Notice Medicine is an ever-changing science. As new research and clinical experience broaden our knowledge, changes in treatment and drug therapy are required. The authors and the publisher of this work have checked with sources believed to be reliable in their efforts to provide information that is complete and generally in accord with the standards accepted at the time of publication. However, in view of the possibility of human error or changes in medical sciences, neither the authors nor the publisher nor any other party who has been involved in the preparation or publication of this work warrants that the information contained herein is in every respect accurate or complete, and they disclaim all responsibility for any errors or omissions or for the results obtained from use of the information contained in this work. Readers are encouraged to confirm the information contained herein with other sources. For example and in particular, readers are advised to check the product information sheet included in the package of each drug they plan to administer to be certain that the information contained in this work is accurate and that changes have not been made in the recommended dose or in the contraindications for administration. This recommendation is of particular importance in connection with new or infrequently used drugs.
Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the author and publisher.
Dental Decks Part I Testlet
Part I Notice Medicine is an ever-changing science. As new research Visit us at www.dentaldecks.com and clinical experience broaden our knowledge, changes in treatment and drug therapy are required. The authors and the publisher of this work have checked with sources believed to be reliable in their efforts to provide information that is complete and generally in accord with the standards accepted at the time of publication. However, in view of the possibility of human error or changes in medical sciences, neither the authors nor the publisher nor any other party who has been involved in the preparation or publication of this work warrants that the information contained herein is in every respect accurate or complete, and they disclaim all responsibility for any errors or omissions or for the results obtained from use of the information contained in this work. Readers are encouraged to confirm the information contained herein with other sources. For example and in particular, readers are advised to check the product information sheet included in the package of each drug they plan to administer to be certain that the information contained in this work is accurate and that changes have not been made in the recommended dose or in the contraindications for administration. This recommendation is of particular importance in connection with new or infrequently used drugs.
Telephone: 1-800-457-7126
Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the author and publisher.
Dental Decks Part I Testlet
Occlusion chart
Maxillary 2P
1P O
M
1M O
D
D
C
C
2P
1P
2M O
O
C
C
1M
O
2M
Mandibular M—Buccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar O—Buccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Occlusion chart
Maxillary 2P
1P O
M
O
D
D 1P
1M
2P
2M
C
C
O
O
1M
C
C
O
2M
Mandibular M—Buccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar O—Buccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for adult teeth. Upper left
Upper right
A few tips on how to prepare for the Clinical Vignette portion of the NBDE Part I exam:
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology, and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components: • A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history • A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
Orientation of the Universal tooth numbering chart is traditionally "patient's view", i.e. patient's right corresponds to tooth chart's right side. The designations "left" and "right" on the chart correspond to the patient's left and right, respectively.
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the questions need that information.
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for deciduous (primary) teeth. Upper left Upper right
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common ones patients present with on your dental school’s clinic floor. Be careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental anatomy questions were blended in. 3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather, they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet for examples). Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for adult teeth. Upper left
Upper right
A few tips on how to prepare for the Clinical Vignette portion of the NBDE Part I exam:
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology, and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components: • A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history • A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
Orientation of the Universal tooth numbering chart is traditionally "patient's view", i.e. patient's right corresponds to tooth chart's right side. The designations "left" and "right" on the chart correspond to the patient's left and right, respectively.
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the questions need that information.
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for deciduous (primary) teeth. Upper left Upper right
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common ones patients present with on your dental school’s clinic floor. Be careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental anatomy questions were blended in. 3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather, they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet for examples). Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
CASE SCENARIO 1 Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
5’6
The patient presents with localized swelling around tooth #2. There is an abscess, and a large carious lesion that extends to the pulp.
120 lbs.
Weight B/P
115/65
Chief Complaint
Localized swelling, sharp pain Hypothyroidism
Medical History
ANSWER KEYS
ANSWER KEY— CASES 1— 5 Question Answer Question Answer Question Case 1
Case 2
Answer Question
Case 3
Answer
Case 4
Question
Answer
Case 5
1
D
1
C
1
B
1
A
1
A
2
D
2
C
2
B, C, D
2
C
2
C
3
E
3
B, C, E
3
C
3
A
3
B
4
B
4
C
4
C
4
E
4
D
5
B, E, F
5
A
5
D
5
A
5
A, E D
Current Medications
Synthroid
6
C
6
C
6
B
6
D
6
Social History
Housewife
7
C
7
E
7
A
7
C
7
E
8
B
8
D
8
E
8
D
8
B
1. Which of the following is the most common cause of this patient’s autoimmune disease? A. Graves’ disease B. Thyroid adenoma C. Pituitary adenoma D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
9
A
9
D
9
D
9
E
9
C
10
D
10
A
10
D
10
D
10
A
Answer
Question
Answer
ANSWER KEY— CASES 6 — 10
2. Which of the following is the primary etiologic factor of dental caries? A. Lactobacillus sp. B. P. gingivalis C. Actinomyces sp. D. S. mutans E. T. denticola
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Case 6
3. Each of the following are symptoms of hypothyroidism EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cold intolerance B. Weight gain C. Mental slowing D. Dry skin E. Restlessness
Case 7
1
D
1
2
C, D, F
3
D
4
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
5’6
The patient presents with localized swelling around tooth #2. There is an abscess, and a large carious lesion that extends to the pulp.
Weight
120 lbs.
B/P
115/65
Chief Complaint
Localized swelling, sharp pain
Medical History
Hypothyroidism
Case 9
Case 10
1
C
1
A
1
D
2
C
2
C
2
B, E, G
2
D
3
D
3
B
3
C
3
E
D
4
D
4
A
4
B
4
C
5
C
5
C
5
E
5
A
5
C
6
D
6
A
6
C
6
C
6
C
7
A
7
E
7
E
7
D
7
A
8
E
8
D
8
A, B, E
8
B
8
D
9
C
9
C
9
D
9
E
9
B
10
D
10
D
10
B
10
D
10
E
Question
Answer
CASE SCENARIO 1 Age
Case 8 B
ANSWER KEYS
ANSWER KEY— CASES 1— 5 Question Answer Question Answer Question Case 1
Case 2
Answer Question
Case 3
Answer
Case 4
Case 5
1
D
1
C
1
B
1
A
1
A
2
D
2
C
2
B, C, D
2
C
2
C
3
E
3
B, C, E
3
C
3
A
3
B
4
B
4
C
4
C
4
E
4
D
5
B, E, F
5
A
5
D
5
A
5
A, E D
Current Medications
Synthroid
6
C
6
C
6
B
6
D
6
Social History
Housewife
7
C
7
E
7
A
7
C
7
E
8
B
8
D
8
E
8
D
8
B
1. Which of the following is the most common cause of this patient’s autoimmune disease? A. Graves’ disease B. Thyroid adenoma C. Pituitary adenoma D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
9
A
9
D
9
D
9
E
9
C
10
D
10
A
10
D
10
D
10
A
Answer
Question
Answer
ANSWER KEY— CASES 6 — 10
2. Which of the following is the primary etiologic factor of dental caries? A. Lactobacillus sp. B. P. gingivalis C. Actinomyces sp. D. S. mutans E. T. denticola 3. Each of the following are symptoms of hypothyroidism EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cold intolerance B. Weight gain C. Mental slowing D. Dry skin E. Restlessness
Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Question Case 6
Case 7
1
D
1
2
C, D, F
3
D
4
Case 8
Case 9
Case 10
B
1
C
1
A
1
D
2
C
2
C
2
B, E, G
2
D
3
D
3
B
3
C
3
E
D
4
D
4
A
4
B
4
C
5
C
5
C
5
E
5
A
5
C
6
D
6
A
6
C
6
C
6
C
7
A
7
E
7
E
7
D
7
A
8
E
8
D
8
A, B, E
8
B
8
D
9
C
9
C
9
D
9
E
9
B
10
D
10
D
10
B
10
D
10
E
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion? A. B. C. D.
von Willebrand’s Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth? A. B. C. D.
F G H I
9. This patient’s poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions? A. Class I B. Class II, division I C. Class II, division II D. Class III 10. During this patient’s orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited. Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone? A. Woven B. Compact C. Cementum D. Endochondral E. Intramembranous
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion? A. B. C. D.
von Willebrand’s Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth? A. B. C. D.
F G H I
9. This patient’s poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions? A. Class I B. Class II, division I C. Class II, division II D. Class III 10. During this patient’s orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited. Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone? A. Woven B. Compact C. Cementum D. Endochondral E. Intramembranous
4. In primary hypothyroidism, the pituitary does not make enough TSH. Hypothyroidism affects males more than females. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. From the following list select the THREE symptoms associated with this patient’s autoimmune disorder. A. B. C. D.
Weight loss Dry skin Diarrhea Tearing
6. The abscess around tooth #2 may result in which of the following life-threatening situations? A. Hyperalgesia B. Hypoalgesia C. Ludwig’s angina D. Non-vital pulp E. Referred pain 7. Which of the following nerve fibers is responsible for the patient’s sharp pain around tooth #2? A. A alpha B. A beta C. A delta D. B E. C 8. If the patient elects root canal therapy for tooth #2, which of the following best describes the MOST likely presentation of the pulp canals? A. Three canals, one in each root B. Four canals, two in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, one in the palatal C. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the palatal D. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, two in the palatal E. Five canals, two in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the palatal
9. Which of the following is an acute inflammatory lesion consisting of a localized collection of pus surrounded by a fibrous wall? A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D.
Abscess Granuloma Cyst Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required. The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
CASE SCENARIO 2 Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’9
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
“The teeth in the back hurt!”
The patient presents for a 6-month recall appointment. He reports pain around tooth #18. Oral exam shows gingival swelling and erythema around partially erupted tooth #17.
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic acidosis
9. Which of the following is an acute inflammatory lesion consisting of a localized collection of pus surrounded by a fibrous wall?
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K dependent. A. B. C. D.
A. Cervical line B. Mesio-incisal line angle C. Incisal third D. Middle third E. Cervical third
2. Hemophilia is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Increased PTT Normal PT Normal Bleeding time Decreased INR
3. If this patient’s supragingival plaque continues to move apically, it will FIRST disrupt which of the following tissues? A. Principal fibers B. Sharpey’s fibers C. Attachment of gingival epithelium D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium E. Attachment of junctional epithelium
A. One B. Two – mesial and distal C. Two – buccal and lingual D. Three – mesial, distal, buccal E. Three – mesial, distal, lingual
CASE SCENARIO 2 Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’9
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
“The teeth in the back hurt!”
The patient presents for a 6-month recall appointment. He reports pain around tooth #18. Oral exam shows gingival swelling and erythema around partially erupted tooth #17.
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
1. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, you note that he was hospitalized 3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of the following? Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic acidosis
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. Christmas disease is characterized by a decrease in which of the following factors? A. II B. VII C. IX D. X E. XI
A. B. C. D.
Abscess Granuloma Cyst Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required. The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
A. B. C. D.
3. If this patient’s supragingival plaque continues to move apically, it will FIRST disrupt which of the following tissues?
6. To properly align the mandibular lateral incisor and the mandibular canine, the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the mandibular canine?
1. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, you note that he was hospitalized 3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of the following?
A. B. C. D.
Increased PTT Normal PT Normal Bleeding time Decreased INR
A. Principal fibers B. Sharpey’s fibers C. Attachment of gingival epithelium D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium E. Attachment of junctional epithelium
A. One B. Two – mesial and distal C. Two – buccal and lingual D. Three – mesial, distal, buccal E. Three – mesial, distal, lingual
A. B. C. D.
2. Hemophilia is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K dependent. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. Christmas disease is characterized by a decrease in which of the following factors? A. II B. VII C. IX D. X E. XI 6. To properly align the mandibular lateral incisor and the mandibular canine, the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the mandibular canine? A. Cervical line B. Mesio-incisal line angle C. Incisal third D. Middle third E. Cervical third
9. How many lobes are present in this patient’s tooth #9? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 10. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, he explains the brownish pigmentation has been present for most of his life. This is MOST likely due to which of the following? A. Tetracycline B. Smoking C. Nutritional deficiencies D. Fluorosis E. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
CASE SCENARIO 10 Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’3
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
“Gums bleed easily.”
Patient is undergoing orthodontic treatment. Oral hygiene is poor and there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known thumb sucker.
1. How many primary teeth remain in this patient’s mouth? A. 0 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 18
A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16 C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual dimension D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension 3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with beta-adrenergic agonists. A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle 4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Temporal Parotid Masseteric Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction, which of the following best describes how the cut should be made? A. B. C. D.
9. How many lobes are present in this patient’s tooth #9? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 10. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, he explains the brownish pigmentation has been present for most of his life. This is MOST likely due to which of the following? A. Tetracycline B. Smoking C. Nutritional deficiencies D. Fluorosis E. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
CASE SCENARIO 10 Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’3
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
“Gums bleed easily.”
Patient is undergoing orthodontic treatment. Oral hygiene is poor and there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known thumb sucker.
1. How many primary teeth remain in this patient’s mouth? A. 0 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 18
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see?
Mesio-distally through the crown at the level of the CEJ Mesio-distally through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the pulp horns
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see? A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16 C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual dimension D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension 3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with beta-adrenergic agonists. A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle 4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Temporal Parotid Masseteric Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction, which of the following best describes how the cut should be made? A. B. C. D.
Mesio-distally through the crown at the level of the CEJ Mesio-distally through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the pulp horns
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which of the following nodes? A. Submental B. Submandibular C. Superficial cervical D. Buccal E. Deep cervical 8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patient’s respiratory difficulties? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE E. IgA 9. Treatment of this patient’s respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Beta-2 agonist inhalers Steroids Mast cell stabilizers Parasympathetic stimulation
10. Common manifestations of an asthma attack include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Decreased surfactant B. Airway edema C. Increased mucous secretion D. Increased airway resistance E. Bronchospasm
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The patient’s hepatitis C is MOST likely to result in: A. Development of chronic hepatitis B. Development of fulminant hepatitis C. Development of hepatocellular carcinoma D. Asymptomatic carrier state E. Resolution with eventual clearing of the virus 6. You are concerned about transmission of the patient’s virus. If it were to be transferred, it would MOST likely involve which of the following routes? A. B. C. D.
Saliva contamination Oral-fecal Contaminated needle stick Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an oven type dry heat sterilizer? A. 273°F for 20 minutes B. 273°F for 40 minutes C. 375°F for 6-20 minutes D. 320°F for 1-2 hours E. 320°F for 20 minutes 8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth? A. Mandibular central incisors B. Maxillary central incisors C. Mandibular canines D. Mandibular lateral incisors E. Maxillary lateral incisors
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which of the following nodes? A. Submental B. Submandibular C. Superficial cervical D. Buccal E. Deep cervical 8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patient’s respiratory difficulties? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE E. IgA 9. Treatment of this patient’s respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Beta-2 agonist inhalers Steroids Mast cell stabilizers Parasympathetic stimulation
10. Common manifestations of an asthma attack include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Decreased surfactant B. Airway edema C. Increased mucous secretion D. Increased airway resistance E. Bronchospasm
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The patient’s hepatitis C is MOST likely to result in: A. Development of chronic hepatitis B. Development of fulminant hepatitis C. Development of hepatocellular carcinoma D. Asymptomatic carrier state E. Resolution with eventual clearing of the virus 6. You are concerned about transmission of the patient’s virus. If it were to be transferred, it would MOST likely involve which of the following routes? A. B. C. D.
Saliva contamination Oral-fecal Contaminated needle stick Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an oven type dry heat sterilizer? A. 273°F for 20 minutes B. 273°F for 40 minutes C. 375°F for 6-20 minutes D. 320°F for 1-2 hours E. 320°F for 20 minutes 8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth? A. Mandibular central incisors B. Maxillary central incisors C. Mandibular canines D. Mandibular lateral incisors E. Maxillary lateral incisors
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
5”7
Height
6’2
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
“I just want a nice smile.”
Patient presents with chipped crowns on teeth #8 and #10. The maxillary anterior teeth show enamel mottling and discoloration.
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
“There is a clicking noise when I close my mouth.”
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
The patient presents with bilateral pain in the TMJ upon closing. You notice tooth #30 has a fractured DL cusp and the remnants of an occlusal amalgam restoration. #30 has been endodontically treated.
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C. A. Non-enveloped virus B. Enveloped virus C. Picornavirus D. Deltavirus E. Flavivirus F. ds DNA G. ss RNA
A. Cardiac failure B. Liver failure C. Transient ischemic attack D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Renal failure 2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension.
3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Fatigue B. Myalgia C. Cold intolerance D. Constipation E. Jaundice
A. Decreased smooth muscle cell growth B. Smoking C. Decreased total cross-sectional area of capillaries and arteries D. Obesity E. Physical activity F. Increased arteriolar and capillary density 3. The patient’s blood pressure is classified as: A. B. C. D.
Normal Prehypertension Hypertension, Stage 1 Hypertension Stage 2
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
5”7
Height
6’2
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
“I just want a nice smile.”
Patient presents with chipped crowns on teeth #8 and #10. The maxillary anterior teeth show enamel mottling and discoloration.
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
“There is a clicking noise when I close my mouth.”
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
The patient presents with bilateral pain in the TMJ upon closing. You notice tooth #30 has a fractured DL cusp and the remnants of an occlusal amalgam restoration. #30 has been endodontically treated.
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C. A. Non-enveloped virus B. Enveloped virus C. Picornavirus D. Deltavirus E. Flavivirus F. ds DNA G. ss RNA 3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Fatigue B. Myalgia C. Cold intolerance D. Constipation E. Jaundice
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cardiac failure B. Liver failure C. Transient ischemic attack D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Renal failure 2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension. A. Decreased smooth muscle cell growth B. Smoking C. Decreased total cross-sectional area of capillaries and arteries D. Obesity E. Physical activity F. Increased arteriolar and capillary density 3. The patient’s blood pressure is classified as: A. B. C. D.
Normal Prehypertension Hypertension, Stage 1 Hypertension Stage 2
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patient’s TMJ is unlikely to be present? A. Fibrocartilaginous layer B. Fibrous articular layer C. Proliferative zone D. Subarticular zone E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
9. The patient’s decrease in taste sensitivity is often referred to as:
A. Rhomboidal B. Circular C. Square D. Trapezoidal E. Rectangular 6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is toward the: A. B. C. D.
Mesial Distal Facial Lingual
A. Rounded B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue C. Located in a “V” arrangement on the back of the tongue D. Do not contain taste buds E. Contain taste buds F. Innervated by CN X
A. B. C. D.
Ageusia Hypergeusia Dysgeusia Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most likely consequence? A. B. C. D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3 Loss of canine protected occlusion Loss of vertical dimension Mesial drift of tooth #31
8. The temporomandibular joint can be classified as: A. Synarthrosis B. Amphiarthrosis C. Fibrous D. Cartilaginous E. Synovial 9. The clicking noise the patient experiences is due to the condyle moving anteriorly past the disc. This noise can also be heard with lateral excursion to the contralateral side. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patient’s TMJ is unlikely to be present? A. Fibrocartilaginous layer B. Fibrous articular layer C. Proliferative zone D. Subarticular zone E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
9. The patient’s decrease in taste sensitivity is often referred to as:
A. Rhomboidal B. Circular C. Square D. Trapezoidal E. Rectangular 6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is toward the: A. B. C. D.
Mesial Distal Facial Lingual
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most likely consequence? A. B. C. D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3 Loss of canine protected occlusion Loss of vertical dimension Mesial drift of tooth #31
8. The temporomandibular joint can be classified as: A. Synarthrosis B. Amphiarthrosis C. Fibrous D. Cartilaginous E. Synovial 9. The clicking noise the patient experiences is due to the condyle moving anteriorly past the disc. This noise can also be heard with lateral excursion to the contralateral side. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Rounded B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue C. Located in a “V” arrangement on the back of the tongue D. Do not contain taste buds E. Contain taste buds F. Innervated by CN X
A. B. C. D.
Ageusia Hypergeusia Dysgeusia Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. Which of the following organic compounds is a blood ketone? A. B. C. D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid Acetoacetic acid Glucagon Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting glucagon? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Acinar E. Centroacinar 5. The patient’s chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following pathologies? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Scleroderma C. Reiter’s syndrome D. Bechet’s syndrome E. Sjogren’s syndrome 6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an): A. B. C. D.
Increased number of oral bacteria Increased number of oral bacteria resistant to antibiotics Shift to more acidogenic microflora Shift to less acidogenic microflora
7. A panoramic radiograph reveals excessive calcified tissue at the root apices of teeth #24 and #25. This is known as which of the following? A. Concrescence B. Enamel pearls C. Ankylosis D. Cemental pearls E. Hypercementosis
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. Which of the following organic compounds is a blood ketone? A. B. C. D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid Acetoacetic acid Glucagon Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting glucagon? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Acinar E. Centroacinar 5. The patient’s chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following pathologies? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Scleroderma C. Reiter’s syndrome D. Bechet’s syndrome E. Sjogren’s syndrome 6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an): A. B. C. D.
Increased number of oral bacteria Increased number of oral bacteria resistant to antibiotics Shift to more acidogenic microflora Shift to less acidogenic microflora
7. A panoramic radiograph reveals excessive calcified tissue at the root apices of teeth #24 and #25. This is known as which of the following? A. Concrescence B. Enamel pearls C. Ankylosis D. Cemental pearls E. Hypercementosis
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see? A. The roots are narrowly separated B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4 Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
4’11
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
“My denture doesn’t fit right.”
Medical History
History of infective endocarditis Allergic to Penicillin
The patient presents with an ill-fitting denture. Upon removal, you notice an asymptomatic, erythematous cobblestone-like lesion on the mucosal tissue of the hard palate. Bone resorption is apparent.
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
1. The hallmark symptom of infective endocarditis is: A. Fever B. Fatigue C. Malaise D. Headache E. Night sweats 2. Subacute (Bacterial) Endocarditis is typically caused by which of the following? A. B. C. D.
S. mutans Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus viridans Actinomyces sp.
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see? A. The roots are narrowly separated B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4 Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
4’11
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
“My denture doesn’t fit right.”
Medical History
History of infective endocarditis Allergic to Penicillin
The patient presents with an ill-fitting denture. Upon removal, you notice an asymptomatic, erythematous cobblestone-like lesion on the mucosal tissue of the hard palate. Bone resorption is apparent.
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
1. The hallmark symptom of infective endocarditis is: A. Fever B. Fatigue C. Malaise D. Headache E. Night sweats 2. Subacute (Bacterial) Endocarditis is typically caused by which of the following? A. B. C. D.
S. mutans Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus viridans Actinomyces sp.
3. The patient’s medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patient’s dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. 2.0 g Amoxicillin IM or IV 1 hour before procedure B. 2.0 g Amoxicillin PO 1 hour before procedure C. 2.0 g Ampicillin PO 30 minutes before procedure D. 350 mg Cephalexin PO 1 hour before procedure E. 600 mg Clindamycin PO 1 hour before procedure
A. Reticular fibers B. Keratin fibers C. Type I collagen fibers D. Type II and III collagen fibers E. Oxytalan fibers
A. B. C. D.
Appropriate personal protective equipment Engineering controls Work practice controls Hand washing
CASE SCENARIO 8
5. The lesion found on the patient’s hard palate is MOST likely a: A. Papillary hyperplasia B. Tori C. Fibroma D. Adenoma E. Sarcoma 6. The bone resorption seen in this patient may be enhanced with which of the following hormones? A. Estrogen B. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Parathyroid hormone E. Thyroid stimulating hormone 7. Continued abrasion of dentures on underlying mucosa will most likely result in: A. B. C. D.
Lining mucosa becoming gingival mucosa Lining mucosa becoming masticatory mucosa Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized Masticatory mucosa becoming parakeratinized
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
5’7
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with a “dry mouth” and “loss of taste.” She also complains of dry eyes.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
“My mouth is dry.”
Medical History
Mother has diabetes BMI is 32
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of: A. B. C. D.
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus (type I) Diabetes mellitus (type II) Gestational diabetes
3. The patient’s medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patient’s dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. 2.0 g Amoxicillin IM or IV 1 hour before procedure B. 2.0 g Amoxicillin PO 1 hour before procedure C. 2.0 g Ampicillin PO 30 minutes before procedure D. 350 mg Cephalexin PO 1 hour before procedure E. 600 mg Clindamycin PO 1 hour before procedure
A. Reticular fibers B. Keratin fibers C. Type I collagen fibers D. Type II and III collagen fibers E. Oxytalan fibers
A. B. C. D.
Appropriate personal protective equipment Engineering controls Work practice controls Hand washing
CASE SCENARIO 8
5. The lesion found on the patient’s hard palate is MOST likely a: A. Papillary hyperplasia B. Tori C. Fibroma D. Adenoma E. Sarcoma 6. The bone resorption seen in this patient may be enhanced with which of the following hormones? A. Estrogen B. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Parathyroid hormone E. Thyroid stimulating hormone 7. Continued abrasion of dentures on underlying mucosa will most likely result in: A. B. C. D.
Lining mucosa becoming gingival mucosa Lining mucosa becoming masticatory mucosa Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized Masticatory mucosa becoming parakeratinized
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
5’7
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with a “dry mouth” and “loss of taste.” She also complains of dry eyes.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
“My mouth is dry.”
Medical History
Mother has diabetes BMI is 32
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of: A. B. C. D.
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus (type I) Diabetes mellitus (type II) Gestational diabetes
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns with these symptoms? A. B. C. D.
Membranous Pseudomembranous Atrophic Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the cytoplasm. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
6. Which of the following proteins mediate attachment of HIV to CD4 T cells? A. gp120 B. gp8 C. gp41 D. p24 E. p27 7. The combination of the protein capsid and the nucleic acid is known as the:
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST describes this occlusal classification? A. B. C. D.
Class I Class II, division I Class II, division II Class III
9. Penicillins work by which of the following mechanisms? A. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine B. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunits C. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits D. Inhibiting DNA synthesis E. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by blocking transpeptidase 10. Psuedomembranous colitis, an overgrowth of C. difficile, is associated with which of the following antibiotics? A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Clindamycin E. Erythromycin
A. Capsid B. Lipid envelope C. Glycoprotein spike D. Matrix protein E. Nucleocapsid 8. The patient often concocts drinks containing lemons and limes and is known to snack from time to time. The loss of tooth structure is MOST likely due to which of the following dental injuries? A. B. C. D.
Attrition Abrasion Abfraction Erosion
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns with these symptoms? A. B. C. D.
Membranous Pseudomembranous Atrophic Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the cytoplasm. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
6. Which of the following proteins mediate attachment of HIV to CD4 T cells? A. gp120 B. gp8 C. gp41 D. p24 E. p27 7. The combination of the protein capsid and the nucleic acid is known as the: A. Capsid B. Lipid envelope C. Glycoprotein spike D. Matrix protein E. Nucleocapsid 8. The patient often concocts drinks containing lemons and limes and is known to snack from time to time. The loss of tooth structure is MOST likely due to which of the following dental injuries? A. B. C. D.
Attrition Abrasion Abfraction Erosion
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST describes this occlusal classification? A. B. C. D.
Class I Class II, division I Class II, division II Class III
9. Penicillins work by which of the following mechanisms? A. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine B. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunits C. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits D. Inhibiting DNA synthesis E. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by blocking transpeptidase 10. Psuedomembranous colitis, an overgrowth of C. difficile, is associated with which of the following antibiotics? A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Clindamycin E. Erythromycin
CASE SCENARIO 5 Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’2
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
The patient presents for an emergency appointment. A hockey puck struck his anterior maxilla. Upon examination, you note bleeding around the maxillary central incisors and 1.5 mm of mobility buccolingually, but no vertical mobility.
Chief Complaint
“My front teeth hurt.”
Medical History
Scarlet fever at age 7
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph reveals congenitally missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria?
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5”11
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with thick cream-colored deposits on the dorsal aspect of his tongue.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Oral examination reveals “There are white spots on loss of tooth structure on my tongue.” the facial aspect of his anterior teeth. HIV+
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
1. The cream-colored deposits located on the patient’s tongue can be easily wiped off. This condition is MOST likely due to: A. B. C. D.
Clostridium perfringens Candida albicans Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus
2. The patient’s chief complaint is often associated with immunosuppression. It may also be associated with an ill-fitting denture, prolonged use of antibiotics, or periodontitis.
A. Group A Streptococci B. Group B Streptococci C. Group C Streptococci D. Staphylococci aureus E. Staphylococci epidermidis 2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction) of a maxillary lateral incisor? A. Incisal third B. Cervical line C. Middle third D. Cervical third 3. According to the Miller classification, this patient’s mobility would be best described as: A. B. C. D.
CASE SCENARIO 7
A. D. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. In treating the patient’s chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Clotrimazole B. Topical nystatin C. Fluconazole D. Cephalosporin E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
Class I Class II Class III Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 5 Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’2
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
The patient presents for an emergency appointment. A hockey puck struck his anterior maxilla. Upon examination, you note bleeding around the maxillary central incisors and 1.5 mm of mobility buccolingually, but no vertical mobility.
Chief Complaint
“My front teeth hurt.”
Medical History
Scarlet fever at age 7
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph reveals congenitally missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria? A. Group A Streptococci B. Group B Streptococci C. Group C Streptococci D. Staphylococci aureus E. Staphylococci epidermidis 2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction) of a maxillary lateral incisor? A. Incisal third B. Cervical line C. Middle third D. Cervical third 3. According to the Miller classification, this patient’s mobility would be best described as: A. B. C. D.
Class I Class II Class III Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 7 Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5”11
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with thick cream-colored deposits on the dorsal aspect of his tongue.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Oral examination reveals “There are white spots on loss of tooth structure on my tongue.” the facial aspect of his anterior teeth. HIV+
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
1. The cream-colored deposits located on the patient’s tongue can be easily wiped off. This condition is MOST likely due to: A. B. C. D.
Clostridium perfringens Candida albicans Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus
2. The patient’s chief complaint is often associated with immunosuppression. It may also be associated with an ill-fitting denture, prolonged use of antibiotics, or periodontitis. A. D. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. In treating the patient’s chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Clotrimazole B. Topical nystatin C. Fluconazole D. Cephalosporin E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the: A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid 8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Mandibular canine B. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular first premolar 9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely which of the following glands? A. Buccal B. Parotid C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Posterior palatal 10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular central incisor C. Mandibular first premolar D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patient’s lips. Which of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding? A. Nasopalatine artery B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery D. Labial branches of the facial artery E. Nasal branches of the facial artery 5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors. A. Nasopalatine nerve B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve D. Middle superior alveolar nerve E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve 6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Mesiodens B. Peg lateral incisor C. Maxillary sinus D. Incisive foramen E. Greater palatine canal 7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root formation D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation 8. The patient’s mother is concerned about the “bumps on the front teeth.” These round extensions of enamel are called: A. B. C. D.
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the: A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid 8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Mandibular canine B. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular first premolar 9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely which of the following glands? A. Buccal B. Parotid C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Posterior palatal 10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular central incisor C. Mandibular first premolar D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine
Lobes Mamelons A cingulum Tubercles
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patient’s lips. Which of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding? A. Nasopalatine artery B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery D. Labial branches of the facial artery E. Nasal branches of the facial artery 5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors. A. Nasopalatine nerve B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve D. Middle superior alveolar nerve E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve 6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Mesiodens B. Peg lateral incisor C. Maxillary sinus D. Incisive foramen E. Greater palatine canal 7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root formation D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation 8. The patient’s mother is concerned about the “bumps on the front teeth.” These round extensions of enamel are called: A. B. C. D.
Lobes Mamelons A cingulum Tubercles
9. Streptococci are classified by lysis of erythrocytes when plated on blood agar. This process is called: A. B. C. D.
Cytolysis Plasmolysis Hemolysis Enterolysis
10. Heredity is most frequently responsible for congenitally missing teeth. In this case, you would want to retain the primary second molar for as long as possible. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
CASE SCENARIO 6 Age
Unknown
Scenario
Sex
Unknown
Height
Unknown
Weight
Unknown
B/P
Unknown
Chief Complaint
Unknown
Medical History
Unknown
You are called in to assist in the postmortem identification of an unknown person. Parts of a cadaver are presented, including portions of the skull with bones, teeth, and intact soft tissue.
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Unknown
Examination of the skull reveals a fracture running through the pterygomaxillary fissure.
1. Which of the following structures is MOST likely affected by the fracture? A. B. C. D.
Sphenopalatine artery Greater palatine nerve Lesser palatine nerve Posterior superior alveolar nerve
9. Streptococci are classified by lysis of erythrocytes when plated on blood agar. This process is called: A. B. C. D.
Cytolysis Plasmolysis Hemolysis Enterolysis
10. Heredity is most frequently responsible for congenitally missing teeth. In this case, you would want to retain the primary second molar for as long as possible. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
CASE SCENARIO 6 Age
Unknown
Scenario
Sex
Unknown
Height
Unknown
Weight
Unknown
B/P
Unknown
Chief Complaint
Unknown
Medical History
Unknown
You are called in to assist in the postmortem identification of an unknown person. Parts of a cadaver are presented, including portions of the skull with bones, teeth, and intact soft tissue.
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Unknown
Examination of the skull reveals a fracture running through the pterygomaxillary fissure.
1. Which of the following structures is MOST likely affected by the fracture? A. B. C. D.
Sphenopalatine artery Greater palatine nerve Lesser palatine nerve Posterior superior alveolar nerve
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with the malar bone. A. Located in the lower and medial part of the face B. Prominence of the frontal bone C. Part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit D. Parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae E. Articulates with the frontal bone and the temporal bone F. Articulates with the maxilla and the temporal bone 3. The orbit is composed of each of the following bones EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Sphenoid B. Zygoma C. Ethmoid D. Temporal E. Lacrimal 4. The ophthalmic artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, is the major blood supply to the orbit and eye. It enters the orbit with the optic nerve via the optic canal. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The greater wing of the sphenoid contains each of the following foramina EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Rotundum B. Ovale C. Lacerum D. Spinosum 6. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the sulcus chiasmaticus. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions? A. “Tunnel” vision B. Loss of sense of taste C. Loss of sense of smell D. Damage to optic chiasm E. Damage to speech areas
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with the malar bone. A. Located in the lower and medial part of the face B. Prominence of the frontal bone C. Part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit D. Parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae E. Articulates with the frontal bone and the temporal bone F. Articulates with the maxilla and the temporal bone 3. The orbit is composed of each of the following bones EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Sphenoid B. Zygoma C. Ethmoid D. Temporal E. Lacrimal 4. The ophthalmic artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, is the major blood supply to the orbit and eye. It enters the orbit with the optic nerve via the optic canal. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The greater wing of the sphenoid contains each of the following foramina EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Rotundum B. Ovale C. Lacerum D. Spinosum 6. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the sulcus chiasmaticus. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions? A. “Tunnel” vision B. Loss of sense of taste C. Loss of sense of smell D. Damage to optic chiasm E. Damage to speech areas
2. From the following list select FOUR items associated with the malar bone. A. Located in the lower and medial part of the face B. Prominence of the frontal bone C. Part of the lateral wall and floor of the orbit D. Parts of the temporal and infratemporal fossae E. Articulates with the frontal bone and the temporal bone F. Articulates with the maxilla and the temporal bone 3. The orbit is composed of each of the following bones EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Sphenoid B. Zygoma C. Ethmoid D. Temporal E. Lacrimal 4. The ophthalmic artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, is the major blood supply to the orbit and eye. It enters the orbit with the optic nerve via the optic canal. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The greater wing of the sphenoid contains each of the following foramina EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Rotundum B. Ovale C. Lacerum D. Spinosum 6. Examination of a remnant of the cranial base exhibits a fracture of the sulcus chiasmaticus. Damage to this area typically results in which of the following conditions? A. “Tunnel” vision B. Loss of sense of taste C. Loss of sense of smell D. Damage to optic chiasm E. Damage to speech areas
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the: A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid 8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Mandibular canine B. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular first premolar 9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely which of the following glands? A. Buccal B. Parotid C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Posterior palatal 10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular central incisor C. Mandibular first premolar D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patient’s lips. Which of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding? A. Nasopalatine artery B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery D. Labial branches of the facial artery E. Nasal branches of the facial artery 5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors. A. Nasopalatine nerve B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve D. Middle superior alveolar nerve E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve 6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Mesiodens B. Peg lateral incisor C. Maxillary sinus D. Incisive foramen E. Greater palatine canal 7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root formation D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation 8. The patient’s mother is concerned about the “bumps on the front teeth.” These round extensions of enamel are called: A. B. C. D.
7. Examination of a portion of the mandible shows a torn piece of muscle attached to the zygomatic process of the maxilla. This is MOST likely the: A. Masseter B. Temporalis C. Medial pterygoid D. Lateral pterygoid 8. You examine a tooth with a square occlusal shape and a prominent mesiolingual developmental groove. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Mandibular canine B. Maxillary first premolar C. Mandibular first molar D. Mandibular second premolar E. Mandibular first premolar 9. One piece of soft tissue contains obvious glandular tissue. Histological examination reveals that it is composed of purely mucous acini. This is MOST likely which of the following glands? A. Buccal B. Parotid C. Sublingual D. Submandibular E. Posterior palatal 10. You examine a tooth with a measured root length of 13.5 mm. This tooth is MOST likely a: A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular central incisor C. Mandibular first premolar D. Maxillary canine E. Mandibular canine
Lobes Mamelons A cingulum Tubercles
4. Upon further examination, you notice laceration of the patient’s lips. Which of the following arteries is most likely the source of the bleeding? A. Nasopalatine artery B. Buccal branch of the maxillary artery C. Incisive branches of the infraorbital artery D. Labial branches of the facial artery E. Nasal branches of the facial artery 5. From the following list select TWO nerves associated with the maxillary central incisors. A. Nasopalatine nerve B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve C. Greater (anterior) palatine nerve D. Middle superior alveolar nerve E. Anterior superior alveolar nerve 6. A radiograph of the maxillary central incisors reveals a radiolucency between the roots of teeth #8 and #9. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this? A. Mesiodens B. Peg lateral incisor C. Maxillary sinus D. Incisive foramen E. Greater palatine canal 7. A panoramic radiograph of the patient reveals each of the following features EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Permanent maxillary central incisors with complete root formation B. Permanent mandibular central incisors with complete root formation C. Partially erupted permanent mandibular canines with incomplete root formation D. Fully erupted mandibular first molars with complete root formation E. Partially erupted mandibular first premolars with complete root formation 8. The patient’s mother is concerned about the “bumps on the front teeth.” These round extensions of enamel are called: A. B. C. D.
Lobes Mamelons A cingulum Tubercles
CASE SCENARIO 5 Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’2
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
The patient presents for an emergency appointment. A hockey puck struck his anterior maxilla. Upon examination, you note bleeding around the maxillary central incisors and 1.5 mm of mobility buccolingually, but no vertical mobility.
Chief Complaint
“My front teeth hurt.”
Medical History
Scarlet fever at age 7
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph reveals congenitally missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria?
Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5”11
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with thick cream-colored deposits on the dorsal aspect of his tongue.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Oral examination reveals “There are white spots on loss of tooth structure on my tongue.” the facial aspect of his anterior teeth. HIV+
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
1. The cream-colored deposits located on the patient’s tongue can be easily wiped off. This condition is MOST likely due to: A. B. C. D.
Clostridium perfringens Candida albicans Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus
2. The patient’s chief complaint is often associated with immunosuppression. It may also be associated with an ill-fitting denture, prolonged use of antibiotics, or periodontitis.
A. Group A Streptococci B. Group B Streptococci C. Group C Streptococci D. Staphylococci aureus E. Staphylococci epidermidis 2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction) of a maxillary lateral incisor? A. Incisal third B. Cervical line C. Middle third D. Cervical third 3. According to the Miller classification, this patient’s mobility would be best described as: A. B. C. D.
CASE SCENARIO 7
A. D. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. In treating the patient’s chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Clotrimazole B. Topical nystatin C. Fluconazole D. Cephalosporin E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
Class I Class II Class III Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 5 Age
10 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’2
Weight
110 lbs.
B/P
110/75
The patient presents for an emergency appointment. A hockey puck struck his anterior maxilla. Upon examination, you note bleeding around the maxillary central incisors and 1.5 mm of mobility buccolingually, but no vertical mobility.
Chief Complaint
“My front teeth hurt.”
Medical History
Scarlet fever at age 7
Current Medications
None
Social History
Student Plays hockey
A panoramic radiograph reveals congenitally missing mandibular second premolars
1. Scarlet fever is a disease caused by infection with which of the following bacteria? A. Group A Streptococci B. Group B Streptococci C. Group C Streptococci D. Staphylococci aureus E. Staphylococci epidermidis 2. Which of the following describes the distal contact (inciso-cervical direction) of a maxillary lateral incisor? A. Incisal third B. Cervical line C. Middle third D. Cervical third 3. According to the Miller classification, this patient’s mobility would be best described as: A. B. C. D.
Class I Class II Class III Class IV
CASE SCENARIO 7 Age
45 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5”11
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with thick cream-colored deposits on the dorsal aspect of his tongue.
B/P
125/80
Medical History
Oral examination reveals “There are white spots on loss of tooth structure on my tongue.” the facial aspect of his anterior teeth. HIV+
Current Medications
Combivir
Social History
Bartender
Chief Complaint
1. The cream-colored deposits located on the patient’s tongue can be easily wiped off. This condition is MOST likely due to: A. B. C. D.
Clostridium perfringens Candida albicans Pseudomonas aeruginosa Staphylococcus aureus
2. The patient’s chief complaint is often associated with immunosuppression. It may also be associated with an ill-fitting denture, prolonged use of antibiotics, or periodontitis. A. D. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. In treating the patient’s chief complaint, a dentist might consider each of the following medications EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Clotrimazole B. Topical nystatin C. Fluconazole D. Cephalosporin E. Chlorhexidine gluconate
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns with these symptoms? A. B. C. D.
Membranous Pseudomembranous Atrophic Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the cytoplasm. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
6. Which of the following proteins mediate attachment of HIV to CD4 T cells? A. gp120 B. gp8 C. gp41 D. p24 E. p27 7. The combination of the protein capsid and the nucleic acid is known as the:
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST describes this occlusal classification? A. B. C. D.
Class I Class II, division I Class II, division II Class III
9. Penicillins work by which of the following mechanisms? A. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine B. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunits C. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits D. Inhibiting DNA synthesis E. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by blocking transpeptidase 10. Psuedomembranous colitis, an overgrowth of C. difficile, is associated with which of the following antibiotics? A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Clindamycin E. Erythromycin
A. Capsid B. Lipid envelope C. Glycoprotein spike D. Matrix protein E. Nucleocapsid 8. The patient often concocts drinks containing lemons and limes and is known to snack from time to time. The loss of tooth structure is MOST likely due to which of the following dental injuries? A. B. C. D.
Attrition Abrasion Abfraction Erosion
4. The patient returns three months later with whitish plaques on the buccal mucosa near the commissures. It resembles oral leukoplakia, and cannot be removed. Which of the following classifications of candidiasis MOST closely aligns with these symptoms? A. B. C. D.
Membranous Pseudomembranous Atrophic Chronic hyperplastic
5. HIV contains reverse transcriptase and two strands of RNA. HIV replicates in the cytoplasm. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
6. Which of the following proteins mediate attachment of HIV to CD4 T cells? A. gp120 B. gp8 C. gp41 D. p24 E. p27 7. The combination of the protein capsid and the nucleic acid is known as the: A. Capsid B. Lipid envelope C. Glycoprotein spike D. Matrix protein E. Nucleocapsid 8. The patient often concocts drinks containing lemons and limes and is known to snack from time to time. The loss of tooth structure is MOST likely due to which of the following dental injuries? A. B. C. D.
Attrition Abrasion Abfraction Erosion
8. The patient elects to have her ill-fitting dentures remade. The teeth in the new denture have been set up so the MB cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes distally to the MB groove of the mandibular first molar. Which of the following BEST describes this occlusal classification? A. B. C. D.
Class I Class II, division I Class II, division II Class III
9. Penicillins work by which of the following mechanisms? A. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to D-alanyl-D-alanine B. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunits C. Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 30S ribosomal subunits D. Inhibiting DNA synthesis E. Inhibiting peptidoglycan cross-linking by blocking transpeptidase 10. Psuedomembranous colitis, an overgrowth of C. difficile, is associated with which of the following antibiotics? A. Amoxicillin B. Doxycycline C. Cephalexin D. Clindamycin E. Erythromycin
3. The patient’s medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patient’s dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. 2.0 g Amoxicillin IM or IV 1 hour before procedure B. 2.0 g Amoxicillin PO 1 hour before procedure C. 2.0 g Ampicillin PO 30 minutes before procedure D. 350 mg Cephalexin PO 1 hour before procedure E. 600 mg Clindamycin PO 1 hour before procedure
A. Reticular fibers B. Keratin fibers C. Type I collagen fibers D. Type II and III collagen fibers E. Oxytalan fibers
A. B. C. D.
Appropriate personal protective equipment Engineering controls Work practice controls Hand washing
CASE SCENARIO 8
5. The lesion found on the patient’s hard palate is MOST likely a: A. Papillary hyperplasia B. Tori C. Fibroma D. Adenoma E. Sarcoma 6. The bone resorption seen in this patient may be enhanced with which of the following hormones? A. Estrogen B. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Parathyroid hormone E. Thyroid stimulating hormone 7. Continued abrasion of dentures on underlying mucosa will most likely result in: A. B. C. D.
Lining mucosa becoming gingival mucosa Lining mucosa becoming masticatory mucosa Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized Masticatory mucosa becoming parakeratinized
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
5’7
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with a “dry mouth” and “loss of taste.” She also complains of dry eyes.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
“My mouth is dry.”
Medical History
Mother has diabetes BMI is 32
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of: A. B. C. D.
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus (type I) Diabetes mellitus (type II) Gestational diabetes
3. The patient’s medical history requires antibiotic prophylaxis before dental procedures. Splinter hemorrhages under fingernails are a common finding in patients with infective endocarditis. A. Both statements are true B. Both statements are false C. The first statement is true, the second is false D. The first statement is false, the second is true
9. The loss of tooth structure has exposed the patient’s dentin. The organic component of dentin is composed primarily of:
4. Which of the following is an appropriate prescription for antibiotic prophylaxis for this patient?
10. Which of the following is the most important infection control practice for reducing nosocomial infections?
A. 2.0 g Amoxicillin IM or IV 1 hour before procedure B. 2.0 g Amoxicillin PO 1 hour before procedure C. 2.0 g Ampicillin PO 30 minutes before procedure D. 350 mg Cephalexin PO 1 hour before procedure E. 600 mg Clindamycin PO 1 hour before procedure
A. Reticular fibers B. Keratin fibers C. Type I collagen fibers D. Type II and III collagen fibers E. Oxytalan fibers
A. B. C. D.
Appropriate personal protective equipment Engineering controls Work practice controls Hand washing
CASE SCENARIO 8
5. The lesion found on the patient’s hard palate is MOST likely a: A. Papillary hyperplasia B. Tori C. Fibroma D. Adenoma E. Sarcoma 6. The bone resorption seen in this patient may be enhanced with which of the following hormones? A. Estrogen B. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Parathyroid hormone E. Thyroid stimulating hormone 7. Continued abrasion of dentures on underlying mucosa will most likely result in: A. B. C. D.
Lining mucosa becoming gingival mucosa Lining mucosa becoming masticatory mucosa Gingival mucosa becoming orthokeratinized Masticatory mucosa becoming parakeratinized
Age
40 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
5’7
Weight
195 lbs.
The patient presents with a “dry mouth” and “loss of taste.” She also complains of dry eyes.
B/P
150/90
Chief Complaint
“My mouth is dry.”
Medical History
Mother has diabetes BMI is 32
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Waitress
1. While reviewing the medical history, you learn that the patient recently began expressing the following symptoms: polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, and blurred vision. This is MOST likely the result of: A. B. C. D.
Diabetes insipidus Diabetes mellitus (type I) Diabetes mellitus (type II) Gestational diabetes
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. Which of the following organic compounds is a blood ketone? A. B. C. D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid Acetoacetic acid Glucagon Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting glucagon? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Acinar E. Centroacinar 5. The patient’s chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following pathologies? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Scleroderma C. Reiter’s syndrome D. Bechet’s syndrome E. Sjogren’s syndrome 6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an): A. B. C. D.
Increased number of oral bacteria Increased number of oral bacteria resistant to antibiotics Shift to more acidogenic microflora Shift to less acidogenic microflora
7. A panoramic radiograph reveals excessive calcified tissue at the root apices of teeth #24 and #25. This is known as which of the following? A. Concrescence B. Enamel pearls C. Ankylosis D. Cemental pearls E. Hypercementosis
2. Blood insulin is absent in type I diabetes mellitus. Blood insulin levels may be normal or decreased in type II diabetes mellitus. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
3. Which of the following organic compounds is a blood ketone? A. B. C. D.
Alpha-hydroxybutyric acid Acetoacetic acid Glucagon Delta-hydroxybutyric acid
4. Which of the following cells found in the pancreas is responsible for secreting glucagon? A. Alpha B. Beta C. Delta D. Acinar E. Centroacinar 5. The patient’s chief complaint is MOST likely due to which of the following pathologies? A. Systemic lupus erythematosus B. Scleroderma C. Reiter’s syndrome D. Bechet’s syndrome E. Sjogren’s syndrome 6. Decreased salivation can cause rampant caries due to a(an): A. B. C. D.
Increased number of oral bacteria Increased number of oral bacteria resistant to antibiotics Shift to more acidogenic microflora Shift to less acidogenic microflora
7. A panoramic radiograph reveals excessive calcified tissue at the root apices of teeth #24 and #25. This is known as which of the following? A. Concrescence B. Enamel pearls C. Ankylosis D. Cemental pearls E. Hypercementosis
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see? A. The roots are narrowly separated B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4 Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
4’11
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
“My denture doesn’t fit right.”
Medical History
History of infective endocarditis Allergic to Penicillin
The patient presents with an ill-fitting denture. Upon removal, you notice an asymptomatic, erythematous cobblestone-like lesion on the mucosal tissue of the hard palate. Bone resorption is apparent.
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
1. The hallmark symptom of infective endocarditis is: A. Fever B. Fatigue C. Malaise D. Headache E. Night sweats 2. Subacute (Bacterial) Endocarditis is typically caused by which of the following? A. B. C. D.
S. mutans Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus viridans Actinomyces sp.
10. During your examination, you notice a vertical root fracture on #30. It is determined nonrestorable, and is extracted. Which of the following root morphologies would you expect to see? A. The roots are narrowly separated B. The distal root is broadest bucco-lingually C. Only the mesial root exhibits a concavity D. The root trunk is shorter than the mandibular second molar
CASE SCENARIO 4 Age
69 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Female
Height
4’11
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
135/85
Chief Complaint
“My denture doesn’t fit right.”
Medical History
History of infective endocarditis Allergic to Penicillin
The patient presents with an ill-fitting denture. Upon removal, you notice an asymptomatic, erythematous cobblestone-like lesion on the mucosal tissue of the hard palate. Bone resorption is apparent.
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Retired
1. The hallmark symptom of infective endocarditis is: A. Fever B. Fatigue C. Malaise D. Headache E. Night sweats 2. Subacute (Bacterial) Endocarditis is typically caused by which of the following? A. B. C. D.
S. mutans Staphylococcus aureus Streptococcus viridans Actinomyces sp.
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patient’s TMJ is unlikely to be present? A. Fibrocartilaginous layer B. Fibrous articular layer C. Proliferative zone D. Subarticular zone E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
9. The patient’s decrease in taste sensitivity is often referred to as:
A. Rhomboidal B. Circular C. Square D. Trapezoidal E. Rectangular 6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is toward the: A. B. C. D.
Mesial Distal Facial Lingual
A. Rounded B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue C. Located in a “V” arrangement on the back of the tongue D. Do not contain taste buds E. Contain taste buds F. Innervated by CN X
A. B. C. D.
Ageusia Hypergeusia Dysgeusia Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most likely consequence? A. B. C. D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3 Loss of canine protected occlusion Loss of vertical dimension Mesial drift of tooth #31
8. The temporomandibular joint can be classified as: A. Synarthrosis B. Amphiarthrosis C. Fibrous D. Cartilaginous E. Synovial 9. The clicking noise the patient experiences is due to the condyle moving anteriorly past the disc. This noise can also be heard with lateral excursion to the contralateral side. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
4. Which region of the articular surface of the patient’s TMJ is unlikely to be present? A. Fibrocartilaginous layer B. Fibrous articular layer C. Proliferative zone D. Subarticular zone E. Calcified cartilage
8. From the following list select THREE items associated with fungiform papillae.
5. The occlusal shape of a mandibular first molar can be best described as:
9. The patient’s decrease in taste sensitivity is often referred to as:
A. Rhomboidal B. Circular C. Square D. Trapezoidal E. Rectangular 6. The protrusive pathway of the mandibular cusps on the maxillary posterior teeth is toward the: A. B. C. D.
Mesial Distal Facial Lingual
7. If the patient delays treatment of tooth #30, which of the following is the most likely consequence? A. B. C. D.
Supraeruption of tooth #3 Loss of canine protected occlusion Loss of vertical dimension Mesial drift of tooth #31
8. The temporomandibular joint can be classified as: A. Synarthrosis B. Amphiarthrosis C. Fibrous D. Cartilaginous E. Synovial 9. The clicking noise the patient experiences is due to the condyle moving anteriorly past the disc. This noise can also be heard with lateral excursion to the contralateral side. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
A. Rounded B. Located mostly at the tip of the tongue C. Located in a “V” arrangement on the back of the tongue D. Do not contain taste buds E. Contain taste buds F. Innervated by CN X
A. B. C. D.
Ageusia Hypergeusia Dysgeusia Hypogeusia
10. Oral evaluation reveals rampant caries. On which of the following surfaces is pit and fissure caries MOST likely to occur? A. Facial surfaces of maxillary first molars B. Lingual surfaces of maxillary first molars C. Facial surfaces of mandibular first premolars D. Lingual surfaces of mandibular first molars E. Proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
5”7
Height
6’2
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
“I just want a nice smile.”
Patient presents with chipped crowns on teeth #8 and #10. The maxillary anterior teeth show enamel mottling and discoloration.
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
“There is a clicking noise when I close my mouth.”
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
The patient presents with bilateral pain in the TMJ upon closing. You notice tooth #30 has a fractured DL cusp and the remnants of an occlusal amalgam restoration. #30 has been endodontically treated.
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C. A. Non-enveloped virus B. Enveloped virus C. Picornavirus D. Deltavirus E. Flavivirus F. ds DNA G. ss RNA
A. Cardiac failure B. Liver failure C. Transient ischemic attack D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Renal failure 2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension.
3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Fatigue B. Myalgia C. Cold intolerance D. Constipation E. Jaundice
A. Decreased smooth muscle cell growth B. Smoking C. Decreased total cross-sectional area of capillaries and arteries D. Obesity E. Physical activity F. Increased arteriolar and capillary density 3. The patient’s blood pressure is classified as: A. B. C. D.
Normal Prehypertension Hypertension, Stage 1 Hypertension Stage 2
CASE SCENARIO 9
CASE SCENARIO 3
Age
25 YRS
Scenario
Age
28 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Sex
Male
Height
5”7
Height
6’2
Weight
130 lbs.
Weight
280 lbs.
B/P
130/80
B/P
155/90
Chief Complaint
“I just want a nice smile.”
Patient presents with chipped crowns on teeth #8 and #10. The maxillary anterior teeth show enamel mottling and discoloration.
Chief Complaint
Medical History
Hepatitis C
“There is a clicking noise when I close my mouth.”
Current Medications
Unknown
Medical History
Hypertension
The patient presents with bilateral pain in the TMJ upon closing. You notice tooth #30 has a fractured DL cusp and the remnants of an occlusal amalgam restoration. #30 has been endodontically treated.
Social History
Tattoo artist
Current Medications
Lisinopril/HCTZ
Social History
Painter Married & has 3 children
1. Hepatitis viruses are extremely heat resistant. Proper autoclaving kills all hepatitis viruses. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hepatitis C. A. Non-enveloped virus B. Enveloped virus C. Picornavirus D. Deltavirus E. Flavivirus F. ds DNA G. ss RNA 3. Each of the following is a symptom of viral hepatitis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Fatigue B. Myalgia C. Cold intolerance D. Constipation E. Jaundice
1. Untreated hypertension may result in each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Cardiac failure B. Liver failure C. Transient ischemic attack D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Renal failure 2. From the following list select THREE items associated with hypertension. A. Decreased smooth muscle cell growth B. Smoking C. Decreased total cross-sectional area of capillaries and arteries D. Obesity E. Physical activity F. Increased arteriolar and capillary density 3. The patient’s blood pressure is classified as: A. B. C. D.
Normal Prehypertension Hypertension, Stage 1 Hypertension Stage 2
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which of the following nodes? A. Submental B. Submandibular C. Superficial cervical D. Buccal E. Deep cervical 8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patient’s respiratory difficulties? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE E. IgA 9. Treatment of this patient’s respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Beta-2 agonist inhalers Steroids Mast cell stabilizers Parasympathetic stimulation
10. Common manifestations of an asthma attack include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Decreased surfactant B. Airway edema C. Increased mucous secretion D. Increased airway resistance E. Bronchospasm
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The patient’s hepatitis C is MOST likely to result in: A. Development of chronic hepatitis B. Development of fulminant hepatitis C. Development of hepatocellular carcinoma D. Asymptomatic carrier state E. Resolution with eventual clearing of the virus 6. You are concerned about transmission of the patient’s virus. If it were to be transferred, it would MOST likely involve which of the following routes? A. B. C. D.
Saliva contamination Oral-fecal Contaminated needle stick Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an oven type dry heat sterilizer? A. 273°F for 20 minutes B. 273°F for 40 minutes C. 375°F for 6-20 minutes D. 320°F for 1-2 hours E. 320°F for 20 minutes 8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth? A. Mandibular central incisors B. Maxillary central incisors C. Mandibular canines D. Mandibular lateral incisors E. Maxillary lateral incisors
7. Initially, lymphatic fluid from the area of infected tooth #17 will drain to which of the following nodes? A. Submental B. Submandibular C. Superficial cervical D. Buccal E. Deep cervical 8. Which of the following immunoglobulins is most active in this patient’s respiratory difficulties? A. IgD B. IgM C. IgG D. IgE E. IgA 9. Treatment of this patient’s respiratory symptoms includes each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Beta-2 agonist inhalers Steroids Mast cell stabilizers Parasympathetic stimulation
10. Common manifestations of an asthma attack include each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Decreased surfactant B. Airway edema C. Increased mucous secretion D. Increased airway resistance E. Bronchospasm
4. The falciform ligament attaches the liver to the diaphragm. The coronary ligaments attach the liver to the anterior body wall. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. The patient’s hepatitis C is MOST likely to result in: A. Development of chronic hepatitis B. Development of fulminant hepatitis C. Development of hepatocellular carcinoma D. Asymptomatic carrier state E. Resolution with eventual clearing of the virus 6. You are concerned about transmission of the patient’s virus. If it were to be transferred, it would MOST likely involve which of the following routes? A. B. C. D.
Saliva contamination Oral-fecal Contaminated needle stick Inhalation of aerosols
7. Once the patient is dismissed, you clean the instruments and place them into a dry heat sterilizer. Which of the following settings is most appropriate for an oven type dry heat sterilizer? A. 273°F for 20 minutes B. 273°F for 40 minutes C. 375°F for 6-20 minutes D. 320°F for 1-2 hours E. 320°F for 20 minutes 8. The greatest cementoenamel junction can be found on which of the following teeth? A. Mandibular central incisors B. Maxillary central incisors C. Mandibular canines D. Mandibular lateral incisors E. Maxillary lateral incisors
9. How many lobes are present in this patient’s tooth #9? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 10. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, he explains the brownish pigmentation has been present for most of his life. This is MOST likely due to which of the following? A. Tetracycline B. Smoking C. Nutritional deficiencies D. Fluorosis E. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
CASE SCENARIO 10 Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’3
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
“Gums bleed easily.”
Patient is undergoing orthodontic treatment. Oral hygiene is poor and there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known thumb sucker.
1. How many primary teeth remain in this patient’s mouth? A. 0 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 18
A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16 C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual dimension D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension 3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with beta-adrenergic agonists. A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle 4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Temporal Parotid Masseteric Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction, which of the following best describes how the cut should be made? A. B. C. D.
9. How many lobes are present in this patient’s tooth #9? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 10. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, he explains the brownish pigmentation has been present for most of his life. This is MOST likely due to which of the following? A. Tetracycline B. Smoking C. Nutritional deficiencies D. Fluorosis E. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
CASE SCENARIO 10 Age
9 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’3
Weight
100 lbs.
B/P
115/70
Chief Complaint
“Gums bleed easily.”
Patient is undergoing orthodontic treatment. Oral hygiene is poor and there is generalized cervical plaque and gingival enlargement.
Medical History
Tendency to bleed
Current Medications
Unknown
Social History
Student
Patient is a known thumb sucker.
1. How many primary teeth remain in this patient’s mouth? A. 0 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 E. 18
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see?
Mesio-distally through the crown at the level of the CEJ Mesio-distally through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the pulp horns
2. Before extracting tooth #17, surgery is done to expose the entire crown of the tooth. Which of the following should the dentist expect to see? A. The buccal-lingual and mesial-distal dimensions of the crown are the same B. The crown of tooth #17 is smaller than the crown of tooth #16 C. The mesial-distal dimension of the crown is greater than the buccal-lingual dimension D. The buccal-lingual dimension of the crown is greater than the mesial-distal dimension 3. Formoterol Fumarate is a beta-adrenergic agonist used to maintain and treat asthma. From the following list, please select the THREE items associated with beta-adrenergic agonists. A. Constricts bronchial smooth muscle B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle C. Stimulates the enzyme adenylate cyclase D. Induces negative inotropic output of cardiac muscle E. Induces positive inotropic output of cardiac muscle F. Induces negative chronotropic output of cardiac muscle 4. Nitrous oxide is safe to administer to people with asthma, especially if their asthma is triggered by anxiety. Asthmatics taking chronic steroids require corticosteroid augmentation. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. If tooth #17 is infected, then the infection will spread to each of the following fascial spaces EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. B. C. D.
Temporal Parotid Masseteric Buccopharyngeal
6. When sectioning tooth #17 to separate the roots and simplify extraction, which of the following best describes how the cut should be made? A. B. C. D.
Mesio-distally through the crown at the level of the CEJ Mesio-distally through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the crown and furcation Bucco-lingually through the pulp horns
9. Which of the following is an acute inflammatory lesion consisting of a localized collection of pus surrounded by a fibrous wall? A. B. C. D.
A. B. C. D.
Abscess Granuloma Cyst Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required. The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
CASE SCENARIO 2 Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’9
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
“The teeth in the back hurt!”
The patient presents for a 6-month recall appointment. He reports pain around tooth #18. Oral exam shows gingival swelling and erythema around partially erupted tooth #17.
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic acidosis
9. Which of the following is an acute inflammatory lesion consisting of a localized collection of pus surrounded by a fibrous wall?
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K dependent. A. B. C. D.
A. Cervical line B. Mesio-incisal line angle C. Incisal third D. Middle third E. Cervical third
2. Hemophilia is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? Increased PTT Normal PT Normal Bleeding time Decreased INR
3. If this patient’s supragingival plaque continues to move apically, it will FIRST disrupt which of the following tissues? A. Principal fibers B. Sharpey’s fibers C. Attachment of gingival epithelium D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium E. Attachment of junctional epithelium
A. One B. Two – mesial and distal C. Two – buccal and lingual D. Three – mesial, distal, buccal E. Three – mesial, distal, lingual
CASE SCENARIO 2 Age
19 YRS
Scenario
Sex
Male
Height
5’9
Weight
140 lbs.
B/P
125/75
Chief Complaint
“The teeth in the back hurt!”
The patient presents for a 6-month recall appointment. He reports pain around tooth #18. Oral exam shows gingival swelling and erythema around partially erupted tooth #17.
Medical History
Asthma
Current Medications
Formoterol Fumarate Albuterol inhaler
Social History
Student
1. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, you note that he was hospitalized 3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of the following? Respiratory alkalosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Metabolic acidosis
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. Christmas disease is characterized by a decrease in which of the following factors? A. II B. VII C. IX D. X E. XI
A. B. C. D.
Abscess Granuloma Cyst Cellulitis
10. If the patient elects to have tooth #2 extracted, sectioning may be required. The practitioner should be aware of which of the following furcations?
A. B. C. D.
3. If this patient’s supragingival plaque continues to move apically, it will FIRST disrupt which of the following tissues?
6. To properly align the mandibular lateral incisor and the mandibular canine, the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the mandibular canine?
1. In reviewing the patient’s medical history, you note that he was hospitalized 3 years ago due to a severe asthma attack. This can lead to death from which of the following?
A. B. C. D.
Increased PTT Normal PT Normal Bleeding time Decreased INR
A. Principal fibers B. Sharpey’s fibers C. Attachment of gingival epithelium D. Attachment of sulcular epithelium E. Attachment of junctional epithelium
A. One B. Two – mesial and distal C. Two – buccal and lingual D. Three – mesial, distal, buccal E. Three – mesial, distal, lingual
A. B. C. D.
2. Hemophilia is characterized by each of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
4. All clotting factors are made in the liver. Factors II, VII, X, and XI are vitamin K dependent. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. Christmas disease is characterized by a decrease in which of the following factors? A. II B. VII C. IX D. X E. XI 6. To properly align the mandibular lateral incisor and the mandibular canine, the orthodontist will ensure that the distal surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts what area of the mesial surface of the mandibular canine? A. Cervical line B. Mesio-incisal line angle C. Incisal third D. Middle third E. Cervical third
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion? A. B. C. D.
von Willebrand’s Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth? A. B. C. D.
F G H I
9. This patient’s poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions? A. Class I B. Class II, division I C. Class II, division II D. Class III 10. During this patient’s orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited. Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone? A. Woven B. Compact C. Cementum D. Endochondral E. Intramembranous
7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by a qualitative platelet defect resulting in impaired platelet adhesion? A. B. C. D.
von Willebrand’s Hemophilia A Hemophilia B Hemophilia C
8. Which of the following primary teeth is MOST likely to be mobile in this patient due to the eruption of the succedaneous tooth? A. B. C. D.
F G H I
9. This patient’s poor habit is often associated with which of the following malocclusions? A. Class I B. Class II, division I C. Class II, division II D. Class III 10. During this patient’s orthodontic treatment, new alveolar bone is deposited. Which of the following BEST describes this type of alveolar bone? A. Woven B. Compact C. Cementum D. Endochondral E. Intramembranous
4. In primary hypothyroidism, the pituitary does not make enough TSH. Hypothyroidism affects males more than females. A. B. C. D.
Both statements are true Both statements are false The first statement is true, the second is false The first statement is false, the second is true
5. From the following list select the THREE symptoms associated with this patient’s autoimmune disorder. A. B. C. D.
Weight loss Dry skin Diarrhea Tearing
6. The abscess around tooth #2 may result in which of the following life-threatening situations? A. Hyperalgesia B. Hypoalgesia C. Ludwig’s angina D. Non-vital pulp E. Referred pain 7. Which of the following nerve fibers is responsible for the patient’s sharp pain around tooth #2? A. A alpha B. A beta C. A delta D. B E. C 8. If the patient elects root canal therapy for tooth #2, which of the following best describes the MOST likely presentation of the pulp canals? A. Three canals, one in each root B. Four canals, two in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, one in the palatal C. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the palatal D. Four canals, one in the mesial-buccal, one in the distal-buccal, two in the palatal E. Five canals, two in the mesial-buccal, two in the distal-buccal, one in the palatal
ANSWER KEYS
ANSWER KEY— CASES 1— 5 Question Answer Question Answer Question Case 1
Case 2
Answer Question
Case 3
Answer
Case 4
Question
Answer
Case 5
1
D
1
C
1
B
1
A
1
A
2
D
2
C
2
B, C, D
2
C
2
C
3
E
3
B, C, E
3
C
3
A
3
B
4
B
4
C
4
C
4
E
4
D
5
B, E, F
5
A
5
D
5
A
5
A, E
6
C
6
C
6
B
6
D
6
D
7
C
7
E
7
A
7
C
7
E
8
B
8
D
8
E
8
D
8
B
9
A
9
D
9
D
9
E
9
C
10
D
10
A
10
D
10
D
10
A
Question
Answer
Answer
Question
Answer
ANSWER KEY— CASES 6 — 10 Question Answer Case 6
Case 7
Question
Answer
Case 8
Question Case 9
Case 10
1
D
1
B
1
C
1
A
1
D
2
C, D, E, F
2
C
2
C
2
B, E, G
2
D
3
D
3
D
3
B
3
C
3
E
4
D
4
D
4
A
4
B
4
B
5
C
5
C
5
E
5
A
5
C
6
D
6
A
6
C
6
C
6
C
7
A
7
E
7
E
7
D
7
A
8
E
8
D
8
A, B, E
8
B
8
D
9
C
9
C
9
D
9
E
9
B
10
D
10
D
10
B
10
D
10
E
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for adult teeth. Upper left
Upper right
A few tips on how to prepare for the Clinical Vignette portion of the NBDE Part I exam:
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology, and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components: • A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history • A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
Orientation of the Universal tooth numbering chart is traditionally "patient's view", i.e. patient's right corresponds to tooth chart's right side. The designations "left" and "right" on the chart correspond to the patient's left and right, respectively.
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the questions need that information.
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for deciduous (primary) teeth. Upper left Upper right
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common ones patients present with on your dental school’s clinic floor. Be careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental anatomy questions were blended in. 3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather, they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet for examples). Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for adult teeth. Upper left
Upper right
A few tips on how to prepare for the Clinical Vignette portion of the NBDE Part I exam:
lower left
lower right
1. There are 10 Case Scenarios, and each case has 10 questions covering Anatomy, Microbiology, Biochemistry,Physiology, Pathology, and Dental Anatomy. The Vignettes are composed of the following components: • A paragraph of patient chief complaint and dental history • A chart of patient's medical history and medication usage
Orientation of the Universal tooth numbering chart is traditionally "patient's view", i.e. patient's right corresponds to tooth chart's right side. The designations "left" and "right" on the chart correspond to the patient's left and right, respectively.
You will have to click on a button to make the patient medical history chart visible. Sometimes the chart contains valuable information that you will need to answer some of the questions, but not all the questions need that information.
Universal tooth numbering system. Teeth numbering chart for deciduous (primary) teeth. Upper left Upper right
2. The questions are clinically oriented rather than straight memorization. The diseases in the case scenarios are MOSTLY common ones patients present with on your dental school’s clinic floor. Be careful with cases such as diabetes, asthma, fractures, bone lesions etc... Moreover, a lot of dental management, ethics and dental anatomy questions were blended in. 3. Primary and permanent teeth are not given straight out, rather, they are referred to as tooth #17, or tooth K etc. It might be beneficial to write down a teeth number chart along with the occlusion chart during the tutorial period (see back two pages of this testlet booklet for examples). Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc.
Lower left
Lower right
Occlusion chart
Maxillary 2P
1P O
M
1M O
D
D
C
C
2P
1P
2M O
O
C
C
1M
O
2M
Mandibular M—Buccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar O—Buccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Occlusion chart
Maxillary 2P
1P O
M
O
D
D 1P
1M
2P
2M
C
C
O
O
1M
C
C
O
2M
Mandibular M—Buccal cusp of the md. 1st premolar occludes with the Mesial marginal ridge of the mx. 1st premolar O—Buccal cusp of the md. 2nd premolar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd premolars O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 2nd premolar and mx. 1st molar C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 1st molar O—Mesiobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the mx. 1st and 2nd molars C—Distobuccal cusp of the md. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the mx. 2nd molar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 1st premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 1st premolar D—Lingual cusp of the mx. 2nd premolar occludes with the Distal marginal ridge of the md. 2nd premolar C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 1st molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 1st molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 1st and 2nd molars C—Mesiolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Central fossa of the md. 2nd molar O—Distolingual cusp of the mx. 2nd molar occludes with the Occlusal embrasure of the md. 2nd and 3rd molars (if present)
Notice Medicine is an ever-changing science. As new research and clinical experience broaden our knowledge, changes in treatment and drug therapy are required. The authors and the publisher of this work have checked with sources believed to be reliable in their efforts to provide information that is complete and generally in accord with the standards accepted at the time of publication. However, in view of the possibility of human error or changes in medical sciences, neither the authors nor the publisher nor any other party who has been involved in the preparation or publication of this work warrants that the information contained herein is in every respect accurate or complete, and they disclaim all responsibility for any errors or omissions or for the results obtained from use of the information contained in this work. Readers are encouraged to confirm the information contained herein with other sources. For example and in particular, readers are advised to check the product information sheet included in the package of each drug they plan to administer to be certain that the information contained in this work is accurate and that changes have not been made in the recommended dose or in the contraindications for administration. This recommendation is of particular importance in connection with new or infrequently used drugs.
Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the author and publisher.
Dental Decks Part I Testlet
Part I Notice Medicine is an ever-changing science. As new research Visit us at www.dentaldecks.com and clinical experience broaden our knowledge, changes in treatment and drug therapy are required. The authors and the publisher of this work have checked with sources believed to be reliable in their efforts to provide information that is complete and generally in accord with the standards accepted at the time of publication. However, in view of the possibility of human error or changes in medical sciences, neither the authors nor the publisher nor any other party who has been involved in the preparation or publication of this work warrants that the information contained herein is in every respect accurate or complete, and they disclaim all responsibility for any errors or omissions or for the results obtained from use of the information contained in this work. Readers are encouraged to confirm the information contained herein with other sources. For example and in particular, readers are advised to check the product information sheet included in the package of each drug they plan to administer to be certain that the information contained in this work is accurate and that changes have not been made in the recommended dose or in the contraindications for administration. This recommendation is of particular importance in connection with new or infrequently used drugs.
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Copyright ã 2013-2014 Dental Decks, Inc. All rights reserved. No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopying, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the author and publisher.
Dental Decks Part I Testlet
