Exam Name___________________________________
1) Which of following of following is a function of the of the skeletal system? A) protection of internal of internal organs B) body support C) blood cell production D) calcium homeostasis E) all of the of the above 2) Which of the of the following bones following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape? A) vertebra B) patella C) ulna
D) frontal
E) metatarsal
3) The carpal bones carpal bones are examples of ________ of ________ bones. bones. A) long B) sesamoid C) flat
D) short
E) irregular
4) A rib is an example of a of a ________ bone. ________ bone. A) short B) flat
D) sesamoid
E) sutural
C) long
5) The region of a of a long bone long bone between between the end and the shaft is known as the ________. A) medullary cavity B) epiphysis C) osseophysis D) diaphysis E) metaphysis 6) Which of the of the following labels best labels best matches osteocyte? A) secretes organic matrix C) dissolves matrix
B) stem cell D) mature bone mature bone cell
7) Cells that secrete the organic components of the of the bone bone matrix are called A) osteoclasts. B) osteocytes. C) osteoprogenitor cells. D) chondrocytes. E) osteoblasts. 8) ________ are squamous cells that develop into osteoblasts. A) Osteoclasts B) Squamous osteons C) Osteomedullary cells D) Osteocytes E) Osteoprogenitor cells
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9) Through the action of osteoclasts, of osteoclasts, A) an organic framework is framework is formed. B) bony matrix is dissolved. C) osteoid is calcified. D) fractured bones fractured bones regenerate. E) new bone new bone is formed. 10) Which of the of the following chemicals is not present in bone? in bone? A) calcium phosphate. B) hydroxyapatite. C) collagen fibers. D) chondroitin sulfate. E) calcium carbonate. 11) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes of osteocytes are called A) canaliculi. B) medullary cavities. C) foramina. D) lacunae. E) central canals. 12) The central canal of an of an osteon contains A) osteocytes. B) lacunae. C) blood vessels. D) bone marrow. E) concentric lamellae. 13) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone bone tissue found in spongy bone spongy bone are called A) interstitial lamellae. B) concentric lamellae. C) trabeculae. D) osteons. E) lacunae. 14) The type of bone bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. ________ bone. A) lamellar B) spongy C) trabecular D) compact E) irregular
bones contains 15) The medullary cavity of bones A) cartilage. B) compact bone. compact bone. C) osteons. D) periosteum. E) marrow.
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9) Through the action of osteoclasts, of osteoclasts, A) an organic framework is framework is formed. B) bony matrix is dissolved. C) osteoid is calcified. D) fractured bones fractured bones regenerate. E) new bone new bone is formed. 10) Which of the of the following chemicals is not present in bone? in bone? A) calcium phosphate. B) hydroxyapatite. C) collagen fibers. D) chondroitin sulfate. E) calcium carbonate. 11) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes of osteocytes are called A) canaliculi. B) medullary cavities. C) foramina. D) lacunae. E) central canals. 12) The central canal of an of an osteon contains A) osteocytes. B) lacunae. C) blood vessels. D) bone marrow. E) concentric lamellae. 13) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone bone tissue found in spongy bone spongy bone are called A) interstitial lamellae. B) concentric lamellae. C) trabeculae. D) osteons. E) lacunae. 14) The type of bone bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is ________ bone. ________ bone. A) lamellar B) spongy C) trabecular D) compact E) irregular
bones contains 15) The medullary cavity of bones A) cartilage. B) compact bone. compact bone. C) osteons. D) periosteum. E) marrow.
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16) The shaft of a of a long bone long bone is called the A) diaphysis. B) epiphysis. C) metaphysis. D) epiphyseal plate. E) lamella. 17) The lining of the of the medullary cavity is called the A) periosteum. B) perimysium. C) endosteum. D) perichondrium. E) epimysium. 18) What structure allows a bone to grow in length? A) periosteal bud periosteal bud B) metaphysis C) epiphyseal plate D) lacunae E) trabeculae 19) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous of intramembranous ossification.
1. 2. 3. 4.
Clusters of osteoblasts of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes that becomes mineralized. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue. Spicules of bone bone radiate out from the ossification centers. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.
The correct order for these events is A) 4, 2, 1, 3. B) 4, 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 1, 4.
20) Which of the of the following is formed by formed by intramembranous ossification? A) roof of roof of the the skull B) carpal bones carpal bones C) femur D) clavicle E) both A and D 21) Endochondral ossification begins ossification begins with the formation of a(n) of a(n) A) cartilage model. B) osteoblasts model. C) calcified model. D) membranous model. E) fibrous connective-tissue model.
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D) 2, 1, 3, 4.
22) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification.
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Enlarged chondrocytes die. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone.
The correct order for these events is A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2. B) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2.
C) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2.
D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4.
23) Secondary ossification centers occur A) in the metaphyses. B) in the diaphysis. C) at the periosteum. D) in the epiphyses. E) in dermal bones. 24) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates A) are hardly affected. B) become narrower. C) increase slowly. D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness. E) get wider. 25) The most abundant mineral in the human body is A) hydrogen. B) phosphorus. C) calcium. D) potassium. E) sodium. 26) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone A) parathyroid hormone. B) testosterone. C) thyroid hormone. D) calcitonin. E) growth hormone. 27) Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following, except that it A) produces a severe osteoporosis. B) is released by some cancer tumors. C) is released in large amounts early in life. D) increases the number of osteoclasts. E) increases the activity of osteoclasts.
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E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2.
28) The hormone calcitonin functions to A) stimulate osteoclast activity. B) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood. C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption. D) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts. E) decrease the rate of calcium excretion. 29) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways, except that it A) increases the rate of calcium absorption. B) decreases the rate of calcium excretion. C) inhibits calcitonin secretion. D) raises the level of calcium ion in the blood. E) stimulates osteoclast activity. 30) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in A) rickets. B) giantism. C) osteopenia. D) osteoporosis. E) dwarfism. 31) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following, except A) vitamin E. B) vitamin D. C) vitamin A. D) vitamin C. E) the hormone thyroxine. 32) Vitamin D is necessary for A) absorption calcium and phosphate ions. B) reducing osteoblast activity. C) the organic matrix of bone. D) increasing osteoclast activity. E) collagen formation. 33) A lack of exercise could A) cause bones to become thicker. B) cause bones to become longer. C) result in porous and weak bones. D) cause bones to store more calcium. E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity. 34) When stress is applied to a bone, A) osteoclast activity increases. B) it usually breaks. C) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress. D) the bone becomes thin and brittle. E) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts.
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35) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes is called A) osteopenia. B) osteomyelitis. C) osteomalacia. D) osteoporosis. E) osteitis. 36) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the A) condyle B) epiphyseal plate C) fracture facet D) external callus E) dense tuberosity 37) ________ fractures are completely internal; they do not break through the skin. A) Recurrent B) Closed C) Open D) Compound E) both B and D 38) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture. A) compression B) Colles C) greenstick D) Pott E) displaced 39) Bones that develop within tendons are called ________ bones. A) sesamoid B) tendon C) Wormian
D) sutural
E) irregular
40) Small, oddly shaped bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones. A) sagittal B) irregular C) tendon D) sesamoid E) sutural 41) The large proximal projection on the femur is termed the A) trochanter. B) tubercle. C) ramus.
D) condyle.
E) tuberosity.
42) A hole through a bone is termed a A) ramus. B) facet.
D) tubercle.
E) foramen.
43) The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a A) ridge. B) head. C) condyle.
D) crest.
E) trochlea.
44) A deep hollow on a bone is termed a A) line. B) facet.
D) fissure.
E) fossa.
C) linea.
C) sulcus.
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45) The space occupied by occupied by an osteocyte is called a A) lacuna. B) Volkmann's canal. C) trabecula. D) Venetian canal. E) Haversian canal. 46) The structural units of mature of mature compact bone compact bone are called A) osteons. B) lamellae. C) osteocytes.
D) lacunae.
E) canaliculi.
47) The deposition of calcium of calcium salts in bone in bone tissues is referred to as A) osteogenesis. B) remodeling. C) hardening. D) calcification. E) ossification. 48) A child with rickets often has A) frequent bruises. frequent bruises. B) bowed legs. C) inadequate muscle development. D) long fingers. E) oversized facial bones. facial bones. 49) ________ bones ________ bones develop inside tendons, commonly near the knees, hands, and feet. A) Irregular B) Flat C) Long D) Sesamoid
E) Short
50) The humerus is an example of a(n) of a(n) ________ bone. ________ bone. A) long B) short C) irregular
E) flat
D) sesamoid
51) The articular cartilage of a of a typical long bone long bone is composed of what of what type of cartilage? of cartilage? A) synovial cartilage B) hyaline cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) osseous cartilage E) elastic cartilage 52) Fat is stored within the A) medullary cavity. B) diaphysis. C) epiphysis. D) metaphysis. E) spongy bone. spongy bone.
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53) Which of the of the following is a characteristic of bone? bone? A) The matrix of the of the bone bone is very dense and contains deposits of calcium of calcium salts. B) The matrix of the of the bone bone contains osteoclasts. C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for an exchange of nutrients. of nutrients. D) all of the of the above E) both A and C 54) ________ accounts for almost two-thirds of the of the weight of bone. bone. A) Calcium phosphate B) Calcium carbonate C) Fluoride D) Water E) Collagen fibers 55) The ________ interactions allow bone allow bone to be to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant to shattering. A) protein-protein B) collagen-fiber C) hydroxyapatite-crystal D) protein-crystal E) mineral-crystal
in bone is 56) The most abundant cell type in bone A) osteolytes. B) osteoclasts. C) osteocytes. D) osteoblasts. E) osteoprogenitor cells. 57) ________ cells are located in the inner cellular layer of the of the periosteum. A) Osteoprogenitor B) Osteocyte C) Osteoblast D) Osteoclast E) Osteoid 58) In relationship to the diaphysis of a of a long bone, long bone, the osteons are A) proximal. B) anterior. C) diagonal.
D) radial.
E) parallel.
the body weight without breaking. without breaking. 59) The femur can withstand ________ times the body A) 8 B) 30 C) 5 to 10 D) 3
E) 10 to 15
60) ________ marrow is found between found between the trabeculae of spongy of spongy bone. bone. A) Yellow B) Gray C) Red
E) White
D) Blue
________ bone reduces the weight of the of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles. 61) ________ bone A) Short B) Irregular C) Compact D) Long
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E) Spongy
62) Intramembranous ossification begins ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells. A) mesenchymal B) osteocyte C) osteoprogenitor D) osteoblast E) osteoclast 63) Which of the of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false? A) results from a mutation B) results in short, stubby fingers C) affects connective tissue genes D) affects epiphyseal cartilages E) none of the of the above 64) Where in the body the body does the production of calcitriol of calcitriol start? A) liver B) skin C) kidneys D) bone E) small intestine 65) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood blood levels of A) potassium. B) sulfate. C) iron.
D) sodium.
E) calcium.
66) Bone is composed of ________ of ________ percent cells. A) 25 B) 15
D) 50
E) 2
C) 10
67) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks and breaks her tibia and fibula in a Pott fracture. What
would you expect as a prominent part of her of her clinical assessment several hours after the fall? A) erythema B) hematoma C) cyanosis D) hypertension E) tachycardia 68) The lacunae of osseous of osseous tissue contain A) capillaries. B) blood cells. C) chondroblasts. D) bone marrow. E) osteocytes. 69) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a of a bone? A) The bone The bone would be would be stronger. B) The bone The bone would be would be less flexible. C) The bone The bone would be would be more brittle. more brittle. D) The bone The bone would be would be more flexible. E) The bone The bone would be would be less compressible.
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70) In compact bone, the osteons A) are lacking in the diaphysis. B) are lined up perpendicular to the long axis. C) are arranged in an irregular pattern. D) are separated by medullary spaces. E) are lined up in the same direction. 71) The trabeculae of spongy bone A) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis. B) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone. C) will collapse under stress. D) are composed mostly of cartilage. E) are organized along stress lines. 72) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts, bones will become A) osteopenic. B) thicker. C) denser. D) calcified. E) stronger. 73) During appositional growth A) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis. B) bones grow longer. C) bones grow wider. D) bone is replaced by cartilage. E) osteoblasts are overwhelmed by osteocytes. 74) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone, A) long bones have reached their adult length. B) interstitial bone growth begins. C) puberty begins. D) appositional bone growth begins. E) the bone becomes more brittle. 75) When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone is deposited on
the opposite side, bones A) become thicker. B) grow longer. C) become more porous and weaker. D) grow wider. E) become shorter. 76) Accelerated closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by A) an excess of growth hormone. B) high levels of vitamin D. C) elevated levels of estrogen. D) too much calcium in the diet. E) too little thyroxine.
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77) In normal adult bones, A) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed. B) there is no turnover of minerals. C) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases. D) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling. E) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year. 78) Which is greater? A) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is absent
B) osteoclast activity when calcitonin is present
79) Which is greater? A) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is decreased B) blood calcium levels when parathyroid hormone is increased 80) The condition known as osteopenia A) only affects the femur. B) causes a gradual reduction in bone mass. C) affects mostly women. D) is rarely seen as people age. E) is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet. 81) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system? A) bones B) other tissues that connect bones C) ligaments D) cartilage E) tendons 82) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to
occur as a result of this condition? A) bone fragility B) decreased bone density C) increases in blood levels of calcium D) all of the above E) A and B only 83) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of
osteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she prescribe for her patient? A) calcitonin B) estrogen C) thyroid hormone D) parathyroid hormone E) growth hormone
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84) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the beginnings of
osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she recommend for her patient? A) Vitamin C B) calcium supplements C) Vitamin D D) all of the above E) A and C only
Figure 6 1 Bone Tissue
se Figure 6 1 to answer the following question(s): 85) Which structure is termed an osteon? A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
86) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
87) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process? A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons B) osteoporosis C) surface growth of bone D) remodeling of compact bone E) remodeling of spongy bone
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88) Identify the structures labeled "4." A) interstitial lamellae B) periosteum C) trabeculae D) circumferential lamellae E) concentric lamellae 89) Where would osteoclasts be most active? A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
D) 4
E) 5
Figure 6 2 Endochondral Ossification
se Figure 6 2 to answer the following question(s): 90) Where does growth in length occur? A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
91) What type of tissue occurs at #1? A) hyaline cartilage B) fibrocartilage C) elastic tissue D) marrow tissue E) bone
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92) What process is shown at #6? A) secondary ossification B) width growth C) length growth D) primary ossification E) fracture repair 93) Identify the structure at #4. A) hyaline cartilage B) periosteum C) spongy bone D) mesenchyme E) intramembranous bone 94) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) marrow cavity B) epiphysis C) metaphysis D) trabeculae E) diaphysis 95) Which of the following is not part of the axial division of the skeletal system? A) pectoral girdle B) hyoid bone C) auditory ossicles D) skull E) vertebral column 96) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in respiration D) all of the above E) B and C only 97) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone. A) parietal B) temporal C) occipital
D) frontal
E) sphenoid
98) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the ________ suture. A) sagittal B) lambdoidal C) rostral D) squamosal E) coronal
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99) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones. A) frontal, temporal, and occipital B) frontal, parietal, and occipital C) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital D) frontal, temporal, and parietal E) temporal, parietal, and occipital 100) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex, except the ________ bone. A) nasal B) frontal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) lacrimal 101) The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones? A) frontal and temporal B) sphenoid and temporal C) temporal and maxilla D) temporal and zygomatic E) zygomatic and maxilla 102) The external acoustic meatus is a foramen in which skull bone? A) vomer B) auditory ossicles C) temporal D) zygomatic E) parietal 103) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the A) mastoid process. B) styloid process. C) temporal process. D) condyloid process. E) occipital condyle. 104) Which of these is not one of bones of the face? A) vomer B) mandible
C) maxilla
D) zygomatic
105) Each of the following landmarks is associated with the occipital bone except the A) occipital crest. B) ugular foramen. C) superficial nuchal lines. D) hypoglossal canals. E) petrous process. 106) The superior and inferior temporal lines mark the points of attachment for A) muscles that open and close the eye. B) muscles that stabilize the skull at the vertebral column. C) muscles that close the mouth. D) muscles that turn the head. E) both A and D
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E) frontal
107) What organ is located in the lacrimal fossa? A) the inner ear B) the pituitary gland C) tear gland D) the frontal sinus E) the lacrimal ramus 108) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the A) articular tubercle. B) styloid process. C) medial concha. D) mastoid process. E) posterior clinoid process. 109) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the A) mastoid process. B) articular tubercle. C) middle concha. D) styloid process. E) posterior clinoid process. 110) The facial nerve (N. VII) passes through internal acoustic meatus and then through the A) stylomastoid foramen. B) ugular foramen. C) carotid foramen. D) mastoid foramen. E) foramen lacerum. 111) The suture that forms the articulation of the two parietal bones is the ________ suture. A) coronal B) sagittal C) squamosal D) rostral E) lambdoidal 112) The lower jaw articulates with the temporal bone at the A) mastoid process. B) superior clinoid process. C) cribriform plate. D) lateral palatine process. E) mandibular fossa. 113) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone, except the A) mandibular fossa. B) mastoid cells. C) sella turcica. D) internal acoustic meatus. E) petrous portion.
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114) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland. A) sellar B) olfactory C) nasal D) pituitary
E) lacrimal
115) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone, except the A) foramen ovale. B) sella turcica. C) optic canals. D) cribriform plate. E) pterygoid processes. 116) A membrane that stabilizes the position of the brain is attached to the A) cribriform plate. B) crista galli. C) pterygoid processes. D) styloid process. E) perpendicular plate. 117) The bony roof of the mouth is formed by the ________ bone(s). A) palatine B) sphenoid C) maxillary D) vomer E) both A and C 118) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the A) maxillary foramina. B) ramus of the mandible. C) mandibular foramina. D) condylar process. E) mental foramina. 119) A nerve that carries sensory information from the teeth and gums of the lower jaw passes through the A) condylar process. B) mental foramen. C) mandibular foramen. D) ramus of the mandible. E) maxillary foramen. 120) The hyoid bone A) attaches to tongue muscles. B) is superior to the larynx. C) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament. D) all of the above E) A and C only 121) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the A) cribriform B) sphenoid C) crista galli D) ethmoid
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E) maxilla
122) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones, except the A) zygomatic. B) maxillary. C) sphenoid.
D) frontal.
E) ethmoid.
123) The nasal conchae A) attach muscles that move the eye. B) contain the nerves for olfaction. C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways. D) attach muscles that move the eyelids. E) protect the pituitary gland. 124) The paranasal sinuses are located in all of the following bones, except the A) ethmoid. B) sphenoid. C) maxillae. D) zygomatic.
E) frontal.
125) Which of the following statements about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is false? A) They support cilia that move the mucus. B) They make skull bones lighter. C) The mucus they secrete enters the nasal cavities. D) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium. E) None of the aboveall are true. 126) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true, except that A) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5. B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue. C) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements. D) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain. E) the bones of the skull develop from a single ossification focus. 127) The anterior fontanel is located A) posterior to the frontal bone. B) anterior to the parietal bones. C) inferior to frontal bone. D) both A and B E) both B and C 128) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the
secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later? A) thoracic and lumbar B) cervical and sacral C) cervical and lumbar D) thoracic and sacral E) sacral and lumbar 129) An exaggerated lateral curvature is termed A) mentosis. B) kyphosis. C) lordosis. D) scoliosis. E) gomphosis.
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130) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception. A) cervical B) pelvic C) thoracic D) sacral
E) axial
131) The odontoid process is found on the A) coccyx. B) atlas.
D) axis.
E) sacrum.
D) 12
E) 31
C) ribs.
132) The vertebra prominens is another name for the ________ vertebra. A) first cervical B) second cervical C) seventh cervical D) first thoracic E) fifth lumbar 133) The ribs articulate with the A) thoracic vertebrae. B) lumbar vertebrae. C) cervical vertebrae. D) all of the above E) A and B only 134) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae. A) 7 B) 4 C) 5
135) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of A) costal cartilages. B) transverse foramina. C) transverse processes. D) notched spinous processes. E) facets for the articulation of ribs. 136) The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae. A) 31 B) 5 C) 4 137) Which of the following are distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae? A) long spinous processes B) heart-shaped bodies C) rib articulations D) all of the above E) A and C only 138) Which of these types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct? A) coccygeal 3 to 5 B) sacral 1 C) thoracic12 D) cervical7 E) lumbral5
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D) 7
E) 12
139) All of the following are true of the sacrum, except that it A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs. B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles. C) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae. D) articulates with the coccyx. E) articulates with the pelvic bones. 140) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae. A) laminae B) auric arches C) spinous processes D) transverse processes E) pedicles 141) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs. A) 12 B) 6 C) 2
D) 10
E) 24
D) 50
E) 80
142) The costal groove A) is located on the exterior surface. B) is located on the interior surface. C) marks the path of blood vessels. D) both A and C E) both B and C 143) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the A) body. B) angle. C) xiphoid process. D) tuberculum. E) manubrium. 144) The true ribs are A) ribs 1-7. B) also called vertebrosternal ribs. C) ribs 8-12. D) both A and B E) both B and C 145) How many bones make up the axial skeleton? A) 70 B) 60
C) 90
146) The skull contains ________ bones. A) 12 B) 32 C) 42 D) 22 E) none of the above
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147) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? A) atlas B) axis C) vertebra prominens D) both A and B E) both A and C 148) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s) A) making the skull lighter. B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air. C) release of stress hormones. D) extra source of air. E) both A and B 149) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull, except between A) the mandible and the cranium. B) the occipital bone and the parietal bone. C) the vomer and the zygomatic bone. D) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone. E) None of the abovethey are all sutures. 150) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the A) laminae. B) transverse spinous processes. C) dorsal spinous processes. D) both A and B E) both A and C 151) You witness one of your friends in a fight. Your friend Gregg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his
face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken A) zygomatic bone. B) temporal bone. C) clavicle. D) mandible. E) external auditory meatus. 152) While visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to
yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is A) sphenoidal fontanel. B) mastoid fontanel. C) cushion spot. D) anterior fontanel. E) occipital fontanel.
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153) While volunteering in an outpatient clinic for underprivileged families in your neighborhood, you observe
the nurse assessing an infant. The mother had complained about the baby not eating and having several episodes of diarrhea lasting 3 days. You know the nurse suspects possible dehydration when she A) checks the infant's reflexes. B) points out the dryness of the infant's diaper. C) checks the anterior fontanel for depression. D) questions the mother about normal feeding habits. E) none of the above 154) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age of A) 2. B) 1. C) 4.
D) 5.
E) 3.
155) The term for undersized head is A) encephalopathy. B) macrocephaly. C) encephalitis. D) microcephaly. E) none of the above 156) ________ curves of the spine develop late in fetal development. A) Primary B) Compensation C) Secondary D) Accommodation E) all of the above 157) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the A) articular processes. B) vertebral arch. C) intervertebral space. D) vertebral body. E) none of the above 158) Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae. A) 7 B) 19 C) 11 D) 6 159) As you move caudally along the spinal column, A) the vertebral foramina become relatively smaller. B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger. C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer. D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 160) All of the following are true of lumbar vertebrae, except that A) the transverse process is slender and projects dorsolaterally. B) the superior articular processes face medially. C) the vertebral foramen is triangular. D) they lack costal facets. E) the vertebral bodies are delicate.
22
E) 10
161) The sternum contains A) the manubrium. B) the xiphoid process. C) the jugular notch. D) the body. E) all of the above 162) Ossification of the sternum is not complete until at least age A) 25. B) 10. C) 6.
D) 50.
E) 16.
163) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are careful to
position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the A) ribs. B) scapula. C) xiphoid process. D) sacrum. E) both A and C 164) The sacrum protects these organs: A) reproductive B) urinary C) digestive D) all of the above E) A and C only 165) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the A) vomer and sphenoid bone. B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bones. C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone. D) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bones. E) nasal bones. 166) Of the following bones, which is unpaired? A) palatine B) nasal C) vomer D) maxillary E) none of these 167) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the A) ulna. B) occipital bone. C) temporal bone. D) sphenoid. E) parietal bone.
23
168) The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are A) fibrocartilaginous discs. B) fontanels. C) sutures. D) foramina. E) Wormian bones. 169) The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments. A) styloid B) sternocleidomastoid C) sutural D) stylohyoid E) hyoid 170) The function of the hyoid bone is to A) anchor the tongue muscles. B) support the larynx. C) protect the trachea. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C 171) Identify the structure the occipital bone surrounds. A) magnum maximus B) maximus minimus C) foramen magnus D) foramina maximus E) foramen magnum 172) Fibrous connective tissue called ________ accommodates brain growth in infants. A) vertebrae B) sutures C) foramina D) fontanels 173) Vertebrae of the A) lumbar region are fused. B) coccygeal region are fused. C) sacral region are fused. D) both A and C E) both B and C 174) Lumbar vertebrae are ________ massive and ________ mobile. A) most; most B) least; most C) not; excessively D) least; least E) most; least
24
E) frontals
175) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum. A) crooked B) obstructive C) restrictive D) deviant E) deviated 176) The smallest facial bones are the A) lacerum bones. B) zygomatic bones. C) ethmoid bones. D) lacrimal bones. E) nasal bones. 177) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines. B) cranial and caudal nuchal lines. C) medial and lateral nuchal lines. D) inferior and superior nuchal lines. E) anterior and superior nuchal lines. 178) The ________ passes through the ________. A) acoustic nerve; external acoustic meatus B) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen C) trigeminal nerve; foramen ovale D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen E) vagus nerve; foramen magnum 179) The primary spinal curves A) develop several months after birth. B) are also called compensation curves. C) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera. D) all of the above E) B and C only 180) Which of these spinal deformities is correctly matched? A) scoliosislateral deviation of the spine B) lordosis"swayback" C) kyphosis"hump- backed" D) rickets bow-legged E) All are correctly matched. 181) The ligamentum nuchae A) attaches the ribs to the thoracic vertebrae. B) stabilizes the lumbar vertebrae. C) helps to hold the head in an upright position. D) attaches the atlas to the occipital bone of the skull. E) attaches the sternum to the ribs.
25
182) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. A) sacral B) coccygeal C) thoracic
D) lumbar
183) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense of A) balance. B) hearing. C) smell. D) A, B, and C E) A and B only 184) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium? A) clavicle B) sternum C) scapula D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2 E) all the vertebrae 185) If there were no paranasal sinuses, all of the following would be true, except A) less mucus in the nasal cavity. B) the skull would be heavier. C) stronger neck muscles would be required. D) reduced ability to trap dust and particles. E) the ability to sneeze would be impaired. 186) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in A) death. B) a long and narrow head. C) an unusually small head. D) a very broad head. E) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other. 187) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true? A) fusion is delayed until mid-20s B) anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening C) is more flexible in women D) is the most caudal vertebral region E) all of the above 188) As you proceed from the head down the vertebral column A) the transverse foramina become larger. B) the size of the vertebral foramen decreases. C) the vertebrae become larger and heavier. D) all of the above E) A and B only
26
E) cervical
189) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal squama by a wild pitch. Which of the following
complaints would you expect her to have? A) a sore back B) a broken jaw C) a sore chest D) a headache E) a black eye 190) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? A) temporal bone B) parietal bone C) mandible D) sphenoid bone E) ethmoid bone 191) The alveolar process of the mandible A) supports the lower teeth. B) supports the upper teeth. C) anchors the tongue. D) all of the above E) A and B only 192) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the A) stylohyoid ligaments. B) alveolar process of the mandible. C) hyoid bone. D) condylar process of the mandible. E) greater cornu of the hyoid bone.
27
Figure 7 1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity
se Figure 7 1 to answer the following questions: 193) Which bone has foramina for the olfactory nerves? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
194) Identify the sphenoid bone. A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
195) Identify the internal occipital crest. A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
196) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland? A) 4 B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
197) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"? A) sella turcica B) foramen rotundum C) foramen ovale D) carotid canal E) foramen spinosum
28
Figure 7 2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view)
se Figure 7 2 to answer the following questions: 198) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) lamina B) transverse process C) spinous process D) vertebral body E) pedicle 199) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
D) 6
E) 7
200) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) spinous process B) transverse process C) transverse articular facet D) pedicle E) lamina 201) Where is the spinal cord located? A) 3 B) 4
C) 5
202) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) superior articular process B) transverse process C) lamina D) pedicle E) inferior articular process 203) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton? A) metacarpals B) scapula C) tibia D) sacrum E) coxal bones
29
204) Which of the following is not a component of the appendicular skeleton? A) humerus B) metatarsals C) femur D) scapula E) None of the aboveall are appendicular bones. 205) Which of these adapts the pectoral girdle to a wide range of movement? A) tough ligaments and tendons B) relatively weak joints C) heavy bones D) all of the above E) A and C only 206) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch? A) proximal end of scapula B) distal end of clavicle C) proximal end of clavicle D) distal end of scapula E) both A and B 207) Which of these is most commonly fractured in a fall? A) radius B) clavicle C) glenoid cavity D) scapula E) navicular 208) The clavicle articulates with the scapula A) distally with the acromion. B) distally with the coracoid process. C) proximally with the coracoid cavity. D) distally with the manubrium. E) distally with the glenoid cavity. 209) The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the A) acromion. B) scapular spine. C) glenoid tuberosity. D) subscapular fossa. E) coracoid process. 210) Which of these features is located near the proximal end of the humerus? A) olecranon fossa B) greater tubercle C) capitulum D) lateral epicondyle E) medial epicondyle
30
211) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) coronoid fossa. B) intertubercular groove. C) radial fossa. D) olecranon fossa. E) radial groove. 212) Which of these is a forearm bone? A) fibula B) tibia
C) radius
D) humerus
213) Which of these surface features does the ulna possess? A) styloid process B) trochlear notch C) olecranon D) all of the above E) A and C only 214) The surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the A) lateral epicondyle. B) medial epicondyle. C) radial groove. D) coronoid process. E) deltoid tuberosity. 215) The radius articulates with the A) humerus. B) carpals. C) ulna. D) all of the above E) A and C only 216) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint. A) styloid process B) olecranon process C) radial tuberosity D) capitulum E) coronoid process 217) The bones that form the palm are the A) metatarsals. B) metacarpals. C) tarsals. D) phalanges. E) carpals.
31
E) femur
218) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the A) phalanges. B) metacarpals. C) metatarsals. D) carpals. E) tarsals. 219) The bones that form the fingers are the A) metatarsals. B) carpals. C) metacarpals. D) phalanges. E) tarsals. 220) The carpus contains ________ bones. A) 8 B) 4
C) 5
221) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? A) ulna B) humerus C) metatarsals
D) 6
E) 7
D) carpals
E) radius
D) humerus
E) femur
222) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis? A) coxal bone B) sacrum C) lumbar vertebrae D) coccyx E) both B and D 223) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum? A) sacrum B) fibula C) tibia
224) Each one of the coxal bones is formed by the fusion of ________ bones. A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2
E) 6
225) The largest component coxal bone is the A) pubis. B) tibia.
E) ilium.
C) femur.
D) ischium.
226) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A) acetabulum. B) iliac crest. C) anterior iliac spine. D) posterior superior iliac spine. E) iliac notch. 227) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the A) pubis. B) ischium.
C) patella.
32
D) ilium.
E) femur.
228) The sacrum articulates with the A) ilium. B) ischium and pubis. C) ilium and ischium. D) ischium. E) pubis. 229) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the A) inferior rami of the pubis. B) posterior inferior iliac spines. C) iliac crests. D) obturator foramina. E) ischial tuberosities. 230) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the A) pubic symphysis. B) acetabulum. C) greater sciatic notch. D) obturator foramen. E) lesser sciatic notch. 231) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus. B) fibula. C) femur. D) tibia. E) coxal bone. 232) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the A) fibula. B) calcaneus. C) patella. D) coxal bone. E) talus. 233) Powerful hip muscles attach posteriorly to the femur along the A) medial epicondyle. B) linea aspera. C) intercondylar fossa. D) lesser trochanter. E) greater trochanter. 234) The medial bulge at your ankle is a projection from the A) fibula. B) tibia. C) talus.
D) femur.
E) calcaneus.
235) The lateral malleolus is found on the A) calcaneus. B) tibia.
D) patella.
E) femur.
C) fibula.
33
236) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the ________ by the interosseous membrane. A) navicular B) femur C) patella D) tibia E) both A and B 237) The tarsus contains ________ bones. A) 7 B) 6
C) 8
D) 5
E) 4
238) Which of the following is the heel bone? A) calcaneus B) navicular
C) cuboid
D) patella
E) talus
239) The weight of the body is supported by the A) proximal metatarsals. B) distal metacarpals. C) distal metarsals. D) calcaneus. E) both C and D 240) Another name for the first toe is A) hallux. B) lateral cuneiform. C) hyoid. D) phalanx. E) pollex. 241) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis? A) ilia extend far above sacrum B) heavy, rough textured bone C) relatively deep iliac fossa D) heart-shaped pelvic inlet E) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees 242) Which of the following is a not characteristic of the female pelvis? A) sacrum broad and short B) coccyx points anteriorly C) bone markings not very prominent D) ischial spine points posteriorly E) triangular obturator foramen 243) Study of human skeletons can reveal information concerning the person's A) size and handedness. B) age and nutritional status. C) sex. D) all of the above E) A and B only
34
244) Compared to the male skeleton, the female skeleton A) is larger. B) is heavier. C) has a greater angle inferior to the pubic symphysis. D) has a smaller average cranium. E) both C and D 245) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the A) sacrum. B) skull. C) teeth. D) pelvis. E) thoracic cage. 246) Which of the following is not a developmentally controlled process? A) closure of the fontanels B) appearance of major vertebral curves C) fusion of the coxal bones D) bone remodeling E) reduction in mineral content 247) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the A) coxal bones articulate with the femur. B) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. C) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. D) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum. E) clavicle articulates with the humerus. 248) Each coxal bone consists of the following three fused bones: A) ulna, radius, and humerus. B) ilium, ischium, and pubis. C) femur, patella, and tibia. D) hamate, capitate, and trapezium. E) femur, tibia, and fibula. 249) The largest bone of the lower limb is the A) fibula. B) tibia.
C) humerus.
D) femur.
E) calcaneus.
D) scapula
E) clavicle
250) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the A) iliac fossa. B) obturator foramen. C) ishial fossa. D) pubic symphysis. E) ishial spine. 251) The three sides of this bone form a broad triangle. A) radius B) vertebra C) sternum
35
252) Which of these constitutes the pectoral girdle? A) clavicle, scapula, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones B) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus C) clavicles and scapulae D) clavicles only E) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna 253) The glenohumeral joint, or shoulder joint, is an articulation between which two bones? A) clavicle and scapula B) scapula and humerus C) humerus and ulna D) clavicle and humerus E) none of the above 254) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius. A) superior B) distal C) medial D) proximal E) none of these 255) Lateral to the coronoid process, the radial ________ accommodates the head of the radius in the radio-ulnar
oint. A) notch
B) muscle
C) groove
D) tendon
E) ligament
256) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones in the wrist. A) 8; 2 B) 6; 2 C) 4; 2 D) 10; 3 E) 2; 8 257) Each hand has ________ phalangeal bones. A) 14 B) 10
C) 20
D) 18
258) Which of these bones was not formed by the fusion of several bones? A) coxal bones B) sacrum C) coccyx D) femur E) none of the above 259) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? A) gluteal lines B) iliac spines C) greater sciatic notch D) both A and C E) none of the above
36
E) 15
260) Which of these is not one of the boundaries of the pelvic outlet? A) coccyx B) inferior border of the pubic symphysis C) iliac crest D) ischial tuberosities E) both A and B 261) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. A) wider B) smaller C) larger D) deeper
E) longer
262) The longest bone is the A) sternum. B) coxal bone. C) humerus. D) femur. E) both C and D 263) The Achilles tendon attaches to which anatomical structure? A) lesser trochanter B) cuboid bone C) calcaneus D) talus E) both B and C 264) The hand has 15 phalangeal bones; the foot has 14 phalangeal bones. A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false. B) The first statement is true and the second statement is true. C) The first statement is false but the second statement is true. D) The first statement is false and the second statement is false. E) Too much anatomical variability to be sure. 265) Which of the following is not a lower limb bone? A) patella B) tibia C) metatarsal
D) femur
E) fibia
266) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders? A) superior border B) inferior border C) lateral border D) all of the above E) A and C only 267) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? A) wrist B) foot C) forearm D) ankle
37
E) hand
268) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the A) calcaneus and talus. B) distal metarsals and calcaneus. C) calcaneus and proximal metatarsals . D) talus and proximal metatarsals. E) talus and cuneiforms. 269) The talus contacts the A) navicular bone. B) calcaneus. C) tibial bone. D) both A and B E) A, B, and C 270) Compared to the hand, the foot A) has a more restricted range of movement. B) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones. C) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals. D) has more phalanges. E) contains ellipsoidal arches that help distribute body weight. 271) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured? A) his knee B) his hand C) his foot D) his hip
E) his ankle
272) The clavicle articulates with the scapula A) distally with the coracoid process. B) distally with the glenoid cavity. C) distally with the acromial process. D) proximally with the manubrium. E) both C and D. 273) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower -than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem
with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? A) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals B) weak tarsometatarsal joints C) a loose Achilles tendon D) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals E) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia 274) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics. The acetabulum is directed
laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from A) an elderly female. B) a young female. C) a young male. D) an elderly male. E) Cannot tell on the basis of this information.
38
Figure 8 1 The Humerus
se Figure 8 1 to answer the following questions: 275) Identify the structure labeled "9." A) greater tubercle B) trochlea C) medial epicondyle D) olecranon process E) lateral epicondyle
39
276) Which structure does the radius rotate upon? A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
277) When the arm is straight, which structure accepts the olecranon? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4
D) 8
E) 9
278) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures. A) 1 B) 2 C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
279) Which structure articulates with the glenoid cavity? A) 3 B) 4 C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Figure 8 2 Bones of the Ankle and Foot
se Figure 8 2 to answer the following questions: 280) Identify the bone labeled "7." A) calcaneus B) cuneiform I C) cuboid D) talus E) navicular
40
281) Identify the bone labeled "1." A) metatarsal B) talus C) calcaneus D) cuneiform V E) cuboid 282) On which bone does the tibia press? A) 7 B) 3
C) 9
D) 1
E) 2
283) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape. A) 8 B) 2 C) 7
D) 1
E) 3
284) Identify the bones labeled "9." A) tarsals B) metacarpals C) carpals D) metatarsals E) coxae
41
Figure 8 3 The Scapula
se Figure 8 3 to answer the following questions: 285) Identify the structure labeled "7." A) scapular process B) acromion C) scapular notch D) spine E) coracoid process 286) Identify the structure labeled "1." A) coracoid process B) scapular process C) spine D) scapular notch E) acromion 287) Which structure is the acromion? A) 1 B) 2
C) 3
288) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) acetabulum B) scapular cavity C) scapular notch D) glenoid cavity E) rotator cup
42
D) 4
E) 5
289) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"? A) manubrium B) clavicle C) humerus D) radius E) femur
43
Figure 8 4 The Femur
se Figure 8 4 to answer the following questions: 290) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) lateral condyle B) greater trochanter C) head D) linea aspera E) lateral epicondyle
44
291) Identify the structure labeled "3." A) lateral condyle B) greater trochanter C) lateral epicondyle D) head E) lesser trochanter 292) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4
D) 5
E) 9
293) Identify the diaphysis of the femur. A) 1 B) 2
D) 5
E) 7
C) 3
294) Identify the structure labeled "12." A) greater trochanter B) head C) lateral condyle D) linea aspera E) lateral epicondyle 295) An immovable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) amphiarthrosis. C) diarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) symphysis. 296) A slightly movable joint is a(n) A) synarthrosis. B) synostosis. C) diarthrosis. D) gomphosis. E) amphiarthrosis. 297) A freely movable joint is a(n) A) symphysis. B) synarthrosis. C) syndesmosis. D) amphiarthrosis. E) diarthrosis. 298) A suture is an example of a(n) A) diarthrosis. B) symphysis. C) synarthrosis. D) syndesmosis. E) amphiarthrosis.
45
299) An epiphyseal line is an example of a A) synchondrosis. B) syndesmosis. C) gomphosis. D) symphysis. E) synostosis. 300) Dense connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n) A) synostosis. B) syndesmosis. C) synchondrosis. D) amphiarthrosis. E) gomphosis. 301) A synovial joint is an example of a(n) A) diarthrosis. B) amphiarthrosis. C) syndesmosis. D) symphysis. E) synarthrosis. 302) A ligamentous connection such as an interosseus ligament is termed a A) syndesmosis. B) synchondrosis. C) synostosis. D) symphysis. E) gomphosis. 303) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? A) provides nutrients B) increases osmotic pressure within joint C) protects articular cartilages D) shock absorption E) lubrication 304) Which of the following is not a characteristic of articular cartilage? A) The matrix contains more water than other cartilages. B) It secretes synovial fluid. C) It is composed of hyaline cartilage. D) Surfaces are normally slick and smooth. E) There is no perichondrium. 305) Which of these is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints? A) synostosis B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) suture E) all of the above
46
306) Bursae are found in all of the following areas, except A) tendon sheaths. B) around blood vessels. C) around many synovial joints. D) within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure. E) beneath the skin covering a bone. 307) Dislocations are quite painful due to stimulation of pain receptors. One place these receptors are absent is A) within the joint capsule. B) inside the joint cavity. C) within the ligaments around the joint. D) within the tendons around the joint. E) both C and D 308) A movement away from the midline of the body is termed A) extension. B) inversion. C) flexion.
D) abduction.
E) adduction.
309) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called A) circumduction. B) retraction. C) eversion. D) rotation. E) opposition. 310) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, termed A) eversion. B) plantar flexion. C) inversion. D) protraction. E) dorsiflexion. 311) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression? A) opening the mouth B) turning the hand palm upward C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) spreading the fingers E) moving the hand toward the shoulder 312) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the A) leg. B) foot. C) hand. D) hip.
E) arm.
313) The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) saddle B) hinge C) ellipsoid
E) pivot
47
D) gliding
314) In a triaxial articulation A) no movement is possible. B) movement can occur in all three axes. C) movement can occur in only two axes. D) only circumduction is possible. E) movement can occur in only one axis. 315) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) hinge B) ellipsoid C) gliding D) pivot E) saddle 316) Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints. A) hinge B) saddle C) ball-and-socket D) gliding E) ellipsoid 317) Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones? A) ball-and-socket B) hinge C) saddle D) gliding E) pivot 318) Which of the following types of joints is monoaxial, but capable of only rotation? A) pivot B) saddle C) gliding D) hinge E) ball-and-socket 319) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint. A) hip B) knee C) shoulder D) wrist E) elbow 320) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension? A) turning the hand palm upward B) moving the hand toward the shoulder C) spreading the fingers D) opening the mouth E) extreme bending of the head backwards 321) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion? A) coracoacromial B) coracohumeral C) acromioclavicular D) coracoclavicular E) glenohumeral
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322) The elbow joint is extremely stable because A) the ulna and humerus interlock. B) several muscles support the joint capsule. C) the capsule lacks ligaments. D) the articular capsule is thin. E) the joint lacks bursae. 323) The radiocarpal joint is a(n) ________ joint. A) saddle B) hinge C) ellipsoid D) gliding E) immovable 324) The intercarpal articulations are ________ joints. A) saddle B) ball-and-socket C) gliding D) hinge E) ellipsoid 325) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints. A) ellipsoid B) pivot C) gliding 326) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints? A) covered by a capsule B) freely movable C) covered by a serous membrane D) contain synovial fluid E) lined by a secretory epithelium 327) A herniated intervertebral disc is caused by A) protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. B) loss of annulus fibrosis elasticity. C) transformation of fibrocartilage to hyaline cartilage. D) slippage of the fibrocartilage disc. E) ossification of the vertebral disc. 328) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include A) almost complete bony socket. B) strong muscular padding. C) supporting ligaments. D) tough capsule. E) all of the above
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D) hinge
E) saddle
329) The normal movement of the hip joint during walking involves A) adduction. B) abduction. C) flexion. D) extension. E) both C and D 330) Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint? A) anterior cruciate ligament B) iliofemoral ligament C) ischiofemoral ligament D) pubofemoral ligament E) ligamentum teres 331) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci A) take the place of bursae. B) are found between the patella and femur. C) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia. D) act as cushions and conform to the shape of the articulating surfaces. E) both A and D 332) The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the A) cruciate ligaments. B) popliteal ligaments. C) fat pads. D) lateral menisci. E) medial menisci. 333) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament. A) popliteal B) posterior cruciate C) patellar D) tibial collateral E) anterior cruciate 334) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments. A) tibial collateral B) popliteal C) anterior cruciate D) posterior cruciate E) patellar 335) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament. A) cruciate B) popliteal C) fibular collateral D) tibial collateral E) patellar
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336) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the femur and maintain the alignment of the
femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments. A) fibular collateral B) cruciate C) tibial collateral D) patellar E) popliteal 337) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint. A) ball-and-socket B) ellipsoid C) saddle D) hinge E) gliding 338) The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to A) reinforce the joint capsule. B) limit the range of movements. C) allow biaxial movement. D) all of the above E) both A and B 339) All of the following statements are true, except one. Identify the exception. A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint. B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular
direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint. C) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint. D) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint. E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint. 340) Joints can be classified structurally as A) cartilaginous. B) synovial. C) fibrous. D) bony. E) all of the above 341) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are A) pivot joints. B) condyloid joints. C) hinge joints. D) ellipsoid joints. E) saddle joints. 342) Complete dislocation of the knee is a rare because A) the knee is extremely resilient. B) the knee contains seven major ligaments. C) the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee. D) the knee is protected by the patella. E) the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks.
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343) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction? A) opening the mouth B) extreme bending of the head backwards C) turning the hand palm upward D) spreading the fingers E) moving the hand toward the shoulder 344) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a A) synotosis. B) gomphosis. C) synchondrosis. D) suture. E) none of the above 345) The surface of articular cartilage is A) slick. B) flat. C) smooth. D) rough. E) both A and C 346) Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged? A) Friction in the joint increases. B) The exposed surface changes to a rough feltwork. C) The matrix begins to break down. D) Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue. E) all of the above 347) Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints. A) hyperextends B) abducts C) extends D) flexes E) rotates 348) An extension past the anatomical position is known as A) rotation. B) double jointed. C) extension. D) hyperextension. E) flexion. 349) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion? A) turning the hand palm upward B) moving the hand toward the shoulder C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) opening the mouth E) spreading the fingers
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350) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A) dorsiflexion. B) inversion. C) eversion. D) plantar flexion. E) none of the above 351) Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes? A) rotation B) inversion C) plantar flexion D) dorsiflexion E) eversion 352) All of the following are structural classifications of synovial joints, except A) saddle. B) gliding. C) hinge. D) pivot.
E) rolling.
353) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint? A) ankle
B) knee
C) wrist
D) shoulder
354) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination? A) opening the mouth B) spreading the fingers C) extreme bending of the head backwards D) moving the hand toward the shoulder E) turning the hand palm upward 355) All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints, except A) rotation. B) extension. C) lateral flexion. D) flexion. E) dorsiflexion. 356) Which of the following ligaments assist in stabilization of the shoulder joint? A) coracoacromial B) subscapularis C) coracoclavicular D) all of the above E) both A and C 357) Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a rotator cuff injury? A) runners B) white-water kayakers C) tennis players D) baseball pitchers E) both B and D
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E) elbow
358) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the A) radial joint. B) ulnaradial joint. C) humero-ulnar joint. D) ulnar joint. E) humeroradial joint. 359) Which of these is not considered to be an accessory synovial structure? A) menisci B) fat pads C) synovial membrane D) tendons E) bursae 360) Degenerative changes in a joint can be the result of all of the following, except A) immobilization of the joint. B) bacterial infection. C) mechanical stress. D) bursitis. E) inflammation. 361) Nodding your head "yes" is an example of A) protraction and retraction. B) pronation and supination. C) flexion and extension. D) lateral and medial rotation. E) circumduction. 362) Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food? A) circumduction B) flexion C) pronation D) abduction E) elevation 363) Lifting a stone with the tip of foot is A) inversion. B) dorsiflexion. C) circumduction. D) plantar flexion. E) eversion. 364) Muscles that extend the elbow attach to the A) medial epicondyle. B) coronoid process. C) radial tuberosity. D) lateral epicondyle. E) olecranon process.
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365) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in A) flexion of the forearm. B) adduction of the forearm. C) rotation of the shoulder. D) extension of the forearm. E) abduction of the forearm. 366) The joints that are subjected to the greatest load are found in the A) hips. B) knees. C) spine. 367) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to A) dense regular connective tissue. B) rigid cartilaginous bridge. C) fibrous cartilage. D) completely fused. E) periodontal ligament. 368) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the A) ligaments. B) tendons. C) patella. D) lateral meniscus. E) medial meniscus. 369) Which of these is not a property of articular cartilage? A) enclosed by a capsule B) smooth, low-friction surface C) covered by perichondrium D) similar to hyaline cartilage E) lubricated by synovial fluid
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D) ankles.
E) hands.
Figure 9 1 Bones of the Wrist and Hand
se Figure 9 1 to answer the following questions: 370) Identify the type of joint at label "5." A) saddle B) pivot
C) hinge
D) ellipsoid
E) gliding
371) Identify the type of joint at label "4." A) ellipsoid B) hinge
C) gliding
D) pivot
E) saddle
372) Identify the type of joint at label "3." A) pivot B) ellipsoid
C) saddle
D) gliding
E) hinge
373) Identify the type of joint at label "2." A) pivot B) ellipsoid
C) gliding
D) saddle
E) hinge
374) Identify the type of joint at label "1." A) saddle B) gliding
C) ellipsoid
D) pivot
E) hinge
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Figure 9 2 A Simplified Sectional View of the Knee Joint
se Figure 9 2 to answer the following questions: 375) Identify the structure at label "1." A) synovial membrane B) oint cavity C) bursa D) articular cartilage E) meniscus 376) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrocartilage? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 377) What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"? A) fibrocartilage B) synovial membrane C) bone tissue D) dense connective tissue E) hyaline cartilage 378) Identify the structure labeled "2." A) serous membrane B) oint capsule C) periosteum D) synovial membrane E) intracapsular ligament
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D) 4
E) 5
379) Identify the structure labeled "5." A) intracapsular ligament B) periosteum C) oint capsule D) serous membrane E) synovial membrane
380) Todd is 13 and lives in an urban apartment. He spends most of his time watching TV and eating "junk" food.
One afternoon, during recess, he falls on the playground and breaks his leg. Although he appears to be healthy, his leg takes longer to heal than expected. What might be the cause of the longer healing time? 381) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. A young resident suggests using a device
that will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the healing process. Why might this possibly help? 382) During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft? 383) What is the difference between ossification and calcification.? 384) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia. 385) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a result of vitamin
D3 deficiency? Explain. 386) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he starts to have
sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the cause of Frank's discomfort? 387) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing
difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be? 388) What role do the fontanels play in infant development? 389) The structural features and skeletal components of the sternum make it a part of the axial skeleton, which is
important in a variety of clinical situations. If you were teaching this information to prospective health care professionals, what clinical applications would you cite? 390) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures
more common in cervical vertebrae? 391) Sasha has a chronic sinus infection that she has treated herself. She develops a dangerous infection of the
brain. Explain to her how this happened.
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392) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle -aged men, Joe carries most of this extra
weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his "beer gut." During an annual physical, Joe's physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature. Why is the curvature of Joe's spine changing, and what is this condition called? 393) Describe how the arches of the foot assist in weight distribution. 394) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis? 395) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral
girdle? 396) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal condyle of tibia).
What landmarks would you use to make the measurement? 397) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female. 398) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different? 399) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce? 400) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation? 401) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and stiffness in her
shoulder joint. In talking with her, you discover that she has been spending many hours trying to improve her pitching skills for her school's softball team. What is likely causing the pain?
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Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 1) E 2) A 3) D 4) B 5) E 6) D 7) E 8) E 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) C 14) C 15) E 16) A 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) E 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) A 33) C 34) E 35) D 36) D 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) E 41) A 42) E 43) C 44) E 45) A 46) A 47) E 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) A 53) E 54) A 55) D 56) C 57) A 58) E 60
Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 59) E 60) C 61) E 62) A 63) B 64) B 65) E 66) E 67) B 68) E 69) D 70) E 71) E 72) A 73) C 74) A 75) B 76) C 77) E 78) A 79) B 80) B 81) E 82) D 83) B 84) D 85) B 86) E 87) D 88) E 89) E 90) C 91) A 92) A 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) E 97) C 98) E 99) B 100) A 101) D 102) C 103) A 104) E 105) E 106) C 107) C 108) D 109) D 110) A 111) B 112) E 113) C 114) D 115) D 116) B 61
Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 117) E 118) E 119) C 120) D 121) B 122) A 123) C 124) D 125) E 126) E 127) D 128) C 129) D 130) E 131) D 132) C 133) A 134) D 135) E 136) B 137) D 138) B 139) C 140) D 141) A 142) E 143) E 144) D 145) E 146) D 147) D 148) E 149) A 150) A 151) D 152) D 153) C 154) D 155) D 156) A 157) D 158) A 159) D 160) E 161) E 162) A 163) E 164) D 165) D 166) C 167) C 168) B 169) D 170) D 171) E 172) D 173) E 174) E 62
Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 175) E 176) D 177) D 178) D 179) C 180) E 181) C 182) D 183) E 184) B 185) E 186) B 187) E 188) E 189) D 190) E 191) A 192) D 193) E 194) B 195) C 196) C 197) C 198) E 199) E 200) B 201) C 202) C 203) D 204) E 205) B 206) C 207) B 208) A 209) A 210) B 211) D 212) C 213) D 214) E 215) D 216) A 217) B 218) D 219) D 220) A 221) C 222) C 223) E 224) A 225) E 226) B 227) D 228) A 229) E 230) D 231) C 232) E 63
Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 233) B 234) B 235) C 236) D 237) A 238) A 239) E 240) A 241) E 242) B 243) D 244) E 245) D 246) D 247) D 248) B 249) D 250) A 251) D 252) C 253) B 254) C 255) A 256) A 257) A 258) D 259) A 260) C 261) B 262) D 263) C 264) C 265) B 266) E 267) A 268) B 269) E 270) A 271) C 272) E 273) A 274) C 275) C 276) C 277) D 278) D 279) C 280) E 281) C 282) E 283) A 284) D 285) D 286) A 287) E 288) D 289) C 290) B 64
Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 291) A 292) D 293) E 294) D 295) A 296) E 297) E 298) C 299) E 300) E 301) A 302) A 303) B 304) B 305) E 306) B 307) B 308) D 309) E 310) C 311) A 312) B 313) B 314) B 315) E 316) A 317) D 318) A 319) C 320) E 321) C 322) A 323) C 324) C 325) C 326) C 327) A 328) E 329) E 330) A 331) D 332) C 333) C 334) B 335) D 336) B 337) D 338) E 339) C 340) E 341) D 342) B 343) D 344) B 345) E 346) E 347) D 348) D 65
Answer Key Testname: SKELETAL SYSTEM STUDY GUIDE 349) B 350) C 351) C 352) E 353) D 354) E 355) E 356) E 357) E 358) C 359) C 360) D 361) C 362) E 363) B 364) E 365) A 366) D 367) C 368) E 369) C 370) C 371) A 372) C 373) C 374) C 375) C 376) D 377) E 378) D 379) A 380) Assuming that there is no other disease process involved, Todd's problem is probably related to his poor diet. Good nutrition is important for promoting the healing process. Insufficient quantities of protein, vitamin C, vitamin A, and vitamin D would cause the normal healing process to occur at a much slower rate. Todd's inactivity may also contribute to his slower rate of healing. 381) Osteoblasts are attracted to electrical fields produced by bone crystals when they are stressed. This is one of the reasons that trabeculae of bones are organized along stress lines. If the same type of electrical field could be duplicated at the site of the fracture, osteoblasts may be stimulated to migrate to the area and increase the rate of bone production and thus healing of the fracture. 382) The chondrocytes of the epiphyseal cartilage enlarge and divide, increasing the thickness of the cartilage. On the shaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, "chasing" the expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft. 383) Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue. Calcification means the depositing of calcium salts in any tissue, including bone. 384) Osteopenia is a general term for reduced bone mass. Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are forms. Osteoporosis is a condition of reduced bone density, bone weakness, and pain resulting from the loss of mineral from bone with advancing age. Osteomalacia is bone weakness caused by insufficient calcium deposits. It is known as rickets in the young. 385) A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from the digestive tract, leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggered by high blood calcium levels. 66
