CPL QUESTION BANK AIR LAW

Question Bank CPL Civil Aviation Authority, Bangladesh

Subject : Air Law

CPL Chapter – 02 1.

ICAO publishes: a) b) c) d)

2.

Which annex covers carriage of cargo? a) b) c) d)

3.

Standards and recommended practices which are enforced world wide without exception Standards which are law for contracting states and recommendations for the rest of the world Standards and recommended practices for ICAO contracting states only International law

9 14 6 11

Which annex pertains to design of aerodromes? a) 14 b) 11 c) 6 d) 18

4.

Which Annex contains information concerning Air Traffic Services? a) b) c) d)

6.

Annex 11 Annex 10 Annex 14 Annex 15

What is cabotage? a) b) c) d)

Restricting domestic air service to a national carrier Aircraft from a foreign country picking up passengers in another country Aircraft providing a commercial air service within the EEC An airline disembarking and embarking passengers in another country

7.

The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered a) b) c) d)

8.

Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and luggage? a) b) c) d)

10.

To To To To

assist states to purchase aircraft help airlines set up assist with improving international aviation train pilots for international aviation

Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international crew licences? a) b) c) d)

12.


What is the objective of ICAO? a) b) c) d)

11.

Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states. Binding for all member states. Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference. Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.

Annex Annex Annex Annex

9 - Facilitation 1 - Personnel Licensing 6 - Operation of Aircraft - 17 Security

Which of the annexes deals with the transportatio n of cargo? a) b) c) d)

Annex 9 – Facilitation Annex 18 - Transportation Transportation of Dangerous Goods Annex 16 - Environmental Protection Protectio n Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft

7.

The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered a) b) c) d)

8.

Which ICAO Annex deals with the processes involved with the regular transport of passengers and luggage? a) b) c) d)

10.

To To To To

assist states to purchase aircraft help airlines set up assist with improving international aviation train pilots for international aviation

Which annex to the Chicago convention provides the details for the minimum acceptance of international crew licences? a) b) c) d)

12.


What is the objective of ICAO? a) b) c) d)

11.

Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states. Binding for all member states. Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference. Binding for all airline companies with international traffic.

Annex Annex Annex Annex

9 - Facilitation 1 - Personnel Licensing 6 - Operation of Aircraft - 17 Security

Which of the annexes deals with the transportatio n of cargo? a) b) c) d)

Annex 9 – Facilitation Annex 18 - Transportation Transportation of Dangerous Goods Annex 16 - Environmental Protection Protectio n Annex 6 - Operation of Aircraft

14. Which annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? a) b) c) d)


15. Which annex of the Chicago convention deals with registration marking of aircraft? a) b) c) d)

17.

Which ICAO body furnishes the "Standards "Standard s and Recommended Practices" (SARPS) for adoption by the Council? a) b) c) d)

18.


The The The The

Assembly Regional Air Navigation Meeting Council itself Air Navigation Commission

The Annex of the Chicago Convention which contains the Standards and Recommended Recommended Practices (SARPS) for personnel licensing is: a) b) c) d)


21. A captain is authorised in the event that a passenger has committed an offence or is suspected to be about to commit an offence, to: a) b) c) d) 26.

Disable him Require passengers to assist in restraining Request cabin crew to assist Deliver the person to the appropriate authority

It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft; the PIC may: a) b) c) d)

request the crew to detain the passenger ask the passenger to disembark order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question hand him/her over to the authorities

29. What freedom allows an aircraft to land in a foreign country for technical reasons? a) b) c) d)

First freedom Fourth freedom Third freedom Second freedom

30. The first freedom of the air allows: a) b) c) d)

Over-flight only Acceptance of tickets issued by other operators Landing for technical reasons Carriage of mail and cargo

33. What freedom covers landing and refueling in another state? a) b) c) d)

1st 2nd 3rd 4th

39. The second Freedom of the Air is the right to: a) b) c) d)

Make a commercial flight between 2 States with passengers on board Land for technical reasons Cabotage Over-fly a State without landing

An s we rs to Qu es ti on s – Ch ap te r 2 International Agreements and Organizations 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

C C A A B A C B C C B A A D D D D D B D

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39

D B D A D D C A D A D D B B A C C B B

Chapter – 05 1.

What age do you need to be to exercise the privileges of a CPL licence? a) 18 b) 21 c) 16 d) 23

2.

When you are over 40 and the holder of an ATPL, how often are you required to have a medical examination? a) b) c) d)

3.

100, 100, 100, 100,

not not not not

more more more more

than than than than

15 30 25 50

in in in in

a procedural a procedural a procedural a procedural

flight flight flight flight

trainer trainer trainer trainer

75 hours PIC 100 hours PIC or co-pilot 100 hours PIC 75 hours PIC or co-pilot

Act Act Act Act

as as as as

PIC of any aircraft in commercial air transport operations PIC of any single engine aeroplane in commercial air transport operations a flying instructor PIC of any aircraft involved in operations other than commercial air transportation

When are you required to tell the authorities of an illness? a) b) c) d)

8.

of of of of

One of the privileges of the holder of a Commercial Pilot's Licence is to: a) b) c) d)

7.

Maximum Maximum Maximum Maximum

What is the night flying hours requirement for an ATPL licence? a) b) c) d)

5.

12 month period reduces to 6 months 24 month period reduces to 12 months 6 month period reduces to 3 months 9 month period reduces to 3 months

You can use simulator hours towards the 1500 hours required for an ATPL. How are simulator hours limited? a) b) c) d)

4.

The The The The

after the 21st day of illness has elapsed on the 21stday of the illness after a month after medical has expired

To obtain a CPL, how many hours of cross country flying are required? a) b) c) d)

15 20 25 35

hrs hrs hrs hrs

9.

What medical is required for the issue of a CPL? a) b) c) d)

10.

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited: a) b) c) d)

11.

Class 2 As required by ICAO. Class 1 None of the above.

with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence the flight in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to the requirements of the licensing authority

For an ATPL how many night hours are required? a) 30 b) 75 c) 100 d) 150

12.

For an ATPL, how many cross-country hours are required? a) 200 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250

14.

When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying instructor. When will supervision cease? a) b) c) d)

15.

At what ages can you exercise the privileges of an ATPL? a) b) c) d)

17.

Once you have passed a competency check When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo When you have completed 100 hours solo

21 -60 21 -59 8-59 8-60

Which of the following correctly identifies the cross country hours requirement for a CPL(A)? a) b) c) d)

100 hours PIC or SPIC 20 hours cross country as PIC including a cross country flight not less than 540 km (300 nm) in the course of which full stop landings are made at two different aerodromes 25 hours including at least one flight of 2 hours duration covering at least 300 nm and to include 2 landings 10 hours solo with at least one flight over 300 nm with at least two landings

18.

What is the minimum age for a holder of a PPL? a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 21

22.

Of the 1500 hours required experience for an ATPL ......... hours may be in a simulator but not more than ....... hours may be in a basic instrument trainer or basic procedure trainer. a) 100 15 b) 100 20 c) 100 25 d) 75 25

25.

According to CAR’84, what classes of medical exist? a) b) c) d)

27.

The validity of multi engine type rating shall be 1 year from: a) b) c) d)

28.

issue application received by the authority skill test medical examination

PPL with instructor rating Have CPL with FI rating CPL ATPL

250 200 250 200

as as as as

PIC, PIC, PIC, PIC,

or or or or

100 100 100 100

as as as as

PIC PIC PIC PIC

and and and and

150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision 75 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision 150 as co-pilot or as PIC under supervision

A pilot with a CPL can act as: a) b) c) d)

31.

of of of of

For a pilot to hold an ATPL, the hours required are: a) b) c) d)

30.

date date date date

In order to carry out PPL instruction you must hold: a) b) c) d)

29.

Class 1 only Classes 1, 2 and 3 Classes 1 and 2 Classes 1, 2, 3 and 4

PIC PIC PIC PIC

in commercial aviation in any single engine aircraft engaged in commercial aviation of any single pilot aircraft engaged in commercial aviation in any aircraft for which he/she is type rated in commercial aviation

From what date is the initial general medical assessment valid from? a) b)

The date of the assessment The date the certificate delivered to the pilot

c) d) 33.

The minimum age for a CPL holder is a) b) c) d)

34.

years years years years


The applicant for an ATPL for aircraft shall have at least: a) b) c) d)

37.

17 18 16 21

Which of the following Annexes of the Chicago Convention contains the minimum specification for a crew member's licence to be recognised by Contracting States? a) b) c) d)

36.

The date of licence issue The date of the revalidation of the licence

100 hours night flying purely as Pilot in Command 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot 100 hours night flying as Pilot in Command or as 2nd Pilot 75 hours night flying as Pilot in Command

A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall have completed: a) b) c) d)

150 150 200 200

hours hours hours hours

flight flight flight flight

time including 10 hours instrument ground time time time including 10 hours instrument ground time time

Answers to Questions – Chapter 5 Personnel Licensing 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 I1 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19

A A C B D B A B C C C A C B B C B B C

20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38

B C C D C B A A B A C A B B C A C B D

Questions – Chapter 6

4.

Aircraft coming in from the left which light will you see first? a) b) c) d)

5.

Steady red Steady green Flashing green White

What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR? a) Z b) Y c) I d) V

6.

What are the VMC limits for class B airspace? a) b) c) d)

8.

Whilst airborne you see a flashing green light from the Tower. What does this mean? a) b) c) d)

10.

Return to start point Clear to taxi Clear to take off Stop

You have been intercepted. What is the signal for `clear to proceed'? a) b) c) d)

12.

cleared to land return for landing and await clearance to land give way to other landing aircraft land at this aerodrome after receiving clearance to land and proceed to the apron

You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and are shown a flashing green light. What does it mean? a) b) c) d)

11.

Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface 8km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud 5km flight visibility, 1000 ft vertically and 1500 m horizontally from cloud The same as class D

Rocking wings Flashing lights Cut across track Breaking turn up and left

Which has priority to land? a) b) c) d)

A hospital flight An emergency A military flight A VIP flight

14.

Which of these is not a distress frequency? 1. 121.5 MHz 2. 2182 KHz 3. 243.0 KHz 4. 2430 KHz a) b) c) d)

15.

If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder? a) b) c) d)

16.

"Cancelling "Cancelling "Cancelling "Cancelling

my flight plan" my flight" my IFR flight" my IMC flight plan"

What signal from a marshaller to a pilot indicates "apply brakes"? a) b) c) d)

21.

B has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position A has right of way regardless of aircraft type and position A has right of way if B is on the right B has right of way if A is on the left

If a pilot wishes to cancel an IFR flight plan and proceed VFR in VMC, he must inform ATC and include the phrase: a) b) c) d)

20.

Stop Taxi clear of the landing area Give way to approaching aircraft You are not clear to take off

Aircraft A is a VFR flight operating in a CTR under an ATC clearance. Aircraft B is entering the CTR without clearance. As they converge, which one has the right of way (RoW)? a) b) c) d)

19.

A/2000 + C A/7500 + C A/7600 + C A/7700 + C

You are taxying an aircraft on the the ground and you you see see a flashing flashing red light from the tower. What does it mean? a) b) c) d)

17.

4 only 2 only 2, 3 and 4 3 and 4

Waving the arms across the face Drawing the palm across the throat Clenching raised fists Holding both arms up with palms facing forward

ATC has given you the transponder code of 5320. In case of a radio failure in flight you must set: a) b) c) d)

A A A A

7600 0020 5300 7620

Mode Mode Mode Mode

C C C C

22.

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least: a) b) c) d)

23.

off-block time departure departure off-block time

Code 7500 Code 7700 Code 7000 Code 7600

121.5 MHz - 243 MHz 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz

Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this aircraft do not comply with ATC instructions. You should: a) b) c) d)

26.

before before before before

An aircraft which is intercepted by another aircraft must immediately try to contact the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies: a) b) c) d)

25.

minutes minutes minutes minutes

Which Mode A code must be used to make sure that your aircraft is recognised as an aircraft in distress? a) b) c) d)

24.

50 60 10 30

select code 7500 A on your transponde r ask ATC for different instructions comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft comply with ATC instructions

A pilot crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards. What does this signal indicate? a) b) c) d)

clear to move forward brakes off remove chocks clear to close all engines

Answers to Questions – Chapter 6 Rules of The Air 1C 6D 11D 16B 21A 26C

2D 7B 12B 17D 22B

3C 8B 13A 18B 23B

4B 9A 14D 19C 24A

5B 10B 15D 20C 25C

Questions – Chapter 7 Section 1 1.

Against what political background was the Chicago Convention of 1944 held? a. b. c. d.

World War I The Korean War World War II The American War of Independence

2.

What in civil aviation terms does `territorial airspace' mean? a. The airspace over a state's land-mass of a state within international agreed frontiers b. All the airspace over a state extending to the limits of space c. The airspace over a state and the adjacent international waters to a defined median line forming a boundary with another state d. The airspace over a state and its territorial waters

3.

What law is applicable over the `high seas'? a. b. c. d.

4.

If an aeroplane, which is registered in the Bangladesh, is over-flying France, does the commander have to obey the law of France ? a. b. c. d.

5.

c. d.

A regular series of flights from one place to another Flights from one place to another in accordance with an agreed schedule and a bilateral agreement between the two states Any flight for which the flight plan is published in advance Any flight in accordance accordanc e with the first and second freedoms of the air

Do any rules of the air exists over international waters (high seas areas)? a. b. c. d.

8.

Yes at all times No, the law of the Bangladesh applies because the aeroplane is not landing in France Yes, but only if it does not conflict with the law of Bangladesh Yes, but if there is a confliction with Bangladesh Law he must ask the French authority what he should do

A scheduled air service, in international context, is defined as: a. b.

6.

International law The law of the state of registry of the aeroplane over flying the high seas area The ICAO law The law of the state closest to the point in the high seas area

Yes - ICAO Annex 2 - Rules of the Air No. No state has the right to impose its law over the high seas Yes - the rules of the air that are applicable to the state with the closest land-mass Yes - the rules of the air of the state of registry of the aeroplane

With regard to search and rescue of aircraft (SAR), each state is required to: a. b. c. d.

Maintain an efficient SAR service capable of responding within 1 hour Comply fully with the standards and recommended practices of annex 12 to the Chicago Convention Maintain and fully staff a rescue co-ordinatio n centre (RCC) Co-operate with adjacent states for the purpose of SAR

17. It is an offence to commit an unlawful act in an aeroplane in the air. Who is empowered to prosecute such an offence? a. b. c. d.

Interpol The Authority of the State of registration of the aeroplane The Authority of the State of the Operator ICAO through the International Court at The Hague

19. What is the SSR unlawful interference (hijack) code? a. 2000 b. 7777 c. 7600 d. 7500 20. You are the commander of an aeroplane in flight. From whom do you get the authority to act as commander? a. b. c. d.

The passengers The Operator The authority of the state of registry of the aeroplane The national legislature of the state of registry of the aeroplane

25. Can you continue to fly if you are over 65? a. b. c. d.

No Yes, but only for single engine operation Yes, but not in commercial aviation Yes, if there are two pilots on board, and you are the only pilot on board 65 or over

27. Your valid flight crew licence is always to be carried with you when exercising the privileges of the licence. What else must you carry? a. b. c. d.

Your passport or a means of photographically identifying yourself Your valid medical certificate Your valid medical certificate or your passport Your valid medical certificate and a document containing a photograph of you that confirms you identity as stated on your licence

32. You are not permitted to exercise the privileges of your licence if you are aware that you are unwell. Which of the following would be classified as being unwell? a. b. c. d.

Suffering a minor condition that requires the occasional use of medication Admission to hospital or a clinic for 12 hours or less Undergoing any surgical or invasive procedure The need to wear dark glasses

33. You are required to inform the authority that you are unable to fly because of certain medical concerns. One such situation is: a. b. c. d.

A visit to hospital or a clinic as a patient Persistent sickness that has lasted 21 days Persistent sickness that has lasted more than 21 days Diagnosis of the need for spectacles to be used for reading

38.

It is night time and your aeroplane is parked on the movement area of an aerodrome. Is the aeroplane required to be lit? a. b. c. d.

39.

It is daytime and your aeroplane is fitted with anti-collision high intensity strobe (capacitive discharge) lights.You are flying IFR just in the base of the clouds and the lights are creating a stroboscopic effect that is worrying some of the passengers. Can you switch the strobe lights off? a. b. c. d.

40.

No. Aircraft with anti-collision lights are to show them at all times Yes but only because it is daylight No because you are flying IFR Yes

If you intend to fly the aeroplane to simulate IMC, you must have dual controls and a safety pilot at the other set of controls. Must the safety pilot be a qualified pilot? a. b. c. d.

41.

Yes, to indicate its extremities unless otherwise adequately illuminated Only if the engines are running No Yes, aircraft are to be lit at all times on an aerodrome

No, he only needs to be a qualified observer No, but he must be capable of detecting any errors you make Yes No, he is there only to cover the case of you suffering a debilitating condition that renders you incapable of flying the aeroplane, but he must have rudimentary knowledge of flying

Ìf you are flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome you are required to conform with or avoid the formed traffic pattern'. For which of the following is this statement true? a. b. c. d.

Only if you intend landing at the aerodrome If you are aware that the aerodrome is there If you are flying inside the aerodrome traffic zone (ATZ) Regardless of whether you are inside or outside the ATZ

42. When is a flight plan is required? a. b. c. d.

For For For For

all all all all

flights IFR flights VFR flights in controlled airspace flights which require an air traffic service

43. When is a flight plan not required? a. b. c. d. 44.

For VFR flights crossing international boundaries For flights along boundaries between FIRS providing the flight does not actually cross the boundary For VFR flights in advisory airspace For flights over distances less than 50Km at night

A flight plan is required to include the number and type of aircraft for which the flight plan is submitted.(NB one FP may be submitted for a formation of aeroplanes!). What other information is required regarding the type of aeroplane? a. Wake turbulence category b. Optimum cruising mach number c. Maximum un-pressurised cabin altitude d. Minimum equipment list

45. When is a flight plan `closed'? a. b. c. d.

When it is complete and ready for filing When all the passengers are on board and the flight is announced as `closing' When the aeroplane arrives at the destination On the receipt of the arrival report at the ATSU at the arrival aerodrome

46. When is an ATC clearance to be obtained? a. b. c. d.

50.

If you suffer a comms failure during the later stages of a flight after you have been given an Estimated Approach Time (EAT) that is significantly different from your flight planned ETA, what do you do? a. b. c. d.

51.

Congratulations, you have just joined the Red Arrows (Gulp! Where are the rest of them!) You have just been intercepted and he/she wants you to follow You are flying in military restricted airspace and are in danger The Air Traffic Controllers have fouled up the clearances. This is an incident and must be reported by AIRPROX procedures

When is a VFR flight not permitted to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. b. c. d.

53.

Try and land within 30 minutes of the EAT, if possible Revert to the original flight planned ETA and land as close to that time as possible Stay in the holding pattern and squawk 7600 until you run short of fuel and then squawk 7700 and make an approach to land Abandon the instrument approach and squawk 7700 and make a straight in approach in VMC

If you see a military aeroplane (a small one with missiles on it) positioning itself ahead, slightly to the left, and slightly above you and it is rocking its wings, what does this mean? a. b. c. d.

52.

Prior to operating any controlled flight Prior to entry into controlled airspace Prior to take off from the initial departure aerodrome where the route involves landing at several aerodromes en route At least 30 minutes prior to take off

If If If If

the the the the

cloud cloud cloud cloud

ceiling ceiling ceiling ceiling

is is is is

1500ft or less and ground visibility is 5km or less greater than 1500ft, but ground visibility is only 5km less than 1500ft, or ground visibility is less than 5km more than 1500ft, with ground visibility 5km or less

Unless authorised, in Bangladesh VFR flight is not permitted above what flight level? a. FL150(Correct) b. FL245 c. FL200 d. FL 180

54.

When or where are you permitted to fly VFR below 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 600m radius of the aircraft over towns, cities etc.. or below 500 ft above ground or water? a. b. c. d.

En route outside of an ATZ Over the sea within gliding distance of the shore In class G airspace in daylight Only where necessary for take off and landing

56.

You are flying VFR in class C airspace outside of a CTR and you doubt if you can maintain VMC much longer. What should you do'? a. b. c. d.

57.

You are flying IFR at FL 100 in class A airspace. The Air Traffic Controller warns you that there is traffic in your 12 O'clock at range 10 miles and asks you if you are VMC with a view to taking avoiding action. What should you do? a. b. c. d.

58.

In good VMC Above 24 500 ft Where Reduced Vertical Separation Minima standards are in force When cleared above a level to employ a cruise climb technique

If you are operating an IFR flight outside of controlled airspace, are you required to maintain a listening watch with an ATS unit? a. b. c. d.

61.

What is the correct VFR flight level for the class of airspace How long are you going to be able to maintain VMC How much day light is left Do you have the necessary equipment fitted in the aeroplane to make a VFR approach at the destination

When may you routinely ignore the table of IFR cruising levels (flight levels) if flying IFR in class A airspace? a. b. c. d.

60.

Assess the meteorological conditions and if the minima for class A airspace is exceeded report your flight conditions as VMC Regardless of the meteorological conditions, report your flight conditions as IMC Advise ATC that VFR is not applicable in class A airspace Ask for Radar Advisory service to avoid the contact unless ATC advises that it has disappeared

You are flying IFR in class B airspace but are flying in good VMC. What must you consider before making a request to cancel the IFR flight plan and to proceed VFR? a. b. c. d.

59.

File an IFR flight plan and continue whilst awaiting clearance If unable to get a clearance to continue under IFR leave CAS and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome Get a Special VFR clearance and continue Push on in VMC until the last minute then squawk 7700 and let the Air Traffic Controllers sort it out.

No Yes, always Yes, but only in areas or along routes where a flight plan is required Yes if you are flying in IMC

If you have an urgent message to transmit regarding the safety of an aeroplane, what proword do you prefix the message with? a. b. c. d.

Help Mayday Pan Pan Securite (pron - see cure ee tay)

62.

If you have been intercepted by a military aircraft, on what frequency should you attempt to communicate with the military pilot? a. b. c. d.

64.

You are taxiing on the manoeuvring area and see a flashing white light pointed at you from the tower, what does it mean? a. b. c. d.

65.

c. d.

c. d.

Glider flying is in progress Take-off and landing are not restricted to the same direction Right hand circuit in force Non radio traffic is permitted to use this aerodrome

You are taxiing towards the terminal building but have not been allocated a bay for parking. You see a man standing in an open space facing you with his arms raised vertically above his head. What does this mean? a. b. c. d.

69.

It is a holding point but not the closest one to the runway. You can ignore it. It is a holding point other than the closest to the runway. You must stop and check that you are clear to continue taxiing It is a holding point for another runway so can ignore it. It means that the taxiway is weak and you must not stop on it.

A green flag is flying from the signals mast at an aerodrome. What does it mean? a. b. c. d.

68.

The Tower controller is scaring the birds away An aeroplane is taxiing out of sight of the tower controller and he is ordered to stop immediately You have not acknowledged the clearance to land Notwithstanding any previous clearance, you are not to land for the time being

You are taxiing towards the runway at an aerodrome and it is outside the published hours of the ATC watch. You see this yellow marking on the taxiway, what does it mean and what must you do? a. b.

67.

Give way to an approaching aeroplane Return to the starting point Stop Continue taxiing to the holding point of the active runway

You are short final after having received a clearance to land and you see a red pyrotechnic flare fired from the tower. There are no other aeroplanes in the circuit, what does the flare mean? a. b.

66.

The frequency in use 121.500 Mhz 119.100 Mhz 123.450 Mhz

I am not your marshaller, I am waiting for the next aeroplane. I am your marshaller, keep moving ahead and I will indicate when it is safe to turn into this parking bay This is your parking bay Stop immediately

You are ready to start engines but there is no ground intercom system working. How do you indicate tot he marshaller that you intend to start no. 2 engine first? a.

Raise your right hand with the index finger extended making a circular motion, whilst pointing to no 2 engine

b. c. d.

Raise a hand with two fingers extended Raise a hand with two fingers extended and then raise and lower the other hand with a clenched fist Raise a hand and make a circular motion and leave it to him to work out which engine is starting

73. In general, what navigation aids are used to define RNAV departure routes? a. b. c. d.

NDB VOR VOR NDB

and ILS and NDB and DME and DME

74. Which of the following correctly defines the five segments of an instrument approach procedure? a. b. c. d.

En-route, Initial, Immediate, Final, Missed Approach Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Missed Approach Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final, Terminal En-route, Initial, Secondary, Final, Terminating

77. During the latter stages of an instrument approach, track accuracy is of paramount importance as it is the major factor in defining the limits of the obstacle clearance zone which leads to calculation of DH. Which of the following facilities is the most accurate for providing track guidance? a. b. c. d.

VOR ILS localiser ILS glide path NDB

79. What is the optimum gradient of the final approach segment (the glide path)? a. b. c. d.

80.

Not less than 3.5% 3.5° About 300ft/km Should not exceed 5%

Where does the initial approach segment end? a. At the start of the final approach segment b. At the FAF c. Overhead the facility upon which the procedure is based d. At the intermediate fix

81. In a missed approach procedure, turns are not specified until the climb is established. Why is this? a. b. c. d.

The aeroplane is too close to the ground and obstacle clearance my not be achieved The final approach track is along the extended centre line of the runway and deviation from this track may result in a collision with other approaching aircraft The safest direction to go is in the direction of the runway and the climb-out lane The initialisation of the climb (attitude change, drag reduction, application of power) requires the attention of the pilot, therefore turns are not specified.

82. Where does the missed approach procedure start? a. b. c. d.

85.

In still air, holding on a facility at 5000 ft, what is the length of the outbound leg? a. b. c. d.

86.

d.

When transiting the Aerodrome Traffic Zone Within a zone if the aerodrome is within a CTR When flying en-route in the vicinity of an aerodrome if regional QNH is below the subscale of the altimeter For terrain clearance during the final approach to a runway

If your transponder fails before departure, can you continue if the flight is a controlled flight? a. b. c. d.

97.

As a flight level It depends upon what you have set on the altimeter As an altitude when ascending and as a flight level when descending It doesn't matter because the layer is not very deep

When/where is the use of aerodrome QFE permitted? a. b. c.

96.

All the way around the holding area and encompasses the entry area To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area To 5nm beyond the boundary of the holding area but not including the entry area 2nm to the non holding side of the boundary of the holding area and 5 nm from the boundary of the holding area on the holding side of the pattern

When flying through the transition layer, how is vertical position is reported? a. b. c. d.

91.

1 1/2 minutes starting over or abeam the fix 1 minute starting abeam the fix It is determined by either distance or time, whichever is specified Not less than 5nm

The minimum permissible holding level for a holding pattern is based on the obstacle clearance height of obstacles within the buffer area. The buffer area extends: a. b. c. d.

89.

At the beginning of the initial missed approach phase At the missed approach point (MAPt) At the point at which the instrument approach procedure cannot be continued At DH for a precision approach or at MDH for a non precision approach

No, you must get if fixed even if the flight does not enter controlled airspace Yes, but only if the flight does not enter class A, B or C controlled airspace Yes if you have entered `X' in field 10 (SSR capability) of the flight plan form Yes after seeking exemption from the requirements to carry SSR equipment on controlled flights

What do the initials SRA mean? a. b. c. d.

Separated Radar Approach Simplex Radar Application Secondary Radar Approach Surveillance Radar Approach

99. What is defined by a minimum obstacle clearance of 300 m (984 ft) within 46 km (25 nm) of a homing facility providing the basis for an instrument approach? a. b. c. d.

Minimum Safe Altitude Minimum Sector Altitude Mandatory Safety Area Maximum Speed Area

Answers to Questions – Chapter 7 Procedures for Air Navigation Services / Aircraft Operations Section -1

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

Ans. C D B A B A A D B B C C C D D A B B D B B D B C C

Ref. 2.1.2 2.1.2.2 2.16.1/2 2.16.1 2.1.3.3a 6.1.1 2.1.4.1 2.2.3 2.3.1 2.6.2 2.7 2.7.1 2.8.1 2.3.1/9.1 2.10.4c 2.10.2 2.11.1 2.11.4 7.14.1 2.16.2 2.13.1 2.13.2aii 5.2.1.a 5.3.6 5.3.7

Q 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. B D C A D C C D D A B A A D C D D C A D A B D B A

Ref. 5.3.9 5.3.10 5.3.2 5.5.4 5.5.4.c 5.6.1 5.7.4.b 5.7.5.b 7.12.5 6.2.4 6.2.5d 6.2.6 6.2.12.b2 6.2.12.e 6.2.13.a2 6.2.14 6.2.15.al 6.2.15.a2 6.2.15.0 6.2.15.f 6.2.17 6.2.18 6.3.1 6.2.21.c2 6.2.21.c5

Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. B C C D B B A B D C C B A B D A C C B B C C C B C

Ref. 6.7.4(l) 6.3.2 6.3.3.a(1) 6.3.3.c(l) 6.3.4 6.2.19 6.3.1 6.4.4.1 6.4.5 6.4.6.b 6.6.2 6.7.2.c 6.8.2 6.9.2 6.9.2 6.9.4.m 6.9.3.2 6.10.1 6.10.2 7.3.1.2 7.3.2.1 7.3.3 7.3.5 7.5.1.1 7.5.1

Q 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. D B B D D D B B A C B C A B C D B A D B D D A B C

Ref. 7.5.2 7.5.7.ai 7.5.7.2.ai 7.5.10 7.7.1 7.8.2 7.7.1 7.5.3.C 7.11.5 7.11.6 7.11.8 7.11.8.c 7.12.6 7.12.5 7.12.7 7.12.9 7.13.1.a 7.13.3 7.13.3 7.14.1 7.14.3.c 7.15.2 7.15.2.1.a 7.5.1.4 6.1.5

Questions – Chapter 7 Section -2

2.

Unless otherwise published or informed by ATC, after entering a hold all turns are made: a) b) c) d)

3.

In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at: a) b) c) d)

5.

To the left To the left then right To the right Procedure turn right then left

Rate of turn of 3 °/sec Rate of turn of 3 °/sec or 20 ° bank whichever is lesser Rate of turn of 30°/sec or at a bank angle of 25 ° whichever is lesser Bank angle of 25°

What radius from a terminal VOR is MSA provided? a) 25nm b) 10nm c) 15nm d) 15km

6.

What is the longest period of time that you can fly the 30° leg of a teardrop procedure when joining a holding pattern? a) b) c) d)

8.

What is the maximum speed (under normal conditions) for an aeroplane to enter a hold at 11,000 ft. without special ATC clearance? a) b) c) d)

9.

1 1/2 mins 2 1/2 mins 3 mins 30 secs -

230 kts 285 kts 250 kts 240 kts

What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach? a) 5.5% b) 2.5% c) 0.8% d) 3.3%

12. A precision Approach Procedure is defined as: a) b) c) d)

An approach using bearing, elevation and distance information An approach with a crew of at least 2 pilots trained for such operations An instrument approach procedure utilising azimuth and glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR An approach using bearing, elevation and, optionally, distance information

16.

In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than: a) b) c) d)

19.

When carrying out a 45/180° procedure turn in Class C, D or E aircraft, how long should the 45° leg be ? a) b) c) d)

20.

1 1 1 2

minute minute 15 seconds minute 30 seconds minutes

What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ? a) b) c) d)

21.

OCH/A 200ft 350ft 400ft

0.83 Mach 490 km/hr (265 kts) 315 km/hr (170 kts) 520 km/hr (280 kts)

What is the maximum interception angle which is allowed to the intermediate approach segment from the initial approach segment for a non-precision approach ? a) b) c) d)

30 ° 45° 120° 15°

23. An instrument approach is made up of a number of segments. How many of them are there? a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6 24. On a precision approach, where does the final approach segment start? a) DH b) FAF c) FAP d) MAPT 25. On an instrument approach, part of the procedure enables the aircraft to return inbound from outbound with track reversal. This is called: a) Base Turn b) Procedure Turn c) Reverse Procedure d) Racetrack

28. What are the obstacle clearance limits for visual manoeuvring (circling)? a) only determined for Cats A & B b) only determined for Cats C, D & E c) different for all Cats d) the same for all Cats

30. At what distance does an SRA normally terminate? a) b) c) d)

2nm 1 nm 3nm 1/2 nm

32. Which direction are turns in the standard holding pattern? a) b) c) d)

left right depends on w/v depends on entry made

33. When making an approach, when should a pilot change his altimeter from standard to aerodrome setting, unless otherwise authorised by ATC? a) b) c) d)

Transition altitude Transition level 300011 above sea level or 1000ft AGL, whichever is higher within the transition layer

34. What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways? a) b) c) d)

RVR 350m RVR 200 RVR 200 RVR 300

DH DH DH DH

not not not not

below below below below

100ft 100ft 200ft 200ft

35. When is OCH for an ILS approach complied with? a) b) c) d)

not not not not

more more more more

than than than than

1/2 scale glide path and full scale localiser deflectio n 1/2 scale localiser deflection 1/2 scale glide path and 35 ° localiser deflectio n full scale glide path and 1/2 scale localiser deflectio n

36. For the three entries into a hold, what is the sector tolerance? a) b) c) d)

+/+/+/+/-

5° 10 ° 15 ° 20°

37. How wide is the buffer area associated with a holding pattern? a) b) c) d)

3 3 5 5

kms runs kms nms

38. What is the width of the zone of flexibility regarding which procedure to execute when joining a holding pattern? a) +/-5 ° b) +/-10° c) +/-15° d) +/-20°

39. What range would the radar service be normally terminated for an SRA? a) b) c) d)

1 nm 1.5 nm 2 nm 4 nm

41. In which stage of an instrument approach do you align with the runway? a) b) c) d)

Initial segment Final segment Arrival segment Intermediate segment

42. During a visual manoeuvre (circling) in the downwind position you lose visual contact with the threshold of the landing runway. What do you do? a) b) c) d)

Carry out the missed approach procedure Turn through 90° and head towards the centre of the aerodrome until you regain visual reference Head towards the FAF Orbit in the present position until the visibility improves

43. What are ICAO defined instrument approaches? a) b) c) d)

Non-precision and CAT I / II / III precision Non-precision and Precision in general Precision CAT I / II / III Instrument precision and CAT 11/111

44. What is the transition level? a) b) c) d)

The The The The

first flight level above the transition altitude highest flight level available below the transition altitude top of the ATZ level at which 1013 is set

46. What is the name of the phase of an instrument approach in which the aircraft is aligned with the runway and descent commenced? a) Final b) Initial c) Intermediate d) Arrival 48. Are the minimum obstacle clearance heights for circling approach to land: a) the same for Cat A and B aircraft b) Different for each category c) The same for Cats A, B and D d) The same for Cat A and B, and the same for Cat C and D 50. Is it legal to pass over the Missed Approach Point at an altitude higher than MDA? a) Yes b) Never c) Sometimes d) It depends on the flight conditions

51. For an instrument approach, the missed approach gradient is: a) 3% b) 3.3% c) 5% d) 2.5% 54. What is the turn from outbound to inbound called with track reversal? a) b) c) d)

Base turn Procedure turn Reversal procedure Racetrack procedure

56. When following a SID, the pilot must: a) b) c) d)

Calculate the track required and request ATC clearance to follow it Fly the heading without wind correction Adjust the track specified to allow for the wind Fly the heading to make good the required track allowing for the wind

58. Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end? a) b) c) d)

From where a new instrument approach can be commenced Where 50 ft obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained Where a climb is established At the missed approach point

59. Who determines OCA/H? a) b) c) d)

The operator The flight operations department The authority of the State The Commander

63. OCH clearance on ILS is given, provided the accuracy flown on the localizer is within: a) b) c) d)

1

/4 scale deflection 1'/2 scale deflection 1 scale deflection 1/2 scale deflection

65. When calculating the type of entry to a holding pattern, which of the following is applicable? a) Aircraft magnetic heading b) Aircraft true track c) Aircraft track over the ground d) Aircraft compass heading 66. The holding direction of a holding pattern is 052 ° magnetic. You are flying inbound to hold on a heading of 232° magnetic. What type of join should you make? a) Direct b) Parallel c) Offset or Parallel d) Reciprocal

67. What is the zone of flexibility either side of sector boundaries when joining a hold? a) 5° b) 2.5 c) 10° d) 2 ° 68. Where does the initial sector of a missed approach procedure end? a) b) c) d)

When a height of 50m has been achieved and maintained When established in the climb At the missed approach point When en-route either to the hold or departure

70. The obstacle clearance surfaces for an ILS assume a pilot localizer accuracy of. a) b) c) d)

1/4 scale 1/2 scale 1 scale 1 1/2 scale

71. Flying a holding pattern in a jet aircraft at FL 1 10, the max IAS is: a) b) c) d)

170 240 230 280

kt kt kt kt

72. The abbreviation OIS means: a) b) c) d)

Obstacle in surface Obstruction in surface Obstruction identification surface Obstacle identification surface

74. Which of the following defines a standard holding procedure? a) b) c) d)

Right turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft Left turn at the fix; 1 minute below 14 000 ft Right turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes below 14 000 ft Left turn at the fix; 1.5 minutes above 14 000ft

76. What are the 5 segments of an instrument approach? a) b) c) d) 78. In a category a) b) c) d)

Initial; Intermediate; Descent; Final; Landing Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Missed Approach Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing; Missed Approach Arrival; Initial; Intermediate; Final; Landing A aeroplane, which reversing turn takes approximately 2 minutes in still air? 45/180° procedure turn 80/260° procedure turn Base turn Racetrack

79. During the arrival and initial segments of an instrument approach (not in mountainous areas) what is the minimum obstacle clearance provided? a) b) c) d)

300m At least 300m 150m At least 150m

80. When conducting a procedure turn (45°/180°), for how long should the 45° leg be flown for a Cat A or Cat B aircraft ? a) b) c) d)

1 1 1 2

minute 30 seconds minute minute 15 seconds minutes

82. What are the phases of the Missed Approach Procedure? a) b) c) d)

Initial, intermediate and final Arrival, initial, intermediate and final Initial and final Arrival, intermediate and final

83. The visual phase of a flight after completion of an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into the position for landing on a runway which is not suitably located for a straight-in approach is termed as: a) b) c) d)

Visual Approach Aerodrome traffic pattern Visual Manoeuvring (circling) Contact Approach

85. When on the final approach track a step-down fix is made, the decent has to be conducted such that: a) b) c) d)

You are 50 ft above the nominal glidepath The fix is passed no lower than the specified crossing altitude You leave the intermediate approach altitude step-by-step until reaching the MAPt The fix is passed with the mandatory vertical speed of 500 ft/min.

87. A precision approach is a direct instrument approach: a) b) c) d)

conducted by a crew consisting of at least 2 pilots who are properly trained which uses azimuth, elevation and distance information, provided that the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot and is certified to a height of 200 ft. which uses azimuth, distance and elevation information which uses azimuth and elevation information

89. The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance of 300 metres within a certain radius from the navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is: a) b) c) d)

15 30 25 20

nms (28 kms) nms (55 kms) nms (46 kms) runs (37 kms)

90. What is the minimum ground visibility for a CAT I ILS approach? a) 800m b) 550m c) 50m d) 550ft 91. What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140? a) b) c) d)

I minute 30 seconds 1 minute 2 minutes 30 seconds 2 minutes

92. Where does the initial approach segment begin in an instrument approach procedure? a) b) c) d)

At the At the At the At the

IF IAF FAF final en-route fix

93. If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to: a) b) c) d)

correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

94. Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA? a) b) c) d)

When When When When

it seems possible to land the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights the tower is visible

98. Turns in a standard holding pattern are: a) b) c) d)

in a direction dependent on the wind in a direction dependent on the type of entry left handed right handed

99. The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to a) b) c) d)

make a step-down descent in approaching sequence pass the specified inbound fix at a given time conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds pass a specific point

101.

Your transponder fails prior to departure and it is not practical to effect a repair. ATC is required to: a)

Permit you to proceed, as directly as possible, to the nearest suitable aerodrome where a repair can be made Permit you to proceed as normal Forbid you from taking off Permit you to take off as long as you have indicated the failure in the Flight Plan

b) c) d) 103.

A visual circling approach procedure: a) b) c) d)

104.

can only be conducted under radar control is a visual manoeuvre conducted under IMC entails the radar controller providing separation has to be conducted with visual reference to the ground

When can an aircraft descend below MSA? 1) the airfield and underlying terrain are visible and will remain so 2) the aircraft is under radar control 3) the underlying terrain is visible 4) the aircraft is following an approach procedure a) b) c) d)

1, 1, 2, 1,

2 and 4 3 and 4 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4

Answers to Questions – Chapter 7 Procedures for Air Navigation Service s / Aircraft Operations Section -2 1A 2C 3C 4A 5A 6A 7C 8A 9B 10 A 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 B 16 A 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 C 21 C 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 B 26 C

27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52

A C B A D B B A B A D A C A B A A A C A B B B A D A

53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78

A B D D B C C A D D D B A C A B A B C D B A D B C B

79 B 80 B 81 B 82 A 83 C 84 A 85 B 86 A 87 D 88 C 89 C 90 A 91 A 92 B 93 A 94 C 95 D 96 A 97 C 98 D 99 B 100 D 101 A 102 B 103 D 104 A

Questions – Chapter 8 1.

What is the definition of Distress? a) b) c) d)

An emergency condition where an aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance Persons on board an aircraft are in imminent danger and the flight cannot be continued The aircraft will be unable to land at a suitable aerodrome The aeroplane has a message to transmit concerning the safety of person on board or within sight

2.

What defines the SAR alert phase (ALERFA)? a) A situation in which an aeroplane and passengers are known to be in serious and imminent danger b) A situation where it is certain that fuel is exhausted c) A situation where apprehension exists about an aeroplane and its safety d) A situation in which an aeroplane and its passengers are in emergency

5.

In what class of airspace are all aircraft separated from one another and VFR is permitted? a) b) c) d)

7.

A control zone extends laterally from the centre of an aerodrome or aerodromes in the direction of approaching aircraft for at least a) b) c) d)

8.

250 kts TAS 250 kts IAS Not applicable 200 kts IAS

Voice ATIS is transmitted on a: a) b) c) d)

10.

7nms 5 rims 15 rims 20 rims

What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ? a) b) c) d)

9.

D E A B

Discrete VHF frequency only Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR VHF frequency or on ILS frequency ILS only

Who is responsible for setting into movement the Alert Phase? a) b) c) d)

FIC or the relevant ATCU The State and ATC The Area Control and the RCC RCC and the FIR

11.

What is the definition of the Emergency Phase? a) b) c) d)

The Distress Phase The Alarm Phase The Alert Phase A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the Distress Phase

Note : Although this is within the scope of Chapter 8, the reference is under Definitions contained in Chapter 18 of the Air Law Notes. 12.

FIS is provided to aircraft concerning collision hazards in the following classes of airspace: a) b) c) d)

13.

What are the three elements of an Air Traffic Control Service: a) b) c) d)

14.

ATC clearance and two way radio are required Two way radio not required ATC clearance and/or two way radio are required ATC clearance is required

Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by: a) b) c) d)

17.

Radar, SAR and FIS Area, Approach and Aerodrome Radar, Procedural and FIS Radar, Procedural and Alerting Service.

For VFR flight in class E airspace: a) b) c) d)

15.

C,D,E,F,G F and G only F A,B,C,D,E,F,G

country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier country identifier followed by P/D/R P/D/R followed by the identifier country identifier followed by numbers

Who is responsible for designating the RNP for an airway? a) b) c) d)

the State the State + ICAO ICAO RAN

18. In which class or classes of airspace would essential traffic information be given to VFR traffic about other VFR traffic? a) B b) BODE c) BC d) BCD

19.

What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA ? a) b) c) d)

21.

What type of airspace extends from the surface to a specified upper limit? a) b) c) d)

22.

The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome The controlling of all traffic in Class F airspace The controlling of all traffic in Class F & G airspace The controlling of IFR traffic

control area Air Traffic Zone control zone TMA

What class of airspace can you get an advisory service for IFR traffic and a FIS for VFR traffic? a) C b) D c) C d) F

23.

The lowest height of a CTA above ground or water is: a) 300m b) 150m c) 200m d) 500m

24.

How often is an ATIS updated? a) b) c) d)

25.

Every When When When

30 mins for VFR, every 59 mins IFR there is a change in information, irrespective of content or intensity the minimum ceiling and visibility are below VFR minimum there is a significant change in information.

RNP3 is a containment value meaning that a percentage of aircraft operating along a particular route would be within 3nm of the centre line all the time. What is that percentage? a) 98% b) 93% c) 95% d) 90%

26.

In what class of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS? a) A b) B c) D d) C; D and E

27.

The lower boundary of an UIR must be: a) An IFR flight level b) A VFR flight level c) Is not specified d) At any flight level

28.

List the services provided in a FIR: a) b) c) d)

30.

Who organises the RNP specification for airspace? a) b) c) d)

31.

FIS only FIS, advisory ATC, ATC FIS, aerodrome control FIS, alerting service

The State in which the airspace is located ICAO The State + ICAO States who agree what the RNP should be

What is the upper limit of a CTA? a) b) c) d)

2,000 ft 3,000 ft 5,000 ft A VFR Flight Level

33. In what class of airspace can both IFR and VFR fly and IFR traffic only receives an advisory service for separation? a) F b) E c) G d) D 35.

You are flying a visual approach in Class C airspace. ATC will: a) b) c) d)

36.

separate separate separate separate

you you you you

from from from from

all all all all

traffic IFR traffic arriving traffic VFR traffic

In which airspace can you be cleared to fly without a radio? a) b) c) d)

E&G D E, D C, D, E

37. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR separated from IFR and receives traffic information about other VFR traffic? a) Class A b) Class B c) Class C d) Class D 38.

In class C airspace, what flights are separated? a) All flights b) IFR from all flights; VFR from VFR c) IFR from IFR; VFR from IFR and VFR from VFR d) IFR from IFR; IFR from VFR; VFR from IFR

40. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing and communications have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service will be declared by the ATSU ? a) DETRESFA b) INCERFA c) ALERFA d) EMERGFA 41.

A Control Zone has to exist to at least: a) b) c) d)

42.

5 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made 20 rims from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made 15 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made 10 nms from the centre of the airfield or airfields concerned in the direction from where approaches can be made

When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alert phase is the responsibility of: a) b) c) d)

Air Traffic Coordination Centres Air Traffic Control and Flight Information Centres Search and Rescue Coordination Centres Air Traffic Control Centres only

44. According to ICAO Annex 11, what does the following statement define : "information concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of lowlevel aircraft operations and which was not already included in the forecast issued for low-level flights in the FIR concerned or sub-area thereof." a) b) c) d)

NOTAM SIGMET Information AIRMET Information En-route Weather Report

Answers to Questions – Chapter 8 Air Traffic Services 1A 11 D 21 C 31 D 41 A

2C 12 A 22 D 32 A 42 B

3D 13 B 23 C 33 A 43 C

4D 14 B 24 D 34 B 44 C

5D 15 A 25 C 35 A

6D 16 B 26 C 36 A

7B 17 A 27 B 37 C

8B 18 A 28 D 38 D

9B 19 D 29 B 39 B

10 A 20 C 30 A 40 C


When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in accordance with VFR until destination: 1) He/she must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression "cancelling my IFR flight" 2) He/she must request and obtain clearance 3) ATC will acknowledge with the time the IFR flight is cancelled 4) The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight Which of the following combinations is correct? a) b) c) d)

3.

4.

and 3 and 4 and 3 and 4

What letter goes in item 8 of a flight plan for a flight starting on IFR then changing to VFR? a) Z b) Y c) I d) V What is the delay for a controlled flight after which a flight plan has to be re-filed? a) b) c) d)

6.

2 2 1 1

30 30 60 60


What is the standard ICAO position report? a) b) c) d)

Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time, ensuing significant point Aircraft callsign, position, time, level, next position and time Aircraft callsign, position, level, next position and time Aircraft callsign, position, level, TAS, time

7.

After a delay of how long must a flight plan be amended or re-submitted for an uncontrolled flight? a) 15 mins b) 30 mins c) 45 mins d) 60 mins

8.

How is speed entered in item 15 of a flight plan? a) Ground speed b) True airspeed c) Ground speed plus 10% d) Indicated airspeed

10.

You have been given a clearance by ATC but you are forced to deviate from it for some reason. What do you do? a) Request deviation from the clearance after the fact b) Tell ATC at any time after the deviation c) Tell ATC as soon as possible after the deviation d) Notify ATC in writing within 24 hours

11.

You file a VFR flight plan. What do you put in field 16 (total EET)? a) b) c) d)

12.

from from from from

brakes off to overhead the destination brakes released to landing time take off to overhead the destination take off to landing

In the case of a delay of a controlled flight, the filed flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan must be filed, when the delay is: a) b) c) d)

13.

Time Time Time Time

30 60 30 60


more more more more

than than than than

the the the the

estimated estimated estimated estimated

off-blocks time off-blocks time departure time departure time

What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP? a) b) c) d)

present position and ETA estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance ETA and endurance

Answers to Questions – Chapter 9 Procedures for Air Traffic Management (PANS RAC DOC-444 4)

1C 11C

2B 12A

3B 13D

4A 14 A

5C

6A

7D

8B

9B

10C


What types of separation do ATC apply? a) b) c) d)

2.

What is a strayed aircraft? a) b) c) d)

4.

nm nm nm nm

If the pilot requests and the state approves If the pilot requests and it is day time If the pilot requests during day or night Irrelevant - the manoeuvre is not permitted

Minimum RNAV separation when RNP is specified is: a) b) c) d)

8.

80 60 50 20

When can one aircraft pass through the level of another aircraft which is flying along an ATS route, in VMC maintaining own separation? a) b) c) d)

7.

20 minutes 10 minutes 5 minutes 15 minutes

What is the longitudinal separation standard required for RNAV routes? a) b) c) d)

6.

One that has gone significantly off-track One that is lost and has reported so to ATC Both ‘a’ and ‘b’. One which its position has not been established by ATC

If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is: a) b) c) d)

5.

Horizontal, longitudinal and timing Horizontal, vertical and longitudinal Horizontal , vertical and composite Horizontal, vertical and lateral

80 nm 50 nm 80 or 50 dependant upon the RNP type 20 nm

If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one of the two may commence a climb or descent? a) b) c) d)

5 nm 10 nm 15 nm 20 nm

9.

Whilst in IFR in VMC you decide to maintain your own separation to descend through the level of another aircraft. What is required? a) b) c) d)

11.

An ATCO advises a pilot that "clearance expires at 0920" What does this mean? a) b) c) d)

12.

The flight must end by 0920 The slot time cannot be later than 0920 The next clearance will be issued at 0920 Time at which the clearance is cancelled if the flight hasn't commenced

What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine range from a beacon? a) b) c) d)

13.

During day you must request clearance and with ATC authority approval You must request clearance and the ATC authority must approve, during day or night You only need to request approval for the manoeuvre In CAS the manoeuvre is illegal

10 10 20 20

nm where nm where nm where nm where

the the the the

first first first first

aircraft aircraft aircraft aircraft

speed speed speed speed

is 40 is 20 is 40 is 20

kts kts kts kts

faster faster faster faster

than than than than

the the the the

second second second second

Two aircraft are using the Mach Number technique (both at same Mach Number or first faster than second) for same track separation. If using an RNAV track what would be the standard separation in lieu of time? a) b) c) d)

80 60 50 25

nm nm nm nm

15. Two aircraft are flying the same route where the Mach Number technique is applied. What is the minimum RNAV distance based separation that may be applied in lieu of the normal 10 minutes longitudinal separation? a) 150nm b) 50nm c) 80nm d) 120nm 18. A separation minimum based on "RNAV" distance can be used at the moment the level is being passed, assuming that every aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on-track" waypoint. The minimum is: a) b) C) d)

60 80 50 20

nms nms rims nms

Answers to Questions – Chapter 10 Area Control Service 1C 11D

2C 12B

3A 13A

4C 14B

5A 15C

6B 16B

7C 17D

8C 18B

9A 19D

10A


At commencement of final approach, if the approach controller has wind component information, what change in cross wind component change would be passed to the pilot? a) b) c) d)

2.

Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction? a) b) c) d)

3.

When When When When

the the the the



reports reports reports reports

leaving the level 1,000 ft out of the level at the cleared level through 500 ft from the original level

On an approach by an IFR flight, when can this be converted to a visual approach: a) b) c) d)

8.

5 minutes or more 10 minutes or more 1 minute or more 15 minutes or more

If one aircraft wishes to occupy the level of another aircraft which has been cleared to descend, when can the first aircraft start descending to that level? a) b) c) d)

7.

All arriving and departing controlled flights All arriving IFR traffic Traffic within the CTA All VFR traffic

A revised EAT shall be transmitted to an aircraft whenever it differs from that EAT previously transmitted by: a) b) c) d)

6.


Approach control is provided for: a) b) c) d)

5.

10 kts 8 kts 3 kts 5 kts

after the FAF with visual reference to the terrain when the visibility is greater than 5km after the MAP

A controlled flight reports `field in sight'. Under what conditions may the flight make a visual approach? . a) when the controller will provide separation from other traffic b) the aircraft has passed the FAF c) with a met visibility at least 8kms d) the remainder of the approach is to be conducted under VMC.

9.

Two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the first aircraft being 40kts or more faster. What separation should be provided? a) b) c) d)

10.

2 3 5 7

mins mins mins mins

On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately after take-off at least: a) 45° b) 15° c) 30° d) 20°

11.

When can normal separation be reduced? a) b) c) d)

15.

it seems possible to land the aircraft is in contact with the ground but does not have the runway in sight the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and is visual with the runway lights the tower is visible

make a step-down descent in approaching sequence pass the specified inbound fix at a given time conduct the approach procedure with specified speeds pass a specific point

According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction: a) b) c) d)

18.

When When When When

The term "timed approach procedure" is used to expedite, if needed, the approach of a number of inbound aircraft. This is achieved by asking aeroplanes to: a) b) c) d)

17.

the controller has both aircraft in sight the following aircraft has the preceding in sight and can maintain it both pilots request it both aircraft are under radar control

Under which circumstances may an aircraft on a "straight in" VOR approach continue below OCA? a) b) c) d)

16.

When When When When

before landing and taxi for take-off in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give an AIREP when the local variation is greater than 10°East or West

What separation is applied to two aircraft where the first is 40 kts faster than the second on departure? a) b) c) d)

2 mins 5 mins 10 mins 4 mins

Answers to Questions – Chapter 11 Approach Control Service 1D 2B 3A 4D 5A 6A 7B 8A 9A 10A 11B 12D 13B 14B 15C 16B 17A 18A 19A


What is the maximum distance from touchdown that a radar controller can request a change of speed to an aircraft on final approach? a) 5nm b) 3nm c) 2nm d) 4nm

2.

What is the criterion for an aerodrome to be controlled? a) b) c) d)

3.

Separation Helping when aircraft communications have failed To assist pilots with technical problems To assist pilots of aircraft that are lost

Always At all times unless otherwise instructed by ATC At your discretion regardless of ATC instructions Mode A always; Mode C at pilots discretion

Between two aircraft on the same track, what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided for wake turbulence? a) b) c) d)

10.

min min min min

When must you operate your SSR transponder? a) b) c) d)

9.

5 3 1 2

What is the primary reason for Radar in ATC? a) b) c) d)

5.

must be located within a CTR must have a control tower giving an ATC service must have a control tower and be in a CTR must be in controlled airspace

What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the same runway? a) b) c) d)

4.

It It It It

4 nms 2.5 nms 2 nms 3 nms

The maximum speed change that may be required during a radar approach is: a) b) c) d)

± ± ± ±

40 kts 5 kts 10 kts 20 kts

11.

To whom is the alerting service provided? a) b) c) d)

14.

Degrees true, to be corrected for wind Degrees magnetic to be corrected for wind Degrees true Degrees magnetic

When should you use a SSR mode C transponder? a) b) c) d)

24.

in controlled airspace when requested by ATC in uncontrolled airspace when under radar control

If you are given an instruction by ATC, steer heading 030, is the heading: a) b) c) d)

22.

45° 15° 30° or more a minimum of 25 °

When may the pilot operate the ìdent' switch on the transponder? a) b) c) d)

21.

5nm 3nm 10nm 15nm

A radar controller wants to identify an aircraft on radar. By how much will the aircraft be turned? a) b) c) d)

20.

The pilot is responsible for own navigation Radar vectoring is terminated The pilot should contact next ATC unit The pilot should contact the current ATC unit

What is standard radar separation? a) b) c) d)

17.

IFR traffic flight-planned aircraft hijacked aircraft traffic known to ATC

An aircraft in receipt of a radar service is told to "resume own navigation". This means: a) b) c) d)

15.

All All All All

Only when directed by ATC Always Always in controlled airspace Only in controlled airspace

What separation is required between a medium taking off behind a heavy? a) 2 mins b) 3 mins c) 4 mins d) 5 mins

25.

What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser? a) b) c) d)

5 nm 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kts faster than the second 10 nm 20 nm

26. The maximum radar separation between 2 aircraft on the same approach with wake turbulence separation applied as required is: a) b) c) d)

28.

If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what do you set on the SSR transponder? a) b) c) d)

30.

Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft Aircraft

on on on on

the the the the

movement area and flying in the vicinity manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity movement area only manoeuvring area only

On final approach, what is the minimum radar separation standard, notwithstanding wake turbulence separation? a) b) c) d)

33.

At pilots discretion Dependant on weather conditions At a standard rate unless instructed by ATC Not less than 30°

Aerodrome traffic is considered to be: a) b) c) d)

32.

A/2000 + C A/7500 + C A/7600 + C A/7700 + C

During radar vectoring procedures, turns are to be: a) b) c) d)

31.

6 nms 2.5 runs 4 nms 2 nms

5 nm 2.5 nm 2 run 1 nm

What is the minimum radar separation when a heavy category aircraft is preceding a light category aircraft on final approach? a) b) c) d)

2.5 run 3 nm 5 nm 6 nm

37.

The phases used to indicate that an aircraft is in distress or used when an aircraft is assumed to be in distress are: a) b) c) d)

38.

b) c) d)

minutes minutes minutes minute

2 1 3 4

minutes minute minutes minutes

the aircraft is identified and will receive separation from all aircraft while you are communicating with this radar facility ATC is receiving your transponder and will provide you with vectors and advice concerning traffic until you are notified that contact is lost your aircraft is identified on the radar screen you receive radar advisory concerning traffic until you are notified that the contact is lost or radar service is terminated

The letter " L" is used in the wake turbulence section of the flight plan when the maximum certified take-off mass of an aircraft is less or equal to: a) b) c) d)

44.

3 2 5 1

What does the ATC term "radar contact" mean? a)

43.

urgency phase and distress phase alert phase, urgency phase and distress phase alert phase and distress phase alert phase and urgency phase

Which separation minimum must be used for wake turbulence when a medium aircraft departs behind a heavy aircraft and both use the same runway? a) b) c) d)

42.

phase, phase, phase, phase,

A light or medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy from an intermediate part of the same runway. What wake turbulence separation will be applied? a) b) c) d)

41.

uncertainty uncertainty uncertainty uncertainty

5,700 kg for fixed-wing aircraft and 2700 kg for helicopters 14,000 kg 20,000 kg 7,000 kg

If an aircraft is vectored to intercept the localiser during parallel runway operations, the final vector must be such that the aircraft is enabled to intercept the localiser course with an angle not greater than: a) 20° b) 30° c) 15° d) 25°

. 45.

The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is: a) light aircraft behind medium aircraft; 4 minutes b) medium aircraft behind medium aircraft; 2 minutes c) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 3 minutes d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft; 2 minutes

Answers to Questions – Chapter 12 Aerodrome Control, RADAR Services, Ad visory Service and Alerting Service 1D 2B 3D 4A 5B 6B 7C 8B 9A 10 D 11 D 12 B 13 D 14 B 15 A 16 A 17 C 18 C 19 D 20 B 21 D 22 B 23 B 24 A

25 A 26 A 27 C 28 D 29 D 30 C 31 B 32 A 33 D 34 A 35 D 36 B 37 C 38 A 39 A 40 D 41 A 42 C 43 D 44 B 45 D 46 A 47 A


2.

In which section of the AIP would you find information on holding, approach and departing procedures? a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) None

3.

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of: a) b) c) d)

4.

AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries. AIP and amendment service, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs, checklists and summaries. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and summaries. AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

In what section of the AIP are details of SIGMET found? a) GEN b) ENR c) AD d) COMMS

5.

Where in the AIP is a list of Location Indicators to be found? a) b) c) d)

6.

A check list for NOTAMs is issued: a) b) c) d)

7.

every 5 days every 28 days every 18 days at intervals of not more than one month.

AIP approach charts do not give information for Instrument Approach Procedures for: a) b) c) d)

8.

GEN COMMS AD AGA

OCA/H Visibility minima Obstacles protruding above the obstacle free zone DME frequencies

AIP supplements with extensive text and graphics cover a short period. What is a long period in this respect? a) b) c) d)

1 2 3 6

yr months months months

9.

AIRAC is: a) b) c) d)

10.

What information is not on an aerodrome approach plate? a) b) c) d)

11.

DME frequency OCA Dominant obstacles Operating minima if the aerodrome is being used as an alternative

Where in the AIP is information concerning re-fuelling facilities and services found? a) b) c) d)

12.

A breakdown service Notification of operationally significant changes to the AIP A medical evacuation flight An Army Air Corps publication

ENR SUPP AD GEN

Where in the AIP would you find information concerning prohibited, restricted or danger areas? a) ENR b) SUPP c) AD d) GEN

14.

What is the co-efficient of braking, if the braking action is reported as medium? a) b) c) d)

16.

Between. 1.0 and 0.25 Between 0.25 and 0.3 Between 0.30 and 0.35 Between 0.35 and 0.4

Aerodrome Flight Information Service (AFIS): a) b) c) d)

Facilitates ATC services but is not an official organisation only gives ATC information to an aircraft in flight and on the ground has the same authority and privileges as an ATC organisation, but the activities are neither continuous or regular can only give limited service to its users but, in any case, cannot give ATC services

Answers to Questions – Chapter 13 Aeronautical Information Services 1A 11 C

2B 12 A

3A 13 A

4A 14 C

5A 15 D

6D 16 D

7B 17 C

8C

9B

10 D


A radio altimeter operating area must extend before the threshold of a precision approach runway for a distance of at least: a) 100 metres b) 200 metres c) 300 metres d) 500 metres

7.

How are the runways marked at an airfield where there are three parallel runways? a) 02.03.04 b) The QDM for the third runway will be increased by 10° c) The L and R runways will have differing QDM's d) `L' `C' `R'

9.

What is a stopway for? a) Stopping after landing distance b) Extending the Landing Distance Available c) Stopping after an aborted take off d) A runway extension for big aircraft

11.

A transverse white stripe on a runway is associated with a: a) closed runway b) runway which is 2400 meters or longer c) displaced runway d) runway available for circling to land approaches

14.

The stopway is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the take-off run available which is prepared as a suitable area: a) To stop an aircraft after a rejected take-off b) To stop a landing aircraft in case of an emergency c) To stop a starting or landing aircraft d) To stop a landing aircraft if it overshoots the runway

15.

Which of the following statements is correct? a) Taxiway markings are white and runway markings are yellow b) Numerals on aerodrome signs are reserved for runways c) A clearway has the same function as a RESA d) The pairs of touchdown zone markings are separated from each other by 120 meters

16.

A PAPI a) b) c) d)

system consists of 2 wing bars of 4 lights uniformally spaced 1 wing bar of 4 lights uniformally spaced 2 wing bars of 6 lights uniformally spaced 2 wing bars of 2 lights uniformally spaced

Answers to Questions – Chapter 14 Aerodromes

1B 11C

2D 12B

3A 13C

4D 14 A

5C 15B

6D 16B

7D

8D

9C

10 A


How many bars are there on a full Calvert approach light system? a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

2.

Lead in lights are: a) b) c) d)

4.

What colour are runway end lights? a) b) c) d)

5.

150 200 250 300

metres metres metres metres

What colour lights are runway edge lights, not including cautionary areas or pre-displaced thresholds`? a) b) c) d)

8.

Omni directional green Uni-directional green, showing in the direction of the approach Uni-directional white, showing in the direction of the approach Red uni-directional

On a Cat I lighting system, what is the distance between the single, double and treble lights on the extended centre-line of a runway? a) b) c) d)

7.

Unidirectional red Unidirectional white Omni directional red Omni directional white

What is the colour of threshold lighting? a) b) c) d)

6.

Green at threshold across the runway White flashing in direction pointing towards the runway Yellow Steady white across the runway

Red or yellow White Yellow Blue

An aerodrome identification beacon on a land based aerodrome is: a) b) c) d)

blue white green red

9.

What colour is an aerodrome identification beacon light? a) b) c) d)

10.

What is the colour of threshold lights? a) b) c) d)

11.

Only flashing lights A group of at least 3 white lights which are flashing in sequence in the direction of the runway Arbitrary number of green lights Always a straight row of lights in the direction of the runway

On the PAPI system the pilot can see, during the approach, two white lights furthest from the runway and two red lights closest to the runway. Is the aircraft? a) b) c) d)

20.

Fixed showing blue Fixed showing green Fixed showing yellow Flashing showing blue

Runway lead-in lights must consist of. a) b) c) d)

19.

Black on red, or red on black Yellow on red, or black on yellow Yellow on black, or black on yellow Orange on black, or black on orange

Taxiway edge lights are: a) b) c) d)

17.

300 m 600 m 900 m 1200 m

Aerodrome information signs are: a) b) c) d)

15.

Steady white Flashing white Steady green Flashing green

What is the length of the approach lighting for a CAT I system? a) b) c) d)

14.

Flashing Green Flashing Green and White Steady Green Flashing White

Under the approach glide path Above the approach glide path Precisely on the glide path On or close to the approach glide path

The abbreviation "PAPI" stands for: a) b) c) d)

Precision Approach Path Index Precision Approach Power Indicator Precision Approach Path Indicator Precision Approach Power Index

21.

What is the light indication of a land-based aerodrome beacon? a) b) c) d)

Green alternating with white flashes or white flashes only White flashes only Green flashes only Same as an Aerodrome Identity Beacon

Answers to Questions – Chapter 15 Aerodrome Lights and Signs 1A 2B 3A 4A 5B 6D 7B 8C 9A 10C 11C 12A 13A 14C 15A 16B 17B 18D 19D 20C 21A 22B


What is the colour of a low intensity obstacle light? a) b) c) d)

2.

Low intensity obstruction lights on buildings and moving objects are: a) b) c) d)

5.

low intensity steady red lights low intensity flashing red lights medium intensity steady red lights medium intensity flashing red lights

Must an aerodrome fire station be located within the confides of an aerodrome? a) b) c) d)

10.

Green Dayglo orange A single conspicuous colour, preferably red or yellowish green White and red chequered

An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by: a) b) c) d)

9.

Flashing yellow Flashing red Flashing blue Steady red

What colour are emergency vehicles painted that are used on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome? a) b) c) d)

8.

Flashing green Flashing yellow Steady red Steady blue

What colour lights are vehicles moving on the aerodrome required to show? a) b) c) d)

6.

Blue Steady red Yellow Flashing red

No, providing the response time can be met Yes No No, providing it is within 3 minutes driving time of the aerodrome

The level of rescue and fire fighting facilities is dependent upon the category of the aerodrome. What factors determine this category? a) Aeroplane reference field length, wing span and outer main gear wheel span of the largest aircraft using that aerodrome b) The length of the longest runway and the area to be covered c) The overall length and the fuselage width of the longest aircraft using that aerodrome d) The length of the longest runway and total area of hardstandings (including access roads)

Answers to Questions – Chapter 16 Aerodrome Obstacles and Emergency Services 1B 2C 3A 4B 5A 6C 7C 8A 9A 10 C


The General Declaration is signed by the: a) b) c) d)

The Pilot in Command only The Pilot in Command or the Agent Any flight crew member The Operator

Answers to Questions – Chapter 17 Facilitation 1B

2A

3B

4C

5B


2.

What does the SAR signal "X" on the ground mean? a) b) c) d)

4.

For what period are SAR services to be provided by a Contracting State? a) b) c) d)

5.

Wait for aircraft 3 to arrive Aircraft 2 because he has good communications with ATC Aircraft 2 until aircraft 3 arrives Aircraft 1 until aircraft 2 arrives who then passes control to aircraft 3

Which of the following means `Require assistance'? a) b) c) d)

7.

During the hours of operation of an FIR On a 24 hour basis hours before until 2 hours after the first flight arrives and the last departing flight within an FIR During the hours of both commercial and military air operations within the FIR

Three aircraft are at the scene of an accident. Aircraft 1 arrives first but cannot contact ATC. Aircraft 2 arrives second and has good communications with ATC. Aircraft 3 arrives last and is an SAR aircraft. Who assumes responsibility ? a) b) c) d)

6

We need help We are OK We need medical supplies We have gone away

Y X LL V

When sighting a distress flare at night, you should: a) b) c) d)

Circle once Flash landing lights or navigation lights Rock wings Send the letter R in Morse by lights to the downed aircraft

9.

Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service? a) b) c) d)

10.

What does the SAR ground signal "V" mean? a) b) c) d)

12.

FIC and RCC RCC and rescue sub-centres FIC, RCC and ACC ICAO through regional navigation plans

We have gone south We need assistance We need medical assistance Yes

Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is: a) ++ b) LLL c) LL d) Y

Answers to Questions – Chapter 18 Search and Rescue 1A 2C 3C 4B 5D 6D 7B 8D 9B 10 B I1 C 12 C


In ICAO Annex 17 (Security), what does Security mean? a) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against Unlawful Interference b) To safeguard international civil aviation operations c) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against hijacking d) To safeguard international civil aviation operations against terrorism

3.

ICAO Annex 17 states that each State is responsible for establishing security at: a) all aerial locations within the FIR b) at each aerodrome serving international civil aviation c) all international airports d) all international and commercial airports

4.

Contracting States must design a security programme, with regard to Unlawful Interference, to safeguard: a) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights b) Passengers, crews, ground personnel and the general public c) Crews only for international flights d) Passengers, cargo and crews for international flights and, at their discretion, all of these for domestic flights

5.

If armed personnel are to be carried to ensure the safety of an aircraft, then: a) the PIC must be informed b) the state of departure must notify the state of arrival c) the state of departure must notify the airport of arrival d) all of the above

6.

According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended to safeguard: a) civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference" b) international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference" c) international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference" d) aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference"

7.

Operators are to ensure that procedures are detailed for the carriage of: a) b) c) d)

Deportees and people under lawful custody Deportees, people under lawful custody and inadmissibles Only people under lawful custody when physically restrained Only deportees and inadmissibles

8.

Airlines a) b) c) d)

are to have procedures in place when carrying potentially disruptive passengers confined to: Inadmissibles, deportees, persons in custody Persons in custody Inadmissibles, deportees Deportees, persons in custody

9.

An aircraft subjected to Unlawful Interference cannot be denied: a) Permission to land and fuel b) Air Traffic Services, permission to land and the use of navigational aids. c) Food and water for the occupants of the aircraft d) Air Traffic Services and fuel

10.

To whom does the National Security organisation of a state have to make available a written version of its national security programme for civil aviation? a) b) c) d)

ICAO and ECAC ICAO ECAC Other States

11.

For the transport of persons who are at risk for security and/or health, certain precautions should be taken among which is to: a) Embark after all other passengers b) Embark before all other passengers c) Embarking at the captain's discretion d) Embarking at the State's discretion

12.

An isolated parking area is to be provided for an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference which is never less than ............ metres from other parking positions: a) 1,000 b) 2,500 c) 3,000 d) 100

13.

A national civil aviation security programme must be established by: a) ICAO and other organisations including the Contracting States concerned b) ICAO c) All Contracting States d) ECAC

14.

Member States should ensure that specific security measures are conducted in the air transport of undesirable passengers. These are seen as: a) None of the answers are correct b) Deportees, inadmissible passengers and persons in custody c) Deportees and inadmissible passengers only d) Deportees and persons in custody

15.

The State shall take adequate measures for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful interference until: a) the end of the subsequent investigation b) as such time as requested by the passengers and crew c) their journey can be continued d) they are returned to their country of origin

16.

A person found to be inadmissible shall be given to the custody of the operator who shall be responsible for: a) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person is admissible at the expense of the operator without redress. b) transportation to where the person commenced his/her journey or to any place where the person is admissible at the expense of the operator. However nothing precludes the operator from recovering from such a person any transportation costs arising from his/her inadmissibility. c) returning such a person to their country of origin d) returning such a person to their normal residence

Answers to Questions – Chapter 19 Security 1B 11B

2A 12 D

3B 13 A

4B 14 B

5D 15 C

6B 16 B

7B

8A

9B

10 D


According to ICAO, who is entitled to be represented on an Aeronautical Accident Investigation Board (AAIB)? a) b) c) d)

2.

An aircraft wheel gets stuck in the mud whilst taxiing to the runway for take-off and sustains damage. Is this: a) b) c) d)

3.

An ICAO (working) language English Major national language Any language of a contracting state

The sole purpose of Accident Investigation is the prevention of future accidents and: a) b) c) d)

6.

State of Occurrence State or Registry ICAO Combination of A and B

In which language must an accident report be submitted to ICAO? a) b) c) d)

5.

an incident an accident a serious incident covered by normal operating procedures

Who is responsible for the investigation of an accident? a) b) c) d)

4.

State of Registry and state of aircraft manufacture State of Registry, aircraft operator and state of operator Any state which on request provides assistance or information to help the AAIB. Any ICAO state

Apportion blame Nothing else To improve manufacturing design To help judicial investigations

When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that: a)

b) c)

d)

the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still airworthy. the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where the aircraft is registered which says that the aircraft is still airworthy the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy

7.

Just before arrival at the apron, the aircraft unintentionally taxies onto the grass causing the wheel to ride into a pothole. The aircraft has sustained serious damage and consequently the crew is forced to delay the departure: a)

considering that there is no physical injury and that the flight has ended, the action that has to be taken is merely constricted to notification of the insurance company, the mechanic, the operator and persons who are in charge of runways and taxiways b) This is an accident and the crew should follow the appropriate procedures c) This is an incident and the captain has to report this to the aerodrome authority within 48 hours d) This is an irregularity in the exploitation. This crew should inform the operator about the delay caused by necessary repairs Answers to Questions – Chapter 20 Aircraft Accident and Incident Investigation 1C 2B 3A 4A 5B 6B 7B


1.

It has been raining but the surface of a runway has no patches of standing water on it. How would ATC describe the state of the runway in this situation? a. b. c. d.

2.

What information concerning contaminants on an aerodrome is reported by SNOWTAM? a. b. c. d.

4.

The threshold A temporary displaced threshold A displace threshold 1000 ft from the end zone

What marks a runway holding position? a. b. c. d.

9.

White Green Yellow Green/yellow

What does a white line drawn across a runway indicate? a. b. c. d.

8.

50m 100 m 150 m 200 m

What colour is taxiway centre line markings? a. b. c. d.

6.

Clear ice, rime ice and snow Light snow, heavy snow and blizzard Snow, ice and standing water Wet snow, dry snow and frozen snow

Where a parking bay is provided at an aerodrome for the use by aircraft that have been subject to unlawful interference, what is the minimum distance that parking bay is to be from other bays? a. b. c. d.

5.

Wet Damp Not dry Braking action poor

One of three different line arrangements painted across the taxiway Occulting yellow `guard' lights A red marker board either side of the taxiway A red light stop bar

What colour are apron safety lines? a. b. c. d.

White Red Green A contrasting colour from the aircraft stand markings

10.

Do all runways require centreline markings? a. b. c. d.

13.

A NOTAM is to be issued to addressees for whom the information is of operational significance provided they would not have ..... days prior notification. What number of days correctly fills the space? a. b. c. d.

14.

A stopbar A pattern A runway holding position Cat 1 holding point A taxiway/runway intersection sign

For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a `runway vacated' sign positioned? a. b. c. d.

20.

6 5 4 3

Which would you expect to find on a taxiway, at the closest point to a runway? a. b. c. d.

19.

Notification of no smoking areas Volcanic activity Predicted volcanic eruptions Aerodromes closed by volcanic ash contamination

On a runway with a length of 2500 m, how many pairs of touchdown zone markings are required? a. b. c. d.

18.

3 5 7 9

What is an ASHTAM used for? a. b. c. d.

16.

No, only paved runways No, only runways over 50 m wide No, only instrument runways Yes, but temporary grass runways may be exempt if less than 1200m long

30 m at the end of the ILS/MLS sensitive area 60 m A distance equal to twice the width of the runway

Crash/rescue (emergency) services provision is categorised according to physical characteristics of the type of aeroplane using the aerodrome. The categories are 1 - 10. Upon what are the categories based? a. b. c. d.

Length and max take-off mass Max number of passengers and crew Overall length and fuselage width Max landing mass and max number of passengers

21.

What is the ICAO bird strike information system called? a. IBSI b. IBIS c. IRIS d. BSIS

22.

An obstacle that is required to be marked in the vicinity of an aerodrome where night operations are carried out, is 180 m high. How is it to be lit? a. b. c. d.

23.

How is a paved pre-threshold area which is not suitable for use by aircraft, marked? a. b. c. d.

25.

c. d.

To permit aircrew temporary residence in en route countries To allow flight crew to be exempt customs, health and immigration formalities at an enroute aerodrome To replace the crew member's licence To provide identification of aircrew

From 2 hours before until 2 hours after any flight enters/leaves the airspace On a 24 hour basis When a state of emergency has been declared When the authority of the state deems necessary

What is the meaning of this SAR ‘N’visual signal when used by survivors on the ground? a. b. c. d.

31.

white arrows directing approaching aircraft to the displaced threshold yellow chevrons pointing towards the threshold a yellow X white crosses evenly spaced

When are Search and Rescue facilities are to be provided in the airspace of a state? a. b. c. d.

29.

By By By By

What is the purpose of a Crew Member's Certificate? a. b.

26.

High intensity white flashing lights Red flashing lights Steady (non flashing) red lights A combination of red lights every 50 m and high intensity flashing white at 90 m and 180 m.

Require assistance Negative Affirmative Require medical assistance

25% of the runway of a runway is covered with standing water. How would ATC describe the state of the runway? a. b. c. d.

Water patches Flooded Damp Wet

33.

Two aircraft are departing from a reporting point defined by an NDB. What is the minimum track separation required before one aircraft would be permitted to climb/descend through the other aircraft's level? a. b. c. d.

35.

d.

10° 15° 30° 45°

The The The The

preceding preceding preceding preceding


must must must must

be be be be

20kts 40kts 50kts 60kts


than than than than

the the the the

following following following following


Wing span of 35m or more Four turbojet engines Take off mass of 145 000 kg 245 passenger seats

Air traffic advisory service to IFR flights and flight information to VFR Air traffic advisory to all participating IFR traffic and flight information to others Radar advisory service to participating traffic and flight information where no radar is available Air traffic control to participating traffic and advisory ATC to all other

What is required for aircraft flying IFR in advisory airspace but not electing to use the air traffic advisory service? a. b. c. d.

42.

nm or more Km or more nm or more Km or more

What type of air traffic service is provided in class F airspace? a. b. c.

41.

of 15 of 15 of 15 of 15

What classifies an aeroplane as `heavy' for wake turbulence separation? a. b. c. d.

40.

a distance a distance a distance a distance

For a separation of 2 minutes to be applied between successive departures on the same track, what is the required speed difference? a. b. c. d.

38.

and and and and

What track divergence angle is required immediately after take off to allow a departure interval of one minute between successive departures from the same runway to be achieved? a. b. c. d.

37.

15° 15° 30° 30°

Keep clear of all notified advisory routes Fly at VFR flight levels File a flight plan Maintain a good look out for other IFR traffic using the service

An IFR flight not in receipt of an advisory service w ishes to cross an advisory route. procedure shall be used to cross the route'? a. b. c. d.

Cross at an intermediate level i.e FL75: FL95 etc.. Cross at 90° to the centre line at the appropriate IFR level Cross at 90" to the centre line at the appropriate VFR level Such crossings ire only to be made at the base of the airway

What

45.

Which of the following is an approved method of identifying a contact on radar as an aeroplane to which a service is to be given'? a. b. c. d.

47.

A MEDIUM wake turbulence category aircraft is following a HFAVY category aircraft on a radar vectored approach to land. What is the minimum radar separation to be applied'? a. b. c. d.

50.

b. c. d.

When an instrument approach is not completed and visual reference to terrain is subsequently maintained An approach made under VFR using instrument height and track guidance Any part of an instrument approach that is carried out in VMC The circling portion of a precision approach to a runway other than the runway on which the landing is to be made

What is the only item permitted to protrude through the plane of an approach lighting system within 60 m of the centre line? a. b. c. d.

55.

Your distance from touchdown and observed deviation from the glide path Distance from touchdown and advisory height information Range and bearing from touchdown and when you are at MDH Distance to run to your MDH and deviation from the extended centre line

Which of the following defines a visual approach? a.

54.

Resume position reports Squawk standby Squawk A/2000 Leave controlled airspace

If you are flying a surveillance radar approach (non-precision), what information must the radar controller pass to you? a. b. c. d.

53.

5 nm 4 nm providing 1000 ft vertical separation also maintained 6 nm until the speed of the heavy is reduced below wake turbulence threshold There is no specified minimum for this case

You are flying IFR in controlled airspace and are advised that radar service is terminated. What must you do? a. b. c. d.

51.

The aircraft reporting his position as a range and bearing from the radar head Observation of a SSR squawk Observation on radar of a turn made by the aircraft Aircraft compliance with an instruction to squawk ident

An ILS or MLS azimuth (centreline guidance) antenna A fixed object not more than 45 ft high The ILS glidepath antenna The aerodrome boundary security fence

What colour are runway edge lights? a. Blue b. Yellow c. Red d. White

56.

Where a runway has a displaced threshold what colour are the edge lights between the end of the runway and the displaced threshold, showing in the direction of the approach? a. Blue b. White c. Red d. Green

57.

Are runway edge lights required to show all round (omni-directionally)? a. b. c. d.

58.

Which of the following correctly describes runway end lights? a. b. c. d.

61.

d.

Cloud Cloud Cloud Cloud

base and ground visibility for take off ceiling and ground visibility for take off base and RVR for take off ceiling and RVR for take off.

What is the name of the part of an aerodrome used for the positioning of aircraft for the embarkation/disembarkation of passengers? a. b. c. d.

66.

They are used as traffic lights on aerodromes to control vehicles in poor ground visibility They are used specifically to indicate "stop here" to non radio traffic in IMC conditions They are positioned at all taxi-holding positions for runways when RVR is less than 350m At runway entrances to prevent vehicular movement in RVR equal to or less than 550m

Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima? a. b. c. d.

65.

Fixed; uni-directional; red Fixed, omni-directional; red Fixed; uni-directional; green Fixed; omni-directional; green

Generally, when and where are stop bars provided'? a. b. c.

64.

No, only in the direction of the approach Yes where they are intended to provide guidance during circling No, they are only required to show in azimuth in both runway directions Yes but not vertically (limited to 15° above the horizontal)

Apron Ramp Stands Parking Bays

What is the proper name given to a business that includes the provision of flights for the purpose of public transport of passengers or cargo? a. b. c. d.

A scheduled air service A commercial air operation An air transport operation An airline

67.

What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH? a. b. c. d.

71.

What is the maximum permitted intercept angle between the initial approach track and the intermediate approach track for a precision instrument approach? a. b. c. d.

72.

This is the segment in which speed and configuration are adjusted It is not possible to guarantee full obstacle clearance in this segment Usually track guidance is poor in this segment resulting in a requirement for a high MOC Pilots cannot cope with track maintenance and a high rate of descent

A Visual Manoeuvring (Circling) Area may be sectored to exclude a prominent obstacle. Under what circumstances is this is permitted? a. b. c. d.

77.

Yes, but DH now becomes MDH Yes, but the non-precision criteria must be complied with It depends if the descent on the GP has already been initiated Yes if the flight is in VMC

Why is the descent gradient kept as low as possible in the intermediate approach segment? a. b. c. d.

75.

At DH/MDH At any point that the criteria to continue the approach is lost At the missed approach point Over the threshold of the instrument runway

If the ILS glide path transmitter fails during an instrument procedure can the approach be continued? a. b. c. d.

74.

30° 45° 60° 90°

Where does the missed approach procedure start? a. b. c. d.

73.

Glide path Final approach Approach to landing Go around/Missed approach

Flight visibility of 1500 m or more and cloud ceiling of 850ft or more The obstacle is outside the final approach or missed approach areas The obstacle lies on the other side of the aerodrome from the threshold of the landing runway The obstacle height for that obstacle is not more than 10% higher than the OCH calculated without consideration of that obstacle

A holding pattern is established on a fix position with an inbound heading of 180° mag. You are approaching the fix from the southwest. What type of joining procedure is required? a. b. c. d.

Offset join (sector 2) Reverse direct (sector 3) Teardrop procedure (sector 2) Sector 1 (parallel)

78.

You are required to carry out a sector 2 (offset) joining procedure to a holding pattern. What is the required track divergence from the reciprocal inbound track from on top the fix towards the outbound end? a. 20° b. 30° c. 45° d. 60°

79.

It is normal for holding procedures at 14 000 ft and below to include an outbound leg of 1 minute duration. How long is the outbound leg above 14 000 ft? a. b. c. d.

80.

How much obstacle clearance is guaranteed at the edge of the buffer area (5 nm outside of the holding area) of a holding pattern? a. b. c. d.

81.

FL 10 FL 0 FL -10 You have no intention of flying over the Dead Sea, therefore the question is totally academic!

After setting 1013 Mb at the transition altitude you have to climb 350 ft to the transition level (FL 40 ) which is the level you intend to fly en-route. Whilst climbing you are asked to report you vertical position. How would you do this? a. b. c. d.

85.

Yes No, where DME is used it may be specified in terms of distance Yes even where DME is used the maximum length is always a time No, where G/S is less than 65kts, the outbound leg must be at least 2 nm long

The QNH is 1040 Mb and you are flying over the sea at 800 ft. What (assuming the T/Alt is MSL) would your flight level be? a. b. c. d.

84.

300 m (1000 ft) (2000 ft in mountainous areas) 150 m (500 ft) 90 m (300 ft) nil

Is the length of the outbound leg of a holding pattern always expressed in terms of time? a. b. c. d.

83.

1'/2 minutes 2 minutes 21/2 minutes not specified

As a height above the transition altitude As an altitude AMSL As a FL with respect to the standard pressure setting of 1013 Mb Tell the air traffic controller that you are already at FL 40 (it will take a short time to get there anyway!)

Which of the following is true concerning the Transition Altitude? a. It can be a general altitude applicable to all aerodromes in a state b. The calculated height should be rounded down to the nearest 1000 ft c. The transition altitude shall not be less than 3000 ft d. The transition altitude must allow 1000 ft clearance above the top of the aerodrome traffic zone

91.

What is a controlled flight? a. b. c. d.

92.

What defines a danger area? a. b. c. d.

93.

b. c. d.

A skill test including oral examinations as required A proficiency check including oral examinations as required Theoretical knowledge tests both written and oral A flying performance check and a written type technical examination

Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR? a. b. c. d.

97.

During the hours of darkness From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise From the beginning of evening civil twilight until the beginning of morning civil twilight During the period when the centre of the Sun's disc is 6° below the horizon

In order to fly as pilot-in-command for commercial air transport, you must hold a type rating on the type of aeroplane you are required to fly. What must you pass to achieve the type rating? a. b. c. d.

96.

The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlit objects by day and lit objects by night Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the airwith reference to atmospheric conditions The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aeroplane

When does night exist? a. b. c. d.

95.

A zone where military activity includes firing projectiles in the air Notified airspace (zone or area) where activities dangerous to flight may exist NOTAM activated airspace where the normal flight rules are disregarded Airspace of defined dimensions where activities dangerous to flight may exist

Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility? a.

94.

A flight under IFR and in accordance with an Air Operators Certificate A flight which is subject to an ATC clearance A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR A flight by a manned aeroplane

Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of IFR A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance with IFR

What is the name for a taxiway connected to a runway at an acute angle designed to allow aeroplanes to turn off at higher speeds than would be permitted at a right angled turn on to a normal taxiway? a. b. c. d.

Rapid turn off lane High speed exit lane Rapid exit taxiway Acute angle exit

99.

Which of the following would be described as aerodrome traffic? a. b.

All the traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit. Any traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.

c. d. 100.

What is defined as: À control area or portion thereof established in the form of a corridor equipped with radio navigation aids'? a. b. c. d.

A terminal manoeuvring area An upper air route An airway A SVFR entry/exit corridor

Answers to Questions – Chapter 21 National Law

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

A C B B C C A C D A B C C B D A D B B C B A D C D

26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

B A A B B A A C D D A B C B B C B D B D A A C D A

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

B B A A D C B A A A C D D D A C C A B C D C B A B

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

B D B A D C C B C A A A B C C B D D D D B C C B C

Questions – Chapter 22 Section-1

1.

ICAO Annex 17 lays down the rules to establish security measures for passengers with regard to: a. b. c. d.

3.

Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods, access control and airport design. Cabin baggage and checked baggage Passenger baggage Cabin baggage, checked baggage, cargo and other goods and access control

Except when cleared by an ATC unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a Control Zone when the cloud base is lower than a. b. c. d.

1000 2000 1500 1000

feet feet feet feet

and less than 8 kms visibility and less than 5 kms visibility or less than 5 kms visibility and less than 5 kms visibility

4.

When requesting to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal a. Arms repeatedly crossed over the head b. Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally c. Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of the body.Then clench fist. d. Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards.

5.

When doing a procedure turn (45°/180°) going outbound turned 45° off track, the time taken from the beginning of the turn for Cat A and Cat B aircraft is a. b. c. d.

6.

1 1 1 2

minute 30 seconds minute minute 15 seconds minutes

Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on a. Heading b. Track c. Course d. Bearing

7.

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall a. b. c d

8.

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment, where the aircraft is lined up with the runway centre line and when the decent is commenced is called a b c d

9.

Distance end of route Departure end of runway Distance end of runway Departure end of route

What action should be taken when, during an IFR flight in VMC, you suffer a radio failure ? a. b. c d

13.

Intermediate approach segment Initial approach segment Arrival segment Final approach segment

What does DER mean ? a b c d.

10.

Only use the word "wilco" Only read back the code Only use the word "roger" Read back mode and code

Return to the aerodrome from which you departed Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible Maintain your assigned altitude and land at the nearest aerodrome at which there are VMC conditions Continue flying at your assigned altitude and start your approach at your ETA

Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ? a. b. c. d.

The State The Operator The Commander The owner

14.

Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ? a b c d.

16.

For a controlled flight before departure, a flight plan must be filed at least a. b. c. d.

17.

50 60 10 30


before before before before

off-block time departure departure off-block time

An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within a b c d

18.

the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan the Captain the Operator of the aircraft ATC

the the the the

last last last last

2 5 4 3

nms of nms of nms of nms of

the the the the

approach approach approach approach

Clocks and other timing equipment used by air traffic services must be checked in order to be able to give the time within plus or minus a b c d

15 seconds of UTC 10 seconds of UTC 30 seconds of UTC 1 minute of UTC

22.

How many red lights have to be seen by the pilot, who's aircraft on final approach follows a normal PAPI defined glide-path ? a b c d

23.

A Clearway is a squared area that is established to a b c d

25.

2 none 3 1

protect aircraft during take-off and landing to enable the aircraft to stop in the case of an aborted take-off to enable the aircraft to make a part of the initial climb to a specified altitude to decrease the risk of damage to aircraft which run off the end of the runway

When someone's admittance to a country is refused and he/she is brought back to the operator for transportation away from the territory of the state a b c d

the operator won't take any transportation costs from the passenger which arise from his/her inadmissibility the operator is not responsible for that person, to whom the admittance to the host country is refused the operator and state of the operator are both responsible for the refused person the operator will not be prevented from taking any transport costs from a person which arises out of his/her inadmissibility

28.

A controlled flight is required to inform the concerned ATC unit when the average TAS at cruising level deviates or is expected to deviate compared to that given TAS in the Flight Plan by at least plus or minus a. 10% b. 3% c. 5% d. 2%

29.

Concerning aircraft registration markings , no combinations can be used if they can be mistaken for a. b. c. d.

30.

codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents letter combinations beginning with Q 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals 5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals

What is the rule concerning level or height the aircraft should maintain when flying IFR outside controlled airspace unless otherwise directed `? a. b. c. d.

2,000 1,000 1,000 2,000

ft above ft above ft above ft above

the the the the

highest highest highest highest

obstacle obstacle obstacle obstacle

within within within within

8 8 8 8

kms of the heading kms of the estimated position of the aircraft rims of the planned track rims of the planned track

33.

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the a. b. c. d.

34.

Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless a. b. c. d.

36.

c. d.

correct for the known wind so as to stay within controlled airspace ask ATC for another heading to steer correcting for wind ignore the wind and proceed with a heading equal to the track ask ATC for permission to correct heading for wind

Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall be expressed as a. b. c. d.

39.

circling is only permitted in VMC recommended not to execute a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is situated. prohibit a circling approach for the concerned runway forbid a circling approach in the entire sector in which the obstacle is located

If the track on an instrument departure is published the pilot is expected to a. b. c. d.

38.

they operate outside controlled airspace if asked by ATC with are within controlled airspace they operate a transponder with mode C

It is permitted in a particular sector, if there is a conspicuous obstacle in the visual maneuvering area outside the final and missed approach areas, to disregard that obstacle. When using this option, the published procedure shall be a. b.

37

pilot in command operator ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace owner of the aircraft

altitude above flight level on flight level on altitude above

sea level on or above transition altitude or under the transition altitude or under the transition level sea level at or below transition altitude

A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a "designated track" followed by a turn in the opposite direction to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called a. b. c. d.

Base turn Reverse track Race track Procedure turn

40.

The transition of altitude to flight level and visa versa is made a. b. c. d.

41.

Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit a. b. c. d.

42.

Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centers Flight Information Centers and Air Services Reporting offices Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centers and Air Traffic Services Reporting offices Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan. he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that clearance. he/she may ask a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/her that clearance he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC

The transition transition from IFR to VFR is done a. b. c. d.

46.

5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance a. b. c. d.

45.

At least At least At least At least

Air Traffic Service unit consists of a. b. c. d.

44.

On the transition level in the climb and transition altitude in the descent At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the descent At the transition level only At the transition altitude only

on the Captain's initiative whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace if told by ATC at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation

According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction a. b. c. d.

before landing and taxi for take-off in anticipation anticipatio n of the upper wind for areas North of 60 ° N and South of 60° S when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP when the local variation is greater than 10 °East or West

47.

The longitudinal separation minimum based on time between aircraft at the same FL, where there is enough coverage for navigation aids and the preceding aircraft has a higher true airspeed of 20 kts minimum is a. b. c. d.

49.


What is the length of the approach lighting system of a Cat II precision landing runway ? a. 900m b. 600m c. 300m d. 150m

50.

A PAPI must consist of a. b. c. d.

51.

Lights at the end of the runway shall be a. b. c. d.

52.

A row of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other Two rows of 4 multiple at equal distance from each other A row of 2 multiple at equal distance from each other Two rows of 6 multiple at equal distance from each other

Steady Steady Steady Steady

unidirectional unidirectio nal lights radiating white light in the direction of the runway white lights with controllable controllabl e intensity omnidirectio nal red lights with controllable controllab le intensity unidirectional unidirectio nal lights radiating red light in the direction of the runway

An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if a. b. c. d.

The pilot follows the published approach procedures The aircraft receives radar vectors The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact All of the above

54.

The VMC minima for a VFR flight within ATS airspace class B are a. b. c. d.

55.

The minimum response time for the aerodrome rescue and fire fighting services to the each runway as well as to any other part of the movement area is a. b. c. d.

58.

3 2 2 3


and and and and

not not not not

exceeding exceeding exceeding exceeding

4 3 4 5

end of


A marshaller crosses his/her hands in front of the face, palms outwards and then moves the arms outwards. What does this signal indicate ? a. b. c. d.

59.

8 km visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud 5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud 8 kms visibility at or above 3050m AMSL, 1500m horizontal and 300m vertical clear of cloud 5 rims visibility at or above 3050m AMSL and clear of cloud

clear to move forward brakes off remove chocks clear to close all engines

What is required for an IFR flight in advisory airspace ? a. b. c. d.

No flight plan required Flight plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if wanting advisory service or not. Flight plan required but PIC need not notify of any changes A flight plan is only required if advisory service is required

61.

A Type Rating is applicable to a. b. c. d.

62.

An An An An


requiring a Certificate of Airworthiness with a Certificate of Airworthiness issued by the State that requires multi-pilot operation that requires additional skills training

If an aircraft is radar vectored to intercept a ILS localiser, what is that maximum intercept angle ? a. 45° b. 30° c. 15° d. 20°

63.

What are the objectives of ATC Services a.

b. c. d.

To prevent collisions between aircraft, to prevent collisions between aircraft on the maneuvering area and obstructions on that area and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic. To prevent collisions between controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic. To provide separation of aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic. To provide separation of controlled aircraft and to expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic.

67.

A TODA consists of a. b. c. d.

68.

run run run run

available available available available

excluding the clearway including the clearway excluding the stopway only

The The The The

State State State State

of of of of

Registration Registration ands the State of the Operator the Operator Registry and the State of Design

ATIS will only broadcast cloud base information when the cloud base is a. b. c. d.

71.

take-off take-off take-off take-off

The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of a. b. c. d.

69.

The The The The

3 000 ft 5 000 ft When Cb's are present When the cloud base is below MSA

Voice ATIS 1. cannot be broadcasted on a voice ILS 2. cannot be broadcasted on voice VOR 3. is broadcasted only on a discreet VFH frequency 4. is broadcasted on either a discreet VFH, VOR or an ILS frequency a. b. c. d.

1 only is correct 2 only is correct 4 only is correct 1, 2 and 3 are correct

76.

What is the meaning of the symbol LLL search parties ? a. b. c. d.

We have only found some personnel We have found all personnel Operation completed Nothing found

83.

A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a Cargo Manifest shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the cargo manifest, not require more than the following items a. b. c. d.

85.

Airway bill number, and the number of packages only Total weight and the number of packages only Total weight and the nature of the goods only Airway bill number, the number of packages and the nature of goods

Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to a b. c. d.

Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that normally applicable to other cargo Cargo Dangerous Goods Mail

86.

An area symmetrical about the extended runway centreline and adjacent to the end of the strip, primarily intended to reduce the risk of damage to an aircraft undershooting or overrunning the runway is defined as a a. b. c. d.

87.

For an instrument runway, how far from the centre line of the runway is a "runway vacated" sign positioned ? a. b. c. d.

88.

Both a Pattern À' and `B' holding position High intensity taxiway centerline lights only Runway guard lights Both high intensity taxiway centerline lights and high intensity taxiway edge lights

ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when a. b. c. d.

91.

To a distance of the nearest Pattern À' holding position At the end of the ILS/MLS Sensitive Area It depends on the Aerodrome Category 85 metres

What is required if a stop bar is not provided at a runway entrance and runway is to be used with RVR of less than 550m a. b. c. d.

90.

Clearway Runway Strip Extension Runway end safety area Altimeter Operating Area Extension

they are they are they are they are

below 2,500m below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater. below 1,000m below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

What action should be taken if contact is lost with the runway during a circling approach a. b. c. d.

Descend to Decision Height and if still no contact with the runway, initiate a missed approach Land on the instrument runway Initiate a missed approach Return to the FAF

93.

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to a. b. c. d.

95.

When a State renders valid a license issued by another Contracting State, as an alternative to issuance of its own license, the validity shall a. b. c. d.

96.

each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO. ICAO only each State whose citizens were known to be on board only ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

not extend beyond 15 days after the validity of the license. not extend beyond the period of validity of the license be at the discretion of the Contracting State rendering it valid be at the discretion of ICAO

Where in the AIP would you find details on instrument holding procedures ? a. GEN b. ENR c. AD d. AGA

97.

The loading limitations shall include: a. b. c. d.

98.

All All All All

limiting limiting limiting limiting

mass and centres of gravity mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading mass, centres of gravity position and floor loading mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes: a. b. c. d.

Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

102

If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing? a. b. c. d.

103.

An aircraft manoeuvrings in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must: a. b. c. d.

104.

Let down Descend Descend for landing You land

do not land because the airport is not available for landing. give way to another aircraft. return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course. not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.

Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance? a. b. c. d.

Switching on and off three times the landing lights The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights Switching on and off four times the navigation lights Switching on and off four times the landing lights

105.

The main factor/s that dictate/s in general the design of an instrument departure procedure is/are: a. b. c. d.

the terrain surrounding the aerodrome. ATC availability and requirements. availability of navigation aids. airspace restrictions applicable and in force.

106.

One of the conditions to descent below the MDA on a circling approach is: a. The landing runway and an alternative landing possibility (runway) are in sight. b. The required visual references have been established and can be maintained. c. The Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher. d. The horizontal Visibility is at least 5 NM and the Ceiling is 1500 ft or higher.

107.

If for any reasons a pilot is unable to conform to the procedures for normal conditions laid down for any particular holding pattern, he should: a. b. c. d.

108.

The Transition Level: a. b. c. d.

109.

shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude. shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established. is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIR is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command.

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C transponder, the pilot shall continuously operate this mode a. b. c. d.

112.

advise ATC as early as possible. execute a non-standard holding pattern in accordance with the performance of his aeroplane. remain within the protected area, but may deviate from the prescribed holding. follow the radio communication failure procedure.

only when directed by ATC. unless otherwise directed by ATC. only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace. regardless of ATC instructions

Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: a. Achieving separation between IFR flights b. Achieving separation between controlled flights c. Providing advisory service d. Providing flight Information Service

114. The Vertical Separation Minimum (VSM) for flights in accordance with IFR within controlled airspace below FL 290 is: a. b. c. d.

116.

500 feet (150 m). 2500 feet (750 m). 1000 feet (300 m). 2000 feet (600 m).

For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: a. b.

If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight

c. d.

When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own separation At the discretion of the air traffic controller

117.

In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are using the same runway? a. b. c. d.

3 2 1 4

minutes minutes minute minutes

119. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and restore is impossible, then: a. b. c. d. 123.

In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light sources on the centre line have a length of: a. b. c. d.

124.

you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavor to provide for continuation of the flight; departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed you are not allowed to commence the flight the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;

250 m. 200 m. 150 m. 300 m.

When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport away from the territory of the state, the operator: a. b. c. d.

shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility. shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible

125.

Who is responsible for the initiation of an accident investigation? a. The Authority of the State in which the accident took place. b. The Operators of the same aircraft type. c. The aircraft manufacturer. d. The State of design and manufacturer.

126.

When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate the alert phases is the responsibility of the a. b. c. d.

127.

operational air traffic control centres flight information or control organizations air traffic co-ordination services search and rescue co-ordination centres

An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies a. b. c. d.

121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on

243.0 MHz 406.0 MHz 282.0 MHz 121.5 MHz

129.

Except in special cases, the establishment of change-over points shall be limited to route segments of: a. b. c. d.

130

The body, which governs licensing of pilot licenses or the equivalent documents, must decide if the experience of the pilot in training done on a simulator is acceptable as part of the total flying time of 1500 hours. Exemption from such experience shall be limited to a maximum of a. b. c. d.

131.

The State The Operator The Commander The owner

Who is responsible for the safety of an ATC clearance concerning terrain clearance ? a b c d

134

Only use the word "wilco" Only read back the code Only use the word "roger" Read back mode and code

Who has the final authority as to the disposition of the aircraft ? a. b. c. d.

133.

100 hours, of which not more than 15 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer 75 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a synthetic flight trainer 100 hours, of which not more than 20 hours may be done on a synthetic flight trainer 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours may be done on a flight procedure trainer or a basic instrument flight trainer

When given instructions to set a mode/code, a pilot shall a. b. c d

132.

1 00nms or more 75nms or more 60nms or more 50nms or more

the ATS reporting point when accepting the flight plan the Captain the Operator of the aircraft TC

An aircraft, on a radar approach, should be told to consider making a missed approach when the aircraft is not visible on the radar screen for a significant period of time and when it is within a b c d

the the the the

last last last last

2 rims of 5 rims of 4 rims of 3 rims of

the the the the

approach approach approach approach

136.

The person having overall responsibility of an aircraft during flight is the a. b. c. d.

137.

Pilots are not allowed to use the indent function on their SSR, unless a. b. c. d.

138.

At least At least At least At least

5 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft 15 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft 30 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft 60 minutes before the ETA of the aircraft

Air Traffic Service unit consists of a. b. c. d.

140.

they operate outside controlled airspace if asked by ATC with are within controlled airspace they operate a transponder with mode C

Lights on an airfield or in the vicinity can be extinguished if they can be re-lit a. b. c. d.

139.

pilot in command operator ATC Controller if the aircraft is in controlled airspace owner of the aircraft

Air Traffic Control Units and Flight Information Centres Flight Information Centres and Air Services Reporting offices Air Traffic Control Units, Flight Information Centres and Traffic Air Services Reporting offices Air Services Reporting offices and Air Traffic Control Units

According to international agreements the wind direction must be given in degrees magnetic converted with local magnetic variation from the true wind direction a. b. c. d.

before landing and taxi for take-off in anticipation of the upper wind for areas North of 60° N and South of 60° S when an aircraft is requested by the meteorological office or on specified points to give a PIREP when the local variation is greater than 10° East or West

141.

A PAPI must consist of a. b. c. d.

146.

A row of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each other Two rows of 4 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each other A row of 2 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each other Two rows of 6 multiple lights or paired units without transition zone, at equal distance from each other

Contracting States shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply with the documentary procedures as proscribed by a. b. c. d.

The The The The

Acts in force of Acts in force of Acts in force of Acts in force of

the Universal Postal Union the General Postal Union the Warsaw Convention the International Postal Union

147.

Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under a procedure applicable to a b. c. d.

148.

ATIS broadcasts should contain cloud details, when a. b. c. d.

150.

Accompanied baggage or under a simplified customs procedure distinct and different from that normally applicable to other cargo Cargo Dangerous Goods Mail

they are they are they are they are

below 2,500m below 1,500m or MSA, whichever is the greater. below 1,000m below 1,000m or MSA, whichever is the greater.

When an aircraft subjected to unlawful interference has landed in a Contracting State, it shall notify by the most expeditious means of the State of Registry and the State of the Operator of the landing and, in addition, shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to a. b. c. d.

each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO ICAO only each State whose citizens were known to be on board only ICAO and each State whose citizens were known to be on board only

Questions – Chapter 22 Specimen Questions Answers to Questions – Chapter 22 Specimen Questions Section-1 1A 2C 3C 4C 5B 6A 7D 8D 9B 10 B 11 D 12 A 13 C 14 B 15 A 16 B 17 A 18 C 19 B 20 D 21 A 22 A 23 C 24 B 25 D 26 A 27 C 28 D 29 D 30 B 31 D 32 D 33 A 34 B 35 D 36 D 37 A 38 D 39 D 40 B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

D C A B A A C D A A D D C C B A A C B A C A A C B D B A B A A C A D C C B C A

81 B 82 C 83 D 84 A 85 A 86 C 87 B 88 C 89 D 90 B 91 C 92 B 93 A 94 D 95 B 96 B 97 B 98 A 99 A 100 B 101 A 102 B 103 A 104 B 105 A 106 B 107 A 108 A 109 B 110 C 111 D 112 B 113 B 114 C 115 B 116 C 117 B 118 A 119 B 120 B

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151

B B D A A A A D C D D C B A A A B D C A A C C A B A A B B A D

Questions – Chapter 22 Section-2

1

The `standards' contained in the annexes to the Chicago Convention are to be considered a. b. c. d.

Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states Binding for all member states Binding for all member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference Binding for all airline companies with international traffic

5

It is suspected that a person on board an aircraft will commit an act that would jeopardise the safety of the aircraft; the PIC may a. request the crew to detain the passenger b. ask the passenger to disembark c. order the other passengers to detain the passenger in question d. hand him her over to the authorities

7

Which of the following is not permitted in the registration mark of an aircraft? a. b. c. d.

Four letter Q codes Five letter international identification signals Three letter international identification signals Any number identifying an ICAO document

10

The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot under supervision of the PIC and performing the functions and duties of the PIC shall be entitled to be credited: a. with 50% of the flight time towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence b. in full, but not more than 300hrs towards the total time require for a higher grade of licence. c. the flight time in full towards the total time required for a higher grade of licence d. the flight in full toward the total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence according to the requirements of the licensing authority.

11.

For an ATPL(A), how many night hours are required: a. 30 b. 75 c. 100 d. 150

12

When you are a newly qualified flying instructor (A) you have to be supervised by a senior flying instructor. When will supervision cease? a. b. c. d.

14

Once you have passed a competency check When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 25 students solo When you have completed 100 hours instruction and sent 100 students solo When you have completed 100 hours solo

What is the period of validity of a PPL class 2 medical in accordin g to regulatio ns? a. b. c. d.

24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months thereafter 24 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65, then 6 months thereafter 60 months until age 30, then 24 months until 50, then 12 months until 65

16

A CPL applicant undergoing integrated flight training shall be completed a. b. c. d.

21

What minimum ground visibility is required to enable a S VFR flight to take off from an aerodrome in a CTR? a. b. c. d.

22

1000m 1500m 2000m 3000m

In a holding pattern, turns are to be made at: a. b. c. d.

25

150 hours flight time including 10 hours instrument ground time 150 hours flight time 200 hours flight time including 10 hours instrumen t ground time 200 hours flight time

Rate of turn of 3°/sec Rate of turn of 3°/sec or 20° bank whichever is lesser Rate of turn of 3°/sec or at a bank angle of 25° whichever is lesser Bank angle of 25°

What is the climb gradient required during the intermediate segment of a missed approach? a. 5.5% b. 2.5% c. 0.8% d. 3.3%

27

In general, for a straight in non-precision approach, the MDA/H will be not less than a. OCH/A b. 200ft c. 350ft d. 400ft

28

What is the airspeed for holding area construction for a CAT B aircraft in a hold under normal conditions at 4,250 metres (14,000 ft) ? a. b c d

29

0.83 Mach 490 km/hr (265 kts) 315 km/hr (170 kts) 520 km/hr (280 kts)

For the intermediate section of a missed approach, what is the minimum obstacle clearance: a. 30m b. 100m c. 50m d. 120m

30

At what distance does an SRA normally terminate: a. 2nm b. 1 nm c. 3nm d. ½ nm

31

What is the Cat 2 ILS criteria for instrument runways a. b. c. d.

33

RVR 300-450m RVR 200 RVR 200 RVR 300

DH DH DH DH

not below 100ft not below 100ft not below 200ft not below 200ft

Within what angle of the extended centre line of a runway is a non-precision approach considered to be straight in? a. 10° b. 15° c. 30° d. 40°

34

The 45° leg of a 45/270° procedure turn for a Cat C aircraft is: a. b. c. d.

37

The Vth for a Category B aircraft is a. b. c. d.

38

Up to 91 kts 90 to 121 kts inclusive 141 to 165 kts inclusive 91 to 120 kts inclusive

When using a DR segment to take up an ILS instrument approach, what is the maximum length of the track that may be used to intercept the localiser ? a. b. c. d.

40

1 min 1 min 15 seconds 1 min 30 seconds Continued until interception of the glide slope

10 nms 5 nms 10 minutes 5 minutes

The minimum sector altitude gives an obstacle clearance if 300 metres within a certain radius from the navigation aid on which the instrument procedure is based. This radius is a. b. c. d.

15 30 25 20

nms (28 nms (55 nms (46 nms (37

kms) kms) kms) kms)

42

What is the speed limit below 10,000 ft in Class E airspace ? a. b. c. d.

43

What is the definition of the Emergency Phase ? a. b. c. d.

45

20 minutes 10 minutes 5 minutes 15 minute

If two aircraft are using the same VOR, by what lateral distance must the aircraft be separated before one of the two may commence a climb or descent'? a. b. c. d.

55

present position and ETA estimated time over the FIR boundary and endurance estimated elapsed time (EET) and endurance ETA and endurance

If you want to descend through the level of another aircraft on the same track, the minimum separation is a. b. c. d.

54

country identifier, followed by P/D/R, followed by the identifier country identifier followed by P/D/R P/D/R followed by the identifier country identifier followed by numbers

What are the contents of section 2 of an AIREP ? a b c d

53

The Distress Phase The Alarm Phase The Alert Phase A generic term meaning as the case maybe the Uncertainty Phase, the Alert Phase or the Distress Phase

Danger, Prohibited and Restricted areas must be designated by a. b. c. d.

52

250 kts TAS 250 kts IAS Not applicable 200 kts IAS

5 nm 10 nm 15 nm 20 nm

What is the separation standard between aircraft at the same altitude when using DME to determine range from a beacon? a. b. c. d.

10 10 20 20

nm nm nm nm

where where where where

the the the the

first first first first


speed speed speed speed

is is is is

40 20 40 20

kts kts kts kts


than than than than

the the the the


56

The longitudinal separation minimum, based on time between two aircraft at the same altitude, for which navigation aids can give a frequent determination of position and speed and when the proceeding aircraft has a true airspeed of at least 40 kts higher than the following aircraft, is a. b. c. d.

58

Where an aeroplane is approaching to land, what is the maximum time spacing applied between that aeroplane and any other taking off in any direction? a. b. c. d.

59



On departure a 1 minute separation can be applied if the aircraft fly on diverging tracks immediately after take-off at least a. 45° b. 15° c. 30° d. 20°

61

What is separation for a light aircraft taking off after a medium aircraft providing they are both using the same runway? a. b. c. d.

62

64

min min min min

Between two aircraft on the same track what is the minimum radar separation which must be provided for wake turbulence is a. b. C. d.

63

5 3 1 2

4 nms 2.5 nms 2 nms 3 nms

A heavy aircraft has made a missed approach to a runway in the opposite direction to normal take-off. What is the separation required for a light aircraft taking off ? a. 2 minutes b. 3 minutes c. 1 minute c. 5 minutes Radar separation may be applied before an aircraft taking off and a preceding departing aircraft providing the departing aircraft can be identified from the end of the runway within a. 5nm b. 3nm c. 2nm d. 1 nm

65

What is the minimum radar separation for two aircraft established on the same localiser? a. b. c. d.

68

A radar controller can request an aircraft to change speed when it is on the intermediate and final approach phase, except in certain conditions specified by the proper ATS authority. The speed change must not be more than a. b. c. d.

69

5 nm 5 nm when the first a/c is 20 kits faster than the second 10 nm 20 nm

± 15 kts ± 8 kts ± 10 kts ± 20 kts

The minima that must be applied to aircraft which are landing after a "heavy" or "medium" aircraft complying with wake turbulence separation on a timed approach is a. b. c. d.

light aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 4 minutes medium aircraft behind medium aircraft ; 2 minutes medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 3 minutes medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft ; 2 minutes

70

An integrated aeronautical information package consists of a. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, checklists and summaries. b. AIP and amendment service„ NOTAMs, Preflight Information Bulletins (PIBs), AICs, AIRACs, checklists and summaries. c. AIP and amendment service, supplement to the AIP, NOTAMs, AIRACs, AICs, checklists and summaries. d. AIP & Supplements, AIRACs, NOTAMs and pre-flight bulletins

79

An object of limited mobility (an air bridge for example) is lit by a. b. c. d.

82

Who is responsible for the efficient organisation of an efficient SAR service? a. b. c. d.

83

low intensity steady red lights low intensity flashing red lights medium intensity steady red lights medium intensity flashing red lights

FIC and RCC RCC and rescue sub-centres FIC, RCC and ACC ICAO through regional navigation plans

Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for "we have found all personnel" is a. b. c. d.

++ LLL LL Y

84

According to Annex 17, security is defined as "a combination of measures and human resources intended to safeguard a. b. c. d.

85

civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference

When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume its flight provided that a.

b. c.

d.

the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that the aircraft is still airworthy. the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft is registered which says that the aircraft is still airworthy the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed the state where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy

CPL QUESTION BANK AIR LAW

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