BiologySATIISubjTest_1

Practice Questions POD

SAT Subject Test: Biology E/M: Practice Test 1 1.

This process is completed ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

in the cytoplasm. in the area of the cell membrane. in the chloroplast. in the mitochondria. in the area around the ribosomes. by Kaplan Test Prep

2.

Which of the following is a feature in fetal development? I. ductus arteriosus II. foramen ovale III. fetal hemoglobin with a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I only II only III only I and III only I, II, and III by Kaplan Test Prep

3.

Which of the following associations most closely corresponds to that of ectoderm: endoderm? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

heart: stomach retina: lungs skeletal muscles: liver skin: stomach muscle taste buds: uterus by Kaplan Test Prep

4. A mov ement of muscle that bends a joint to a more acute angle is termed ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

flexion. insertion. tonus. diastole. extension. by Kaplan Test Prep

5.

Which hormone triggers your body to retain NaCl, especially during periods of excessive heat?

ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

aldosterone progesterone ACTH epinephrine testosterone by Kaplan Test Prep

6.

If one parent is homozygous dominant and the other is homozygous recessive, which of the following might appear in an generation, generat ion, but not in an generation? I. heterozygous genotype II. dominant phenotype III. recessive phenotype ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I only II only III only I and II only II and III only by Kaplan Test Prep

7.

Which of the following statements about oxidative phosphorylation is NOT correct? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

It occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion. It involves as the final electron acc eptor. It produces 2 ATPs for each . It can occur under anaerobic conditions. It involves a proton gradient. by Kaplan Test Prep

8.

The climate with the shortest growing season would be located in the ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

taiga. tropical rain forest. deciduous forest. savanna. steppes. by Kaplan Test Prep

9. A fac tor that tends to k eep the gene pool c onstant is

I. nonrandom mating. II. freedom to immigrate/emigrate. III. no net mutations. IV. large populations. ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I and II only III and IV only I, III, and IV only II, III, and IV only I, II, III, and IV by Kaplan Test Prep

10. A pers on tak es a large overdos e of antacid. As a r esult, the ac tivity of whic h of the following enzy mes would be most affected? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Maltase lactase lipase pepsin sucrase by Kaplan Test Prep

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the kingdom Protista? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Members can be photosynthetic. Members can be free-living. Some members move via flagella. Some members are shaped like rods and termed bacilli. Some members spend part of their life cycle inside insects. by Kaplan Test Prep

12. Which enzyme digests disaccharides to monosaccharides? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

lactase kinase zymogen lipase phosphatase by Kaplan Test Prep

13. The vessel with the LEAST oxygenated blood is the ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

pulmonary vein. aorta. renal artery. pulmonary artery. superior vena cava. by Kaplan Test Prep

14. Which of the following has a chambered heart and a dorsal notochord during development? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

cardinal sea urchin snail praying mantis earthworm by Kaplan Test Prep

15. A s ingle ingle nondisjunction may caus e all of the following EXCEPT ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

spontaneous miscarriage of the fetus. 47 chromosomes per somatic cell. 45 chromosomes per somatic cell. congenital disorders such as Down syndrome. breakage near the centromere. by Kaplan Test Prep

16. A pers on's anterior pituitary gland is removed by surgery . Plasma c oncentrations of which of the following following hormones would be

LEAST affected? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

GH LH FSH Insulin ACTH by Kaplan Test Prep

17. How many different types of gametes would be produced by an organism of genotype Aab AabbCcDD bCcDD if all of the genes were to

assort independently? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

4 6 8 10 12 by Kaplan Test Prep

18. Ribosomes function in clusters called ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

histones. nucleoli. endoplasmic reticulum. the Golgi complex. polysomes. by Kaplan Test Prep

19. Salmon return to their specific home stream to spawn. This is an example of


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

pheromones. a reflex. imprinting. classical conditioning. circadian rhythms. by Kaplan Test Prep

20. If two animals mate and produce viable, fertile offspring under natural conditions, we can conclude that ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

they both have diploid somatic cells. they are both from the same species. for any given gene, they both have the same allele. their blood types are compatible. None of the above by Kaplan Test Prep

21. In an emergency, an individual with type AB antigen in his red blood cells may receive a transfusion of

I. type O blood II. type A blood III. type B blood ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I only II only II and III only III only I, II, and III by Kaplan Test Prep

22. The gene for color blindness is X-linked. If normal parents have a color-blind son, what is the probability that he inherited the

gene for color blindness from his mother? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

0% 25% 5% 75% 100% by Kaplan Test Prep

23. Which of the following is a correct association? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ A B

C

○

Mitochondria: transport of materials from the nucleus to the cytoplasm Golgi apparatus: modification and glycosylation of proteins Endoplasmic reticulum: selective barrier for the cell Ribosomes: digestive enzymes most active at acidic pH Lysosomes: membrane-bound organelles that convert fat into sugars by Kaplan Kaplan Test Prep

D E

24. Spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that

I. meiosis proceeds continually without pausing in spermatogenesis, while oogenesis involves a meiotic pause. II. spermatogenesis only occurs during puberty. III. spermatogenesis produces four haploid sperm cells from each diploid precursor cell, while oogenesis produces one egg cell and two or more polar bodies. ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


25. Which of the following foods contains the greatest amount of energy per gram? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Sugar Starch Fat Proteins Vitamins by Kaplan Test Prep

26. Which statement about human gamete production is FALSE? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

In the testes, sperm develop in the seminiferous tubules. In the ovaries, eggs develop in the ovarian follicles. FSH stimulates gamete production in both sexes. Gametes arise via meiosis. The result of meiosis in females is the production of four egg cells from each diploid precursor cell. by Kaplan Test Prep

27. The hormone progesterone ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

stimulates follicle growth. stimulates FSH production. is solely responsible for the maintenance of secondary sex characteristics. is produced by the anterior pituitary. readies the uterus for implantation. by Kaplan Test Prep

28. In a particular population, for a trait with two alleles, the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.6. What is the frequency of

individuals expressing the dominant phenotype? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

0.16 0.36 0.48 0.64 0.6 by Kaplan Test Prep

29. Question below refer to the following diagram.

Which structure contains the female gametophyte? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


30. Question below refer to the following diagram.

Which is the part of the flower that catches the pollen? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


31.

Question below refer to the following diagram.

Where do pollen grains develop? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


32. A pollen grain fuses with the two polar bodies to form ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

the flower. the endosperm. the pistil. the sepal. the stamen. by Kaplan Test Prep

33. Question below refer to the figure below.

Which structure attaches this organism to the cell surface?


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E



Structure 1 can be made up of I. DNA. II. lipid. III. protein.


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E



Structure 2 can be made up of I. DNA. II. R NA. III. protein.


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I only II only III only I and II only I, II, and III by Kaplan Test Prep

36. Withdrawal response ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

simple reflex complex reflex fixed action patterns behavioral cycles environmental rhythms by Kaplan Test Prep

37. Retrieval and maintenance of eggs of their species by female birds ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


38. Simple response to simple stimuli


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


39. Circadian rhythms ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


40. Grasshopper's method of excretion ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Simple diffusion Nephridia Malphigian tubules Flame cells Nephrons by Kaplan Test Prep

41. Human's method of excretion ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


42. Planaria's method of excretion ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


43. Earthworm's method of excretion


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


44. Protozoa's method of excretion ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


45. Possible production of seedless fruit ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Binary fission Budding Spore formation Vegetative Vegetative propagation Parthenogenesis by Kaplan Test Prep

46. Reproduction of yeast cells ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


47. Development of an egg without a sperm ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


48. An ex ample is an underground stem with buds


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E


49. In the pyramid of energy, the least amount of stored chemical energy is found in ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

primary primary producers. producers. decomposers. primary primary consumers. secondary consumers. tertiary tertiary consumers. by Kaplan Test Prep

50. When a bird consumes insect pests from a rhino's back, which of the following processes is taking place? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Mutualism Parasitism Saprophytism Commensalism Autotrophism Autotrophism by Kaplan Test Prep

51. Which organism is correctly matched to its trophic level? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Shark: primary consumer Cattle: primary consumer Fungi: producer Cyanobacteria: decomposer Butterflies: scavenger by Kaplan Test Prep

52. A s table ecos ys tem

I. is self-sustaining. II. cycles materials between biotic and abiotic components. III. requires an energy source. IV. will have a high mutation rate. ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D

I only I and II only I, II, and III only I, II, and IV only I, II, III, and IV by Kaplan Kaplan Test Prep

E

53. Which of the following biomes are correctly paired? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Tundra: treeless frozen plain Taiga: higher temperatures, torrential rains Savanna: less than 10 inches of rain per year Desert: cold winters, warm summers, moderate rainfall None of the above by Kaplan Test Prep

54. Which of the following statements about photosynthesis is correct?

I. Oxygen is generated. II. Water is generated. III. Carbon dioxide is consumed. IV. Sugar is consumed. ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I only I and III only II and III only I, III, and IV only I, II, III, and IV by Kaplan Test Prep

55. Where does a plant obtain the carbon that contributes to its mass? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

The carbon enters the roots in solution. The carbon is taken up from soil particles. The carbon is synthesized by the plant. The carbon is fixed by symbiotic bacteria. The carbon enters the leaves as a gas. by Kaplan Test Prep

56. Given the following single strand of DNA sequence - 5'-GAATTG-3' - what is the sequence of the opposite strand?


○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

5'-CAATTC-3' 5'-CTTAAC-3' 5'-CTTAAG-3' 5'-GAATTG-3' 5'-GTTAAG-3' by Kaplan Test Prep

57. Which of the following structures is present in the nucleus of a cell? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Mitochondrion Ribosome Endoplasmic reticulum Chromatin Centriole by Kaplan Test Prep

58. Fermentation may result in the production of

I. oxygen. II. carbon dioxide. III. lactate. IV. ethanol. ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

I only II only II and IV only III and IV only II, III, and IV only by Kaplan Test Prep

59. Which of the following will NOT be present in a molecule of messenger RNA? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

Thymine Phosphate Adenine Adenine Ribose Cytosine by Kaplan Test Prep

60. Which of the following enzymes is NOT necessary for the replication of DNA? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D

DNA polymerase DNA ligase DNA topoisomerase DNA primase DNA methyltransferase by Kaplan Kaplan Test Prep

E

61. The cell cy cle cons ists of four major phases:

(gap) S (DNA sy nthesis) (gap) M (mitosis). The yeas t mutation blocks the cell-cy cell-cy cle transition transition from phase into into M phase. If the DNA content of of a normal haploid haploid yeast cell isN , what is the DNA content of a haploid cdc8 mutant blocked in phase?

cdc8


○ ○ ○ ○ ○

A N B

2 N

C

3 N

D

4 N

E

8 N by Kaplan Test Prep

62. A drug called Brefeldin A bloc ks transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the G olgi apparatus. If a cell that typically sec retes

enzyme X is treated with Brefeldin A, what effect will be observed on the secretion of enzyme X? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A B

C D E

There will be no effect on secretion. Secretion of enzyme X will increase. Secretion of enzyme X will decrease. Enzyme X will accumulate in the plasma membrane. Enzyme X will accumulate in the nuclear membrane. by Kaplan Test Prep

63. The transport of which ions across the plasma membrane is important for the transmission of nerve impulses? ANSWER (Choose the correct answer)

○ ○ ○ ○ ○ A

,

B

, ,

C

D

E

, , by Kaplan Test Prep

SAT Subject Test: Biology E/M: Practice Test 1

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Answers & Explanations POD

SAT Subject Test: Biology E/M: Practice Test 1 1. Answer (C) is corr ect.

in the chloroplast. This equation describes the formation of carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water by plants. This process occurs in the chloroplast and is part of photosythesis. by Kaplan Test Prep

2. Answer (E) is corr ect.

I, II, and III The fetus has several features that help it to get oxygen from the mother, such as the ductus arteriosus, which shunts blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta. The foramen ovale, meanwhile, is an opening that shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium. Both of these keep blood from traveling to the underdeveloped lungs. Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin, enabling fetal hemoglobin to become oxygenated in the placenta from the mother's blood. by Kaplan Test Prep

3. Answer (B) is corr ect.

retina: lungs The ectoderm develops into the skin, eyes, and the nervous system. The endoderm develops into the lungs, the gastrointestinal tract, and the bladder lining. Finally, the mesoderm develops into everything else, including the musculoskeletal system, the circulatory system, and the reproductive organs. by Kaplan Test Prep

4. Answer (A) is corr ect.

flexion. Flexors bend a joint to an acute angle, while extensors extend or straighten the bones at a joint. by Kaplan Test Prep


aldosterone Aldosterone c auses the ac tive absorption of sodium ions in the nephron. Chloride ions and water pass ively follow. follow. by Kaplan Test Prep

6. Answer (C) is corr ect.

III only In the AA x aa cros s, the generation will be 100 percent Aa , a heterozygous genotype with a dominant phenotype. In the generation, there will be a 1:2:1 ratio of AA:Aa:a generation will have the homozygous and AA:Aa:aa a . Therefore, the heterozygous dominant genotype (and dominant phenotype) as well as the recessive genotype and phenotype. Answer choices I and II can be eliminated, leaving only III. by Kaplan Test Prep

7. Answer (D) is corr ect.

It can occur under anaerobic conditions. In glycolys is and the Krebs cy cle, energy is extrac ted from glucose and transferr ed to NADH and . In electron transport, the energy of NADH and is transferr ed to a series of proteins in the inner mitochondrial membrane, with as the final electron acceptor at the end of the chain. This electron transport chain pumps protons out of the mitochondria, creating a proton gradient. The energy of the gradient drives ATP synthesis. Each NADH leads to three ATP and each creates two. Without Without there is no electron transport or oxidative phosphorylation. by Kaplan Test Prep


taiga. The taiga has the most northern latitude of the choices available. Since growing season decreases as latitude increases, it must also have the shortest growing season. by Kaplan Test Prep


III and IV only The Hardy-Weinberg principle states that gene ratios and allelic frequencies remain constant through the generations in a nonevolving population. Five criteria must be met in order for this to occur: random mating, a large population, no immigration or emigraton, no natural selection, and a lack of mutation. If all five of these criteria are met, gene frequencies will remain constant. Any time these five are not met, gene frequencies will change in the gene pool. by Kaplan Test Prep


pepsin When a person takes too much antacid, HCl in the stomach is neutralized and pH rises from its normal very acidic levels. Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that works best in acidic conditions. When pH is raised, pepsin becomes nonfunctional. Therefore, pepsin activity would be most affected by an antacid overdose. by Kaplan Test Prep


Some members are shaped like rods and termed bacilli. Protists may be unicellular or colonial, free-living or symbiotic. They also can be heterotrophic or photosynthetic. Flagellates move via flagella, while sporozoans are responsible for malaria and spend part of their life cycle in mosquitoes. Bacilli, however, are rod-shaped bacteria, and they are prokaryotes, not protists. by Kaplan Test Prep


lactase Lactase breaks lactose into glucose and galactose. In (B), kinase is an enzyme that phosphorylates its substrate. As for (C), a zymogen is an enzyme that is secreted in an inactive form. The zymogen is cleaved under certain physiological conditions to the active form of the enzyme. Important examples of zymogens include pepsinogen, trypsinogen, and chymotrypsinogen, which are cleaved in the digestive tract to yield the active enzymes pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin, respectively. Finally, in (D), lipase breaks down lipids into free fatty acids, while in (E), phosphatase removes a phosphate from its substrate. by Kaplan Test Prep


pulmonary artery. The least oxygenated blood would be found in the pulmonary artery. This artery transports blood that is deoxygenated after passage through all the tissues of the body back to the lungs to become oxygenated again. by Kaplan Test Prep


cardinal The cardinal and other birds have a chambered heart, like all vertebrates, and a dorsal notochord during development. Snails (C) are mollusks. Their characteristic mantle secretes a calcium-mineral shell. Snails also breathe through gills, have tubershaped hearts, blood sinuses, and a pair of ventral nerve cords. As for (D), insects have a tubular heart and an open circulatory system, like all arthropods. Sea urchins (echinoderms) (B) and earthworms (annelids) (E) do not have chambered hearts or notochords. by Kaplan Test Prep


breakage near the centromere. Nondisjunction is a failure of a homologous pair of chromosomes to separate when gametes are formed by meiosis. The result is an extra chromosome or a missing chromosome for a given pair. For example, Down syndrome can be attributed to an extra chromosome number 21. The number of chromosomes in a case of single nondisjunction is 2 n + 1 (47) or 2 n - 1 (45). In Down syndrome, it is 47. Most of these embryos are spontaneously aborted early in their development and only a few, like Down syndrome (Trisomy 21), Trisomy 13, and Trisomy 18, make it to term, albeit with developmental disorders. Breakage near the centromere might be induced by environmental factors such as mutagens, but would not be caused by nondisjunction. by Kaplan Test Prep


Insulin Growth hormone (GH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FS H), luteinizing hormone (LH), and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) are all secreted by the anterior pituitary, and would therefore be affected by its surgical removal. Insulin is produced by the pancreas. by Kaplan Test Prep


4 You can disregard bb and DD ; all gametes will be bD . Your remaining options are now ACbD , AcbD , aCbD , and acbD , giving you a total of four different gametes. Or, 2 alleles at the A locus x 2 alleles at the the C locus = 4 possible gametes. by Kaplan Test Prep


polysomes. Polysomes are defined as a group of ribosomes that attach to a strand of mRNA and simultaneously translate it. Histones are proteins that help to package DNA, allowing it to coil tightly in the nucleus, and the nucleolus is the region of the nucleus where rRNA is produced. by Kaplan Test Prep


imprinting. Imprinting is a process in which environmental patterns or objects presented to a developing organism during a brief "critical period" in early life become accepted as permanent elements in the organism's life. In this case, the location at which the salmon was born becomes a permanent behavioral element, as demonstrated when the salmon returns to this location to spawn. by Kaplan Test Prep


they are both from the same species. The definition of a species states that members of a particular species are able to mate and produce fertile, viable offspring. by Kaplan Test Prep


I, II, and III People with blood type AB are known as universal recipients. Their blood does not have antibodies to either the A or B antigens. Therefore, AB patients can receive blood from A, B, AB, or O donors. by Kaplan Test Prep


100% A female has two X chromosomes, one inherited from her mother and one inherited from her father, while a given male has one X chromosome inherited from his mother and one Y chromosome inherited from his father. If a male expresses an X -linked trait, he must have inherited it from his mother. If normal parents have a color-blind son, he must have inherited the color-blind gene, which is X -linked, from his mother. His mother must be a carrier of the color-blind allele. The probability that a color-blind son inherited the gene for color blindness from his mother is 100 percent. by Kaplan Test Prep


Golgi apparatus: modification and glycosylation glycosylation of proteins The Golgi apparatus consists of a stack of membrane-enclosed sacs. The Golgi receives vesicles and their contents from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER), modifies them (such as by glycosylation), repackages them into vesicles, and distributes them to different parts of the cell. In (A), mitochondria are involved in cellular respiration, and in (C), the ER transports polypeptides around the cell and to the Golgi apparatus for packaging. The ribosome (D) is the site of protein synthesis, while lysosomes (E) are membrane-bound organelles that contain digestive enzymes and typically have a low pH. by Kaplan Test Prep


I and III only Spermatogenesis and oogenesis are both examples of gametogenesis in that both produce haploid gametes through reductional division (meiosis) of diploid cells. These processes occur in the gonads. They differ in that in spermatogenesis, the cytoplasm is equally divided during meiosis and four viable sperm are produced from one diploid cell. In oogenesis, on the other hand, the cytoplasm is divided unequally, and only one ovum, with the bulk of the cytoplasm, is produced in addition to two or three inert polar bodies. Spermatogenesis is also continuous, meaning that it occurs throughout life and not only during puberty. Meanwhile, oogenesis freezes at the end of meiosis I and does not complete meiosis II until fertilization. by Kaplan Test Prep


Fat Fat contains approximately 9 calories/ gram, while carbohydrates and proteins contain only 4 calories/gram. Sugar and starch are two forms of carbohydrates, and vitamins are coenzymes that are typically not metabolized for energy. by Kaplan Test Prep


The result of meiosis in females is the production of four egg cells from each diploid precursor cell. Oogenesis produces only one viable egg and two or three polar bodies. This is a result of unequal distribution of the cytoplasm during meiosis. Interstitial cells are stimulated by LH to produce testosterone; FSH and testosterone then initiate the development of sperm in the seminiferous tubules (A). As for (B), eggs develop in follicles in the ovaries under the control of FSH. It is obvious in (C) that FSH plays a role in gamete production in both sexes. Finally, in (D), gametes become haploid through reductional division (meiosis) in which a diploid cell gives rise to either four haploid sperm or one haploid egg and two or three polar bodies. by Kaplan Test Prep


readies the uterus for implantation. Progesterone readies the uterus for implantation by thickening and vascularizing the uterine lining. In (A), FSH secreted by the anterior pituitary, not progesterone, stimulates follicle growth. As for (B), FSH and LH production are repressed by feedback inhibition from estrogen and progesterone. Testosterone and estrogen are responsible for the secondary sex characteristics of males and females, respectively (C). As for choice (D), FSH and LH are produced by the anterior pituitary; progesterone is not. by Kaplan Test Prep


0.64 To answer this question, we must use the Hardy- Weinberg Weinberg equation, equation,

, in which p equals the gene

frequency for the dominant dominant allele allele,, and and q equals the the gene gene frequency frequency of the reces sive allele. allele. Hence,

is the frequency of

homozygous dominants dominants in in the population, population, 2pq is the the frequency of heterozy gotes, and and is the the frequency of homozygous recessives. For a trait with only two alleles, p + q must equal 1, since the combined frequencies of the alleles must total 100 percent. In this problem, we are told that the frequency of the recessive allele for a particular trait is 0.6; hence q = 0.6. Since p + q = 1, p = 0.4. You're asked to determine the frequency of individuals expressing the dominant phenotype, not the dominant genotype. So, you're looking for ; = 0.4 squared = 0.16. 2pq = 2(0.6)(0.4) = 0.48. Finally, Finally, 0.16 + 0.48 = 0.64, which means that 64 percent of the individuals in the question exhibit the dominant phenotype. by Kaplan Test Prep


12 The ovules are contained in the enlarged base of the pistil known as the ovary. Each ovule contains a monoploid egg nucleus, the female gametophyte. by Kaplan Test Prep


9 The stigma is the sticky top part of the flower that catches pollen. by Kaplan Test Prep


4 Pollen grains develop in the sac (called the anther) at the top of the thin, stalklike filament. by Kaplan Test Prep


the endosperm. One pollen grain (sperm) fuses with the egg to form the zygote, while another fuses with two polar bodies to form the endosperm that nourishes the growing zygote. by Kaplan Test Prep


3 Tail fibers attach the bacteriophage to the cell surface, where it injects its DNA into the cell. by Kaplan Test Prep


I only Bacteriophages contain only DNA, although some other viruses, such as HIV, use RNA as their genetic material. Proteins are found only in the coat and tail fibers, and lipids are not involved. by Kaplan Test Prep


III only The viral capsid and tail fibers are always made up of protein. by Kaplan Test Prep


complex reflex Complex reflexes are polysynaptic: the sensory neurons communicate with more than one neuron to evoke a response. A classic example of this kind of reflex is the withdrawal response, in which the sensory neuron synapses with different neurons in the spinal cord to regulate muscle movement (withdrawal) and balance. by Kaplan Test Prep


fixed action patterns Fixed action patterns are complex, coordinated, innate behavioral responses to specific stimuli from the environment. Female birds will take care of eggs of their own species more vigilantly than they would an egg that doesn't resemble one of their own. by Kaplan Test Prep


simple reflex Simple reflexes are simple, automatic responses to simple stimuli. One example is the knee-jerk reflex, with no direct involvement of the brain; this reflex is a neural loop that only involves one sensory neuron and one motor neuron in the spinal cord. by Kaplan Test Prep


behavioral cycles Daily behavioral cycles are called circadian rhythms. These cycles are initiated intrinsically but modified by external factors such as day length. by Kaplan Test Prep


Malphigian Malphigian tubules Grasshoppers, like all insects, remove nitrogenous wastes through Malphigian tubules, which collect the waste from the body liquids and move them into the gut. by Kaplan Test Prep


Nephrons Humans remove waste from their bloodstream through filtration in the nephron, the functional unit of the kidney. by Kaplan Test Prep


Flame cells Planaria have a primitive excretory system that consists of flame cells, which propel waste through tubules leading to the exterior. by Kaplan Test Prep


Nephridia Two pairs of nephridia in each body segment of earthworms (annelids) excrete water, mineral salts, and urea wastes. by Kaplan Test Prep


Simple diffusion Because protozoans are in contact with their external aqueous environment and they are very small, ammonia and carbon dioxide exit via simple diffusion through the cell membrane. by Kaplan Test Prep


Vegetative propagation Vegetative propagation occurs when undifferentiated meristem cells provide for the development of a new plant from the parent. Plants that practice this form of propagation are able to produce seedless fruit, and daughter organisms are genetically identical to their parents. Examples of vegetative propagation include underground stems with buds (found in potatoes) and runners, which are stems running above or below the ground (found in strawberries and some grasses.) by Kaplan Test Prep


Budding Yeast cells and some hydra reproduce by budding. This involves the unequal division of cytoplasm, making a smaller "daughter" cell that buds from the parent, although equal division of the genetic material is maintained, with each cell receiving one complete copy of the genome. by Kaplan Test Prep


Parthenogenesis Parthenogenesis occurs when an egg develops without fertilization by sperm. Some species can reproduce this way in the absence of sex. These organisms are typically haploid and contain only one copy of each gene. by Kaplan Test Prep


Vegetative propagation Vegetative propagation occurs when undifferentiated meristem cells provide for the development of a new plant from the parent. Plants that practice this form of propagation are able to produce seedless fruit, and daughter organisms are genetically identical to their parents. Examples of vegetative propagation include underground stems with buds (found in potatoes) and runners, which are stems running above or below the ground (found in strawberries and some grasses.) by Kaplan Test Prep


tertiary consumers. Each level in the pyramid of energy loses some energy from the level before it, due to the loss of heat and energy costs of maintenance of the organism at each level. Also, there are fewer organisms and less biomass in each level than in the one before it. Hence the least amount of stored energy would be found at the highest point of the chain: the tertiary consumers. by Kaplan Test Prep


Mutualism The bird helps the rhino by keeping it clean of parasites, eating the insects that infect the rhino, while the rhino provides food for the bird. This +/+ relationship is known as mutualism. by Kaplan Test Prep


Cattle: primary consumer Cattle, being herbivorous, are primary consumers; sharks are secondary consumers or tertiary consumers. Fungi are decomposers and cyanobacteria are producers. Butterflies, meanwhile, are primary consumers. by Kaplan Test Prep


I, II, and III only A s table ecos ys tem is by nature s elf-sustaining (I) . It needs no outs ide input of materials. materials. It c ycles yc les its components, suc h as nitrogen and carbon, between its biotic and abiotic components as both elemental and "fixed" components (II). It also requires an energy source, such as the sun (III). Mutation rates, however, are not affected by an ecosystem's stability or instability (IV). by Kaplan Test Prep


Tundra: treeless frozen plain The tundra is a treeless, frozen plain between the taiga and the northern ice sheets. The taiga (B) is a spruce-filled forest inhabited by moose and bear, while the savanna (C) is a grassland with low rainfall and populated with hoofed herbivores and carnivorous predators. Finally, the desert (D) receives less than 10 inches per year of rainfall and is populated by small plants and animals. by Kaplan Test Prep


I and III only The process of photosynthesis uses energy from sunlight to convert carbon dioxide into carbohydrate. Since carbon dioxide is consumed in the process, the correct answer must contain option III, thereby eliminating choice (A). Starch and sucrose (sugar) are two examples of carbohydrates produced by plants through photosynthesis. Therefore, option IV is incorrect, eliminating choices (D) and (E). During the light reactions of photosynthesis, chlorophyll obtains electrons from water, producing oxygen as a by-product. Therefore, option I is correct and option II is incorrect, eliminating choice (C). by Kaplan Test Prep


The carbon enters the leaves as a gas. Carbon in plants comes from carbon dioxide that is fixed during photosynthesis. Though plants do synthesize starch and sugars by photosynthesis, they do not synthesize the carbon itself, so choice (C) is incorrect. Plants also require nitrogen from the atmosphere, and some plants obtain this nitrogen through the action of symbiotic bacteria, but carbon is not obtained in this manner, eliminating choice (D). Carbon is not taken up by the roots, either in solution or directly from soil particles, ruling out both (A) and (B). by Kaplan Test Prep


5'-CAATTC-3' In the DNA double helix, adenine A pairs opposite thymine T, and guanine G pairs opposite cytosine C. In addition, DNA is composed of two "anti-parallel" strands-that is, the polarity of one strand is opposite that of the other strand. Therefore, the 3' end of the original sequence is paired with the 5' end of the complementary sequence. The 3' G of the original sequence pairs with a 5' C. We then work backwards towards the 5' end of the original sequence to generate the sequence 5'-CAATTC-3'. by Kaplan Test Prep


Chromatin Chromatin is uncondensed chromosomal material, composed of DNA and protein, and is found in the nucleus of the cell. Mitochondria, ribosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, and centrioles are all organelles found in the cytoplasm of the cell. Mitochondria are surrounded by double membranes and are involved in energy production for the cell. Ribosomes synthesize proteins, and the endoplasmic reticulum sorts and transports many of those proteins. Centrioles organize microtubules in the cell and are important for cell division. by Kaplan Test Prep


II, III, and IV only Fermentation is the process of energy production that occurs in the absence of oxygen. In the presence of oxygen, pyruvate produced by glycolysis can enter the citric acid (or Krebs) cycle. However, in the absence of oxygen, this pathway is not used, and fermentation is instead employed to degrade the pyruvate and generate energy. This process can produce ethanol (alcoholic fermentation, as is performed by yeast), lactate (lactic fermentation, as occurs in muscle), and carbon dioxide. by Kaplan Test Prep


Thymine RNA differs from DNA in several fundamental ways. First, the sugar backbone of RNA contains ribose instead of deoxyribose. RNA is also single-stranded, whereas DNA is double-stranded. Lastly, the nitrogenous base thymine, present in DNA where it pairs with adenine, is replaced in RNA with the base uracil. by Kaplan Test Prep


DNA methyltransferase DNA replication takes place at Y-shaped structures in the DNA molecule, and involves the cooperation of many proteins. On the leading strand of DNA, replication can take place in a continuous 5'-to-3' direction. On the opposite strand, the lagging strand, replication still proceeds from 5' to 3', but generates small fragments as the DNA is unwound. DNA polymerase is the enzyme that adds new bases to the replicating DNA. DNA ligase is necessary to link together the small DNA fragments ("Okazaki fragments") on the lagging strand. DNA topoisomerase relieves tension in the DNA that is generated during unwinding. DNA primase produces small fragments of DNA that serve as starting points for the action of DNA polymerase. DNA methyltransferase, on the other hand, adds methyl groups to DNA and is important for X-inactivation or protection of DNA from restriction enzymes, but not for replication. by Kaplan Test Prep


2 N The gap phase occ urs between DNA sy nthesis and M phase. Therefore, for a cell stopped in , the DNA has already been replicated, but nuclear division and cell division has not taken place. The DNA content in such a cell will be twice the normal amount of a haploid cell ( N )-in this case, 2 N . by Kaplan Test Prep


Secretion of enzyme X will decrease. Transport from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus is required for secretion of proteins from cells. When transport is disrupted by Brefeldin A, the cell will be unable to secrete enzyme X. In addition, transport is necessary to direct proteins to the plasma membrane, so enzyme X would not accumulate in that location. Finally, sorting of proteins to the nucleus or nuclear membranes does not require either the endoplasmic reticulum or the Golgi apparatus, so it would be unaffected. Because enzyme X does not typically accumulate in the nuclear membrane and localization to this membrane would be unaffected, enzyme X would not appear in the nuclear membrane following treatment. by Kaplan Test Prep


, Nerve impulses impulses , also known as action potentials, potentials, are propagated by the opening of voltage-gated channels. Because the conc entration of ions outside the cell is much higher than inside the cell, the opening of these channels allows allows ions to flow into the cell. This flow of ions changes the voltage potential between the exterior and interior of the cell-thereby, the nerve impulse impulse is generated. The voltage potential potential is restored to its original value by the opening of channels. conc entration is higher higher inside the cell than outside the cell, so when these channels are opened, opened, ions flow flow out of the cell, counterac ting the electrical change caused by the influx of ions. by Kaplan Test Prep

SAT Subject Test: Biology E/M: Practice Test 1

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