3.-Day-1-Mockboards

SAINT LOUIS UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF ENGINEERING AND ARCHITECTURE DEPARTMENT OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

MOCK BOARDS for PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

1. Which one of the following metals is most likely to be purified by electrolysis? a. silver b. lead c. iron d. manganese 2. Sodium cyanide is an important reagent in the metallurgy of ______________. a. manganese b. iron c. copper d. gold 3. If a cell did not have ribosomes, it would be unable to a. extract energy from b. form proteins c. store food in the form d. synthesize glucose glucose 4. Which of the following salts is expected to have the lowest solubility in water? a. NaCl b. NaI c. NaF d. NaBr o 5. The vapour pressure of pure water at 26 C is 25.21 torr. What is the vapour pressure of solution which contains 20g glucose in 70g water? a. 24.5 torr b. 99.3 torr c. 65.2 torr d. 31.13 torr 6. What is the molecular weight, Ma, of a solute, A, if the osmotic pressure of a solution containing 10 g/L is 10 torr at 27˚C? a. 1165 g/mol b. 18700 g/mol c. 15600 g/mol d. 12800 g/mol 18 7. F is found to undergo 90% radioactive decay in 366 min. What is its computed half -life from this observation? a. 25 min b. 55 min c. 80 min d. 110 min 8. The easiest fusion reaction to initiate is between the nuclei of deuterium and tritium to produce an alpha particle. How much energy is released for every formation of an alpha particle? (deuterium = 2.01410 amu, protium = 3.01605 amu, alpha particle = 4.00460 amu). a. -1.889 x 10 -5 J b. -2.820 x 10 -12 J c. -1.680 x 10 -10 J d. -4.569 x 10 -5 J 9. The average molar mass of one base pair of nucleotides in DNA is approximately 600 g/mol. The spacing between successive base pairs is about 0.34 nm, and a complete turn in the helical structure of DNA occurs every 3.4 nm. If a DNA molecule has a molar mass of 4.5 x 10 9 g/mol, approximately, how many complete turns in t he DNA α-helix α-helix structure? 5 5 5 a. 6 x 10 b. 7 x 10 c. 8 x 10 d. 9 x 105 10. In the "Methode Champenoise," strawberry juice is fermented in a 825-mL wine bottle t o produce sparkling wine. Fermentation of 719 mL aqueous strawberry juice is allowed to take place in the bottle until 12% by volume is ethyl alcohol. Calculate the pressure of CO2 inside the wine bottle at 29°C? (The density of ethanol is 0.79 g/cm3.) a. 150 atm b. 250 atm c. 350 atm d. 450 atm 11. Histidine, an essential α-amino α-amino acid present in our body can transform into histamine under enzymatic activity of histidine decarboxylase. When the reaction velocity is 2.6 mM/s, 1.67 mM of histamine is formed. Assuming 15 mM of the decarboxylase (Kcat = 30 s-1) is used, determine the Michaelis-Menten constant K M. a. 0.19 M b. 0.29 M c. 0.39 M d. 0.49 M 12. Calculate the energy released per mole of a helium nucleus produced from the fusion reaction of deuterium with t ritium. The atomic masses of deuterium, tritium and helium are 2.01410 amu, 3.01605 amu and 4.00260 amu, respectively. a. -2.82 x 10 -12 J b. -1.70 x 10 -12 J c. -2.82 x 10 12 J d. -1.70 x 10 12 J 13. Determine the “third“third-life” for a nuclide that has a half life of 31.4 years. Hint: “Third“Third -life” is defined in a similar way to “half life”. a. 10.5 yr b. 20.9 yr c. 42.8 yr d. 49.7 yr 14. It has a brownish hue and is the compound that gives feces their characteristic odor. a. Biliverdin b. Stercobilin c. Bilirubin d. Urobilin 15. A 1.0 L buffer solution initially contains 0.25 mol NH 3 and 0.25 mol NH 4Cl. In order to adjust the buffer to a pH of 8.75, you should add a. 4.80g NaOH b. 18.6g NaOH c. 4.80g HCl d. 18.6g HCl 16. Consider two solutions A and B. [H +] in solution A is 470 times greater than that in solution B. What i s the difference in the pH values of the two solutions? a. 3 x 10 -12 b. 4 x 10 -15 c. 1 x 10-14 d. 5 x 10-16



17. Consider a piece of gold jewelry that has a mass of 9.45 g and a volume of 0.685 cm 3. The jewelry contains gold and silver, which have densities of 19.3 g/cm 3 and 10.5 g/cm 3, respectively. If the total volume of the jewelry is the sum of the volumes of the gold and the silver that it contains, state the puri ty of the gold jewelry in karats. a. 10.6 b. 12.6 c. 16.2 d. 19.6 18. What weight of magnetite should be taken for analysis in order that, after converting all the Fe to a precip itate of Fe 2O3 .xH2O, the percentage of Fe 3O4 in the sample can be found by multiplying the weight in grams of the ignited precipitate by 100? a. 0.4666g b. 0.6666g c. 0.86666g d. 0.9666g 19. A sample of steel weighing 1.50 g was analyzed for Ni by the cyanide volumetric method. In the titration of the properly prepared solution, 12.00 mL KCN (0.0140 g per milliliter) and 0.65 mL of AgNO 3 (0.0125 g per milliliter) were used. Calculate the percentage of Ni present. a. 1.42% b. 2.42% c. 3.42% d. 4.24% 20. A sample of milk weighing 5.00 g is analyzed for protein by the Kjeldahl method. The digested material is treated with excess NaOH and the liberated NH 3 is caught in 25.0 mL H 2SO4. The excess acid then requires 28.2 mL of NaOH (25.8 mL acid  31.0 mL NaOH). The NaOH used was standardized using 1.00 g sample of pure NH 4Cl as a primary standard and the liberated NH 3 is caught in 25.0 mL of the above H 2SO4. The excess acid requires 11.3 mL of the above standard NaOH. Calculate the percentage of protein in the milk. a. 2.05% b. 3.30% c. 4.60% d. 5.89% 21. What is the normality of a nitric acid solution to be used as an oxidizing agent (reduced to NO) if it contains 55.50% by mass HNO3 and has a specific gravity of 1.350? a. 11.89 N b. 23.79 N c. 35.68 N d. 40.00 N -5 22. What [I ] should be maintained in an aqueous KI solution to produce a solubility of 1.8 x 10 mol PbI2 per liter of solution when PbI2 is added? K sp of PbI2 = 6.5 x 10 -9. a. 0.0120 M b. 0.0080 M c. 0.0040 M d. 0.0190 M 23. Two moles of Acetaldehyde are produced when one mole of a starting hydrocarbon undergoes ozonolysis. What could this hydrocarbon be? a. 2-Methyl-2-butene b. 2-Butene c. Butene d. 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene 24. Part of a certain DNA sequence is GGTCTATAC. What is the complementary sequence? a. CCAGATATG b. TTGAGCGCA c. AAGTGTTAC d. CCGTGTCAG 25. 3-Methyl-3-hexanol can be prepared by reacting propyl magnesium bromide with what? a. ester b. ether c. ketone d. carboxylic acid 26. In humans, this chemical compound is released during hugging and touching in both genders. a. oxytocin b. adrenaline c. G-Proteins d. serotonin 27. Which of the following compounds is AROMATIC?

a. 28.

29. 30. 31. 32.

b.

d. c. An atom of a particular element is travelling at 1% of the speed of light. The wavelength is found to be 3.31 x 10 -3 pm. The element is a. Be b. Mg c. Ca d. Sr Which of the following exhibits H-bonding? a. HCl b. HF c. CH4 d. CHCl3 Which of the following is diamagnetic? a. N b. Ni c. Te d. Ba Which of the following molecules/ compounds is formed by covalent bonds? a. LiF b. MgO c. NO2 d. PbS When 2.86g of a mixture of 1-butene and butane was burned in excess oxygen, 8.80g of carbon dioxide and 4.14g of water were obtained. Calculate the percentage by mass of butane in the original mixture. a. 12.3% b. 95.2% c. 60.8% d. 30.6%



33. A 10L cylinder of oxygen at 4.00 atm pressure and 17°C developed a leak. When the leak was repaired, 2.50 atm of oxygen remained in the cylinder, still at 17°C. How many moles of gas escaped? a. 0.621 moles b. 0.630 moles c. 0.389 moles d. 0.397 moles 34. A 516.7-mg sample containing a mixture of K 2SO4 and (NH4)2SO4 was dissolved in water and treated with BaCl 2, precipitating the SO42 – as BaSO4. The resulting precipitate was isolated by filtration, rinsed free of impurities, and d ried to a constant weight, yielding 863.5 mg of BaSO 4. What is the %w/w K 2SO4 in the sample? a. 65.34% b. 45.56% c. 34.45% d. 22.22% 35. A 50.00-mL aliquot of a solution containing iron(III) required 13.73 mL of 0.01200 M EDTA . The solution contains how much iron? a. 134 ppm b. 184 ppm c. 213 ppm d. 245 ppm 36. A mixture is reported as 15% water and 85% ethanol. Should the percentages be deemed to by a. mass b. mole c. volume d. all of the given 37. A mole of water and a mole of oxygen a. have the same mass c. have a mass of one gram each b. contain one molecule each d. contain the same number of molecules 38. Pure chlorine gas enters a process. By measurement it is found that 2.4 kg of chlorine pass into the process every 3.1 minutes. Calculate the molar flow rate of the chlorine in kg mol/hr. a. 0.132 kgmol/hr b. 0.654 kgmol/hr c. 0.870 kgmol/hr d. 0.794 kgmol/hr 39. Do ppm denote a concentration that is a mole ratio? a. for gases only b. for solids only c. for liquids only d. for solids and liquids o o 40. A 30% H 2SO4 solution at 20 C has a specific gravity of 1.2185. What is the Be’ of the acid solution? a. 31 b. 45 c. 26 d. 37 41. The following are acid salts except, a. ammonium acetate b. ethyl propionate c. calcium formate d. sodium butyrate 42. Which statement about resonance structures is false? a. Third period atoms may have up to 12 electrons around them b. The position of nuclei may change c. All contributing structures must obey the rules of covalent bonding d. All contributing resonance structures must have the same number of valence electrons 43. Which of the following describes a hydride ion? a. a negatively charged hydrogen ion containing a pair of electrons b. a positively charged hydrogen ion c. a hydrogen ion containing a single electron d. a proton containing an extra electron 44. Which of the following describes a triple bond? a. two sigma bonds and two pi bonds c. two sigma bonds and one pi bond b. one sigma bond and two pi bonds d. three pi bonds 45. A(An) ____ is a region of space in which there is a high probability of fin ding an electron in an atom. a. shell b. major energy level 46. Which of the following is used for making the explosive 'TNT'? a. Benzol b. Toluene 47. The Lucas test is used to determine the types of

c. core

d. atomic orbital

c. Pyridine

d. Cetosote

a. alcohols b. amines c. phenols d. amino acids 48. How many milligrams of BaCrO 4 are dissolved in 200 ml of saturated solution? (Ksp of BaCrO 4 is 8.5 x 10 -11) a. 4.67 x 10 -4 mg b. 1.84 x 10 -4 mg c. 0.467 mg d. 0.822 mg 49. 0.180 g of metal upon reaction with excess hydrochloric acid produced 24.6 ml of hydrogen gas at 27 0C and 1 atmospheric pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal? a. 36 b. 45 c. 90 d. 180 50. Zinc in a 565.75 mg sample of a foot powder was titrated with 27.27 ml of 0.01690 EDTA. Calculate the %Zn in the sample.



a. 5.33% b. 10.65% c. 12.0% d. 15.5% 51. A specific brand of liquor is rated 75 proof. One shot of the liquor having a volume of 35 ml contains a. 37.5 mL isopropyl alcohol b. 13.1 mL isopropyl alcohol c. 37.5 mL ethyl alcohol 52. The half-life of Cs-137 is 30 years. How much of a 1.0 gram sample is left after 15 years?

d. 13.1 mL ethyl alcohol

a. 0.56g b. 0.71g 53. Conversion of solar energy to chemical energy occurs during

d. 0.96g

c. 0.85g

a. respiration b. glycolysis c. fermentation d. photosynthesis 54. Determine the 1 day BOD of a sample wastewater if its BOD 5 is 135 mg/L with a rat e constant of 0.23/day. a. 197.5 ppm b. 51.1 ppm c. 40.6 ppm 55. A radial flow impeller with six flat-blades mounted on a disk is called

d. 32.1 ppm

a. Rushton turbine b. propeller c. aerator d. paddle 56. A 35 ml sample of wastewater is diluted to a volume of 300 ml, after which a 5 day incubation resulted to a dissolved oxygen content of 4.55 mg/L. Calculate the initial DO of the diluted sample if the 5 day BOD is 30 ppm. a. 5 mg/L b. 8 mg/L c. 12 mg/L d. 15 mg/L 57. The sanitary and industrial waste from a community consists of domestic wastewater from several population of 10,000 persons; meat processing waste of 180 m 3/day containing 1500 mg/L of 5-day BOD; plastic industry wastewater flow of 515m 3/day with a 5-day BOD concentration of 950 ppm and cooking oil wastewater flow of 350 m 3/day with a 5-day BOD concentration of 450 ppm. What is the 5-day BOD concentration of the combined wastewater in mg/L? a. 877 b. 966 c. 1500 d. 2900 58. The odor and presence of this chemical should be controlled due to the toxicity attributed to it a. CH3 b. H2S c. F d. Cl + 59. Given: HCN(aq)  H (aq) + CN (aq). What is the pH of an HCN solution that is 0.135M initially? The K a of HCN is 4.9 x 10 -10. a. 9.31 b. 4.69 c. 5.09 d. 0.87 60. Calculate the pH that results when the following solutions are mixed: 35 ml of 0.20 M formic acid, 55 ml of 0.10 M sodium formate, 110 ml of water a. 4.58 b. 3.64 c. 3.39 61. Classify the following reaction by giving the reaction type that applies. 2NiO(s) + 2SO2(g) a. redox b. combination c. decomposition 62. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contr ibutes _____ lattice points to the unit cell

d. 4.41

2NiS(s) + 3O2(g)

a. 1/3 b. 1/2 63. Consider the reaction: 2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g)

d. displacement

c. 1/8 d. 1/4 ∆H=92.4kJ Adding N 2 to the reaction will

a. decrease the concentration of NH3(g) at equilibrium b. decrease the concentration of H2(g) at equilibrium c. increase the value of the equilibrium constant d. cause the reaction to shift to the right 64. The time taken for a certain volume of gas to steam through a small hole was 1.44 minutes. Under exactly the same condition equal volume of oxygen took 1.80 minutes to pass. The approximate density of the gas relative to oxygen (ρ oxygen = 1.43 g/L) is: a. 2.23 b. 1.79 c. 0.92 65. If X represents an element in Group IIIA. The general formula for its oxide is

d. 0.60

a. X2O3 b. X3O2 c. XO d. XO3 66. Soap is dissolved in hot water and the solution is cooled and neutralized with HCl. The resulting precip itate is probably a. sodium chloride b. benzoic acid c. sodium benzoate d. sodium stearate 67. When a solution of weak electrolyte is altered by adding one of its ions from another source, the ionization of the weak electrolyte is suppressed. This behavior is termed t he ____. a. equivalence point

b. common ion effect

c. buffer effect

d. titration curve



68. Analytical methods taking 1-10 mg. Size samples for analysis maybe referred to as methods a. meso b. micro c. macro 69. Which of the following is NOT a reason on why we need to add lime in lime-soda softening?

d. ultra micro

a. remove NCH b. remove CO2 c. raise pH d. destroy H2CO3 70. Solid particle frequently metallic, formed by the condensation of vapors by sublimation or other chemical processes. a. spray b. fog c. fume 71. Reingleman chart is used for the evaluation of __________ pollution. 72. 73.

74.

75.

76.

77.

78.

d. dust

a. air b. water c. noise d. radioactive Which one of the following metals is most likely to be purified by electrolysis? a. Mn b. Fe c. Pb d. Ag 0 Evaluate S (J/K)for the reaction below at 25°C and 1 atm. NO2(g) + H2O( ) HNO3(aq) + NO(g) 0 S (J/mol•K) 240 69.91 146 210.7 a. -287.2 b. 46.79 c. -46.79 d. 1.37 x 10 3 The temperature of three different liquids are maintained at 15 0C, 200C and 250C respectively. When equal masses of the first two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 18 0C and when equal masses of the last two liquids are mixed, the final temperature is 24 0C. What temperature will be achieved by mixing equal masses of the first and last liquid? a. 8.65 oC b. 10.30 oC c. 15.83 oC d. 23.57 oC A constant direct current flows through an iodine coulometer for a period of 2 hours. At the end of this time, it is found that the coulometer contains 0.0020 equivalent of liberated I 2. What was the current passing through the coulometer? a. 0.058A b. 0.048A c. 0.034A d. 0.027A The average person generates about 2500 kcal of heat a day. Walking briskly dissipates energy at 500W. What fraction of the day’s energy does walking for an hour represents. a. 0.172 b. 0.200 c. 0.430 d. 0.117 What weight of ice could be melted at 0 0C by the heat liberated by condensing 100g steam at 100 0C to liquid? Heat of vaporization = 540 cal/g Heat of fusion = 80 cal/g a. 345 g b. 675 g c. 660 g d. 378 g A water treatment plant has 4 clarifiers treated 4 MGD of water. Each clarifier is 16 ft wide, 80 ft long and 15 ft deep. Determine the detention time in hours.

a. 28 min b. 52 min c. 3.35 hrs d. 4.12 hrs 79. Calculate the mass of 95%w NH 4Cl salt necessary to prepare two liters of buffer solution of pH =8 with 500 mL of 0.1M NH 3 (Kb = 1.8 x 10 -5) a. 50.64 g b. 48.11 g 80. The organic reaction represented by equation

c. 1.48 g

d. 1.56 g

CH3 - CH = O + H 2NOH gives CH3 - CH - NH + H 2O is an example of reaction a. addition b. oxidation c. condensation d. elimination 81. The overlap of the 2p atomic orbitals produces ____ sigma molecular orbitals and ____ pi molecular orbitals. a. 2,4 b. 2,2 82. Functional group which causes vanilla odor.

c. 1,2

d. 4,2

a. ketone b. aldehyde c. carboxylic acid 83. The saponification no. of a triglyceride is 200. The average MW of the triglyceride is

d. ester

a. 200 b. 280 84. ROSO2ONa is a general formula for

d. 840

c. 600

a. soap b. wax c. fatty acid salt d. synthetic detergent 85. What is the total number of completely or partially filled p-orbitals i n 33As atom in its ground state configuration? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 86. Whose rule delineates the placement of additional electrons in the unfilled orbi tal of lowest energy?



a. Aufbau b. Avogadro c. Hund 87. What is the mean MW of a sample of fat with a saponification number of 100.

d. Pauli

a. 160 b. 167 c. 168 d. 169 -6 88. A line in Pfund series (n lo = 5) occurs at 3.74 x 10 m. What is nhi for this transition? Rydberg constant equals 2.18 x 10 -18 J. a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 206 89. Pb has a relative abundance of 23.6%. What size of Pb will contain 8.34 x 10 21 atoms of

d. 9 Pb if the density of Pb is 11.35

206

g/cm3? a. 0.25 cm 2 b. 1.07 cm2 c. 7.01 cm2 d. 10.7 cm2 90. An atom of a particular element is travelling at 1% of the speed of light. The wavelength is found to be 3.31 x 10 -3 pm. The element is a. Be b. Mg c. Ca d. Sr st 91. Consider two reaction vessels A and B, where [A] o = [B] o at t=0. A and B decompose by 1 order reaction with reaction constants of 4.50 x 10 -4 s-1 and 3.70 x 10 -3 s-1 respectively. Calculate the time that must pass to reach the condition such that [A] t = 6.58 [B]t. a. 339 s b. 580s c. 673s d. 890s 92. At a certain temperature, 2.00-L sample of O 2 was collected over water at a total pressure of 785 torr. When the O 2 was dried, the gas had a volume of 1.94 L at 785 torr while temperature was kept constant. Calculate the vapor pressure of water at this temperature. a. 20 torr b. 22 torr c. 24 torr d. 26 torr 93. Measured at the same conditions, 5.0 L of NH 3 is reacted with 5.0 L Cl 2 in a closed container. Calculate the ratio of pressures in the container (Pfinal : Pinitial). NH3 (g) + Cl 2 (g)

 N2

(g) + HCl (g)

a. 3:4 b. 4:3 c. 1:1 d. 3:2 0 94. The water sample from a sewage plant had a 20-day BOD of 400 mg/L at 20 C. What was the expected 5-day demand? a. 404 ppm b. 304 ppm c. 276 ppm d. 196 ppm o 95. Based from the preceding problem, if the sample had been incubated at 15 C, what would the 20-day demand have been a. 318 mg/L b. 334 mg/L c. 369 mg/L d. 381 mg/L 96. Based from the preceding problem, if the water were polluted and had an ultimate BOD of 431 mg/L between 20-30 oC, what exactly was the temperature in which the sample might have been incubated? a. 21 oC b. 25 oC c. 27 oC d. 29 oC 97. A 5 amp current is passing for 3 hours and 30 minutes through this electrolytic cell in which iron metal is deposited on the cathode. If the efficiency of the process is 68%, how many grams of iron are deposited? a. 1.66 b. 2.44 c. 8.26 d. 12.19 98. Assume the following, the ionization potential of C3 = 3.89 eV, h = 6.63 x 10-34/sec and C3 metal is sensitive to real light of 700 nm. What number of electrons that can be removed from metallic cesium with the energy required to remove one electron from an isolated cesium atom a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 13 99. A lab technician may prevent a blood sample from clotting by adding a compound that prevents entering the clotting process. a. potassium citrate b. Vitamin K 10 Which organ is especially sensitive to a vitamin deficiency? a. skin

b. liver

c. sodium ion

d. calcium ion

c. heart

d. lungs

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3.-Day-1-Mockboards

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