, the volume will A. triple B. be increased one-third its original volume C. be reduced to one-third its original volume D. remain the same
1008. Which of the following statements concerning the concepts of heat and temperature is true? A. There is a direct relationship between temperature and heat B. There is an inverse variation between temperature and heat C. Temperature is a measure of intensity of heat. D. Temperature is a measure of quality of heat.
1002. If the pressure of an air mass is doubled, with all other conditions constant, its density A. is doubled B. varies inversely as the pressure increases C. is decreased D. remains the same
1009. What is absolute humidity? A. The portion of atmospheric pressure that is exerted by the moisture in the air. B. The temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated. C. The actual amount of the water vapor in a mixture of air and water. D. The ratio of the water vapor actually present in the atmosphere to the amount that would be present if the
1003. How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a 120 pound weight from the top of a 3 foot table to the floor? A. 120 lb of force B. 120 ft/lb C. 360 ft/lb D. none 143
air were saturated at the prevailing temperature and pressure.
C. Type Certificate Data Sheets D. Aviation Airworthiness Alerts
1010. If the operating pressure is 2,000 PSI in a 1/2 inch line feeding an actuating cylinder which has a piston area of 10 square inches, the maximum weight the piston can lift will be A. 40,000 lb B. 20,000 lb C. 10,000 lb D. 2,000 lb
1016. Which of the following issues Airworthiness Directives? A. National Transportation Safety Board B. Air Transport Association C. Manufacturers D. Federal Aviation Administration 1017. Which of the following is contained in a Type Certificate Data Sheet? A. Maximum fuel grade to be used B. All pertinent minimum weights C. Control surface adjustment points D. Location of the datum
1011. Which of the following is the temperature to which humid air must be cooled at constant pressure to become saturated? A. Dew point B. Vapor pressure C. Absolute humidity D. Relative humidity
1018. Suitability for use of a specific propeller with a particulatr engine-airplane combination can be determined by reference to what informational source? A. Propeller listing B. Propeller specifications C. Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Date Sheet D. alphabetical Index of current Propeller Type Certificate Data Sheets, Specifications and Listings
1012. If both the volume and the absolute temperature a confined gas are doubled, the pressure will A. not change B. be doubled C. be halved D. become four times as great 1013. FAA Airworthiness Directives are issued to A. provide temporary maintenance procedure B. prescribe airman privileges and limitations C. present suggested maintenance procedures D. correct an unsafe condition
1019. If an airworthy aircraft is sold, what is done with the airworthiness Certificate? A. It must be endorsed by a certificated mechanic to indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy B. It becomes invalid until the aircraft is reinspected and returned to service C. It is declared void and new certificate is issued upon application by the new owner D. It is transferred with the aircraft
1014. (1) A supplemental type certificate may be issued to more than one applicant for the same design change providing each applicant shows compliance with the applicable airworthiness requirement. (2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. Only no 2 is tru B. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. C. Neither No 1 nor No. 2 is true D. Only No. 1 is true.
1020. FAA Airworthiness Directives A. are mandatory B. present design changes C. provide temporary maintenance procedures D. provide suggested maintenance procedures 1021. Which Part of the Federal Aviation Regulations governs the issuance of an Airworthiness Certificate? A. Part 23 B. Part 21 C. Part 25 D. Part 39
1015. For all aircraft type certificated prior to Jan 1, 1958, the CAA issued documents known as Aircraft Specifications which contained technical information about the aircraft type. If an aircraft was type certificated May 7 1959, the information that would formerly have been contained in the Aircraft Specifications will be in the appropriate.
1022. Specifications pertaining to an aircraft, of which a limited number were manufactured under a type certificate and for which there is no current Aircraft Specification, can be found in A. Alphabetical Index of Antique Aircraft B. Aircraft Listing C. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil Airplane Specifications
A. Aircraft Operation Information Letters B. Certificated Aircraft Bulletins 144
D. Annual Summary of Deleted and Discontinued Aircraft Specifications
1029. (1) Propellers are not included in the Airwarthiness Directive system. (2) A certificated powerplant mechanic may make a minor repair on a propeller and approve for return to service. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. Only No. 1 is true B. Only No. 2 is true C. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true D. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true
1023. Where are technical descriptions of certificated propellers found? A. Applicable Airworthiness Directives B. Aircraft Listings C. Aircraft Specifications D. Propeller type certificates 1024. Which of the following is generally contained in Aircraft Specifications or Type Certificate Data Sheets? A. Empty weight of the aircraft B. Useful load of aircraft C. Payload of aircraft D. Control surface movements
1030. What publication would a mechanic use to determine the fuel quantity and octane rating for a specific aircraft? A. Type Certificate Data Sheet B. Manufacturers Parts Manual C. Summary of Supplemental Type Certificates D. Federal Aviation Regulations
1025. Placards required on an aircraft are specified in A. Advisory Circular 43.13-1A B. the aircraft logbook C. Federal Aviation Regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated D. aircraft Specifications or Type certificate Date Sheets
1031. An Aircraft mechanic is privileged to perform major alterations on United States certificated aircraft, however the work must be done in accordance with technical data approved by the Administrator before the aircraft can be approved for return to service Which of the following is not approved data? A. FAA Airworthiness Directives B. Advisory circular 43.13-2A C. Type Certificate Data Sheets D. Manufacturers manuals when FAA approved
1026. Technical information about older aircraft models of which no more than 50 remain in service can be found in the A. Aircraft Listing B. Annual Summary of Deleted and Discontinued Aircraft Specifications C. Alphabetical Index of Antique Aircraft D. FAA Statistical Handbook of Civil airplane Specifications
1032. What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who complies with an Airworthiness Directive? A. Advise the aircraft owner-operator of the work performed. B. Make an entry in the maintenance record of that equipment. C. Advise the FAA district office of the work performed, by submitting an FAA Form 337 D. Record of entry is not required of the person performing the work. The aircraft owner/operator is responsible for recording maintenance.
1027. (1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require approval after compliance with the data of a supplemental type certificate. (2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft. Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. Only No 2 is true B. Both No. 1 and No. are true C. Neither No. 1 nor No 2 is true D. Only No. 1 is true
1033. (1)Manufacturer's data and FAA publications, such as Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets and Advisory Circulars are all approved data. (2) EAA publications such as Technical Standard Orders, Airworthiness Directives, Type Certificate Data Sheets, and Aircraft Specifications and Supplemental Type Certificates are all approved data. In regard to the above statements which is correct? A. Both No. 1 and No. 2 are true B. Only No. 1 is true C. Neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true D. Only No. 2 is true.
1028. Which of the following would provide information regarding instrument range markings for an aircraft certificated in the normal category? A. FAR Part 21 B. FAR Part 25 C. FAR Part 91 D. FAR Part 23
145
1034. The following is the compliance portion of a Airworthiness Directive. Compliance required, as indicated, unless already accomplished: 1. Aircraft with less than 500 hours total time in service: Inspect in accordance with instructions be low at 500 hours' total time, or within the next 50hrs time in service after the effective date of this AD, and repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in service . 2. Aircraft with 500 hrs through 1000 hrs total time in service: Inspect in accordance with Instruction below within the next 50 hrs time in service after the effective date of this AD and repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in service. 3. Aircraft with more than 1000 hrs time in service: Inspect in accordance with instructions below with the next 25 hrs time in service after the effective date of this AD and repeat after each subsequent 200 hrs in service." An aircraft has a total time in service of 468 hours. The Airworthiness Directive given was initially complied with a 454 hours in service. How many additional hours a service may be accumulated before the AD must again be complied with? A. 32 B. 46 C. 200 D. 186
146
1035. Using Fig 52, which type of lubricant is used to the nose door link? A. Oil, general purpose, low temperature lubricating B. grease, general purpose C. Oil, lubricating, aircraft engine D. Grease, low temperature aircraft lubricating
1041. Which statement is true regarding the privileges of a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating? A. They may perform the 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a power plant of propeller or any component thereof, but may not release the same to service B. They may perform the annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation regulations on a powerplant or propeller or any component thereof and may release the same to service C. They may perform the annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation regulations on airframe, powerplant or propeller or any component thereof and may release the same to service. D. They may perform the 100 hr inspection required by the Federal aviation Regulations on a powerplant or propeller or any component thereof and may release the same to service.
1036. Determine the frequency of lubrication of the pivot bushing. (see Fig. 52) A. 100 hours B. 50 hours C. 500 hours D. 1000 hours 1037. Using Fig 52, what method is used to lubricate the nose door links? A. Filter can B. Grease gun C. Hand D. Squirt can
1042. Who has the authority to approve an aircraft return to service after a 100 hour inspection? A. A mechanic of any certificated repair station B. A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating C. a mechanic holding a repairman certificate D. A certificated mechanic with an airframe at powerplant rating
1038. The following is a table of airspeed limits as given in an FAA issued aircraft specification: Normal operating speed . . . . . . . . . . . . . .260 knots Never exceed speed . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 293 knots Maximum landing gear operating speed..174 knots Maximum flap extended speed.. . . . . . . 139 knots The high end of the white arc on the airspeed instrument would be at A. 260 knots B. 293 knots C. 174 knots D. 139 knots
1043. A repair, as performed on an airframe, shall mean A. the upkeep and preservation of the airframe including the component parts thereof. B. the restoration of the airframe to a condition for safe operation after damage or deterioration C. An appreciable change in the weight, balance structural strength, performance, flight characteristics or other qualities affecting the airworthiness of the airframe. D. simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations
1039. A complete detailed inspection and adjustment of the valve mechanism will be made at the first 25 hours after the engine has been placed in service. Subsequent inspections of the valve mechanism will be made each second 50 hour period. From the abovestatement, at what intervals will valve mechanism inspections be performed? A. 100 hours B. 25 hours C. 50 hours D. 75 hours
1044. The replacement of fabric on fabric-covered part such as wings, fuselages stabilizers or control surface is considered to be a A. minor repair unless the new cover is different in any way from the original cover B. minor repair unless the underlying structure is altered or repaired C. major repair even though no other alteration or repair is performed D. minor repair unless the method of covering changed or the underlying structure is altered or repaired
1040. Check thrust bearing nuts for tightness on new or newly overhauled engines at the first 50hr inspection following installation. Subsequent inspections on thrust bearing nuts will be made at each third 50hr inspection. From the above statement, at what intervals should you check the thrust bearing nut for tightness? A. 150 hours B. 50 hours C. 100 hours D. 200 hours
147
Fig 52
1045. Which of the following is classified as a major repair? A. Removal, installation and repair of landing gear tires B. The repair or portions of skin sheets by making additional seams C. Troubleshooting and repairing broken circuits landing light wiring circuits D. Replacing safety belts 1046. The 100 hour inspection required by Federal Aviation regulations for certain aircraft being operated for hire may be performed by A. a person working under the supervision of an appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft must be approved by the mechanic for return to service B. an appropriately rated mechanic only if he/she has an inspection authorization C. an appropriately rated mechanic and approved by him/her for return to service D. an appropriately rated mechanic, but the aircraft must be approved for return to service by a mechanic with an inspection authorization 1047. A person working under the supervision of a certificated mechanic with an airframe and powerplant rating is not authorized to perform which of the following? A. Repair fabric covering involving an area greater than that required to repair two adjacent wing ribs B. Repair a wing brace strut by welding C. A 100 hour inspection D. Repair an engine mount by riveting 1048. A mechanic certificate is effective for what period of time? A. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 60 days within the preceding 6 months B. 24 calendar months C. As long as duties are performed under the certificate for at least 90 days within the preceding 12 months D. Until surrendered, suspended or revoked 1049. A certificated mechanic is not privileged to perform any repair to or alteration of A. a propeller B. air conditioning and pressurization systems C. an electrically heated windshield system D. an instrument 1050. An Airworthiness Directive requires that a propeller be altered. A certificated mechanic could A. perform and approve the work for return to service if it is a minor alteration B. not approve the work for return to service because it is an alteration C. not perform the work because it is an alteration
D. not perform the work because he/she is not allowed to perform and approve for return to service repairs or alterations to propellers 1051. Which of the following is a privilege of a certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating? A. Minor repairs to and minor alterations of propellers B. Minor repairs to and major alterations of propellers C. Major repairs to and minor alterations of propellers D. Major repairs to and major alterations of propellers 1052. FAA certificated mechanics may A. approve for return to service a major repair for which they are rated B. supervise and approve a 100 hour inspection C. perform an annual inspection appropriate to the rating(s) they hold D. approve for return to service a minor alteration they have performed appropriate to the rating(s) they hold 1053. A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform the A. annual inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to service B. 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on a powerplant or any component thereof and approve and return the same to service C. annual inspetion required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any component thereof and return the same to service D. 100 hr inspection required by the Federal Aviation Regulations on an airframe, powerplant or any other component thereof and approve and return the same to service. 1054. A certificated mechanic shall not exercise the privileges of the certificate and rating unless within the preceding 24 months the Administrator has found that the certificate holder is able to do the work or the certificate holder has A. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 18 months B. served as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 12 months C. technically supervised other mechanics for at least 3 months D. serviced as a mechanic under the certificate and rating for at least 6 months 1055. (1) A certificated mechanic with an airframe rating may perform a minor repair to an airspeed indicator providing he/she has the necessary equipment available. (2) A certificated mechanic with a powerplant rating may perform a major repair to a propeller providing he/she has the necessary equipment available.
Regarding the above statements, which of the following is true? A. Only no 1 is true B. Neither No. 1 nor no 2 is true C. Only no 2 is true D. Both no 1 and no 2 are true 1056. A certificated mechanic must notify the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration of any changes in permanent mailing address in writing within A. 48 hours after such changes B. 30 days after such changes C. 60 days after such changes D. 90 days after such changes 1057. Who is responsible for determining that materials used in aircraft maintenance and repair are of the proper type and conform to the apppriate standards? A. The installing person or agency B. the owner of the aircraft C. The supplier of the material D. the manufacturer of the aircraft 1058. The replacement of a damaged engine mount with a new identical engine mount purchased from the aircraft manufacturer is considered a A. major alteration B. minor alteration C. major repair D. minor repair 1059. Who has the authority to approve and return to service a powerplant or propeller or any part thereof after a 100 hour inspection? A. A mechanic with a powerplant rating B. A mechanic with an airframe rating C. Any certified repairman D. Personnel of any certificated repair station. 1060. Instrument repairs may be performed A. by the instrument manufacturer only B. by an FAA approved instrument repair station C. on airframe instruments by mechanics with an airframe rating D. on powerplant instruments by mechanics with a powerplant rating. 1061. 1.Onalarge aircraft pressure refueling system, a pressure refueling receptacle and control panel will permit one person to fuel or defuel any or all fuel tanks of an aircraft. 2.Because of the fuel tank area, there are more advantages to a pressure fueling system in light aircraft.. A. Only No. 1 is true. B. Only No. 2 is true. C. Both No. 1 and No.2 are true.
1062. When routing a fuel line between two rigidly mounted fittings the line should. A. Have at least one bend between such fittings. B. be a straight length of tubing and clamped to the aircraft structure. C. have a flexible line added between two metal lines to allow for ease of installation. 1063. 1. If aviation gasoline vaporizes too readily, fuel lines may become filled with vapor and cause increased fuel flow. 2. A measure of a gasoline's tendency to vapor lock is obtained from the Reid vapor pressure test. Regarding the above statements,. A. Only No. 2 is true. B. both No. 1 and No.2 are true. C. neither No. 1 nor No. 2 is true. 1064. Microbial growth is produced by various forms of micro organisms that live and multiply in the water interfaces of jet fuels. Which of the following could result if microbial growth exists in a jetfuel tank and is not corrected? 1 Interference with fuel flow 2. Intereferenc (rest in explanation). A. 1,2,4. B. 2,3,5. C. 1,5,6. 1065. The vapor pressure of aviation gasoline is. A. Lower than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline. B. Higher than the vapor pressure of automotive gasoline. C. Approximately 20 PSI at 100 degree F. 1066. What can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel tank? A. Use anti-icing and antibacterial additives. B. Add CO2 as a purgative. C. Keep the fuel tank topped off. 1067. What is the maximum vapor pressure allowable for an aircraft fuel? A. 7 PSI. B. 5 PSI. C. 3 PSI. 1068. If a bladder-type fuel tank is to be left empty for an extended period of time, the inside of the tanks should be coated with a film of. A. Engine oil. B. Linseed oil. C. Ethylene glycol. 1069. How may the antiknock characteristics of a fuel be improved? A. By adding a knock inhibitor. B. By adding a knock enhancor.
C. By adding a fungicide agent. 1070. A carbon dioxide (CO2) hand held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the. A. horn is nonmetallic. B. handle is insulated. C. horn is nonmagnetic. 1071. The proper fire extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is. A. water. B. carbon dioxide. C. dry powder chemical.
FILL IN THE BLANKS 1. Output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be a_____________________.
20. A transistor has a current gain = 250 if collector current is 10 mA the base current is ______________.
2. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation are ___________________.
21. If an O0F amp has a bandwidth of 0_100 KHz and gain of 40 dr The frequency at which the gain will be unit is ______________________________.
3. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the _____________range. 4. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because __________________________________. 5. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1 The transmitted power is ____________.
22. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade Slope outside mid band). 23. A Xtal OSc has crystal of thickness t what happens it t is reduced by 1% _________________. 24. A JEET is a ____________ is a controlled device whereas a BJT is a ____________ controlled device.
6. When the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled The AM system being used is _______________________.
25. ______ perform the conversion function by means of solid state or static circuit functions.
7. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use ___________.
26. The nature of battery installations is mainly determined by _________and emergency power.
8. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for __________________________________.
27. _____battery suffers a rapid temperature and current rise once the battery is fully charged.
9. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by ______________________________________.
28. The potting compound consists of and alkaline and acid base material is known as _______.
10. The optical fibre communication is based on the principle of _____________________________.
29. A battery is a device which converts ____energy to _____energy.
11. The three components of AM are ____________, _____________&______________.
30. When magnetic field of carbon pile voltage regulator decreases , the resistance _____.
12. At cut off the base current in transistor is ____________________.
31. The three temperature of which the pilot must be kept informed during the flight are the ___________.
13. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is ______________________.
32. During cockpit checks, under carriage lever is at 'DOWN' and undercarr lamp indicate _______ lights.
14. The resistance of the p_channel of transistor is called _______________.
33. Arms extended horizontally side ways and palms downward, the marshalli signal indicate _________.
15. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage, the smaller the ______________________ current.
34. When turning the aircraft during towing the _____________ must not exceed 30.
16. A _______________________ diode has a negative resistance in its characteristics.
35. The working life of a natural fibre or nylon fibre rope sling is _____.
17. (175)10 = (
)8.
36. Bending is another combination of stresses easy to see in the wing of a _____________ aeroplane.
18. (8963)10 = (
)8421.
19. The number of flip flops required to count upto 73 is _________________________.
37. In tersonal stress, tension and compression acting at an angle of abou _____________ to the applied force and 90 to each other.
38. The device used to locate or clamps material during the process of fit is known as ___________.
55. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni_Cd battery is between ________ and _________.
39. While tacking the aircraft, the jacks must be positioned correctly and load raised and lowered gradually, always watch for signs of _________.
56. Hydrometer is used to measure _________ of the electrolyte.
40. A parmanent deformation of material, which increases with stress the l of time the stress is applied with temperature is called _______.
57. Lead acid batteries are __________ type of batteries. 58. The capacity of the battery is measured in ________________ units.
41. Directional control can be achieed by changing the __________ acting o fin by means of a rudder.
59. Latent heat of a refrigerant should be __________.
42. To correct the nose down tendency of an aircraft the elevator trim tab trimmed ____________.
60. Servicing required for battery maintenance are _________.
43. In all cases of levelling the aircraft make sure that the tail is prop ___________ as some aircraft are in rigging position.
61. In AM the _______________of the carrier is varied by modulating voltage.
44. The angular setback of the main planes relative to the fuselage or hul is known as __________. 45. A principal load carrying member of a plane or of a control surface is known as _________. 46. The intentional manocurring of an aircraft into any desired position i called __________. 47. As the velocity increases the pressure on the walls of the tube decrea and vice versa This is due to ________. 48. The position on the chord at which the resultant force acts is called ________________. 49. During the movement of centre pressure as the angle of attack is increased up to _________ the centre of pressure is more gradually forward.
62. The modulation index is a number lying between__________ and _____________. 63. The_____________ of a receiver is its ability to reject unwanted signals. 64. An ____________________is one that radiates uniformly in all directions in space. 65. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref Index along the cross section is called_______________. 66. The trade name of Hg_Tin_SI bronze is ____________. 67. Commercial acetylene is produced generally by ____________. 68. Naval brass is also called __________.
50. The deviation of meanline from chord line is called _________.
69. Turn buckles and barrels are manufactured with __________ alloys.
51. The effective leading edge flep is to _______ the lift co_efficient.
70. Worm gears are made out of casting alloys of __________ type.
52. A typical indicator consists of two interconnected elements, a ____________ and an ____________ indicating element.
71. Season cracking is due to __________.
53. For slow running tests, a steady indication should be provided of the order of ________rpm for reciprocating engines and ___________ rpm for jet engines. 54. The blind _____________.
flying
panel
consists
72. Silicon and bronze tubing are used for __________ parts in the aircraft. 73. Beryllium copper is used for ______ application. 74. In magnesium alloys castings heat treatment aging is done to increase _________& __________.
of 75. Main application of Magnesium alloy casting in aircraft.
76. Stabilizing __________.
in
magnesium
alloy
increases
77. Solution heat treatment in magnesium alloy casting increases __________& __________.
97. Zinc, chromate primer is in __________ colour. 98. The advantage of using composite material is to get high strength in __________ direction. 99. Mnemonics are __________ based alloy.
78. Inconals have excellent resistance to _________. 79. The alloying elements of nickel base alloys are __________ and __________. 80. Cast alloys are produced by investment casting under __________. 81. Aluminium alloy parts __________ before painting.
are
treated
with
82. Reason for crystalline corrosion is due to ________.
100. The main cause of corrosion in magnesium alloy is __________. 101. __________ alloy sheets are used for oil and fuel. 102. Muntz metal is an alloy of copper, zinc and ____________. 103. In magnesium bronze __________ is in high percentage.
83. Rate of corrosion in metals is expressed in _____.
104. Service temperature application of Phenolic nitrate is up to __________ degree F.
84. In metal dipping process prevention of corrosion molten __________ and is generally used.
105. __________ is the most preferred NDT method for checking cracks in under carriage oleo leg.
85. In metal spraying __________ item is used for spraying.
106. Muntz metal is used for preparing parts coming in contact with __________.
86. Chromatic process of corrosion prevention is used for __________ alloys.
107. High strength of copper alloy is used for bearings that are subject to __________.
87. Anodising treatment is applicable to __________ type of alloy.
108. Common alloying elements of magnesium alloys are aluminium, zinc and __________.
88. Powder metallurgy preparation is preferred mainly due to __________.
109. Titanium alloys are suitable for application.
89. In mechanical communication of powder metallurgy process ductile metals are made into __________ shape.
110. Radiography method of NDT can be used for metals of __________ thickness effectively.
__________
111. Acid resistance part is used to coat __________. 90. Compacting is to prepare the material to coherent mass to reduce. 91. The service temperatures of structural adhesives in ceramic applications is __________. 92. __________ material is used for helicopter floor and rotor blades.
112. Metals in engineering are divided into _______ and non_________ metals. 113. The process of manufacture of wrought iron is _______process. 114. Alloy steel is a combination of steel and _______.
93. Wing beams are manufactured with __________. 115. The constituents of bronze are _____ and _____. 94. The main application of high carbon steel is __________. 95. In aircraft paints pigment gives __________. 96. Paint enamel is a combination of __________.
116. _______ type of vice is used for holding small work which cannot be conveniently held in a bench vice. 117. Fine_toothed hacksaw has _______teeth per inch for cutting thin material.
118. Coarse blade hacksaw has _______ teeth per inch for cutting thick material.
137. The _______ of a screw is the distance from a point on one thread to another thread.
119. Inverted angle of the cutting edge of the chisel for cutting mild steel is _______ degrees.
138. Lead equals pitch for a _______ thread. 139. Lead = _______ X No Of start of the thread.
120. _______ chisel is used for cutting in corners and short out grooves. 121. Narrow flat_bottomed grooves are cut using _______ chisel. 122. Hammer shaft is usually made of straight grained ash wood to _______. 123. While hammering always look at the _______ and not the _______. 124. _______ hammer is used for ordinary job, rivets etc .
140. The top surface joining the two folds of a thread is _______. 141. The _______ of the thread is the straight part of the thread, which connects the crests and roots. 142. The angle between the thread is the _______ angle. 143. The pitch is said to be _______ when there are few threads per inch. 144. A thread formed with a single continuous groove and is known as _______.
125. _______ files are used for filing small internal radii.
145. The sites of the square thread are _______.
126. _______ file is used for working 90 degree corners.
146. A letter _______ indicates that the bolt is made of stainless steel.
127. The bastard file has _______ teeth per inch.
147. All standard nuts are _______ in shape.
128. The smooth file has _______ teeth per inch.
148. Split pin are used with _______ nuts.
129. The length of a file is measured from its _______ to tip of the blade.
149. _______ are used to make the formed head during riveting.
130. The spiral grooving in a twist drill is called _______.
150. Brazing composition.
131. _______ provides cutting edge to the drill, rejects the scarf and takes lubrication.
151. In riveting _______ is the distance from the centre of a rivet to the centre of the adjacent rivet in the same row.
alloys
are
mainly
of
_______
132. In a twist drill, the angle between the line joining leading and trailing edges or the top of the horizontal in _______ angle.
152. A transistor has a current gain = 250 If collector current is 10 mA, the base current is ___________.
133. The _______ tap will produce a full thread in a through hole.
153. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni_Cd battery is between ________ and _________.
134. The accuracy of a divider will be lost if legs are open beyond _______ degrees.
154. (175)10 = (
)8.
155. (8963)10 =(
)8421.
135. Callipers are classified by the length of the _______. 136. Feeler gauges are classified by the _______ of the blades.
156. The number of flip flops required to count upto 73 is _______________.
STATE TRUE or FALSE 1. The AC current speed measurement system, measures speed in terms of frequency.
20. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator frequency is made lower than the incoming signal frequency.
2. Since the rotor is driven by the engine at some fixed ratio, the frequency of induced emf is the measure of the engine speed.
21. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used.
3. Thermoelectric temperature indicating system is otherwise called as pyrometry.
22. When modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled The AM system being used is single sideband full carrier (H3E).
4. The pilot need not refer to AH, VSI, ASI, Compasses constantly. 5. Artificial horizon is otherwise known as altitude indicator.
23. Balanced modulator can be used to remove unwanted sideband in SSB. 24. The principle of communication in optical fibre is based on total internal reflection.
6. A bi-metal strip contains two metals with high coefficient of linear expansion joined at their interface to form a single strip.
25. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the UHF range.
7. The device that indicates the desired pressure is reached is called Pressure switch.
26. The output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier.
8. Separate rooms are used for charging acid batteries and alkaline batteries.
27. Power density is directly proportional to square of distance from source.
9. In primary battery cells, active materials are destroyed during discharge.
28. In 2’s complenent subtraction the final carry is added to the MSB.
10. Alkaline batteries are primary batteries.
29. The barrier potential depends on the density of doping of the semiconductors.
11. The capacity of the battery is measured in Amperes-seconds units. 12. Lead acid batteries are not rechargeable.
30. If a P-n Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown voltage will increase.
13. Dry cell is a secondary type of a battery.
31. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a transistor.
14. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with amplitude of the modulating signal.
32. Usually , the generators used in aircraft are of self excited , shunt wound type.
15. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM signal. 16. The most common method used for generation of SSB is phase shift method. 17. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic waves. 18. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and plastic. 19. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift method of SSB generation.
33. The armature reaction in a generator causes the shifting of magnetic neutral axis. 34. The current regulator in a generator controls the field excitation current. 35. A battery is said to have run away if it takes decreasing charging current. 36. Capacity testing of batteries should be done at least once a year. 37. Run-away is not a phenomenon which is peculiar to constant potential charging systems.
38. The charging voltage for a battery is always greater than that of the actual output voltage by he same. 39. The internal resistance of battery can be raised by lowering the surface current density and increasing the area vetted by electrolyte. 40. The electrolyte solution of a Lead-Acid battery is Potassium Hydroxide. 41. Pressure leak testing is carried out to detect cracks in the adjacent cells. 42. Potting is a method of insulation of sockets from entry of water and other liquids. 43. Primary bonding conductors are used between components and earth for which primary conductors are not specifically required.
57. High strength copper alloy is generally used for manufacturing bearings subject to heavy load. 58. The main advantage of naval brass is good measuring quality. 59. The main cause of corrosion in magnesium alloy is surface contamination. 60. Wrought magnesium alloy sheets are used for oil and fuel tanks on application. 61. The common alloying elements of magnesium are aluminium, zinc and manganese. 62. Pure magnesium weights 80% as much as aluminium. 63. Magnesium alloy does not have strength of required for structural applications to use on aircraft.
44. There is no risk of fire hazards during refueling due to presence of static charges.
64. Mnemonics are used due to its high formability and welding characteristics.
45. Screening process provides a low resistance path for voltage producing unwanted RF interference.
65. Carbon and boron are not used as alloys elements in super alloys.
46. Thermal switches are employed as automatic temperature control devices which act as a protective device.
66. Directionally solidified alloys have higher modular of elasticity.
47. Relays are non-electromagnetic switching devices. 48. The materials used for ‘ Fuses ‘ are copper and iron. 49. In general the melting point of fusing elements are high. 50. Reverse current circuit breakers are designed to remain in a “locked – out “ condition to ensure complete isolation. 51. There is no arching effect in relays. 52. Corona discharge is minimized by using static discharge wicks. 53. Crimping dos not provide good electrical conductivity. 54. Proximity fuses eletromagnet principle.
are
used
are
based
on
67. Mnemonics are copper based alloys. 68. Titanium alloys are suitable for low temperature applications also. 69. The advantage of using composite material is to get high strength in all direction. 70. In aircraft paints, pigment gives solidity and colour. 71. Zinc, chromate primer is greenish in colour. 72. Paint enamel is a combination of pigment and varnish. 73. Paralkatone is used for both ferrous and nonferrous application. 74. Copper, brass and bronze items in aircraft require one coat of paint treatment. 75. Vanadium is the lowest corrodible material.
55. Muntz metal is an alloy of copper, zinc and magnesium.
76. Hot pressing is done below the melting temperature.
56. Muntz metal is used for preparing parts coming in contact with saline.
77. The main limitations of powder metallurgy is that the uniform size of particles.
78. Structural adhesives resistance to stresses as that of the main material is very rare.
96. Heavy cast springs can be compressed in a bench vice.
79. Synthetic resins are most widely used adhesives.
97. Isometric view is not suitable for rectangular solids with sharp edges.
80. Phenolic nitrate is used application is up to 500 degree F.
for
temperature
81. Radiography is the most preferred NDT method for checking cracks in under carriage oleo legs. 82. Wing beams are manufactured from stainless steel extrusion. 83. Thermal decomposition of carbonyl is to yield spherical particle in powder metallurgy. 84. Phosphate glass is used for property of high radiation transmission.
98. The orthogonal projection can be read without any formal training. 99. In engineering drawing, dimension lines are broken and fine. 100. In drilling tools, the short drills have parallel shanks and large drills have taper shanks. 101. The narrow strips along the cutting edge of the flutes in a drill are lands. 102. In a drill, the web angle and the clearance angle are inter dependant.
85. Enamel is a mixture of phenyl and varnish. 86. Bituminous paint is used in ship hulls painting. 87. Lacquer is used for finishing touch of aeroplane. 88. In riveting distance between two rows of rivet is called land. 89. The distance from centre of a rivet to centre of the adjacent rivet in the same row is the pitch.
103. In a taper tap the diameter of the core is not equal to the core diameter of the thread. 104. The flank of the thread is the straight foot of the thread, which correct the crest out bolts. 105. The worm thread angle is 29 degrees. 106. During tapping lubrication is not necessary.
90. While riveting, incorrect use of dolly or stop, tampering the plate or forms bad rivet heads.
107. Awareness of safety concept should be evident at certain levels and in only the flying faculty of the air force.
91. Bust joints in riveting are the joint between two plates overlap and held by one or two row of rivet.
108. Aircraft accidents due to bird strikes accounts for about 10 percent.
92. The cable ends eye end is used where correction of cables is frequent.
109. In 2’s complement subtraction the final carry is added to the MSB.
93. Spare end is used in cables when they are connected to terminals and tightened by nuts.
110. The barrier potential depends on the density of doping of the semiconductors.
94. In workshops, cuttings formed when drilling, reaming of fringe is called fretting.
111. If a P-N Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown voltage will increase.
95. Jig is a rigid frame of accurate dimension, fitted with guides for firmly holding the part to its shape during fabrication.
WRITE SHORT NOTES ON 1. Earthing or grounding in aircraft.
19. ISB.
2. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.
20. Low level and high level modulation.
3. Ohm’s Law.
21. Generation of AM.
4. Kirchoff’s Law.
22. FM receivers.
5. Faraday’s Law.
23. Methods of sideband suppression.
6. RMS value.
24. Industrial noise.
7. AM Transmitter.
25. Rheostats.
8. Superheterodyne receiver.
26. Methods of cooling of generators.
9. Balanced modulator.
27. Storage of aircraft cables.
10. Need for modulation.
28. Classification of generators.
11. Amplitude Modulation.
29. Thermal switches.
12. Frequency Modulation.
30. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.
13. Selectivity & Sensitivity.
31. Current limiters.
14. Phase Modulation.
32. Attracted core heavy-duty relay.
15. Phase shift method.
33. Attracted armature light duty relay.
16. Space waves.
34. limiting resistors.
17. AGC.
35. Earthing or grounding.
18. Advantages of FM over AM.
VERY SHORT ANSWER 1. Write down the different Main Lines used in Engineering Drawing.
22. What is non pictorial drawing? 23. What is Pictorial Drawing?
2. Name the different lines drawn under thin lines. 24. What is Orthographic Projection? 3. What is non-pictorial drawing? 25. Define the terms 'Allowance' and 'Forging' in work shop technology.
4. What is Pictorial Drawing? 5. What is Orthographic Projection?
26. Define the term 'Clearance' in work shop technology.
6. Define the terms 'Allowance' and 'Forging' in work shop technology.
27. Define the term 'Malleability'.
7. Define the technology.
28. Describe the purpose of giving heat treatment to metals.
term
'Clearance'
in
workshop
8. Define the term 'Malleability'.
29. Define heat treatment on metals.
9. Describe the purpose of giving heat treatment to metals.
30. Write the method of adjusting the zero setting of micrometer.
10. Define heat treatment on metals.
31. How is the reading 0 02 mm is obtained in a metric vernier caliper?
11. Write the method of adjusting the zero setting of micrometer.
32. Name the parts of a micrometer.
12. How is the reading 0 02 mm is obtained in a metric vernier caliper?
33. State the points to be remembered while using micrometer.
13. Name the parts of a micrometer.
34. State the principle of micrometer.
14. State the points to be remembered while using micrometer.
35. Name the associated tools required for drilling.
15. State the principle of micrometer.
36. Name the different types of drilling machines used in service.
16. Name the associated tools required for drilling.
37. Name the different types of drills used in service.
17. Write various types of drills commonly used.
38. State the relation between speed and feed during drilling operation.
18. State the relation between speed and feed during drilling operation. 19. Describe the method of checking the accuracy of micrometer. 20. Write down the different Main Lines used in Engineering Drawing. 21. Name the different lines drawn under Thin lines.
39. Describe the method of checking the accuracy of micrometer. 40. What are the various lubricants used while drilling operation on different metals ? 41. How will you check the vernier caliper for accuracy?
42. Briefly explain the procedure of checking DTI for accuracy. 43. Define the term 'Corrosion'. 44. List out the types of screw drivers sued in service.
63. What is surface corrosion How is it caused, what are remedial action. 64. Who is responsible to check the crash-kit ? 65. Define fixtutre.
45. Write the reasons for which flux is used in soldering.
66. What is the use of optical level ?
46. Write the purpose of tinning.
67. What are the points to be ensured before closing Hi shear pin ?
47. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging room.
68. Write the advantages of using a jig ?
48. List various tests conducted in battery charging room. 49. Difference between Primary and secondary battery. 50. Briefly explain collective pitch control ? 51. What are the factors governing the longitudinal stability ?
69. Define the following (b) Angle of attack.
:-
(a)
Ambhibian
70. Name the four primary components essential of hydraulically operated s ervices. 71. Write the features which are coming under the process of air condition ing. 72. Compare between lead acid and alkaline battery and write why alkaline battery is prefered to lead acid battery,.
52. How is data stored in the dynamic RAM ? 53. How will you ensure the following :- (a) Delete a selected item (b) Rename a file.
73. Define inductance and write the unit of inductance.
54. What are the advantages of using Excel for calculations.
74. Draw the symbols for the following: (a) Selector switch (b) Accumulator (c) Mechanical push (d) Rectifier.
55. What are the functions performed by any operating system ?
75. Enlist the servicing carried out on a new alkaline battery.
56. What happens inside the computer when any key is pressed on the key bo ard ?
76. Explain briefly the centralised warning panels and name the types of w arning it incorporates.
57. What is character user interface ?
77. Explain the following: (a) Short circuit (b) Transformer.
58. What is syntax ? 59. Write in brief :- (a) Radio buttons (b) Control menu. 60. What do you understand by the term 'servicing' what are the objectives of servicing,. 61. What does SWL (safe working load)indicators on a lifting hoist ? 62. What is ground equipment ?
78. Name different neutralising agents kept for use in emergency in lead a cid charging room. 79. State the factors governing the EMF induced in an armature. 80. What are the checks to be carried out while the DG set ios running ? 81. What are the different supplies made by ground power unit ? 82. What are the laws of magnetic induction ?
83. What are the servicing carried out on new alkaline batteries ?
104. What is the principle of conversion in axial flow engine ?
84. What do you understand by the term protective devices, name tow of the m.
105. What is the purpose of oil dilution ? Explain how it is carried out in aircraft engine lubrication system.
85. What is capacitance, give its unit of measurement?
106. What is thermocouple and where is it used ?
86. What is convertoer, name different types of convertor. 87. What is difference between transformer and generator. 88. What is electroni emission ? write the types of electronic emissions ? 89. What is resistance in electricity ? Give its unit of measurement.
107. What is thrust argumentation in jet engine and its purpose. 108. Write the basic purpose of fuel system and name the various feeding sy stem used on aero engine. 109. Write the principle of operation of turbojet engine. 110. Write the purpose of the following components :(a) LP Filter (b) HP fuel pump.
90. What is resistance, what is different between series resistance and pa rallel resistance ?
111. Define Mach number.
91. What is semi conductor and explain intrinsic and extrinsic semi conduc tor ?
112. Define rigidity (Gyroscopic enumerate the factors governi ng it.
92. What is the principle of electric starter ?
113. Explain the rinciple of a Bi-metalic temperature gauge.
93. Write the advantages of Invertor over Alternator. 94. Write the general precautions to be observed during handling of aircra ft batteries. 95. Write the merits of semi conductor. 96. Write the purpose of converter and invertor. 97. Explain in brief the principle of thrust argumentation in the jet engi ne and name the most common divices used.
Inertia)
and
114. Name various engine performance instrument systems. 115. What is Gyroscope. 116. What does the Turn and slip indicator indicates. 117. What is clutter and briefly explain how it is caused ? 118. Enumerate the application of laser.
98. Explain the purpose of ignition system what is duel ignition and write its advantages.
119. Tabulate the classification of materials with examples.
99. Give different classifications of propellers and brifly explain variab le pitch propeller ?
120. What are the uses and functions of Hellarman Pliers.
100. Name the different components fitted in aeroengine lubrication system.
121. Briefly explain the procedure of converting a decimal number into oct.
101. Name the essential parts of jet engine.
122. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.
102. Name the major components of turbo jet engines.
123. Define the term Logic gate and write the different logic gates of Digital Technique.
103. What is duel ignitor and state its advantages ?
124. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate. 125. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of NAND Gate. 126. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR Gate. 127. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique and write its uses. 128. Define the term Computer. 129. Name the various popular word processing packages available in the ma. 130. Name the various data operations for maintaining data base in a compu. 131. Define square law employed to compensate it?
What are the devices
132. Define :- (i) Rectified Air speed (ii) True Air speed. 133. Explain in brief, the function of control unit in a computer. 134. List out the precautions to be observed before handling emergency O2 set. 135. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human body. 136. What is a register ? explain the operation of a shift register?
138. How semi-conductor memory works in a computer? 139. Explain in brief, the function of control unit in a computer. 140. Convert 8 FA(16) to octal number. 141. With the help of a logic circuit explain an 'OR' gate having two inpu. 142. Name the basic logic gates and give their symbol. 143. With the aid of LOGIC CIRCUIT& TRUTH TABLE Explain AND Gate. 144. Explain the operation of two-input NOR Gate with the aid of a logic c. 145. Explain Why NAND Gate is called as Universal Building Block. 146. Explain the following (I) DRAG (ii)ANGLE OF ATTACK (iii) CHORD LINE. 147. Explain lethal warning. 148. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect. 149. Name the different methods of non destructive testing of crack detection. 150. Write short notes on Borescope.
137. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat diagram.
SHORT ANSWERS 1. What are the effects of temperature on a resistance? 2. What is a Machine Language in Computer? 3. Differentiate Microprocessor.
between
computer
and
4. With the help of Block diagram explain function of computer. 5. Convert (125.75) 10 to octal number and (152.25) 10 to Binary number.
21. Write the various methods of projections used in engineering drawing. 22. Name the various anti-corrosive treatment given to metals Write with examples. 23. Describe the drilling procedure in general. 24. Write the physical properties of metals. 25. Define critical points of steel when it is heated up.
6. Define the term re-conditioning.
26. Enumerate the principle employed in high frequency furnace.
7. Write the advantages of planned servicing.
27. Name the various types of pliers.
8. What are the precautions to be observed while handling batteries?
28. List out the types of spanners.
9. What is the principle of operation of lead acid batteries?
29. Describe the precautions to be observed during drilling operation. 30. Describe the method of using Scribing block.
10. Name various lines used in Engineering Drawing? Briefly explain each one of them.
31. Name the parts of a Vernier Caliper.
11. Explain different types of thin line used in engineering drawing.
32. What are the advantages of electric arc welding and mention its applications.
12. Write down the advantages of engineering drawing.
33. Describe the safety requirements while handling portable electrical tools.
13. What are the requirements of a good workshop drawing?
34. Name the various types of welded joints.
14. Write down the first cycle and third cycle projection projects on which planes. 15. Write the classifications of bonding methods with examples.
35. Name the types of Taps and explain any one of them. 36. State the important properties which must be possessed by a good lubricating oil. 37. Explain the purpose of Altimeter in an Aircraft.
16. Name the various anti-corrosive treatments given to metals Write with examples. 17. Describe the drilling procedure in general.
38. Write the principle of Mach meter. 39. What is memory? What are the different type of memory in a PC Expl ain EPROMS.
18. Write the physical properties of metals. 19. Describe the method of using Scribing block. 20. Name the parts of a Vernier Caliper.
40. How will you assign password in the file menu? Describe.
41. What are the command for - a)Creating a new file b)Duplicating a File c) Copying the contents of whole directory. 42. What are the internal commands? Name which command are from the follo wing- a) Delete a File b) Print c) Tree d) CLS. 43. What are the menu items found in the start menu? 44. What do you understand by the term. 45. What do you understand by the term "operating system"? Discuss. 46. What is editing ? What all editing can do to a given text? 47. Where are the cut copy and paste function is carriedout? What are the steps for them? 48. Write in brief on a) ICONS b) Menu and c) Menu options. 49. Differentiate between generators and motors and enumrate the services operated by electric motors? 50. Explain the Fleming's left hand rule in brief. 51. Explain the principle conservation and operation of the transformer.
60. Name the major component of turbojet engine and write their purpose. 61. Name the various strokes of engine and explain them in brief. 62. Write down the various parts of a high eenergy ignition units and expl ain them in brief. 63. Write the purpose of the following components (1) Diffuser (2) Combustion chamber (3) nozzle guide vanes (4) Turbine (5) Jet Nozzle (Turbine jet engine). 64. Explain in brief the principle of altimeter. 65. Explain the principal of exhaustgar temperature system. 66. Explain the requirment of an aircraft oxygen installation. 67. Name the engine performance instrument and explain the tacho generator. 68. Name the performance instrument of an aircraft and write the purpose o f each. 69. What are the requiment which have to be satisfied to enable an oxygen installation to function efficiently in the aircraft.
52. How the electrical form of energy can be detected. 53. Name different types of neutralising agent kept for use in emergency in lead acid charging room and what are the servicing carried out on ne w alkaline. 54. What is meant by recetification (eletrical)and how many types of rectifier (electrical) are used in service? 55. What is Electricity,and the method by which it can be detected?How thi s property is made use of in every day use. 56. What is the difference minimum relay explain. 57. What is the principle of operation of DC motors? Give brief descriptio n of different types of different types DCmotors. 58. Write the different types of the DCmotors used and their uses. 59. Explain in brief the re-heat system of thrust augmentation in brief in turb- jet engine.
70. What is the purpose of R O C I Define the principle of R O C I? 71. Write the different spheres in atmosphere,explain one of them. 72. Write the operation of altimeter. 73. What is clutter and how is causes Enumerate the clutter reduction tech niques. 74. Give basic construction of LASER. 75. Give different classifications of satellits and briefly explain synchr onous and non-synchronous satellits. 76. Name the application of a laser ? Explain the application in mechanica l engineering ? 77. What are the advantages of Fibre optics communications system ? 78. What are the functions of an under carriage.
79. What is modulation? Name the type of modulation. 80. Write in brief about BLACK BOX. 81. Explain the various factors with movement of pressure which effects t e longitudinal stability? 82. What are the axis of an aircraft and explain the movement of a/c abou t them. 83. What is vortex ring?
99. What is the purpose of purging? How will you purge the oxygen install. 100. What are the general precautions to be observed while working on oxyg. 101. Why portable oxygen sets are used in aircraft and what are the requirement which they will have to satisfy before dealing with the sets? 102. Write safety precautions to be observed while working on liquid oxyge.
84. With a neat diagram explain the forces acting on an aircraft during gl ide.
103. Write short notes on the following in liquid oxygen installation (i) Liquid oxygen container (ii) Filler &vent valve assembly.
85. Why shunt generator is invariable started with out load ? Write conditions for.
104. Write short notes on stabilizing container and excessive pressure re.
86. Define drilling Enumerate the drilling procedure?
105. What are the various affects of lack of oxygen at different altitude.
87. Explain following terms used in screw threads (a) Pitch (b) Lead (c) Core diameter. 88. Describe in brief a diaphragm. 89. Explain briefly JPT gauge. 90. Define "Seebeck Effect" and name the factors on which the EMF depends.
106. What are the general precautions to be observed while working on oxygen Eqpt 107. Write the properties of liquid oxygen and explain various hazards of. 108. Enumerate the protective clothing used while working on liquid oxygen.
91. Explain briefly CHT gauge.
109. Write the "First Aid" when affected by liquid oxygen.
92. Explain the effects of without oxygen an human body at various altitu.
110. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat diagram.
93. What are the advantages of liquid oxygen over gaseous oxygen ?
111. Write the safety requirement of Hand tools:
94. List out the precautions to be observed before handling emergency O2. 95. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human body. 96. What is purging? Explain stage I purging. 97. What are the advantages hazards of liquid oxygen over gas oxygen ? 98. What are the precautions to be observed while charging the oxygen on.
112. Explain the importance of training to avoid a/c accident caused by human error. 113. Explain in brief different types of special screwdrivers. 114. What are Instrument errors? How will you adjust regular error and irregular errors in an aircraft instrument? 115. Write the types of punches used in instrument repair work. 116. Write in brief different types of Instrument errors.
117. What are different types of special files? Write difference between warding files & equalizing files. 118. Write the safety requirement of Hand tools.
LONG ANSWER 1. What is Seam welding?
22. Draw depth micrometer name its parts and reading.
2. What is spot welding?
23. How a micrometer is calibrated.
3. What is spot welding?
24. What do you understand by resistant welding?
4. Difference between soldering and brazing.
25. What is difference between diode and triode?
5. Advantages of crimping over soldering.
26. What treatment is needed to make a metal soft and with it reduce the internal stress?
6. Braiton cycle explanation. 7. Purpose of CPU in computer. 8. Purpose of ALU (Arithmetic and Logic Unit). 9. What is difference between ROCI and altimeter? 10. Explain case hardening. 11. Explain with figure relation between centre of gravity and MAC.
27. What is difference between keys and shaft in pulleys? 28. What is difference between straight and cross connection in pulleys? 29. How will reduce the effect of hydrogen in electroplating? 30. What is +ve and -ve error in micrometer? 31. Show reading 879".
12. What are all supply will be available to various load if normal supply system is fails?
32. Name the different a/c manuals.
13. Explain the eddy current crack detection procedure.
33. What is the principal of (i) RPM gouge (ii) CHT gouge?
14. What precaution one should observe while using a micrometer.
34. What is ATA code give the name of following publication: (i) Air conditioning (ii) Pressurisation (iii) Flight control.
15. Filler and fluxes are used in which procedure. 16. Explain the purpose and use of parallel beer. 17. Driving one normal a/c, power is not available to engine how will you use bolt electrical load on the device? 18. When any metal is exposed to environment, explain the reason and prevention of corrosion on the metal.
35. What chemical reaction takes place in Ni-Cad batteries? 36. What chemical reaction takes place while charging and discharging of batteries? 37. What are the difference between Ni-Cad and lead acid batteries? 38. How will you check the charging?
19. Name five surface treatments on ferrous metal.
39. How capacity test is carried out in batteries?
20. What are right type files are used on the a/c?
40. What is heat treatment?
21. What are NDT's for plastic and ceramic?
41. Why quenching is important? 42. What are treatment for steel and magnesium?
43. What is hardest test explain any one.
63. What are the different classes of threads and mention its characteristic.
44. What is de-fuelling procedure of a/c? 45. Explain tempering.
64. Mention any five types of bolt used in aircraft and mention the purpose of clevis belt.
46. Write three types of special purpose bolts and uses.
65. What is the purpose of self-locking nuts and write the different types.
47. Show reading 0.629" and 0.2941" on a micrometer.
66. Mention the conditions on which lock washers should not be used on a/c.
48. Purpose and types of pliers used on a/c.
67. Explain the code AN501B-416-7 with respect to screw used in a/c.
49. How will you use triode diode? 50. A bar of conductor and semiconductor is given to you How will you identify the conductor bar? 51. How power is transferring form shaft? Explain will diagram. 52. How gear movement is transformed show with diagram? 53. What are flying instruments is connected pilot static system? 54. Name the ground support equipment used and their purpose. 55. What five precautions to be observed on a/c while maintenance? 56. What is working principle of "D" arsenal meter? How it will be used to check current and voltage? 57. What is difference between heat treatment and electroplating? 58. Write type of corrosion; explain any one, cause. 59. What is the purpose of weighing of aircraft, and define useful load of a/c? 60. What do you mean by aircraft levelling and briefly explain different method? 61. Briefly explain different contamination in aviation fuel.
forms
of
fuel
62. How fluid lines are identified in aircraft and write the symbols used for breathing oxygen and compressed gas.
68. What are the general rules followed in safety wiring? 69. What do you mean by 'Local cells' in electro chemical attack corrosion and mention the names of different forms of corrosion. 70. What do you mean by Anodising and alodising? 71. Explain the terms (i) Bending (ii) Torsion (iii) tensile (iv) Elasticity. 72. What do you meant by spark test and how ferrous metals identified by spark test? 73. Write the constituents of K-mond and mention its use. 74. What is heat treatment of metal and write the types of heat treatment given to Aluminium alloys. 75. Write the advantages of Barcol tester, mention its limitations. 76. Calculate the resistance value of a resistor with the following colour code sequence, Red, green and yellow. 77. Write the chemical equation of Lead Acid battery during charging and discharging. 78. How ammeter is converted to a voltmeter and how the range of voltmeter can be extended? 79. Why transformer is rated on KW basis and explain Autotransformer? 80. How zaner diode function as a voltage regulator?
81. Draw an electrical diagram showing a groundedemitter amplifier circuit. 82. What are the methods used in DC motor to change its direction of rotation? 83. What are the maintenance carried out on DC generator? 84. Explain 'ATA specification No 100'. 85. What are the steps to be taken when performing a penetrant inspection method. 86. Write about pulse-echo method of ultrasonic testing with diagram. 87. Write a short notes on (i) GPU (ii) Hydraulic Power Unit.
103. Explain briefly capacitance type fuel gauge system? 104. Write Short Notes on :- (a) Exhaust Gas Indicator (b) Thermocouples. 105. What is meant by synchronous condition of an AC motor and state in brief how the condition is maintained in tachometer indicator? 106. How the electrical type of thermometers are classified and what is the principle used in CHT and JPT gauge and explain? 107. Relate the precaution in general, to be observed before starting up an a/c. 108. Purpose of A/C weight and Balance control.
88. Make a neat sketch of micrometer caliper and mention its parts.
109. Need for reweighing of A/C.
89. What is the advantage of 3 phase system over single phase system.
110. What are the sources from which weight and Balance data can be obtained?
90. How RMS value is calculated.
111. Define the terminology: -(i) The Datum (ii) The Arm (iii) The Moment (iv) Centre of Gravity (v) Maximum weight (vi) Empty weight (vii) Useful load (viii) EWCG (ix) EWCG Range (x) MAC.
91. What are the types of fixed resistors. 92. What are the types of variable resistors.
112. Compute the e g location in percentage of MAC. 93. What is the basic difference between AC and DC measuring instruments? 94. What is the principle of an autotransformer?
113. What is Aircraft levelling and how it is lavelled? 114. What is minimum fuel weight and how it is calculated?
95. What are the advantages of autotransformer? 115. Explain the operation of the lateral control. 96. What is the difference between Star and Delta connection in an electrical system? 97. Draw and explain Half Adder.
116. Explain the method of towing an aircraft. 117. Write down the difference between the soft soldering and hard soldering.
98. Draw and explain Full Adder. 99. What is the combination of different materials in solder used for soldering electronic components? 100. Why flux is used for soldering. 101. Why temperature controlled soldering stations is used for soldering high sensitive electronic components. 102. Why Ni-Cd Batteries are preferred than lead-acid batteries in electronic equipments.
118. Describe the safety requirements to be observed while using hand tools. 119. What are the general fire precautions to be observed while working in hanger / aircraft? 120. Name the types of corrosion and explain corrosion due to galvanic action. 121. (a) Name and explain the various stages of theoritical otto cycle (b) Explain four stages of theoritical otto cycle.
122. Briefly explain the following (a) Gas laws (b) Centigrade heat unit (CHU) (c) Themal capacity (d) Specific heat.
139. What is corrosion? Explain with a neat diagram the process of galvanic corrosion Name five metals, in the order of corrosion resistant.
123. Briefly outline the properties of magnesium & titanium alloys with advantages and disadvantages. 124. Explain in brief the difference among surface corrosion, galvanic action and inter crystallization corrosion.
140. Distinguish clearly between self and separately excited generators. 141. List out the advantages of static Inverter over Rotary inverter.
125. Write the uses of magnesium alloys, extrusion, forging and sheets in aircraft applications. 126. Explain in brief the applications of the copper alloys and brass in aircraft applications. 127. Indicate three groups of super alloys and their applications to aircraft industry. 128. In a table from give different types of carbon steel and their applications on aircraft. 129. Give three heat treatment of magnesium alloys. 130. Write short notes on (a) Composite and application on modern aircraft (b) Nickel base super alloys.
142. List out the requirements of an ideal battery charging room. 143. Give a brief account of the main component of a DC Generator and explain the purpose of commutator. 144. With the help of a logic circuit and truth table explain NAND GATE? 145. What are the characteristics of random access memory? 146. Write the advantages and disadvantages of a moving coil instrument. 147. Write the advantages and disadvantages of moving iron instruments.
131. Application of composites in aircraft industry.
148. Explain in brief the essential requirements of an indicating instrument.
132. Explain in brief the process and importance of tempering surface hardening of carbon steel.
149. Name the instruments forces and explain eddy current damping.
133. Explain in brief the manufacturing are application of Inconel and K, Monel nickel based alloys.
150. Write the principle and operation of moving coil instruments.
134. Briefly explain the process of Honey Comb core and Honeycomb sand witch construction composites with advantages and disadvantages. 135. Explain in brief the surfaced hardenings techniques and process used aircraft on aircraft metals. 136. Explain with basic characteristics why, beach wood, and balsa wood are used for aircraft industry Why the plywood is preferred for certain applications. 137. Write short notes on (a) Vinyl Phenolics (b) Epoxy Phenolics.
151. Explain the following terms used in a/c servicing:(i) Repair (ii) Reconditioning (iii) Inspection. 152. What is the aim of planned servicing and how it is achieved? 153. Draw and explain the working of reverse bias PN junction diode. 154. Give a brief account of the following (i) Photo conductor (ii) Type extrinsic Semi-conductor. 155. Write short notes on Intrinsic Semi conductor. 156. Briefly explain the Zener Diode.
138. Briefly give names of various rubberised components used in aircraft How do you check the ‘S’ of seal?
157. Name the different types of diode and give their symbols.
158. Name the main components of a conventional a/c. 160. Write the purpose of the following of a jet engine: (a) compressor (b) combustion chamber (c) Turbine.
159. Define the following: a) Aileron b) Elevator c) Rudder. 176. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW when the modulation percentage is 75% How much of this is carrier power?
161. Name the types of corrosion and explain corrosion due to galvanic action.
177. Explain the generation of FM by direct method? 178. In which respect is an LED different from an ordinary P-n junction diode? State its application.
162. Explain (i) Wing tip vertices (ii) Trailing edge vertices. 163. Explain briefly what are the factors governing lift? 164. Explain the axis of an aircraft and explain the movement of aircraft about them? 165. Explain the difference between "Wing tip vertices" and "Trailing edge vertices". 166. State the purpose of"SLAT" and explain them? 167. What are the lift augmentation devices, explain them briefly. 168. What is boundry layer control? write the advantages and methods used in boundry layer control? 169. With the help of a graph explain briefly variation of drag with angle of attack? 170. Briefly explain flapping to equality. 171. Describe ground resonance and state conditions which may promote its nset. 172. What is the purpose of having differential control of aileron? How the differential movement is obtained? 173. Write short notes on: a) Air ship b) control strip c) Flap d) longitudinal dihedral e) r igging position. 174. An amplitude-modulated wave has a power content of 800 W at its carrier frequency; determine the power content of each of the sidebands for 90% modulation?
179. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working. 180. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and bypass capacitors What is meant by stiff coupling? 181. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE amplifier and discuss about the input and output impedance to develop such a model. 182. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail Current (b) Input offset current (c) Input bias current (d) Input offset voltage. 183. What is the approximate value of zener current for each of these load resistances :- (a) RL = 100 Kilo Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms. 184. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier. 185. Explain the phenomena of the following types of corrosion (a) Cavitations (b) Stress corrosion (c) Pitting corrosion. 186. Explain the difference between cathodic and anodic oxidation process of corrosion prevention. 187. Explain the different types of paints and coats used for preventive of corrosion in aircraft industry. 188. Explain in brief the process of fusion welding. 189. Explain the use and application of brazing and soldering in aircraft industry. 190. Explain properties and use of steel. 191. Explain manufacturing process of Aluminium.
175. Give an expression for the range of space waves in terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height?
192. Explain properties and use of non-ferrous metals like brass, bronze, duralumin etc ,.
193. Explain classification of materials and uses of chisels.
212. What are the different types of screw drivers? Explain in brief.
194. Explain classification of materials and uses of hacksaw frames and blades.
213. Explain different types of spanners used.
195. Explain briefly on the following (Attempt any two) (a) Flat chisel (b) Hand vice (c) Cross cut chisel (d) Bench vice. 196. Explain classification of materials and uses of hammers.
214. Write short notes on (a) Brazing (b) Silver soldering. 215. Explain the different types of rivets used and explain the terms used in riveting. 216. What are the different types of riveted joints?
197. Explain classification of materials and uses of files.
217. What are the different types of cable joints?
198. Explain briefly the different types of cuts in files.
218. What are the different types of cable ends?
199. Explain classification of materials and uses of drill.
219. Explain briefly engineering drawing.
200. Explain briefly the following in twist drill (a) Cutting angle (b) Clearance angle (c) Web angle.
220. What are the different types of lines to be used in engineering drawing?
201. Explain the briefly : Portable pneumatic and electric drilling.
221. Explain the method of identification of bolts.
202. Explain the precautions adopted during drilling process. 203. Write short notes on (a) Taps (b) Dies. 204. Explain briefly the method of measurement with a micrometer. 205. Explain briefly how measurement is carried out with a vernier calliper. 206. Write short notes on (a) Feeler gauges (b) Inside and outside callipers. 207. Explain the following terminology in a screw thread (a) Pitch (b) Lead (c) Thread angle (d) Root. 208. Explain the following in detail (a) Square thread (b) Acme thread (c) Buttress thread (d) Knuckle thread.
isometric
projection
in
222. What is a stud? How are they classified? 223. Explain the procedure to remove a solid rivet. 224. What are the difference between soft soldering and hard soldering? 225. Explain the method of soft soldering. 226. Explain in detail the method of brazing. 227. Explain the different types of welded joints. 228. Enlist the list of tools used in steel metal work. 229. Enlist a few sheet metal machines. 230. Enlist forging and blacksmith tools. 231. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument system?
209. Explain the different types of bolt heads. 210. Write short notes (b) Aluminium alloy nuts.
on
(a)
Steel
nuts
211. Write short notes on the following locking devices (a) Tab washers (b) Split pins (c) Locking plates (d) Circlips.
232. What are the various principal elements of an instrument? 233. Explain in detail self excited shunt wound generator. 234. Explain carbon pile voltage regulator with neat circuit diagram.
235. Explain in detail various types of special cable. 236. Explain with neat circuit diagram reverse current circuit breaker. 237. Explain sleepiness, sulphation and runaway of batteries. 238. Explain vibrating contact voltage regulator with neat circuit diagram. 239. Define useful life and capacity a secondary battery Discuss the various tests carried out on a engine starting Accumulator Trolley? 240. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in battery charging room? 241. What are the requirements of battery charging room? 242. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working. 243. Describe the requirement of battery charging room.
254. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM transmitter Show the appearance of amplitude modulated wave? 255. The block diagram communication system?
of a typical
PCM
256. The advantages and disadvantages of PCM over analog communication? 257. Define plastics and what are its common properties? 258. Write down the classification of file and explain grade and cut? 259. Explain the various parts of twist drill? 260. How the screwdrivers are classified and describe various types of screwdrivers. 261. What are the different physiological effects due to the change in alt. 262. Define calibration standards and discuss.
Write various accepted
244. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what are the factors governing the choice of electrical system.
263. What do you understand by instrument mechanism? Explain in brief.
245. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of batteries.
264. Explain the procedure of removal of foreign matters and moisture from moisture traps.
246. What are the sequence of operations carried out for testing and servicing of batteries.
265. Briefly explain the principal element of an Instrument from operating point of view.
247. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB Describe one method?
266. State the purpose and explain the principle of operation of accelerometer.
248. Explain the working of super heterodyne receiver?
267. Explain Q code setting in Altimeter different types of Q code.
249. Derive power relation in AM wave?
268. Name the principal elements in an instrument and explain them in brief.
250. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver?
Define
251. Explain power saving by SSB?
269. Define the term 'BACKLASH' and give the different methods used to minimise the effects of backlash in instruments.
252. Define modulation and explain Amplitude Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase modulation Also explain the need for modulation?
270. How do you set the subsidiary scale as per QFE on an altimeter?
253. Define noise, where is it most likely to affect the signal?
271. Name different types of Irregular error adjustment and with the help of a neat diagram explain lever length adjustment.
293. Explain Fuel Jettison systems. 272. How will you remove a rusted screw? 294. Fuel Leak Classification. 273. Explain in brief different types of Pin Punches. 295. What do you understand by aircraft plumbing? 274. Write short notes on the following :- (i) Riveting stake.
296. How the plumbing materials are identified?
275. What is purpose of the following :- (i) Setting files (ii) Broaches (iii) Stout center punch.
297. Explain Teflon hose. 298. How the fluid lines are identified?
276. Explain the normal synchronization operation of RI compass.
299. What are the differences between AN and ACN fittings?
277. Define the following : (i) Magnetic equator (ii) Compass eror(iii) Magnetic dip (iv) Magnetic meridian.
300. Write the Purpose of Quick Disconnect Coupling. 301. What are the various tube forming process.
278. With the help of circuit diagram explain the operation of. 279. Define the following : (i) Magnetic meridian (ii) Deviation (iii) Rhumb line (iv) Latitude.
302. Explain single flare and double flare forming processes? 303. What are the precautions to be observed while flare less tube installation?
280. Explain Dip error in magnetic compass. 281. Write the Aircraft Weighing Procedure.
304. What are the common faults flare less tube installation?
282. Why the Ballast is used in Aircraft?
305. Write full form of AN, NAS and MS.
283. What are Permanent and temporary Ballast?
306. Write the differences between Screw and Bolt.
284. Explain: (i) Volatility (ii) Vapour lock (iii) Carburettor icing (iv) Detonation (v) Surface ignition.
307. How the threads are classified? 308. Types of aircraft bolt.
285. Which of the fuel is hygroscopic in nature AvGas or Jet Fuel?
309. Draw and write the uses of (special bolts) (i) Eye Bolt (ii) Clevis Bolt (iii) Lock Bolt (iv) Jo-Bolt.
286. How the fuel is identified? 310. Bolt Part no AN3DD5A stands for. 287. What are the fuel identification markings? 288. What are the Principle Contaminants in fuel and how they appear?
311. What are the types of self locking nut and their uses.
289. Contamination detection.
312. What are the conditions where lock washers are not used.
290. Contamination Control.
313. Write the installation practices of Bolt.
291. What are the fuel system components?
314. Types and uses of Torque Wrench.
292. Name the fuel system indicators and their operating principle.
315. Types of Aircraft screws and their uses. 316. Method of Heli-coil installation.
317. What are the uses of Turn lock Fasteners?
341. Explain (i) Parco Lubrising (ii) Anodising (iii) Alodizing.
318. Draw a Dzus Fastener. 319. Draw the cross-sectional shape of Low, medium and extra flexible cable.
342. Selection factors for material used for Airframe Constructions. 343. What are the various metal working processes?
320. Write the installation procedure of turnbuckle. 321. Types of Aircraft pins and their uses. 322. What are the various methods of safe tying aircraft parts? 323. Write safety wiring rules.
344. Differentiate between hot working and cold working. 345. Differentiate between Annealing and normalizing. 346. What are the basic methods of producing aluminium ally casting?
324. Identification Markings of Rivet AN-470AD3 5. 347. What is A-B-C classification of Titanium alloys? 325. Types of Rivets and where they used in Aircraft. 326. Draw 0 types of Aircraft Rivet.
348. Write short notes on (i) Monel (ii) K-Monel (iii) MUNTZ metal (iv) Red brass (v) Spark test of steel.
327. Factors to consider in the selection of connect rivet.
349. What are the requirements must be kept in mind when selecting substitute metals.
328. Identification of various Rivets - (i) Tueber POP (ii) AVDEL (iii) Jo Bolt (iv) Riv nut.
350. What is the Principle of heat treatment?
329. Difference between thermosetting plastics. 330. Uses of construction.
and
351. How the wrapping tendency of steel can be reduced during heat treatment.
A/C
352. Explain (i) Hardening of steel (ii) Tempering (iii) Annealing (iv) Normalising (v) Case hardening.
thermoplastic
thermosetting
plastic
in
331. Purpose of seal and their types. 332. What is corrosion and types of corrosion. 333. What are different forms of corrosion? 334. Explain Galvanic corrosion, inter granular corrosion, fretting corrosion and stress corrosion. 335. What are the factors affecting corrosion? 336. What are the preventive maintenance to improve the corrosion resistance of A/C. 337. What are various corrosion prone areas? 338. What are general corrosion treatments. 339. How the corrosion damages are classified? 340. Write the various corrosion control processes.
353. Heat treatments of (i) Aluminium alloy (ii) Magnesium alloys (iii) Titanium. 354. What are different types of hardness testing of aircraft metals. 355. Purpose of Aircraft Bonding and screening. 356. Distribution of charge on regularly and irregularly shaped body. 357. Find the value of resistors - (i) White, blue, brown, gold (ii) Red, green, red, red (iii) Brown, Black, Black, brown (iv) brown, black, gold, red (v) Yellow, green, silver, silver (vi) Body colour red, dot colour yellow, end colour green. 358. Write Kirchoff law. 359. Purpose of voltage dividers. 360. Differentiate between rheostat and potentiometer.
361. What is an electromagnet and where they are used in aircraft?
382. What is Armature reaction? Write the methods of reducing it.
362. What are the storage batteries used in aircraft? 363. The material used for lead acid cell and Ni-cad batteries (i) plates, electrolyte and cover. 364. What are factors affecting the performance of Lead-Acid batteries. 365. What are various methods of charging lead-acid batteries? 366. What are the advantages of Ni-cad battery over Lead acid battery? 367. What is thermal runaway? 368. What is the purpose of circuit breakers and fuses, their properties? 369. Explain solenoid and relay. 370. Which types of CBs used in Aircraft and what are not used in Aircraft?
383. What are the various types of voltage regulators and explain the working of carbon pile voltage regulator. 384. Draw a carbon pile voltage regulator and explain how the voltage level can be adjusted. 385. What is paralleling of generator, how is it achieved? 386. What are the differences between AC motor and DC motor. 387. What is the working Principle of motor? 388. Uses of three-phase and single-phase induction motor in aircraft systems. 389. What is CSD? Explain the method of adjusting the speed of CSD.
371. What are the types of switches used in A/C?
390. What is AC series motor? Explain the changes, which are made to operate on AC.
372. What are the effects of current and which are the effects are used in meter?
391. Types of turbo engines.
373. What are the precautions to be observed when connecting an Ammeter in circuit? 374. Precautions to be observed while connecting a voltmeter in circuit.
392. Advantages of test engine over turbine engine. 393. Type of fuel used in different engine. 394. Which is the high speed engine (turbo-prop or turbo jet)? Write the advantages of it.
375. Define inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
395. What are the basic flight instruments?
376. What is Power factor? What is relation between PF, True power and apparent power?
396. Name the different instruments used along with piston engine.
377. Principle of transformer Can a transformer work on DC if not then why?
397. Write the working principle of the following instruments: Hydraulic pressure gauge, pressure gauge for anti-icing system, RPM gauge.
378. Why the secondary of current transformer never be left open while the system be operated? 379. Write 05 types of diodes and draw the symbols. 380. Draw and explain the working at a zener diode as regulator (voltage). 381. What are major parts of an alternator?
398. Points to be kept in mind during inspection of magnetic compass. 399. Occasion when compass swinging is carried out. 400. What do you mean by remote reading instrument. 401. Working principle of altimeter and ROCI.
423. Procedures for jacking the aircraft. 402. Meaning of various coloured are in instrument dial working.
424. Various taxi lights and their meaning.
403. What is Angle of attack? How it affects lift and drag?
425. Classification, materials, types and uses of (i) screw driver (ii) hammer (iii ) chisel (iv) pliers (v) Punches (vi) files.
404. What are special inspections carried out on aircraft?
426. Precautions to be taken while using file.
405. What are various Publications used to guide aviation mechanic? 406. What is ATA specification? Explain its purpose. 427. What are metal cutting tools? 407. What are the types of NDT carried out on aircraft parts. 408. Explain the principle of ECI. 409. What are the indicating mediums used in magnetic particle inspection?
428. Types of Blades used in hacksaw (all hard and flexible type). 429. Draw a twist drill and write its parts. 430. What are layout and measuring tools? 431. What are types of callipers and their uses?
410. Why the parts under magnetic particle inspection require to be demagnetised after carried out the test Methods of demagnetisation. 411. What types of NDT carried out on plastic, ceramic and rubber? 412. Draw engine intake and exhaust hazard areas. 413. Extinguishing engine fires develops during the starting procedure. 414. What are various types of ground support units used in the operations of Aircraft? 415. Precautions to be observed while refuelling of aircraft. 416. What are the duties of refuelling crews? 417. What are the advantages of pressure refuelling? 418. Types of Fire vs Extinguishing agent. 419. Fire extinguisher periodic checks. 420. Precautions to be observed while using compressed Air system. 421. Precautions against windstorm damage. 422. Procedures for towing the aircraft.
432. Draw a micrometer Write its parts. 433. Calculate the least count of an English micrometer. 434. Principle of working of a micrometer. 435. Materials uses in construction frame, anvil, spindle of a micrometer, also its properties. 436. Determining the value of micrometer reading. 437. What is positive error and negative error in micrometer how it is corrected? 438. Uses of taps and dies. 439. Various logic gates, their symbols, truth table. 440. Uses and compositions of combination sets. 441. Conversion of binary to decimal, octal to decimal, hexadecimal to decimal and vice-versa. 442. NAND gate, NOR gate, Exclusive OR gate. 443. Why NAND/NOR gates are called universal gate? 444. Draw circuits of 'AND' and OR gate.
445. What are the advantages of composite materials used in aircraft construction? 446. NDT carried out on composite materials. 447. Faults in welding. 448. Difference between TIG and MIG welding. 449. Draw and explain, carburising Flame Neutral flame and oxidising flame.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) 1. The backing and filling plates using the hole in the stressed skin as a template to obtain correct size, the backinb plate should be overlap by: A. 9 D. B. 8 D. C. 7 D. D. 6 D.
9. During flight in the event of engine failure the a/c will have an atti tude of:
2. Edges of the repair patches are to be: A. Chiffed. B. Chamfered. C. Filled. D. Smoothered.
10. An Increased in the drag on the down going wing during a control roll can be achievced by using:A. Servo dileron. B. Frise aileron. C. Mass balance of deliron. D. Aerodynamically balance of aileron.
A. Gliding. B. Stalling. C. Flying in the same direction and height. D. Rolling.
3. The chobert rivets mandral is made of: A. Mild steel. B. High tensile steel. C. High carbon steel. D. Monel metal.
11. Aileron in effectiveness due to thickened boundary layer effect toward s the tip is solved by:A. large size of ailerons. B. Aileron balance tabs. C. All moving wing tips. D. Elevons.
4. Hi shear pins as name suggests, are used in structural position where there is: A. Heavy load of shear loading. B. High degree of shear loading. C. Leak proof point. D. Heavy strength.
12. The speed of sound is propotional to the: A. Square of the absolute temperature. B. Square root of the absolute temperature. C. Square root of the temperature. D. Density of air.
5. Jo bolts are supplied pre-lubricated and must: A. Be degreased before fitment. B. Not be degreased before fitment. C. Be cleaned with gasoline before fitment. D. Be cleaned with petrol before fitment.
13. During transionic flow, a marked rise in air flow ocuures immeditately behind the shock wave is known as: A. Pressure wave. B. Shock stall. C. Sonic bang. D. Sonic bubble.
6. Riv nuts are anchor nuts in rivet form used where access is limited to: A. Both side of the struture. B. Bottom side of the struture. C. One side of the struture. D. Top side of the sturture.
14. In a supersonic flow, the formation of shock wave is upstream of the originating surface, then free stream mach number is: A. Supersonic. B. Less than the velocity of propagation. C. Greater than the velocity of propagation. D. Supersonic but less than the velocity of propagation.
7. After take off, when the aircraft is accelerating and climbing if the flap are raised, it causes immediate reduction in the lift and loss of height, this is countered by: A. Increase in the angle of attack. B. Decrease in the angle of attack. C. Increase in the speed of the A/C. D. Decrease in the speed of the A/C.
15. Aerofoil when gives best result in super sonic conditions is: A. Diamond section aerofoil. B. Bi-convex aerofoil. C. Sharp edged thin aerofoil. D. Uniconvex aerofoil.
8. The best lift/drag ratio is obtained with the flap at an angle between : A. 12' and 25'. B. 10' and 30'. C. 10' and 35'. D. 15' and 35'.
16. In cabin air cycle system the air discharge valve incorporates at outward relief valve to prevent excessive. A. Cabin air pressure. 179
B. Cabin ambient pressure. C. Cabin differential pressure. D. Cabin atmospheric pressure.
D. Green. 25. The operation of moving iorn type frequency meter is based on : A. Mechanical resonance. B. Variation of impedance. C. Electrical resonance. D. Force of attraction.
17. A typical high grade moving coil instrument may have a coil resistance of :A. 05 ohm. B. 10 ohm. C. 15 ohm. D. 20 ohm.
26. A desired wave shape with a known frequency and amplitude can be obtained from: A. Oscilloscope. B. Signal generator. C. Modulator. D. Signal processor.
18. To measure a resistance below 10 kohm by wheatstone bridge method, the rates switch is kept at position : A. 0. B. 1. C. 10. D. 100.
27. The instrument used for measuring HF & VHF current is : A. Moving iron freq meter. B. Tong test ammeter. C. Hot wire instrucment. D. Thermo couple instrument.
19. Avometer used a : A. Moving coil meter. B. Hotwire instrument. C. Moving iron meter. D. induction type instrument.
28. Damping force in moving coil meter is based on A. End rule. B. Lenz's law. C. Fleming's Rt hand rule. D. Fleming's lt hand rule.
20. The torque exerted on moving coil of wattmeter is proportional to : A. Current in circuit. B. Voltage in curcuit. C. Product of voltage and current in the circuit. D. Magnetic field.
29. Moving coil meter employs the principle of : A. Motor. B. Eddy current. C. Sliding field. D. Electrostatic field.
21. Atype `D' meter when used as ohm meter, the dry cell supply required is : A. 1.5 V. B. 3 V. C. 4.5 V. D. 6 V.
30. The quantity of electricity passing through any point in a curcuit per unit time is : A. PD. B. Current. C. EMF. D. Voltage.
22. The mercury motor meter can measure : A. DC only. B. AC only. C. AC & Dc both. D. Speed.
31. The trimming tab which can be adjusted on ground is known as : A. Controllable trimming tab. B. Fixed trimming tab. C. Spring tab. D. Balance tab.
23. The instrument required to indicatge phase relationship between the current and the applied voltage, irrespective of the value of the current and voltage is : A. Power factor meter. B. Synchroscope. C. Tong test ammeter. D. Safety ohmmeter.
32. When the Perspex is warmed it can be : A. Easily moulded. B. Tendency of facture. C. Malleable. D. Ductile.
24. If zinc orthosilicate is used as flourescent material in CRT, the colour of the light spot is : A. orange. B. yellow. C. Blue.
33. Prior to threading on a rivet for broaching mandrel head should be lightly lubricated with: A. OM-21. B. XG-275. C. XG-287. 180
D. XG-285.
D. Corrosion and ensures a heat proof joint.
34. Riveting pliers which have a ratchet operation so that it can be used in confined place where only small, repeaeted handle movements are possible. A. Tucker pop pliers. B. Tucker cup riveting pliers. C. Avdel riveting pliers. D. Chobert riveting pliers.
42. In air cycle system, the charged air is passing through nozzle ring of a cold air unit turbine: A. Pressure of charged air is reduced. B. Pressure of charged air is increased. C. Pressure and temperature of charged air is decreased. D. Pressure of charged air is increased and temperature is decreased.
35. Dimple riveting is used for sheets of: A. 18 SWG & 20 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 1/32" under size. B. 18 SWG & 16 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 1/32" under size. C. 18 SWG and the rivet hole is drilled 1/32" over size. D. 16 SWG and the hole is drilled 1/32" over size.
43. In air discharge valve a spring loaded outward relief valve is fitted at the centre of the: A. Diaphragm. B. Diaphragm chaamber. C. Inward relief valve. D. Capsule chamber. 44. Glands used in sealing the pressure cabin for passing the control cable/tube are kept well greased to: A. Provide lubrication. B. Minimise friction load. C. Prevent corrosion. D. Proper Sealing.
36. Rivets mainly used on the seams of fuel and oil tank are: A. Chobert. B. Avdel. C. De-Bergue. D. Rivnuts. 37. Case hardened surface templates are knowna as: A. Fitting jigs. B. Filling fixtures. C. Bridge piece. D. Special teemplates.
45. In cabin pressure test trolley, when pressure becomes excessive in pressure chamber, the excess pressure escapes to atmosphere through. A. Relief valve. B. Cabin bleed valve. C. Plate valve. D. Outlet valve.
38. Device used to clamp material during the process of fitting, machining or drilling is known as: A. Jigs. B. Template. C. Fixture. D. Jury strut.
46. All friction pads of brake unit (Plate type) is renewed when : A. The limiting dimension is reached. B. Brakes are sluggish. C. Brake torque is less than prescribed figure. D. Oil is leaking.
39. Control surfaces that have been repaired must be checked for: A. Rigging checks. B. Hyd functional check. C. Mass balance. D. Operational checks.
47. During servicing of remote control system, check that the control oper ates correctly and is returned to position by. A. Hydraulic power. B. Electric power. C. Pneumatic power. D. Spring.
40. At the end of all checks to prevent spreading further, they should be: A. Pined by centre punch. B. Cross cut by chisel. C. By denting the surface. D. Holes should be drilled.
48. A Cable guide or retainer is fitted to the pulley to ensure that the c able remains : A. Stright. B. Tight and fit for operation. C. On the pulley. D. On the fair leads.
41. All overlapping (fraying) surface and rivets will between in the jointing compound.Jointing compound helps to prevent: A. Corrosion and ensures a weather proof joint. B. Corrosion and ensures a water proof joint. C. Corrosion and ensures a lack proof joint.
49. The triming tab which can be adjusted only on the guard is termed as. A. Adjustable trim tab. 181
B. Fixed trimming tab. C. Servo tab. D. Ground tab.
A. Nipple extremities of the two end fittings. B. One rubber portion end to other rubber end. C. End of the adopter to other end of the adapter. D. End of the coupling to other end of the coupling.
50. A cable guide or retainer is fitted to the pulley to ensure that the c able remains: A. Straight. B. tight and fit for operation. C. on the pulley. D. on the fairleads.
58. Bonded seal when used on moving parts it is backed by a leather or nyl on washer to prevent: A. Fluctuation. B. Shearing. C. Extrusion. D. Cracking.
51. To ensure always the cable remain on the pulley the control run is fitted with. A. Fairleads. B. Sprockets. C. Retainer. D. Control wheels.
59. Ring which may be made of felt or rubber and fitted to prevent dirt en tering to the high pressure seal of a jack is termed as: A. Duplex seal. B. Bonded seal. C. 'U' seal. D. Wiper ring.
52. During servicing of distributors dirt should be removed from the distr ibutors with : A. Rag. B. Brushes. C. A spray water. D. Chamois leather.
60. Method of test in which particles filtered out of the sample hydraulic fluid are transfered to glass slide and then compared with specimen s lides under a microscope is known as: A. Comparison method. B. Con-par method. C. Millipore method. D. Millipore patch method.
53. A valve installed in the pressure line connected to the contol valve,e nsure that service remains in selected position when any other servics are opreated is termed as;-. A. Throtling valve. B. Sequence valve(hyd). C. Sequence valve(mech). D. Non-return valve.
61. In which sampling method ,the sample fluid is poured through the filte r paper and the paper is then dried by clean filtered air;A. Millipore patch method. B. Con-par method. C. Comparision method. D. Millipore con-par method.
54. In hyro-booster when the supply pressure is sufficient to close the bypassvalve jack chamber are isolated from each otherend jack extended or retracts in power in reponse to movement ofthe;-. A. Servovalve control rod. B. Bypass valve. C. Piston. D. pilot control column.
62. During servicing of aircraft in the hanger to test the hyraulic system under actual operating condition,use;A. Ground test trolley. B. Hyraulic servicing trolley. C. Hyraulic static test rig. D. hand pump.
55. A bypass control type Hydrobooster will permit change over of control from power to manuel or ivee verse: A. When control surface is in neutral position. B. Regardless of the position of the flying control. C. When the control surface are in up position. D. when the control surfaces are in down position.
63. On hyd servicing trolly during winter season it may be necessary to bl ock the radiator from the fan for warming up radiator water up to ;-. A. 80 degree centigrade. B. 70 degree centigrade. C. 60 degree centigrade. D. 50 degree centigrade.
56. In Hydraulic pipe/tubing, tungum to using is a composition of: A. Alluminium, stainless steel and silicon brass. B. Alluminium, nickel and stainless steel. C. Alluminium, nickel and silicon brass. D. Stainless steel, nickel and silicon brass.
64. Ovality is calculated from two measurements taken at same point in a b ore but at: A. Opposite direction to each other. B. 45' to each other. C. 60' to each other. D. 90' to each other.
57. All hose assemblios are measured for length from: 182
73. In oil and water trap, the deposited fluid is prevented from entering the outlet by: A. Gauge filter. B. Metal chute. C. Baffle. D. Metal chute and baffle.
65. Internal leak of the valve due to small scroes and worn bores is preve nted by: A. Lapping. B. Replacing the faulty parts. C. Polishing. D. Renewing the sealing rings.
74. In pneumatic system a slow build up in pressure may indicate that the regulating valve: A. Filter requires cleaning. B. Filter requires renewal. C. Internal leakage. D. Safely valve blow off.
66. The piston rod of jack is connected to the: A. A/C structure. B. Services operated. C. Hand pump. D. Selector valve. 67. In non-self idling power circuit, two extra components are fitted othe r than self-idling curcuit to off load the pump are: A. Safety valve and relief valve. B. Automatic cutout valve and accumulator. C. By pass valve and regulator valve. D. Relief valve and non-return valve.
75. Ejection of oil of filter drain may indicate: A. Oil leak in compressor. B. Oil and water trap faulty. C. Oil in the air bottle. D. Anti freezer not working. 76. The clearance between the brake shoes and the brake drum must be check ed when the brake unit has been: A. Renewed. B. Operated. C. Repaired. D. Assembled.
68. Filter used in pressure lines of Hydraulic system when chogged, the fl uid passes directly from inlet to outlet connection by opening: A. cut-out valve. B. Safety valve. C. By-pass valve. D. Non-return valve.
77. In the pneumatic brake pressure gauges, pressure drops or rises constantly causes may be: A. Cracked pipes. B. Dirt on valve parts. C. Punctured expansion chamber. D. Exhaust or inlet valve not seating.
69. A dehydrater is fitted in pnecematic system between: A. Compressor and pressure relief valve. B. Ground charging point and oil and watertrap. C. Oil and water trap and air bottle. D. Air bottle and air filter.
78. Stress which tend to pull or twist the components or body by tension a nd compression at a right angle to each other is: A. Shear. B. Tension. C. Toroion. D. Bending.
70. In air pressure system, ground charging valve is installed between: A. Air compressor and HP relief valve. B. HP relief valve and Ante freezer. C. Anti freezer and oil and water trap. D. Air compressor and the oil and water trap. 71. As per classification of air compressor, quering compressor is classif ied as: A. Nature of installation. B. Moving parts. C. Duty. D. Application.
79. The a/c structure may fail due to violent vibration of aerofoil surfac e produced by the interaction of mass and aero dynamic load is termed as;-. A. Buffeting. B. Vibration. C. Flutter. D. Oscillation.
72. In pneumatic system a dehydrator comtains alumina where as anmto freez er contains: A. Warm air. B. Silicagel crystals. C. Methanol. D. Methane.
80. On high speed aircraft where aelierons are not fitted on wings more ef fective roll is achieved by;-. A. Elevons. B. ruddervators. C. tailerons. D. spoilers.
183
81. Carbon fibre reinforced plastics are used as: A. Radio transparant radoms. B. Shaped into components in vacuombeg. C. Stronger and cheaper. D. Manufacturing of helicopter rotor blade.
89. The wheel suitable for tubless tyre is caleed : A. Well base wheel. B. Loose flange wheel. C. Divided type. D. Detachable flange wheel.
82. Having high strength to weight ratio and an excellent corrosion resist ance, property of the metal is known as: A. Stainless steel. B. Magnesium alloy. C. Titanium alloy. D. Coppon alloy.
90. Aircraft wheel arrangements, primary function of bogie undercarriage is one of : A. Reduce all up weight. B. Greater flexibility. C. Provides safety. D. Weight distribution.
83. The type of wing construction convered with metal plates which adds st rength and stiffness is: A. Braced of construction. B. Honey comb construction. C. Stressed skin construction. D. Geodatic construction.
91. Before assy to the wheel to prevent corrosion due to electrolytic actr ion the treads of the new screws and bolts must be smeared with : A. Anti seize grease. B. Anti freezing grease. C. Jointing compound. D. Lubricating oil.
84. A form of stressed skin construction used in a fuselage in which the c urved skin carried the whole or greater part of the main load is: A. Semi monocoque. B. Mono coque. C. Geodetic. D. Honey comb.
92. Whenever a tyre is removed from a wheel assembly either for routine maintenance or because the tyre is defective the wheel must be checked for. A. Cracks. B. Discoloration and cracks. C. Dust, dirt and corrosion. D. FOD.
85. In increase in the drag on the down going wing during a control roll c an be achieved without the complications of the differential linkage b y using: A. Frise ailerons. B. Plan ailerons. C. Normal type of ailerons. D. Zip type ailerons.
93. During the construction of the tyre, the plies are fitted in pairs, te rmed as. A. Cross baised. B. Phy layers. C. Phy overlaps. D. Pockets. 94. The type of valve stem caps are to be tighten with the help of pliers is. A. Come cap. B. Hexagonal cap. C. Deflation cap. D. Double check cap.
86. The aerodynamic balancing of control surface are mostly given to: A. Ailerons and rudder. B. Rudder and elevators. C. Elevators and ailerons. D. Elevators, rudder and ailerons.
95. The inflation valve of the tyre designed for pressure above 90 PSI mus t be fitted with valve cores containing. A. Stainless steel springs and hexagonal valve cap. B. Copper coloured spring and extracto cap. C. Steel spring and double check cap. D. Low pressure spring and dome cap.
87. For landing gear structure the metal used for fatigue resistance is: A. Nickel steel. B. Chromium. C. Carbon steel. D. Molybdenum. 88. While assembling control surface when testing the control for freedom of movement,they are found to be stiff the cause is;-. A. Over tension of cable. B. Under tension of cable. C. Incorrect run of cable. D. Lack of lubricant in cable.
96. If the size of the aircraft tyre is shown as 550 X 250 - 6 the second three digits will denote. A. The overall diameter of the inflated tyre in mm. B. The cross-sectional width of the tyre in mm. C. The diameter of the tyre bead seat in inches. D. The overall diameter of the tyre.
184
97. Aircraft tyres which are under inflated may cause them to wear rapidly and uneven at or near the. A. Side walls. B. Shoulder of the tyre. C. Edge of the tread. D. Edge of the tyre.
D. Primary structure. 105. When C materials are used, the cause of chilling/blooming fault is : A. High humidity. B. Low humidity. C. High temperature. D. High humidity and low temperature.
98. The tyre removal jigs primarily intended for use with wheels fitted wi th. A. Tubed tyres but can be with tubless tyres also. B. Tubeless tyres but can be used with tubed tyres also. C. Tubless tyres. D. Special tyres.
106. The wheel arrangement of ac is governed by the strength of the runway on which it operates and. A. Take off weight. B. Landing weight. C. All up weight. D. Tyre weight.
99. Case hardened surface templates are known as : A. Fitting jigs. B. Fitting fixtures. C. Bridge piece. D. Special templates.
107. The undercarriage which withstand compression loads,this type is known as; A. Direct action type. B. Articulated type. C. Suspension type. D. Lever type.
100. An aircraft with a operational ceiling of 50,000 ft approximately diff erential pressure remain to maintain 25,000 ft condition is : A. 1.75 psi. B. 3.75 psi. C. 9.25 psi. D. 5.25 psi.
only
108. To vary the operating pressure and to provide differential piston surf ace area, the liquid spring shock absorber has a: A. Flutter plate. B. Metering pin. C. Large diameter piston rod with thick wall cylinder. D. Separator.
101. A valve is installed in the pressure line connected to the control val ve, ensures that the service remains in selected position when any oth er services are operated is termed as : A. Throttling valve. B. Sequence valve (Hydraulic). C. Sequence valve (Mechanical). D. Non return valve.
109. Some type of liquidspring oleo leg are connected to the aircraft main hydraulic system through; A. Recuperated valve. B. Non return valve. C. charging valve. D. Bleeder valve.
102. A Dehydrator is fitted in pneumatic system between : A. Compressor and pressure relief valve. B. Ground charging point and oil and water trap. C. Oil and water trap and air bottle. D. Air bottle and air filter.
110. For filling and charging of oleo the devices required are. A. Lubricating gun and charging gun. B. An universal lubricating gun and flexible charging pipe. C. Priming gun. D. None of the above.
103. All overlapping (fraying) surface and revets will be wet in the jointi ng compound.Jointing compound helps to prevent: A. Corrosion and ensures a weather proof joint. B. Corrosion and ensures a water proof joint. C. Corrosion and ensures a leak proof joint. D. Corrosion and ensures a heat proof joint.
111. The wheel arrangement of AC is governed by the strenght of the runways on which it operated with: A. Take off weight. B. Landing weight. C. All up weight. D. Tare Weight.
104. Airframe structure which highly stressed but, if damaged will not caus e failure of aircraft or loss of life is classified as : A. Special structure. B. Secondary structure. C. Teritary structuare.
112. The compleate downlock and selfcentring assembly which rotates freely on a bearing located between the cam and rataing sleve is called;. A. Thrust race bearing. B. Roller race bearing. C. pinion race bearing. 185
D. Ball race bearing.
121. Advantage of case hardening by nitriding process is; A. Retention of hardness at low temperature. B. Retention of hardness at high temperature. C. The depth of hardened case may be 0.08". D. It is easy and cheap.
113. In liquid spring shock absorber the piston is having a large diameter piston rod, this is to: A. Prevent bending. B. Acconmodate transefer holes. C. Compress the oil under load. D. Damper the recoil.
122. Before assembling to the wheel, to prevent corrosion due to electrolyt tion, the threads of the new screws and bolts must be smeared with : A. Anti seize grease. B. Anti freezing grease. C. Jointing compound. D. Lubricating oil.
114. In oleo pneumatic shock absorber(Without separator), the landing shock in absorbed by: A. Small hole in inner tubular member. B. Flutter plate. C. Spring. D. Displacement of oil.
123. To release the air pressure from the tyre and prevents the tyre from bursting, if the wheel becomes over heated, by means of : A. Spark plug. B. Fusible plug. C. Fusible valve. D. Rubber O ring.
115. In oleo-pneumatic leg (with separator) the plunger tube is prevented f rom rotating by: A. Torsion link. B. Torsion ring. C. Gland assembly. D. Torson plate. 116. In a/c wheel arrangements,primary function of bogie undercarriage is o ne of; A. Reduce allup wight. B. greater flexibility. C. Provides safty. D. Weight distribution.
124. The wheel bearings are subjected to severe impact loads when the aircr ands, to avoid this load all axles are made to such dimensions that there is a small clearance between the : A. Axle and retaining nut. B. Axle and inner race. C. Inner race and outer race. D. Axle and outer race.
117. Large modren aircrafts have more all up weight thereby wheel loading i s too high .To protect the runway structure from damaging and tyre sin king which type of wheel arrangement is preferable. A. Double wheels. B. Tandem wheels. C. Bogie unit. D. Single wheel.
125. Whenever a tyre is removed from a wheel assembly, either for a routine tenance or because the tyre is defective the wheel must be checked for. A. Cracks. B. Discolouration & cracks. C. Dust, dirt and corrosion. D. FOD.
118. A plain carbon ateel with carbon content of 0.67% is; A. Low carbon steel . B. Medium carbon steel. C. Blister steel. D. high carbon steel.
126. During the construction of tyre, the plies are fitted in pairs, termed. A. Crossed biased. B. Ply layers. C. Ply overlaps. D. Pockets.
119. To secure maximum strength and hardness to duralumin which have been a nnealed must be; A. Age hardened. B. solution treated. C. Precipitation treated. D. Anodised.
127. Twin contact type of tyres are fitted in : A. Nose wheel to provide better grip. B. Tail wheel for better castoring. C. Nose or tail wheel is anti shimming device. D. Nose wheel is shimming device.
120. Duralmin tubing should be solution treated;. A. Prior to bending or flaring. B. After bending or flaring. C. Prior and after bending or flaring. D. only on rebending or flaring.
128. The type valve stem caps are to be tightened with the help of pliers i. A. Dome cap. B. Hexagonal cap. C. Deflection cap. D. Double check cap. 186
129. In the inflation valve of tyre designed for pressure above 90 PSI must befitted with valve cores containing : A. Stainless steel spring and hexagonal valve cap. B. Copper colored spring and extractor cap. C. Steel spring and double check cap. D. Low pressure spring and dome cap.
137. A greater area can be sprayed without replenishment of the material in container, the method is known as: A. Suction feed. B. Gravity feed. C. Pressure feed. D. Spraying equipment.
130. If the size of the aircraft tyre is shown as 550 x 250 - 6. The second e digits will denote: A. The over all diameter of the inflated tyre in mm. B. The cross-sectional width of the tyre in mm. C. The diameter of the tyre bead seat in inches. D. The overall diameter of the tyre.
138. While assembling control surface when testing the controls for freedom movements, they are found to be stiff the cause is: A. Over tension of cable. B. Under tension of cable. C. Incorrect run of cable. D. Lack of lubricant in cable.
131. Aircraft tyres which are under inflation may cause them to wear rapidly unevenly at or near the: A. Side walls. B. Shoulder of the tyre. C. Edge of the tread. D. Edge of the tyre.
139. Grade 'A' perspex (D T D 5544) is used for: A. Navigation lamp covers. B. Side penals lamp covers. C. Where clear unudisturbed vision is required. D. Bullet proof wind shield only.
132. The tyre removal jigs primarily intented for use with wheels fitted with: A. Tubed tyres but can be used with tubeless tyres also. B. Tubeless tyres but can be used with tubed tyres also. C. Tubeless tyres. D. Special tyres.
140. A/C canopy when cracked badly due to adverse weather condition is: A. to be polished well. B. to be replaced with new one. C. ……………………. D. to be sent for repair immediately. 141. During cabin pressuraisation test, the cabin bleed valve must be in: A. Opened position. B. Closed position. C. Intermidiate position. D. Partially closed position.
133. Red iron oxide pigment is added to cellulose materials: A. To protect fabric from ultra violet rays of the sun. B. To protect fabric from moisture. C. To provide more tightening. D. To adopt the camouflaging for a particular aircraft.
142. Any unwanted variation from trimmed condition, the appropriate control surface may be trimmed to remove the loading on the pilot control is ensured by : A. Balance tab. B. Servo tab. C. Controllable tab. D. Spring tab.
134. Bostik is an air drying rubber-in-solvent material with estimated storage life of: A. Three month. B. Sixmonth. C. Nine month. D. One year.
143. In flying control system the sideways fluctuatin of the cable caused b aircraft vibration is restricted by A. Pulley. B. Clamps. C. Fairleads. D. Rubber pads.
135. In aluminium alloy sheet for culting large size holes the tool is used. A. Skin knife. B. Trepanning tools. C. Back marker. D. End facing cutter.
144. A cable tension regulator consists of a pair of spring loaded quadrant with a ponter and scale to : A. Register cable tension while adjusting. B. Let out equal tension on each side of the circuit. C. Record the change in length of the cable. D. Maintain optimum tension in cables.
136. Making lightening holes on the flanged edges of the spars and ribs to: A. To increase rigidity and strength. B. To form access for control rods and electrical system. C. To form access for inspection. D. For ventilation. 187
145. Bowden type control system are intended for : A. Pull operations only. B. Both push and pull operations. C. Providing accurate and positive control throughout the range of movement. D. Locking control in any desired position.
D. Carbon steel or Stainless steel. 154. A cable tension regulator consists of a pair of spring loaded quadrant with a pointer and scale for: A. Register cable tension while adjusting. B. Layout equal tension on each side of the circuit. C. Recording the change in the length of the cables. D. Maintaining optimum tension in cables.
146. The purpose of adjustable stop is to. A. Length of the conduit only. B. Length of the cable. C. Length of both conduit & cable. D. Movement of control surface.
155. Some cable systems have compensating device fitted which ensures opera over a much wider range of: A. Pressure. B. Temperature. C. Frequency. D. Pressure & Temperature.
147. When pull operation only desired the control used is. A. Bowden type control. B. Push pull rod control. C. Teleflex control. D. Chair control.
156. Push pull control unit are installed in place of wheel unit where control is operate against a. A. Heavy load. B. Light Load. C. Pull load. D. Both pull and push load.
148. In teleflex control cable is tinned thinly and restricted to extend no more than approximately by 6mm from the cable end to. A. Prevent fraying. B. Avoid overheating. C. Minimise cost. D. Maintain flexibility.
157. The main advantages of teleflex controls over bowden control is more a te and positive control through out the range and furthermore, that th trolled component can be: A. More effective 'PULL' operation. B. Operated at any degree required. C. Temporally locked in only selected position. D. Temporally locked in any desired position.
149. In teleflex control units a short length of conduit known as "spent tr tube" is incorporated with: A. Junction box wheel unit. B. Double entry wheel unit. C. Straight lead wheel unit. D. Single entry wheel unit.
158. If equal pressure is applied to both ends of jack simultaneously the pressure will: A. Move opposite to the piston rod side. B. Move to either side. C. Remain stationary. D. Move to piston rod side.
150. To prevent fraying of the spocer wires during assembly the free end of cable should be. A. Trimmed. B. Welded. C. Tinned. D. Brazed.
159. A rubber piston ring fitted in the hand pump groove and being a slack acts as: A. Transfer valve. B. Transfer valve in addition to sealing the joint. C. Seal for the joint. D. Relief valve.
151. The medium for soaking chain before fitting to aircraft is. A. Paraffin. B. Petrol. C. Oil. D. Non leaded petrol. 152. The fixed trimming tabs are adjusted: A. Only in the air. B. In the air or on the ground. C. Only on the ground. D. No adjustment should be carried out.
160. In non self idling power circuits when predetermined pressure is built to off load the pump, component fitted is: A. Pressure regulator valve. B. Pressure relief valve. C. Automatic cut out valve. D. Safety valve.
153. Aircraft control cables are fabricated from: A. Steel. B. Stainless steel. C. Carbon steel.
161. In undercarriage circuit the purpose of NRV fitted before control valve to. A. Maintain sufficient pressure in down line. B. Maintain sufficient pressure in up line. 188
C. Provide positive lock. D. Provide hydraulic lock.
D. Dirt. 170. If a sampling tst shows contamination at a level greater than specifie it, it is necessary to change the : A. Hydraulic fluid only. B. Hydraulic filters only. C. System fluid only. D. Hydraulic fluid and filters only.
162. During take off and landing the flaps are lowered and raised slowly to prevent sudden change in the position of the aircraft. For this purpos component provided in the flap hydraulic circuit is : A. Synchronising valve. B. Throttling valve. C. Pressure relief valve. D. Shuttle valve.
171. Before assembling the seal must be lubricated with. A. XG-275. B. XG-314. C. Silicon grease. D. High melting grease.
163. A rubber piston ring fitted in the hand pump groove and being a slack acts as : A. Transfer valve. B. Transfer valve in addition to sealing the joint. C. Seal for the joint. D. Relief valve.
172. Rods and cylinders having minor bow during inspection. A. Can be retained for use. B. To be rejected. C. given to workshop for rectification. D. Concession from CEO to be taken before use.
164. A micronic filter is capable of : A. Filtering 100% of all particles above 10 micron. B. Filtering 100% of all particles above 5 microns. C. Filtering 90% of all particles above 5 microns. D. Filtering 90% of all particles above 10 micreons.
173. Before assembly of hydraulic components, the bearing hinge pins etc, a usually lubricated with grease: A. XG - 271. B. XG - 275. C. XG - 315. D. XG - 375.
165. The purpose of pressure regulator valve (Special) is to : A. Maintain sufficient pressure for essential services. B. Regulate the pressure in undercarriage system. C. Prevent the undercarriage from dropping while its doors are closing. D. Prevent fairing doors from closing while undercarriage is lowered.
174. Before dismantling the suspected component for repair or recategorisat It should be first checked for: A. Functional test. B. Operational test. C. Pressure test. D. Time test.
166. The bypass valve will permit a free operation of hydro booster when. A. Pressure completely leak out. B. Emergency system enters. C. Supply fall below a pre-determined value. D. Pilot select manually.
175. The test applied to ensure that all connections have been correctly ma ter servicing completed is: A. Functional test. B. Operational test. C. Pressure test. D. Time test.
167. While manufacturing the flexible hoses the end fiting are attached by using. A. Hydraulic press. B. Swaging machine. C. Welding. D. Brazing.
176. In powered flying control unit, the servo valve is in neutral position control surface is locked in: A. Neutral position Hydraulically. B. Neutral position Mechanically. C. Selected position Hydraulically. D. Selected position Mechanically.
168. "U" seals are used in a jack piston in. A. Pair. B. Single. C. With washer. D. Not used.
177. Yaw damper actuator is electrically controlled and hydraulically opera nd, when not in use, it act as: A. Actuating rod. B. Connecting rod. C. Operating rod. D. Solid rod.
169. The most common contamination to hydraulic oil is due to the entry of. A. Dust. B. Water. C. Chemicals. 189
178. In which of the technologies, the undesirable dynamics are filter out he desired response is obtained by: A. Electrical signalling. B. Manoeuver demand. C. Control configured vehicles. D. Fly-by-wire system.
B. Filled with water. C. filled with methanol. D. None of the above. 187. In pneumatic system, a slow build up in pressure may indicate that the and water trap is : A. Unserviceable. B. Serviceable. C. Corroded. D. Full.
179. To ensure correct re-alignment on re-connection before the drive shaft owered flying control system disconnected is to: A. Place the component on the ground in sequance. B. Mark parallel of the joints. C. Mark the angular of the joints. D. Check the maintenance mannual.
188. The material which imparts fatigue resistance and used for landing gear construction. A. Aluminium. B. Duraluminium. C. Molybednum. D. Steel.
180. Chemical stability is then liquids ability to resist: A. Oxidation and deterioration. B. Internal flow of fluid. C. External flow of fluid. D. Smooth flow of fluid.
189. Thermoplastic (Acrylics) are manufacturing of. A. Cockpit canopies and side windows. B. Bearing and cable insulator. C. Upholskey material. D. None of the above.
181. The drain plug of the oil and water trap should be finally. A. Blanked. B. Removed. C. Tightened. D. Tightened and wire locked.
used
for
190. The aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are mostly given to. A. aeileron & rudder. B. Rudder and elevators. C. elevator & aeilerons. D. Elevators, rudder and aeilerons.
182. While dismantling brake unit the shoe nearest to the inflation connection should be. A. Removed first. B. Removed last. C. Not to be removed. D. Remove when it falls.
191. Airframe structure which are highly stressed but, if damaged will not failure of a/c or loss of life is classified as: A. special structure. B. secondary structure. C. tertiary structure. D. primary structure.
183. A pneumatic system the lever and the relay valve is connected by means of. A. Bowden cable. B. Teleflex cable. C. Cable. D. Pull/pull rod.
192. The causes of tip stall on a highly swept back wing is usually due to: A. spanwise area being less. B. downward deflection of airflow a tips. C. spanwise drifting of boundary layer. D. washout.
184. A leak in the pipe line or joint can be traced by means of. A. Soapy water. B. By feel. C. By visual inspection. D. by checking the gauge.
193. The construction of the main plane, must be strong enough to transfer every large lift to the. A. nose section. B. Powerplant. C. tail section. D. fuselage.
185. In air pressure system, high pressure release valve is located. A. between oil & water trap & pressure regulator. B. Between ground charging and anti freezer valve. C. Between compressor ground charging valve. D. Between compressor and anti freezor valve.
194. When an aircraft is in straight and level flight and flying at a constant speed four forces acting on it are balanced as. A. Weight/lift and drag/thrust. B. weight/thrust and lift/drag.
186. In normal condition the anti freezer is. A. Kept isolated. 190
C. lift/thrust and weight/drag. D. weight / drag and lift / thrust.
D. Friction damper. 202. The type of track device which prevents the piston tube rotating in a fixed cylinder is called. A. Thin shock absorber. B. Fold. C. Torque coupling. D. Splines.
195. The flying controls are aerodynamically balanced to. A. decrease the force necessary to operate the flying controls during flying. B. Increase the force necessary to operate the flying control during flight. C. prevent the oscillatory movement of flying controls. D. Increase the speed of aircraft.
203. An anti shimming device which permits castering of nose wheel and keep it in centre line after an ac is airborne is known as. A. Track device. B. Suspension device. C. Self-centring mechanism. D. None of the above.
196. In bogie undercarriage the wheels arrangements are: A. two wheels on each undercarriage. B. four wheels on each undercarriage. C. multi wheels arrangements. D. three wheels on port and stbd undercarriage and two wheels on nose u/c.
204. To vary the operating pressure and to provide differential piston surface area the liquid spraying shock absorber has. A. Flutter plate. B. Metering pin. C. A large diameter piston rod with thick wall cylinder. D. separator.
197. The general aircraft dismantle sequence is. A. main plane, undercarriage, tail unit and fuselage. B. mainplane, tail unit, undercarriage and fuselage. C. mainplane, tail unit, undercarriage, centre section and fuselage. D. mainplane, undercarriage, tail unit, fuselage and centre section.
205. In oleo pneumatic leg (with seperator) the plunger tube is prevented f otating by a : A. Torsion plate. B. Torsion ring. C. Packing assembly. D. Torsion link.
198. Where steel rule cannot be used for measurement use. A. measuring tape. B. Vernier caliper. C. Micrometer. D. Trammel.
206. Aircraft wheel arrangements,primary function of bogie undercarriage in of: A. Reduce all up weight. B. Greater flexibility. C. Provides safety. D. Weight distribution.
199. While assembling control surface when testing the controls for freedom of movement they are found to be stiff the cause is. A. Over tension of cables. B. Under tension of cable. C. In correct run of cable. D. Lack of lubricant in cable.
207. In self centring assembly,the down lock assembly consists of a plunger lower end of the plunger is housed in the: A. Bore of a pawl. B. Bore of a slide. C. Bore of a cam. D. Bore of a retaining sleeve.
200. The flying controls are aerodynamically balanced to: A. decrease the force necessary to operate the control during flight. B. decrease the force necessary to operate the control during powered flight. C. prevent the oscillating movements of control. D. to increase stream.
208. In liquid spring shock obsorber the piston is having a large diameter piston rod. This is to: A. Prevent bending. B. Accomodate transfer holes. C. Compress the oil under load. D. Damper the recoil.
201. The device used to resist turning of the lower tube in a main u/c shock absorber in a fixed upper tube is called. A. Anit shimming device. B. Track device. C. Articulated type device.
209. In a oleoleg strut oil leak from air charging valve when the valve cor depressed indicates: A. Faulty charging valve. B. Faulty valve seat. 191
C. Faulty plug. D. Faulty separator.
C. Axial loads. D. Radial and Axial loads.
210. The dampening device in oleo-pneumatic shock obsorber with seperator i. A. Rubber valve. B. Restrictor hole. C. Seperator with floating ring. D. Flutter plate.
218. Before examination , wheel bearings are to be cleaned with : A. Trichlorothane or paraffin. B. Paraffin or white spirit. C. Trichloroethane or white spirit. D. Carbon ferochlorine or white sprit.
211. Large mordern aircrafts have more all up weight thereby wheel loading too high. To prevent the runway structure from damaging and tyre sinki which type of wheel arrangement is preferable: A. Double wheels. B. Tandem wheels. C. Bogie unit. D. Single wheel.
219. In tubed tyre construction bonding medium for the plies is provided by. A. Chafer stripes & apex stripes. B. Apex strips & braker strips. C. Breaker strips and chafer strips. D. Apex strips and filter strips. 220. During assembly of tubeless tyre on to wheel assembly, the red spot ma on tyre should : A. Line with valve location. B. Be exactly 180 opposite to valve location. C. Be 45 angle to valve location. D. Be 90 angle to valve locaton.
212. An oleo pneumatic with separator legs, if leakage cannot be rectified ightly tightening the appropriate component,the oleoleg must be: A. Renewed. B. Renewed gland or component. C. Dismantled the gland or component renewed. D. Renewed damaged jointing washer.
221. Twin contact type of tyres are fitted in : A. Nose wheel to provide better grip. B. Tail wheel for better castoring. C. Nose or tail wheel as antishimming device. D. Nose wheel as shimming device.
213. The device which is used for charging and checking of fluid air pressu a component or system is: A. Flexible charging pipe. B. Turner inflation valve. C. Undercarriage oleo pump type 'A'. D. Tyre pressure gauge.
222. While manufacturing aircraft inner tube, the rubber compound is heated extruded through a circular die, and cut into separate length accordin size of tube this seperate length is painted by means of : A. Valcanising. B. Moulding. C. Welding. D. Patching.
214. Aircraft wheels are usually made from magnisium alloy or alluminium al as. A. Casting. B. Two halves welded together. C. Two halves riveted together. D. Forgd and riveted together.
223. A red spot or triangle near the band on one sode wall of the tyre indi. A. Service use. B. Speed rating. C. Light spot. D. Awl vent.
215. Moat tubeless tyred wheels have one or more safety valves. They are coloured to indicate their : A. Location. B. Fusing temperature. C. Blowing off pressure. D. Material and type.
224. The reinforced tread tyres will become unserviceable when : A. The reinforced fabric becomes exposed. B. The indicating groove is reduced to 2mm. C. The indicating groove is reduced to 1mm. D. The reinforced fabric is split or broken.
216. The purpose of hydraulic presss is to facilitate removal and fitment of. A. Bearing outer race. B. Bearing inner race. C. Outer wheel. D. Outer and inner wheel.
225. If the braking is a little in excess of hte requirement the wheels get locked and result in overturning the aircraft or dragging the wheels. is called : A. Skiding. B. Scalding.
217. Wheel bearings are subjected to very high : A. Radial loads. B. Shear loads. 192
C. Dragging. D. Over turning.
234. In air conditioning effective dust filtration to the size of 5 micron. A. 45%. B. 60%. C. 99.9%. D. 100%.
226. During brake application with the wheel rotating normally, the inlet v of maxaret unit is held open by : A. Indicator rod. B. Thrust rod. C. Spring loaded thrust rod. D. Indicator rod and thrust rod together.
235. In air conditioning, the air velocity at a height of 0.6 meters above. A. 6 meters/minute. B. 8 meters/minute. C. 10 meters/minute. D. 15 meters/minute.
227. After take off, when the a/c is accelerating and climbing, if the flap raised, it causes immediate reduction in the lift and loss of hight, it is countered by: A. Increase in the angle of attack. B. Decrease in the angle of attack. C. Increase in the speed of the a/c. D. Decrease in the speed of the a/c.
236. The device, which simplifies the measurement of air properties and el. A. Humidity chart. B. Temperature chart. C. Air flow chart. D. Psychometric chart.
228. During flight in the event of engine failure the a/c will have an alti of: A. Gliding. B. Stalling. C. Flying in the same direction and height. D. Rolling.
237. A refrigerator can be defined as a machine for producing: A. Heat. B. Hot water. C. Cold water. D. Cold.
229. Highly swept back wings are given anhedral to: A. Increase longitudinal stability. B. Decrease longitudinal stability. C. Decrease lateral stability. D. Increase lateral stability.
238. In air conditioning the unit of measurement used to determine the amo. A. Grains of moisture. B. Microns. C. Calories. D. BTU (British Thermal Unit).
230. Aileron in effective due to thichened boundary layer effect towards th is solved by: A. Large size of ailerons. B. Aileron balance tabs. C. All moving wing tips. D. Elerons.
239. In air conditioning, the automatic control of a humidification system. A. Thermostat. B. Humidistat. C. Condenser. D. Rheostat.
231. The speed of sound is proportional to the : A. Square of the absolute temperature. B. Square root of the absolute temperature. C. Square root of the temperature. D. Density of air.
240. The grains of moisture scale in psychometric chart follow along the b. A. Toe to heel. B. Toe to top. C. Heel to top. D. Heel to toe.
232. During transonic flow, a marked rise in air flow occurs immediately behind the shock wave is known as: A. Pressure wave. B. Shock stall. C. Sonic bang. D. Sonic bubble.
241. In air conditioning of aircraft, the humidity is controlled by: A. Blowers. B. Humidifiers. C. Humidifiers and water extractors. D. Water extractors.
233. One piece spar is expensive to produce but, because of absence of any joint is stronger than. A. Single spar. B. Composite spar. C. False spar. D. Semi composite spar.
242. In psychometric chart dry bulb temperature scale extends along the so. A. Heel to toe. 193
B. Tow to heel. C. Toe to top. D. Heel to Top.
A. De frosting. B. Frost back. C. De freezing. D. Purging.
243. The low temperature of air at high altitude results in a very low moi. A. 1 or 2 percent. B. 2 or 3 percent. C. 0.1 or 0.2 per cent. D. 0.2 or 0.3 percent.
252. To measure a resistance above 10 k ohm by Wheatstone bridge, the meter is balanced, for the correct value of resistance and the box reading is multiplied by : A. 1000. B. 100. C. 0.01. D. 0.1.
244. The effect of presence of Nitrogen gas in blood stream causes: A. Anoxia. B. Brain effect. C. Aero embolism. D. Dryness of eyes and nose.
253. The method employed for precise measurement of low resistance : A. Wheatstone Bridge. B. Maxwell Bridge. C. Kelvin's Double Bridge. D. De Santy bridge.
245. In condenser, the refrigerant is cooled by: A. Water only. B. Air only. C. Water or air. D. Ammonia gas.
254. In moving Iron meters, controlling force is provided by : A. Coil current. B. Laminated core of iron. C. Gravity or hair spring. D. External magnetic field.
246. The unit of measurement used to determine the amount of moisture in t. A. Dew point. B. Grain of moisture. C. Relative humidity. D. None of the above.
255. The type of merter which gives uniform scale : A. Moving Iron. B. Hot Wire. C. Moving Coil. D. Electrostatic.
247. Psychometrics is the study of the properties of: A. Weather. B. Rain. C. Air. D. All the above.
256. To increase the range of electrostatic voltmeter A. Condensers are connected in series. B. Condensers are connected in parallel. C. Resistances are connected in series. D. Resistances are connected in parallel.
248. The function of ducts in air conditioner is: A. Air distribution. B. Air heating. C. Air cooling. D. Air cleaning.
257. The tong tester is basically : A. Frequency meter. B. Voltmeter. C. Ammeter. D. Power meter.
249. The refrigerant boils ata relatively low temperature when pressure is. A. Reduced. B. Increased. C. Remains constant. D. None of the above.
258. The tong test ammeter are fitted with : A. Moving coil type movements. B. Moving iron type movements. C. Hot Wire type movements. D. Induction type movements.
250. Air supply to cabin is conditioned to provide a reasonable degree of: A. Temperature. B. Humidity. C. Ventilation. D. All the above.
259. The force tending to move electricity round the circuit is called : A. Current. B. Work done. C. Volt. D. EMF.
251. The flooding of low pressure liquid from the evaporator in to suction. 194
260. In moving coil instrument, dead beat is achieved by : A. Eddy current. B. viscous force. C. repulsion. D. electro agnetic induction.
D. Antenna scan rate is increased. 269. The frequency of ringing producing 10 km calpips should be : A. 150 kc/s. B. 15 kc/s. C. 25 kc/s. D. 10 kc/s.
261. In safety ohmmeter (Type N, mk 1), testing current must not exceed : A. 01 ma. B. 10 ma. C. 11 ma. D. 100 ma.
oscillator for
270. For target velocity of 720 km/hr, the doppler shift of a radar set operating at 660 Mhz is : A. 880 Hz. B. 440 Hz. C. 220 Hz. D. 660 Hz.
262. A phase sensitive rectifier in Ward Leonard control system, is used to : A. Transmit the data. B. Detect error. C. Reverse the servo amp o/p current. D. Cancel the magnetomotive force.
271. The main limitation of a thyratron time base generator is : A. Delay in de-ionisation. B. Delay in ionisation. C. Difficulty in synchronisation. D. Freq instability.
263. The duty cycle of CW radar is : A. zero. B. unity. C. infinity. D. unsteady.
272. The ability of an MTI radar to detect moving targets whcih is in the relatively clear resolution cells between patches of strog clutter is called : A. sub-clutter visibility. B. inter-clutter visibility. C. MTI improvement factor. D. cancellation ratio.
264. If a radar is operating at 400 KW peak power, 2 micro sec pulse width and 400 c/s PRF, its average power is : A. 80 watts. B. 100 watts. C. 400 watts. D. 320 watts.
273. When the axis of rotation is held stationary, the Palmer scan is reduced to : A. Nodding scan. B. Helical scan. C. Raster scan. D. Conical scan.
265. Landing radars used for GCA are normally : A. track while scan radar. B. conical scan radar. C. acquisition radar. D. pulse doppler radar.
274. In digital MTI, delay line iis substituted by : A. A/D converter. B. binary converter. C. shift-register. D. binary register.
266. Coherent MTI eleminates amplitude fluctuations by employing : A. Phase detector. B. Stable local oscillator. C. Carrier oscillator. D. Subtractor.
275. In self operative neon time base generator the length of the time base is altered by varying; A. Velocity control. B. Trigger control. C. Amptitude control. D. Freq control.
267. In DMTI, the outputs of both phase detectors are 90 deg out of phase to eliminate : A. Blind speed. B. Blind phases. C. Ambiguous range. D. Analog delay.
276. In servo system, the angular position of the input shaft is converted into voltages by : A. Control transformer. B. Selsyn generator. C. Electrical servomotor. D. Selsyn motor.
268. The doppler freq will be large if : A. Wave length is more. B. PRF is less. C. Relative motion between target and radar is large. 195
277. Acircuit which gives rectangular continuously after switching on is called : A. monostahle multivibrator. B. bistahle multivibrator. C. flip-flop. D. astable multivibrator.
pulses
286. When 100v peak to peak square wave is given to dc restorer with anode at earth potential, the o/p varies between : A. zero and plus 100v. B. zero and minus 100v. C. zero and plus 50v. D. zero and minus 50v.
278. In airborne MTI, the clutter rejection filters are A. Low pass. B. Band stop. C. Band pass. D. High pass.
287. The response of long CR cirvuit across the capacitor ;to a rectangular wave form is : A. symmetrical triangular wave form. B. asymmetrical triangular wave form. C. square waveform. D. rectangular wave form.
279. The main limitation of non-coherent MTI is : A. Its design is complicated. B. The target must be in the presence of relatively large clutter. C. The local oscillator freq should be highly stable. D. It fails to detect target in the presence of relatively large clutter.
288. For efficient limiting in parallel diode limiter with high impedance load, the series resistance should be : A. Equal to load impedance. B. Half of load impedance. C. Larger than the resistance of diode conducting. D. Equal to the resistance of diode conducting.
280. Limiters can be used to produce : A. Sine wave forms from triangular in put. B. Sine wave forms from rectangular in put. C. Rectangular pulses from sinusodial in put. D. Sine wave forms from square wave in put.
289. For a given transmitter power, reduction in wave length results in : A. Reduced range. B. Increased range. C. Reduced beam width. D. Increased beam width.
281. In MTI radar cancellation ratio is usually expressed in terms of : A. voltage standing wave ratio. B. milli volts. C. decibels. D. percentage.
290. In a thyratron time base generator, for a given negative grid voltage, variation of `R' changes the sweep : A. frequency. B. amplitude. C. flyback. D. non-linearity.
282. In MTI, the o/p of carrier oscillator is modulated by : A. Freq modulator. B. Uni-polar video. C. Bi-polar video. D. Pulse modulator.
291. An echo arriving after alloted pulse interval will : A. interfere with operation of transmitter. B. overload the reciever. C. be rejected by the system. D. make the target appear closer than it really is.
283. Frequency of coho oscillator is equal to : A. Radio frequency. B. Constant frequency. C. Transmitter frequency. D. Intermediate frequency. 284. Blind speed limitation of MTI can be overcome without affecting its performance by : A. higher PRF. B. Shorter wave length. C. higher PRP. D. staggered PRF.
292. Rrception time of a radar having PRF 400c/s and PW 5 micro seconds, is : A. 2500 micro seconds. B. 2495 micro seconds. C. 2395 micro seconds. D. 2400 micro seconds. 293. The loss of energy experienced in the transmission lines while connecting the transmitter output to the antenna is called : A. beam shape loss. B. system processing loss. C. collapsing loss. D. plumbing loss.
285. If the PRF of a radar is unduly decreased the : A. peak power will reduce. B. range resolution will improve. C. weak echoes cannot be distinguised from noise. D. range will decrease. 196
294. An artificial line is used to : A. produce pulses of different duration. B. match pulse transformer to Tx oscillator. C. produce pulse of fixed duration. D. control the power of O/P of Tx oscillator.
302. Alteration of repeller voltage of reflex klystron varies : A. frequency. B. frequency and power. C. power and input impedance. D. input impedance.
295. When two delay lines, each having Zo =48 ohms and delay of 2 micro seconds are connected in series, the resultant Zo and delay of the network will be : A. 96 ohms and 4 micro sec. B. 48 ohms and 2 micro sec. C. 48 ohms and 4 micro sec. D. 96 ohms and 2 micro sec.
303. In rotary spark gap modulator, PRF is determined by : A. Speed of the motor. B. Number of vanes. C. Speed of the motor and number of vanes. D. Maximum range required.
296. PRF of a rotary spark gap modulator having 8 vanes on the disc rotating at a speed of 720 RPM will be : A. 5760 PPS. B. 96 PPS. C. 192 PPS. D. 394 PPS.
304. The number of resonant frequencies associated with a multicavity magnetron is equal to : A. Twice the number of cavities. B. Half the number of cavities. C. PRF of modulating pulse. D. Number of cavities. 305. In a radar modulator, the pulse amlitude can be made equal to the HT voltage by employing : A. Constant current charging. B. Resonant choke charging. C. AC diode charging. D. Resistance charging.
297. The step up ratio of a pulse transformer which is connected to a magnetron of 3200 ohms impedance through a cable whose Zo = 200 ohms will be : A. 1/4. B. 1/16. C. 4. D. 16.
306. The characteristics of cross field amplifier resemble that of: A. TWT. B. Magnetron. C. Klystron. D. Twystron.
298. Multi-cavity klystrons are not used for amplfication of weak microwave signals because of : A. 35 to 40% efficiency. B. deterioration of S/N ratio. C. saturation at 70% power output. D. CW power less than 15kw.
307. An over-swing diode with protective resistor ensures : A. safty of magnetron. B. safety of thyratron valve. C. elimination of magnetron post pulse oscillation. D. matching of pulse transformer.
299. The bunching of electrons in a klystron takes place around the electron that passes through the RF gap at an instant when the gap voltage is : A. Zero and becoming +ve. B. zero and becoming -ve. C. +ve maximum. D. -ve maximum.
308. Purpose of magnetic field in a TWT is to : A. Amplify the signal. B. Control electrons speed. C. Shield the beam from external interference. D. Prevent beam spreading.
300. A non-resonant device : A. Magnetron. B. TWT. C. Parametric amplifier. D. Cross field amplifier.
309. Strapping of the magnetron is done to : A. Avoid frequency splitting. B. Achieve mode separation. C. Ensure frequency drift. D. Ensure operation below hull cut-off value.
301. With all cavities tunned to same frequency in a klystron, the gain of the tube and band width : A. High, narrow. B. Low, narrow. C. High, wide. D. Low, wide.
310. A pulse Txfr is connected to a magnetron of 1600 ohm impednace through a cable whose Zo=100 ohm. If the amplitude of pulse across magnetron is 20KV, then voltage across the cable is A. 5 KV. 197
B. 1.25 KV. C. 4 KV. D. 320 KV.
313. The minimum detection range by pulse radar depends upon : A. Peak power. B. Pulse width. C. Band width of antenna. D. Average power.
311. Zo of an artificial line having 10 sections and each comprising an inductance of 400 micro H and capacitance of 4 micro F will be : A. 100 ohms. B. 10 ohms. C. 1000 ohms. D. 400 ohms.
314. In FM radar, the beat frequency is amplified and limited to remove any fluctuation due to : A. Mod freq. B. Amplitude. C. Beat freq. D. Phase.
312. In radar operating at a PRF of 400 Hz with a pulse width of 5 micro seconds, the pulse repetition period is : A. 2450 micro sec. B. 2495 micro sec. C. 2500 micro sec. D. 4995 micro sec.
315. In a conical scanning radar, when the axis of rotation and the line of sight to the target coincide, the scan modulation will be : A. Zero. B. Maximum. C. Dependent on target size. D. Minimum.
198
FILL IN THE BLANKS 1. Before starting with assembl of controls the aircraft must be placed i ___________.
17. In fuselage construction a ___________ due to rudder and fin loads acting off the centre line.
2. To enable the metal fully to __________ the rivets are normalised and annealed.
18. In honey comb construction both matrix and stressed skin are made from aluminium and are bonded together by the ___________.
3. An independent rotation of the tyre over the wheel is known as _______.
19. The monocoque fuselage relies largely on the skin or covering to carry ____________.
4. Mildsteel distance precis are often fitted to prevent ________ from distorted or crushed.
20. The purpose of main fuel regulating pump is to feed fuel into the engine____________
5. To provide the necessary fluid pressure to operate the slave units of Hyd brake control valve, the component fitted is _____________________.
21. ___________ is an oil analysis procedure in performance monitoring
6. A bonding medium for the plies is provided by __________.
22. The ideal air fuel ratio for a jet engine fuels is __________.
7. With domed canopies, the internal pressure causes a considerable _____ which necessiates clamping the canopy to the frame.
23. In a typical turbo jet engine only about __________ of the in coming oxygen is combined with fuel and 75% in merely heated
8. In each flying control cable has __________end fittings _________ in position.
24. __________ Makes the best use of the space available between the compressor and turbine
9. Mal-alignment between a wheel unit and a component will result in stif in control and excessive wear on _________.
25. Specific consumption is a ratio of __________ and __________ of an engine 26. Propulsive efficiency = __________ X 100.
10. Hydraulic _______ is situated in the upline of the alighting gear circ.
27. Delta and theta are correction factors with respect to engine performance
11. The full functional test should be carried out before the suspected component is dismantled for repair or _________ serviceable.
28. __________ are devices for the measurement of power out put of engine
12. Fly by wire system are based on _________ where the pilot commands the control surfaces actuators via electrical links rather than machanical links
29. Two main methods of thrust augmentation are __________ and __________ 30. With present materials reheat temperature is limited up to __________
13. In some pneumatic systems a _______ is fitted instead of an antifreeze.
31. The purpose of main fuel regulating pump is to feed fuel in to the engine __________
14. A pressure ______ is provided in the reducing valve to alter the oper pressure.
32. The turbine has the task of providing power to drive the __________
15. In relay control valve a _________ maintain a flexible air tight joint between sliding barrel and the body
33. In a by pass engine the size of turbine is __________ as compared to the pure jet engine for a given thrust out put
16. In all aeroplanes construction considerable effort is taken to keep th weight of the structure at low level while providing sufficient strength and ______________.
34. The nozzle guide vanes are often of a __________ shape
199
35. The blade passages between adjacent vanes of a turbine form a __________duct
46. Net thrust available from a turbo propulsion engine __________ with air speed
36. In a turbine blade the stress are maximum at the blade __________
47. The thrust specific fuel consumption (TSFC) for turbo propulsion engine _________ with airspeed
37. FADEC stands for __________.
48. Net thrust available from turbo jet engine __________ with airspeed
38. EFC stands for __________. 49. The TSFC for turbo jet engine __________ with airspeed
39. Fuel is heated by the heat exchanged between the fuel and the __________oil
50. As the airspeed increases the propulsive efficiency of turbo propulsion engine __________
40. Usually there are two types of filter __________ type and __________type 41. Cooling of an engine performance of an engine
51. With increasing air speed propulsive efficiency of turbo jet engine __________
__________ the
52. At high-pressure ratios, centrifugal compressor is more efficient than axial compressor
42. Type of combustion chamber is advance engine is __________
53. In a turbine blade, the blade root encounters the maximum temperature
43. __________ Are the control surfaces for lateral control?
54. The purpose of any starter system is to accelerate the engine up to __________ speed
44. __________ Are the control surfaces for longitudinal control? 45. __________ Are the control surfaces for directional control?
200
VERY SHORT ANSWERS 1. What is the purpose of antiskid unit ?
22. Write the purpose torque wrenches ?
2. What is the purpose of master brake cylinder ?
23. Define flash point.
3. How tyre creep is prevented in tubeless and conventional tyres?
24. Define replenishing.
4. How wheels are classified ?
25. Name different types of seal used in hydraulic components ?
5. If tyre pressure is less, stae the defect that can occur.
26. What are the different methods of coupling pipelines ?
6. Name the main four parts of maxret unit and write the advantages and p urpose of maxret unit.
27. What are the fundamental requirement of powered flying control system ?
7. What are the main advantages of maxret unit ?
28. What are the main causes of fluid contamination ?
8. Why wheels, tyres and tubes are balanced both statically and dynamical ly during manufacturing?
29. What is the purpose of control surface of an a/c? 30. What are the points to be kept in mind while testing the component aft er repair and assembly of hydraulic components ?
9. Write in a wheel bearing- (i) purpose (ii) different part (iii) type o f fit on wheel hub and axle. 10. Write the materials used for making of aircraft wheels and anti corros sive methods useds.
31. What are the requirement of hydraulic fluid ? 32. What are the two hydraulic circuits , which are vital to the pilot ?
11. What are the main advantages of telefles control over bowden control s ystem.
33. What are the types of hydraulic fluid ? 12. What are the points to be oobserved while installing a chain ? 13. What is the purpose of pulleys ?
34. What component is fitted in hyd circuit to cater for expansion of flui ds and how many of such components are fitted in the circuit and where ?
14. Write the remedy of Jamme swivel joints.
35. What do you understand by fluid pressure ?
15. Differentiate between anti-icing and de-icing.
36. What is Bramah's principle ?
16. What methods are used for aerofoil de-icing ?
37. What is purpose of control valve in hyd system ? What is the advantage s of electrically operated control valve over manually operated valve ?
17. Write the purpose of themal system in anti-icing system.
38. What is the aim of hydraulic fluid sampling ?
18. Name the factors causing aircraft accidents.
39. What precautions to be taken beforechecking the operation of the aligh tening gear ?
19. What are the three basic ingredients of correct technical practice ?
40. Write down the probable defects when all hydraulics services inoperati ve.
20. What is commonly used hammer by technicians ? How & which are the hamm ersused on aircraft ?
41. Write down the purpose of breather valve in hydraulic system ?
21. What is the purpose of powered flying control system ? 201
42. Write the purpose of the following components fitted in u/c circuits. (a) One way restrictor (b) Shuttle valve.
55. Write the advantages of turbo fan in aircraft cabin atmospheric contro l system. 56. For filling and charging of oleo leg the devices required are Lubricating gun and charging gun.
43. Write the primary causes of failyre in a pneumatic components ?
57. Explain Relative humidity. 44. How do you carry out leak test in a pneumatic brake system ?
58. Write short note on regenerative Air Cycle in Aircraft air-conditioning system.
45. State the peiodicity and method of draining oil and water trap.
59. Define term pumping down in refrigerator and when it is carried out.
46. What is the purpose of the oil and water trap ?
60. Define :- (i) De-frosting (ii) Purging.
47. Write down the points to be observed when parking an aircrafts fitted with pneumatically operated brakes ?
61. What are the function of a condenser in a refrigerator?
48. Write the procedure of carrying out immersion test on fuel tanks.
62. Define term pumping down in fefrigerator and when it is carried out.
49. How to top up liquid spring oleo leg ?
63. Write short notes on regenerative air cycle in aircraft air-conditioning system.
50. What is the purpose of track devices ?
64. Explain relative humidity.
51. What is tyre creep ?
65. What are purposes of air-conditioning?
52. Write short notes on twin contact tyre.
66. Name the basic components in any cabin pressure control system.
53. Define absolute temperature in pressurisation and airconditioning syst em.
67. What is the function of a condenser in a refrigerator?
54. Enumerate the factors governing the choice of aircraft cabin pressuris ation.
202
SHORT ANSWERS 1. Name and breifly explain the types of lettering brushes.
19. Write the purpose of the following (1) Pulleys (2) Fair leads (3) Screw j acks.
2. Name the rivetting pliers and describe in brief. 20. What are checks to be carried out on the control surface before riggin g?
3. What are classification of damage on aircraft and explain in brief.
21. Write the checks generally carried out after any control surface.
4. What are the sparying techniques to be observed during spraying.
22. Name the components installed in a mechanical de-icing system and state their purpose.
5. What are the special hand tools used for airframe repair ? Explain th.
23. Briefly explain the engineering factors while considering choice of material for airframe.
6. What is orange peel effect and what are the causes of it?
24. Name the types of oleo -leg and explain in brief about oleo pneumatic with out seperator.
7. Write short notes on the following 1)Dimple rivetting 2)Reaction rivet ting.
25. Write down the dismantling procedure of loose flange type rims.
8. Write the purpose of material and the use of tuckerpop rivets.
26. Write in short the purpose of AC wheels and mention different types of wheels?
9. Explain the factors governing the choice of cabin pressure.
27. Explain the defects that can occur in a tyre and state the remedy in e ach case.
10. Explain the purpose and principle of operation of cabin air cycle syst em.
28. Name the various parts of a tyre and explain how tyre dimensions are i ndicted on it ?
11. State the purpose of by pass circuit in vapour cycle cooling package.
29. What is tyre creep? Write the method used for preventing tyre creep.
12. Briefly explain the economic factors while considering choice of mater ial for Airframe Construction?
30. Write down the instructions to be followed for using a tyre seperator ?
13. How straight edge is checked for straightness. 31. Write the procedure of fitting tubless tyre on a divided type wheel.
14. What are the characteristics of following special material(!) fibre gl ass (2)carbon fibre (3)re-inforced plastics.
32. Write short notes on twin contact wheel.
15. What checks are carried out in the rigging position.
33. Briefly explain the purpose of hydraulic accumulator in power circuit system.
16. What is the purpose of corner drill?Explain the collect and drill chan ging method.
34. Explain the qualities of hydraulic fluid used in a/c hydraulic system.
17. What is trimming tab,Explain its purpose and how it operates?
35. What are the checks to be carried out before starting of hydraulic ser vicing trolley (304/330)?
18. Write in brief about pressure bulkhead and fuel tank bulkheads.
36. What are the general points to be observed before working on powered f lying control? 203
37. What do you understand by 'blow back' valve? what are the functions of this valve?
53. Define term pumping down in refrigerator and when it is carried out.
38. With a neat diagrame explain the application of Bramah Principal in hy draulic system,.
54. Write short notes on regenerative air cycle in aircraft air-condition.
39. Write a short note on auto stabilisation.
55. Explain relative humidity.
40. Write short note on milipore patch method.
56. What is purpose of air-conditioning?
41. Write the procedure of flow characteristics test of hydraulic componen.
57. Name the basic components in any cabin pressure control system.
42. Write the servicing procedure of static hydraulic test rig.
58. What is the function of a condenser in a refrigerator?
43. Write the operation of the hand pump(UMC).
59. Define : (i) De-frosting (ii) Purging.
44. Write the switching off procedure of hydraulic servicing trolley.
60. What are the methods of refrigeration? 61. In comfort air-conditioning system, what are the essential and describe requirements.
45. Name the different types of shock absorber and write the principle of oil compression shock absorber.
62. What are the purposes of air-conditioning? 46. Write down types of AC wheel brakes in current use and purpose of mas ter brake cylinder.
63. In comfort Air-conditioning system, what are the essential and desirable requirements.
47. Write the purpose of a/c landing gear. 64. What are the methods of refrigeration? 48. Briefly explain Fuselage of an aircraft. 65. Explain the conduction heat transfer method. 49. Briefly explain the role of Tail plane of an aircraft. 66. What are the purposes of refrigeration? 50. Briefly explain Main plane of an aircraft. 67. Explain the radiation method of heat transfer in comfort Air-conditioning system.
51. Breifly explain about limitation of 'C' & 'S' materials. 52. Explain the procedure for carrying out a patch repair on a stressed sk in structure.
204
LONG ANSWER 1. What do you understand by FOD? Write the causes and remedial action to prevent FOD.
17. Name the various types of wheels used in the aircraft? How are they protected from corrosion?
2. Briefly explain the purpose and operation of pressure reducing valve f itted in pneumatic system.
18. What do you mean by pneumatic system? Write the advantages and disadvantages of pneumatic system.
3. Briefly explain in AC structure the fail safe construction and factors to estimate the fatigue life of the AC.
19. What are pre-checks on control surfaces? 20. Write the material and precautions to be observed while serving transparent panels.
4. Briefly explain the procedure to seal the joints, seams, rivets etc of an AC pressurrised cabin. with peratol 250.
21. Explain the operation of the lateral control.
5. Briefly explain the difference types of oelo leg fitted on aircraft.
22. What is the object of picketing? Explain briefly the types of picketing points.
6. With a neat sketch explain the forces action on an ac during gliding.
23. Write the uses and characteristics of transparent plastic.
7. Differentiate between mass balancing and aerodynamic balancing of cont rol surfaces. Naqme various methods/types used to balance controls aer odynamically.
24. List out all the types of hydraulic pumps being used in hydraulic system. 25. What are various pressure control devices in hydraulic system?
8. Define stability of an ac and explain briefly about static and dynamic stability.
26. What are the basic functions of hydraulic accumulator in hydraulic system?
9. With a neat sketch. Explain over balance of flying controls and its ef fects during flight?
27. List out various types of selection valves being used in hydraulic system.
10. Write the construction of forward bottom structure in the cabin assemb ly.
28. What are various actuating devices used in hydraulic system?
11. How will you carry out leak test on body structure (without tell tale indicator) of Chetak helicopter.
29. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a pneumatic system over hydraulic system?
12. Briefly explain the procedure of assembling of hydraulic brake assembl y.
30. Which are the landing gear configurations available on aircraft? Explain.
13. Briefly explain the charging and checking procedure of an accumulator fitted in power control system.
31. Classify the landing gears. 32. With a neat diagram explain the generation of shock structure.
14. Differentiate between aircycle and vapour cycle refrigeration system.
33. Explain anti-skid system.
15. Briefly explain the adverse effect of continious ice deposite on AC du ring flying.(de-icing).
34. Give configuration of a main fuel system of a jet engine and describe its sub accessories.
16. During servicing of tyres ,what are the defects checked for? What are the action is to be taken for each defects?
35. Draw a sketch of a fuel oil unit. Give detail of component of a fuel oil unit. 205
36. List the various units of main fuel regulating system. Explain any three briefly.
53. What is the main purpose of fuel control system? Explain how fuel control system is achieved in different operating requirements.
37. List various components of main and after burner fuel system. Write in brief about main A/A fuel valve and fuel valve.
54. What types of starters are employed for starting? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each type.
38. Explain function of CPDV with increase in altitude and with decrease in altitude.
55. Give a typical sequence for starting a jet engine. Draw and explain the starting graph for a turbo jet engine.
39. Explain function of centrifugal governor when throttle is moved.
56. What are the anti surge methods available in a gas turbine? Explain briefly as to how these helping avoiding surge.
40. Explain functioning of governor with changes in altitude and forward speed with throttle lever remaining in fixed position.
57. How the starter is converted into generator?
41. What is the purpose of fuel system?
58. Write short notes on the following (a) CPDV (b) Aneroid corrector (c) Starting automat (d) Fuel cut off valve (e) Hydraulic decelerator (f) Additional A/B pump.
42. Explain in brief the function and working of (a) Fuel pump (b) Fuel-oil exchanger (c) Centrifugal breather (d) Chip detector.
59. What is the function of a tab? 43. What do you understand by manual and auto range of a fuel system? What are the components of a fuel pump, which comes into play in manual and auto range of R-25 engines?
60. Which are the various types of tab available? 61. List out different types of flaps.
44. Explain with a neat diagram the arrangement of jet pipe and nozzle in a turbo jet engine.
62. What is the function of spoilers? 63. What is the requirement of artificial feel unit in aircraft fitted with powered controls?
45. What are the basic requirements an engine fuel system of an aircraft must meet?
64. What are the functions of control disconnect mechanism?
46. Enumerate various sub assemblies of main fuel pump.
65. What is the function of dampers in yaw?
47. Write the various sub assemblies of main fuel pump, which control fuel during manual range and explain any one of them.
66. What are various propulsion system used in aircraft?
48. Discuss the basic requirement of engine lubricating and fuel system.
67. Explain in brief (a) Turbo jet (b) Turbo shaft (c) Turbo pump (d) Turbo fan (e) Ram jet (f) Pulse jet (g) Rocket.
49. What are various thrust augmentation system? Explain briefly.
68. What are the advantages of axial component over centrifugal component in aviation gas turbine engine?
50. What are de-aerator and centrifugal breather?
69. What are various factors in considering the design of inlet duct?
51. What is the requirement of chip detector? 52. What are the starting methods used in reciprocating engine and gas turbine engine? Explain any two.
70. What are various types of inlet ducts? 71. Explain the phenomenon of compressor stall. 206
87. What are major components of aircraft?
72. What are the various types of combustion chambers?
88. What are the various control surfaces available on aircraft?
73. What are the advantages and disadvantages of various types of combustion chamber?
89. What all systems in aircraft does hydraulic jack generally operate?
74. What is the performance required of combustion chamber?
90. Write the principle sources of heat in airconditioning and refrigera.
75. What are the effects of operating variables on burner performance?
91. With the help of neat diagram explain the refrigeration cyc.
76. What is the influence of design parameters on breather performance?
92. What are the functions of condenser unit in refrigeration system and.
77. What are various types of turbine?
93. Explain the following terms used in refrigeration. (a) De-frosting (b) Purging (c) Crack open (d) Dew point of Air.
78. What is the function of inlet (nozzle) guide vanes? 79. Explain how the sound or noise problem is reduced in gas turbine.
94. Define the following : i. Mechanical equivalent of heat ii. Specific heat iii. Latent heat.
80. What are different methods of thrust reversal?
95. Write in brief by psychometrics and phychometric charts.
81. What are various methods of thrust augmentation? 82. What is single spool and multi spool?
96. Describe turbine compressor air cycle in a/c airconditioning system.
83. What is free and power turbine?
97. Briefly explain the closed circuit vapour cycle of cooling used in ai.
84. What are the different cycles for piston engine? Explain with P-V, T-S diagram.
98. How does a vapour compression system works?
85. Explain the cycles for gas turbine engine with PV, T-S diagram.
99. What is the principle of refrigeration?
86. What are various forms of gas turbine engine starters?
207
BLANK
208
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) C. Prevent flame from impinging on wall of the tube and avoid carbon formation. D. Prevent flame extinction.
1. First law of thermodynamics state W=JH, where J is the mechanical equient of heat and its value is. A. 4.186 Joules/Cal. B. 4.816 Joules/Cal. C. 4.616 Joules/Cal. D. 4.681 Joules/Cal.
9. The purpose of interconnectors in a jet engine with multiple combustiochamber is to: A. Propogate the flame and equalise the pressure in all the combustion chamber. B. Propogate the flame during starting. C. Regulate the combustion process in all combustion chambers. D. Propogate the flame and regulate the temperature.
2. Specific fuel consumption is :A. Fuel consumed in grm/hr / horse power developed. B. Fuel consumed in kg/hr / horse power developed. C. Fuel consumed in grm/min / horse power developed. D. Fuel consumed in kg/min / horse power developed.
10. The purpose of the nozzle guide vane is to direct the gases towards thturbine with: A. High velocity and temperature. B. High pressure and temperature. C. High velocity and desired angle. D. High pressure and desired angle.
3. The amount of fuel consumed per unit of power developed per hour is kns : A. Specific fuel consumption. B. Unit fuel consumption. C. Specific power fuel ratio. D. Optimum fuel power ratio.
11. The function of the stream lined struts or vanes of exhaust cone is tostraighten out the air flow from approximately: A. 40 to an axial direction. B. 42 to an axial direction. C. 45 to an axial direction. D. 47 to an axial direction.
4. In which year did Sir Frank whittle lodged his first patent turbine jepulsion for the aircraft. A. 1920. B. 1930. C. 1940. D. 1950.
12. A mixture of water and methonal is injected into: A. The inlet of axial flow compressors. B. The combustion gases before they enter the turbine. C. Combustion gases after the turbine. D. The stream has left the turbine.
5. In combustion chamber the unstable conical spray is changed into stablvortex shape by primary air, this action of primary air helps in: A. Cooling the burner tip mainly. B. Burning the rich mixture only. C. Prevention of flame extinction by high velocity air. D. Prevent carbon deposit inside the combustion chamber.
13. If an excessive JPT is generated while using reheat: A. The pilot should put off reheat immediately. B. It is advantages for additional thrust. C. Inflow of more fuel in A/Bmanifold will cooldown jetpipe&JPT will brought. D. The temperature limiter cancels reheat.
6. In upstream type of combustion chamber the pressure loss due to heatinprocess is known as: A. Fundamental loss. B. Cold loss. C. Pressure loss. D. Temperature loss.
14. In reheat, fuel is injected into the gas stream from special burners athe stream has left the: A. Engine. B. Jet pipe. C. Jet pipe nozzle. D. Turbine.
7. The arrangement of combustion chamber is used for reducing the overalllength of the engine is: A. Straight flow. B. Annular type. C. Cannular type. D. Reverse flow.
15. In the thrust augmentation devices, the water/meathonal injection incrthe maximum thrust of a gas turbine by about: A. 10%. B. 15%. C. 20%.
8. A small amount of primary air passing through the holes in the calendeflame tube and then along its inner walls serve to: A. Cool the flame tube. B. Cool and enrich the mixture. 209
D. 25%.
24. At the rear of the compressor there is an exit section attached to theressor casing, which houses a final row of : A. Stator and rotor vanes. B. Stator vanes. C. Rotor vanes. D. Turbine vanes.
16. Free stream mack number is high enough to produce local mach number,so which are greater and some less than m=1.0 is called: A. Transonic flow. B. Supersonic flow. C. Subsonic flow. D. Hypersonic.
25. The single stage centrifugal compresor unit consists of : A. Tow main components. B. Three main components. C. Four components. D. Five components.
17. If the free stream speed is greater than m = 5.0 is called: A. Hypersonic flow. B. Transonic flow. C. Subsonic flow. D. Supersonic flow.
26. The main feature of the axial flow compressor is that : A. A smooth flow compression chamber. B. A smooth air flow is to the combustion chamber is arrured. C. A smooth air and fuel flow through combusion chamber. D. A smooth mixture flow through turbine.
18. Acceleration is defined as : A. Rate of velocity. B. Rate at which distance covered. C. Rate of change of velocity. D. Distance / time. 19. The momentum of the body directly depends upon its : A. Mass and velocity. B. Final velocity. C. Initial velocity. D. Volume of the body.
27. An evident by rapid oscillation of delivery, accompanied by audible inon of instability, varying from a muffled rumbling noise to an abruptsion and vibration as a : A. Surge. B. Stall. C. Vibration. D. RPM fluctation.
20. The rate at which distance is covered, that is to say the distance/timt has magnitude and direction known as : A. Thrust. B. Work. C. Velocity. D. Power.
28. Compressor stall is most likely to occur : A. During deceleration and at high altitude. B. Due to variation is air density in the atmoshpere. C. During acceleration an at high altitude. D. Due to the low JPT of the engine at high altitude.
21. 2U / V + U is the formula for : A. Thermal efficiency. B. Force. C. Thrust horse power. D. Propulsive efficiency.
29. There is no need for accumulator, minimum burner pressure valve with dburner because: A. Primary line of the burner gives very effective automisation even at low Pr. B. Primary line of burner gives very effective automisation even at low altitu. C. Secondary line of the burner self sufficient to cater for starting. D. Secondary line of the burner gives very effective automisation at low Pr.
22. When jet velocity is equal to aircraft speed, the thrust will be : A. 0. B. 50%. C. 100%. D. Equal to the aircraft speed.
30. The dangerous zone for four engined jet air craft is. A. 5 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 200 mtrs behind jet pipe. B. 5 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 110 mtrs behind the jet pipe. C. 10 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 200 mtrs behind the jet pipe.
23. In multi jet engine aircraft with short straight air intake duct, theengine is apt to suffer from inlet turbulance due to : A. Slow air speed. B. High air speed. C. Low angle of attack. D. Slow air speed or high angles of attack. 210
D. 10 mtrs radius ahead of air intake, 110 mtrs behind the jet pipe.
39. In an oil system the oil tank is vented to : A. Atmoshpere. B. Top of the fuel tank. C. Engine crank case. D. The exhaust.
31. After using CTC fire extinguisher, confined spaces must be : A. Washed with soapy water. B. Wash with distilled water. C. Vacated and freely ventilated to disperse the gas. D. Covered air tightly so as to die off any left out residual fire.
40. The component which limit the maximum pressure by passing some or allil direct to tank is : A. De-Aerator. B. Anti surge valve. C. Thermostat valve. D. Hot pot.
32. Fire extinguisher use on oil and petrol fire is : A. CTC. B. Foam type. C. Glycol. D. Soda acid.
41. Fuel stored in aircraft tanks should be turned over or consumed beforethe time limit of : A. 45 days. B. 1 month. C. 2 months. D. 3 months.
33. Soda acid type of fire extinguisher is used to extinguish the type of. A. Solid nature. B. Electrical fire. C. Can be used on all types of fire. D. Can be used on oil gasoline and kerosene.
42. On expiry of storage period in aircraft, the fuel to be tested withfollowing method before sucking in to refuellers for further use is : A. Corrosivity test and Sulphide in water. B. Silver strip test. C. Copper strip test. D. Test of water contamination with paste or capsule.
34. The fire extinguisher that can be used on all types of fire is : A. CTC. B. Soda acid. C. Methyle bromide. D. Water glycol.
43. When sater is found in fuel system during DI of an aircraft the action. A. Drain off adequate fuel to ensure complete removal of accumulated water. B. Only 10 litres of fuel from the sump. C. 5% of the total capacity of the aircraft fuel system. D. Complete fuel from the aircraft.
35. In ball bearing the balls may be arranged in : A. One or two rows. B. Tow or three rows. C. Three or four rows. D. Four or five rows.
44. The petroleum industry roughly groups the lubricating oil in to : A. Two broad classes. B. Three broad classes. C. Four broad classes. D. Five broad classes.
36. Plain bearings are subjected to : A. Thrust load only. B. Radial load only. C. Radial and thrust loads. D. Longitudinal thrust loads. 37. The purpose of self aligning features of ball bearing is to : A. Provide for unavoidable condition of misalignment due to shaft deflection. B. Provide for slight adjustment for wear after prolonged use. C. Take up the angular load. D. Provide positive tranmission of thrust load.
45. An oil which is very thick at low temperature and becomes very thin athigh temperature is said to be : A. High viscosity index. B. Low viscosity index. C. Stable oil. D. Unstable oil. 46. The viscosity of Gasolene at a room temperature of 15 C is. A. 2.0 Centipoise. B. 1.0 Centipoise. C. 0.02 Centipoise. D. 0.6 Centipoise.
38. In lay shaft type of reduction gear, the speed ratio is determined by. A. The length of the gears. B. The position of the gears. C. The direction of roation of gears. D. The number of teeth of the gears.
47. When the oils are heated they begin to decompose and crack rapidly attemperature : 211
A. 575 F and higher. B. 675 F and higher. C. 775 F and higher. D. 875 F and higher.
B. Drag. C. Avancementd. D. Lift. 56. The ratio between that part of propeller disc covered by the blades antotal area of the disc is called: A. Compressibility. B. Solidity. C. Stability. D. Disc area.
48. The lubricating oil used in the Gas turbine engine must be of : A. Much higher viscosity. B. Much lower viscosity. C. Normal viscosity. D. Below normal viscosity.
57. The thoretical distance and aircraft would advance in one revolution opropeller is known as : A. Effective pitch. B. Experimental pitch. C. Geometric pitch. D. Fine pitch.
49. An imperial number for expressing the change of viscosity of an oil witemperature is known as. A. Kinematic viscosity. B. Viscosity index. C. Viscosity. D. Absolute viscosity.
58. Propeller produces maximum lift and least drag when the angle betweenthrust face and the direction of relative air flow is: A. 3 to 6 optimum angle of attack. B. 10 ± 1 angle of attack. C. 12 to 15 of blade angle. D. 4 optimum angle of attack.
50. The flash point of `wide cut' gasolene type ATF range start from. A. 100 to 475 F. B. 125 to 575 F. C. 225 to 675 F. D. 325 to 575 F. 51. The high flash point Kerosene's range starts from. A. 225 to 375 F. B. 525 to 575 F. C. 325 to 475 F. D. 225 to 575 F.
59. The angle of attack at which best lift/drag ratio is obtained. A. Stalling angle. B. Optimum angle. C. Blade angle. D. Feathering angle.
52. When the propeller is revolving at a steady number of revolutions perminute, then the propeller torque and the engine torque will be : A. Exactly equal. B. Different. C. Exactly equal and opposite. D. Exactly opposite.
60. A thicker blade section width increased camper, as with wing is lessefficient at: A. High speed. B. Low speed. C. Crucial speed. D. Low speed at high altitude.
53. The helix angle is the angle formed between : A. The chord line and the plane of rotation. B. The resultant direction of air flow and the plane of rotation. C. The chord line and the direction of rotative air flow. D. The direction of relative air flow and the plane of rotation.
61. Increasing the number of blades in a propeller is one way of increasinability of a propeller,but the number of blades should not exceed: A. Eight. B. Seven. C. Six. D. Five. 62. If the air density acting in an aerofoil is halved the lift will be: A. Doubled. B. Increased by four times. C. Increased by six times. D. Halved.
54. The pitch angle of propeller blade is angle between. A. Chord line and plane of rotation. B. Thrust face and relative airflow. C. Relative air flow and plane of rotation. D. Chord line and relative airflow.
63. Increasing the speed of thse aerofoil by two times will increase the lby: A. Two times. B. Three times.
55. The difference between the geometric pitch and the effective pitchthe propeller is called: A. slip. 212
C. Four times. D. Six times.
71. Ondowty rotal propellor on ground selector lever (FFPS lever) always rin : A. Withdrawn position. B. Engaged position. C. Ground position. D. Off position.
64. The centrifugal force acting on the propeller depends upon: A. Resultant air reaction on the blade. B. Force acting on the propeller in the direction of flight. C. Tortional stress produced by resultant air flow. D. Weight of the propeller.
72. An Avro aircraft flying with one engine in feathered condition pilotadvances the throttle to cruising range. The automatic coarsening systwill : A. Not operate. B. Operate and engine will go to coarse pitch. C. Operate only upto ground fine pitch stop. D. Biring the propeller to fine pitch.
65. Propeller blades are tddwisted in order to : A. Equalize the load on the propeller by keeping the angle of attack constant. B. To control rotational and forward speed of propeller. C. To roughly maintain the angle of attack constant all along the blade length. D. To get a hectical path in the air.
73. In dowty rotal popeller during auto coarsening, the engine should regatorque suffucient to open the low torque switch, the breaking of thecircuit will cause the propeller to : A. Feather fully and the engine will cut off. B. Return to normal governing position. C. Come to ground fine pitch. D. Come to flight fine pitch and engine will cut off.
66. The force which tends to turn the propeller blade towards fine pitch icalled: A. Centrifugal twisting moment. B. Aerodynamic twisting moment. C. Gyroscopic force. D. Power absorption force.
74. Quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one lb of waterthrough 1 is defined as : A. Calorie. B. Centigrade heat unit. C. British thermal unit. D. MKS heat unit.
67. By extending the variable pitch range of a propeller beyond the normalpitch limit to obtain large negative angle of attack the propeller iscalled: A. Contra rotating propeller. B. Rdseverse pitch propeller. C. Co-axial propeller. D. Controllable pitch propeller.
75. If (m) grams be the mass of the substance and `S' its specific heatthe amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the bodythrough 1 C is equal to : A. Therm. B. Calorie. C. ms Calories. D. Kilo clories.
68. In PCU the constant speeding rpm are selected by control lever,which vthe load on the governor spring and the high and low speed stops are: A. Provided inside the hub assembly. B. Fitted externally to abut the control lever. C. Provided by the feathering pump operation. D. Achived by the oil pressure controller unit.
76. The type of burner that has the main advantages of better automizationuel is obtained at low fuel flow where by improving engine control anlighting characteristic at altitude is : A. Luback tupe. B. Simplex type. C. Duplex type. D. Sprill type.
69. In PCU two solenoid valves are fitted in the governor casing. One opethe third oil line valve and the other operates: A. Elanged valve. B. Extractor pinion. C. Valve lift piston. D. Bowelded shim.
77. On a jet engine burners are required for: A. The equal distribution of fuel to combustion chambers. B. Controlling the pressure of fuel injected into the combustion chambers. C. The injection and vapourisation of fuel. D. Controlling the JPT.
70. In addition to normal pitch a turbo propeller engine required finer pifor starting and idling. The provision to line off to zero oitch is teas: A. Fine pitch. B. Ground fine pitch. C. Flight fine pitch. D. Zero thrust fine pitch.
78. The brayton engine required two cylinders. A. One for compression and the other for expansion. B. One for ignition and other for expansion. 213
C. One for induction and the other for ignition. D. One for induction and other for compression.
86. The extra mass of metal added opposite to the crank pin and extendingcrank web on a crank shaft is known as: A. Crank cheek. B. Crank web. C. Counter weight. D. Balance weight.
79. The transonic upper limit may be as low as M = 1.1 or as high as M = 1depending upon the: A. Speed of the aircraft. B. Altitude of the aircraft. C. Density of the atmosphere. D. Design of the aircraft.
87. Water methonal injection increases thrust by raising: A. Velocity and pressure of the gas stream. B. Mass and velocity of the gas stream. C. JPT and velocity of the gas stream. D. JPT and pressure of the gas stream.
80. A definite amount of mechanical work is needed to produce a definiteamount of heat and vice-versa is the law of. A. Boyle's law. B. Charle Law. C. First law of thermodynamics. D. Second law of thermodynamics.
88. The ratio of work done in moving the aircraft forward to the energy spn accelerating the gas rearward is called : A. Thrust. B. Propulsive efficiency. C. Acceleration. D. Thermal efficiency.
81. In different methods of blades colling in jet engine turbine system,circulating the cooling fluid and thus reducing the blade temperatureconduction is known as: A. Water cooling. B. Film cooling. C. Rim colling. D. Internal air cooling.
89. In water/methanol injection system, the best proportion of water andmethanol as been found to be: A. 40% of water and 60% of methanol by volume. B. 60% of water and 40% of methanol by volume. C. 50% of water and 60% of methanol by volume. D. 50% of water and 50% of methanol by volume.
82. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of a unit of asubstance through 1 C is known as : A. Specific heat. B. Specific temperature. C. Thermal heat. D. Charle's Law.
90. One of the main advantage of reheat as a thrust augmentation method is. A. Its efficiency increases with true air speed (TAS). B. Enables a/c with heavy loads to take off easily from high altitude aerodrom. C. It help a/c in easy landing and take off from a/c carrier. D. It improves the life of the engine.
83. The free stream mach is such that at all points the local mach numbersgreater than M = 1.0. It is called: A. Subsonic flow. B. Transonic flow. C. Supersonic flow. D. Hypersonic flow.
91. The function of a diffuser in a jet engine is to : A. Diifuse the air drawn from atmosphere through the air intake. B. Increase the pressure of air entering the compressor. C. Convert velocity energy of air to pressure before combustion chamber. D. Convert compressor outlet air to streamline flow & guide to combustion cham.
84. The duct will be changed by a mechanical device as the speed of theaircraft increases or decreases is usally known as : A. Single entrance air intake duct. B. Double entrance air intake duct. C. Variable geometry inlet duct. D. divided entrance duct.
92. Turbo jet engine are rated at their static thrust under standard condiof: A. 95 F and 92.29 in Hg. B. 59 F and 29.92 in Hg. C. 0.59 F and 2.992 in Hg. D. 5.9 c and 299.2 in Hg.
85. The clearance between the tips of the diffuser vanes and the compressos is about : A. 1/2 ". B. 1". C. 1½". D. 2".
93. Compressor surge is identified by : A. Low JPT, flame out with variation in set RPM. 214
B. Engine rumbling noise to an abrupt explosion and vibration. C. Severe vibration. D. Engine flame out.
101. On German gas turbine for securing the blade in rotor the method used. A. Fir tree method. B. Grub screw method. C. Anchor pin. D. Bulb root method.
94. Pitch setting of the adjustable pitch propeller is done: A. On ground whden the engine is not running. B. At various flying condition. C. On the ground when the engine is running. D. During assembly of the propeller. 95. A series of holes are provided towards the rear of the flame tube foradmission of additional air this portion is termed as: A. Primary zone. B. Secondary zone. C. Tertiary zone. D. Additional zone.
102. In variable area jet nozzle reduced area of jet nozzle is required dur. A. Landing. B. Take off. C. Cruising speed. D. Slow running. 103. The burner which consists of a swirl chamber and fixed area atomizingce is called : A. Simplex burner. B. Duplex burner. C. Lubbock burner. D. Spill burner.
96. In the typical nozzle diaphram, the inner and outer band contain punchholes to receive: A. Ends of the exhaust nozzle. B. Ends of the nozzle vanes. C. Exhaust cone. D. Nozzle guide ring.
104. The measure of engine life obtained while maintaining desired reliability is called: A. Compactness. B. Operational flexibility. C. Reliability. D. Durability.
97. The principal advantage of the reverse flow system of combustion chambis that: A. It provides longer path for air to have better cooling before entering C.C. B. The total engine length is reduced. C. The air get preheated and so more fuel efficiency. D. It is the only type that is ideal with axial flow compressor.
105. The oil film between the rubbing parts may breakdown and will lead to to metal contact due to : A. Too high temperature of oil. B. Too low temperature of oil. C. Too high pressure of oil. D. Too low oil pressure. 106. It is believed that the dilution of oil will be necessary, because ofweather, the oil dilution is performed at : A. Middle of engine run. B. Starting of engine run. C. End of each engine run. D. Any stage of engine run.
98. The velocity of the gas flow leaving the nozzle ring of the impulse tuas compared to re-action turbine is: A. Smaller. B. Same. C. Greater. D. Totally depends on gas temperature.
107. The ratio of that portion of energy of the fuel converted into work tomechanical work supplied in the form fuel is now known as: A. Therma efficiency. B. Propulsive efficiency. C. Overall efficiency. D. Volumetric efficiency.
99. Dowty rotol propeller electro hydraulic stop comes into operation when. A. The propeller control unit fails. B. The ground fine pitch stop fails. C. The flight fine pitch stop fail. D. The hydraulic stop fails.
108. A series of small rods is smoetimes placed in the side scoop inlet tot in : A. Straightening the incoming airflow and to prevent turbulance. B. Reduce the air flow in the intake. C. Prevent the air pressure directly acting on the structure. D. Prevent the surging of the engine.
100. When the piston in the propeller control unit is fully forward in thecylinder, the position of the propeller blades are : A. Fully coarse. B. Feathered. C. Fully fine. D. Un-feathered. 215
109. For connecting drive shaft where the centre lines neither interact norparallel, the type of gears used are ; A. Epicyclic gears. B. Hypoid gears. C. Spur gears. D. Bevel gears.
D. Compressibility mach number. 112. The valve which divide the return oil flow between the cooler and a by to the tank is called : A. Thermostat valve. B. Anti surge valve. C. By pass valve. D. Relief valve.
110. For smonth flow of air with minimum turbulance the air intake duct mus. A. Be bigger in size. B. Have different anti-surge shutters. C. Have sufficiently straight section. D. be sub-sonic in nature.
113. Air consumption can be measured by measuring the air supply to a surge of capacity of about : A. 100 to 150 time the swept volume of the engine. B. 150 to 200 time the swept volume of the engine. C. 200 to 250 time the swept volume of the engine. D. 50 to 100 time the swept volume of the engine.
111. The mach number of the flow at a point unaffected by the presence of taircraft: A. Local mach number. B. Critical mach number. C. Free stream mach number.
216
VERY SHORT ANSWERS 1. Name the main parts of Jet Engine.
21. Write the advantages of wet sump system.
2. Define Heat engine.
22. What are the two qualities of ATF which ensures easy starting?
3. State the main type of combustion chamber used in gas turbine engine?
23. State the necessity of sampling and testing of petroleum products.
4. What is the function of combustion chamber?
24. Explain briefly "top sample".
5. What is the purpose of swirl assembly fitted in the combustion chamber and how it prevents flame extinction in the combustion zone?
25. List out the additives added to mineral base lubricating oil. 26. Write the purpose of propeller.
6. Write the requirements, the nozzle guide vanes are designed to meet?
27. Define drag. 7. What are the advantage of "FIR Tree" method of retention of turbine blades to the wheel?
28. Define thrust.
8. Write the disadvantage of re-heat over water methanol injection?
29. Define the plane of rotation. 30. Define geometric pitch.
9. Write any one the formula for converting the thrust horse power into thrust?
31. Define slip and state how it is expressed.
10. Define the Newton's first law of motion?
32. Define a propeller efficiency.
11. Define the Newton's second law of motion?
33. Define the angle of attack.
12. Name the essential component of turbo jet engine?
34. How the ability of a propeller absorb the power can be increased moreefficiently? Also state the result if the number of blade in a propeller be more than five.
13. Write the advantage of flush ducts? 14. What are the disadvantages of axial flow compressor?
35. What are the factors upon which the ability to absorb power by a propeller depends?
15. What is the objective of diffuser? 16. What is the purpose of burnors?
36. Write the advantage and disadvantage of adjustable pitch propeller?
17. Define combustion chamber.
37. Write the advantages of constant speed propeller?
18. Write the purpose of bearing?
38. Explain the on speed operation of dowty rotor propeller.
19. State the purpose of engine mount.
39. What are the condition when auto coarsening take place in flight?
20. What is understood by viscosity and state its unit of measure?
217
SHORT ANSWERS 1. Briefly explain the role of combustion chamber.
21. Write the disadvantages of wing inlet ducts.
2. Write the principle of thrust augmentation and name various devices.
22. Name the types of burners and explain Lubbock type.
3. Explain in brief the power transmission system of helicopter.
23. What are the advantages of duplex burner over the simplex burner.
4. Explain the upper train gear of reduction gear casing of artouste III-B engine.
24. Distinguish picketing points.
5. Write the sub assemblies of artouste III-B engine.
25. Enumerate the cockpit check before attempting to start an ac engine.
between
main
and
secondary
6. Enlist the items the oil tank of Artouste III-B engine is fitted with.
26. What are the methods of starting an ac?
7. Write the operation of lubrication system of Artouste III-B engine.
27. Write the precautions to be observed before and during ground run.
8. Write the purpose of oil pressure transmitter, magnetic drain plug and oil temperature bulb in Artouste III B engine.
28. Explain about the water glycol fire extinguisher. 29. State the advantage of CO2 when it is used as an extinguishant.
9. Write the purpose, occassion and precautions to be observed for removal and installation of oil tank.
30. State the purpose of adding additives to the minerals base lubricatingoils.
10. Define oil cooler fitted in Artouste III-B engine.
31. Write the effects of acidity in a lubricating oil.
11. Write the advantage and disadvantage of the centrifugal injection fuel system of Artouste IIIB engine.
32. Define the propeller solidity and comperssibility. 33. Explain the term "slip" with reference to propeller.
12. State the function of nozzle diaphragm .
34. Distinguish between the effects of increasing blade chord and increasing the number of blade in propeller.
13. State the function of nozzle diaphragm . 14. Write the basic requirements of a turbine. 15. Write the methods of retention of turbine blades.
35. State the factors influencing the power obsorption capacity of a propeller.
16. Explain compressibility mach number.
36. Enumerate the factors affecting lift and drag.
17. Write the working ranges of speeds of the following (a) Sub sonic flow, (b) transonic flow , (c) Supersonic flow (d) Hypersonic flow.
37. Explain the term skin friction in a propeller. 38. Define the torque bending force and centrifugal twisting movement of propeller.
18. Write the advantages of annular nose inlet ducts. 39. Explain the thrust bending force acting on a propeller.
19. Write the advantages and disadvantages of nose inlets.
40. Explain torsion or twisting force acting on propeller.
20. Write the advantages of wing inlet ducts. 218
41. How the necessity for twisting of propeller blade can be justified.
48. Explain the procedure of repair carried out on the blade when it is burnt due to lightning.
42. Name the forces acting on propeller in motion.
49. What are the fixed contacts in a slip ring group in dowty rotol propeller.
43. Write about centrifugal force acting on a propeller.
50. Explain the over speed operation of dowty rotol propeller.
44. Explain gyroscopic effect on a propeller. 51. Explain the under speed operation of the dowty rotol propeller.
45. What is aerodynamic twisting movement with reference to propeller explain. 46. Explain the multi position propeller.
52. Write the conditions when automatic coarsening will take place in dowty rotol propeller.
47. What is constant speed propeller?
53. Write the on speed of dowty rotol propeller.
219
LONG ANSWERS 18. Name the various thrust augumentation devecis used on turbo-jet engine and compare them with one another.
1. Write down the wash parts of a jet engine. 2. Explain the heat engine.
19. State the comparision between water/methanol injection and reheat methods of thrust augmentation device.
3. Name the various thrust augmentation devices. 4. Write the purpose of the following: Diffuser b) Nozzle guide vane c) Exhaust pipe.
20. Briefly explain noise supressor and working range of air flow definitions.
5. Write the purpose of the following of a jet engine: compressor b) combustion chamber c) Turbine.
21. Define the following: (a) power (b) velocity (c) Propulsion efficiency (d) overall efficiency (e) bypass ratio.
6. Briefly explain the operation of centrifugal type compressor used in jet engine.
22. Define the following; (a) acceleration (b) Bernoulli's theorem (c) Thermal efficiency (d) Newton's third law of motion.
7. Explain the use of pump feed multi-tank open orifice aircraft fuel system. How it is different from pressure refueled system?
23. Define the following;(a) work (b) power (c) velocity (d) momentum (e) propulsive efficiency.
8. What are the main advantages of annular combustion chamber and explain can annular combustion chamber.
24. Name the major component of ajet engine ande briefly explain the construction and operation of a diffuser.
9. Write the constructional details of exhaust nozzle guide vane.
25. Write the purose of engine inlet and inlet ducting and briefly explain single entrance air inlet duct.
10. List out the various methods of retention of turbine blades and statethe advantages of fir tree method.
26. State the requirement of a compressor in gas turbine engine and main features of centrifugal compressor.
11. Briefly explain the different methods of turbine blades cooling and write its advantages of cooling.
27. What are the main features of an axial flow compressor?
12. Write the different methods of cooling turbine blades and also state the inference made regarding turbine blade cooling.
28. Make a comparative study of centrifugal compressor and axial flow compressor.
13. What are the metallurgical requirements of turbine .
29. Narrate the advantages and disadvantages of centrifugal and axial flow compressor.
14. Write the effects of JPT on jet engine.
30. Explain duplex burner with constructional details and advantages?
15. Write the advantages of a variable area jet nozzle.
31. Name the different types of burners and explain simple burner .
16. Name the various thrust augmentatioin devices and briefly explain water methanol injection system.
32. Name different type of burners and explain lubbock burner.
17. Write the purpose and advantages of re-heat in thrust augmentation device.
33. List out the point to be observed for preparation of a/c for ground run. 220
34. State the cockpit checks, before attempting to start the engine and list out methods of starting.
44. Write the purpose of the following monitoring and safety devices fitted in the oil system :(a) Dip stick (ii) Oil temperature bulb (c) Oil pressure relief valve (d) Scavang pump (e) Sludge indicator.
35. Enumerate the properties of a good lubricating oil. 36. Write the sources of contamination of lubricating oils and how it canbe detected.
45. Name the sub assemblies of fuel control unit in dart 531 engine and explain hp cock.
37. Name the different ground and airborne type fire extinguisher and write the adavantages of CO2 trolley fire extinguisher.
46. Write short notes on the followinga) Anti crash relayb) Over speed relay.
38. Write the purpose of reduction gear and name the varius types and explain briefly the lay shaft type gears.
47. Write down the procedure of unpacking of an ARTOUSTE IIIB ENGreceivedfrom repair agency for installation on helicopter.
39. Explain types of lubrication and advantages of wet sump lubrication system.
48. Narrate the inhibition procedure for the engine which can be groundrun.
40. Name the type of lubrication system and explain hand lubrication system.
49. Write the basic requirement of a good combussion chamber and briefly explain them.
41. Write reason for dry sump lubrication system use on all aero engines and disadvantages of wet sump system.
50. Write all the basic performance parameter of an engine and explain specific out-put. 51. State the main requirements of combustion chamber and their names.
42. Write the type of lubrication systems and briefly explain the splash subrication.
52. Write the purpose of combusion chamber and enumerate the advantages of annular type combustion chamber.
43. Name the sub assemblies of dart-531 engine and also list out the comonents incorporated in exhaust sytem assembly.
221
BLANK
222
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) 10. A chart data series is a collection of: A. Related values. B. Functional values. C. Collected values. D. Resulted values.
1. In a computer application window, the status bar displays: A. The menu for the application. B. The name of the application. C. The font size, types of styles and alignment. D. Message, page number and section number.
11. A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as: A. Radar chart. B. Embedded chart. C. Scattered chart. D. Column chart.
2. In computer application window, the bar used to change document style and font size is: A. Status bar. B. Standard tool bar. C. Formatting tool bar. D. Menu bar.
12. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111 A. - 11011. B. - 00100. C. + 11011. D. + 00100.
3. In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of : A. 255 characters long. B. 235 characters long. C. 245 characters long. D. 275 characters long.
13. Complement of a complement equal to;. A. Zero. B. Complement. C. One. D. Original.
4. An EXCEL FILE is known as: A. Note book. B. Work book. C. Work sheet. D. Document.
14. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the number that results when : A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
5. In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for: A. Start menu. B. Copy and paste. C. Cut and paste. D. Entering the data.
15. Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is : A. 10100.1100. B. 11000.0011. C. 10011.0101. D. 11100.100.
6. An EXCEL workbook has a number of: A. Pages. B. Documents. C. Worksheets. D. Workbooks.
16. Flip Flop is also known as : A. Astable Multi vibrator. B. Mono stable Multi vibrator. C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. Tri stable multi vibrator.
7. A worksheet is also known as: A. Page. B. Spreadsheet. C. Document. D. Workbook. 8. In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse pointer indicates: A. Entering the data. B. Cut and paste. C. Copy and paste. D. Start menu.
17. For production of voltage pulses without any driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring periodically, the circuit used is. A. Free running multi vibrator. B. Mono stable multi vibrator. C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. RS flip flop.
9. In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by: A. Alphabets. B. Numbers. C. Asterisks. D. Arrows.
18. Among the following ,the output device in a computer is: A. Key board. B. Printer. C. Mouse. 223
D. Joy stick.
A. 0.01 ampere. B. 0.1 ampere. C. 0.0001 ampere. D. 0.001 ampere.
19. Many dot matrix printers are: A. Unidirectional. B. Tri-directional. C. Bi-directional. D. Quadra-directional.
29. The total opposition offered to the flow of current in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and capacitance is known as: A. Ohm. B. Conductance. C. Impedance. D. Watt Hour.
20. Dot matrix printer is an example of: A. Line printer. B. Laser printer. C. Drum printer. D. Character printer.
30. Indicating instruments are graded on the basis of their: A. Range. B. Internal resistance. C. Limits of error. D. None of the above.
21. A keyboard is a most common: A. Memory unit. B. Input device. C. Control device. D. Output device. 22. Unit of current by which the rate of flow of electricity is measured is: A. Volt. B. Ampere. C. Coulomb. D. Ohm.
31. Electrical instruments are classified as: A. Indicating, Integrating and recording instrument. B. Recording, Deflecting and controlling instrument. C. Integrating, controlling and Deflecting instrument. D. Deflecting, controlling and Damping instrument. 32. Instrument that register electrical quantities over a period of time are classified as : A. Indicating instrument. B. Recording instrument. C. Moving coil instrument. D. Integrating instrument.
23. One Joule is equal to : A. One watt second. B. One watt hour. C. One watt minute. D. One watt. 24. Ohm'S Law states that: A. R= V/I. B. V = R/I. C. I = R/V. D. R = VxI.
33. The most common form of damping employed in electrical instrument is: A. Eddy current damping. B. Fluid friction damping. C. Air friction damping. D. Electromagnetic damping.
25. The practical unit of Conductance is : A. Ohm. B. Coulomb. C. MHO. D. Volt.
34. Most suitable material used for controlling spring in an instrument is : A. Aluminum. B. Phosphor Bronze. C. Iron. D. Copper Bronze.
26. The unit representing power or by which the rate of doing work is measured is : A. Joule. B. Watt. C. Ohms. D. None of the above.
35. Shunt is used for increasing the range of a : A. Ammeter. B. AVO meter. C. Volt meter. D. Electrostatic Volt meter.
27. The symbol of Impedence is : A. R. B. Z. C. I. D. V.
36. Moving coil instrument is based on the principle of: A. Fleming Right Hand Rule. B. Ohm's Law. C. Fleming Left Hand Rule. D. Lenz's law.
28. The value of Milli ampere is: 224
37. Disadvantages of moving coil instrument is : A. Uneven scale division. B. It can not be directly used with AC. C. Error due to temperature is more. D. Can not be designed as center-zero type.
D. 5000 ohm only. 46. The digital meter work on the principle of -. A. Electro magnetic Induction. B. Quantization. C. Heating effect. D. Eddy current.
38. The advantages of Moving Coil Instrument is : A. It correctly indicates the r.m.s value. B. It can be designed as center -zero type. C. They are free from frequency error. D. They are not affected by stray magnetic field.
47. The accuracy of best analog instruments are rated usually within. A. + - 0.5% of full scale. B. + - 1% of full scale. C. + - 0.1% of full scale. D. + - 5% of full scale.
39. A low resistance connected in parallel with an ammeter in order to measure a greater current than the instrument itself can carry is termed as : A. Multiplier. B. Shunt. C. Swamping resistance. D. Ballast resistance.
48. Purpose of shunt in ammeter is to : A. Measure a greater current than that the instrument can carry. B. Measure a lower current than the instrument can carry due to safety reasons. C. Safe guard to instrument. D. Reduce the internal resistance.
40. Material used for making SHUNT in an ammeter is usually: A. Copper. B. Manganin. C. Phosphor Bronze. D. Bronze.
49. If a resistance is having colour bands Green, Yellow, and Red, the resistance value is: A. 5400 ohms. B. 5400 + - 10%. C. 6400 ohms. D. 5800 ohms.
41. Most suitable instrument for measuring high voltages is : A. Milli voltmeter. B. Electrostatic voltmeter. C. Digital voltmeter. D. None of the above.
50. For a given voltage four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected: A. All in parallel. B. All in series. C. With two parallel pairs in series. D. One pair in parallel with the other two in series.
42. In a thermocouple instrument, the emf at the cold end is measured by : A. Moving coil instrument. B. Moving Iron Instrument. C. Milli volt meter. D. Hot wire instrument.
51. Magnetic force that must be applied in the reverse direction to reduce the residual Magnetism to zero is called. A. Magnetic Force. B. Coercive force. C. Electromagnetic force. D. Electro static force.
43. The operating principle of Dynamometer type Wattmeter is-. A. Similar to D C Motor. B. Similar to A C Motor. C. Similar to D C Generator. D. Similar to A C Generator.
52. If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a circuit are doubled the circuit will be: A. Doubled. B. Halved. C. Four times. D. Remaining same.
44. The true power in A C circuit being equal to : A. VI sin +. B. VI cos +. C. RI sin +. D. RI cos +.
53. A capacitor consists of two: A. Insulators separated by a dielectric. B. Conductors separated by an insulator. C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc. D. Silver coated Insulators.
45. Digital Instrument have input impedance of the order of -. A. 10 Mega ohm or even higher. B. 10 Mega ohm or even lower. C. 5 Mega ohm only. 225
54. A force that tends to drive electricity through a circuit is called: A. Ampere. B. Wattage. C. RMS value. D. EMF. 55. The meter, which is used for measuring and comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known as: A. Potentiometer. B. Bonding tester. C. Ammeter. D. Multi meter.
62. Superposition Theorem can be applied only to circuit having________elements. A. Resistive. B. Non-linear. C. Passive. D. Linear-Bilateral.
56. The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends upon: A. R = L / A. B. A = L / R. C. L = R / A. D. P = L / A.
64. The term defined as the lagging of magnetization or induction flux density behind the Magnetizing force is known as: A. Right hand grip rule. B. Magnetizing field. C. Hysterisis. D. Permeance.
63. In an electrical circuit, where the current produced by an applied voltage is proportional to that voltage i.e. Parameters of circuit are constant is called: A. Electric network. B. Active network. C. Linear circuit. D. Non linear circuit.
57. To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour code is used. Certain colours are used for certain numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is: A. 1. B. 5. C. 0. D. 2.
65. The property of a material that opposes the creation of Magnetic flux is known as: A. Reluctance. B. Magneto motive force. C. Analogous. D. Permeance.
58. One mega ohm is equal to: A. 10 to the power 2ohms. B. 10 to the power 3 ohms. C. 10 to the power 4 ohms. D. 10 to the power 6 ohms.
66. When an AC voltage is applied to the plates of a capacitor: A. Capacitor will discharge what ever charges available. B. Capacitor is charged in one direction. C. Capacitor will resist the voltage. D. The capacitor is charged in one direction and then in the opposite direction.
59. When different resistances are joined end on end, they are said to be connected in: A. Parallel. B. Series - parallel. C. Parallel - series. D. Series.
67. Fleming's left hand rule is to find out the direction of : A. Current. B. Field. C. The motion of current carrying conductor. D. Current and field.
60. The current flowing through a conductor is proportional to difference of potential at the ends of the conductor, provided the temperature remains constant is defined by: A. Coulombs Law. B. Ohms Law. C. Joules Law. D. Kirchoffs Law.
68. In a transformer, the thickness of the core lamination for a frequency of 50 Hz is : A. 0.5 mm. B. 0.15 mm. C. 0.25 mm. D. 0.35 mm.
61. One horsepower is equal to: A. 500 Ft Lb/sec. B. 550 Ft Lb/sec. C. 600 Ft Lb/sec. D. 746 Ft Lb/sec.
69. Generation of AC is : A. More expensive than that of DC. B. More complicated than that of DC. C. More economical than that of DC. D. Less reliable than that of DC. 226
70. The normal overload setting for star delta starter is at : A. 10% overload. B. 12% overload. C. 15% overload. D. 25% overload.
78. In iron cored transformer with 8: 1 ratio is connected to 120V mains, the voltage across secondary will be: A. 20 V. B. 15 V. C. 10 V. D. 25 V.
71. The open circuit voltage of dry cell is. A. 2 volt. B. 1.2 Volt. C. 1.4 to 1.6 Volt. D. 1.5 Volt.
79. For high voltage the insulator used is: A. Trace paper. B. Melinex. C. Impregnated. D. Tissue paper.
72. The type of capacitor suitable for use in AC circuits such as in AC motor starter is : A. Paper capacitor. B. Electrolytic capacitor. C. Polorised electrolytic condenser. D. Non-polarized electrolytic capacitor.
80. Any machine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is known as. A. Motor. B. Stator. C. Generator. D. Amplifier.
73. The tenacity with which a magnetic material holds on to its magnetism is called : A. Coercive force. B. Retentivity. C. Coercivity. D. Magnetic Hysterisis.
81. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the direction of: A. Field. B. Motion of the conductor. C. Direction of induced emf. D. Direction of current.
74. In some cases motors are required to run in both direction with out sparking, the brushes must be placed at: A. MBD. B. MNA. C. GNA. D. MMF.
82. In delta connected alternators the 3 phase windings are joined in: A. Auto transformer. B. Step up transformer. C. Step down transformer. D. Voltage transformer. 83. In transformerif K is greater than one, then the transformer is called: A. Greater accuracy. B. Robust in construction. C. To provide equal amount of frequency. D. Cooling purpose.
75. In DC generator staggering slots are used to minimize ripple in the. A. Input voltage. B. Input and out put voltage. C. Output voltage. D. Output current.
84. The maximum value, positive or negative of an alternating quantity is known as: A. Time period. B. Frequency. C. Amplitude. D. Cycle.
76. The total capacitance in an electrical circuit having three capacitors of 2 micro farads, 3 micro farads and 6 micro farads connected in series: A. 11F. B. 11 Mf. C. 0.1 mF. D. 10 F.
85. The direction of motion of a DC motor is given by: A. Fleming's right hand rule. B. Fleming's left hand rule. C. Faraday's law. D. Lenz's law.
77. Series circuit at resonance is also called acceptor circuit because. A. Minimum. B. Maximum. C. Equal. D. Zero.
86. The total capacitance in electrical circuit having three capacitors of 2 mF, 3 mFand 6 mF connected in series is: 227
A. 11 F. B. 11 Mf. C. 1 F. D. 1 mF.
95. In lead acid battery (discharged state), negative plate used is. A. PbO2. B. PbSO4. C. Ni(OH)2. D. Cd(OH)2.
87. The value of Joule's mechanical equivalent of heat is: A. 4.18 Joules / calorie. B. 4.18 calorie / joule. C. 4.18 calorie. D. 4.18 Joules. 88. The power consumed by a bulb having 75 ohm resistance and drawing 200 mA current is: A. 30 Watt. B. 15 Watt. C. 3 Watt. D. 0.3 Watt.
96. In lead acid battery (charged state) negative plate used is. A. PbO2. B. PbSO4. C. Ni(OH)2. D. Cd(OH)2. 97. The emitter of a transistor is doped. A. to a lesser extent than collector. B. depends upon specification. C. heavily. D. so that most of emitter injected electron go to the base of transistor.
89. Equivalent DC value of an alternating quantity which produces heat at same rate through a circuit is known as: A. Power. B. RMS value. C. Form factor. D. Amplitude factor.
98. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is. A. the base and collector power supplies are same. B. base and collector resistors are returned to collector supply. C. it cannot be used in switching circuits. D. Beta DC varies with current and temperature.
90. By decreasing the flux, the speed a shunt motor will be: A. Remain constant. B. Increase. C. Decrease. D. Diminish because torque is insufficient.
99. In the collector feedback bias. A. the Beta DC generally varies. B. the base resistor is grounded. C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to power supply. D. difficult to set a stable Q-point.
91. In lead acid battery (charged state) electrolyte used is. A. Dilute H2SO4. B. Concentrated sulphuric acid. C. KOH. D. Unaffected.
100. Amplification factor for triode is given by. A. = rp/gm. B. = gm.rp. C. = gm/rp+gm. D. None of the above.
92. One of the factors of useful life of secondary cell is. A. Servicing. B. Environment. C. Cell properties. D. None of the above.
101. The transistor used in power amplifier have. A. large current ratings. B. large voltage ratings. C. large power dissipating capacity. D. neither of these characteristics.
93. In Ni-Cd battery( charged state ), positive plate used is. A. PbO2. B. PbSO4. C. Ni2O2. D. Cd.
102. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier are. A. Always equal. B. Out of phase. C. Always negative. D. In phase.
94. Capacity of a battery is measured in. A. Amperes-sec. B. Farads. C. Amperes-Hours. D. None of the above.
103. A shift counter is also called a. A. Ripple counter. B. Johnson counter. C. Decade counter. D. Ring counter. 228
104. The transistor of Class B push pull amplifiers are biased at : A. Cut off. B. Center of DC load line. C. Saturation. D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer.
B. Vacuum tubes. C. Chips. D. IC's. 113. The KWH meter can be classified as an: A. Deflecting instrument. B. Digital instrument. C. Recording instrument. D. Indicating instrument.
105. The varactor is usually. A. Forward biased. B. Biased. C. Unbiased. D. In the breakdown region.
114. Induction Watt Hour meters are free from: A. Phase error. B. Creeping error. C. Temperature error. D. Frequency error.
106. For normal operation of the transistor the collector diode has to be. A. Forward biased. B. Reverse biased. C. Non conducting. D. Operating in breakdown region.
115. The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instruments is: A. Air friction. B. Eddy current. C. Fluid friction. D. None of the above.
107. If an ammeter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ = mA and re = 1 K, the maximum peak to peak unclipped output is. A. 1V. B. 2V. C. 5V. D. 10V.
116. Induction instruments have found widest application as: A. Voltmeter. B. Ammeter. C. Frequency meter. D. Watt hour meter.
108. Kirchoff's law are more comprehensive than ohms law are used for solving: A. Electrical conductance. B. Electrical temperature co efficient. C. Electrical resistance network. D. Electrical net work.
117. The unit of magnetic flux in CGS system is: A. Weber. B. Maxwell. C. Tesla. D. Oersted.
109. Resistance offered by 100 cm length of wire having an area of cross section of 100 cm sq. is called: A. Specific temp. co- efficient. B. Specific conductance. C. Specific co-efficient. D. Specific resistance.
118. If an electron moves from the conduction band in to the valance band, so that a mobile electron hole pair disappear, then this process is known as: A. Collision. B. Re combination. C. Partition. D. Thermal agitation.
110. In transformer if K is less than one, then the transformer is called : A. Auto transformer. B. Step down transformer. C. Voltage transformer. D. Step up transformer.
119. A device that can rectify frequencies above 300 M Hz for beyond the capacity of the bipolar diode is: A. Zener diode. B. Step recovery diode. C. Schottky diode. D. Pin diode.
111. To reduce the iron losses in an induction motor the stampings are made of: A. Silicon steel. B. Invar steel. C. Carbon steel. D. Graphite steel.
120. To make the AC equivalent circuit, DC source must be: A. Reduced to one. B. Reduced to zero. C. Increased to high value. D. Increased to the value of AC.
112. The first generation computer was introduced with: A. Solid state transistors. 229
121. In a CC amplifier, voltage gain: A. Cannot exceed unity. B. Depends upon output impedance. C. Dependent on input signal. D. Is always constant.
D. A pneumatic device. 130. If acid is splashed in eyes, it should be washed with : A. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate. B. 5% solution of soda bi carbonate and plenty of water. C. 2% solution of nitrogen. D. 5% solution of alkali and plenty of water.
122. The main use of class C amplifier is: A. In RF circuits of a TXR above 20 K Hz. B. As stereo amplifier. C. In communication sound equipment. D. As distortion generator.
131. The speed of floppy disk when inserted in a floppy disk drive unit is: A. 180 rpm. B. 360 rpm. C. 540 rpm. D. 720 rpm.
123. The value of Alpha (Current amplification) in junction transistor is: A. Less than one. B. More than one. C. Equal to one. D. 0.707 of one.
132. Erasable PROM (EPROM) is: A. Temporary memory. B. Permanent memory. C. Volatile memory. D. Non volatile memory.
124. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve is prevented by: A. Capacitor. B. Suppressor grid. C. Control grid. D. Choke.
133. In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased by exposing it to: A. X' rays. B. Alpha rays. C. Infra red rays. D. Ultra violet rays.
125. If the control grid in a triode as an amplifier circuit is open circuited, it will work as: A. Amplifier. B. Rectifier. C. Oscillator. D. Rectifier or an amplifier.
134. In secondary memories, an amplifier and comparator are used to convert: A. Small signal to large signal. B. Large signal to small signal. C. Small signal to standard logic levels. D. Standard logic levels to small signal.
126. If by mistake, AC source in a bridge rectifier is connected across the DC terminals, it will result in burning of: A. One diode. B. Two diodes. C. Three diodes. D. Four diodes.
135. A Random Access Memory (RAM) is: A. Volatile memory. B. Non volatile memory. C. Temporary memory. D. Permanent memory.
127. The common base PNP junction transistor has reverse biased arrangement between: A. Emitter and base. B. Emitter and collector. C. Collector and base. D. Base and emitter.
136. The memory which is also called as 'Read Write Memory' is: A. ROM. B. RAM. C. PROM. D. EPROM.
128. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is reverse biased, collector current: A. Is reversed. B. Increases. C. Decreases. D. Stops.
137. The memory in which MOSFETS are used is: A. ROM. B. PROM. C. EPROM. D. Static RAM.
129. Loud speaker is: A. An electrical device. B. Mechanical device. C. An electro mechanical device. 230
138. If an amitter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ = mA and re = 1 K the maximum peak to peak unclipped output is. A. 1V. B. 2V. C. 5V. D. 10V.
147. The power factor of the generator is ratio of. A. total power and effective power. B. effective power and apparent power. C. total power and apparent power. D. none of the above. 148. The number of the ampere hours the manufacturers claim the accumulator will give is. A. rated capacity. B. actual capacity. C. % capacity. D. total capacity.
139. Which of the following is not an advantage of DC system. A. Uses single pole switching. B. Mechanical and electrical problems with commutators. C. Can be paralleled. D. No load-balancing problem.
149. For conversion of AC to DC we use. A. alternators. B. stabilizers. C. generators. D. rectifiers.
140. Slip ring are used in. A. DC generator. B. AC generator. C. TRU. D. None of these.
150. DC power is converted to AC using. A. Alternators. B. stabilizers. C. generators. D. rectifiers.
141. In aircraft DC power supply generators employed are. A. self excited shunt wound. B. separately excited. C. permanent magnet. D. none of the above.
151. The % capacity efficiency of battery is defined as the ratio of actual capacity to the rated capacity multiplied by. A. 10. B. 50. C. 60. D. 100.
142. The rms value of an A C is. A. peak/2. B. 2*peak. C. peak/v2. D. (peak)2.
152. The aircraft electrical system uses. A. AC and DC. B. AC only. C. DC only. D. accumulator.
143. The main housing of a generator is. A. yoke. B. rotor. C. winding. D. none of the above. 144. The brushes used in air craft generator are of. A. natural graphite. B. artificial graphite. C. Copper. D. iron.
153. The procedure where build up or collapse of the main EM flux is slowed down by a second and opposing magnetizing force is. A. Induction. B. slugging. C. relaying. D. none of these.
145. The standard frequency used in A/C system is. A. 400 Hz. B. 50 Hz. C. 60 Hz. D. 25 Hz.
154. The function of the inverter is. A. AC to DC conversion. B. amplify AC. C. DC to AC. D. none of these.
146. The frequency generator in cps is. A. (rev/min) x pair of poles/ 100. B. (rev/sec) x pair of poles/60. C. (rev/min) x pair of poles/ 60. D. none of the above.
155. Voltage of each cell in the lead acid accumulator should be. A. 10 v. B. 20 v. C. 9 v. D. 2 v. 231
156. The electro graphitic brushes made up of carbon absorbs moisture due to. A. fine pores. B. high conductivity. C. low conductivity. D. none of the above.
A. Parallel to the armature. B. Series parallel to the armature. C. Series with the armature. D. Parallel to the field winding. 165. Intermittent electrical faults in an A/C can be effectively located and rectified by : A. Operating faulty system in air. B. Using continuity and insulation tester. C. Replacing entire wiring system. D. Simulating conditions of systematic vibration.
157. In twin generator system ,third coil is wound on core for. A. generation of voltage. B. generation of eddy current. C. for separation of parallel relays. D. none of the above.
166. In a primary cell, the complete impurity cell formed, consists of : A. Zinc as +ve, impurity as -ve and H2SO4 as electrolyte. B. Zinc as -ve, impurities as +ve. C. Copper as +ve, impurity as -ve. D. zinc as -ve, impurity as +ve and H2SO4 as electrolyte.
158. When the A/C is subjected to sudden severe deceleration such would occur in crash landing, all fire extinguishers are automatically operated by the action of : A. Push s/w type 'C'. B. Dimmer s/w. C. Inertia s/w. D. Type 'D' circuit breaker.
167. In a simple cell, the formation of film of hydrogen during the chemical action Between the Zinc and the electrolyte is known as : A. Local action. B. Polarisation. C. Sulphation. D. De-polarisation.
159. The component which combines the function of circuit protector and switch is : A. Tumbler switch. B. Fuse. C. Micro switch. D. Circuit breaker.
168. The shelf life (storage ) of dry cells depends upon : A. Polarization. B. Local action. C. Its useful life. D. Its capacity.
160. the most suitable method operation used in CBs, to trip in the event of reverse current when used in DC circuit is. A. thermal. B. Manual. C. electromagnetic. D. both thermal and electromagnetic.
169. In secondary cells discharge rate of current multiplied by 10 gives the : A. Capacity of the cell. B. Nominal capacity of the cell. C. Effective capacity of the cell. D. Terminal voltage of the cell.
161. Slugged relay operates on the principle of : A. Faraday's law. B. Joule's law. C. Coloumb's law. D. Lenz's law.
170. If two or more cells are connected in series: A. Voltage will be same and capacity increases. B. Voltage will be same and capacity decreases. C. The total capacity will be same of single cell and voltage increases. D. Capacity and voltage be same.
162. In linear actuator, equal armature speeds in both the direction of rotation can be adjusted by means of. A. Brush rocker arm. B. electromagnetic brake. C. Input voltage regulation. D. Armature with limit switches.
171. In a lead acid cell internal short circuit is indicated by : A. Failure of SG to rise after charge to correct value. B. Excessive gassing on charge. C. No gassing on charge or a low terminal voltage. D. High voltage reading on charge.
163. Over travel of plungers, when a linear actuator is switched off, is prevented by. A. Limit switches. B. Electromagnetic brake. C. Torque reaction ears. D. Split field motor.
172. A non return valve fitted in the air inlet of battery pressurization chamber used to:
164. In rotary actuators the break coil is connected in : 232
A. Escape of electrolyte. B. Prevent fumes and gases escaping into aircraft. C. Prevent thermal run-away. D. Provide better connection.
181. During initial filling of Lead acid batteries, the level of electrolyte usually be: A. 1/4 inch above separators. B. 1/2 inch above separators. C. 3/4 inch above separators. D. 1 inch above separators.
173. The main purpose of non spill vent plug in aircraft battery is to : A. Allow the gas to escape. B. Allow the electrolyte to escape. C. Fill the electrolyte into the cell. D. Add the water into electrolyte.
182. When the first insulation test on a wet silver zinc charged battery found low, action to be taken is: A. Categorize. B. Remove the cells and retest. C. Charge the battery and retest. D. Clean the cells with boric acid, dry ,assemble and retest.
174. The positive electrode of Dry cell is made of: A. Carbon. B. Copper. C. Zinc. D. Platinum.
183. As a whole an atom is electrically neutral, due to A. Equal Number of neutrons and electrons. B. Equal and opposite charge of protons and neutrons. C. Presence of valance electrons. D. Equal and opposite charges of protons and electrons.
175. Average EMF or Nominal voltage of an alkaline cell is: A. 2 Volts. B. 2.7 Volts. C. 1.7 Volts. D. 1.2 Volts.
184. In an atom the number of electron in an orbit is given by the formula: A. 1.6 X 10 to the power of -19. B. 1.6 X 10 to the power of -18. C. 1.6 X 10 to the power of -14. D. 2n x n.
176. Negative plate of Alkaline batteries are made of: A. Steel. B. Spongy lead. C. Nickel hydroxide. D. Iron.
185. Swamping is process of inserting a : A. High value resistance in series with the collector. B. Low value resistance in series with the collector. C. Low value resistance in series with the emitter. D. High value resistance in series with the emittter.
177. After capacity test a lead acid battery should be given : A. Insulation test. B. Routine charge. C. Initial charge. D. Rest for 12 hours.
186. As a whole, an atom is electrically : A. Positively charged. B. Negtively charged. C. Neutral. D. charged particle.
178. In Digital Capacity tester 400 counts is equal to: A. 10 Ampere hour. B. 5 Ampere hour. C. 1 Ampere. D. 2 Ampere.
187. The type of emission, in which amount of emitted electrons depends upon the intensity of the light radiation, is. A. Thermionic emission. B. secondary emission. C. photo emission. D. Field emission.
179. In heavy discharge cell tester, the value of resistance connected across the volt meter is. A. 0.035 ohms. B. 0.35 ohms. C. 0.005 ohms. D. 0.030 ohms.
188. Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work at : A. 5 to 10 volts. B. 5 to 50 volts. C. 50 to 500 volts. D. (a) 500 to 5000 volts.
180. In Lead Acid batteries, the specific gravity of the electrolyte should be: A. 1.840. B. 1.640. C. 1.270. D. 1.170.
189. The additional energy required by an electron to overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called : A. Electron emission. 233
B. Work function. C. Thermionic emission. D. Surface emission.
C. Avlanche breakdown. D. Forward current. 198. To obtain recombination current as well as larger collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased : A. Forward Forward. B. Forward Reverse. C. Reverse Forward. D. Reverse Reverse.
190. The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to control the : A. Input voltage applied to cathode. B. Input voltage applied to anode. C. Flow of electrons between cathode and anode. D. Flow of electrons from anode to cathode.
199. A medium in which an electric field can exist without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of electricity or insulator is called: A. Dielectric strength. B. Breakdown voltage. C. Breakdown in electric field. D. Dielectric.
191. Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is controlled by : A. Focusing anode. B. accelerating anode. C. control grid. D. electrostatic deflecting plates. 192. The main function of accelerating electrode in an ESCRT is to : A. Control intensity of light spot. B. Eliminate highly divergent electrons. C. Focusing the beam into a spot. D. Deflecting the beam into the screen.
200. The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of : A. Inter electrode capacitance. B. Inter electrode inductance. C. Shielding action of grid. D. Kink effect at low plate potential. 201. In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted between : A. Cathode and plate. B. Plate and screen grid. C. Cathode and screen grid. D. Cathode and grid.
193. The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is achieved by : A. varying first anode voltage. B. varying second anode voltage. C. varying grid voltage. D. varying accelerating electrode.
202. The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to reduce inter electrode : A. Capacitance between anode and grid. B. Capacitance between cathode and anode. C. Inductance between cathode and grid. D. Inductance between cathode and anode.
194. The substance which have overlapping valance and conduction band are termed as : A. Semiconductors. B. Insulators. C. Conductors. D. Di-electric.
203. The reduction in plate current with increasing plate voltage is called: A. Mutual characteristics. B. Kink effect. C. Amplification factor. D. Power factor.
195. A PN junction diode can be formed by doping silicon with : A. Antimony and phosphorous. B. Arsenic and antimony. C. Boron and gallium. D. Arsenic and indium. 196. When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of semiconductor formed is : A. N type extrinsic. B. P type extrinsic. C. N type intrinsic. D. P type intrinsic.
204. For deflection of the electron beam around the center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by applying the signal to : A. x-x plates. B. Control grid. C. Final anode. D. y-y plates.
197. In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to electric field causing collisions of charge carriers results in : A. Zener breakdown. B. Transient current.
205. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is known as :a. A. Doping. B. Mixing. C. Biasing. D. Super imposing. 234
206. Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: A. 0.7 V. B. 0.5 V. C. 0.3 V. D. 0.03 V.
B. Applied voltage. C. Cut-in voltage. D. Breakdown voltage. 215. In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which reverse current rises sharply is known as : A. Knee voltage. B. Applied voltage. C. Barrier potential. D. Reverse breakdown voltage.
207. An atom is said to be stable when its valance orbit contains : A. 16 electrons. B. 8 Electrons. C. 4 Electrons. D. 2 Electrons. 208. The inherent property of an atom is to : A. Attract another atom. B. Stay as free atom. C. Accelerate at high speed. D. Achieve stable state.
216. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC current 2 A, is equal to. A. 4 ohms. B. 0.4 ohms. C. 40 ohms. D. 10 ohms.
209. Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is: A. 0.1 V. B. 0.2 V. C. 0.3 V. D. 0.7 V.
217. The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to : A. Convert AC into DC. B. convert DC into AC. C. Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC. D. Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC.
210. Barrier potential decreases with temperature at the rate of : A. 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. B. 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. C. 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. D. 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp.
218. The heavily doped region in a transistor is : A. Base. B. Emitter. C. Collector. D. Depletion layer. 219. If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased (ie, emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse biased ), then the emitter and collector current will be A. Zero. B. Maximum. C. Zero an maximum respectively. D. Maximum and zero respectively.
211. The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve is to : A. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and grid. B. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and anode. C. Eliminate undesirable kink effect. D. Eliminate electron cloud.
220. In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter depletion layer when compared to the width of collector depletion layer is : A. Equal. B. Smaller. C. Larger and smaller respectively. D. Larger.
212. The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion layer stops growing is known as : A. Surface leakage current. B. Minority carrier current. C. Transient current. D. Reverse breakdown current.
221. The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN transistor collector region causes : A. Base current. B. Emitter current. C. Breakdown of transistor. D. Leakage current.
213. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC current of 100 mA , is equal to : A. 5 ohm. B. 50 ohm. C. 25 ohm. D. 0.1 ohm.
222. While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor, the point of intersection with the calculated base current is known as: A. Saturation point. B. Cutoff point.
214. The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to: A. Barrier potential. 235
C. Quiescent point. D. Breakdown point.
231. In a common collector amplifier, output signal is taken from : A. Across the collector and earth. B. Across the base and emitter. C. Across the emitter resistor. D. Across the collector and base.
223. The process of applying appropriate voltage to a transistor is called : A. Voltage regulation. B. Forward biasing. C. Biasing. D. Reverse biasing.
232. The phase difference of 180 Deg between the input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a common emitter amplifier is called : A. Amplification factor. B. Voltage reversal. C. Phase reversal. D. Current reversal.
224. Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the input is fed between common terminal and one of the other two and output is taken between common and one of the remaining terminal is called : A. Biasing. B. Configuration. C. Feed back. D. Coupling.
233. The small signal amplifiers are rated for a maximum power output of : A. 1/2 Watt. B. 1 Watt. C. 5 Watts. D. 10 Watts.
225. The method of biasing, in which gain reduces due to negative feedback is : A. Base bias. B. Emitter feedback bias. C. Collector feedback bias. D. Voltage divider bias.
234. The main draw back of direct coupling is : A. Input impendence is very low. B. Drift. C. Output impendence is very high. D. output impendence is very low.
226. A coupling capacitor connects : A. A grounded point to an un grounded point. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. C. A grounded point to another grounded point. D. an ungrounded point another ungrounded point.
235. The maximum possible collector efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is: A. 15 %. B. 25 %. C. 45 %. D. 50 %.
227. A by pass capacitor connects : A. A grounded point to an ungrounded point. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. C. A grounded point to another grounded point. D. An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point.
236. The maximum possible overall efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is : A. 10 %. B. 25 %. C. 50 %. D. 75%.
228. Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity during amplification of a signal avoided by the use of : A. Capacitor. B. Resistor. C. Inductor. D. Thermister.
237. In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : A. Capacitors. B. Inductance. C. An auto-transformer. D. Tank circuit.
229. One common feature of capacitors when used for coupling and bypass is that they : A. Block AC and short DC to ground. B. Block DC and short AC to ground. C. Improve current gain. D. Are used only in output stage.
238. The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely used oscillator for frequencies in the range o. A. 5 HZ to 1 MHZ. B. 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ. C. 20 HZ to 3 MHZ. D. 30 HZ to 30 MHZ.
230. A saturated SCR can turned off only by : A. Removing the gate pulse. B. Reducing the gate trigger. C. Increasing the gate trigger to saturation. D. Reducing the load current below the holding current.
239. The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of A. 5000 and above. 236
B. 10,000 and above. C. 15,000 and above. D. 20,000 and above.
B. Load current only. C. Phase difference. D. Field excitation current.
240. In Hartley oscillators, a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : A. A tank circuit. B. An inductance. C. A capacitance. D. An auto-transformer.
249. In three phase alternator synchronizing the phases are connected in the proper order of: A. RYB. B. RBY. C. BYR. D. YBR.
241. High energy ignition unit gives : A. 500 sparks/sec. B. 60 sparks / sec. C. 2 sparks / minute. D. 60 sparks/ minute.
250. In frequency wild generator the secondary winding of the compounding transformer are in. A. Series with three phases of generator. B. Series with compounding rectifier. C. Parallel with three phases of generator. D. Parallel with compounding rectifier.
242. In HFIU the gap between the ionizing electrode and one main electrode is. A. 0.093". B. 0.001". C. 0.01". D. 0.039". 243. In HFIU the gap between the two main electrodes is. A. 0.01". B. 0.001". C. 0.093". D. 0.93".
251. In aircraft rotary inverter, out put voltage can be varied by: A. Adjusting the series field rheostat. B. Voltage regulator adjustment. C. Increasing or decreasing current in series field and armature. D. Adjusting shunt field rheostat. 252. The speed and voltage of rotary inverter can be adjusted by a : A. Rheostat in the series field. B. Trimmer in the equalizing field. C. Rheostat in the shunt field. D. Rheostat in the equalizing field.
244. The purpose of choke in HEIU is to : A. Control duration of discharge. B. Control input supply. C. Control the circuit. D. None of the above.
253. In modern a/c generators during varying speed & load condition the effect of armature reaction is controlled by. A. Interpoles. B. Interpoles & shifting of brushes. C. Compensating windings. D. Interpoles and compensating windings.
245. The functional test on HFIU is carried out with an input voltage of : A. 24 V. B. 12V. C. 28V. D. 16 V. 246. The purpose of ignition in a/c is to : A. Provide air and fuel. B. Ignite fuel and air mixture. C. Control flow of air and fuel. D. None of the above.
254. The field magnets and armature core in a generator are made of lamination to minimize the effect of: A. Eddy current. B. Commutation. C. Sparking at the brushes. D. Hysterisis loss.
247. Rotating magnet type magneto in one revolution produce. A. 2 sparks. B. 4 sparks. C. 5 sparks. D. 8 sparks.
255. The magnetic field in DC generator is provided by the field system consisting of: A. Field magnet and current. B. Field coil and magnet. C. Yoke and armature. D. Armature and voltage.
248. Armature reaction in aircraft alternators is determined by: A. Power factor and load current.
256. Lap winding is used in the armature for: A. High current and low voltage. B. High voltage and low current. 237
C. High voltage and high current. D. Low voltage and low current.
265. In two coil method of stabilization, the series stabilizer coil is used to: A. Assist the shunt stabilizer coil. B. Assist the main coil. C. Oppose the shunt stabilizer coil. D. Oppose the ballast resistance.
257. The distance measured in terms of armature slots between the two sides of the coil is known as: A. Front pitch. B. Coil span. C. Pole pitch. D. Back pitch.
266. The feed back resistance in a voltage regulator is connected in series with: A. Shunt field. B. Ballast resistance. C. Stabilizer coil. D. Trimmer resistance.
258. Wave winding is used in the armature for: A. High current and low voltage. B. High voltage and low current. C. High voltage and high current. D. Low current and low voltage.
267. In negative feed back stabilization a fall in voltage creates a resultant flux that. A. Assist the main coil flux. B. Opposes the main coil flux. C. Assist the stabilizing coil flux. D. Opposes the stabilizing coil flux.
259. Auxiliary power unit supplies power in the event of : A. TRU failure. B. Generator failure. C. Engine failure. D. None of the above.
268. In equalized voltage control system, equalizer coils are connected between: A. Negative of the two generators. B. Positive and negative of generators. C. Any set of positive brushes. D. Negative brush ring of each generator. 269. The definite drop to the voltage load characteristics of shunt generator in parallel op. A. Decompounding coil. B. Stabilizer resistance. C. Shunt coil. D. Equalizing coil.
260. Cooling centrifugal fan fitted at driving end of a DC generator is meant for. A. heat dissipation when generator is not running. B. to assist slip stream air flow during flight. C. to cool generator during ground run. D. to facilitate bench testing. 261. The starter generator will run at its optimum efficiency if it is: A. run at maximum operating speed. B. run at 30% total load current. C. Provided with additional interpole to counteract the voltage. D. Provided with slip stream cooling system.
270. In compensated decompounding system, the main coil of voltage regulator is connected. A. In series with master regulator carbon pile. B. In series with main coil. C. In parallel with master regulator carbon pile. D. In parallel with M.R carbon pile.
262. The purpose of bi-metal ring in armature of carbon pile voltage regulator is to: A. Provide compensation for variation in temperature. B. Dissipate the heat. C. Connect the pile into the field circuit. D. Enable the core to be locked in position.
271. In master regulator system the carbon pile of master regulator is connected. A. In series with the fields of parallel generators. B. In series with operating coil of main regulators. C. Across the operating coils. D. In series with decompounding coil.
263. Trimmer resistance in voltage regulator is used: A. to increase the current. B. to raise the voltage. C. for dip setting. D. for minor setting of voltage in aircraft.
272. When shunt generators are operated in parallel, the satisfactory distribution of fairly. A. De compounding coil. B. Main winding of individual regulators. C. Equalizing coil. D. Compensated de compounding of regulator.
264. The zener diode in solid state voltage regulator is used to. A. Amplify the output in the emitter circuit of TR3. B. Control the initial current to the base of TR2. C. Switch on the transistor TR1. D. Establish the system operating voltage.
273. If the carbon pile regulator hunts on application of load, the possible cause can be. A. Core screw is loose. B. High resistance in piles. 238
C. Open circuit in feed back resistance. D. Pile compression screw is out of adjustment.
A. Depends on the load carried by the generator B. Is controlled by the reverse-current cutout relay point clearance C. Is increased when the external load is greater than the generator output
274. In Carbon pile voltage regulator, voltage setting is done by: A. Pile compression screw. B. Magnet core screw. C. Pile screw. D. Decompounding coil.
283. What is a cause of generator brush arcing? A. Seating brushes with no. 000 standpaper B. Carbon dust particles C. Low spring tension
275. In an aircraft, the generator voltage varies with load, the cause may be: A. Carbon pile electric circuit of regulator faulty. B. Generator output low. C. Regulator out of adjustment. D. Regulated voltage too high.
284. When ac generators are operated in parallel, the A. Amperes and frequency must both be equal B. Frequency and voltage must both be equal C. Amperes and voltage must both be equal 285. The starting current of a series-wound dc motor, in passing through both the field and armature windings, produces a A. Low starting torque B. Speed slightly lighter when unloaded C. High starting torque
276. Operation of Fire extinguisher is categorized under: A. Essential services. B. Non-essential services. C. Vital services. D. Allied services.
286. Which motor would be most likely to have an armature brake? A. Starter motor B. Landing light refraction motor C. Inverter drive motor
277. In split bus bar system, when battery relay fails to close it contacts, this will result. A. Essential AC consumers. B. Vital DC consumers. C. Charge the batteries. D. Essential DC consumers.
287. The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of A. Interpoles B. Shaded poles C. Drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field
278. Some electric motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions so that the A. Speed of the motor can be more closely controlled B. Power output of the motor can be more closely controlled C. Motor can be operated in either direction 279. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of A. An out of round commutator B. A broken field lead C. A shorted armature
288. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the A. Strength of magnetic field B. Number of conductors in the armature C. Speed at which the armature rotates
280. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type? A. Slotted B. Hook C. Rink
289. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a part of the A. Armature assembly B. Field assembly C. Brush assembly
281. What is the principal advantage of the serieswound dc motor? A. High starting torque B. Suitable for constant speed use C. Low starting torque
290. How many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving field type for each revolution of the rotor? A. Four B. Three C. Six
282. If a generator is equipped wsith a vibrator type voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain open
291. If the reverse current cutout relay contact . . . . .to open after the generator output has dropped below 239
battery potential, current will flow through the ………… A. In the normal direction and through the shunt opposite the normal direction B. And the shunt field opposite the normal direction C. Opposite the normal direction and through the . . . .field in the normal direction
298. An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the A. Amperage available for use B. Total amperes being used in the airplane C. Rate of current used to charge the battery 299. Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator? A. Reduce field strength B. Overcome armature reactiong C. Reduce arcing at the brushes
292. How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric motor armature operate? A. Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake cog from a stationary notch when the armature reaches a certain speed and magnetic force re-engages the cog when the electrical power is turned off. B. A friction brake is applied by a magnet and released by a spring. C. A friction brake is applied by a spring and released by a magnet.
300. To test generator or motor armature windings for opens A. Place armature in a growler and connect a 110V test light on adjacent segments; light should light B. Check adjacent segments on commutator with an ohmmeter on the high resistance scale C. Use a 12/24v test light between the armature core segments and the shaft
293. In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes with the holder A. The brush pigtail B. Brush spring tension C. Undercutting the mica on the commutator
301. What is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes? A. Left side- green, right side-red, rear aft - white B. Left side_ red, right side-green, rear aft - white C. Left side- white, right side-green, rear aft - red
294. A series-wound dc electric motor will normally require A. More current at high rpm than at low rpm B. Approximately the same current throughout its operating range of speed C. More current at low rpm than at high rpm
302. To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a dc generator undercut? A. One-half the width of the mica B. Equal to twice the width of the mica C. Equal to the width of the mica
295. The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current carrying capabilities, are designed primarily A. To prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection B. For uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection and disconnection C. For permanent connection to the circuit
303. A voltage regulator controls generator output by A. Introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of overload B. Shorting out field coil in the event of overload C. Varying current flow to generator field coil 304. Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane generator? A. Externally grounded B. Series wound C. Compound wound
296. Aluminium wire must be stripped very carefully because A. High resistance will develop in stripping nicks B. Stripping nicks can cause short circuits C. Individual strands will break easily after being nicked
305. What is the most accurate type of frequency measuring instrument? A. Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit B. Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields C. Electromagnets using one permanent magnet
297. The commutator of a generator A. Changes direct current produced in the armature into alternating current as it is taken from the armature B. Changes alternating current produced in the armatureintodirectcurrentasit is taken from the armature C. Reverses the current in the field coils at the proper time in order to produce direct current
306. During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is usually accomplished by A. Auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel heat exchanger B. An integral fan C. An external motor-driven fan 307. What does a rectifier do? 240
A. Changes direct current into alternating current B. Changes alternating current into direct current C. Reduces voltage
315. For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by A. Crimping B. Soldering C. Crimping and soldering
308. What type of instrument is used for measuring very high values of resistance? A. Megohmmeter B. Shunt type ohmmeter C. Multimeter
316. Which of the following factors must be taken into consideration when determining the wire size to use for an aircraf tinstallation? 1. Mechanical strength 2. Allowable powerloss 3. Ease of installation 4. Resistance of current return path through the aircraft structure 5. Permissible voltage drop. 6. Current carrying capability of the conductor. 7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent) A. 2,5,6,7 B. 1,2,4,5 C. 2,4,6,7
309. When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short circuit, it should be A. In the circuit B. Checked with a milliamp ammeter C. Disconnected from the circuit 310. When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it A. Has a full charge before removing it from the circuit B. Has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit C. Is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit
317. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following should be considered? 1. Mechanical strength. 2. Allowable powerloss. 3. Ease of installation. 4. Amount of current to be carried. 6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). A. 1,3,5 B. 4,5,6 C. 1,2,3
311. Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery? A. A high internal resistance condition B. Excessive current draw from the battery C. Constant current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity 312. How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together? A. Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter B. The output voltage will be high C. The transformer will get hot in normal operation
318. How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle? A. Staggered along the length of the bundle B. Grouped together to facilitate inspection C. Enclosed in a conduit
313. Which of the following are the major parts of a de motor? 1. Armature assembly. 2. Field assembly 3. Brush assembly 4. Commutator 5. Pole piece 6. Rheostat 7. End frame A. 1,2,3,7 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 3,5,6,7
319. What is the minimum bend radii for an electrical wire bundle? A. Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle B. Five times the outside diameter of the bundle C. Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle 320. When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is A. One B. Two C. Three
314. (1) There are three basic types of dc motors; series shunt, and compound. (2) In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of relatively few turns of heavy wire, are connected in series with the armature winding. Regarding the above statements, A. Only no. 1 is true B. Only no. 2 is true C. Both no. 1 and 2 are true
321. An/ms electrical connectors are specifically designed to meet A. Technical standard order (TSO) specification B. Military specifications 241
C. International civil aviation organization (ICAO) standards
C. Spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches 331. If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the lights are most likely connected A. In series with each other and parallel to the switch B. In series with each other and in series with the switch C. Parallel to each other and in series with the switch
322. The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an ms electrical connector is by A. Crimping B. Soldering C. Crimping and soldering
332. Oil canning of the sides of aluminium or steel electrical junction boxes is considered to be A. Normal operation in vibration prone areas B. A shorting hazard C. Acceptable operation
323. The pin section of an an/ms connector is normally installed on A. The power supply side of a circuit B. The ground side of a circuit C. Either side of a circuit (makes no differenct)
333. Electricl wiring installed in aircraft without special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. When bundling open wiring, the bundles should A. Be limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical fault B. Include at least one shielded cable to provide good bonding of the bundle to the airframe C. Be limited to a minimum bend radius of live times the bundle diameter to avoid excessive stresses on the cable insulation
324. The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling the A. Speed of the alternator B. Voltage output of the de exciter C. Resistance in the rotor windings 325. If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by A. Dusting the cable with powdered graphite B. Dusting the cable with powdered soapstone C. Applying a light coat of dielectric grease
334. During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that A. Only locknuts have been used for terminal attachment to the studs B. The terminal studs are anchored against rotation C. Only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used for terminal attachment to the studs
326. Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object the primary structure. One purpose of grounding is to A. Prevent current return paths B. Allow static charge accumulation C. Prevent development of radio frequency potentials
335. What protection to wires and cables does conduit provide when used in aircraft installations? A. Electromagnetic B. Mechanical C. Structural
327. What is normally used to bond noncontinuous stainless steel aircraft components? A. Stainless steel jumpers B. Copper jumpers C. Aluminium jumpers
336. Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring? A. Support the bundle to structure and/or solid fluid lines to prevent chafing damage B. Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to compensate for large changes in temperature C. Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure
328. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in A. Volts B. Ohms C. Amperes 329. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in A. Parallel with the light B. Series with the light C. Series parallel with the light switch
337. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, the voltmeter will read A. Correctly B. Low voltage C. Backwards
330. Circuits that must be opened only in an emergency or whose inadvertent activation could endanger system frequently employ A. Guarded switches B. Push-pull type circuit breakers only (no switches) 242
338. When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the A. Input voltage must be maintained at a constant value B. Output voltage must be maintained at a constant value C. Input voltage must be varied
346. Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes should be selected to replace a no. 6 aluminium electrical cable? A. No. 4 B. No. 6 C. No. 8
339. The nominal rating of electrical switches refer to continuous A. Current rating with the cotnacts open B. Voltage rating with the contacts closed C. Current rating with the contacts closed
347. In installations where the ammeter isinthegeneratororalternatorlead, and the regulator system does not limit the maximum current that the generatoror alternator can deliver,the ammeter can be redlined a twhat percent of the generator or alternator rating? A. 50 B. 75 C. 100
340. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of A. Asbestos B. Cadmum plated steel C. Stainless tell
348. Which statement relating to electric wiring is true? A. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable, it should be determined that the strength of the cable to terminal joint is at least twice the tensile strength of the cable B. When attaching a terminal to the end of an electric cable, it should be determined that the strength of the cable to terminal joint is at least equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself C. All electric cable splices should be covered with soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for mechanical protection against external abrasion.
341. To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will largely elilminate and provide a steady direct current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in A. Parallel B. Series C. Series/parallel 342. The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are A. Current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop B. The voltage and amperage of the load it must carry C. The system voltage and cable length
349. Bonding connections should be tested for A. Resistance value. B. Amperage value C. Reactance
343. The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single circuit controlled by a single switch which has an on position and an off position, with no additional positions possible. This switch is referred to as a A. Double-pole, single-throw (DPST), two position switch B. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), two position switch C. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two position switch
350. What kind of switch should you install in a single wire circuit that required the switch to be manually held in the on position? A. Single-pole, single-throw(SPST), two-position normally open (NO) B. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), single-position C. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), single-position normally open (NO)
344. Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of A. Thermocouples B. Shunts C. Fuses
351. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the A. Circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible B. Circuit and should be located as close to the unit as possible C. Electrical unit in the circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible
345. How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wirig? A. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with strigers or ribs B. Coaxial cables are routed at high agles to stringers or ribs C. Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible
352. How should a voltmeter be connected? A. In series with the source B. In parallel with the load C. In series with the load. 243
A. Never needs replacing B. Always eliminates the need of a switch C. Resettable and reusable
353. A circuit protection deice called a current limiter is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be used in A. 400 cycle ac circuits B. Heavy power circuits C. Starter-generator circuits
361. What is the advantage of a current limiter? A. It breaks circuit quickly B. It can be reset easily C. It will take overload for a short period
354. If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should A. Coat the connector with grease B. Use a special moisture-proof type C. Spray the connector with varnish or zinc-chromate
362. Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkhoads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc. The wires should be protected from chafing by A. Wrapping with electrical tape B. Using a rubber grommet C. Wrapping with plastic
355. The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are A. Circuit breakers, resistors and current limiters B. Circuit breakers, fuses and current limiters C. Circuit breakers, capacitors and current limiter plug-ins mechanical reset types
363. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers A. Should not be used as circuit protective devices B. Are useful where only temporary overloads are normally encountered C. Must be used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft
356. If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire? A. Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield B. Wrap with friction tape C. Pass through conduit
364. A certain switch is described as a single-pole, double throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the number of A. Circuits each pole can complete through the switch B. Terminals at which current can enter or leave the switch C. Places at which the operating device (toggle, plunger etc.) Will come to rest and at the same time open or close a circuit
357. In the american wire gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related to its A. Combined resistance and current-carrying capacity. B. Current carrying capacity C. Cross sectional area
365. When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which the selection of electric cable size should be based are A. Applied voltage ad allowable voltage drop B. Current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop C. Current carrying capacity and applied voltage
358. What is the allowable voltage drop for a no. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation? Use the formula VD = RLA VD = voltage drop R = resistance per ft =0.00644 L = length of wire A = amperes A. 1/2 V B. 1 V C. 4 V
366. What is an important factor in selecting aircarft fuses? A. The current exceeds a predetermined value. B. The voltage rating should be lower than the maximum circuit voltage C. Capacity matches the needs of the circuit.
359. What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches for known continuous load current applications? A. To calculate the voltage drop across the circuit B. To prevent short circuits in the motor field windings C. To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life
367. The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system protects the A. Lights from too much current B. Wiring from too much current C. Wiring from too much voltage 368. One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is A. That ac electrical motors can be reveresed while dc motors cannot
360. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse? 244
B. Greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down C. That the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power input is required.
376. The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled by the A. Number of poles and the speed of the motor B. Voltage regulator C. Dc stator field current
369. Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated? A. To reduce the core reluctance B. To increase the core permeability C. To reduce the effects of eddy currents
377. When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should A. Be removed from the generator housing. B. Show high resistance when the meter prods are connected to the terminals of the coil C. Show very low resistance if it is a series field coil
370. Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all normal operation and battery furnished dc electrical power for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by A. Inverters which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power B. Alternators which use the aircraft's generators as a source of power C. Rectifiers which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power
378. The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends upon the material from which it is constructed and which of the folllowing? A. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the applied voltage B. The number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current(ampere) passing through the coil. C. The size (cross section) and the number of turns of wire in the coil and the applied voltage.
371. The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that contains twice as many loops as the primary will be A. Greater and amperage less than in the primary B. Greater and the amperage greater than in the primary. C. Less and the amperage greater than in the primary
379. A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the A. Resistance in the generator output circuit B. Current in the generator output circuit C. Resistance of the generator field circuit
372. If the positive field lead between a generator and a generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output would indicate A. Zero voltage B. Residual voltage C. Normal voltage
380. The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive voltage is present by A. Opening the shunt field circuit B. Opening and resetting the field control relay C. Breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field control relay
373. What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism? A. Flash the fields. B. Reseat the brushes C. Energize the armature
381. When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single lead, their controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. The equalizer circuit operates by A. Increasing the output of the low generator to equal the output of the high generator B. Decreasing the output of the high generator to equal the output of the low generator C. Increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal
374. The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage can easily be increased or decreased A. By means of a inverter B. By means of a rectifier C. By means of a transformer
382. Which of the following is considered to be an intermittent duty circuit? A. Anticollision light circuit B. Landing light circuit C. Instrument panel light circuit
375. Which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anticollision light? A. Install a switch independent of the position light switch B. Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail safe operation C. Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft position
383. The most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound dc generator is to vary the 245
A. Current flowing through the shunt field coils B. Total effective field strength by changing the reluctance of the magnetic circuit C. Resistance of the series field circuit
B. Short in the gear safety switch C. Short in the up limit switch 386. If any one generator in a 24 volt dc system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is A. An out-of-adjustment voltage regulator B. Shorted or grounded wiring C. A defective reverse current cutout relay.
384. (Ref to Fig. 18) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
387. How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor be changed? A. Interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source B. Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings C. Rotate the positive brush one commutator segment 388. Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery changing through the use of A. A stepdown transformer and a rectifier B. An inverter and voltage dropping resistor C. A dynamotor with a hall-wave dc output 389. During inspection of an anticollision light installation for condition and proper operation, it should be determined that A. Electrical or mechanical inter-connections are provided so that the anticollision light will operate at
385. (Refer to Figure 19) Upon completion of the landing gear extension cycle, the green light
illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the probable cause? A. Short in the down limit switch
all times that the position light switch is in the on position 246
B. An appropriately rated fuse is in position at the light to protect the connecting wiring against electrical faultsw C. The anticollision light can be operated independently of the position lights.
B. Both fields are shunted across the armature C. The field and armature are shunted with a capacitor 398. The poles of a generator are laminated to A. Reduce flux losses B. Increase flux concentration C. Reduce eddy current losses
390. Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contactors and inverters are best accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by A. The equipment manufacturer B. The FAA C. Aircraft technical orders
399. What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon? A. Voltage B. RPM C. Current 400. The generator rating is usually found stamped on the A. Firewall B. Generator C. Engine
391. A battery-generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have A. A transformer B. An inverter C. A variable resistor between the battery and generator
401. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the A. Field windings B. Field shoes C. Armature
392. A relay is A. A magnetically operated switch B. A device which converts electrical energy to kinetic energy C. Any conductor which receives electrical energy and passes it on with little or no resistance
402. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit component and some value of resistance is read A. The component has continuity and is open B. Either the component or the circuit is shorted C. The component has continuity and is not open
393. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change A. The frequency of alternating current B. Direct current to alternating current C. Alternating current to diret current
403. CSD driven generators are usually cooled by A. Oil spray B. An integral fan C. Both ram air and an integral fan
394. What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input voltage? A. Primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary B. Primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary C. Primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary
404. A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of A. A synchronous electric motor B. An infinitely variable mechanical gearing system C. A variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor 405. Integrated drive generator must be replaced if A. The KVA has been exceeded by 10% B. The unit has an overspeed of 10% of its design operational speed C. The pressure differential button is extended.
395. In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true? A. Real power is zero B. Real power is greater than apparent power C. Real power equals apparent power.
406 If the IDG scavenge oil filter is contaminated with chunks or pieces of metal A. Change the oil at 25 hour intervals B. Remove and replace the idg C. Replace athe oil and filter at 25 hour intervals
396. How are generators rated? A. Watts at rated voltage B. Amperes at rated voltage C. The impedance at rated voltage 397. How is a shunt wound dc generator connected? A. One field is shunted across the other
407. When necessary during operation, csd disconnect is usually accomplished by A. A switch in the cockpit B. Circuit breaker activation C. A shear section in the input shaft 247
416. The angle-of-attach detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream A. Is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft B. Is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft C. Is parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft
408. A csd unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a malfunction such as overtemperature, may be reconnected A. Automatically if the temperature falls back into the normal operating range B. Manually by the flightcrew C. Only on the ground by maintenance personnel
417. (1) When an airplane is slowed below approximately 20 mph, the antiskid system automatically deactivates to give the pilot full control of the brakes for maneuvering and parking (2) An antiskid system consists basically of three components; wheelspeed sensors, control box and control valves. Regarding the above statements, A. Only no 1 is true B. Only no 2 is true C. Both no 1 and no 2 are true
409. The purpose of antiskid generators is to A. Monitor hydraulic pressure applied to brakes B. Indicate when a tire skid occurs C. Measure wheel rotational speed and any speed changes 410. In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control valve which A. Acts as a bypass for the debooster cylinders B. Relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake C. Equalizes the hydraulic pressure in adjacent brake
418. In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by A. An electrical sensor B. A discriminator C. A sudden rise in brake pressure
411. An antiskid system is A. A hydraulic system B. An electrohydraulic system C. An electrical system
419. Which of the following functions does a skid control system perform? 1. Normal skid control. 2. Normal braking. 3. Fail safe protection. 4. Locked wheel skid control 5. Touchdown protection 6. Takeoff protection. A. 1,2,3,4 B. 1,3,4,5 C. 1,2,5,6
412. Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by A. A centrifugal switch B. A switch in the cockpit C. The rotation of the wheels above a certain speed 413. A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of the following? A. Alierons, elevators, speed brake and steerable fuselage landing gear. B. Elevators, speed brake, flaps and stablizer trim C. Aerodynamically actuated slats, elevators, flaps and speed brake
420. In the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot flow in the antiskid control box because A. Landing gear squat switch is open B. Landing gear down and lock switch is open C. Landing gear antiskid valves are open
414. The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by A. An 80 knot airspeed sensor B. An ignition system switch not set for takeoff C. A thrust lever
421. At what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function? A. When wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid B. When wheel rotation indicates hydroplaning condition C. Anytime the wheel is rotating
415. (1) An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pilot and static air pressures surrounding the aircraft at any moment of flight. (2) An air speed indicator measures the differential between pilot and cabin air pressures at any of flight. Regarding the above statements, A. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true B. Only no. 2 is true C. Only no. 1 is true
422. (1) An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point. (2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure. Regarding the above statements, A. Only no. 1 is true B. Only no. 2 is true C. Both no. 1 and no. 2 are true 248
428. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound? A. Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced B. Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded C. Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded
423. When an airplane's primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will show A. Flap/slat position B. Speed break position C. Trim position
429. (Ref to fig. 20) What will illuminate the amber indicator flight? A. Closing the nosewheel gear full retract switch B. Retanding one throttle and closing the left wheel gear locked down switch C. Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches
424. The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some flight aircraft in activated by A. Static air pressure B. Positive air pressure C. Negative air pressure 425. Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall A. Is imminent B. Is starting to occur C. First affects the outboard portions of the wings
430. (Refer to Fig 20) what is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition? A. All gears up and one throttle retarded B. Any gear up and both throttles retarded C. Any gear not down and locked and one throttle retarded
426. (Refer to fig. 19) What is the indication of there landing gear position light under the following conditions: Aircraft on jacks, Landing gear in transit, Warning horn sounding A. Extinguished B. Flashing C. Illuminated
431. Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located? A. On the main gear shock strut B. On the landing gear drag brace C. On the pilot's control pedestal 432. What safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut? A. Uplock switch B. Downlock switch C. Ground safety switch
427. (Refer to fig. 19) Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in up position and the gear does not retract? A. Replace electrical wire no. 15 B. Replace the down limit switch
C. Replace electrical wire no. 12
433. Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test? 249
A. Landing gear safety switch B. Red warning light bulb C. Gear downlock microswitch
437. When a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at littoff, which system is deactivated? A. Landing gear position system B. Antiskid system C. Aural warning system
434. Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications? A. Red light for unsafe gear, no light for geardown, green light for gear up B. Green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear C. Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up
438. Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to A. Limit generator output B. Control electrical units automatically C. Prevent overcharging of a battery
435. In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door operation is controlled by A. Sequence valves B. Shuttle valves C. Microswitches
439. When installing pneumatic surface bonded type deicer boots A. Remove all paint from the area to be covered by the delcer boot B. Apply a solution of glycerin and water between the rubber and the wing skin C. Apply a sllastic compound between the boot and the wing skin 440. Which of the following are found in a laminated integral
436. What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft? A. A visual indicator showing gear position
B. A light which comes on which the gear is fully down and locked C. A horn or other aural device and a red warning light
electrically heated windshield system? 1. Autotransformer 2. Heat control relay 250
3. Heat control toggle switch 4. 24v dc power supply 5. Indicating light A. 1,2,4,5 B. 2,3,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5
448. What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots? A. To equalize the air pressure to the left and right wings B. To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically C. To distribute anti icing field to the deicer boots
441. What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system? A. Shuttle valve B. Vaccum pump C. Distributor valve
449. What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system? A. To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration B. To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer boots C. To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vaccum system
442. What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft? A. Vane-type pump B. Gear type pump C. Piston type pump
450. Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated windshields? A. Imbedded in the glass B. Attached to the glass C. Around the glass
443. Which of the following regulates the vaccum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots dellated when the pneumatic deicing system is off? A. Distributor valve B. Pressure regulator C. Suction relief valve
451. Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing termal anti-icing system are A. First stage of the aircycle turbine, turbo compressor B. Compressor bleed air, aircraft electrical system C. Combustion heater, exhaust gases
444. What may be used to clean deicer boots? A. Unleaded gasoline or jet a fuel B. Naphtha C. Soap and water
452. What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield system? A. Thermal overheal switches B. Thermistors C. Electronic amplifiers.
445. Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system usually operated during flight? A. Continuously while the aircraft is in flight B. In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to remove ice as it accumulates C. Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur
453. Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the A. Temperature sensing elements B. Autotransformers C. Conductive coating
446. Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system? A. Relatively steady readings on the pressure gauge and fluctuating readings on the vaccum gauge B. Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vaccum gauge C. Pressure and vaccum gauges will fluctuate as the deicer boots inflate and deflate
454. Which of the following connects vaccum to the deicer boots when the systems is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight? A. Vaccum relief valve B. Ejector C. Distributor valve 455. How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations? A. By preventing the formation of ice B. By breaking up ice formations C. By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up
447. What method is usually emloyed to control the temperature of an anti-icing system using surface combusion heaters? A. Thermo-cycling switches B. Thermostats in the cockpit C. Heater fuel shutoff valves
456. Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated? A. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps distrubance of the airflow to a minimum 251
B. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airflow C. Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump
464. What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice? A. Deicing fluid B. Anti-icing fluid C. Hot air
457. Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods?
465. What is used as a temperature sensing element in an electrically heated windshield? A. Thermocouple B. Thermistor C. Thermometer.
A. Alcohol spray and heated induction air B. Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air C. Electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol spray or alcohol spray 458. Why should a chemical rain repellent not be used on a dry windshield? A. It will etch the glass B. It will restrict visibility C. It will cause glass crazing.
466. In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector? A. Surface combustion heater compartment B. Cockpit and/or cabin C. Engine and/or nacelle 467. What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated? A. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically B. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically C. The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided automatically
459. What is the principle of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system? A. An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellent evenly over the windshield that prevents raindrops from clinging to the glass surface B. An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface C. A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a mechanical windshield wiper system that is powered by pneumatic system pressure.
468. The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are A. Water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical and halogenated hydrocarbons B. Water, dry chemical, methyl bromide and cholorobromomothane C. Water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide and dry chemical
460. What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface? A. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol B. Methyl ethyketone and ethylene glycol C. Naptha and isopropyl alcohol 461. Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft? A. A brush or a squeegee B. Hot air C. Warm water.
469. When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color? A. Blue B. Green C. Red
462. What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft windshields? 1. Blanket-type heating system 2. An electric heating element in the windshield 3. Heated air circulating system 4. Hot water system 5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing fluid 6. Ribbon type heating system A. 2, 3, 5 B. 1, 2, 6 C. 2, 3, 4
470. Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of A. Construction B. Maintenance C. Detection 471. Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called A. Electromechanical devices B. Photoelectrical devices C. Visual devices 472. A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by A. Heating the indicating element to 300 degree f to reactivate the chemical B. Installing a new indicating element
463. What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present? A. Injector ice B. Inlet ice C. Carburetor ice 252
C. Evacuating the indicating element with CO2
481. The thermocouple fire warning system is activated by a A. Certain temperature B. Core resistance drop C. Rate of temperature rise.
473. Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? A. Fenwal continuous loop B. Lindberg continuous element C. Thermocouple
482. When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in A. Parallel with each other and in series with the light B. Series with each other and the light C. Series with each other ad parallel with the light
474. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument? A. Chemical reactor B. Photoelectric cell C. Sniffer
483. Built-in aircraft fire extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with A. Carbon dioxide and nitrogen B. Halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen C. Sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen
475. Light refraction smoke detectors A. Measure a reduction if the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area B. Sense light rellected from smoke particles passing through a chamber C. Use radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke
484. In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems, (1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted (2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections. Regarding the above statements, A. Only no 2 is true. B. Both no 1 and no 2 are true. C. Neither no 1 nor no 2 is true.
476. Why does the fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits? A. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction B. This installation is equal to two system: a main system and a reserve system C. A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.
485. What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of built-in fire-extinguisher system? A. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal discharge line B. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line C. The thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle
477. A fire extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by A. Attaching a remote pressure gauge B. Weighing the container and its contents C. A hydrostatic test 478. What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines? A. Brown B. Yellow C. Red and green
486. The thermal switches of a bimetalic thermal switch type the detection system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in A. Parallel with each other and in parallel with the indicator lights B. Parallel with each other but in series with the indicator lights C. Series with each other but in parallel with the indicator lights
479. The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous loop fire detection systems is A. Improper routing or clamping of loops B. Moisture C. Dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections 480. A thermocouple in a fire detection system causes the warning system to operate because A. It generates a small current when heated B. Heat decreases its electrical resistance C. It expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning system.
487. (Refer to the Table) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG (consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure). A. 47 to 730 F B. 47 to 710 F C. 45 to 730 F 253
A. Red disk on the side of the fuselage B. Green disk on the side of the fuselage C. Yellow disk on the side of the fuselage
Container Pressure Versus Temperature Temperature 0 F
-40 -30 -20 -10 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
Container Pressure (PSIG) Minimum 60 83 105 125 145 167 188 209 230 255 284 319 356 395 438
491. If a fire-extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason, it A. Must be pressure checked B. Is recommended that the cartridge because only on the original discharge valve assembly C. Cannot be used again
Maximum 145 165 188 210 230 252 275 295 317 342 370 405 443 483 523
492. Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system? 1. Display "no smoking" placards 2. Provide adequate fire fighting equipment 3. Keep all tolls and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease. 4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems. A. 1,3 and 4 B. 1,2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 493. Which fire extinguishing agent that is considered to be the least toxic? A. Carbon dioxide B. Bromotrifluromethane (halon 1301) C. Bromochloromethane (halon 1011)
488. (Refer to the Table) determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 330 F A. 215 to 302 psig B. 214 to 301 psig C. 215 to 301 psig
494. Maintenance of fire detection systems includes the A. Repair of damaged sensing elements B. Removal of excessive loop or element material C. Replacement of damaged sensing elements
489. On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed? A. Release pressure if above limits B. Replace the extinguisher container C. Increase pressure if below limits
495. A squib as used in a fire protection system, is a A. Temperature sensing device B. Device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released C. Probe used for installing trangible disks in extinguisher bottles
490. In some fire extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a
254
FILL IN THE BLANKS 1. The capacity of the battery is measured in ________________ units. 2. Latent heat ___________ .
of
a
refrigerant
should
19. _______are used primary for operations of short duration .
be 20. In three phase a.c. circuits , _____circuit breakers are used .
3. Servicing required for battery maintenance are _________.
21. The various are___,____,____.
4. ______ perform the conversion function by means of solid state or static circuit functions .
losses
of
generators
22. The servicing carried out on Lead acid batteries are__,__,__servicing.
5. The nature of battery installations is mainly determined by ____and emergency power . 6. The DC systems have no ____________problem.
23. The capacity of a battery is given by the product of ____ and____.
7. The brush gear assembly comprises of the ______and the______.
24. The generators used in aircraft are _______ generators .
8. ________are used in several types of small aircraft employing low DC output .
25. The standard operating voltage in aircraft is ____ . 26. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni-Cd battery is between ________ and _________.
9. The generator in an aircraft is cooled by ____which enters through the end belt section of the casing.
27. Hydrometer is used to measure ____ of the electrolyte.
10. ______ perform the conversion function by means of solid state or static circuit functions .
28. Lead acid batteries are __________ type of batteries.
11. The nature of battery installations is mainly determined by ____and emergency power.
29. The capacity of the battery is measured in ________________ units.
12. _____battery suffers a rapid temperature and current rise once the battery is fully charged .
30. Servicing required for battery maintenance are ____________.
13. _______are shielded against electrostatic and magnetic fields .
31. At cut off the base current in transistor is ________________.
14. A battery is a device which converts ____energy to _____energy.
32. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is _________.
15. The power ratings of DC generators are generally given in _____.
33. The resistance of the p-channel of transistor is called _______-.
16. Static invertors perform the conversion using _______principles.
34. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage, the smaller the __________ current.
17. ____and___constitute the framework of power distribution system .
35. A ___________- diode has a negative resistance in its characteristics.
18. _____are used for transmission of high tension voltages in aircrafts .
36. A JFET is a _____________- controlled device whereas a BJT is a _____________ controlled device.
255
STATE TRUE OR FALSE 1. Proximity fuses are used are based on eletromagnet principle.
15. Pressure leak testing is carried out to detect cracks in the adjacent cells .
2. DC cannot be paralleled.
16. Ducted loom is used for conveying cables in areas of exposure to oil and hydraulic fluids .
3. The advantage of a system is that it requires no commuters.
17. Primary bonding conductors are used between components and earth for which primary conductors are not specifically required .
4. Switching and circuit clearance is more difficult in DC.
18. There is no risk of fire hazards during refueling due to presence of static charges.
5. A generator is a machine that converts mechanical energy to electrical energy by process of thermal induction.
19. Screening process provides a low resistance path for voltage producing unwanted RF interference.
6. Usually, the generators used in aircraft are of selfexcited, shunt wound type.
20. Proximity fuses are used based on electromagnet principle.
7. The armature reaction in a generator causes the shifting of magnetic neutral axis.
21. Separate rooms are used for charging acid batteries and alkaline batteries.
8. The current regulator in a generator controls the field excitation current.
22. In primary battery cells, active materials are destroyed during discharge.
9. A battery is said to have run away if it takes decreasing charging current.
23. Alkaline batteries are primary batteries.
10. Capacity testing of batteries should be done at least once a year.
24. Routine servicing is required to estimate further useful life of a battery.
11. Run-away is not a phenomenon that is peculiar to constant potential charging systems.
25. The capacity of the battery is measured in amperes-seconds units.
12. The charging voltage for a battery is always greater than that of the actual output voltage.
26. Alternator is used to crank the engines. 27. Specific gravity of fully charged Ni- Cd battery is between 1.1 and 1.3.
13. The internal resistance of battery can be raised by lowering the surface current density and increasing the area vetted by electrolyte.
28. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a transistor.
14. The electrolyte solution of a Lead-Acid battery is Potassium Hydroxide.
256
WRITE SHORT NOTES ON 1. Ducted Loom.
8. Precautions to be taken using charging board.
2. Methods of cooling of generators.
9. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging room.
3. Storage of aircraft cables. 10. List various tests conducted in battery charging room.
4. Requirement of aircraft cables. 5. Requirement of electrical power in aircraft.
11. Difference between primary and secondary battery.
6. Classification of generators. 12. Define useful life and capacity of a battery. 7. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.
257
VERY SHORT ANSWERS 25. How Hunting is damped in synchronous motors?
1. A potential difference of 250volts applied across a circuit of resistance 500 ohms. Find the cu. 2. Briefly explain wattage rating of resistances.
26. What are the advantages of static UPS over rotary UPS?
3. Define Insulators.
27. Define Back Emf in a DC motor.
4. Define Potentiometer and write its uses.
28. Define Faraday's laws of electro-magnetic Induction.
5. Define Specific Resistance or Resistivity.
29. Describe atom and its structure.
6. Define Magnetism.
30. Define: -(i) Atomic Number (ii) Atomic Weight.
7. Describe Right Hand Grip Rule (for solenoid). 8. State the Lenz's Law.
31. Name the common faults in a lead acid accumulator.
9. Define Ohm's law.
32. What is armature reaction and write its effects?
10. Define Fleming's Right Hand Rule.
33. Write the disadvantages of magnetic amplifier.
11. Define :- Dielectric constant of a condenser.
34. Define Pole pitch in DC Generator.
12. Name the effects of armature reaction in DC Generator.
35. Write the disadvantages of carbon Brushes in DC Generator.
13. 212. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate.
36. What is the function of Arithmetic and Logic Unit in a Computer?
14. 213. Define the term Logic gate and write the different logic gates of Digital Technique.
37. Write the purpose of Out Put Unit in Computer System?
15. 214. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate.
38. What are the functions of CPU in a Computer? 39. What are the applications of a Micro Processor?
16. 215. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of NAND Gate.
40. Write the advantages of Electro static voltmeter .
17. 216. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR Gate.
41. Name Voltmeter.
18. Define electrolysis and name two of its application.
Different
types
of Ammeters
and
42. What is he various methods of measuring low resistance in Wattmeter Induction type?
19. How the setting is done of over load release? 20. Define electrostatics.
43. What do you understand by medium Resistances from the point of view of measurement?
21. Define: -(i) Polarization (ii) Local action.
44. Explain briefly types of semi conductors.
22. What is the function of No-volt-coil in three-phase star-delta starter?
45. Name the different applications of SCR. 46. Write Short notes on Inter pole.
23. What is impedance in an electrical circuit? State the formula and the contributing factors?
47. What are the uses of shunt generator?
24. Explain 'SLIP' in induction motor. 258
48. Briefly explain the working principle of a Transformer.
71. Write the various menu options available in Menu Bar.
49. Write short note on Mesh or Delta connection.
72. Define the term Computer.
50. State the advantages of AC over DC.
73. Write short note on A/D converter.
51. Write short notes on Rating of Alternator.
74. Write short notes on D/A converter.
52. What are the advantages of revolving field alternator?
75. Name the classification of resistance and briefly explain about them.
53. Write short note on SLIP in respect of 3Q Induction motor.
76. Write short notes on Ratio meter Ohmmeter.
54. What are the serious disadvantages of simple magnetic amplifier? 55. Briefly explain the over load protection system in Shunt motor starter.
77. What is the disadvantage of moving coil instrument? 78. Name the various effects utilized in secondary instrument. 79. Define OHM`s Law.
56. Briefly explain the working principle of Static Inverter. 57. Convert 3927.75(10) into Hexadecimal. 58. Differentiate between most significant bit (MSB) and Least significant bit(LSB). 59. Briefly explain the procedure of converting a decimal number into octal number.
80. Define Joule's Law. 81. What are the advantages and disadvantages of a Thermocouple instrument? 82. Describe briefly the principle employed in induction type instruments. 83. Name the various errors in Dynamo meter Watt meter.
60. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2"S compliment. 61. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate. 62. Define the term Logic gate and write the different logic gates of Digital Technique.
84. Write the major components of Cathode Ray Tube. 85. What is C R O and list out its sub systems?
63. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate.
86. Precautions to be taken in the battery charging room.
64. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of NAND Gate.
87. List various tests conducted in battery charging room.
65. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR Gate.
88. Difference between Primary and secondary battery.
66. What are the classification of multi vibrator ? 89. Methods of cooling of generators. 67. Write the purpose of multi vibrator. 90. Storage of aircraft cables. 68. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique and write its uses. 69. How will you assign a password to protect a word document ?
91. Classification of generators. 92. Thermal switches. 93. Chemical reaction of lead acid batteries.
70. Write the advantages of using Excel for calculation.
94. Current limiters.
95. Attracted core heavy-duty relay. 96. Attracted armature light duty relay. 97. limiting resistors.
115. Why are solder less splices usually better than soldered splices in the wiring of an aircraft electrical system ?
98. What kind of rectifier is used in the small DC alternators installed in most light aircraft?
116. What size generator must be used in an aircraft electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30 amps and there is no way of monitoring the generator output ?
99. What kind of instrument would you use to measure very high resistance?
117. Why must a switch be derated if it is used in a circuit that .........?
100. When is it important that aircraft electrical system wire bundles be enclosed in some type of conduit?
118. On which wing is the red navigation light?
101. What size aluminium wire would be proper to replace a piece of four-gage copper wire? 102. What is the smallest size aluminium wire that is approved for use in aircraft electrical systems? 103. What three things must be synchronized before an aircraft AC generator is placed on the same bus with another AC generator? 104. How can the direction of rotation of the armature of a DC shunt-wound electric motor be reversed? 105. What is meant by flashing the field of a generator? 106. How will you check the serviceability of aircraft starting trolley batteries?
119. What kind of fault can be found in a generator armature with a growler? 120. Does an aircraft engine electric starter use a series or a parallel motor? 121. What is the main disadvantage of aluminium when over copper wire for use in an aircraft electrical system? 122. What two things must you take into consideration when selecting the wire size to use in an aircraft electrical system installation ? 123. What is the maximum number of wires that should be connected to any single stud in terminal strip ? 124. How is a wire bundle protected from chafing where the bundle goes through a hole in a fuselage frame or bulkhead ?
107. Write operation of battery leakage tester. 108. Explain the different methods of checking the polarity of a battery. 109. Write the advantages of secondary cells over primary cells. 110. Write short notes on "Sulphation". 111. What two things must you take into consideration when selecting the wire size to use in an aircraft electrical system installation ? 112. What is the maximum number of wires that should be connected to any single stud in terminal strip ? 113. How is a wire bundle protected from chafing where the bundle goes through a hole in a fuselage frame or bulkhead ? 114. What kind of clamp is used to secure a wire bundle to the aircraft structure ?
125. What kind of clamp is used to secure a wire bundle to the aircraft structure ? 126. Why are solder less splices usually better than soldered splices in the wiring of an aircraft electrical system ? 127. What size generator must be used in an aircraft electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30 amps and there is no way of monitoring the generator output ? 128. Why must a switch be derated if it is used in a circuit that …………………………….? 129. On which wing is the red navigation light? 130. What kind of fault can be found in a generator armature with a growler? 131. Does an aircraft engine electric starter use a series or a parallel motor?
132. What is the main disadvantage of aluminium when over copper wire for use in an aircraft electrical system?
154. Enumerate the advantages of transistors over vacuum tubes. 155. Name various types of transistor configurations.
133. Explain local action in primary cell and how it can be prevented.
156. Name the types of Optical Fibers.
134. Write the adverse effects of polarization in a primary cell.
157. Explain why collector area in a transistor is larger than emitter or base .
135. What are the precautions to be observed for keeping dry cell in good condition?
158. Briefly explain the general draw backs of LC oscillators.
136. Explain polarization and its effect on primary cell.
159. Enumerate the advantages of Wien bridge oscillators.
137. Write the advantage and disadvantage of On Board charge of Ni - Cadmium battery.
160. Enumerate the advantages of crystal oscillators. 161. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect.
138. What are the steps involved in initial charging on lead acid batteries? 139. What are the occasions at which capacity test is carried out on a battery ? 140. Write points to be observed while charging Alkaline batteries.
162. How will you check the serviceability of Bonding Tester ? 163. Define Transducers. 164. Write short notes on Cathode Ray Oscilloscope. 165. Write short notes on Borescope.
141. Write the purpose and procedure of Boost charge on Alkaline battery.
166. Write the purpose of bonding tester.
142. Define electronics.
167. What is the purpose of insulation on cables?
143. Define energy level.
168. What are the advantages of stranding cables?
144. Write short notes on vacuum diode.
169. How do you prepare the area for potting technique ?
145. How the electron beam is deflected left and right on the screen in an ESCRT?
170. Write the precautions to be observed while doing Potting technique.
146. Define the term 'Fluorescence' and how it is achieved in a CRT.
171. What are the causes of electrical interference?
147. Write short notes on semiconductors.
172. Write the purpose of fuses used in aircraft.
148. Write short notes on ' Barrier Potential '.
173. What are the advantages of relay over switch ?
149. Write short notes on ' Zener diode '.
174. Write down the procedure of carrying out mechanical adjustment in carbon pile voltage re.
150. Name the types of special diodes. 151. Name the various materials normally used for manufacturing photo conductive cells. 152. Name the various uses of PIN diodes. 153. Write short notes on collector feed back bias.
175. Write the basic principle of solid state voltage regulator? 176. Differentiate TBO and service life of a component. 177. What are the checks carried out in the commutator of a DC generators.
178. Write short notes on "Film forming brushes".
192. What are the advantages of rotating field type alternator?
179. Write the principle parts of DC generators. 180. What are the two major factors which influence the maximum continuous output in generato.
193. Write the classification or type of a a/c alternator? 194. Write short note on cooling of aircraft alternator.
181. Enumerate the factors governing choice and capacity of electrical power system. 182. How will you calculate the output EMF generated in a DC Generator? 183. Write short note on Heat dissipater used in voltage regulator. 184. Write the principle of Transformer Rectifier Unit? 185. What are design and dimensional changer made in modern aircraft DC external power plug. 186. Why external power connection to aircraft is necessary?
195. What are the factors affecting the terminal voltage of Generator? 196. What is the principle of Inverter? 197. What is the necessity of Ignition in a/c? 198. How will you do current consumption test of LT Booster Coil? 199. Write the main components of HEIU and explain the purpose of choke? 200. What are the precaution of High-energy ignition unit to be ob served during servicing an. 201. Explain Bay Servicing carried out on HEIU?
187. Briefly explain the construction of external AC power receptacle used in transport aircr.
202. How "input current test " is carried out of HEIU?
188. What is the purpose of Auxiliary Power unit in aircraft?
203. Explain how the performance test of high Energy Ignition unit is carried out?
189. What is the purpose of reverse current circuit breaker?
204. Explain the functional test of High Frequency Ignition unit?
190. What are the disadvantages of DC power supply?
205. What are the precautions to be observed while carrying out functional test of HFIU?
191. What are the various types of alternator? 206. What is the purpose of dual coil Ignition unit ?
SHORT ANSWER 1. Define the laws of electrostatics. 2. Write different applications of synchronous motors and define power factor correction. 3. Write the principal components of a DC Generator and Define Brushes.
22. What are the advantages of inverter over Alternator? 23. Explain the principle of AC/DC generator.
4. What do you understand by Interpoles?
24. Name the neutralizing agents and other materials used in lead acid battery charging room in case of air emergency.
5. Define mesh or delta connection and why there is no current circulating in it.
25. Write short notes on: a)Synchronous converter b)Motor converter.
6. Write different types of self excited DC Generator .
26. What are the precautions to be observed while handling batteries?
7. What is the purpose of slots in Armature core in a Dc Generator? 8. Define types of electric current. 9. Enumerate the precautions to be observed in a battery charging room. 10. Define Dielectric, Break down voltage and Dielectric strength. 11. Define the following: Coersive force.
(i) Field intensity (ii)
27. What is the principle of operation of lead acid batteries? 28. Describe the tinning procedure. 29. What are colour code used to specify the magnitude of resistance and write the number value of colour? 30. State Joule's law of electric heating. 31. Define resistance .State the factors affecting resistance.
12. What are the effects of temperature on a resistance?
32. State the law of Electrostatics.
13. Write the advantage of Magnetic Amplifier.
33. Define Seeback effect.
14. Define the following in AC theory: -(i) Time period (ii) Frequency (iii) Amplitude.
34. Define Faraday's Law of electrolysis.
15. What are the advantages of an Electrostatic voltmeter? 16. How resistance is classified? Write various methods used for measuring low resistance. 17. Write the operation of an attraction-iron instrument. 18. Define the term re-conditioning. 19. Explain briefly Zener diode and give its uses.
35. Define electrolysis and name three of its applications. 36. What is Magnetic Screening? How it is achieved and what is its application? 37. Write in brief about solenoid. 38. Describe the effect when an AC Voltage is applied through a pure inductive coil. 39. Name the simple elements used in the construction of Transformers.
20. Explain converter.
40. Briefly explain the Short circuit test carried on a transformer and its purpose.
21. What are the occasion when capacity test to be carried out on lead acid battery?
41. What are the advantages of AC over DC?
42. Describe the basic working principle of an Alternator.
61. Draw and explain in brief the Block diagram computer system.
43. Explain the reason why the rotor of an Induction motor (3Q) is set in to rotation when fed with phase supply.
62. List out the differences between Software and Hardware. 63. Explain in brief Application Software?
44. State the reason why DC series motor are not efficient when used on AC.
64. Define the term Software and Hardware.
45. What are the essential parts of a 3phase synchronous motor? Explain in brief.
65. Explain in brief the function of computer operating system.
46. What are the applications of a Synchronous Motor?
66. Write short notes on Floppy disk. 67. Explain in brief about PROM and EPROM.
47. Enumerate the advantages of Static Inverter over rotary inverter. 48. Explain the properties of Silicon Control Rectifier (SCR).
68. What are the effects utilized in Secondary Measuring instruments? 69. Write the purpose of the following:_ (a) Deflecting Force (b) Controlling Force.
49. What are the advantages of Static UPS System? 50. What are the advantages of Magnetic Amplifier?
70. Explain eddy current damping in indicating instrument .
51. What are the various applications of Magnetic Amplifier?
71. What are the advantages of Digital Volt Meter(DVM)?
52. What are the disadvantages of Magnetic Amplifier?
72. Write short notes on shaded pole or shielded pole type induction instrument.
53. Briefly explain how reverse direction of rotation is achieved in Shunt Series and Compound woun motor.
73. Name the various errors in Dynamometer Wattmeter.
54. Convert the following binary number to Octal number and explain the procedure . 1011011.011101(2).
74. Briefly explain the Method of using Tong test Ammeter.
55. Convert the following Hexadecimal number to Binary number and explain the procedure : 8 EBD.A(16). 56. Write the rules to be observed while 2's complement subtraction and subtract 1011(2) from 1111(2). 57. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2'S Compliment.
75. Name the effects the Analog meter depends for its operation and give example for each of them. 76. Enumerate the salient features of modern aircraft batteries. 77. List out the effects of high altitude flying on aircraft batteries. 78. What are different method of routine charging and explain rapid partial charge on Nickel Cadm.
58. List out the points to be observed while simplifying Boolean expression by karnaugh map method.
79. Enumerate the procedure of marking of Alkaline batteries.
59. Write short notes on the classification of multi vibrator.
80. What are the indications of a fully charged lead acid cell ?
60. Define the term Binary addition and briefly explain the rules of Binary addition.
81. Write short notes on conduction band. 82. Write short notes on directly heated cathode.
83. Write short notes on Space Charge. 84. Name and explain the essential components of a CRT.
95. How will you determine the unknown frequency with the help of CRO ? 96. 365. How to test the serviceability of a fuse ? 97. State the advantages of using a relay.
85. Write short notes on conductors. 86. Write short notes on Zener breakdown. 87. Write short notes on ' depletion layer '. 88. Briefly explain " Diffusion Capacitance" in a PN junction.
98. What are the precautions to be observed when using high altitude brushes? 99. Write the procedure to change carbon pile in voltage regulator? 100. Write the emergency operation of Static Inverter?
89. Write short notes on ' Avalanche Breakdown '. 101. What are the disadvantages of DC system? 90. Briefly explain the operation of 'Step Recovery Diode '.
102. What are the advantages of using AC power system in a/c?
91. Write short notes on Tunnel Diode. 103. What are the advantages of AC system? 92. How transducers are classified ? 93. Write the procedure to carry out the bonding test on an aircraft.
104. What are the conditions for fulfilling the synchronization? 105. What is rotary synchroscope? Explain.
94. Write the various uses of Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
106. What are the parts of HEIU?
LONG ANSWERS 1. Explain constructional differences between salient poles and smooth cylindrical alternators.
20. Write in brief the conditions of self excitation in DC Generator.
2. Distinguish clearly between self and separately excited generators.
21. Name the self excited generators and Explain compound generator.
3. Elaborate the points to be observed for the care and maintenance of lead acid cells.
22. With the aid of a diagram explain voltage build up in a shunt Generator.
4. List out the advantages of static Inverter over Rotary inverter.
23. Write down the difference between the soft soldering and hard soldering.
5. With the aid of characteristic curve explain the speed characterist of a DC series motor.
24. Describe the safety requirements to be observed while using hand tools.
6. Explain the circuit for various positions starting handle of shunt motor starter.
25. State the requirements while working on drilling machine.
7. Explain all day efficiency of a transformer.
26. Describe the safety requirements while carrying out soldering operation.
8. What is Bus bar? Explain split bus bar in brief. 9. Prove that the significance of back emf is very much essential to make a DC motor self regulating. 10. Give the differences amongst the various types of DC generators. 11. Write ward Leonard method of speed control of a DC shunt motor. 12. With the help of diagram explain open circuit and short circuit test of a transformer. 13. Can you start a DC series motor without load? If not, explain the reason. 14. What are the different methods used to control the speed of DC shunt motors? Explain armature control method with a diagram. 15. What are advantages and disadvantages of Poly phase induction motor? 16. Name the various losses in a DC machine. How will you improve the magnetic or iron losses?
27. Name the various types of capacitors and briefly explain them. 28. Define electrolysis and name the important terms used in electrolysis. 29. Describe the various properties of magnets. 30. Describe the various properties of magnetic lines of forces. 31. Describe the classification of materials due to magnetic effect. 32. Explain 'Skin effect' due to alternating current. 33. With the aid of a neat diagram explain the operation of parallel running of shunt generators. 34. Write the purpose of slots in armature core. 35. Describe the advantages of lap and wave winding in DC generators.
17. Write the purpose of slots in Armature core.
36. Enumerate the conditions to be fulfilled for self excitation of DC generators and how they are ensured?
18. Give a brief account of the main component of a DC Generator and explain the purpose of commutator.
37. Name the types of transformers and explain core type transformer.
19. What are the various properties of a magnet? Describe in brief.
38. State the advantages of poly phase over single phase.
39. State the comparison between star and delta system in AC . 40. Explain the modifications to be carried out on a DC series motor to use as universal motor.
58. With the help of a suitable structural and schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reaches saturation and what happens if trigger is removed during regeneration? 59. Write the advantages of electrical transducers.
41. Explain the principle of operation of Synchronous motor. 42. With the aid of diagram explain back e.m.f in DC shunt motor. 43. Describe the Principle, Construction Operation of moving coil instrument.
60. Describe the safety precautions to be observed while using Cathode Ray Oscilloscope. 61. What is the object of weather proofing and name different methods ?
and 62. What are the different methods of weather proofing ?
44. Write the precautions to be taken while using Multi meter.
63. (a) What are the categories of crimping and explain them ? (b) What is dry joint?
45. Describe the advantages of Digital Instruments. 46. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain characteristics of vacuum diode.
64. What is the procedure for installation, operation and servicing of aircraft fuses ?
47. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain the characteristics of a pentode valve.
65. Define useful life and capacity a secondary battery. Discuss the various tests carried out on a engine starting Accumulator Trolley?
48. With the aid of a VI characteristic curve, explain the characteristics of a tetrode valve.
66. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in battery charging room?
49. Name and semiconductors.
of
67. What are the requirements of battery charging room?
50. With the aid of a neat diagram briefly explain the operation of forward biased PN junction.
68. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
51. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction, operation and uses of schott key diode (Hot Barrier Diode).
69. Describe the requirement of battery charging room.
explain
the
main
types
52. Enumerate the uses of different types of special diodes. 53. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain the construction, operation and peak inverse voltage of a center tap full wave rectifier. 54. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the description and operation of Hartley oscillator. 55. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain its function. 56. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the description and operation of Colpits oscillator. 57. With the aid of equivalent circuit, symbol explain TRIAC and its applications.
70. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what are the factors governing the choice of electrical system. 71. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of batteries . 72. What are the sequence of operations carried out for testing and servicing of batteries . 73. Compare DC Motor and Generator in tabulation form? 74. What is the difference between Star and Delta connection in an electrical system. 75. Draw and explain Astable multivibrator. 76. Draw and explain Bistable multivibrator. 77. Draw and explain RS Flipflop.
78. Draw and explain JK Flipflop.
101. Explain colour coding of capacitors.
79. Explain how a micro computer works.
102. Enumerate the common defects found in Lead Acid Battery.
80. What is a principle used in networking in a computer system.
103. Enumerate the defects found in alkaline batteries.
81. Explain memory organisation in micro computer.
104. Explain Initial Charging of Batteries.
82. What is Cache memory in a computer.
105. Define Lenz’s Law.
83. What are the advantages of LCD over LED.
106. Explain the principle and working of a DC generator.
84. Explain how LED works. 85. What is the difference between soldering and brazing.
107. Explain the principle and working of an AC generator. 108. Explain Commutation.
86. Explain in detail self excited shunt wound generator.
109. Explain the principle and working of a DC Motor.
87. Compare AC and DC electrical system and what are the factors governing the choice of electrical system in an aircraft.
110. Using the second approximation theory of diode, calculate the current through the ik register.
88. Explain sleepiness, sulphation and runaway of batteries.
111. In which respect is an LED different from an ordinary P-N junction diode? State its application.
89. Explain internal short circuit and buckling of batteries.
112. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
90. Explain routing of wires and cables in an aircraft.
113. Explain (a)The conduction angle of a diode. (b)Conduction in crystals at absolute zero and above absolute zero.
91. Explain different parts of self-excited shunt wound generator. 92. What are the sequence of operations carried out for testing and servicing of batteries. 93. Discuss the various tests carried out on Engine Starting Accumulator trolley? 94. Define capacity and useful life of a battery? 95. What are the safety precautions to be adopted in battery charging room? 96. What are the requirements of battery charging room? 97. Explain calculation of power in three-phase AC system.
114. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and bypass capacitors. What is meant by stiff coupling? 115. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE amplifier and discuss about the input and output impendence to develop such a model. 116. Define Alpha DC and Beta DC. Derive the mathematical relationship between them. 117. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail current (b) Input offset current (c) Input bias current (d) Input offset voltage. 118. What is the approximate value of zener current for each of these load resistances: - (a) RL = 100 Kilo Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms.
98. Explain colour coding of resistance. 99. What are the various types of resistances?
119. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier. Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier.
100. What are the various types of capacitors and principle of operation of capacitors?
120. What are the advantages and disadvantages of alkaline batteries over lead acid batteries ?
121. Name and explain various types of electron emission.
141. What are the advantages of using AC power supply in a/c?
122. With the aid of a symbol sketch, explain the operation of pentode valve.
142. Give a brief account of constant frequency AC system employed in a/c.
123. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain characteristics of vacuum diode.
143. Explain special features of aircraft alternators.
124. Name and semiconductors.
explain
the
main
types
of
125. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction, operation and uses of schottkey diode (Hot. 126. Enumerate the uses of different types of special diodes. 127. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain the construction, operation and peak inverse. 128. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the description and operation of Hartley oscil. 129. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain i. 130. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the description and operation of Colpits osc. 131. With the help of a suitable structural and schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reache. 132. Describe the safety precautions to be observed while using Cathode Ray Oscilloscope. 133. What are the salient features of modern aircraft generators? 134. What is the purpose of Slots in armature? 135. (a) What are the principal components of a direct current generator? (b) What is the pur.
144. Write down special alternators used in aircraft?
features
of aircraft
145. Draw a neat circuit diagram of Frequency wild generator and explain its operation? 146. With a neat diagram explain MERZ-PRICE protection system. 147. Draw circuit diagram of Inverter type 100A and briefly write its operation? 148. With a neat diagram explain the operation of rotary inverter? 149. Explain the checking procedure of Fire warning system of MI-17 helicopter. 150. Explain the operation of Fire extinguisher circuit of MI-17 helicopter in case of actual. 151. Write voltage load characteristics of self-excited shunt wound generator? 152. What is armature reaction and what relation it has with compensating and auxiliary inter-pole? 153. Types of voltage regulation. Draw diagram of solid-state voltage regulation. 154. Explain balancing of Nickel-cadmium battery. What is recovery voltage of battery? 155. What is on board charger units? Explain briefly. 156. What is constant speed drive?
136. Give a brief description of simple armature Lap and wave winding.
157. What is real load and reactive load? How it is corrected for parallel running of altimeter?
137. Differentiate between Lap and wave winding. 158. What is SCR. Explain its On/Off switch function. 138. Give a brief account of film forming and nonfilm forming aircraft generator brushes. 139. Explain the principle, construction and operation of Transformer rectifier unit during n. 140. Briefly explain the construction of Auxiliary power unit used in a/c.
159. What is TRU (transformer rectifier unit)? 160. Explain special purpose cable. 161. What are proximity switches? Explain micro switch. 162. Explain the principle of shagged relay.
163. What is fuse and CB?
168. Write the requirement of A/C lighting system
164. Explain over voltage protection of AC generator.
169. Briefly explain "Strobe lighting".
165. Draw a sketch and show ammeter and voltmeter in a circuit.
170. Explain overheat and fire detection system of A/C.
166. Explain motor actuators.
167. Write rotating field of 3ø induction motor.
TYPICAL PRACTICAL PROJECTS 1. Using a wiring diagram of an aircraft electrical system, identify the switches, circuit breakers, wire splices, lamps and motors.
11. Explain to the examiner the correct way to adjust the voltage controlled by a vibrator type voltage regulator.
2. Given the current requirements and the length of the wire, select the smallest size wire that will carry the current without overheating or producing more than the allowable voltage drop.
12. Using a growler and continuity light, check the armature of an aircraft generator for shorted or open coils.
3. Install a solderless terminal on a piece of electrical wire. 4. Given the specifications of an aircraft generator, find its rated current output. 5. check the diodes in a DC alternator for opens or shorts. 6. Using an ohmmeter, determine whether or not the filament in a light bulb is good. 7. using voltmeter, measure the output voltage of an aircraft generator. 8. Explain to the examiner the connect way to flash the field of an aircraft generator. 9. Using a voltmeter and an ohmmeter, demonstrate to the examiner the correct way to troubleshoot an aircraft electrical circuit. 10. Inspect the ground cable of the battery installed in an aircraft for condition, rightness of connections and for evidence of corrosion.
13. Secure an electrical wire bundle to an aircraft structure using the proper clamps and grommets. 14. Using the illustrated parts list for a particular aircraft, inspect an anticollision light installation to see whether or not it conforms with the aircraft manufacturer's installation drawings. 15. Using the correct test instruments, measure the current that flows through an electrical load specified by the examiner. 16. Demonstrate to the examiner the correct way to tie an electrical wire bundle with spot ties. 17. Given the specifications of a shock-mounted electrical components, describe to the examiner the correct choice of a bonding strap. 18. Splice an electrical wire, using the correct type of splice and the correct insulation. 19. Correctly attach wires to the terminals of a quickdisconnect connector.
BLANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) 1. An EXCEL FILE is known as: A. Note book. B. Work book. C. Work sheet. D. Document.
A. Zero. B. Complement. C. One. D. Original.
2. In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for: A. Start menu. B. Copy and paste. C. Cut and paste. D. Entering the data.
11. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the number that results when : A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa.
3. An EXCEL workbook has a number of: A. Pages. B. Documents. C. Worksheets. D. Workbooks.
12. Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is : A. 10100.1100. B. 11000.0011. C. 10011.0101. D. 11100.100.
4. A worksheet is also known as: A. Page. B. Spreadsheet. C. Document. D. Workbook.
13. Flip Flop is also known as : A. Astable Multi vibrator. B. Mono stable Multi vibrator. C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. Tri stable multi vibrator.
5. In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse pointer indicates: A. Entering the data. B. Cut and paste. C. Copy and paste. D. Start menu.
14. For production of voltage pulses without any driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring periodically, the circuit used is. A. Free running multi vibrator. B. Mono stable multi vibrator. C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. RS flip flop.
6. In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by: A. Alphabets. B. Numbers. C. Asterisks. D. Arrows. 7. A chart data series is a collection of: A. Related values. B. Functional values. C. Collected values. D. Resulted values. 8. A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as: A. Radar chart. B. Embedded chart. C. Scattered chart. D. Column chart. 9. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111 : A. - 11011. B. - 00100. C. + 11011. D. + 00100. 10. Complement of a complement equal to;
15. Among the following ,the output device in a computer is; A. Key board. B. Printer. C. Mouse. D. Joy stick. 16. Many dot matrix printers are: A. Unidirectional. B. Tri-directional. C. Bi-directional. D. Quadra-directional. 17. Dot matrix printer is an example of: A. Line printer. B. Laser printer. C. Drum printer. D. Character printer. 18. A keyboard is a most common: A. Memory unit. B. Input device. C. Control device. D. Output device.
19. Unit of current by which the rate of flow of electricity is measured is: A. Volt. B. Ampere. C. Coulomb. D. Ohm.
28. If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a circuit are doubled the circuit will be: A. Doubled. B. Halved. C. Four times. D. Remaining same.
20. One Joule is equal to : A. One watt second. B. One watt hour. C. One watt minute. D. One watt.
29. A capacitor consists of two: A. Insulators separated by a dielectric. B. Conductors separated by an insulator. C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc. D. Silver coated Insulators.
21. Ohm'S Law states that: A. R= V/I. B. V = R/I. C. I = R/V. D. R = VxI.
30. A force that tends to drive electricity through a circuit is called: A. Ampere. B. Wattage. C. RMS value. D. EMF.
22. The practical unit of Conductance is ;-. A. Ohm. B. Coulomb. C. MHO. D. Volt. 23. The unit representing power or by which the rate of doing work is measured is : A. Joule. B. Watt. C. Ohms. D. None of the above. 24. The symbol of Impedence is ;-. A. R. B. Z. C. I. D. V. 25. The value of Milli ampere is: A. 0.01 ampere. B. 0.1 ampere. C. 0.0001 ampere. D. 0.001 ampere. 26. The total opposition offered to the flow of current in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and capacitance is known as;-. A. Ohm. B. Conductance. C. Impedance. D. Watt Hour. 27. In a thermocouple instrument, the emf at the cold end is measured by : A. Moving coil instrument. B. Moving Iron Instrument. C. Milli volt meter. D. Hot wire instrument.
31. The meter, which is used for measuring and comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known as: A. Potentiometer. B. Bonding tester. C. Ammeter. D. Multi meter. 32. The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends upon: A. R = L / A. B. A = L / R. C. L = R / A. D. P = L / A. 33. To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour code is used. Certain colours are used for certain numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is: A. 1. B. 5. C. 0. D. 2. 34. One mega ohm is equal to: A. 10 to the power 2ohms. B. 10 to the power 3 ohms. C. 10 to the power 4 ohms. D. 10 to the power 6 ohms. 35. When different resistances are joined end on end, they are said to be connected in: A. Parallel. B. Series - parallel. C. Parallel - series. D. Series. 36. The current flowing through a conductor is proportional to difference of potential at the ends of
the conductor, provided the temperature remains constant is defined by: A. Coulombs Law. B. Ohms Law. C. Joules Law. D. Kirchoffs Law. 37. The inner most shell or layer on the earth atmosphere is called : A. Troposphere. B. Stratosphere. C. Tropopause. D. Ionosphere. 38. Mach Number is equal to : A. True air speed (MPH) / Speed of sound (MPH). B. Altitude / Speed. C. Air speed / Sound. D. True air speed (KMPH) / Sound (KMPH). 39. The temperature at the lower end of the atmosphere is. A. 18500C during the day and 3400 C during night. B. 3400C during the day 18500C during night. C. 17400C during the day 26400C during night. D. 16400C during the day 2460C during the night. 40. The highest and last major region of Earth's atmosphere is called: A. Troposphere. B. Stratosphere. C. Ionosphere. D. Exosphere. 41. Any machine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is known as. A. Motor. B. Stator. C. Generator. D. Amplifier. 42. Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the direction of: A. Field. B. Motion of the conductor. C. Direction of induced emf. D. Direction of current. 43. Not gate is known as : A. Converter. B. Inverter. C. Rectifier. D. Amplifier. 44. Computer hardware usually refers to : A. Hard metallic component of a computer. B. Various associated program. C. CPU.
D. Central processor input/output devices and backing storage. 45. Truth table of a logic functions : A. Summaries its output value. B. Tabulates all its input conditions. C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. D. Is not based on the logic algebra. 46. A static memory is one that. A. Is capable of storing binary information indefinitely. B. Requires periodic restoration of information. C. Is volatile. D. Has destructive read out. 47. Erasable PROM (EPROM) is: A. Temporary memory. B. Permanent memory. C. Volatile memory. D. Non volatile memory. 48. In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased by exposing it to: A. X' rays. B. Alpha rays. C. Infra red rays. D. Ultra violet rays. 49. In secondary memories, an amplifier and comparator are used to convert: A. Small signal to large signal. B. Large signal to small signal. C. Small signal to standard logic levels. D. Standard logic levels to small signal. 50. A Random Access Memory (RAM) is: A. Volatile memory. B. Non volatile memory. C. Temporary memory. D. Permanent memory. 51. The memory which is also called as 'Read Write Memory' is: A. ROM. B. RAM. C. PROM. D. EPROM. 52. The memory in which MOSFETS are used is: A. ROM. B. PROM. C. EPROM. D. Static RAM. 53. In a computer application window, the status bar displays: A. The menu for the application. B. The name of the application.
C. The font size, types of styles and alignment. D. Message, page number and section number. 54. In computer application window, the bar used to change document style and font size is: A. Status bar. B. Standard tool bar. C. Formatting tool bar. D. Menu bar. 55. In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of : A. 255 characters long. B. 235 characters long. C. 245 characters long. D. 275 characters long. 56. The lack of oxygen at height between 18000 and 25000 ft, one would. A. Very sleepy. B. Unconscious. C. Loss of judgment. D. Blurred vision. 57. The effect of lack of oxygen at 4000 ft. in the night is: A. Loss of consciousness. B. Over confidence. C. Loss of co-ordination. D. Lowering of night vision. 58. In a typical liquid oxygen installation, the liquid oxygen is change. A. Stabilizer. B. Pressure build up coil. C. Check valve. D. Pressure control valve. 59. The condition of oxygen starvation is technically called: A. Get down condition. B. Anoxia. C. Loss of judgment. D. Hilarious. 60. The advantage of liquid oxygen is: A. Less weight, more volume. B. Non corrosive, more weight. C. Corrosive, more weight, more volume. D. Non-corrosive, less weight, occupies less space. 61. Liquid oxygen is: A. Yellow in colour. B. Pale blue in colour. C. Colour less. D. Watercolour. 62. With full oxygen supply at 30000 heights, effect on aircrew will be: A. No ill effect.
B. Hilarious. C. Un conscious. D. Cold effect. 63. In liquid oxygen installation, joints must be made by: A. Rubber sleeves. B. Varnished cambric. C. Polytetra flureethyle (PTFE). D. Special synthetic tubes. 64. A line which is neither vertical or horizontal is called. A. Curved. B. Parallel. C. Straight. D. Oblique. 65. The line drawn on a map joining all places having equal magnetic dip is called: A. Isoclinal. B. Isogonal. C. Equator. D. Rhomb line. 66. Isoclinal is the line drawn on a map joining all places having: A. Zero magnetic dip. B. Equal magnetic dip. C. Equal magnetic variation. D. Zero magnetic variation. 67. Cardinal points are: A. North, east, south and west. B. North and east. C. South and west. D. North and west. 68. The line cutting all meridians on earth surface at same angle is called: A. Track line. B. Rhumb line. C. Drift line. D. Green line. 69. In liquid type compass the "liquid swirl error" is avoided by: A. Removing air from liquid. B. Balancing the magnetic assembly. C. Making the bowl spherical in shape. D. Making the bowl with dicon. 70. Compass error is the angle between: A. True north and magnetic north. B. Compass north and magnetic north. C. True north and compass north. D. A particular compass needle and true meridian. 71. The horizontal situation (HIS) displays:
A. Computer, compass and tacan. B. Range land ILS. C. UHF information. D. All the above.
A. artificial horizon. B. altimeter. C. ASI. D. ROCI.
72. The most important temperature of which pilot must be aware of during flight is. A. out side temp. B. original oil temp. C. jet pipe temp. D. atmospheric temp.
81. The a/c speed measurement system, measures speed in terms of. A. voltage. B. current. C. frequency. D. none of the above.
73. The force which is produced when two dissimilar elements are joined together is called. A. emf. B. KE. C. PE. D. thermoelectric force.
82. The fuel tank contents in the tank units is given by the. A. inductors. B. capacitors. C. resistors. D. none of the above.
74. The point of balance in wheat stone bridge is called. A. zero point. B. balance point. C. ideal point. D. null point.
83. Gyros have the property of. A. Precession. B. Rigidity. C. Flexibility. D. Both (a) and (b).
75. One of the following is not a part of blind typing panel. A. ASI. B. fuel gauge. C. AM. D. VSI. 76. AH & TSI works on principle of. A. pitot static probe. B. gyroscope. C. none of the above. D. both of the above. 77. One of four principal element of instrument mechanism is. A. directing element. B. operating element. C. detecting element. D. none of the above. 78. Air speed indicator. A. true air speed. B. indicated airspeed. C. rectified air speed. D. none of the above. 79. ASI & VSI works on the principle of. A. pitot static tube. B. gyroscope. C. change in temp. D. none of the above. 80. Altitude indicator is also known as.
84. INS is affected by. A. Rate of turn. B. weather. C. Lightning. D. None of the above. 85. Gyros are used for. A. INS. B. Radio navigation. C. ILS. D. None of the above. 86. VSI is a. A. differential pressure gauge. B. pressure gauge. C. temperature gauge. D. none of the above. 87. AH indicates. A. pitch only. B. roll only. C. none of the above. D. both of the above. 88. Error in compass system are. A. transmission error. B. coriolis. C. both of the above. D. reception errors. 89. ICAO stands for. A. international Council of Airport Operations. B. international civil aviation organisation. C. Indian center for airborne operations.
D. none of the above. 90. The gyros used for detection of rate of turn is. A. rate gyros. B. laser gyros. C. electric gyros. D. none of the above. 91. The mach no is given by. A. speed of ac/ speed of sound. B. speed of sound/speed of ac. C. ( speed of sound/speed of ac)x 100. D. ( speed of ac/speed of sound)x100. 92. The capsule in an altimeter is. A. sensing element. B. detecting element. C. amplifying element. D. none of these. 93. In TSI, to indicate the bank. A. a ball is used. B. a strip is used. C. a pointer is used. D. no provision for indication of bank. 94. Temperature at mean sea level is. A. 10 degree. B. 20 degree. C. 15 degree. D. 30 degree. 95. Anoxia is. A. effect on body as a result of increase of atmospheric pressure with altitude. B. effect on body as a result of decrease of atmospheric pressure with altitude. C. none of these. D. . 96. Primary source of air data instrument is. A. atmosphere. B. pressure. C. temperature. D. altitude. 97. When reading is zero at landing and takeoff it is called. A. QFE. B. QNE. C. QNH. D. none of the above. 98. The external resistance of the circuit in tail pipe temperature sys. A. By resistor box. B. By a resistance in series. C. By a resistance in parallel. D. By a resistance in parallel.
99. The tail pipe temperature indicator is connected in: A. Series with thermocouple. B. Series with the adjustable resistor and thermocouple. C. Series with adjustable resistor. D. Parallel to the thermocouple resistor. 100. The indicator used in exhaust gas temperature indicating system is: A. A moving coil permanent magnet type. B. A moving magnet type instrument. C. A ratio meter type instrument. D. A bridge type instrument. 101. The revolution of the induction pulse average core is proportional to. A. Rate of fuel flow. B. Rate of impeller revolution. C. Input frequency to supply voltage. D. In put voltage. 102. The stall warning system is designed to operate from the incidence pr. A. The stall incidence angle approaches. B. The aircraft speed is going beyond limit. C. Any incident is going to take place. D. Aircraft speed approaches sound speed. 103. When the self test button is released, the ADC will immediately rev. A. Normal mode of operation. B. Servo mode of operation. C. Stand by mode of operation. D. Will not function. 104. The purpose of tone generator in stall warning system is to: A. Produce required supply for the system. B. Produce audio warning to pilot. C. Light a warning lamp. D. Give supply to flap actuator to lower it. 105. Anoxia is a physiological effect of altitude due to: A. Decrease of partial pressure of oxygen with increase in altitude. B. Decrease of partial pressure of oxygen with the decrease of the absolut. C. Increase of partial pressure of oxygen with increase of altitude. D. Loss of nitrogen content in blood system. 106. The pressure-reducing valve is fitted between: A. Content gauge and the demand regulator. B. Content gauge and cut off valve. C. Demand regulator and on / off valve. D. Cut off valve and on / off valve.
107. (1) A dc selsyn system is a widely used electrical method of indicating a remote mechanical movement or position (2) a synchro-type indicating system is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another. Regarding the above statements, A. only no 1 is true. B. only no 2 is true. C. both no 1 and no 2 are true.
C. Water of any stone. D. Kerosene. 116. A decrease in the lever length will make the instrument reading to: A. Decrease. B. Be unaffected. C. Increase or decrease. D. Increase.
108. What is one check for proper operation of a pitot static tube heater after replacement? A. Ammeter reading. B. Voltemeter reading. C. Continuity check of system.
117. The difference of reading between the desired value and the value obtained is called: A. Tolerance. B. Error. C. Allowance. D. (a) and (b).
109. Bubble in the liquid compass will cause: A. Increase in deviation. B. Decrease in variation. C. Increase the liquid swirrel. D. Rapid rusting of pivot.
118. Instrument parts are generally cleaned by: A. Nitric acid. B. Caustic acid. C. Metal brush. D. Watch makers brush.
110. The E2 type compass the bowl is made out of: A. Plastic. B. DIACON. C. Anikelite. D. Perspex.
119. The error whose magnitude and sign remain unchanged during checking through out the range is called as: A. Regular error. B. Irregular error. C. Tolerance. D. Linear error.
111. The outer ring of directional gyro is fitted in the pitch frame in: A. Longitudinal axis. B. Lateral axis. C. Vertical axis. D. Horizontal axis. 112. Semi conductor memory in computer is based on A. Magnetic circuit operation. B. Transformer operation. C. Transistor operation. D. Non magnetic circuit operation. 113. The tool used for locating and removal of delicate instrument parts and small screw is. A. A fine point pliers. B. Tweezers. C. Long nose pliers. D. Side cutting pliers. 114. Spraying and re painting instrument dial is a part of: A. Bay servicing. B. Overhauling. C. Rectification. D. Periodic servicing. 115. Shellac dissolves in: A. Petrol. B. Methylated spirit.
120. Eye glass is used in instrument work especially for: A. Scrutinizing the defect. B. Fitment of small parts. C. Seeing the parts. D. Removal and fitment of delicate parts. 121. 0 'X' eye glass magnification is: A. 6 times at a distance of 1.5 "to 2". B. 2.5 times at a distance of 4". C. 5 times at a distance of 3". D. 6 times at a distance of 6". 122. By adjusting the lever length or angle, you can adjust. A. Negative regular error. B. All regular errors. C. All irregular errors. D. None of the above. 123. Jewel holes and ruby pins of instruments are polished by: A. Diamond power. B. Emery paper. C. Oil stone. D. Diamantine.
124. For cleaning and removing the grease and oil from the instrument parts, use: A. Turpentine. B. Benzene. C. Methylated spirit. D. Kerosene. 125. Name the lubricant used for lubricating Oxygen parts : A. Graphite fluid ZX-24. B. Graphite grease XG 271. C. Trichloroethylene. D. Graphite fluid ZX-24 and graphite grease XG-271. 126. What is the consequence of lack of Oxygen at heights between 1800 to 2500 ft? A. Very sleepy. B. Unconscious. C. Loss of judgment. D. Blurred vision. 127. During night , what will be the effect of lack of Oxygen at 4000 ft? A. Loss of consciousness. B. Over confidence. C. Loss of co-ordination. D. Lowering of night vision. 128. Which is the suitable method used for charging O2 for Oxygen testing trolley? A. Economic method. B. Proper method. C. Charging method. D. Cascade method. 129. What is the technical term used for starvation of Oxygen? A. Get down condition. B. Anoxia. C. Loss of judgment. D. Hilarious. 130. What is the purpose of annular space between two walls of the liquid oxygen container. A. Evacuated for temperature maintaining inside. B. For insulation. C. Opened to atmospheric pressure. D. Sealed with 15 lbs / sq. inch pressure. 131. In liquid oxygen system, preferably the joints are made with: A. Rubber Material. B. Sealing compound. C. Leather material. D. Metal to metal joints. 132. What is the advantage of liquid oxygen over gaseous oxygen ? A. Less weight, more volume.
B. Non corrosive, more weight. C. Corrosive, more weight, more volume. D. Non-corrosive, less weight, occupies less space. 133. What is the colour of Liquid oxygen? A. Yellow in colour. B. Pale blue in colour. C. Colour less. D. Water colour. 134. What is effect on aircrew at 30000 altitude with fall of O2 supply? A. No ill effect. B. Hilarious. C. Un conscious. D. Cold effect. 135. What is the substance used to make the leak tight joint in liquid oxygen installation? A. Rubber sleeves. B. Varnished cambric. C. Polytetra flureethyle (PTFE). D. Special synthetic tubes. 136. The liquid oxygen is changed into gas by: A. Stabilizer. B. Pressure build up coil. C. Check valve. D. Pressure control valve. 137. In the liquid compass system radial wires are fixed to the moving system to increase. A. Deviation. B. Variation. C. Damping. D. Stability. 138. One of the undesirable habits in servicing is: A. Using appropriate tools. B. Following the servicing schedule. C. Keeping the working area clean. D. Resorting to short cuts. 139. Solar cell unit in Head up display system consists of: A. Two silicon voltaic cells. B. Single silicon photo voltaic cell. C. Three silicon photo voltaic cells. D. Simple voltaic cell. 140. Reflection of PDU in HUD system can be moved longitudinally to: A. Overcome limitation of viewing angle in Azimuth. B. Overcome limitation of viewing angle in elevation. C. Prevent diminishing of display illumination. D. Provide a bright and fine image. 141. Data input and output to and from electronic unit is:
A. Digital form. B. Analogue form. C. Digital and or analogue form. D. Pulse form. 142. The head up display system provides the pilot with a: A. Visual display of information for phases of flight. B. Virtual display of information for all phases of flight. C. Visual display of information only two phases of flight. D. Real display of information for all phases of flight. 143. The basic data displayed in HUD are: A. Altitude and heading. B. Angle of attack and bank angle. C. Radio height and vertical speed. D. All the above. 144. The characteristics of lens system on PDU is: A. Cleanliness. B. Brightness. C. Collimating. D. Shining. 145. Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work at A. 5 to 10 volts. B. 5 to 50 volts. C. 50 to 500 volts. D. (a) 500 to 5000 volts. 146. The additional energy required by an electron to overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called : A. Electron emission. B. Work function. C. Thermionic emission. D. Surface emission. 147. The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to control the : A. Input voltage applied to cathode. B. Input voltage applied to anode. C. Flow of electrons between cathode and anode. D. Flow of electrons from anode to cathode. 148. Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is controlled by : A. Focusing anode. B. accelerating anode. C. control grid. D. electrostatic deflecting plates. 149. The main function of accelerating electrode in an ESCRT is to : A. Control intensity of light spot. B. Eliminate highly divergent electrons. C. Focusing the beam into a spot. D. Deflecting the beam into the screen.
150. The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is achieved by : A. varying first anode voltage. B. varying second anode voltage. C. varying grid voltage. D. varying accelerating electrode. 151. The substance which have overlapping valance and conduction band are termed as : A. Semiconductors. B. Insulators. C. Conductors. D. Di-electric. 152. A PN junction diode can be formed by doping silicon with : A. Antimony and phosphorous. B. Arsenic and antimony. C. Boron and gallium. D. Arsenic and indium. 153. When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of semiconductor formed is : A. N type extrinsic. B. P type extrinsic. C. N type intrinsic. D. P type intrinsic. 154. In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to electric field causing collisions of charge carriers results in : A. Zener breakdown. B. Transient current. C. Avlanche breakdown. D. Forward current. 155. To obtain recombination current as well as larger collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased : A. Forward Forward. B. Forward Reverse. C. Reverse Forward. D. Reverse Reverse. 156. A medium in which an electric field can exist without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of electricity or insulator is called: A. Dielectric strength. B. Breakdown voltage. C. Breakdown in electric field. D. Dielectric. 157. The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of : A. Inter electrode capacitance. B. Inter electrode inductance. C. Shielding action of grid. D. Kink effect at low plate potential.
158. In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted between : A. Cathode and plate. B. Plate and screen grid. C. Cathode and screen grid. D. Cathode and grid. 159. A generator is a machine which produces always. A. AC output. B. DC output. C. AC and DC output. D. None of the above. 160. In a vibrating contact voltage regulation system the current coil is connected in: A. Series with shunt winding. B. Series with series winding. C. In parallel with shunt winding. D. In parallel with series winding. 161. In NPN or PNP transistor emitter is always: A. Forward biased. B. Reverse biased. C. Not connected only earthed. D. None of the above. 162. The role of electrolyte in Nickel-cadmium battery is. A. To play active part in chemical reaction. B. To provide parts for current flow. C. To collect oxygen from positive plate. D. To increase its relative density. 163. Paralleling of alternator is not possible due to: A. Wild frequency. B. Voltage. C. Load. D. None of the above. 164. Reactive load unbalance are corrected by: A. Controlling exciter field current. B. Controlling speed of prime mover. C. By adjusting torque at output drive shaft. D. None of the above. 165. In semiconductors, carriers are: A. Holes. B. Electron. C. Both atoms. D. All of the above. 166. When rectifiers are connected in parallel: A. Voltage handling capacity increases. B. Current handling capacity increase. C. No capacity increases. D. None of the above. 167. In transformer when transformation ratio is more than one (1), it indicates: A. Step down transformer.
B. Step up transformer. C. Auto transformer. D. Instrument transformer. 168. Mercury switch operates on: A. Pressure. B. Temperature. C. Interface tension. D. Altitude. 169. The rotor in an autosyn remote indicating system uses. A. an electromagnet. B. a permanent magnet. C. neither an electromagnet nor a permanent magnet. 170. The basic difference between an autosyn and a magnesyn indicating system is the. A. rotor. B. transmitter. C. receiver. D. . 171. The rotor in a magnesyn remote indicating system uses. A. a permanent magnet. B. an electromagnet. C. an electromagnet and a permanent magnet. D. . 172. Which of the following are some uses for a dc selsyn system? 1. Indicatespositionofretractablelandinggear 2.indicatestheangleofincidenceofanaircraft 3.Indicatesthealtitudeofanaircraft 4.Indicatescowlflapsoroilcoolerdoorposition 5.indicates (cont'd.). A. 1,4,5,7. B. 2,3,4,5. C. 2,3,5,6. 173. The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to reduce inter electrode : A. Capacitance between anode and grid. B. Capacitance between cathode and anode. C. Inductance between cathode and grid. D. Inductance between cathode and anode. 174. The reduction in plate current with increasing plate voltage is called: A. Mutual characteristics. B. Kink effect. C. Amplification factor. D. Power factor. 175. For deflection of the electron beam around the center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by applying the signal to : A. x-x plates.
B. Control grid. C. Final anode. D. y-y plates. 176. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is known as :a. A. Doping. B. Mixing. C. Biasing. D. Super imposing. 177. Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: A. 0.7 V. B. 0.5 V. C. 0.3 V. D. 0.03 V. 178. An atom is said to be stable when its valance orbit contains : A. 16 electrons. B. 8 Electrons. C. 4 Electrons. D. 2 Electrons. 179. The inherent property of an atom is to : A. Attract another atom. B. Stay as free atom. C. Accelerate at high speed. D. Achieve stable state. 180. Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is: A. 0.1 V. B. 0.2 V. C. 0.3 V. D. 0.7 V. 181. Barrier potential decreases with temperature at the rate of : A. 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. B. 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. C. 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. D. 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. 182. The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve is to : A. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and grid. B. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and anode. C. Eliminate undesirable kink effect. D. Eliminate electron cloud. 183. The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion layer stops growing is known as : A. Surface leakage current. B. Minority carrier current. C. Transient current. D. Reverse breakdown current.
184. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC current of 100 mA , is equal to : A. 5 ohm. B. 50 ohm. C. 25 ohm. D. 0.1 ohm. 185. The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to: A. Barrier potential. B. Applied voltage. C. Cut-in voltage. D. Breakdown voltage. 186. In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which reverse current rises sharply is known as : A. Knee voltage. B. Applied voltage. C. Barrier potential. D. Reverse breakdown voltage. 187. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC current 2 A, is equal to. A. 4 ohms. B. 0.4 ohms. C. 40 ohms. D. 10 ohms. 188. The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to : A. Convert AC into DC. B. convert DC into AC. C. Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC. D. Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC. 189. The heavily doped region in a transistor is : A. Base. B. Emitter. C. Collector. D. Depletion layer. 190. If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased (ie, emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse biased ), then the emitter and collector current will be : A. Zero. B. Maximum. C. Zero an maximum respectively. D. Maximum and zero respectively. 191. In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter depletion layer when compared to the width of collector depletion layer is : A. Equal. B. Smaller. C. Larger and smaller respectively. D. Larger.
192. The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN transistor collector region causes : A. Base current. B. Emitter current. C. Breakdown of transistor. D. Leakage current.
C. Inductor. D. Thermister.
193. While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor, the point of intersection with the calculated base current is known as: A. Saturation point. B. Cutoff point. C. Quiescent point. D. Breakdown point.
B. Block DC and short AC to ground. C. Improve current gain. D. Are used only in output stage.
194. The process of applying appropriate voltage to a transistor is called : A. Voltage regulation. B. Forward biasing. C. Biasing. D. Reverse biasing. 195. Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the input is fed between common terminal and one of the other two and output is taken between common and one of the remaining terminal is called : A. Biasing. B. Configuration. C. Feed back. D. Coupling. 196. The method of biasing, in which gain reduces due to negative feedback is : A. Base bias. B. Emitter feedback bias. C. Collector feedback bias. D. Voltage divider bias. 197. A coupling capacitor connects : A. A grounded point to an un grounded point. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. C. A grounded point to another grounded point. D. an ungrounded point another ungrounded point. 198. A by pass capacitor connects : A. A grounded point to an ungrounded point. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. C. A grounded point to another grounded point. D. An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point. 199. Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity during amplification of a signal avoided by the use of A. Capacitor. B. Resistor.
200. One common feature of capacitors when used for coupling and bypass is that they : A. Block AC and short DC to ground.
201. A saturated SCR can turned off only by : A. Removing the gate pulse. B. Reducing the gate trigger. C. Increasing the gate trigger to saturation. D. Reducing the load current below the holding current. 202. The phase difference of 180 Deg between the input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a common emitter amplifier is called : A. Amplification factor. B. Voltage reversal. C. Phase reversal. D. Current reversal. 203. The maximum possible overall efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is : A. 10 %. B. 25 %. C. 50 %. D. 75%. 204. In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : A. Capacitors. B. Inductance. C. An auto-transformer. D. Tank circuit. 205. The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely used oscillator for frequencies in the range o. A. 5 HZ to 1 MHZ. B. 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ. C. 20 HZ to 3 MHZ. D. 30 HZ to 30 MHZ. 206. The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of A. 5000 and above. B. 10,000 and above. C. 15,000 and above. D. 20,000 and above.
FILL IN THE BLANKS 1. The three temperature of which the pilot must be kept informed during the flight are the ___________.
20. In reciprocating engines, for slow running test the desired rpm is ______________________.
2. Dissimilar metals when joined at their ends produce an dependent on the b/w the junction.
21. The _________________ is produced when two dissimilar elements.
3. In a wheat stone bridge type of temperature indicator the point at which the circuit is balanced is called as .
22. are joined together.
4. A typical indicator consists of two interconnected elements, a and an indicating element.
24. Gyros are free from interference by _________.
5. The blind flying panel consists of . 6. Four principal elements of inst are . 7. In basic form, capacitance type fuel gauge system consists of a located in fuel tank, an and an . 8. The 2 typical form of gauge which operate by measuring the level of fuel in tank are . 9. The sensing elements commonly used to measure pressure in aircrafts are______ , ________, _______,and _______________ . 10. In synchro-control transformer, transmitters and receivers rotors are at to each other for zero signal conditions. 11. Air speed indicators indicated of the aircraft in air at any moment. 12. Engine performance instruments includes ______.
23. Attitude indicator is also known as ___________.
25. Important properties of gyros are _____________. 26. The three degrees of gyroscopes freedom is ______, ______, and ______. 27. INS uses ______ for inertial sensing. 28. Internal __________.
Navigation
consists
of
INS
and
29. In INS acceleration is integrated twice to get ______________. 30. INS is independent of ___________ interference . 31. True airspeed is EAS compensated for changes in ______________at various flight levels. 32. Computed airspeed is IAS with corrections for __________. 33. Rate of climb indicator is a ___________ .
13. All instruments have to be compensated ______ .
34. Lag in static pressure in ROCI is caused by using __________.
14. ASI and VSI works on the principle of _______.
35. Gyro horizon indicates attitude.
15. Techniques are used in pressure measurement in ________________ aircraft.
36. Two important properties of gyroscope are and .
16. The alternating current speed measurement system, measures speed in terms of ___________ . 17. Thermocouple temperature measurement instruments are of any external electrical supply for their operation.
37. Rate of precession is directly proportional to the strength and . 38. A gyro horizon indicates the attitude of an aircraft _______________. 39. Oxygen system used in aircraft are of type and type _______________.
18. system provides indication of rate of consumption of each engine and quantity of fuel remaining in ac.
40. Atmospheric pressure is expressed in .
19. is otherwise known as attitude indicator.
41. ICAO stands for _____________ .
42. An altimeter operates on the principle of an . 43. The pressure sensing element of the altimeter is compensated for change in temp. by a ___________. 44. The sensing element in altimeter is ________. 45. The turn and bank indicator contains indecent mechanisms.
51. Mach number is the ratio between _______ and speed of sound. 52. Altitudes alert system alert the flight crew, of an aircraft's approach to, or deviation from a _________ altitude. 53. The horizontal angle contained between the true and magnetic meridian at any place is known as the ___________.
46. For the detection of rate of turn are used. 47. ROCI is also called as ______________. 48. Red radial line on instrument dial indicates ____________. 49. The atm pressure at mean sea-level is equal to _______ mb. 50. When an airspeed indicator corrected only for instrument error, it reads ________.
54. The special calibration procedure carried out on compass to compensate for the deviations is known as ________. 55. In gyroscope, the increase of 'radius of gyration', will results in increase of _______. 56. The no. of gimbals ring in rate gyroscope is __________. 57. The no. of spokes in flux detector of MHRS system is ______.
STATE TRUE OR FALSE 1. ASI measures speed in terms of difference between dynamic and static pressure.
across the capsule which postion the pointer to indicate altitude change in m/s.
2. IAS is the reading of an ASI corrected for position error.
21. Main components of ROCI are capsule, indicating & metering unit.
3. In ROCI capillary tube is used to produce lag in static pressure.
22. In a ratio meter type temp indicating system, the force produced by the coil will always tend to rotate the measuring element in the same direction to that produced in the second coil.
4. Gyro horizon indicates only pitch of an ac. 5. Air data relates to the sensing and transmission of picot and static pressure to indicators.
23. Thermocouple temp measurement inst are independent of any external electrical supply for their operation.
6. Transmission error is type of dynamic error. 7. Precision depends on moment of inertia of rotor. 8. Altitude is indirectly proportional to static pressure. 9. Atmospheric pressure increases with increasing altitude. 10. Oxygen regulators are used for regulators of oxygen supply from high to low pressure.
24. The pilot need not refer to AH, VSI, ASI, Compasses constantly. 25. Accuracy considerations for instrument systems is not determined by the importance of the system. 26. Artificial horizon is otherwise known as altitude indicator. 27. Tank units are inductors whose value depends on fuel tank contents.
11. Below 37000 ft temp is const. 12. In QFE setting indicates 0 reading on landing at , and takeoff from airport.
28. Purpose of matching unit is to receive tank unit output capacitance and compare this with standard capacitance mounted in unit.
13. In QNE barometric pressure is used to make the altimeter read airport elevation above sea level on landing and takeoff.
29. Fuel flow meter system provides indication of rate of consumption of each engine and quantity of fuel remaining in ac.
14. Rate gyro used in turn indicator has two gambol rings.
30. Diaphragms due to the sensitivity are usually employed for the measurement of high pressure.
15. If bank angle of a rate of turn is correct, the resultant force holds the ball at the center of the tube.
31. U- tube manometers and dead weight techniques are used in pressure measurements in aircraft.
16. Speed of sound depends on atmospheric pressure and density , so it will vary with attitude of ac.
32. The three tapping are taken from the resister in Desynn system at intervals of 120 degrees.
17. ROCI & VSI are same.
33. A bi-metal strip contains two metals with high coefficient of linear expansion joined at their interface to form a single strip.
18. QFE setting the barometreic pressure to make the altimeter read airport elevation above sea level on landing and take off. 19. QNH setting the barometric pressure to make the altimeter read airport elevation above sea level on landing and take off. 20. The metering unit in ROCI introduces the required rate and time lad factors and differential pressure
34. When a pressure is applied to the interior of a bourdon tube, there is tendency for the tube to change from elliptical c/s to circular. 35. Similar metals when joined at their ends produce an electromotive force depending in the difference in temperature between the junction.
36. The most important temperature of which pilot must be aware of during flight is atmospheric temperature. 37. Flat arm gauge and capacitor gauge are the two typical form of gauge which operate by measuring the level of fuel in tank. 38. Aircraft speed measurement system measures speed in terms of voltage. 39. ROCI is used for measurement of altitude. 40. Altimeter is used for measurement of rate of climb of an aircraft.
49. The period during the disturbance of a system is known as transient period. 50. Ring laser gyroscope has no rotating mass or gimbals ring. 51. Inertial Navigation System does not require initial alignment. 52. The CRT is a thermiomic device. 53. The jet engine EGT indicating system works on Seebuct effect.
41. Air speed indicator indicates true air speed.
54. The compensation for aircraft altitude changes in the fuel quantity indicating system is done by compensator tank unit.
42. The device that indicates the desired pressure is reached is called pressure switch.
55. In vertical speed indicator, the capsule compresses when aircraft descents.
43. INS is affected by weather.
56. Places on charts, having the same dip angle are joined by lines known as Isoclinals.
44. INS can be easily jammed. 45. INS requires preflight alignment. 46. Rate gyro is an example of single degree of freedom gyro.
57. Oxygen charging can be carried out on aircraft during refuelling operation provided adequate precaution is observed. 58. In Altimeter, the static pressure is acting inside the aneroid capsule.
47. Gyros are used for Radio navigation. 48. Magnetic compass contains single degree of freedom gyros.
59. Auto pilot basically designed to improve aircraft stability.
WRITE SHORT NOTES ON 1. Wheat stone bridge.
12. Banana slot compensation.
2. Ratio meter system.
13. Equivalent air speed.
3. Thermo resistance compensation.
method
4. Differential synchros. 5. Bourdon tube. 6. Diaphragms. 7. Bellows. 8. Gyroscope. 9. Conventional gimbal gyros. 10. Internal navigation. 11. Inertial navigation system.
of
temperature
14. ROCI. 15. Mach meter. 16. Aircraft oxygen system. 17. Laser gyroscope. 18. Rate gyroscope. 19. Erection system in artifical horizon. 20. Limitation of free gyro. 21. Altimeter. 22. TSI.
VERY SHORT ANSWER 1. Define Induction.
Faraday's
laws
of
electro-magnetic 23. Define Temporary and permanent oscillation.
2. Name the common faults in a lead acid accumulator.
24. What are the various control of an aircraft. Explain aileron control?
3. What is the function of Arithmetic and Logic Unit in a Computer?
25. What is a servo mechanism? Explain it with example.
4. Write the purpose of Out Put Unit in Computer System?
26. Define oscillation Name types of oscillation and factors on which it depends.
5. What are the functions of CPU in a Computer?
27. Explain why oxygen gas is necessary for Human body.
6. What are the applications of a Micro Processor? 28. Define following: (a) Rhumb line (b) Small circle. 7. How secondary Instruments are classified? 29. Define electronics. 8. Explain briefly types of semi conductors. 30. Define energy level. 9. Write the construction of transmitter used in Desyn Transmission system.
31. Write short notes on vacuum diode.
10. Give advantages of static events over pressure heads in an aircraft.
32. How the electron beam is deflected left and right on the screen in an ESCRT?
11. Define :- (i) Isothermal law (ii) I CAN law.
33. Define the term 'Fluorescence' and how it is achieved in a CRT.
12. Name the errors in Air speed indicator. 34. Write short notes on semiconductors. 13. Give the different ‘Q’ code settings for altimeter. 35. Write short notes on ' Barrier Potential '. 14. Explain the effects of without oxygen an human body at various altitu. 15. What are the advantages of liquid oxygen over gaseous oxygen ? 16. Name different types of gyroscope. 17. How the gyro motor deflection is transmitted to the turn indicator pointer of DA-200?
36. Write short notes on ' Zener diode '. 37. Name the types of special diodes. 38. Name the various materials normally used for manufacturing photo conductive cells. 39. Name the various uses of PIN diodes. 40. Write short notes on collector feed back bias.
18. What is Sperry's rule of precession? 19. Name the factors on which the rigidity of a gyroscope depends.
41. Enumerate the advantages of transistors over vacuum tubes. 42. Name various types of transistor configurations.
20. Name the three degree of freedom of a gyroscope. 43. Name the types of Optical Fibers. 21. Explain lateral axis of an aircraft . 22. What is servo mechanism?
44. Explain why collector area in a transistor is larger than emitter or base .
45. Briefly explain the general draw backs of LC oscillators.
47. Enumerate the advantages of crystal oscillators. 48. Write short notes on Piezo electric effect. 49. Define Transducers.
46. Enumerate the advantages of Wien bridge oscillators.
50. Write short notes on Borescope.
SHORT ANSWER 1. Convert the following binary number to Octal number and explain the procedure . 1011011.011101(2). 2. Convert the following Hexadecimal number to Binary number and explain the procedure : 8 EBD.A(16). 3. Write the rules to be observed while 2's complement subtraction and subtract 1011(2) from 1111(2).
22. Name the parameters displayed on Head Down display system. 23. Name the various DC power supply fed to the stabilisers in Head up display system. 24. Name the sub assemblies Head up display system. 25. Describe the electrically driven gyroscope and write its advantages. 26. Explain briefly JPT gauge.
4. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2'S Compliment. 5. List out the points to be observed while simplifying Boolean expression by karnaugh map method.
27. Define "Seebeck Effect" and name the factors on which the EMF depends. 28. Explain about Seebeck effect.
6. Write short notes on the classification of multi vibrator.
29. Describe in brief a capsule.
7. Define the term Binary addition and briefly explain the rules of Binary addition.
30. Write down the procedure of adjusting the relief valve for HP charging.
8. Draw and explain in brief the Block diagram computer system.
31. Write short notes on conduction band. 32. Write short notes on directly heated cathode.
9. List out the differences between Software and Hardware.
33. Write short notes on Space Charge.
10. Explain in brief Application Software?
34. Name and explain the essential components of a CRT.
11. Define the term Software and Hardware.
35. Write short notes on conductors.
12. Explain in brief the function of computer operating system.
36. Write short notes on Zener breakdown. 37. Write short notes on ' depletion layer '.
13. Write short notes on Floppy disk. 14. Explain in brief about PROM and EPROM.
38. Briefly explain " Diffusion Capacitance" in a PN junction.
15. Explain the purpose of Altimeter in an Aircraft.
39. Write short notes on ' Avalanche Breakdown '.
16. Write the principle of Mach meter.
40. Briefly explain the operation of ' Step Recovery Diode '.
17. What do you understand by reciprocal bearing method on compass and explain briefly?
41. Write short notes on Tunnel Diode.
18. Explain deviation and variation.
42. How transducers are classified ?
19. What are the conditions to be observed prior to swinging the aircraft?
43. Write the procedure to carry out the bonding test on an aircraft.
20. Name the different types of compass errors and explain liquid swirl error.
44. Write the various uses of Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
21. What is error? How will you adjust regular error on an instrument?
45. How will you determine the unknown frequency with the help of CRO ?
LONG ANSWER 1. With the help of a neat sketch explain the principle, operation and use of Thermocouple Instrument.
25. Explain the constructional details of the basic component in INS i.e., gyroscope.
2. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working.
26. Explain the need of INS in modern aircraft? 27. What are the various sub-assemblies in an INS?
3. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument system?
28. What are the advantages of INS over conventional navigation system?
4. What are the various principal elements of an instrument?
29. What is the purpose of Auto Pilot.
5. Draw and explain Astable multivibrator.
30. What are the main component of auto pilot.
6. Draw and explain Bistable multivibrator.
31. What is the purpose of rate gyro.
7. Draw and explain RS Flipflop.
32. What is the purpose of Servo motor.
8. Draw and explain JK Flipflop.
33. How the pitch disturbance is eliminated in auto pilot system.
9. Explain how a micro computer works. 10. What is a principle used in networking in a computer system.
34. How is the roll disturbance & Yaw disturbance are over come in auto pilot system. 35. Briefly explain Automatic approach coupling unit.
11. Explain memory organisation in micro computer. 36. What is cross feed. 12. What is Cache memory in a computer. 37. What is the principle of operation of auto pilot system.
13. What are the advantages of LCD over LED. 14. Explain how LED works.
38. What are the advantage of Rate gyro over displacement gyro.
15. What is the difference between soldering and brazing.
39. Name the layers of Atmosphere.
16. Enumerate the requirements of ac instrument system?
40. Name the units used to express Atmoshpheric preasure.
17. Briefly explain the temperature compensation?
41. What is the temperature at mean sea level.
various
methods
of
18. What are various electrical temperature indicating system? 19. What is cold junction temperature compensation. 20. What are the effects of fuel temperature changes.
42. The temperature is constant above (a) 36900 ft (b) 46900 ft (c) 26900 ft (d) 56900 ft. 43. What the precautions to be observed while oxygen charging. 44. What are the various components of oxygen system.
21. What are the main functions of INS? 45. Write the main parts of oxygen regulator. 22. Define inertial navigation. Why is preferred over other types of navigation? 23. Explain the functioning of INS. 24. What do understand by rigidity and precession?
46. What are the precautions to be observed while calibrating oxygen equipments.
47. What is the procedure for replacing any oxygen components and how will replace a new oxygen components. 48. Write precautions while operating oxygen tester. 49. Name the main parts of the oxygen system. 50. What is an ANOXIA? What are the ill effect of ANOXIA on human body. 51. Draw the block diagram of pitot-static and explain briefly? 52. What are the various ‘Q’ codes for altimeter setting. Explain briefly? 53. Draw and explain briefly simple altimeter? 54. Define (a) Indicated air speed (b) True air speed (c) Rectified air speed. 55. What is square law compensation in ASI? 56. Expand the following (a) TSI (b) TAS.
70. What are the advantages of electrical operated gyro over air driven gyro? .Name the various types of gyroscope. 71. Define gyroscope. Name the type of gyroscope and explain any one of them. 72. What is gyro wander? How is it minimised in a rate gyroscope and explain three degree of freedom of gyroscope? 73. Write the purpose and operation erection mechanism in gyro horizon indicator. 74. Define gyroscope. State spree's rule of precession, Why it is applied to a gyroscope? 75. Write the purpose and operation of erection system of gyro horizon indicator (Badin type) when the rotor axis is deflected from the vertical in either plane. 76. What is gyroscopic inertia or rigidity, how it is increased?
57. Explain briefly the properties of a gyroscope? 58. What are the various degrees of freedom of a gyroscope? 59. Write short notes on (a) Laser gyroscope (b) Rate gyroscope (c) Erection system in artificial horizon (d) Limitation of a free gyro. 60. What is the purpose of the metering unit in a ROCI. 61. What are the principle components of an aircraft oxygen system. 62. Explain briefly about the components of aircraft oxygen system.
77. What do you understand by the term oscillation? Name the different types oscillation and briefly explain causes of oscillation. 78. Draw a block diagram denoting various hardware and its inter connection. 79. Briefly explain the principle of operation of altitude module of ADC. 80. Write the different components of MHRS system and mention the use of flux detector. 81. What is the purpose of flight director system and mention its components. 82. Write the difference between INS and IRS system.
63. How bank indication is achieved in a TSI. 83. Write the alignment sequence of IN/IR system. 64. Draw a simple diagram of ASI and briefly explain. 84. Draw a neat sketch of CRT. 65. Explain briefly the gyro horizon principle. 85. Write the construction of colour CRT. 66. What are the two commonly used principle used in square law compensation.
86. Explain servo operated TPM indicating system.
67. Write the purpose and and operation of caging mechanism of DG.
87. What is the purpose of EPR indicator and explain its basic operation.
68. Define, Rigidity precession torque and gyro wander.
88. Briefly explain principle of operation of integrated flow meter system.
69. Write in brief the properties of gyroscope.
89. What do you mean by EICAS and briefly explain its display modes.
106. Draw the sketch of combined pilot static probe and mark the different parts.
90. What is Flight Management System and write down its components.
107. What is pressure error and how it is compensated?
91. Briefly explain the typical passenger oxygen system.
108. What is TAS and how it is calculated in Air Speed indicators?
92. Name and explain various types of electron emission.
109. Why square-law compensation is required in ASI?
93. With the aid of a symbol sketch, explain the operation of pentode valve.
110. Briefly explain servo altimeter with a diagram.
94. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain characteristics of vacuum diode. 95. Name and semiconductors.
explain
the
main
types
of
96. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction, operation and uses of schottkey diode (Hot.
111. What are the Q-code of communication in connection with altimeter setting and briefly explain. 112. How instantaneous indication is generated by IVSI? 113. What is 'Ram Rise' and how it is created in TAT probe?
97. Enumerate the uses of different types of special diodes.
114. Why stall warming system used in aircraft and how many method of indication available to the flight crew?
98. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain the construction, operation and peak inverse.
115. What is turning error in DR compass and how it is compensated?
99. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the description and operation of Hartley oscil.
116. Briefly explain the mechanism of deviation compensator device in DR compass.
100. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain i.
117. How the direction of precession is determined in gyroscope?
101. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the description and operation of Colpits osc.
118. What is transport wander and how it is controlled?
102. With the help of a suitable structural and schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reache.
119. What are the types of erection system used in gyroscope?
103. Write the different types of displays and colour coding used in instrument indication.
120. Explain fast erection system in gyroscope.
104. Mention the difference between LED and LCD diodes.
121. Why erection cutout system is required in electrically operated gyro horizons? 122. Briefly explain the operation of Rate gyroscope.
105. Draw a diagram of basic flight instrument grouping and mark the 'Basic T' instruments.
123. Draw the diagram of control synchro system and mention the use of control transformer (CT).
BLANK
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ) 1. A Random Access Memory (RAM) is: A. Volatile memory. B. Non volatile memory. C. Temporary memory. D. Permanent memory.
10. A worksheet is also known as: A. Page. B. Spreadsheet. C. Document. D. Workbook.
2. The memory which is also called as 'Read Write Memory' is: A. ROM. B. RAM. C. PROM. D. EPROM.
11. In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse pointer indicates: A. Entering the data. B. Cut and paste. C. Copy and paste. D. Start menu.
3. The memory in which MOSFETS are used is: A. ROM. B. PROM. C. EPROM. D. Static RAM.
12. In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by: A. Alphabets. B. Numbers. C. Asterisks. D. Arrows.
4. In a computer application window, the status bar displays: A. The menu for the application. B. The name of the application. C. The font size, types of styles and alignment. D. Message, page number and section number.
13. A chart data series is a collection of: A. Related values. B. Functional values. C. Collected values. D. Resulted values.
5. In computer application window, the bar used to change document style and font size is: A. Status bar. B. Standard tool bar. C. Formatting tool bar. D. Menu bar. 6. In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of : A. 255 characters long. B. 235 characters long. C. 245 characters long. D. 275 characters long. 7. An EXCEL FILE is known as: A. Note book. B. Work book. C. Work sheet. D. Document. 8. In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for: A. Start menu. B. Copy and paste. C. Cut and paste. D. Entering the data. 9. An EXCEL workbook has a number of: A. Pages. B. Documents. C. Worksheets. D. Workbooks.
14. A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as: A. Radar chart. B. Embedded chart. C. Scattered chart. D. Column chart. 15. In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111 A. - 11011. B. - 00100. C. + 11011. D. + 00100. 16. Complement of a complement equal to: A. Zero. B. Complement. C. One. D. Original. 17. The 1's compliment of a binary number is the number that results when : A. Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa. B. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa. C. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa. D. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa. 18. Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is : A. 10100.1100. B. 11000.0011. C. 10011.0101. D. 11100.100.
19. Flip Flop is also known as : A. Astable Multi vibrator. B. Mono stable Multi vibrator. C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. Tri stable multi vibrator. 20. For production of voltage pulses without any driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring periodically, the circuit used is. A. Free running multi vibrator. B. Mono stable multi vibrator. C. Bi stable multi vibrator. D. RS flip flop. 21. Among the following ,the output device in a computer is: A. Key board. B. Printer. C. Mouse. D. Joy stick. 22. Many dot matrix printers are: A. Unidirectional. B. Tri-directional. C. Bi-directional. D. Quadra-directional. 23. Dot matrix printer is an example of: A. Line printer. B. Laser printer. C. Drum printer. D. Character printer. 24. A keyboard is a most common: A. Memory unit. B. Input device. C. Control device. D. Output device. 25. Unit of current by which the rate of flow of electricity is measured is: A. Volt. B. Ampere. C. Coulomb. D. Ohm. 26. One Joule is equal to : A. One watt second. B. One watt hour. C. One watt minute. D. One watt. 27. Ohm'S Law states that: A. R= V/I. B. V = R/I. C. I = R/V. D. R = VxI. 28. The practical unit of Conductance is :
A. Ohm. B. Coulomb. C. MHO. D. Volt. 29. The unit representing power or by which the rate of doing work is measured is : A. Joule. B. Watt. C. Ohms. D. None of the above. 30. The symbol of Impedence is : A. R. B. Z. C. I. D. V. 31. The value of Milli ampere is: A. 0.01 ampere. B. 0.1 ampere. C. 0.0001 ampere. D. 0.001 ampere. 32. The total opposition offered to the flow of current in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and capacitance is known as: A. Ohm. B. Conductance. C. Impedance. D. Watt Hour. 33. If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a circuit are doubled the circuit will be: A. Doubled. B. Halved. C. Four times. D. Remaining same. 34. A capacitor consists of two: A. Insulators separated by a dielectric. B. Conductors separated by an insulator. C. Ceramic plates and one mica disc. D. Silver coated Insulators. 35. A force that tends to drive electricity through a circuit is called: A. Ampere. B. Wattage. C. RMS value. D. EMF. 36. The meter, which is used for measuring and comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known as: A. Potentiometer. B. Bonding tester. C. Ammeter.
D. Multi meter. 37. The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends upon: A. R = L / A. B. A = L / R. C. L = R / A. D. P = L / A. 38. To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour code is used. Certain colours are used for certain numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is: A. 1. B. 5. C. 0. D. 2.
B. 30 GHz to 300 GHz. C. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz. D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. 46. Computer which doesn't compute directly with the number is called : A. Mini computer. B. Micro computer. C. Digital computer. D. Analog computer. 47. Flip flops are clocked to achieve : A. Synchronization. B. Optimization. C. More propagations time. D. 'O' as output of all flip flop.
39. One mega ohm is equal to: A. 10 to the power 2ohms. B. 10 to the power 3 ohms. C. 10 to the power 4 ohms. D. 10 to the power 6 ohms.
48. The number 17 octal is equivalent to binary : A. 111. B. 1110. C. 10000. D. 1111.
40. When different resistances are joined end on end, they are said to be connected in: A. Parallel. B. Series - parallel. C. Parallel - series. D. Series.
49. Which of the following is not octal number: A. 19. B. 7. C. 15. D. 101.
41. The current flowing through a conductor is proportional to difference of potential at the ends of the conductor, provided the temperature remains constant is defined by: A. Coulombs Law. B. Ohms Law. C. Joules Law. D. Kirchoffs Law. 42. VHF frequency band ranges from : A. 300 MHz to 3000MHz. B. 300 KHz to 30MHz. C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. D. 300 KHz to 3000 KHz. 43. Medium frequency ranges from. A. 30 MHz to 300 MHz. B. 300 KHz to 3000 KHz. C. 30 GHz to 300 GHz. D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz. 44. High frequency (HF) ranges from: A. 3 MHz to 30 MHz. B. 30MHz to 300 MHz. C. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz. D. 3000KHz to 30MHz. 45. Ultra High Frequency (UHF) ranges from: A. 36GHz to 30 GHz.
50. Junction diode is a : A. Bipolar device. B. Constant voltage device. C. Unipolar device. D. Constant current device. 51. A register stores : A. One word of data. B. A byte. C. One instruction. D. 4 bits data. 52. Not gate is known as : A. Converter. B. Inverter. C. Rectifier. D. Amplifier. 53. Computer hardware usually refers to : A. Hard metallic component of a computer. B. Various associated program. C. CPU. D. Central processor input/output devices and backing storage. 54. In high level language, the source program is translated into object program with the help of : A. Computer. B. Converter. C. Compiler.
D. Translator. 55. When an input electrical signal A=10100 is applied to a NOT gate its output signal is a: A. 01011. B. 10101. C. 10100. D. 00101. 56. Truth table of a logic functions : A. Summaries its output value. B. Tabulates all its input conditions. C. Displays all its input/output possibilities. D. Is not based on the logic algebra. 57. A static memory is one that. A. Is capable of storing binary information indefinitely. B. Requires periodic restoration of information. C. Is volatile. D. Has destructive read out. 58. A counter where all the flip flops are fed altogether at the same time with the clock is called. A. Ring counter. B. Serial counter. C. Synchronous counter. D. Decade counter. 59. Semi conductor memory in computer is based on. A. Magnetic circuit operation. B. Transformer operation. C. Transistor operation. D. Non magnetic circuit operation. 60. A half adder is called so because it : A. Can add half the bits in a binary number. B. Works for half time only. C. Performs addition in two halves. D. Can not accept a carry from previous additions. 61. A half adder can be constructed from : A. Two XOR gates only. B. One XOR and one Or gate with their Outputs connected in parallel. C. One XOR and one OR gate with their Input connected in Parallel. D. One XOR gate and one AND gate. 62. The only function of a NOT gate is to: A. Stop a signal. B. Re-complement a signal. C. Invert an input signal. D. Act as a universal gate. 63. In a half adder when the input signal A=1 and B=1 the : A. Sum =1,carry=0. B. Sum =1, carry =1.
C. Sum=0,carry=0. D. Sum =0,carry=1. 64. A full adder consists of : A. Two half adders cascaded together. B. Two half adders and one OR gate. C. Two half adders and one AND gate. D. Two NAND gates. 65. The type of memory, which provides very large storage capability with a moderate operating speed, is known as : A. Dynamic memory. B. Magnetic disc memory. C. Magnetic memory. D. Bi polar memory. 66. The first generation computer was introduced with: A. Solid state transistors. B. Vacuum tubes. C. Chips. D. IC's. 67. If an electron moves from the conduction band in to the valance band, so that a mobile electron hole pair disappear, then this process is known as: A. Collision. B. Re combination. C. Partition. D. Thermal agitation. 68. Peak to peak detector is used: A. In measuring instrument. B. In oscillator. C. In amplifier. D. For regulation of voltage. 69. Series inductance in smoothing circuit: A. Bypasses AC variation. B. Opposes DC variation. C. Opposes AC variation. D. Gives fluctuating output. 70. In clipping circuits, the clipping level is primarily determined by: A. Shape of input wave form. B. Battery voltage. C. Value of the resistor. D. Knee voltage of the diode. 71. A device that can rectify frequencies above 300 M Hz for beyond the capacity of the bipolar diode is: A. Zener diode. B. Step recovery diode. C. Schottky diode. D. Pin diode.
72. In a CC amplifier, voltage gain: A. Cannot exceed unity. B. Depends upon output impedance. C. Dependent on input signal. D. Is always constant. 73. The main use of class C amplifier is: A. In RF circuits of a TXR above 20 K Hz. B. As stereo amplifier. C. In communication sound equipment. D. As distortion generator. 74. The value of Alpha (Current amplification) in junction transistor is: A. Less than one. B. More than one. C. Equal to one. D. 0.707 of one. 75. The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve is prevented by: A. Capacitor. B. Suppressor grid. C. Control grid. D. Choke. 76. If the control grid in a triode as an amplifier circuit is open circuited, it will work as: A. Amplifier. B. Rectifier. C. Oscillator. D. Rectifier or an amplifier. 77. If by mistake, AC source in a bridge rectifier is connected across the DC terminals, it will result in burning of: A. One diode. B. Two diodes. C. Three diodes. D. Four diodes. 78. The additional energy required by an electron to overcome the surface barrier of the metal is known as: A. Surface barrier. B. Work function. C. Transfer of electron. D. Electron emission. 79. A bypass capacitor produces an: A. Ideal ground. B. DC ground. C. Virtual ground. D. AC ground. 80. The common base PNP junction transistor has reverse biased arrangement between: A. Emitter and base. B. Emitter and collector. C. Collector and base.
D. Base and emitter. 81. When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is reverse biased, collector current: A. Is reversed. B. Increases. C. Decreases. D. Stops. 82. The transistor circuit used to couple a low impedance source to a high impedance load is: A. Length of the vertical deflecting plates. B. Distance between screen and deflecting plates. C. Deflecting voltages. D. Separation between Y Plates. 83. The deflection sensitivity of a CRT depends inversely on: A. Length of the vertical deflecting plates. B. Distance between screen and deflecting plates. C. Deflecting voltages. D. Separation between Y Plates. 84. The voltage across the depletion layer due to diffusion of the carrier is called: A. Energy hill. B. Fermi level. C. Depletion voltage. D. Potential hill. 85. Magnetron is used as : A. High frequency high power output oscillator. B. Low frequency and high power output oscillator. C. High frequency low power output oscillator. D. Low frequency low power output oscillator. 86. Reflex klystron is used as: A. Low frequency low power output oscillator. B. Low frequency high power output oscillator. C. High frequency low power output oscillator. D. High frequency high power output oscillator. 87. Radar works on the principle of: A. Doppler. B. Echo. C. Electromagnetic induction. D. Transformer. 88. Out -put of short C.R. differentiation circuit for a square wave input is : A. Sine wave. B. Square wave. C. Saw tooth wave. D. Peaky in nature. 89. Position of satellite in the sky is known as: A. Geo stationary orbit. B. First orbit. C. Second orbit.
D. Last orbit. 90. Loud speaker is: A. An electrical device. B. Mechanical device. C. An electro mechanical device. D. A pneumatic device. 91. The process of separating signal in frequency is called: A. FDM. B. TDM. C. PDM. D. MDM. 92. The range of LOS communication is : A. 600 miles. B. 40 miles. C. 30 to 40 miles. D. 250 to 600 miles.
99. Erasable PROM (EPROM) is: A. Temporary memory. B. Permanent memory. C. Volatile memory. D. Non volatile memory. 100. In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased by exposing it to: A. X' rays. B. Alpha rays. C. Infra red rays. D. Ultra violet rays. 101. In secondary memories, an amplifier and comparator are used to convert: A. Small signal to large signal. B. Large signal to small signal. C. Small signal to standard logic levels. D. Standard logic levels to small signal.
93. In amplitude modulation, wave shape is maintained at a very broad band in: A. Audio telecast. B. Video telecast. C. PA telecast. D. Live telecast.
102. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used to. A. reduce the bandwidth. B. separate differing transmissions. C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance. D. allow the use of practical antennas.
94. Marker are used to : A. Indicate the position of the aircraft with respect to touch down. B. Help pilot to take off the aircraft. C. Avoid heavy landing. D. To make sure accident free landing.
103. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is: A. Unchanged. B. Halved. C. Doubled. D. Increased by 50%.
95. Radio compass is used to find out the : A. True north. B. Relative bearing of the station tuned. C. Altitude. D. Speed of the aircraft.
104. In communication system noise is most likely to affect the signal. A. At the transmitter. B. In the information source. C. In the channel. D. At the destination.
96. The range of AC voltmeter on 11.25 KVA set is : A. 0 to 150V AC. B. 0 to 230 V AC. C. 0 to 250V AC. D. 0 to 300V AC. 97. The range of airport location Beacon is : A. 150 Km. B. 100 Km. C. 50 Km. D. 20 Km. 98. When the Perspex is warmed it can be : A. Easily moulded. B. Tendency of facture. C. Malleable. D. Ductile.
105. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the. A. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency. B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency. C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF. D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above the carrier frequency. 106. One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the : A. Filter system. B. Phase shift method. C. Third Method. D. Balanced Modulator.
107. The value of a resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is therefore : A. halved. B. quadrupled. C. doubled. D. unchanged.
115. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM. A. better noise immunity is provided. B. lower bandwidth is required. C. the transmitted power is more useful. D. less modulating power is required.
108. Indicate the noise whose source is in the category different from that of the other three. A. Solar noise. B. Cosmic noise. C. Atmospheric noise. D. Galactic noise.
116. Indicate the false statement regarding the advantage of SSB over double sideband, full carrier AM. A. More channel space is available. B. Transmitter circuit must be more stable, giving better reception. C. The signal is more noise resistant. D. Much less power is required for the same signal strength.
109. In a low level AM system amplifier is following the modulated stage must be. A. Linear devices. B. Harmonic devices. C. Class C amplifier. D. Non linear devices. 110. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed the percentage power saving will be. A. 50. B. 150. C. 100. D. 66.6. 111. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance. A. Input noise voltage. B. Noise temperature. C. Equivalent noise temperature. D. Noise figure. 112. A carrier is simultaneously modulated by the two Sine waves with the modulation indices of 0.3 and 0.4; the total modulation index is. A. 1. B. cannot be calculated unless the phase relation s are known. C. 0.5. D. 0.7. 113. In the spectrum of frequency modulated wave. A. The carrier frequency disappears when the modulation index is large. B. The amplitude of any sideband depends on the modulation index. C. The total number of sidebands depends on the modulation index. D. The carrier frequency cannot disappear. 114. A pre-emphasis circuit provides extra noise immunity by. A. boosting the bass frequencies. B. amplifying the higher audio frequencies. C. pre-amplifying the shole audio band. D. converting the phase modulation to FM.
117. The most commonly used filters in SSB generation are. A. Mechanical. B. RC. C. LC. D. Low-pass. 118. In a radio receiver with simple AGC. A. an increase in the signal strength produces more AGC. B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC. C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more accurate the output. D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between stations. 119. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming frequency. A. To help the image frequency rejection. B. To permit easier tracking. C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced. D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching. 120. If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false statement). A. Image frequency rejection is very good. B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable. C. The selectivity will be poor. D. Tracking will be improved. 121. One of the following cannot be used to demodulate SSB. A. product detector. B. diode balanced modulator. C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator. D. complete phase shift generator.
122. Distance near The skip distance should be used for sky wave propagation. A. to avoid tilting. B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference. C. to avoid the faraday effect. D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency. 123. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of. A. Ground waves. B. Sky waves. C. Surface waves. D. Space waves. 124. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the transmitter, because of. A. interference from. B. loss of line of sight conditions. C. maximum single hop distance limitation. D. tilting. 125. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use. A. ISB. B. Carrier. C. SSB with pitot carrier. D. Lincompex. 126. In EM waves polarization is. A. caused by reflection. B. is due to the transverse nature of the waves. C. results from longitudinal nature of the waves. D. is always vertical in an isotropic medium. 127. The emitter of a transistor is doped. A. to a lesser extent than collector. B. depends upon specification. C. heavily. D. so that most of emitter injected electron ea go to the base of transistor. 128. Basic drawback with base bias circuit is. A. the base and collecter power supplies are same. B. base and collecter resistors are returned to collector supply. C. it cannot be used in switching circuits. D. Beta dc varies with current and temperature. 129. In the collector feedback bias. A. the Beta dc generally varies. B. the base resistor is grounded. C. the base resistor is returned to the collector than to power supply. D. difficult to set a stable Q-point. 130. Amplification factor for triode is given by. A. = rp/gm. B. = gm.rp. C. = gm/rp+gm. D. None of the above.
131. The transistor used in power amplifier have. A. large current ratings. B. large voltage ratings. C. large power dissipating capacity. D. neither of these characteristics. 132. The input and output signals of a CE amplifier are. A. Always equal. B. Out of phase. C. Always negative. D. In phase. 133. A Flip Flop is a. A. Astable Multivibrator. B. Bistable Multivibrator. C. Monostable Multivibrator. D. None of the above. 134. In a Transistor if the base resistance is shorted it will be : A. Saturated. B. Cut off. C. Destroyed. D. None of the above. 135. The transistor of Class B push pull Amplifiers are biased at : A. Cut off. B. Center of DC load line. C. Saturation. D. Biasing is fixed by manufacturer. 136. The varactor is usually. A. F Biased. B. R Biased. C. Unbiased. D. In the breakdown region. 137. For nomal operation of the transistor the collector diode has tobe. A. F B. B. R B. C. Non conducting. D. Operating in breakdown region. 138. Modulation index in FM is : A. directly proportional modulating voltage. B. Inversely proportional to mod. Frequency. C. Directly proportional to modulating frequency. D. Inversely proportional to the mod voltage. 139. The amount of energy required for an electron to jump from valance band to conduction band is equal to: A. 1.1 eV. B. 1.2 eV. C. 11 eV. D. 2.1 eV.
140. A lower IF helps : A. To reject Second Channel frequency. B. To reject adjacent channel frequency. C. Increase tracking difficulties. D. Better image frequency rejection. 141. When the power O/P of an amplifier is 15 W and input power is 0.5 W, the Gain in dB is : A. 15.5. B. 30. C. 14.5. D. 7.5. 142. Indicate the false statement. Modulation is used to. A. reduce the bandwidth. B. separate differing transmissions. C. ensure that intelligence may be transmitted over long distance. D. allow the use of practical antennas. 143. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is: A. Unchanged. B. Halved. C. Doubled. D. Increased by 50%. 144. In a broadcast Superheterodyne receiver, the. A. local oscillator operates below the signal frequency. B. Mixer input must be tuned to the signal frequency. C. Local oscillator frequency is normally double the IF. D. RF amplifier normally works at 455 KHz above the carrier frequency. 145. One of the following cannot be used to remove the unwanted sideband in SSB. This is the : A. Filter system. B. Phase shift method. C. Third Method. D. Balanced Modulator. 146. In a low level AM system amplifier is following the modulated stage must be. A. Linear devices. B. Harmonic devices. C. Class C amplifier. D. Non linear devices. 147. If the carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed the percentage power saving will be. A. 50. B. 150. C. 100. D. 66.6.
148. Indicate which one of the following is not an advantage of FM over AM. A. better noise immunity is provided. B. lower bandwidth is required. C. the transmitted power is more useful. D. less modulating power is required. 149. The most commonly used filters in SSB generation are. A. Mechanical. B. RC. C. LC. D. Low-pass. 150. In a radio receiver with simple AGC. A. an increase in the signal strength produces more AGC. B. the audio stage gain is normally controlled by the AGC. C. the faster the AGC time constant, the more accurate the output. D. the highest the AGC voltage is produced between stations. 151. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to the frequency higher than the incoming frequency. A. To help the image frequency rejection. B. To permit easier tracking. C. Because otherwise an intermediate frequency could not be produced. D. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching. 152. If the intermediate frequency is very high (indicate the false statement). A. Image frequency rejection is very good. B. The local oscillator need not be extremely stable. C. The selectivity will be poor. D. Tracking will be improved. 153. One of the following cannot be used to demodulate SSB. A. product detector. B. diode balanced modulator. C. bipolar transistor balanced modulator. D. complete phase shift generator. 154. Distance near The skip distance should be used for sky wave propagation. A. to avoid tilting. B. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference. C. to avoid the faraday effect. D. so as not to exceed the critical frequency. 155. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of. A. Ground waves. B. Sky waves.
C. Surface waves. D. Space waves. 156. The ground wave eventually disappears, as one moves away from the transmitter, because of. A. interference from. B. loss of line of sight conditions. C. maximum single hop distance limitation. D. tilting. 157. If JK flip flop changes its state more than once during propagations. A. Racing. B. Toggling. C. Running. D. Mixing. 158. A counter where all the flip flops are fed altogether at the same t. A. Ring counter. B. Serial counter. C. Synchronous counter. D. Decade counter. 159. A half adder can be constructed from: A. Two XOR gates only. B. One XOR and one Or gate with their Outputs connected in parallel. C. One XOR and one OR gate with their Input connected in Parallel. D. One XOR gate and one AND gate. 160. A 8 bit parallel binary adder consists of: A. 8 full adder. B. 7 full adder and 01 half adder. C. 4 full adder and 4 half adder. D. 8 half adder. 161. Complement adder / substractor is based on: A. 3's complement. B. 2's complement. C. 1's complement. D. 0's complement. 162. A group o flip flop wired as a shift register is used for shifting a b. A. Into the register. B. Out of the register. C. Out of the flip flop. D. Both a and b. 163. In MOPA system, antenna is not coupled directly to the tank circuit of the oscillator to avoid : A. Reduction in level of transmission. B. use on both CW and RT. C. Frequency instability. D. increased power transmission. 164. Chirps in keying are caused due to :
A. The carrier not droping to zero when key is opened. B. The use of low grid block voltage. C. The instantaneous rise of carrier power from zero to full power. D. Use of undesirable load. 165. The type of keying used for eliminating arcing is : A. Over bias keying. B. Centre filament Keying. C. Anode keying. D. Grid keying. 166. In time division Multiplexing the frame bit is added for the purpose of : A. Sampling. B. Synchronization. C. Pulse amplitude modulation. D. Pulse width modulation. 167. Salient features of low level modulation is : A. Following stage where modulation takes place has to be linear. B. Power handling capacity is more. C. More numbers of AF stages are required. D. Less efficiency. 168. Selectivity of a reciever can be improved by employing: A. More number of tuned circuit. B. More number of AF stages. C. More number of RF pre-selector. D. More number of IF stages. 169. The purpose of buffer amplifier in a transmitter is to : A. Isolate aerial from mixer stage. B. Isolate IF stages from local oscillator stage. C. Connect MO to other amplifying stages. D. Isolate MO from the amplifying stages. 170. A process in which same active device is used as mixer as well as Oscillator is called : A. Endodyne. B. Heterodyne. C. VCO. D. Synthesizer. 171. When the power gain is 0.01, the decibel power gain is : A. -20 dB. B. 20 dB. C. 10 dB. D. -10dB. 172. The stage which isolate power amplifier from the Master Oscillator is known as: A. Divider stage.
B. Buffer stage. C. Harmonic Generator. D. Modulator. 173. In vestigial side band the lower edge of the USB frequency band transmits : A. Video Carrier. B. Audio Carrier. C. Pilot Carrier. D. Audio and Video Carrier. 174. Noise which is produced due to random variations in the arrival of Electrons or Holes at Collector of an Amplifying device is referred as : A. Thermal Agitation noise. B. Gas Noise. C. Shot Noise. D. Flicker Noise. 175. In amplitude modulation distortion is overcome by : A. Carrier being higher than modulating voltage. B. Carrier not be greater than modulating voltage. C. Modulation index should be between 0 to 2. D. Modulation frequency should be kept constant. 176. The formation of electron cloud near the Cathode can be reduced by : A. Decreasing the anode voltage. B. Increase the distance between Anode and Cathode. C. Decreasing the distance between Anode and Cathode. D. By introducing a heated filament under the Cathode. 177. A gate gives 1 out put when all the inputs are 1 is known as : A. OR Gate. B. NOT Gate. C. AND Gate. D. NOR Gate. 178. The ratio of small change in plate voltage to the small change in plate current with grid voltage constant is known as:_. A. Trans conductance. B. Plate resistance. C. Plate current. D. Cathode voltage. 179. The amplification factor of a pentode ranges from : A. 70 to Over 5000. B. 40 to Over 800. C. 20 to Over500. D. 70 to 500. 180. The ratio of DC collector current to DC emitter current is called :
A. Beta DC. B. I c. C. I b. D. Alfa DC. 181. Transistor is always operated in : A. Saturation region. B. Active region. C. Break down region. D. All the above. 182. The kind of coupling in which power loss is more : A. R C. B. Impedence. C. Direct. D. Transformer. 183. A modified discriminator circuit to provide limitting is called: A. Phase discriminator. B. Slop Detector. C. Balanced Slop Detector. D. Ratio Detector. 184. While designing large signal amplifiers with maximum AC out put compliance the 'Q' is to be located : A. located above the centre of DC load line. B. located below the centre of DC load line. C. located at the centre of DC load line. D. located above and below the centre of DC load line. 185. The resistance of Carbon is affected by : A. Light. B. Magnetism. C. Mechanical Stress. D. Humidity. 186. The forbidden energy gap of insulating material is : A. 1 Electron Volt. B. 6 Electron volt. C. 3 Electron volt. D. 8 Electron volt. 187. The collector feed back bias circuit is designed : A. So that emitter voltage has direct effect on base voltage. B. To have a direct effect on Grid voltage. C. To improve frequency response at high frequencies. D. To reduce the effects of Beta variation on Q point. 188. The outer most shell of an atom is : A. Valance shell. B. Conduction shell. C. Valance Band.
D. Conduction band. 189. An important valve constant which determines how much control the control grid voltage has over the plate current is known as : A. Amplification factor. B. Plate resistance. C. Trans conductance. D. Grid anode capacity. 190. In a balanced modulator the modulating voltage (V2) and carrier voltage (V1) are applied at the gate of FET : A. In phase. B. Out of phase by 180 degree. C. Mod Vol V2 by 180 degree out of phase and carrier vol V1 in phase. D. Modulating Voltage V2 in phase and Carrieer Voltage V1 by 180 Degree out of phase. 191. In frequency modulation the modulation index is A. Inversely proportional to the Modulating frequency. B. Directly proportional to the modulating frequency. C. Equal to the modulating frequency. D. Twice that of the modulating frequency. 192. Forward resistance of a transistor should be : A. 500 Ohm. B. 100 K Ohm. C. 1 K Ohm. D. 10 K Ohm. 193. After the input changes, the time taken for the output of a gate or a flip-flop to change its states is known as : A. Set up time. B. Propagation Delay time. C. Holding time. D. Hold Delay time. 194. If the length of a director is 65 feet and its frequency is : A. 7 MHz. B. 5 MHz. C. 9 MHz. D. 14 MHz. 195. A+[ B+C] = [ A+B] +C ( OR Operation ) and A. [ B . C] = [A . B] . C ( AND operation) are : A. Commutative Law. B. Associative Law. C. Distributive Law. D. Octate Law. 196. Each AND ed term is sum of product of a Boolean expression is known as : A. Max term. B. Pair method.
C. QUAD method. D. Min term. 197. A Boolean expression which is formed by considering the rows of truth table for '1' output condition is known as : A. Maxterm. B. Standard product of sum. C. Standard sum of product. D. Minterm. 198. The amount of time it takes for the output of a gate or a flip flop to change the states after the input changes is called : A. Hold time. B. Propagation delay time. C. Set up time. D. Preset time. 199. A+AB is equal to : A. A+B. B. A+B. C. A+B. D. A.B. 200. A small Capacitor connected in series to a coil to provide small frequency correction generally towards lower side of frequency band is called : A. Trimmer. B. Padder. C. MIXER. D. PLL. 201. Convert Hexa-Decimal number D A D. B (16) into Binary Number : A. 110110101111.1010. B. 101011110101.1100(2). C. 111000101011.1001(2). D. 110110101101.1011(2). 202. An array is one in which the principal direction of radiation coincides with the direction of the array axis is called as : A. Parasitic array. B. Broad side array. C. Driven array. D. End fire array. 203. A group of Multi vibrators wired to provide shifting a binary Number into the register or shifting out of the register or both functions is called : A. Shift Register. B. Serial Shift Register. C. Buffer Register. D. Push-Pull Register. 204. The octal equivalent of binary number 1110 (2) is: A. 11.
B. 13. C. 16. D. 17.
A. Distortion occurs. B. Percentage of modulation increases. C. Level of carrier become high. D. Level of carrier become low.
205. The GATE which gives 1 output ,only when any or all the inputs are one is known as : A. XOR GATE. B. OR GATE. C. NOT GATE. D. AND GATE. 206. "NOT" gate is known as : A. Converter. B. Inverter. C. Alternator. D. All the above. 207. An "AND" gate gives out put : A. When all the inputs are one. B. when one input is one. C. When any inputs are one. D. When two dissimilar inputs are one. 208. An "OR" gate followed by "NOT" gate , the circuit is called : A. "AND" gate. B. "OR" gate. C. "NOR" gate. D. "NAND" gate. 209. The multiplication sign stands for : A. OR operation. B. NOT operation. C. NOR operation. D. AND operation.
in Boolean algebra
210. A wave with continuously rotating polarisation is termed as : A. Horizontal polarisation. B. Vertical polarisation. C. Circular polarisation & Elliptical polarisation. D. Horzontal and vertical polarisation. 211. An increase in the number of valance electrons , then conductivity: A. Increase. B. Decrease. C. Not increase. D. Not decrease. 212. Power handling capacity is more in:_. A. Plate modulation. B. Grid modulation. C. Low level modulation. D. High level modulation. 213. In amplitude modulation when modulating voltage becomes greater than carrier voltage then:
214. Inter action of power amplifier oscillator is avoided by the use of: A. Harmonic generator. B. Master oscillator. C. Buffer amplifier. D. Inter stage coupling.
with master
215. A dipole is the one which has : A. Two identical halves with one end earthed. B. Two identical halves and the potential is opposite at the ends. C. Two identical halves with their ends at opposite potential with respect to earth at centre. D. symmetrical halves with ends at identical potential with respect to central earthy point. 216. Some part of Aerial energy lost due to the surrounding objects during propogation is known as A. Absorption. B. Dispersion. C. Diffraction. D. Refraction. 217. A Marconi aerial is cut for a length of 13 feet and frequency that would be radiated is. A. 9 MHz. B. 18 MHz. C. 27 MHz. D. 15 MHz. 218. A half wave aerial is cut for a length of 26 feet . The frequency that would be radiated is : A. 18 Mhz. B. 9 Mhz. C. 9 Khz. D. 13.6 Mhz. 219. The type of feeder line desired in an aircraft for the use with a very high frequency is. A. Twin feeder. B. Four wire feeder. C. Concentric feeder. D. Open wire feeder. 220. The length of the director is frequency is : A. 5 MHz. B. 7 MHz. C. 9 MHz. D. 14 MHz.
65 ft and its
221. An array is one in which the principal direction of radiation coincides with the direction of the array axis is known as :
A. Broad side array. B. Parasitic array. C. End fire array. D. Driven array. 222. The aerial which are specially used for low frequency ranges are : A. Quarter wave aerial. B. Half wave aerial. C. Folded dipole. D. Inverted L and T aerial. 223. If the length of the marconi aerial is 13 feet then the radiation frequency will be: A. 9 MHz. B. 18 MHz. C. 26 MHz. D. 36 MHz. 224. The center impedance of a dipole is 80 Ohm and to match with a 600 Ohm line the surge impedance of a quarter wave matching section should be : A. 220 Ohm. B. 110 Ohm. C. 55 Ohm. D. 330 Ohm. 225. The power gain of Rhombic Aerial is more due to : A. All the four legs are not taking part in radiation. B. All the four legs are taking part in radiation. C. The adding of terminating resistance. D. Counter poise is used. 226. The final stage of audio amplifier is known as : A. Modulator. B. De-Modulator. C. Power amplifier. D. RF-Modulator. 227. Radiation resistance of a marconi aerial is : A. 20 ohms. B. 40 ohms. C. 80 ohms. D. 120 ohms. 228. The generator which has the full voltage, applied across its field windings is: A. Separately excited generator. B. Shunt wound generator. C. Series wound generator. D. Compound wound generator. 229. A method in which the principle of law of charges is utilised in attracting electrons from an unheated electrons is called: A. Thermionic emission. B. Secondary emission. C. Field emission.
D. Photo electric emission. 230. When mercury is placed near a powerful magnet, experience a weak repulsion .It is categorised as the substance of : A. Dia magnetic. B. Ferro magnetic. C. Para magnetic. D. Non magnetic. 231. The device in which the current set up is external circuit is unidirectional , the machine is termed as : A. AC Generator. B. DC Generator. C. Synchronous Generator. D. Separately excited Generator. 232. To have a speed control on series motor , in flux control method , a variable resistance is shunted to series winding . This is called : A. Armature divertors. B. Tapped field control. C. series field control. D. Filed diverters. 233. Ratio of RMS value to triangular wave is : A. 1. B. 1.1. C. 1.15. D. 1.12.
average value for
234. When alternate voltage is applied to a purely inductive coil : A. Current leads voltage by quarter cycle. B. Voltage leads current by 180degree. C. Current leads voltage by 90degree. D. Voltage leads current by 90degree. 235. What is the equivalent of resistance connected in series: A. 10 Ohms. B. 11 Ohms. C. 12 (. D. 13 Ohm.
2, 3 and 8
ohm
236. In capacitors , the capacity increases , when: A. Paper is used instead of air as the medium separating the plates. B. The distance between the plates is increased. C. The area of one or both plates is reduced. D. By selecting the medium with low permitivity between two plates. 237. Where a constant voltage is required in DC distribution system , the type of generators used are: A. Series generators. B. Compound generators.
C. Shunt generators. D. Both series and shunt Generator. 238. In symmetrical alternating current , the average value is obtained by adding or integrating the instantaneous value of current: A. Over one half cycle. B. Over two consecutive half cycles. C. Over one full cycle. D. Over first quarter cycle and fourth quarter cycle. 239. A 100 KVA Generator is fully loaded at its rated voltage of P F=1, Then the true power is : A. 1 KW. B. 10 KW. C. 100 KW. D. 0.01 KW. 240. One of the symptoms of hydration in lead acid battery is : A. The voltage on load falls below 1.85 v. B. Low SG at the end of the charge. C. Rust deposit on the plates. D. The bituminous sealing of battery gets cracked. 241. Switching time for off line UPS is : A. Less than 100 mS. B. 0 mS. C. Less than 5 mS. D. More than 10 mS. 242. A magnetic transformer is converted to constant voltage transformer : A. By connecting a variable diode in its primary winding. B. By connecting a condenser in secondary winding. C. By increasing number of turns in the secondary side. D. By keeping the resistance of the primary winding to minimum. 243. The process of converting pulsating DC voltage is called : A. Rectification. B. Inversion. C. Conversion. D. Transforming.
AC voltage to
244. In point law , the current leaving a junction is equal to the current entering at the junction is true because: A. The sum of the EMF in the path is zero. B. No depletion of current at the junction. C. Of accumulation of current at the junction. D. No accumulation or depletion of current at the junction.
245. The type of rotor used in high speed alternator is A. Salient Pole. B. Smooth cylindrical. C. Rotating Armature. D. Inductor. 246. For measuring current flowing through a circuit the instrument required to be used is : A. Ampere meter. B. PD meter. C. Galvanometer. D. Ammeter. 247. In point law, the current leaving a junction is equal to the current entering at the junction is true because : A. The Sum of the EMF in the path is zero. B. No accumulation or depletion of current at the junction. C. No depletion of current at the junction. D. Accumulation of current at the junction. 248. In capacitor , the capacity increases when : A. Paper is used instead of Air as the medium separating the plates. B. The distance between the plates is increased. C. The area of one or both plates is reduced. D. By selecting the medium with low permitivity between two plates. 249. The value of radio frequency chokes generally range from : A. 2.5 to 125 Henrie. B. 12.5 to 25 Henries. C. 2.5 to 125 milli Henries. D. 25 to 125 milli Henries. 250. The working principle of magnetic amplifier is: A. Magnetic flux linkage. B. Mutual induction. C. Core saturation. D. Faraday s law of induction. 251. Audio frequency transformer are meant to operate on audio frequency of : A. 20 Hz to 20 MHz. B. 20 Hz to 20000 Hz. C. 20khz to 200 kHz. D. 20 Hz to 200 kHz. 252. When inductance connected in parallel , mutual flux linkage opposing self flux linkage "L" is equal to : A. L 1 + L 2 + 2M. B. L 1 + L 2 - 2M. C. (L 1 L2 -M2)/(L 1 +L 2 +2M). D. (L 1 L2 -M 2)/(L 1 + L 2 - 2M).
253. The opposition offered to alternating current by inductance and or capacitance is known as. A. Susceptance. B. Reactance. C. Resistance. D. Admittance. 254. Residual magnetism in the specimen left even after magnitising force has been removed , is called : A. Susceptibility. B. Coercivity. C. Permeability. D. Retentivity. 255. Sulphation in a Lead Acid Accumulator is caused by: A. Under charging. B. Under charging or discharging to low voltage. C. White deposit on the plates. D. discharging to low voltage. 256. The state of charge in a battery can be determined by discharging the battery of fixed current flow and measure the time taken to drop the voltage : A. To an average of 1V/ Cell. B. To an average of 1. 2 V/ Cell. C. To an average of 1.75 V/ Cell. D. To an average of 1.27 V/ Cell. 257. The diode in full wave rectifier circuit should be rated for : A. Peak secondary voltage is greater than peak inverse voltage. B. Peak inverse voltage is greater than peak secondary voltage. C. Peak inverse voltage is equal to peak secondary voltage. D. Peak secondary voltage is equal to 2V2 (peak). 258. The switching time for offline UPS is : A. < 5ms. B. > 5ms. C. 0 ms. D. 30 to 100ms. 259. The phase relation ship of current and applied voltage of AC in capacitor is: A. Both in phase. B. Voltage is lead by 90º. C. Currents lead by 90º. D. Current and voltage are out of phase by 180º. 260. The loss due to the resistance of the wire used for the windings in transformer is called: A. Flux loss. B. Copper loss. C. Iron loss. D. Hysterisis loss.
261. In a series AC circuit a current of 1.5 amps flow when the applied voltage is 300 volt If the power consumption is 225 watt then the resistance in the circuit will be: A. 10 Ohm. B. 25 Ohm. C. 175 Ohm. D. 100 Ohm. 262. The collector feed back bias circuit is designed : A. Emitter voltage has a direct effect on Base voltage. B. To reduce the effects of Beta variation on Q point. C. To have a direct effect on grid voltage. D. To improve frequency response at high frequencies. 263. The source resistance that an amplifier presents to its load is called : A. Input impedance. B. Out put impedance. C. Gain. D. Zero output impedance. 264. In Hartely oscillator the frequency tends to destabilize at higher frequency because of : A. Capacitive coupling. B. RC coupling. C. Transformer coupling. D. Stray capacitance. 265. The main advantage of a cascade amplifier over other amplifier is : A. Low input resistance and High input capacitance. B. High output resistance and low output capacitance. C. High input resistance and low input capacitance. D. Low input resistance and Low input capacitance. 266. In a differential amplifier the common mode operation occurs when two signals of : A. The same frequency, amplitude and phase are applied. B. The same phase are applied. C. The same frequency are applied. D. The same amplitude and phase are applied. 267. An Op-Amplifier with negative feed back : A. Increases the effect of diode off set voltage. B. Amplifies the sum of the two inputs. C. Reduces the effect of diode off set voltage. D. Converts sine wave into pulsating DC. 268. Excess of maximum operational frequency of an operational amplifier results in: A. Gain of the amplifier drops to zero. B. Distorted output wave forms. C. Reduced HF response. D. Increased gain of the amplifier.
269. A device that maintains a constant DC output , regardless of changes in either its input voltage or its load current is called : A. Inverter. B. Converter. C. Regulator. D. Insulator. 270. The forbidden energy gap of insulating material is : A. 1 Electron Volt. B. 3 Electron Volt. C. 6 Electron Volt. D. 8 Electron Volt. 271. A method of biasing which needs split supply is known as: A. Base bias. B. Emitter bias. C. Collector feed back bias. D. Voltage divider bias. 272. In an ideal amplifier, as the input impedance Z is infinite, the overall effect will be : A. Input voltage is equal to the source voltage. B. Load voltage is equal to out put voltage. C. Voltage is divided equally in the out put circuit. D. Overall gain of amplifier can't be increased. 273. While designing a circuit , the amplifier that is not preferred , when stability is almost important is : A. RC Coupled. B. Impedance Coupling. C. Transformer Coupling. D. Direct Coupling. 274. As source follower is a very heavily swamped amplifier, It. A. Keeps square law distortion to minimum. B. Highly steady Q Point. C. Maximum theoretical efficiency rating of 99 %. D. Eliminates non linearity of Trans conductance. 275. Increasing the operating frequency of an Op-amp beyond a certain point will : A. Decrease the maximum output voltage swing. B. Increase the Open-loop voltage gain. C. Increase the maximum output voltage swing. D. Decrease the Open-loop voltage gain. 276. When two signals of the same amplitude, frequency and phase are applied to a differential amplifier, the mode of operation is called : A. Single ended mode. B. Differential mode. C. Common mode. D. C. M. M.R.
277. The conductivity of atom depends on the number of A. Electrons. B. Protons. C. Neutrons. D. Nucleus. 278. The formation of electron cloud near the cathode can be reduced by : A. Decreasing the Anode voltage. B. Increase the distance between Anode and Cathode. C. Decreasing the distance between Anode and Cathode. D. By introducing a heated filament under the Cathode. 279. In BOHR atom model the outermost shell for a given atom is called : A. Valence shell. B. Conduction shell. C. K shell. D. L shell. 280. A method of keying which generates Back wave when carrier does not drop to zero but merely reduces to low value when key is open is called: A. Amplitude ON/OFF keying. B. HT anode keying. C. Filament keying. D. Over bias keying. 281. Those substances which are being attracted even by weak magnates are called : A. Para-magnetic substances. B. Diamagnetic substances. C. Ferro magnetic substances. D. Non magnetic substances. 282. By shifting the brushes in the direction of rotation in DC generator will: A. Improve commutation. B. Minimise armature reaction. C. De magnetise the main flux. D. Cross magnetise the main flux. 283. Speed of DC motor is : A. Directly proportional to the applied voltage. B. Inversely proportional to the main field. C. Directly proportional to the flux. D. Directly proportional to the Back EMF. 284. The process by which the current in the short circuits coil reversed while crosses magnetic neutral axis is called: A. Armature reaction. B. Commutation. C. Armature current. D. Prime mover.
285. The turning or twisting movement of a force about axis is called : A. Back EMF. B. Eddy current. C. Torque. D. Armature current. 286. The type of bias employed in a transistor used as a switch is: A. Base bias. B. Emitter feed back Bias. C. Collector feed back Bias. D. Universal Bias (Voltage divider Bias). 287. The opposition that the capacitor offers to the applied AC Voltage is called: A. Capacitive reactance. B. Capacitive Inductance. C. Conductance. D. Reactance. 288. The base - emitter junction and collector- base junction of a BJT are forward biased and reverse biased respectively. The BJT operates on : A. Cut Off Point. B. Saturation region. C. Breakdown region. D. Active region. 289. Electron emission by application of heat energy to a substance is known as: A. Photo emission. B. Thermionic emission. C. Secondary emission. D. Field emission. 290. The physical location of control grid electron tube is : A. Near to the plate. B. Near to the cathode. C. Near to the anode. D. With the filament.
of an
291. A doped semiconductor is widely known as : A. Pure semiconductor. B. Intrinsic semiconductor. C. Extrinsic semiconductor. D. True semiconductor. 292. In a heavily doped diode , the depletion layer is : A. Thin. B. Big. C. Broad. D. Narrow. 293. An amplifier in which the collector current flows for less than 1800 and Q point is selected beyond the cutt off point is known as : A. Class "A". B. Class "AB".
C. Class "B". D. Class "C". 294. A type of coupling that does not have any bar for frequency amplification is : A. Direct coupling. B. Transformer coupling. C. Impedance coupling. D. R C Coupling. 295. Change of direction of DC motor is achieved by A. Reversing the main supply lead. B. Reversing the direction of current both in the field and armature. C. Reversing the current in the field. D. Reversing the direction of current either in the field or in the armature. 296. The form factor for triangular wave is: A. 1.15. B. 1.11. C. 1.71. D. 1.25. 297. To creat a new file in MS dos , the command used is : A. Create. B. New . Com. C. Copy. D. Copy con. 298. The register that can make the difference between a simple calculator and an authentic computer is : A. Accumulator. B. Special purpose register. C. Stack printer. D. Status register. 299. The lowest 8- bit binary number is : A. 11111111. B. 00000000. C. 01010101. D. 11111000. 300. A Substance capable of being magnetized in either of the two direction, represents a '0' or '1', can be used as component of. A. Computer Memory. B. Core memory. C. Semi conductor memory. D. Main Memory. 301. The Microprocessor's internal data bus made up of : A. Logic devices. B. Data Signals. C. Internal Devices. D. Control Logic.
302. The complete Set of instructions that allows Micro Processor to manipulate data by moving it or processing it, and to perform house keeping functions is known as : A. Instruction Set. B. Manipulated Data. C. Microprocessor data. D. Serial Data. 303. In MS- DOS 'type' command is : A. External command. B. Direct command. C. Internal command. D. Prompt command. 304. Semiconductor memories are used instead of core memories in latest generation in computers because they are : A. Less expensive. B. More expensive but easy to work. C. Small in size But expensive. D. Less expensive and easy to work with. 305. The number of row in MS Excel are. A. 256. B. 65536. C. 65256. D. IV. 306. Which one of the fo;;owing is not an operating system ?. A. Windows. B. Lotus. C. MS dos. D. Unix. 307. When we say that we have cleared or reset the accumulator , we really mean that we have : A. Shorted out the accumulator outputs. B. Stopped using the accumulator. C. Set the accumulator contents to all logic 0's. D. Set the accumulator contents to all logic 1"s. 308. The document which you type , normally exist in: A. RAM. B. ROM. C. E PROM. D. EE PROM. 309. Making a corrective changes to document is referred to: A. Re-arrangement of text. B. Inserting text. C. Deleting text. D. Editing. 310. DME in an aircraft is basically used to measure the distance of : A. Aircraft.
B. Airfield. C. Inner marker. D. Outer marker. 311. The dark brown indicates : A. Anode. B. Cathode. C. Gate. D. Plate.
ring end of Zener diode
312. A logic gate which has its output only when either of the two input is high or both the inputs are low is called : A. NOT GATE. B. OR GATE. C. AND GATE. D. NAND GATE. 313. Zener voltage circuit is : A. 20 volt. B. 19 volt. C. 21 volt. D. 25 volt.
(Vz) used in
SCR craw bar
314. If you hold a transistor in such a way that printed portion facing the body and legs pointing downwards then the extreme left leg will be : A. Anode. B. Cathode. C. Source. D. Gate. 315. A computer programme that enables you to type, modify, print and save test for future retrieval and reference is called: A. My computer. B. MS ACCESS. C. POWER POINT. D. Word processor. 316. Which of the following is not a ALU function : A. Increment. B. Complement. C. Shift right. D. Power up sequence. 317. Binary equivalent of decimal number 25(10) will be: A. 11000. B. 11001. C. 10111. D. 11110. 318. In MS Excel the mouse pointer of this + shape is for. A. Entering the data. B. Cut and Paste.
C. Copy. D. Copy and Paste.
C. Clock signal. D. Logic Signal.
319. The audio output of MRU -101 is : A. 15 mw across 600 ohm. B. 10 mw across 600 ohm. C. 101 mw across 60 ohm. D. 600 mw across 100 ohm.
327. The 25 kHz reference signal and output of programmable counter are compared in: A. Guard RXR. B. Power amplifier. C. Frequency synthesizer. D. Pin switch unit.
320. A spring loaded switch which works in conjunction with test meter to read 400 hz recorded testing signal is known as : A. Bulk erase. B. Test switch button switch. C. Test meters. D. Test switch. 321. When a number of transmitting NDB are operating in near by area with closely spaced frequency, the error of giving wrong bearing is known as : A. Mountain effect error. B. Night effect error. C. Antenna effect error. D. Station interference error. 322. The loop antenna must be mounted on the fuselage of aircraft with its: A. longitudinal center line. B. Vertical center axis. C. Horizontal axis. D. Vertical axis. 323. The signal to the RF Loop amplifier is derived from : A. RF sense amplifier. B. Phase splitter. C. Goniometer search coil. D. IF amplifier. 324. In VUC-201 A , the injection signal for VHF and UHF band is provided by: A. Local oscillator. B. Power amplifier. C. Frequency synthesizer. D. PLL. 325. The reference voltage by phase lock loop to the synthesizer is : A. 50 hz. B. 25 hz. C. 30 Hz. D. 75 hz. 326. For the basic timing signal to synchronize all of the microprocessor's operation the control logic uses the : A. I/O write signal. B. Memory read signal.
328. The data can be erased by exposing it to ultra violet light is known as : A. ROM. B. EPROM. C. EAROM. D. PROM. 329. Length of a transmitting aerial is : A. Depending of the characteristic of the carrier. B. Depending of the level of the carrier. C. Inversely proportional to frequency. D. Directly proportional to frequency. 330. The grammar we use while typing a command is called : A. SYNTAX. B. FORMAT. C. PRINT. D. PROGRAM. 331. The location of outer marker from the runway thresh hold is : A. 3 1/2 mile. B. 4miles. C. 4 1/4 miles. D. 4 1/2 miles. 332. The range of localizer beacon is : A. 25 Miles at 2000 ft high. B. 25 Miles at 4000 ft high. C. 25 Miles at 5000 ft high. D. 30 Miles at 6000 ft high. 333. When the instruction register is loaded by starting the microprocessor on a Fetch/Execute cycle also called : A. An instruction cycle. B. A memory cycle. C. An explanation cycle. D. A control cycle. 334. The register that can make difference between simple calculator and authentic computer is : A. Stack pointer. B. Status Register. C. Accumulator. D. Special purpose Register.
335. The memory address register point to : A. CPU location. B. Memory register. C. Memory's contents. D. Memory location. 336. While working on computer if power supply fails and UPS is not available the memory which retain the stored data is : A. MOS FET. B. EPROM. C. Dynamic RAM. D. Static RAM. 337. The RF power modulated during BITE and A2 mode of transmission is : A. 1 MHz. B. 1.1 MHz. C. 10 kHz. D. 1000 Hz. 338. According to the associative law, the equation A. (B.C) is equal to: A. A.(A+C). B. (A.B).C. C. B.(C.A). D. A+(B+C). 339. Which of the following pin number of IC 7805 provides the audio output via C 3 coupled to the speaker : A. 8. B. 9. C. 7. D. 5. 340. A Doppler shift caused by satellite drifting in orbit due to gravitational pull of moon and sun is barely minimum incase of satellite placed in: A. Equatorial orbit. B. Polar orbit. C. Inclined orbit. D. Geocentre. 341. In a JK flip flop , when J is low and K is high then : A. It resets. B. It sets. C. Toggles. D. Depends on the last value. 342. A Boolean expression which formed by considering the rows of the truth table for 0 out put condition is known as : A. Standard sum of product. B. Min term. C. Max term. D. Standard product of sum.
343. Binary equivalent will be: A. 11000. B. 11001. C. 10111. D. 1110.
of decimal number 25(10)
344. Binary equivalent of decimal number 22 will be. A. 10110. B. 11001. C. 11000. D. 10010. 345. The XOR GATE operation is called: A. MOD 1addition. B. MOD 2 addition. C. MOD 3 addition. D. Mod addition. 346. A basic logic circuit also known as inverter is: A. NOT GATE. B. OR GATE. C. AND GATE. D. NAND GATE. 347. The minimum amount of time that the data bit must be present before the clock edge hits is called : A. Propagation delay time. B. Set up time. C. Hold time. D. Pre set time. 348. A controlled counter counts : A. Square pulse. B. Saw tooth pulse. C. Synchronous pulse. D. Sinusoidal pulse. 349. The minimum amount of time that the data bit must be present before the clock edge hits is called : A. Propagation delay time. B. Set up time. C. Hold time. D. Pre set time. 350. A Boolean expression, which is formed by considering the rows of the truth table for `0', output condition is known as : A. Min term. B. Max Term. C. Standard Product of Sum. D. Fundamental Product. 351. Higher side of the frequency band is used in up link in order to: A. Reduce the size of the satellite antenna. B. Increase the size of the satellite antenna. C. Obtain high RF power. D. To avoid Doppler shift caused by satellite.
352. A device that distributes light from a main fiber into one or more branch fibers is known as: A. Connectors. B. Splicing. C. Optical coupler. D. Optical attenuator.
361. The main function of accelerating electrode in an ESCRT is to : A. Control intensity of light spot. B. Eliminate highly divergent electrons. C. Focusing the beam into a spot. D. Deflecting the beam into the screen.
353. An OR Gate give 1 output When: A. All the inputs are 1. B. All the inputs are`0'. C. Any or all the inputs are 1. D. Inputs are similar.
362. The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is achieved by : A. varying first anode voltage. B. varying second anode voltage. C. varying grid voltage. D. varying accelerating electrode.
354. An alternative method of making a permanent connection between fibers is called : A. Fusion splicing. B. Connectorisation. C. Mechanical splicing. D. Electrical splicing. 355. A communication satellite is capable of accommodating more number of channel as it uses: A. Long Range. B. More Number of repeaters and directors. C. Microwave. D. Transponders. 356. A controlled counter counts : A. Square pulse. B. Saw tooth pulse. C. Synchronous pulse. D. Sinusoidal pulse. 357. Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work at : A. 5 to 10 volts. B. 5 to 50 volts. C. 50 to 500 volts. D. (a) 500 to 5000 volts. 358. The additional energy required by an electron to overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called : A. Electron emission. B. Work function. C. Thermionic emission. D. Surface emission. 359. The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to control the : A. Input voltage applied to cathode. B. Input voltage applied to anode. C. Flow of electrons between cathode and anode. D. Flow of electrons from anode to cathode. 360. Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is controlled by : A. Focusing anode. B. accelerating anode. C. control grid. D. electrostatic deflecting plates.
363. The substance which have overlapping valance and conduction band are termed as : A. Semiconductors. B. Insulators. C. Conductors. D. Di-electric. 364. A PN junction diode can be formed by doping silicon with : A. Antimony and phosphorous. B. Arsenic and antimony. C. Boron and gallium. D. Arsenic and indium. 365. When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of semiconductor formed is : A. N type extrinsic. B. P type extrinsic. C. N type intrinsic. D. P type intrinsic. 366. In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to electric field causing collisions of charge carriers results in : A. Zener breakdown. B. Transient current. C. Avlanche breakdown. D. Forward current. 367. To obtain recombination current as well as larger collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased : A. Forward Forward. B. Forward Reverse. C. Reverse Forward. D. Reverse Reverse. 368. A medium in which an electric field can exist without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of electricity or insulator is called: A. Dielectric strength. B. Breakdown voltage. C. Breakdown in electric field. D. Dielectric.
369. The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of : A. Inter electrode capacitance. B. Inter electrode inductance. C. Shielding action of grid. D. Kink effect at low plate potential. 370. In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted between : A. Cathode and plate. B. Plate and screen grid. C. Cathode and screen grid. D. Cathode and grid. 371. The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to reduce inter electrode : A. Capacitance between anode and grid. B. Capacitance between cathode and anode. C. Inductance between cathode and grid. D. Inductance between cathode and anode. 372. The reduction in plate current with increasing plate voltage is called: A. Mutual characteristics. B. Kink effect. C. Amplification factor. D. Power factor. 373. For deflection of the electron beam around the center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by applying the signal to : A. x-x plates. B. Control grid. C. Final anode. D. y-y plates. 374. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is known as :a. A. Doping. B. Mixing. C. Biasing. D. Super imposing. 375. Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: A. 0.7 V. B. 0.5 V. C. 0.3 V. D. 0.03 V. 376. An atom is said to be stable when its valance orbit contains : A. 16 electrons. B. 8 Electrons. C. 4 Electrons. D. 2 Electrons. 377. The inherent property of an atom is to : A. Attract another atom. B. Stay as free atom. C. Accelerate at high speed.
D. Achieve stable state. 378. Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is: A. 0.1 V. B. 0.2 V. C. 0.3 V. D. 0.7 V. 379. Barrier potential decreases with temperature at the rate of : A. 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. B. 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. C. 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. D. 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp. 380. The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve is to : A. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and grid. B. Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and anode. C. Eliminate undesirable kink effect. D. Eliminate electron cloud. 381. The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion layer stops growing is known as : A. Surface leakage current. B. Minority carrier current. C. Transient current. D. Reverse breakdown current. 382. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC current of 100 mA , is equal to : A. 5 ohm. B. 50 ohm. C. 25 ohm. D. 0.1 ohm. 383. The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to: A. Barrier potential. B. Applied voltage. C. Cut-in voltage. D. Breakdown voltage. 384. In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which reverse current rises sharply is known as : A. Knee voltage. B. Applied voltage. C. Barrier potential. D. Reverse breakdown voltage. 385. The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC current 2 A, is equal to. A. 4 ohms. B. 0.4 ohms. C. 40 ohms.
D. 10 ohms.
D. Coupling.
386. The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to : A. Convert AC into DC. B. convert DC into AC. C. Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC. D. Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC.
394. The method of biasing, in which gain reduces due to negative feedback is : A. Base bias. B. Emitter feedback bias. C. Collector feedback bias. D. Voltage divider bias.
387. The heavily doped region in a transistor is : A. Base. B. Emitter. C. Collector. D. Depletion layer. 388. If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased (i.e. emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse biased), then the emitter and collector current will be A. Zero. B. Maximum. C. Zero an maximum respectively. D. Maximum and zero respectively. 389. In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter depletion layer when compared to the width of collector depletion layer is : A. Equal. B. Smaller. C. Larger and smaller respectively. D. Larger. 390. The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN transistor collector region causes : A. Base current. B. Emitter current. C. Breakdown of transistor. D. Leakage current. 391. While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor, the point of intersection with the calculated base current is known as: A. Saturation point. B. Cutoff point. C. Quiescent point. D. Breakdown point. 392. The process of applying appropriate voltage to a transistor is called : A. Voltage regulation. B. Forward biasing. C. Biasing. D. Reverse biasing. 393. Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the input is fed between common terminal and one of the other two and output is taken between common and one of the remaining terminal is called : A. Biasing. B. Configuration. C. Feed back.
395. A coupling capacitor connects : A. A grounded point to an un grounded point. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. C. A grounded point to another grounded point. D. an ungrounded point another ungrounded point. 396. A by pass capacitor connects : A. A grounded point to an ungrounded point. B. An ungrounded point to a grounded point. C. A grounded point to another grounded point. D. An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point. 397. Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity during amplification of a signal avoided by the use of A. Capacitor. B. Resistor. C. Inductor. D. Thermister. 398. One common feature of capacitors when used for coupling and bypass is that they : A. Block AC and short DC to ground. B. Block DC and short AC to ground. C. Improve current gain. D. Are used only in output stage. 399. A saturated SCR can turned off only by : A. Removing the gate pulse. B. Reducing the gate trigger. C. Increasing the gate trigger to saturation. D. Reducing the load current below the holding current. 400. The phase difference of 180 Deg between the input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a common emitter amplifier is called : A. Amplification factor. B. Voltage reversal. C. Phase reversal. D. Current reversal. 401. The small signal amplifiers are rated for a maximum power output of : A. 1/2 Watt. B. 1 Watt. C. 5 Watts. D. 10 Watts. 402. The maximum possible collector efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is:
A. 15 %. B. 25 %. C. 45 %. D. 50 %. 403. The maximum possible overall efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is : A. 10 %. B. 25 %. C. 50 %. D. 75%. 404. The process of directing a fraction of sampled energy from output to input, out of phase to the input signal is called: A. Feed back. B. Gain without feed back. C. Positive feed back. D. Negative feed back. 405. The process of directing a fraction of sampled energy from output to input in phase with the. A. Positive feed back. B. Negative feed back. C. Feed back. D. Gain with feed back. 406. Feed back is a phenomenon in which a fraction of : A. Amplifier input is fed to the output. B. Amplifier output is fed back to the input circuit. C. Sampled energy from output to input but in phase. D. Sampled energy from input but out of phase. 407. In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : A. Capacitors. B. Inductance. C. An auto-transformer. D. Tank circuit.
408. The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely used oscillator for frequencies in the range o. A. 5 HZ to 1 MHZ. B. 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ. C. 20 HZ to 3 MHZ. D. 30 HZ to 30 MHZ. 409. The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of A. 5000 and above. B. 10,000 and above. C. 15,000 and above. D. 20,000 and above 410. In Hartley oscillators, a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : A. A tank circuit. B. An inductance. C. A capacitance. D. An auto-transformer. 411. Epitaxial layer in a IC is a layer of : A. N type semiconductor on the P substrate. B. P type semiconductor on the N substrate. C. PN type semiconductor on the P substrate. D. NP type semiconductor on the N substrate. 412. The input terminal of OPAMPs are marked + and - . + mark indicates : A. Non-inverting terminal. B. Inverting terminal. C. Positive terminal. D. Input terminal. 413. Minus ( -) mark on the input terminal of an OP Amp indicates : A. Input terminal. B. Negative terminal. C. Non-inverting terminal. D. Inverting terminal.
FILL IN THE BLANKS 1. In AM the ______________ of the carrier is varied by modulating voltage.
19. The resistance of the P-channel of transistor is called ____________________.
2. The modulation index is a number lying between__________ and _____________.
20. In a MOSFET, the more negative the gate voltage, the smaller the _____________________ current.
3. The______________ of a receiver is its ability to reject unwanted signals.
21. The number of flip flops required to count upto 73 is __________________________.
4. An ____________________is one that radiates uniformly in all directions in space.
22. A transistor has a current gain = 250 if collector current is 10 mA the base current is _____________.
5. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref. Index along the cross section is called________________.
23. If an O F amp has a bandwidth of 0 - 100 KHz and gain of 40 dr. The frequency at which the gain will be unit is _________________________.
6. Output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be a______________________. 7. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation are ___________________. 8. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the ______________range. 9. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because ___________________________. 10. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is ____________. 11. When the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled. The AM system being used is ____________________. 12. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use ______________. 13. Vestigial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for _________________________. 14. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by ______________________. 15. The optical fibre communication is based on the principle of _____________________. 16. The three components of AM are ___________, ______________& ______________. 17. At cut off the base current in transistor is ________________. 18. The maximum efficiency of a class A amplifier is __________________.
24. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade Slope outside mid band). 25. A Xtal OSc has crystal of thickness t what happens it t is reduced by 1% ________________. 26. A JEET is a ____________ is a controlled device whereas a BJT is a ____________ controlled device. 27. The difference in depth of modulation (DDM) is________ along the course line. 28. The localizer carrier frequency is within the range of______MHz to ______ MHz. 29. The outer, middle, inner markers are located at _________, _________and _________ respectively. 30. As per ICAO specifications, all localizers must be adjusted to give full scale DDM of _________% and _________m on either side of the ILS reference datum. 31. The ICAO recommended MLS system employs _______ and _________ techniques. 32. The angular coverage of TRSB system is ___________ to ___________ in the direction of runway. 33. Angle function transmission ___________which consists of synchronizing code pulse.
consists of five unit
34. A total of _________channels at a spacing of ___________ Khz is allocated. 35. The frequency band is _____________ Mhz to _________ Mhz.
36. The elevation coverage is _________ height ceiling of ___________.
with a
37. The range coverage is __________. 38. In MLS the quality of guidance signal is ________ of ______________. 39. The three temperature of which the pilot must be kept informed during the flight are the __________ . 40. If an OP amp has a bandwidth of 0__100 KHz and gain of 40 dB. The frequency at which the gain will be unit is _________________. 41. A crystal Oscillator has crystal of thickness T, What happens if t is reduced by 1% ______________. 42. (Assuming – 20 dB/decade slope outside mid band) ___________. 43. In AM the ________________of the carrier is varied by modulating voltage. 44. The modulation index is a number lying between ________________and________.
55. Vestegial sideband modulation (C3F) is normally used for __________. 56. Unwanted sideband in SSB cannot be removed by ____________________. 57. The optical fibre communication is based on the principle of ________. 58. Noise figure is defined as the ratio of _________. 59. The three components of AM are ________, ___________& _________. 60. The __________ is used for measuring forward and reverse powers. 61. During reception, transmitter is isolated from the receiver by _________ dB. 62. The ILS performs the functions of,_________ and provides information about ____________. 63. Signals carrying azimuth guidance information are produced by a _________ which produces a horizontally polarized composite field pattern modulated by _______Hz tone and______Hz tone.
45. The______________ of a receiver is its ability to reject unwanted signals.
64. Intelligence in a telegraph signal is ______.
46. An ____________________is one that radiates uniformly in all directions in space.
65. The spacing between the element of a Morse code is ______.
47. An optical fiber with gradually changing ref. Index along the cross section is called____________.
66. The biggest disadvantage of PCM is ________. 67. ..(??) noise is produces in ______.
48. Output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be a______________. 49. The most commonly used filter in SSB generation are ________________. 50. Tropospheric scatter is used with freq in the ______________range. 51. Amplitude modulation is used for broadcasting because ______________. 52. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power is ___________. 53. When the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled. The AM system being used is ______________.
68. PCM permits amplifying data signal without ______________. 69. When power radio is expressed in dbm the reference powe is ______. 70. To couple a co__axial line to parallel line it is best to use ______. 71. When a electromagnet wave meets a perfect conductor it is ___. 72. Multiple wire conductors are used for rhombic antenna to ____. 73. A half wave dipole has ______. 74. Radiation resistance of half wave dipole is _____.
54. To provide two or more voice circuits with the same carrier, it is necessary to use ___________.
75. In a broad side array maximum radiation occurs _______.
76. Antenna which is .....(??) is _______. 77. The frequency used for HF communication between two fixed points is generally higher in ________.
94. In a SSB transmitter one is most likely to find is _______. 95. In FM signal contains intelligence in _________. 96. A pure AC signal is called _______.
78. Very low frequency wave are used in some types of services because ___________ .
97. The output of a frequency modulator is _______.
79. Frequency in UHF range propagate by means of ______.
98. In angle modulation the information signal modify the ___.
80. The mean square value of shaft noise varies _____.
99. To prevent the overloading of the last IF amplifier in a receiver one should use ______________ .
81. In a receiver maximum contribution to noise is made by the _____.
100. The Image frequency of super heterodyne receiver ____________.
82. Johnson noise is a name given to _______.
101. In a broadcast super heterodyne receiver the ______________.
83. Minimum noise network to have _______. 102. If the IF is very high ____________. 84. Static is a name given to ______. 103. Spectral density of white noise is ___________. 85. Not useful quantity for comparing the noise performance of receivers is _____. 86. Another name for horizontal retrace in a TV receiver is the ____. 87. Most commonly used code in telegraphy for hand signalling is _____. 88. A machine which uses start__stop 5 unit code is known as _____.
104. The wavelength of a wave in a wave-guide is _________________. 105. Merker frequency is ___________. 106. Radar system works on _________. 107. Pulse recurrence period and the number of pulse transmitted in 1 second is called ________________.
89. In a non__polarised sounder the releasing current is ________.
108. Varying the frequency of carrier in accordance the charge in amplitude of audio is called ___________.
90. Permanent magnet is used in polarity relay ________.
109. Wave reflected from the Ionosphere shall be known as _______.
91. When the telephone receiver is on the cradle the ______.
110. One of the most disadvantages of lower frequency is _________________.
92. The modulation index of AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power ____________.
111. Loop aerial is used in A/C is to find out the _______.
93. In a ....(??) AM system amplifiers following the modulated stage must be __________ (linear device).
112. NDB transmits vertically polarised signal in _______. 113. The ground wave follows the surface of earth partly because of _______.
STATE TRUE/FALSE 1. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with amplitude of the modulating signal. 2. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM signal. 3. The most common method used for generation of SSB is phase shift method. 4. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic waves. 5. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and plastic. 6. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift method of SSB generation. 7. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator frequency is made lower than the incoming signal frequency. 8. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used. 9. When modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled . The AM system being used is single sideband full carrier (H3E). 10. Balanced modulator can be used to remove unwanted sideband in SSB. 11. The principle of communication in optical fibre is based on total internal reflection. 12. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the UHF range. 13. The output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier. 14. Power density is directly proportional to square of distance from source. 15. The barrier potential depends on the density of doping of the semiconductors. 16. If a P-n Jn is heavily doped, the breakdown voltage will increase. 17. Class ‘B’ is the most efficient way to operate a transistor.
18. Screening process provides a low resistance path for voltage producing unwanted RF interference . 19. In FM the frequency of the carrier signal is varied in accordance with amplitude of the modulating signal. 20. Diode detector is used to demodulate the AM signal. 21. The most common method used for generation of SSB is phase shift method. 22. The direction of E-field, M-field and propagation are not actually perpendicular in the electromagnetic waves. 23. Optical fibre are manufactured from glass and plastic. 24. A 180 degree phase shift is required in phase shift method of SSB generation. 25. In a standard broadcast receiver local oscillator frequency is made lower than the incoming signal frequency. 26. Modulation is used to reduce the bandwidth used. 27. The modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1. The transmitted power remains unchanged. 28. When modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled . The AM system being used is single sideband full carrier (H3E). 29. Balanced modulator can be used to remove unwanted sideband in SSB. 30. The principle of communication in optical fibre is based on total internal reflection. 31. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequency in the UHF range. 32. The output stage of a television transmitter is most likely to be grid- modulated class C amplifier. 33. Power density is directly proportional to square of distance from source.
WRITE SHORT NOTES ON 1. AM Transmitter.
12. Filter method in sideband suppression.
2. Superheterodyne receiver.
13. Advantages of FM over AM.
3. Balanced modulator.
14. ISB.
4. Need for modulation.
15. Low level and high level modulation.
5. Amplitude Modulation.
16. Generation of AM.
6. Frequency Modulation.
17. FM receivers.
7. Selectivity & Sensitivity.
18. Methods of sideband suppression.
8. Phase Modulation.
19. ILS.
9. Phase shift method.
20. Azimuth and Elevation guidance from ILS.
10. Space waves.
21. Facilities performance categories of ILS.
11. AGC.
22. MLS.
VERY SHORT ANSWERS 1. Write the mandatory communication equipment.
feature
of
airborne
2. Define (i) Resonance (ii) Resonance frequency. 3. Describe atom and its structure. 4. Define: -(i) Atomic Number (ii) Atomic Weight. 5. What is the function of Arithmetic and Logic Unit in a Computer?
23. Write short notes on:(i) Clutter (ii) Mono pulse technique. 24. Write short notes on:(i) Doppler principle (ii) STLO in MTI. 25. Define: (i) Frequency modulation (ii) Amplitude modulation (AM). 26. Explain briefly Instrument Landing System (ILS). 27. AM Transmitter.
6. Write the purpose of Out Put Unit in Computer System?
28. Superheterodyne receiver.
7. What is an Assembler?
29. Balanced modulator.
8. What is the purpose of Compilers and Interpreters in Computer?
30. Need for modulation. 31. Amplitude Modulation.
9. Write the Units of Computer System? 32. Frequency Modulation. 10. What are the functions of CPU in a Computer? 33. Selectivity & Sensitivity. 11. What are the applications of a Micro Processor? 34. Phase Modulation. 12. Write the types of CRO. (Cathode Ray Oscilloscope). 13. Name the major components of CRO (Cathode Ray Tube).
35. Phase shift method. 36. Space waves. 37. AGC.
14. Explain briefly types of semi conductors. 38. Advantages of FM over AM. 15. Define biasing and name different types of biasing.
39. ISB.
16. List out the advantages of negative feed back.
40. Low level and high level modulation.
17. Name the different Applications of OP Amplifier.
41. Generation of AM.
18. List out the different types of special purpose diode.
42. FM receivers. 43. Methods of sideband suppression.
19. Explain briefly DC coupling and its features. 44. Industrial noise. 20. Name the different applications of SCR. 21. Give the applications of secondary radar. 22. Describe the following components of pulse radar: (i) Transmitter (ii) Duplexer.
45. With the help of a logic circuit explain an 'OR' gate having two inpu. 46. Name the basic logic gates and give their symbol.
47. With the aid of LOGIC CIRCUIT& TRUTH TABLE Explain AND Gate. 48. Explain the operation of two-input NOR Gate with the aid of a logic c. 49. Explain Why NAND Gate is called as Universal Building Block. 50. Differentiate between most significant bit (MSB) and Least significan. 51. Draw the logic circuit of X-OR Gate. 52. Define the term Logic gate and write the different logic gates of Digital Technique. 53. Draw the circuit and logic symbol of AND Gate. 54. Draw the logic circuit and logic symbol of NAND Gate.
68. Define " KIRCHOFF's" Current & Voltage Laws? 69. Draw switch)?
circuit diagram of PLL circuit( Tone
70. Briefly explain SCR, Draw and explain SCR as a crow bar circuit? 71. What are the factors affecting the magnitude of induced EMF? 72. What are the methods to be followed to improve the commutation? 73. Briefly explain the Back EMF in DC Motors? 74. What are the factors which controls the speed of DC Motors? 75. What is the necessity of a starter in DC Motors?
55. Draw the symbol and Truth Table for X-OR Gate.
76. Explain radio magnetic indicator ARC -610 A?
56. Define induction?
77. What is sense antenna cable equalizer in ARC 610?
Faradays law of electromagnetic
57. What are the precautions observed while testing the circuits in LAB?
(RMI) in
78. Define primary and secondary cell ?
58. Write the disadvantages of electrolytic condenser?
79. What is Faraday's laws of electron magnetic Induction ?
59. Write the advantage of electrolytic capacitors?
80. State the advantages of electrolytic condenser?
60. What are the advantages of revolving filed type alternator?
81. Define thermal agitation noise? 82. Define slew rate?
61. What is thermal efficiency ? 83. What is an EPROM? 62. What is a thyristor ? Write down its main applications? 63. What are the steps to be taken to minimise the armature reaction in a DC generator? 64. What are the advantages of revolving field type of alternator?
84. Explain the purpose of ALU and FLAGS? 85. What is a Micro processor ? 86. What is static RAM's? 87. What is 'Word' in Microprocessor?
65. Draw the circuit diagram of bridge rectifier and write its uses?
88. What are the different types of ROMS? Define EPROM ?
66. What are the front panel control of MRU -101?
89. Define cross over modulation?
67. Define the leakage losses in transformer?
90. State the advantages of FM over AM?
91. Write the salient features of the crystal filter?
115. How do you differentiate primary memory and secondary memory?
92. What is a negative decibel ? 93. Enumerate the essential items required for Radio communication.
116. What is the purpose of Recycle Bin in MS Windows 95? 117. Define word processor?
94. Enumerate the types of keying ? 118. What is Booting? 95. Define cross over modulation? 96. Convert 1762.56 (16) into Octal Number?
119. Give examples of two Electronic Spread Sheet program?
97. Which are the two D' Morgan" theorems?
120. Define Computer?
98. Convert 152.25 (8) into binary ?
121. Why a series motor should not be started without some mechanical load?
99. What are the disadvantages of analog to digital converter ? 100. What are the disadvantages of Resistive Divider Network? 101. Convert 3927.75(10) into Hexa - decimal.
122. State the purpose of slots in armature core of DC generator? 123. Define armature reaction ? 124. What are the factor affecting the magnitude of induced EMF ?
102. What is pre- emphasis in FM transmitters? 125. Write the applications of DC to DC converter? 103. Convert BAD.8(16) into Decimal Number? 104. Briefly explain Continuous wave(CW)?
126. Fuses and circuit breakers do not provide protection from lightning induced voltages. Why?
105. Draw the logic circuit of NOT gate and write its Truth Table and Logic symbol?
127. What do you understand by the term "Word Wrap"?
106. Define preset and clear?
128. Write short notes on surface leakage current in Transistor Characteristics?
107. Draw the logic circuit of NOR gate with its truth table and symbol? 108. State modulation index and percentage is calculated?
how modulation
109. Write short notes on the squelch? 110. Define pinch off voltage (Vp) in FET'S ? 111. Convert 120.4(8) to Decimal number? 112. Define Desktop? 113. What are the methods of biasing with BJT? 114. Give two examples of input devices.
129. The Flux of a current carrying coil links with near by coil. Write the factors on which this linkage depends? 130. Write short note on BJT? 131. What are the different transistor currents? Define Alfa DC? 132. What are the salient features of transformer coupling ? 133. Define 'Q' shift point ? 134. Name two Application software? 135. Define active region ?
136. Define covalent bond?
153. How the electron beam is deflected left and right on the screen in an ESCRT?
137. What is a basic differential amplifier?
154. Define the term 'Fluorescence' and how it is achieved in a CRT.
138. Write short note on Comparators and state its use?
155. Write short notes on semiconductors.
139. Write the advantages of negative feed back in oscillators ?
156. Write short notes on ' Barrier Potential '. 157. Write short notes on ' Zener diode '.
140. Draw a circuit diagram of summer and mixer . Write its output voltage equation ?
158. Name the types of special diodes.
141. State the effects of reverse bias in a PN junction diode ?
159. Name the various materials normally used for manufacturing photo conductive cells.
142. What are the different units of a Computer?
160. Name the various uses of PIN diodes.
143. What are the characteristics of an ideal voltage amplifier ?
161. Write short notes on collector feed back bias.
144. What are the classification of multi vibrator ?
162. Enumerate the advantages of transistors over vacuum tubes.
145. Write the purpose of multi vibrator.
163. Name various types of transistor configurations.
146. Define the term 'Register' in digital technique and write its uses.
164. Name the types of Optical Fibers.
147. Write the construction of transmitter used in Desyn Transmission system. 148. What is a register ? explain the operation of a shift register. 149. Explain Binary Ladder with the help of a neat diagram. 150. Define electronics.
165. Explain why collector area in a transistor is larger than emitter or base . 166. Briefly explain the general draw backs of LC oscillators. 167. Enumerate the advantages of Wien bridge oscillators. 168. Enumerate the advantages of crystal oscillators.
151. Define energy level.
169. Enumerate the characteristics of operational amplifiers.
152. Write short notes on vacuum diode.
170. Write short notes on Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
SHORT ANSWERS 1. Convert the following binary number to Octal number and explain the procedure . 1011011.011101(2). 2. Convert the following Hexadecimal number to Binary number and explain the procedure : 8 EBD.A(16).
20. What are the three Basic Circuits required to drive the CRT? 21. Write briefly about Volatile and Non Volatile Memories. 22. Write the function of Control Unit in a Computer.
3. Write the rules to be observed while 2's complement subtraction and subtract 1011(2) from 1111(2). 4. Subtract 101 from 111 by using 2'S Compliment. 5. List out the points to be observed while simplifying Boolean expression by karnaugh map method. 6. Write short notes on the classification of multi vibrator. 7. Define the term Binary addition and briefly explain the rules of Binary addition. 8. Draw and explain in brief the Block diagram computer system.
23. What is a Machine Language in Computer? 24. What are the basic laws of Boolean algebra? 25. Describe the following: (i) PROM (ii) EPROM. 26. Differentiate Microprocessor.
between
computer
and
27. What are the different types of electron emission? Explain secondary emission. 28. Describe the transition or capacitance (CT) in PN Junction.
space
charge
29. Explain briefly Zener diode and give its uses.
9. List out the differences between Software and Hardware.
30. Explain briefly Photo diode and write its uses.
10. Explain in brief Application Software?
31. What is a crystal and define "PIEZO ELECTRIC EFFECT" in crystal?
11. Define the term Software and Hardware. 12. Explain in brief the function of computer operating system. 13. Write short notes on Floppy disk. 14. Explain in brief about PROM and EPROM.
32. Name different type of Integrated circuits (Ics) and Define Hybrid IC. 33. Write short notes on AC emitter Resistance Transistor. 34. Enumerate the Advantages of FET.
15. Describe the magnetic screening effects.
35. Draw the circuit symbol (Diagram) of operational amplifier and write its characteristics.
16. Why ordinary DC series motors are not efficient when used on AC?
36. Draw a circuit diagram of Colpits Oscillator and state the conditions for Oscillation?
17. Write the advantage of Magnetic Amplifier.
37. Write down the advantages of optical fiber cable?
18. What is the function of Auxiliary Memory Unit in Computer?
38. Draw and explain hysterisis loop of Iron and Steel ?
19. What are the advantages of a Flow Chart in a Computer?
39. state the advantages of using geo stationary satellite ?
40. What objectives are achieved by grounding the equipment? 41. Enumerate the steps to minimise the armature reaction ? 42. Write the advantages and disadvantages of magnetic amplifier? 43. Write down the advantages of revolving Field alternator? 44. What are the checks and care to be carried out on a running Kirloskar DG set? 45. State the conditions of resonance in series LCR circuit? 46. What is known as DC to DC converter ? State its uses?
59. What is the basic principle of marker beacon, briefly explain middle marker? 60. Draw a labelled circuit diagram of Squelch and Mute? 61. Briefly explain parallel data transfer in Data Communication and state its advantages? 62. Draw a labelled circuit diagram of instrumentation Amplifier? 63. What is a radio transmitter ? Write the short comings of one valve transmitter. 64. What are the different biasing methods used with BJT ? 65. Write the salient features of high level modulation. 66. Briefly explain why modulation is necessary?
47. Draw a labeled diagram of online UPS? 48. Write a short note on paralleling of DC generator with its advantages? 49. Briefly explain the method of varying the speed of shunt motor?
67. Why limitter is needed before the detector in FM receiver ? 68. Write down the function of main records unit (MRU-101 )? 69. Draw and explain SSB pilot carrier transmitter?
50. What are the factors affecting Magnitude of induced EMF? 51. The flux of a current carrying coil links with near by coil. Write the factors on which this linkage depends on? 52. What are the different losses in generator, explain copper loss ? 53. Define generator . Briefly explain principle of DC generator?
working
54. What are the test equipment used in fiber optics? 55. What are the advantages modulation?
of
low level
56. Briefly explain the function of "test switch" in MRU -101? 57. Why shunt generator is invariable started with out load ? Write conditions for. 58. Briefly explain localizer beacon?
70. Explain keying. used .Reason out.
HT anode keying is rarely
71. What are the salient features of MOPA? 72. Briefly Explain RS Flip - Flop? 73. Convert 1762.56 (16) into Octal Numbers ? 74. Draw NOR gate logic circuit and write its truth table , logic symbol and Boolean expression? 75. Convert 1A3.C Hexa decimal into decimal number? 76. Draw the logic circuit diagram of a exclusive OR gate . State its output,T/T and symbol? 77. Explain the serviceability check of L E D with the help of AVO meter? 78. Write the advantage of IC voltage regulator? 79. How will you identify the pin numbers. of an IC ?
80. Why flux is used while soldering?
98. What will happen when the break down voltage is higher in lightly doped diodes?
81. How will you check the serviceability of a Zener diode with AVO meter?
99. Explain Armature reaction. How is it minimized?
82. Draw a diagram of IC voltage regulator ?
100. Draw the diagram of integrator? Show its input/output wave forms?
83. An electronic circuit used in almost all the electronic equipment where automatic frequency Tracking, frequency multiplication and frequency synthesizing take place is: (A) digital switching unit (B) Bilateral switching unit (C) SCR circuit (D) PLL circuit 84. Enumerate various methods of classification of modulation?
101. State the essential conditions for oscillation? 102. What are the salient features of direct coupled amplifier ? 103. Briefly explain 'Q' point (Quiescent ,working or operating points ) of a transistor? 104. What are the special features of VUC -201 A?
85. Write short notes on: (A) Bulk resistance (B) Barrier Potential (C) Zener Diode. 86. What are the principle of operation of CVR (MRU_101)? 87. Name and briefly explain the three basic system components needed to assemble a complete microprocessor? 88. What is the difference between Volatile and Non volatile memory?
105. Briefly explain the functions of 50 MHz phase lock loop (PLL) modules in VUC-201 A? 106. What is break down voltage ? How it occurs? 107. Write the elements used in the construction of a Transformer? 108. Draw the diagram of full wave rectifier and briefly explain the function.
89. What are the salient features of emitter bias ?
109. Briefly explain the fundamental properties of an amplifier?
90. List out the salient features of Class "A" amplifier?
110. Write down the testing procedure of a zener diode?
91. Briefly explain the construction part of tetrode with the help of a schematic diagram?
111. Draw a circuit diagram of common emitter amplifier ?
92. What are the uses and applications of Micro processor.
112. What are the different losses in generator, explain copper loss ?
93. Name the 7 status bits used in microprocessor ?
113. What are the two major components of computer system?
94. What is program counter and state its role in microprocessor? 95. Write the salient amplifier?
features of common base
96. What are the salient features of Common Collector Amplifiers? 97. What are the advantages and disadvantages of alternating Current over Direct Current?
114. Define Icon? 115. State any six data types available in MS Access? 116. What is the basic difference between MS DOS and Windows? 117. Give two examples of System software? 118. Briefly explain the difference between data sheet view and design view of a table in MS-Access?
119. Write down the advantages of non-impact printer. 120. Define Software. What is difference between software and hardware?
130. Briefly explain " Diffusion Capacitance" in a PN junction.
121. What are the components of MS-Access?
132. Briefly explain the operation of ' Step Recovery Diode '.
131. Write short notes on ' Avalanche Breakdown '.
122. Briefly explain power amplifier? 133. Write short notes on Tunnel Diode. 123. Write short notes on conduction band. 134. How transducers are classified ? 124. Write short notes on directly heated cathode. 125. Write short notes on Space Charge.
135. Write the procedure to carry out the bonding test on an aircraft.
126. Name and explain the essential components of a CRT.
136. Write the various uses of Cathode Ray Oscilloscope.
127. Write short notes on conductors.
137. How will you determine the unknown frequency with the help of CRO ?
128. Write short notes on Zener breakdown. 129. Write short notes on ' depletion layer '.
SUBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1. Give an expression for the range of space waves in terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height? 2. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW when the modulation percentage is 75%. How much of this is carrier power? 3. Explain the generation of FM by direct method? 4. In which respect is an LED different from an ordinary P-n junction diode? State its application. 5. Draw the circuit diagram of a voltage regulator circuit using a Zener diode and explain its working. 6. Explain briefly the purpose of coupling and bypass capacitors. What is meant by stiff coupling? 7. Obtain the ac equivalent of a single stage CE amplifier and discuss about the input and output impedance to develop such a model. 8. With a neat circuit diagram explain the following term with respect to a differential amplifier (a) Tail Current (b) Input offset current (c)Input bias current (d) Input offset voltage. 9. What is the approximate value of zener current for each of these load resistances :- (a) RL = 100 Kilo Ohms (b) RL = 10 Kilo Ohms (c) RL = 1 Kilo Ohms. 10. Explain the working of a Class-C amplifier. Obtain the power formulas for class C amplifier. 11. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB. Describe one method? 12. Explain the working of super heterodyne receiver? 13. Derive power relation in AM wave? 14. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver? 15. Explain power saving by SSB? 16. Define modulation and explain Amplitude Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase modulation. Also explain the need for modulation? 17. Define noise, where is it most likely to affect the signal?
18. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM transmitter. Show the appearance of amplitude modulated wave? 19. The block diagram communication system?
of
a
typical
PCM
20. The advantages and disadvantages of PCM over analog communication? 21. An amplitude-modulated wave has a power content of 800 W at its carrier frequency; determine the power content of each of the sidebands for 90% modulation? 22. Explain the RS Flip Flop with the help of a diagram. 23. Explain the "TTL NAND GATE" with the help of a circuit diagram. 24. Explain the basic laws of Boolean algebra. 25. Give a brief account of the magnetic tape as a medium of storing information and state basic parts of digital magnetic tape system. 26. What is the purpose of flow chart used in computer? Give symbol of ??? PRINT, STOP and CONNECTOR, MULTIMATERIAL computation. 27. What is the safety precaution to be observed while using CRO? 28. Name various types of frequency meter widely used and Explain the principle ad operation of mechanical resonance type frequency meter. 29. Write the purpose and use of the following: - (i) Varactor diode (ii) Step recovery diode (step diode). 30. Enumerate the parts of a MOSFET and explain positive gate operation of MOSFET. 31. Draw a block diagram of typical ESCRT and explain the purpose of control grid. 32. What is difference between Zener Break Down and Avalanche Break down. 33. Briefly explain the Zener Diode.
34. What is the purpose of a clipper in an electronic circuit? Explain its operation with a simple diagram. 35. Write short Notes on: - (i) Varactor Diode (ii) Avalanche Breakdown. 36. Explain snap diode (step Recovery diode) and enumerate its uses. 37. What are the advantages of Class 'B' Push-Pull amplifier? Give justification to your answer. 38. Name the various types of satellite with brief description. 39. What is ground wave? elements.
Explain its different
40. Briefly explain the application of LASER in the following: (i) Spect ??? (iii) Weaponry. 41. What are the points to be observed while selecting an antenna system. 42. What are the types of antennas used in communication equipments. 43. How is the range of VHF transmitter calculated. Explain with the help of formula. 44. Which is the agency allots frequency band for communication purposes. 45. Explain the type of propagation used in VHF range. 46. What is the difference between soldering and brazing. 47. What is ‘BITE’ in a communication equipment. 48. What are the types of ‘BITE’. 49. What is the principle of automatic direction finding equipment. 50. How VOR works. 51. What are the purpose of glide path and localiser in ILS system. 52. How middle marker and outer marker works in ILS system. 53. Why screening is used in airborne system.
54. What are the types of ILS system used in India. 55. What are the points to be observed while installing an ADF station. 56. What is ground plane antenna. 57. How antenna length is calculated communication system. Explain with formula.
in
58. Explain operation of class C grid modulation amplifier with circuit diagram and waveform? 59. Enlist the Methods of generation of SSB. Describe one method? 60. Explain the working of super heterodyne receiver? 61. Derive power relation in AM wave? 62. Explain with block diagram SSB receiver? 63. Explain power saving by SSB? 64. Define modulation and explain Amplitude Modulation, Frequency modulation, and Phase modulation. Also explain the need for modulation? 65. Explain the structure of an optical fiber and also explain the principle on which optical communication takes place? 66. Draw and explain the block diagram of AM transmitter. Show the appearance of amplitude modulated wave? 67. Draw the block diagram of a typical PCM communication system? 68. List the advantages and disadvantages of PCM over analog communication? 69. An amplitude modulated wave has a power content of 800 W at its carrier frequency, determine the power content of each of the sidebands for 90% modulation? 70. List the advantages of FM over AM? 71. Give an expression for the range of space waves in terms of transmitting and receiving antenna height? 72. A broadcast radio transmitter radiates 10 KW when the modulation percentage is 75%. How much of this is carrier power?
73. Explain the generation of FM by direct method? 74. Draw the block diagram of FM transmitter? 75. Explain the working of antenna of SRE? 76. Explain the purpose and role of PAR? 77. Explain the functioning of PAR? 78. Explain in brief how PAR is able to provide guidance information for safe landing of aircraft? 79. What are the various angle marks generated in PAR? 80. Explain the purpose of ILS?
97. Compare acceptor and rejector circuits in tabulation form? 98. What is primary cell? Narrate important points about them . Also write short notes on rated capacity of Lead Acid Accumulator?. 99. What is the necessity of regulator? Draw shunt feed back regulator and write the specifications for IC regulators?. 100. Enumerate the types of condensers . Briefly explain advantage and disadvantage of electrolytic condensers? 101. Enumerate magnetic properties of substances? Briefly explain magnetostriction?
81. What is MLS?
102. Explain the salient features of communication satellite.
82. How MLS provides guidance information to pilot to perform safe landing?
103. Characteristics of an ideal op-amplifier ?
83. Explain the purpose and operation of MLS?
104. Briefly explain the advantages and disadvantages of optical fiber cable?
84. Explain the purpose and operation of Localiser, glide path and marker beacons?
105. Draw a block diagram and explain double super heterodyne receiver?
85. What are the various components of ILS?
106. Briefly explain the operating principle of IC based regulator.
86. What is the coverage of ILS? 87. What is the standard procedure by which the aircraft makes use of the ILS?
107. Draw and briefly explain Anode (plate ) modulation?
88. Where is on airfield ILS antenna positioned?
108. Enumerate the external noises produced in a receiver ?Briefly explain miscellaneous Noise.
89. Why ILS equipments are not installed on both ends of the runway?
109. Draw and explain a cascade amplifier. Write its advantage and uses?
90. What are the advantages of MLS over ILS?
110. Write the advantages and disadvantages of FM over AM ?
91. What is the horizontal and vertical coverage of MLS?
111. Draw a block schematic diagram to show the stages of op-amplifier. Name the.
92. How many channels are used in MLS? 93. What is the frequency of operation of MLS? 94. What are the types of Navigation?
112. What is biasing ? What are the method of biasing ? Briefly explain emitter feed back bias? 113. Explain the relation between alfa dc and bita dc ?
95. Draw and explain self excited mixers? 96. Draw and explain delayed AGC?
114. How junction diodes are formed ? Explain the forming of depletion layer?
115. What are the uses of CRO / CRT ?
133. What are the safety precautions to be observed while soldering electronic components in airborne radio equipments.
116. Draw the diagram of timer circuit using IC 555 and explain ?
134. How insulation test is conducted.
117. Draw purpose?
SCR crow bar circuit
and
state its
136. Why Germanium and Silcon are used in semiconductors?
118. Write Point wise the requirement of keying? 119. Briefly explain class "C" amplifier ? write down its salient features? 120. How the marker is distinguished explain outer marker?
135. Why 50 Hz is fixed as frequency for 230V AC.
? Briefly
137. How a semiconductor diode works. 138. What are the impurities in a semiconductor diode.
121. Briefly explain the qualities of receiver/.
139. What are the advantages over vacuum tube diode in a PN junction diode.
122. Draw Block schematic diagram of AM simple transmitter and explain Harmonic generator.
140. Draw the VI characteristics of a PN junction diode and explain.
123. Briefly explain glide path?
141. Draw and explain Astable multivibrator.
124. What are the various type of peripheral devices of a microprocessor? Explain briefly?
142. Draw and explain Bistable multivibrator.
125. Draw a circuit diagram of common collector amplifier (Emitter follower) and briefly explain its action?
143. Draw and explain RS Flipflop. 144. Draw and explain JK Flipflop. 145. What is the basic principle used in oscillators.
126. Draw and explain Common Drain Amplifier (Source Follower) and state its salient features?
146. How colpitts oscillator works.
127. Define modulation. Enumerate the reasons which necessitated modulation. Enumerate classifications of modulation.
147. Draw and explain Hartley oscillator.
128. Compare Low and High level Modulation?.
149. What is a principle used in networking in a computer system.
129. What are the properties of Amplifiers. How amplifiers are classified? 130. Enumerate the procedure of pre-setting frequency and channels on VUC 201 A?
of
148. Explain how a micro computer works.
150. Explain memory organisation in micro computer. 151. What is Cache memory in a computer. 152. What are the advantages of LCD over LED.
131. Draw a block schematic diagram of super Heterodyne Receiver and differentiate between Autodyning and Heterodyning? 132. What are the specifications of Electrical Cables used for airborne radio equipments.
153. Explain how LED works. 154. Why Impedence matching is required in a communication system? 155. What is SWR.
156. What are the types of connectors used in Coaxial calbe. 157. Why reflected power should be very less or zero in a transmitter. 158. Draw the diagram of CVR and clearly show the source of input. 159. Explain why a marker sensitivity switch is required.
175. Describe how your would check a waveguide(??) ...(??) for condition. 176. Explain the term fruit and garbling as applied to SSR. 177. Explain how DECCA chain is designated. 178. Describe the outputs from ILS to the aircrafts instrumentation and to other system. 179. Draw a block diagram of Glide slope receiver.
160. Describe in general how will you carry out ramp test of an ILS.
180. Name and explain various types of electron emission.
161. Explain the working principle at radio altimeter. 162. Discuss centaur, STC and AGC in a weather radar. 163. Describe the Doppler effect as utilised as in airborne Doppler radar. 164. Draw a simplifier block diagram of Doppler navigation system. 165. Draw a block schematic diagram of pulse radio altimeter. 166. Which system requires signals from radio altimeter? What are signals involved? 167. With the help of block diagram explain the action of an HF ATU. 168. Describe the information in ADF presented to pilot. 169. Draw and explain a simple anticross talk network. 170. Draw a simplifier block diagram of VOR receiver and explain it. 171. List the facilities provided by a typical general aviation AIS. 172. Describe briefly the basic principle of ILS. 173. List source of interference to A/C radio system and state method used to minimise the effects of such sources.
181. With the aid of a symbol sketch, explain the operation of pentode valve. 182. With the aid of VI characteristic curve, explain characteristics of vacuum diode. 183. Name and semiconductors.
explain
the
main
types
of
184. With the aid of symbol, explain the construction, operation and uses of schottkey diode (Hot. 185. Enumerate the uses of different types of special diodes. 186. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram, explain the construction, operation and peak inverse. 187. With the aid of a neat circuit diagram explain the description and operation of Hartley oscil. 188. Draw a neat structure and symbol diagram of NPN forward reverse bias transistor and explain I. 189. With the help of a neat circuit diagram, explain the description and operation of Colpits osc. 190. With the help of a suitable structural and schematic circuit diagram explain how a SCR reache. 191. Describe the safety precautions to be observed while using Cathode Ray Oscilloscope. 192. Explain adjacent channel interference in Radio signal. 193. List the source of error effecting ADF operation.
174. Discuss the term squelch. How squelch test is carried out?
194. Describe quad rental error and explain how it may be corrected.
195. Draw ADF installation diagram.
