INDEX CLASS - VII (VISTAAR-ADVANCE) S. NO. SUBJECT NAME
PAGE NO.
SPECIMEN COPY 1.
PHYSICS
1-6
2.
CHEMISTRY
7-13
3.
MATHEMATICS
14-24
4.
BIOLOGY
25-33
5.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
34-49
6.
MENTAL ABILITY
50-60
7.
ANSWER KEY
61-63
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ELECTRIC CURRENT AND ITS EFFECT ELECTRICAL CIRCUITS
ELECTRIC CURRENT
The path of flow of electricity from one terminal of the cell and returning to the other is called an electrical circuit.
For flow of electricity, the circuit must be made of conductors. Insulators in the path of electrical circuits makes the circuit incomplete.
The electric current is a flow of electric charges (called electrons) in a conductor (metal wire). It is the amount of electric charge passing through a given point of conductor in one second. If a charge of Q coulombs flows through a conductor in time t second, then the magnitude of the electric current I flows through it is given by :
CIRCUIT DIAGRAMS AND CIRCUIT SYMBOLS
Scientists use certain symbols to draw electrical circuits. An electrical circuit drawn using these symbols is called a circuit diagram. The symbols used to indicate different components are called circuit
I
Q t
The S.I. unit of charge is coulomb (C) 1C = Charge of 6.25 × 1018 electrons.
symbols. Figure shows some components and their (a) Unit of Electric Current :
circuit symbols.
The S.I. unit of current is Ampere. When one coulomb of charge flows through any cross-section of a conductor in 1 second, the electric current flowing through it is said to be 1 ampere.
1A
1C 1s
Instrument used to measure current is called ammeter. It should have a very low resistance. It is connected in series in the circuit. CLASSIFICATION OF ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT
(a) Open Electric Circuit : An electric circuit through which no electric current flows is known as open electric circuit. The electric circuit will be open circuit if the plug of the key is taken out or if the connecting wires break from any point. +
–
K
Bulb
(b) Closed Circuit : An electric circuit through which electric current flows continuously is known as closed circuit. +
(a) Electrical circuit
–
(b) Circuit diagrams Bulb
K
PAGE # 1
NOTE : Notice that the key or switch can be placed anywhere in the circuit.
Example : (i) Electric Heater :
DIFFERENCE BETWEEN CELL AND BATTERY The positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the next cell. Such a combination of two or more cells is called a battery.
+ –
+
Cell
–
Bettary
Cells connected in series i.e. battery If two cells are connected in series as in the above case, their combined strength is the sum of their respective strengths. In this case, the combined strength is 1.5 V + 1.5 V = 3 V. Similarly, if three identical cells, each of strength 1.5 V, are connected in series, their combined strength will be 1.5 V + 1.5 V + 1.5 V = 4.5 V
(ii) Electric Iron :
ILLUSTRATIONS Look at the circuit given in figure (a) and figure (b). Read the instructions in each case and answer the questions given. 1.
The amount of heat produced in a wire depends on its material, length and thickness. Thus, for different requirements, the wires of different requirements, the wires of different materials and different lengths and thicknesses are used.
Which bulb B1/B2 in figure (a) will glow when (a) only K1 is closed ? (b) K1 and K2 are closed ? K1 B1
K2 K2
K3
B2
B1
B2
(a)
The filament of an electric bulb gets heated to such a high temperature that it starts glowing. K1
FUSE
B3
A fuse is a small piece of wire made of lead and tin and mounted in porcelain holder. It is placed in the path of main electric cables that enters the house as well as in each sub unit of house. As soon as an excess of electricity flows through the wire, the wire gets heated up and melts, thus preventing further flow of electricity.
(b)
(c) K1, K2 and K3 are closed ? (d) only K2 and K3 are closed ? Sol. (a) No bulb will glow, (b) Bulb B1 will glow, (c) B1 and B2 both will glow and (d) No bulb will glow. 2.
Which bulb B1/B2/B3 in figure (b) will glow when (a) only K1 is closed ? (b) only K2 is closed ? (c) both K1 and K2 both are closed ?
Sol. (a) Bulb B3 will glow, (b) No bulb will glow and (c) All will glow.
EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT (a) Heating Effect of Current : The wire gets hot when an electric current passes through it. This is the heating effect of the electric current.
•
Fuse Use of fuse : To protect our electrical appliances from excess electric current, which may otherwise burn the appliance. (b) Chemical Effect of Current (Electroplating) When an electric current is passed through water containing sulphuric acid, the water breaks up into its components hydrogen and oxygen. Therefore an PAGE # 2
•
electric current can cause a chemical change. This effect of electric current is used in electroplating . Electroplating :The method of plating one metal object with another metal by means of electricity is called electroplating. The metal which is to be electroplated is made cathode and the metal to be deposited is made anode while the soluble salt of the same metal serves as the electrolyte. When a current is passed, a thin film of metal is deposited on the metal, which becomes electroplated. Eg. : Let we are having a steel razor blade is to be electroplated with copper. Aim : To plate a stainless steel razor blade with copper.
•
Materials required : Glass beaker, copper sulphate solution, two pieces of connecting wire (50 cm long), a cell, stainless steel razor blade.
•
Method : Remove the insulation from the ends of both wires. Tie one end of a wire to the stainless steel razor blade and tape the other bare end to the negative terminal of the cell. Tape one end of the other wire to the positive terminal of the cell and dip its other end into the copper scrub the razor blade clean and dip it in the solution. After electricity passes through the circuit for some time, you will find a reddish-brown deposit on the blade. This is the coating of copper. If you continue this for some more time, you will find that your blade is slowly getting plated with copper.
The coil in the above activity behaves like a magnet when electric current flows through it. When the electric current is switched off, the coil losses its magnetism. Such coils are called electromagnets. (ii) Factors which effect the strength of electromagnet : (A) magnetic effect of current depends on number of turns. (B) magnetic effect of current depends the value of current. (C) magnetic effect of current depends on the nature of core inside the coil.
ELECTRICAL BELL When the switch of an electric bell is pressed, the circuit is completed and current flows through the coils of the electromagnet. It gets magnetised and attracts the iron strip towards itself. This brings the hammer in contact with the gong and the sound of the bell is heard. Due to the displacement of the iron strip from its original position, it loses contact with the contact screw due to which the circuit of the electromagnet breaks. Current stops flowing and the electromagnet loses its magnetism. Hence, the iron strip comes back to its original position, which once again completes the circuit. The entire process is repeated as long as the switch is kept pressed. The hammer would strike the gong again and again and the ringing of the bell would be heard.
(c) Magnetic Effect of Current : We know that a moving magnet can generate an electric current. Also we can say that electric current can produce a magnetic effect. A coil, through which when an electric current flows behave like a magnet with its two poles. Eg. : Electric bell shows magnetic effect of current. (i) Electromagnets :
•
Aim : To make our own magnet with electricity.
•
Materials required : Iron nail, cell, connecting wires.
•
Method : Remove the insulation from each end of the wire. Coil the wire tightly around the nail as shown in figure and tape the two ends of the wire to the two terminals of the cell. Now hold the iron nail over some common pins.
An intermittent (uni-drectional) current flows through an electric bell, when it rings
PAGE # 3
ammonium chloride. A carbon rod is placed at the centre of the zinc container with a brass knob protruding out at the top. This is the positive terminal of the cell. It is surrounded by a closely packed mixture of graphite and manganese dioxide in a muslin bag. The top is sealed to avoid evaporation of moisture, but leaving a small hole for the escape of ammonia gas.
CALCULATE THE COST OF ELECTRICITY
Commercial unit of electric energy : Kilowatt - hour (kWh) : Electric energy is required to run the electric lamps, heaters, refrigerators, televisions and other electric appliances. The department of electricity sells the electric energy to the consumers in units called kilowatt-hours (kWh). If our electricity bill shows that we have paid for 10 units, then it means the electric appliances of our house have consumed 10 kilowatt-hours. So, 1 unit = 1 kWh. A kilowatt-hour is the amount of electric energy used by 1000 Watt electric appliance (say a heater) when it operates for one hour. kWh is also known as “Board of Trade Unit” (B.O.T.) (e) Relation between kWh and Joule : 1 kWh = 1000 Wh ( 1 kW = 1000 W) Now1 W = 1 Js–1 and 1h = 60 × 60 s = 3600 s. 1 kWh = 1000 Js-1 × 3600 s = 3600000 J = 3.6 × 106 J 1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J
3.
Calculate the cost of electricity for a house in which 7 bulbs of 100 Watt each and 3 fans of 60 Watt each are used for 5 hours a day, for a period of 30 days, if the cost of one unit is Rs. 5. Sol. Each bulb of 100W consumes 100 Watt hour of energy, when used for 1 hour. 7 bulbs of 100W each when used for 1 hour consume, 7 × 100 = 700 Watt hour or 700 Wh of energy. Thus, 7 bulbs of 100W each when used for 5 hours each day consume, 700 × 5 = 3500 Wh or 3.5 KWh. In this way, we can calculate the total electricity used in 30 days i.e. Total electricity consume, [(7 × 100) + (3 × 60)] × (5 × 30) = (700 + 180) × 5 × 30 = 132000 Wh = 132 KWh. If the cost of each unit is Rs. 5.0, then the total cost = 132 × 5 = Rs. 660.
ELECTRICAL CELLS Electrical cells are the sources of electric current. Electrical cells are of two types primary and secondary. Voltaic, Daniel and dry cells are examples of primary cells, while Edison cell, lead-acid accumulator are example of secondary cells.
The strength of a fresh dry cell is 1.5 V. Cells of this kind which become useless once the chemicals inside them are used up are known as primary cells. (b) Secondary Cell : Cells which are reusable and rechargable.
Lead accumulator (Reusable and rechargeable cells) : Some cells can be reused by recharging them from an external electrical source. Such cells are called secondary cells, storage cells or accumulators. The secondary cell is one which consists of a vessel made of a hard rubber, glass or celluloid, containing dilute sulphuric acid. It are immersed two lead grids, one containing lead dioxide (positive terminal) and the other made up of lead (negative terminal). Six such storage cells connected in series makes up your motor car battery. Each cell has a strength of about 2V, together they make up 12V. After the cell is used up, it can be recharged and reused.
(a) Primary Cells : The cells which cannot be charged again and again are known as primary cells.
Dry Cell : The outer case of the cell is made of zinc. The cylindrical sides are covered with thick Cardboard or paper, while the bottom which is the negative terminal is bare. Inside the zinc container, is a moist paste of
PAGE # 4
EXERCISE
DANGER OF ELECTRICITY (i) If the current happens to pass through the heart, it cause the heart muscles to contract and generally death occurs.
OBJECTIVE DPP 1.
The switch is in the OFF state. It means that (A) the circuit is open. (B) the circuit is closed. (C) there is no key in the circuit. (D) there is no battery in the circuit
2.
If a battery consists of three cells then it is represented by (A) six long lines. (B) six short lines. (C) three pairs of long and short lines. (D) four pairs of long and short lines
3.
Wires are used to (A) stop the flow of current . (B) connect various components in the circuit. (C) mark the connections. (D) know about the direction of current.
4.
An electric current produces : (A) Magnetic effect (B) Chemical effect
(ii) A strong electric shock can give the body a big shock that can damage the body cells. Such a shock occurs on touching a live electric wire suddenly. (iii) Handling electrical appliances in wet places is very dangerous. (iv) Electricity could turn dangerous due to loose connections in switches, improper wiring, overloading (i.e. passing excess current above the rated capacity), improper earthing.
SAFETY MEASURES IN USING ELECTRICITY (i) The wires used in the circuit should be of good quality and with good insulation. (ii) Defective and damaged plugs, sockets and switches must be immediately replaced. (iii) All connections in plugs, switches and sockets must be made of a proper insulating material. (iv) Extension cords must not be overloaded and must be regularly tested.
(C) Heating effect 5.
(v) Switches and plugs should not be touched with wet hands. (vi) The main switch should be immediately switched off in case of fire or short circuit. 6. (vii) Always use a safety fuse of proper rating and material in an electric circuit. (viii) All appliances must be properly earthed. (ix) Rubber sole shoes should be worn while repairing electric circuit. This protect the body from electric shocks.
(D) All of the above
Which is the False statement ? (NTSE-Stage-I/Raj./2009) (A) Fuse wire has low resistance and melting point. (B) Heater wire has high specific resistance and melting point. (C) In these days M.C.B. is used in place of fuse wire. (D) Current does not flow in close circuit. The magnetic field around a current carrying coil lasts : (A) for three hours (B) as long as current flows through it (C) till its half–life period (D) till the field is permanent
7.
Strength of an electromagnet increases by : (A) increasing the number of turns of the coil (B) increasing the current flowing through the coil (C) using soft iron core for the coil (D) all of the above
8.
Electric bell works on the principle of : (A) chemical effect of current (B) magnetic effect of current (C) heating effect of current (D) all of the above
9.
An electric bell when ringing : (NTSE-Stage-I/Haryana./2008) (A) carries no electric current (B) carries continuous current (C) carries intermittent current (D) has a permanent magnet to make it work
(x) The inside of socket are made of conducting material and therefore must not be touched.
PAGE # 5
10. Which is the best conductor ? (A) Carbon
18. Which of the following is not the advantage of dry cell ?
(NTSE-Stage-I/Bihar/2007) (B) Copper
(C) Iron
(A) It is compact and convenient to use (B) It can be recharged
(D) Aluminium
11. The process by which a chemical change takes place in a substance when electric current is passed through
(C) It is handy to carry (D) None of them 19. Which of the following is an example of secondary cell : (A) Voltaic cell (C) Lead accumulator
it is called : (A) electrolysis (B) electroplating (C) electrodes
(B) Daniel cell (D) Dry cell
20. The unit for measuring household electrical energy is : (A) Watt hour (C) Kilowatt hour
(D) thermionic conduction 12. An electrolyte is : (A) a light electric cell
(B) Joules (D) Kilowatt
21. 1 kilowatt hour equals to : (A) 3.6 × 106 kJ (C) 3.6 MJ
(B) a liquid that conducts electricity (C) a metal
(B) 3.6 × 106 J (D) Both (B) and (C)
(D) none of the above
SUBJECTIVE DPP 13. Cathode is : (A) positively charged electrode
1.
(B) negatively charged electrode (C) a positively charged ion formed in the electrolyte
Explain the following terms : (a) electrical circuit (b) circuit symbols (c) primary and secondary cells (d) volt (e) watt.
(D) a negatively charged ion formed in the electrolyte 2.
What are the conditions for electricity to flow in an electrical circuit ?
(A) a paste (B) in liquid state
3.
What do you mean by open and closed circuit?
(C) in solid state (D) in gaseous state
4.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the inside of a dry cell.
14. Ammonium chloride in dry cell is :
What is the strength expected of a dry cells. 15. Positive electrode of a dry cell is made of : (A) copper (C) carbon
(NTSE-Stage-I/Bihar/2007) (B) zinc
(B) Carbon (D) Lead sulphate
17. Electro-chemical cell used in torches is : (A) Voltaic cell (B) Daniel cell (C) Fuel cell
With the help of a diagram, explain how you would electroplate a stainless steel spoon with copper.
6.
How can an iron nail be converted to an electromagnet ?
7.
A building uses 20 lights of 60 W each, 15 fans of 40 W
(D) brass
16. ............. acts as positive electrode in the lead – acid storage cell. (A) Lead (C) Lead oxide
5.
each and 2 table lamps of 100 W each for 5 hours a day. How many units of electricity are used (a) in one day (b) in the month of April ? What would be the cost of electricity for the month of April, if one unit costs Rs.4.0 ?
(D) Leclanche dry cell
PAGE # 6
GENERAL CHEMISTRY INTRODUCTION Chemistry is defined as that branch of science which deals with the composition and properties of matter and the changes that matter undergoes by various interactions.
Anything that occupies space, has mass and offers resistance is called matter.
MERITS (i) Dalton’s theory explains the law of conservation of mass and law of constant proportion. (ii) Atoms of elements take part in chemical reaction this is true till today.
DEMERITS (i) The atom is no longer supposed to be indivisible.
ATOM An atom is the smallest particle of an element that can take part in a chemical reaction. The size of an atom is indicated by its radius which is called "atomic radius" (radius of an atom). Atomic radius is measured in "nanometres"(nm). 1 metre = 109 nanometres or 1nm = 10-9 m. Hydrogen atom is the smallest atom of all having an atomic radius 0.037nm or 0.37 Å (1 Å = 10–10 metre) Maharishi Kanad told that if we keep dividing matter (padartha) on and on, we will get the smallest particle called as parmanu (which was later termed as atom by John Dalton).
SYMBOL "A symbol is a brief representation of the name of the element". Berzelius, a Swedish chemist, was the first to introduce the system of using letters as symbols for the elements. (a) Symbols may be derived from the first letter of the English name of the element. e.g. Hydrogen (H), Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N) etc. (b) Symbols may be derived from the first letter and another significant letter of the name of element. e.g. Aluminium (Al), Bromine (Br), Calcium (Ca) etc. (c) Symbols may be derived from their Latin names of the elements. e.g. Copper (Cuprum-Cu), Iron (Ferrum-Fe), Silver (Argentum-Ag), Sodium (Natrium- Na), Potassium (Kalium -K),Gold ( Aurum -Au) etc.
DALTON'S ATOMIC THEORY
(ii) He could not explain that why do atoms of same element combined with each other. (iii) Atoms of the same element may not necessarily be identical in all aspects. e.g. isotopes. (iv) Atoms of different elements may not necessarily be different in all aspects. e.g. isobars.
MODERN ATOMIC THEORY (a) Structure of an atom : An atom consists of two parts (i) Nucleus : Nucleus is situated in the centre of an atom. All the protons & neutrons are situated in the nucleus, therefore, the entire mass of an atom is almost concentrated in the nucleus. The overall charge of nucleus is positive due to the presence of positively charged protons. The protons & neutrons are collectively called nucleons. The radius of the nucleus of an atom is of the order of 10–13 cm and its density is of the order of 1015 g/cm3. (ii) Extra nuclear region : In extra nuclear part electrons are present which revolve around the nucleus in orbits of fixed energies. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a shell is given by the formula 2n2.(n = number of shells i.e. 1,2,3 -------)
(i) Matter consists of small indivisible particles called atoms.
(iv) A compound is formed by combination of atoms of two or more elements in simple ratio. e.g. Ratio between H and O in water is 2 : 1 by volume. (v) Atoms take part in chemical reactions. (vi) Atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
u cl e
us
(iii) The atoms of an element are different from the atoms of any other element.
First energy level Second energy level Third energy level Fourth energy level
N
(ii) All atoms of an element are identical.
+
K L M N
Electron shells
2
Maximum number of electrons which can be accommodated in the various shells
8 18 32
(b) Composition of an atom : It consists of three elementary particles electron, proton and neutron. These are known as sub-atomic fundamental particles. PAGE # 7
Property
Electron
Proton
Neutron
J.J. Thomson
E. Goldstein
James Chadwick
2. Symbol
e
p
n
3. Nature
Negatively charged
Positively charged
Neutral
4. Relative charge
-1
+1
0
5. Absolute charge
1.602 × 10-19 C
1.602 × 10-19 C
0
6. Relative mass
1 1837
1
1
7. Absolute mass
9.109 × 10-28 g
1.6725 × 10-24 g
1.6748 × 10-24 g
1. Discovery
ATOMIC NUMBER (Z)
Definition of atomic mass : Atomic mass express as
Z = no. of protons = no. of electrons (in electrically
to how many time mass of an atom of an element is
neutral atoms). e.g. 13Al
1
Z p
= =
13 13
e
=
13
Each element has a unique atomic number.
heavier than
12
th mass of carbon -12 atom.
Note : Atomic Mass Unit (u) = One-twelfth the mass of a Carbon-12 atom. 1u = 1.6605 × 10–24 g.
MASS NUMBER (A) One atomic mass unit (1u) is defined as exactly one-
e.g.
A = no. of protons + no. of neutrons (total no. of nucleons)
twelfth the mass of an atom of Carbon-12.The atomic
A A
as compared with the mass of a Carbon-12 atom
= =
p+n Z+n
mass of an element is the relative mass of its atom
taken as 12 units.
27 13 Al
Z A
= =
13 27
p e
= =
13 13
n
= =
A–Z 27 – 13 = 14
The arrangement of electrons in different shells is known as the electronic configuration of the element. If the outermost shell has its full quota of 8 electrons it is said to be an octet. If the first shell has its full
(a) Atomic Mass of an Element :
quota of 2 electrons, it is said to be duplet.
Actual masses of the atoms of the elements are very, very small. For example, one atom of hydrogen (H) has a mass of 1.673 x 10 -24 gram. To avoid the
(a) Bohr - Bury scheme for distribution of electrons in various shells :
inconvenience in using such small and complicated figures in our calculations, it was necessary to define
Name of shells
K
L
M
N
atomic mass in such a way that we get simple figures for them. Carbon-12 atom is that atom of carbon which
Number of shells
1
2
3
4
Maximum Number of 2
8
18
32
has 6 protons and 6 neutrons in its nucleus, so that its mass number is 12.
electrons (2n2 )
Carbon-12 atom has been assigned an atomic mass of exactly 12 atomic mass units, written as 12 u.
PAGE # 8
(b Electronic Elements -
Configuration
of
some
Atomic Symbols of Name of Electronic number the element the element configuration 1 H Hydrogen 1 2 He Helium 2 3 Li Lithium 2,1 4 Be Beryllium 2,2 5 B Boron 2,3 6 C Carbon 2,4 7 N Nitrogen 2,5 8 O Oxygen 2,6 9 F Fluorine 2,7 10 Ne Neon 2,8 11 Na Sodium 2,8,1 12 Mg Magnesium 2,8,2 13 Al Aluminium 2,8,3 14 Si Silicon 2,8,4 15 P Phosphorus 2,8,5 16 S Sulphur 2,8,6 17 Cl Chlorine 2,8,7 18 Ar Argon 2,8,8 19 K Potassium 2,8,8,1 20 Ca Calcium 2,8,8,2 (c) Significance of Electronic Configuration : (i) Electronic configuration of an atom helps us to understand the chemical reactivity of the element. (ii) When the outermost shell of an atom is completely filled as per Bohr-Bury scheme then the element is unreactive. (iii) When the outermost shell of an atom is not completely filled according to Bohr-Bury rule, the element is reactive. An atom can get the noble gas electronic configuration in three ways • By losing one or more electrons. • By gaining one or more electrons. • By sharing one or more electrons with other atom or atoms.
(a) Valency : Valency of an element is the combining capacity of the atoms of the element with atoms of the same or different elements. The valency of an element = number of valence electrons (when number of valence electrons are from 1 to 4) The valency of an element = 8– number of valence electrons. (when number of valence electrons are more than 4) (b) Variable Valency : Certain elements (metals and non - metals ) exhibit more than one valency. (i) Among the metals iron, copper, silver etc. show variable valency. For lower valency a suffix -ous and for higher valency a suffix -ic is attached at the end of the name of the metal. e.g. Ferrous = Fe+2 Ferric = Fe+3 (ii) Among the non - metals nitrogen, phosphorus, sulphur etc. show variable valency. (c) How Do Atoms Exist ? The atoms of only a few elements called noble gases (such as helium, neon, argon and krypton etc.) are chemically unreactive and exist in the free state (as single atoms). Atoms of most of the elements are chemically very reactive and do not exist in the free state (as single atoms). Atoms usually exist in two ways: (i) in the form of ions and (ii) in the form of molecules When atoms form molecules or ions, they become stable (because in doing so they acquire the stable electron arrangement of noble gases).
IONS The charged particles formed by an atom on the gain or loss of one or more electron(s) are called ions.
The outermost shell of an atom is known as the valence shell. The electrons present in the valence shell of an atom are known as valence electrons. The remainder of the atom i.e. the nucleus and other electrons is called the core of the atom. Electrons present in the core of an atom are known as core electrons. e.g. The electronic configuration of the sodium (Na) atom is :Na (11) K L M 2 8 1 Thus, valence electrons in Na atom = 1 and core electrons in Na atom = 2 + 8 = 10
Ion
Cation
Anion
(a) Cation The loss of an electron by an atom leads to the formation of a cation. e.g. Na – e– Na + 11e – 10e – (b) Anion : The gain of an electron by an atom leads to formation of an anion. e.g. Cl + e– Cl– – 17e 18e– PAGE # 9
(ii) Acidic radicals : The negatively charged radical is called acidic radical. E.g. Cl–, SO42–, Br– etc.
RADICALS A molecule of an inorganic compound is made up of two electrically charged species which are known as radicals. Types of radicals : (a) On basis of charge : (i) Basic radicals : The positively charged radical is known as the basic radical E.g.. K+, Ca2+, Fe3+, etc.
(b) Number of element : (i) Simple radicals : When a radical consists of only one element , it is called simple radical. e.g. Ag+, Ba2+, Cl–, Br–, S2– etc. (ii) Compound radicals: When a radical consists of more than one type of elements , it is called a compound radical. e.g. NO3–, SO42–, NH4+, BO33–, PO43– etc.
LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT POSITIVE RADICALS
Monovalent Electropositive Bivalent H+
1. Hydrogen
Electropositive
1. Magnesium +
Mg
2+
Ca
2+
Zn
2+
2. Ammonium 3. Sodium
NH 4 Na +
2. Calcium
4. Potassium
K+
4. Plumbous [Lead (II)]
Pb
2+
5. Cuprous [(Copper (I)]
Cu +
5. Cupric [(Copper) (II)]
Cu
2+
6. Argentic [Silver(II)]
Ag
6. Argentous [Silver (I)]
Ag
+
7. Mercurous [Mercury(I)] Hg2
2+
3. Zinc
7. Stannous [Tin (II)] 8. Ferrous [Iron (II)]
Tetravalent Electropositive
Trivalent Electropositive 1. Aluminium
Al
3+
2. Ferric [Iron (III)] Fe
3+
3. Chromium
3+
Cr
1. Stannic [Tin (IV)]
Sn
2. Plumbic [Lead (IV)]
Pb
4+ 4+
2+ 2+
Sn 2+ Fe
9. Mercuric [Mercury (II)] Hg
2+
10. Barium
2+
Ba
LIST OF COMMON ELECTROVALENT NEGATIVE RADICALS
Bivalent Electronegative
Monovalent Electronegative 1. Fluoride 2. Chloride 3. Bromide 4. Iodide 5. Hydride 6. Hydroxide 7. Nitrite 8.Nitrate
F–
1. Sulphate
–
Cl
–
Br – I H
3. Sulphide
2-
S
2-
S 2O3
2-
ZnO2
6. Oxide
O
– 2
7. Peroxide
O2
8. Dichromate
Cr 2O7
9. Carbonate
2CO 3 2SiO 3
NO
– 3
NO
–
HSO3 – HS
10. Silicate
1. Nitride
N
3-
Tetravalent Electronegative 1. Carbide
C
3-
2. Phosphide
P
3. Phosphite
PO 3
4. Phosphate
PO 4
33-
2-
5. Zincate
9. Bicarbonate or Hydrogen carbonate HCO
12. Bisulphate or Hydrogen sulphate 13. Acetate
SO 3
–
OH
– 3
10. Bisulphite or Hydrogen sulphite 11. Bisulphide or Hydrogen sulphide
2-
SO 4
2. Sulphite 4. Thiosulphate
–
Trivalent Electronegative
222-
–
HSO4 – CH3COO
PAGE # 10
4-
(c) Atomicity:
MOLECULES A molecule is an electrically neutral group of two (or more) atoms chemically bonded together by means of attractive forces. Or A molecule is the smallest particle of a substance (element or compound) which has the properties of that substance and can exist in the free state. Molecules can be formed either by the combination of atoms of the "same element" or of "different elements". There are two types of molecules: molecules of elements and molecules of compounds. (a) Molecules of Elements : The molecule of an element contains two (or more) similar atoms chemically bonded together. For example, a molecule of hydrogen contains 2 hydrogen atoms combined together and it is written as H2 representing Hydrogen gas. Similarly, Ozone gas has 3 oxygen atoms combined together, so ozone exists in the form of O3. The noble gases like helium, neon, argon and krypton etc., exist as single atoms He, Ne, Ar and Kr respectively. So, their atoms and molecules are just the same. (b) Molecules of Compounds : The molecule of a compound contains two (or more) different types of atoms chemically bonded together.For example, molecule of hydrogen chloride (HCl) contains one atom of hydrogen (H) chemically bonded with one atom of chlorine (Cl). Some more examples of the molecules of compounds are : sulphur dioxide (SO2), methane (CH4) and ammonia (NH3).
Note : Every compound is a molecule, but every molecule is not a compound.
The number of atoms present in one molecule of an element or compound is called its atomicity. For example, the atomicity of noble gases is 1, that of hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen etc. is 2 each and of ozone is 3. Thus, noble gases, hydrogen and ozone are respectively monoatomic, diatomic, and triatomic molecules. Note : Atomicity of phosphorus is 4 and sulphur is 8. Note : A compound which consists of molecules and not ions, is called a molecular compound.
CHEMICAL FORMULA Molecule of an element or a compound may be represented by symbols of the elements present in one molecule of the compound. It is known as a chemical formula. E.g. HCl is the formula of hydrogen chloride and NaCl is that of sodium chloride. (a) Significance of a Chemical Formula : (i) Names of the elements present in the compound. (ii) Number of atoms of each element. (iii) Molecular weight of the compound. (iv) The relative proportion of weights of the elements. (b) Writing a Chemical Formula : Step-I Write the symbol of the positive ion or the radical to the left and that of the negative ion or radical to the right. Step-II Put the valence number of each radical or the ion on its top right. Divide the valence number by the highest common factor, if any, to get a simple ratio. Now ignore the (+) and (–) signs. Interchange the valence numbers of radicals or ions. Step-III Shift the valence numbers to the lower right side of the radical or ion. If the compound radical receives number more than 1, enclose it within brackets. Do not enclose simple radicals within brackets.
Names of compounds
PAGE # 11
S.No.
Compounds
Common Names
Chemical Names
1
CaO
Lime
Calcium oxide
2
NaHCO3
Baking soda
Sodium hydrogen carbonate
3
Na2CO3.10H2O
Washing soda
Sodium carbonate decahydrate
4
CaCO3
Limestone
Calcium carbonate
5
Ca(OH)2
Slaked lime
Calcium hydroxide
6
CuSO4. 5H2O
Blue vitriol
Copper sulphate pentahydrate
7
NaCl
Common salt
Sodium chloride
8
Na2CO3
Soda ash
Sodium carbonate
9
NaOH
Caustic soda
Sodium hydroxide
10
KOH
Caustic potash
Potassium hydroxide
11
CaOCl2
Bleaching powder
Calcium oxychloride
12
CaSO4.1/2 H2O
Plaster of paris
Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
13
CaSO4. 2H2O
Gypsum
Calcium sulphate dihydrate
14
FeSO4. 7H2O
Green vitriol
Ferrous sulphate heptahydrate
15
H2SO4
Oil of vitriol
Sulphuric acid
MOLECULAR MASS
List of atomic masses of some common elements :
The molecular mass of a substance may be defined as the relative mass of its molecule as compared to the mass of an atom of carbon (carbon-12) taken as 12 units. OR Molecular mass expresses as to how many times a molecule of a substance is heavier than 1/12th of the mass of an atom of carbon (carbon-12). Eg. A molecule of water is 18 times heavier than 1/12th of the mass of carbon atom. Therefore, the molecular mass of water is 18u. Similarly, the molecular mass of CO2 is 44u. Calculation : The molecular mass is equal to sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms present in one molecule of the substance. Eg. The molecular mass of Sulphuric Acid (H2SO4) can be calculated as follows: Molecular mass of H2SO4
Atomic Number 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Element Symbol Hydrogen H Helium He Lithium Li Beryllium Be Boron B Carbon C Nitrogen N Oxygen O Fluorine F Neon Ne Sodium Na Magnesium Mg Aluminium Al Silicon Si Phosphorus P Sulphur S Chlorine Cl Argon Ar Potassium K Calcium Ca
Atomic mass 1 4 7 9 11 12 14 16 19 20 23 24 27 28 31 32 35.5 40 39 40
= Mass of 2 H atoms +
Mass of 1 S atom + Mass of 4 O atoms = (2 x 1) + (1 x 32) + (4 x 16) = 2 + 32 + 64 = 98u. Thus, the molecular mass of Sulphuric acid is 98u.
PAGE # 12
EXERCISE
10. Atomic mass of an element is the number of times by which the mass of its atom is greater than -
OBJECTIVE DPP 1.
(A) 1.76 × 1011 (C) 9.1 ×
1 th mass of hydrogen atom 12
(C)
1 th mass of oxygen atom 12
(D)
1 th mass of helium atom 12
(D) none of these
The mass of a proton (C) 1.673 ×
4.
(B) (B) 1.6 × 10–19
1011
(A) 1.0073 amu
3.
1 th mass of carbon atom 12
The magnitude of charge on an electron in coulomb is -
2.
(A)
10–27
(B) 1.673 × 10–24g kg
(D) all of these
The charge on an atom is (A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Neutral
(D) None of these
Atoms as a whole are neutral because (A) the number of electrons is equal to the number of neutrons (B) the number of electrons is equal to the number of
11. The difference between ions and atoms is of (A) relative size (B) electronic configuration (C) presence of charge (D) all of these 12. How many types of atoms are present in a molecule of sugar ? (A) 49 (B) 3 (C) 22 (D) 11
protons. (C) the number of neutrons is equal to the number of protons. (D) the number of electrons is equal to the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons. 5.
The element having no neutron in the nucleus of its atom is -
6.
7.
(A) hydrogen
(B) nitrogen
(C) helium
(D) boron
The protons and neutrons are collectively called (A) deutrons
(B) positrons
(C) mesons
(D) nucleons
Atomic number of an element represents (A) number of neutrons in the nucleus. (B) atomic mass of an element.
13. An element (A) is tetravalent electropositive and another element (B) is divalent electronegative. The formula of the compound formed from these elements will be (A) A2B (B) AB (C) AB2 (D) A2B3 14. The electronic configuration of the sodium [Na] atom is (A) 2, 8,2 (B) 2, 8, 1 (C) 2, 8 (D) 2, 8, 8, 1 15. The correct chemical formula of aluminium sulphate is (A) Al2(SO4)3 (B) Al2(SO3)4 (C) Al3(SO4)4 (D) AlSO4 SUBJECTIVE DPP 1.
Differentiate between electron, proton & neutron with respect to their charge and mass.
2.
W rite the electronic configuration of potassium (Z = 19). What is the number of valence electrons in it ?
3.
What is the significance of electronic configuration ?
4.
Why is the valency of inert gases zero ?
5.
W rite the formulae of following compound with the help of the valency of their constituent particle. (i) Ferric sulphate (ii) Mercuric chloride (iii)Calcium bicarbonate
(C) valency of an element (D) number of protons in the nucleus. 8.
9.
Atomic size of the order of (A) 10–8 cm
(B) 10–10 cm
(C) 10–13 cm
(D) 10–6 cm
Which of the following element will become stable after losing an electron ? (A) Helium
(B) Iodine
(C) Sodium
(D) Oxygen
PAGE # 13
RATIONAL NUMBERS
RATIONAL NUMBERS Definition : Numbers that can be expressed in the form
p , where q is a non-zero integer and p is any integer q are called rational numbers. Each of the numbers
2 5 11 7 , , , is a rational 3 7 5 9
number.
NOTE : (i) Two rational numbers are equal if they have the same standard form.
x is a rational number and m is any non-zero y x x m integer, then = . y y m (ii) If
For example, (iii) If
SOME RESULTS ON RATIONAL NUMBERS
x x m = y y m
number need not be an integer. Explanation : We know that
1 1 and so on. Also. – 1 = and so on. 1 1
(ii) Every fraction is a rational number but a rational
x is a rational number and m is a common y
divisor of x and y, then
(i) Every integer is a rational number but a rational
1=
27 ( 27 ) 3 9 ( 9 ) 3 3 = = = = 45 45 3 15 15 3 5 (iv) If x and y are positive integers, then the rational numbers
x –x and are both positive and the rational y –y
numbers
–x x and are both negative. y –y
number need not be a fraction . We know that
3 is a rational number but it is not a 5
fraction because its denominator is not a natural number. p (iii) A rational number is said to be in the standard q p form if q is a positive integer and the integers have q no common divisor other than 1.
3 34 12 = = 8 84 32
(v)
a c = only when a × d = b × c b d
(vi) If there are two rational numbers with common denominator, then one with the larger numerator is larger than the other. . (vii) Every positive rational number is greater than zero. (viii) Every negative rational number is less than zero.
1 3 e.g. Standrad form of is . 6 2
p is q positive, if p and q are either both positive or both negative.
(ix) Every positive rational number is greater than every negative rational number.
Positive Rational Number : A rational numbers
Each of the rational numbers
2 5 7 3 , , , is a 3 9 12 11
positive rational number. p Negative Rational Number : A rational number is q negative, if p and q are of opposite signs.
3 5 15 , , 7 9 26 Equivalent Rational Numbers : To convert a rational number to an equivalent rational number, either multiply or divide both its numerator and denominator by a non-zero integer.
LOWEST FORM OF A RATIONAL NUMBER Lowest Form of a Rational Number : Definition : A rational number
p is said to be in the q
lowest form or simplest form if p and q have no common factor other than 1. Every rational number can be put in the lowest form using the following steps : Step I Obtain the rational number
p q
Step II Find the HCF of p and q say m Step III If m = 1, then
p is in lowest form. q p m
p
Step IV If m 1, then is the lowest form of . q m q
PAGE # 14
Ex.1 Find whether the following rational numbers are in the lowest form or not. (i)
17 79
(ii)
Ex.3 Represent
Sol. Draw a line. Take a point O on it, Let it represent 0.
24 320
Now,
Sol. (i) We observe that 17 and 79 have no common factor, i.e., their HCF is 1. Therefore,
17 is in the lowest form. 79
24 is not in the lowest form. 320
12 16
(ii)
C' P'
B'
A'
O
A
B
P
C
-13/5 -2
-1
0
1
2
13/5
3
Again, from O, set off unit distances to the left. Let these segments be OA', A' B', B' C', etc. Then, clearly the points A', B' and C' represent the integers –1, – 2, – 3 respectively.
60 72
Sol. (i) We have, 12 = 2 × 2 × 3 and 16 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 HCF of 12 and 16 is 2 × 2 = 4. So,
13 . 5
Then the point P represents the rational number
Ex.2 Express each of the following rational numbers to the lowest form. (i)
13 3 3 2 2 . 5 5 5
From 0, set off unit distances OA,AB and BC to the right of O. Clearly, the points A, B and C represent the integers 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Now, take 2 units OA and AB, and divide the third unit BC into 5 equal parts. Take 3 parts out of these 5 parts to reach at a point P.
(ii) We have, 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 and 320 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5 Thus, HCF of 14 and 320 is 2 × 2 × 2 = 8. Therefore,
13 13 and on the number line. 5 5
Now,
3 13 2 5 5
Take 2 full unit lengths to the left of O. Divide the third unit B'C' into 5 equal parts. Take 3 parts out of these 5 parts to reach a point P'.
12 is not in lowest form. 16
13 . 5
Dividing numerator and denominator by 4, we have
Then, the point P' represents the rational number
12 12 4 3 = = 16 16 4 4
Thus, we can represent every rational number by a point on the number line.
12 3 is the lowest form of . 16 4
(ii) We have 60 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 and 72 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 HCF of 60 and 72 is 2 × 2 × 3 = 12 60 Dividing numerator and denominator of by 12. 72 We get
5 . 6
E'
D' -4
C' -3
(i) Every rational number represented by a point on the number line is greater than every rational number represented by points on its left. (ii) Every rational number represented by a point on the number line is less than every rational number represented by points on its right.
COMPARING TWO RATIONAL NUMBERS
REPRESENTATION OF RATIONAL NUMBERS ON REAL LINE : Draw any line. Take a point 0 on it. Call it 0 (zero). Set off equal distances on the right as well as on the left of 0. Such a distance is known as a unit length. Clearly, the points A, B, C, D, E represents the integers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 respectively and the points A', B', C', D', E', represents the integers – 1, – 2, – 3, – 4, – 5 respectively.
-5
Some important notes :
B' -2
A' -1
O
A
B
C
D
E
0
1
2
3
4
5
Thus, we may represent any integer by a point on the number line. Clearly, every positive integer lies to the right of 0 and every negative integer lies to the left of 0. Similarly we can represent rational numbers. Consider the folllowing examples :
Comparing two rational numbers In order to compare any two rational numbers, we can use the following steps : Step I Obtain the given rational numbers. Step II Write the given rational numbers so that their denominators are positive. Step III Find the LCM of the positive denominators of the rational numbers obtained in step II. Step IV Express each rational number (obtained in step II) with the LCM (obtained in step III) as common denominator. Step V Compare the numerators of rational numbers obtained in step IV. The number having greater numerator is the greater rational number.
PAGE # 15
Ex.4 Which of the two rational numbers
3 2 and is 5 3
greater ? Sol. Clearly,
3 2 is a positive rational number and is a 5 3
negative rational number. We know that every positive rational number is greater than every negative rational number.
ascending order. Sol. First write the given rational numbers so that their denominators are positive.
5 ( 1) 2 ( 1) 5 5 2 2 = = and = = 8 ( 1) 3 ( 1) 8 8 3 3 Thus, the given rational numbers with positive denominators are :
3 2 > . 5 3
Ex.5 Which of the two rational numbers
7 5 2 , , 10 8 3
2 5 and is greater ? 5 7
Sol. Clearly, denominators of the given rational numbers are positive. The denominators are 7 and 5. The LCM of 7 and 5 is 35. So, first express each rational number with 35 as common denominator.
Now, LCM of the denominators 10, 8 and 3 is : 2 × 2 × 5 × 2 × 3 = 120 Now write the numbers so that they have a common denominator 120 as follows :
7 7 12 84 5 5 15 75 = = , = = 10 10 12 120 8 8 15 120
55 25 3 37 21 5 = = and = = 75 35 5 57 35 7
Now, compare the numerators of these rational
and
numbers.
25 > 21
7 5 2 , , in 10 8 3
Ex.7 Arrange the rational numbers
25 21 5 3 > > . 35 35 7 5
Ex.6 Which of the two rational numbers
Comparing the numerators of these numbers, we get – 84 < – 80 < – 75
84 80 75 7 2 5 < < < < 120 120 120 10 3 8
7 2 5 < < . 10 3 8
4 5 and is 9 12
greater ?
2 2 40 80 = = 3 3 40 120
Sol. First write each one of the given rational numbers with positive denominator.
4 Clearly, denominator of is positive. The 9 5 denominator of is negative. 12 So, express it with positive denominator as follows
5 ( 1) 5 5 = = ( 12 ) ( 1 ) 12 12 Write the rational numbers so that they have a common denominator 36 as follows :
4 4 4 16 5 3 15 5 = = and = = 9 9 4 36 12 3 36 12
OPERATIONS ON RATIONAL NUMBERS Some Important Notes : (i) For any two rational numbers
p r and we define : q q
p r pr + = q q q (ii) For any two rational numbers
p r and to find q s
p p r r + first convert and to equivalent rational q q s s numbers having denominator equal to the LCM of q and s and then they are added.
p r and , q s p r p negative of r – = + s q s q p r (iv) For any two rational numbers and , q s pr p r × = q s q s (iii) For any two rational numbers
– 15 > – 16
4 5 > . 9 12
15 16 4 5 > > 36 36 9 12
PAGE # 16
(v) The reciprocal of a non-zero rational number
q and written as p
p is q
–1
q p = . p q
(vi) For any two rational numbers
p r and ( 0 ), q s
p r ps ÷ = . q s q r
2 3 and . 5 5 1 0 1 2 Sol. The four rational numbers , , and lie 5 5 5 5 2 3 between and . 5 5 rational numbers, say between
If required, we can insert more rational numbers
4 Ex.8 A car is moving at an average speed of 36 km/h. 5 1 How much distance will it cover in 7 hours ? 2 4 Sol. Distance covered by the car in 1 hour = 36 km 5 184 = km. 5 1 Distance covered by the car in 7 hours 2 184 15 km = 2 5 = 276 km. Hence, the required distance is 276 km. Ex.9 The product of two rational numbers is the numbers is
Ex.10 Find some rational numbers lying between two given
–8 . If one of 9
–4 . Find the other.. 15
between
2 3 and by the technique as discussed 5 5
below. The rational numbers
2 3 and can also be written 5 5
20 30 and respectively 50 50 19 18 0 29 Clearly, , , ... , ..., are rational 50 50 50 50 2 3 between and . 5 5 8 3 Ex.11 Insert 10 rational numbers between and . 11 11 as
Sol. We know that – 3 < – 2 < –1 < 0 < 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 < 5 < 6 < 7 < 8
<
1 2 3 4 5 3 2 1 0 < < < < < < < < 11 11 11 11 11 11 11 11 11 6 7 8 < < 11 11 11
Sol. Let the required number be x. Then, Hence, 10 rational numbers between
–4 –8 ×x= 15 9
x=
Ex.12 Insert 100 rational numbers between
–8 15 –8 –15 × = × 9 –4 9 4
x=
x =
x =
7 2 1 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 , , , , , , , , and 11 11 11 11 11 11 11 11 11 11
–8 –4 9 15
– 8 – 15
3 9 and 13 13
Sol. We have,
3 3 10 30 9 9 10 90 = = and = = 13 13 10 130 13 13 10 130 We know that – 30 < – 29 < – 28 < ..... – 1 < 0 < 1 < 2 < 3 < .... < 90
9 4
8 15 9 4 10 x = . 3
30 29 28 1 0 1 < < < ... < < < 130 130 130 130 130 130
< Hence, the other number is
3 8 and : 13 11
10 . 3
Insertion of Rational Numbers Between Two Given Rational Numbers : Between any two rational numbers infinitely many rational numbers can be inserted.
2 90 < .... < 130 130
Hence 100 rational numbers between
and
3 30 = 13 130
9 90 = are 13 130
29 28 1 0 1 70 , , ... , , , , .... , . 130 130 130 130 130 130 PAGE # 17
7.
Which rational number is exactly in middle between the two rational numbers
OBJECTIVE DPP 1.
Choose the rational number which does not lie between rational numbers –
2 1 and – . 5 5 3 (B) – 10
1 (A) – 4 (C)
2.
3 10
(D)
By what rational number should
7 20
8.
8 be multiplied to 39
1 1 & ? 3 2
(A)
5 12
(B)
5 6
(C)
1 12
(D)
3 5
Two rational numbers between
11 17 and is : 15 20
(A)
3 5 , 4 6
(B)
3 1 , 5 2
(C)
1 5 , 2 7
(D)
5 6 , 7 7
3 5
obtain 26 ?
507 (A) 4
507 (B) 4
407 (C) 4 3.
(D) None
Choose the rational number which does not lie between rational numbers
3 2 and . 5 3
46 (A) 75
(C) 4.
5.
49 75
(D)
50 75
Which of the following statements is true ?
(D)
6.
7 5 4 2 18 12 9 3
2 4 5 7 3 9 12 18
(B)
(C)
33 55
(D) None of these
10. If
x 7 = , then the value of x is : 6 3
(A) – 14
(B) 14
(C) 21
(D) –21
11. What should be added to
4 9 14 (C) 9
19 12 1 (C) 12 (A)
5 2 4 7 12 3 9 18
4 be multiplied to 39
obtain 18 ?
351 2 24 (C) 13
3 5
5 to get 1 ? 9 4 9 14 (D) 9 (B)
12. What should be subtracted from
By what rational number should
(A)
33 is : 55
(A)
(A)
4 7 5 2 (A) 9 18 12 3
(C)
Standard form of
47 (B) 75
How many rational numbers exist between any two distinct rational numbers ? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 11 (D) Infinite numbers
(B)
9.
(B)
351 2
(D) None of these
5 3 to get ? 6 4
19 12 1 (D) 12 (B)
x 13. The additive inverse of a rational number y is : x y (B) y (A) x x (C) – y
(D) –
y x
PAGE # 18
14. In rational number operation “multiplication” is : (A) Commutative (C) Both A and B
(B) Associative (D) None of these
20. Standard form of
15. In the following rational numbers, x is a positive integer. Which among these is the least ?
x (A) 3 (C)
x 5
x (B) 4 (D)
x 6
117 is : 52
(A)
117 52
(B)
9 4
(C)
9 4
(D)
3 2
SUBJECTIVE DPP What should be added to
2.
What should be subtracted from
3.
A car is moving at an average speed of 40
16. What will be the correct sign in the following between
1 2 and ? 5 3 (A) =
(B) >
(C) <
(D)
2 5 to get ? 3 6
17. Which rational numbers are equal to their reciprocals ? (A) 0, 1 (B) – 1, 0 (C) –1, 1 (D) –1, 0, 1
How much distance will it cover in 7
1 4 18. Identify rational number between and . 3 5 (A)
1 4
(B)
(C)
17 30
(D) 1
19. A rectangular sheet of paper is 5
2 to get – 1 ? 9
1.
9 10
4.
7 10
1 2 c m long and 10 2 3
cm wide. Perimeter of its rectangle is : (A)
57 cm 3
(B)
47 cm 3
(C)
37 cm 3
(D)
97 cm 3
5.
1 hours ? 2
The product of two rational numbers is
the numbers is
The cost of 2
2 km/hr.. 5
16 . If one of 9
4 , find the other.. 3
1 3 metres of cloth is Rs 78 . Find the 2 4
cost of cloth per metre.
PAGE # 19
LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLE Property - 3 : We can multiply both sides of the equation
DEFINITIONS
by the same non-zero number. Equation : A statement of equality involving one or more variables (literals) is called an equation. Linear equation in one variable : An equation involving only one literal number (variable) with the highest power one is called a linear equation in one variable.
Ex.3 Solve the equation
Sol. In order to solve this equation, we have to get y by itself on L.H.S. To get y by itself on L.H.S., we have to remove 12 from L.H.S. This can be done by multiplying both sides of the equation by 12 thus, we have
Standard form of a linear equation in x is ax + b = 0, where a, b R and a 0. For example : 3x – 7 = 5,
x + 5 = 3, 3x – 2y = 7 4
x x and + = 4 are linear equations. 3 2 SOLVING AN EQUATION
y = 48 and check the result. 12
y = 48 12 y × 12 = 48 × 12 [Multiplying both sides by 12] 12 y = 576
Check : Putting, y = 576 in the given equation, we get L.H.S. =
576 = 48 and R.H.S. = 48. 12
Property - 1 : We can add the same number to both
Thus, for y = 567, we have L.H.S. = R.H.S
sides of the equation;
(iv) We can divide both sides of the equation by the same non-zero number.
Ex.1 Solve the equation x – 7 = – 2 and check the result. Sol. We have, x – 7 = – 2.
Ex.4 Solve the equation
In order to solve this equation, we have to get x by itself
2 x = 18 and check the result. 3
Sol. We have,
on the L.H.S. to get x by itself on the L.H.S., We need to
2 x = 18 3
shift – 7. This can be done by adding 7 to both sides of the given equation. Thus,
Multiplying both sides by
x–7=–2
x – 7 + 7 = – 2 + 7 [Adding 7 to both sides]
x+0=5
x=5
[ – 7 + 7 = 0 and – 2 + 7 = 5]
Thus, x = 5 is the solution of the given equation.
3 3 = 18 × 2 2
2 3 × × x = 27 3 2
x = 27 Thus, x = 27 is the solution of the given equation.
L.H.S. = 5 – 7 = – 2 and R.H.S. = – 2 Thus, when x = 5, we have L.H.S. = R.H.S.
Check Putting x = 27 in the given equation, we get
2 × 27 = 18 and R.H.S. = 18 3
Property - 2 : We can subtract the same number from
L.H.S. =
both sides of the equation.
Thus, for x = 27, we have L.H.S. = R.H.S.
Ex.2 Solve the equation x + 4 = – 2 and check the result. Sol. In order to solve this equation, we have to obtain x by itself on L.H.S. To get x by itself on L.H.S., we need to shift 4. This can be done by subtracting 4 from both sides of the given equation. Thus, x + 4 = – 2
x + 4 – 4 = – 2 – 4[Subtracting 4 from both sides]
x +0=–6
x=–6
[ 4 – 4 = 0 and – 2 – 4 = – 6]
Thus, x = – 6 is the solution of the given equation.
Property - 4 : In an equation, we can drop a term from one side and put it on the other side with the opposite sign. This process is known as transposition. Ex.5 Solve : 3(x + 3) – 2 (x – 1) = 5 (x – 5). Sol. We have, 3(x + 3) – 2(x – 1) = 5(x – 5) 3x + 9 – 2x + 2 = 5x – 25 [Expanding brackets on both side] 3x – 2x + 9 + 2 = 5x – 25 x + 11 = 5x – 25 [Simplifying L.H.S. and R.H.S. separately] – 4x = – 36 x=9
PAGE # 20
3 x 1 2x 5 5 – = – 2x. 4 3 2
APPLICATIONS OF LINEAR EQUATIONS Ex.9 Solve : Ex.6 If 7 is subtracted from five times a number, the result is 63. Find the number. Sol : Let the required number be x. Then, Five times x = 5x When 7 is subtracted from five times x, we get 5x – 7. It is given that when 7 is subtracted from five times x, the result is 63. So, we obtain the following equation : 5x – 7 = 63. We have, 5x – 7 = 63 5x = 63 + 7 [On transposing – 7 to R.H.S.] 5x = 70
5x 70 = 5 5
Sol.
3 x 1 2x 5 5 – = – 2x 4 3 2 Multiplying both side of equation by 12 [L.C.M. of 4, 3, 2]
5 2x 2
3 (3x – 1) – 4 (2x + 5) = 12
9x – 3 – 8x – 20 = 30 – 24x 9x – 8x + 24x = 30 + 3 + 20 25x = 53
x=
53 3 =2 . 25 25
[Dividing both sides by 5] Ex.10 Solve :
x = 14. Hence, the required number is 14. Ex.7 The sum of two consecutive numbers is 53. Find the numbers. Sol. Let one number be x. Then, the next consecutive number is x + 1. It is given that the sum of two consecutive numbers is 53. So, we obtain the following equation : x + (x + 1) = 53 2x + 1 = 53 2x = 53 – 1 [On transposing 1 on R.H.S.] 2x = 52
2 x 52 = 2 2
[Dividing both sides by 2]
x = 26 One number = 26 Another number = 26 + 1 = 27. Ex.8 Solve : 4x – 3 = 2x + 5. Sol. 4x – 3 = 2x + 5 4x – 2x = 5 + 3 2x = 8
x=
8 2
x=4 Verification : Putting x = 4 in both sides, we get L.H.S. = 4x – 3 = 4×4–3 = 16 – 3 = 13 R.H.S. = 2x + 5 = 2×4+5 = 8+5 = 13 Since R.H.S = L.H.S it shows that solution is correct.
Sol.
3x 5 2 = . 2x 1 5
3x 5 2 = 2x 1 5
5 (3x + 5) = 2 (2x – 1) 15x + 25 = 4x – 2 15x – 4x = – 25 – 2 11x = – 27
x=
x=–2
[Cross multiplication]
27 11
5 . 11
Ex.11 Solve : 0.5 + 0.4x = 0.09
5x 4x 9 + = [Multiplying each term by 100] 10 10 100
Sol.
5 4x 9 x 100 + 100 = 100 10 10 100
50x + 40x = 9 90x = 9
x=
9 90
x=
1 10
x = 0.1 Verification : L.H.S = 0.5x + 0.4x = 0.5 0.1 + 0.4 0.1 = 0.05 + 0.04 = 0.09 R.H.S. = 0.09 L.H.S. = R.H.S. Hence verified solution x = 0.01 is correct.
PAGE # 21
Ex.12 The sum of the ages of father and son is 48 years. The quotient obtained by dividing the age of the son by the age of the father is
1 . Find their ages. 5
Sol. Let the age of son be x years. Age of father = 48 – x years. A.T.Q.
x 1 = 48 x 5
5 x = 1 (48 – x) 5x + x = 48 6x = 48
x=
48 6
x=8 Age of son 8 years. Age of father = 48 – 8 years = 40 years.
OBJECTIVE DPP 1.
2.
The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is 1185, what are the numbers ? (A) 231, 233, 235, 237, 239 (B) 229, 231, 233, 235, 237 (C) 233, 235, 237, 239, 241 (D) None of these If
x x3 1, then x is equal to : 4 6
(A) 12 (C) 3 3.
4.
5.
The sum of one half, one third and one fourth of a number exceed the number itself by 12. The number is : (A) 72 (B) 144 (C) 180 (D) 244
2x 3 / 4 1 = then x = ? 9x 4 / 7 4
(A)
25 7
23 (C) 7 6.
(B) 6 (D) 4
Twelve years hence a man will be four times as he was twelve years ago, then his present age is : (A) 20 years (B) 25 years (C) 28 years (D) 30 years
If
If
7.
If 2
3x 4 2x 3 = then the value of x is : 2x 3 x2
(A) – 3 (C) 3
(B) – 2 (D) – 4
8.
If 3 (x + 5) + 16 = 5 (x + 14) – 21, then x = (A) x = – 8 (B) x = – 7 (C) x = – 6 (D) x = – 9
9.
If twice a certain number is diminished by five, the result is equal to twelve added to the number. Find the number : (A) 18 (B) 16 (C) 15 (D) 17
10. Find three consecutive integers such that four times the first plus one- half the second minus twice the third is equal to 24 : (A) 11, 12 and 13 (B) 12, 13 and 14 (C) 13, 14 and 15 (D) 10, 11 and 12 11. Michael is 6 years older than Sabrina. Five years ago, Michael was thrice as old as Sabrina, find Michael’s present age. (A) 8 years (B) 14 years (C) 16 years (D) 28 years 12. The difference between two numbers is 642. When the greater is divided by the smaller, the quotient is 8 and the remainder is 19. The numbers are : (A) 89 and 731 (B) 92 and 734 (C) 87 and 729 (D) 85 and 727 13. Length of a rectangle is 2 m more than twice its breadth. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 58 m. Find its length and breadth. (A) Length = 20 m and breadth = 9 m (B) Length = 19 m, breadth = 10 m (C) Length = 17 m, breadth = 12 m (D) Length = 18 m, breadth = 11 m 14. Solve :
xb x b = . ab ab
(A) a (C) – a
15. 75% of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself. Find the number. (A) 300 (B) 75 (C) 150 (D) None of these 16. Solve for x : 0.5 x +
(B)
25 7
23 (D) 7
4 5 9 then the value of x is : x 1 x 3 x 2
(A) – 7
(B) 7/2
(C) 7
(D) – 14
(B) 2a (D) – 2a
(A) 12 (C) 21
x = 0.25 x + 7 3 (B) 14 (D) 82
17. “I am a number. Tell my identity. Take me twelve times over, and add a fifty ! To reach a double century, you still need thirty !” Who am I ? (A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 20 (D) 24 18. After 12 years, Pravallika will be 3 times as old as she was 4 years ago. What is the present age of Pravallika ? (A) 16 years (B) 15 years (C) 14 years (D) 12 years
PAGE # 22
19. If three consecutive even whole numbers are added together the result is 42. The numbers are : (A) 12,13 and 14 (B) 12,14 and 16 (C) 13, 14 and 15 (D) 13, 15 and 17
20. Solve :
y 1 y 2 – = 1. 3 4
(A) 7 (C) 12
(B) 8 (D) 10
21. Age of father is 30 years more than his son. 5 years ago father’s age was three times the son’s age. Find their ages. (A) 20, 50 (B) 30,60 (C) 40, 70 (D) 50,80 22. If
3 x = – 7 + x, then the value of x is : 4 (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./2007)
7 3
(A) 4
(B) –
(C) – 28
(D) 28
27. Solve : 2x +
(B)
(C) 2
(D) 4
29. Three angles of a quadrilateral have the same measure. If the measure of the forth angle is 150º. Find the measure of other angles. (NTSE Stage - I/Gujrat-2007) (A) 50º (B) 70º (C) 75º (D) 65º 30. Solve the equation :
(C) 1
(D)
equation so formed is :
1.
(B)
x 3 6 (C) x6 2 7
24. The value of x in
(A) 1 (C) 3
25. If
x3 6 x4 7
(C)
5 3
(B)
10 3
12.5 3
(D) 0
26. The sum of seven consecutive natural numbers is 1617. How many of these numbers are not prime : (NTSE Stage-I/Haryana 2007) (A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 7
2 rd of the remaining watching the television. If 3
Ram's father is thrice as old as Ram was 2 years ago. Five years from now, Ram's father will be 6 years more than 2 times of Ram's age. What is Ram's present age ?
3.
The population of town A is 4800 more than town B. If 3100 people move from town B to town A, the population of town A will be 11 times that of town B. The original total population of the two towns is :
4.
There are some number of coins on the table, one-fourth of which are showing heads. If I turn over two coins, one-third of them show heads. How many coins are there on the table ?
5.
Of the three numbers, second is twice the first and is also thrice the third. If the average of the three numbers is 44, the largest number will be ?
6.
Solve :
7.
Solve : 0.3x + 0.4 = 0.28x + 1.16
8.
Find a number which when multiplied by 5 is increased by 80.
(NTSE Stage-I/Haryana 2009) (A)
1 th of his leisure hours on reading 4
2. x 1 x 1 x = 2, is : 2 3
5.005 3x 5 = , then x = 2.002 2
2x =1 9
he spends 2 hr on watching the television. What is his leisure ?
2 6 x (D) x6 3 7
(NTSE Stage-I/Raj./2007) (B) 2 (D) 0
Mr. Joshi spends and
x x – = 1. 5 4 (NTSE Stage - I/Gujrat-2007) (B) 9
(A) 20
SUBJECTIVE DPP
x4 6 x3 7
1 2
(A) 1
from denominator, the fraction becomes
(A)
(NTSE Stage - I/Gujrat-2007)
28. Adding 15 to three times a certain number yields 105. Find the number. (NTSE Stage - I/Gujrat-2007) (A) 35 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 25
23. The denominator of a fraction is greater than numerator by 6. If 3 is added to numerator and 2 is subtracted 6 , then the 7 (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./2007)
7 9 = . 2 2
y 8 7 4y = and check the result. 3 7
PAGE # 23
9.
Rahim’s father is three times as old as Rahim. If the sum of their ages is 56 years, find their ages.
10. A purse has 25 paise coins and 50 paise coins. The number of 25 paise coins is thrice the number of 50 paise coins. If the total value of money in the purse is Rs.75, find the number of 25 paise 50 paise coins in the purse. 11. In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal. The vertex angle is twice of either base angle. What are the angles of the triangle ? 12. The value of x, in expression :
13. A man’s age is four times the sum of the ages of his three children. In 8 years he will be twice the sum of their ages. What is man’s age ? 14. The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 cm. If the length is twice the breadth, find the dimensions of the rectangle. 15. At a fair in shooting at a mark, a man receives 25 paise if he strikes it and loses 10 paise if he misses it. He has 40 shots and has to pay 50 paise. How many times did he hit the mark ?
6x 7 4x 5 = . 3x 2 2x 3
PAGE # 24
CELL (ii) Multicellular : Living organisms are composed of many cells, e.g. Hydra, human, plants.
Cell •
All living forms are composed of microscopic units called as “Cells”.
•
A cell is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
•
Study of structure and composition of cell is called as “Cytology”.
•
Cell was first observed by “Robert Hooke” in a dead cork slice in the year 1665. He described about this in his book “Micrographia”.
•
The word cell was derived from a Greek word “Cellulae” which means small room.
•
First living cell was discovered by A.V. Leeuwenhoek.
•
The term protoplasm was coined by Purkinje in 1839.
•
Protoplasm was discovered by “Felix Dujardin” and named as sarcode.
•
Protoplasm consistency differs under different conditions .t exists in sol-gel states.
•
Protoplasm is an aggregate of various chemicals such as water, ions, salts and other organic molecules like proteins, carbohydrates, fats, nucleic acids, vitamins etc.
•
Cell Theory Two biologists, “Schleiden and Schwann’’ gave the “Cell theory” which was later on expanded by “Rudolf Virchow”. He said “ all cells arise from pre-existing cells.” •
Cell Size Size of cell is variable depending upon the type of organism. Some are microscopic while some are visible with naked eyes. Their size may vary from 0.2 m to 18 cm. •
The largest animal cell is ostrich egg (15 cm. in dia with shell & 8 cm. in dia without shell)
•
The longest animal cell is nerve cell. (upto 1m. or more)
•
Smallest cells so far known are PPLOs
•
e.g. mycoplasma ( 0.1 m in dia.)
Living beings are divided into two group on the basis of number of cells. (i) Unicellular : Living organisms are composed of single cell, e.g.Amoeba, Euglena, Chlamydomonas, Paramoecium.
Viruses are the exceptions of cell theory.
Cell Membrane •
Singer and Nicholson gave the fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane according to him it consists of a bilayer of lipid in which proteins are embedded
•
Fluid mosaic Model of Singer & Nicholson Functions : Plasma membrane helps in transportation osmosis. Osmosis can also be called as “diffusion of of molecules inside or outside the cell. solvents”.
•
Terms related with transportation of molecules :
•
•
Osmosis : The movement of solvent or water from their higher concentration to lower concentration of solvent through a semipermeable membrane is called as
Endosmosis : Movement of solvent into the cell is called as Endosmosis.
•
Exosmosis : Movement of solvent outside the cell is called as Exosmosis.
.
25
PAGE # 25
•
t is the outermost covering of the plant cells.
•
t is absent in animal cells.
•
Cell wall is rigid, strong, thick and non living structure. It is made up of cellulose.
•
In fungi it is made up of chitin.
•
In bacteria it is made up of peptidoglycan.
• •
Functions of cell wall : t provides definite shape to the cell.
•
t provides strength to the cell.
•
t is permeable and allows entry of molecules of different sizes.
•
Nucleus is the most important cell organelle which directs and controls all its cellular activities.
•
t is called as “Headquarter of the cell”/ “Controlling centre of cell”.
•
t was discovered by “Robert Brown in 1831”.
•
n eukaryotes a well defined nucleus is present while in prokaryotes a well defined nucleus is absent,
•
Prokaryotes contain a primitive nucleus known as nucleoid or genophore.
•
t has a double layered covering called as nuclear membrane.
•
Nuclear membrane has pores which regulate the movement of materials in & out of the nucleus.
•
Nucleus contains chromatin material & nucleoplasm.
Nucleus •
Nucleolus :
•
It was first observed by fontana.
•
It is without a limiting membrane.
•
It is the structure in which ribosomes are formed.
•
Functions of the nucleus :
•
t controls all the metabolic activities of the cell and regulates the cell cycle.
•
(ii) Cell organelles : Living part of the cells having definite shape, structure & function bounded by membrane there are three types of cell organelles. •
Double membranous (Plastids, Mitochondria)
•
Single membranous (Golgi Apparatus, Endoplasmic reticulum, Vacuole, Lysosomes, Peroxisomes, Glyoxysomes)
•
Non membranous (Ribosomes)
t helps in transmission of hereditary characters from parents to offsprings.
Cytoplasm •
Cytoplasm was discovered by Kolliker in 1862.
•
It is the site of both biosynthetic and catabolic pathways.
•
t can be divided into two parts : (i) Cytosol : Aqueous soluble part contains various fibrous proteins forming cytoskeleton.
Mitochondria •
These are also absent in prokaryotes.
•
It was first seen by Kolliker in striated muscle of insect.
•
t is also called as “Power House of the Cell” or the “Storage Battery”.
•
t is double membranous structure where outer membrane has specific proteins while inner membrane is folded inside to form chambers called Cristae.“ Cristae” are the infoldings of inner mitochondrial membrane.
26
PAGE # 26
•
Matrix possess enzymes for respiratory cycle like Kreb Cycle
Ribosome(70s)
Inner membrane
Outer membrane
Circular loop of DNA
Oxysome
Matrix
Cristae
Internal Structure of mitochondria •
ATP synthesizing units are called Oxysomes or F1 Particles.
•
Space between inner and outer mitochondrial membranes is called as perimitochondrial space.The fluid present in mitochondria is called as matrix.
•
Functions :
(ii) Stroma: It is a granular transparent substance also called as matrix. Grana are embedded in it. Besides grana they also contain lipid droplets, starch grains, ribosomes etc.
(i) ts main function is to produce and store the energy in the form of ATP. (ii)t is the site of Kreb cycle of respiration. (iii) Oxysome contains enzymes for ATP production.
•
It is a double membranous discoidal structure, found only in plant cells.
•
Term plastid was given by Haeckel.
•
Chloroplast was discovered by A.V. Leeuwenhoek and named by Schimper.
•
Plastids are three types
•
Leucoplast : storage of food.
•
Chromoplast : contain colourful pigments.
•
Chloroplast : contain green pigments & site of photosynthesis.
Internal Structure of chloroplast •
Function : This is the site of dark reaction of photosynthesis. Also helps in protein synthesis due to presence of ribosomes.
•
Chloroplasts are also known as “kitchen of the cell”.
•
t was discovered by Porter, Claude and Fullam.
•
These are present in all cells except prokaryotes and mammalian erythrocytes.
•
They are made up of three components :
(a) Chloroplast have Following Two Parts : (i) Grana : t constitutes the lamellar system. These are found layered on top of each other, these stacks are called as Grana. Each granum of the chloroplast is formed by super imposed closed compartments called Thylakoids. •
Functions : They are the sites of light reaction of photosynthesis as they contain photosynthetic pigment chlorophyll. In each thylakoid Quantasomes are present which are called as Photosynthetic units. Each quantasome possesses 230 chlorophyll molecules.
(i) Cisternae (ii) Vesicles (iii) Tubules
27
PAGE # 27
Endoplasmic reticulum of striated muscles are called as sarcoplasmic reticulum.
•
Lysosomes (Discovery : Christian de Duve) (Lyso = digestive, soma = body)
(a) Types : Endoplasmic reticulum is of two types Smooth ER ¦ ¦ ¦ ¦ ¦
Made of tubules mainly. Helps in steroid, lipids and. Polysaccharide synthesis. Ribosomes are absent . Helps in membrane biogenesis.
Rough ER
•
These are tiny sac like structure containing enzymes of intracellular digestion.
•
They are bounded by a single membrane.
•
They occur in animal cells and a few in plant cells.
•
They contain hydrolysing enzymes called acid hydrolases.
•
Functions :
•
They are kind of waste disposal system.
•
They help in digesting foreign materials and worn out cells. So they are also called as “Suicidal Bags”.
m Made of cisternae
& vesicles. m Helps in protein
synthesis. m Contains
ribosomes on its surface.
(b) Functions of ER : (i) t forms endoskeleton of cell. (ii) t helps in synthesis of fats, steroids, cholesterol etc.
Peroxisomes
(iii) t helps in transportation of molecules. (iv) SER plays a crucial role in detoxification of drugs and poisonous by-products.
•
These structures were first described from liver and kidney cells by Rodhin (1954)
•
In plant cells, they were first observed in germinating seeds by Tolbert (1969)
•
In green leaves of C3 plants, peroxisomes carry out photorespiration.
•
In animal cells they carry out lipid metabolism.
Golgi Apparatus •
Golgi apparatus consists of a system of membrane bounded vesicles arranged parallel to each other in stacks called cisternae along with some large and spherical vacuoles.
•
It was discovered by Camilo Golgi.
•
In plants golgi body is called as Dictyosomes.
•
It is absent in prokaryotes, mammalian RBC’s & sieve cells.
•
Functions :
Glyoxysomes •
Beavers (1961) was the first person to discover these organelles and were described later by R.W. Briedenbach (1967).
•
They are found in plant cells, particularly, in germinating fatty seeds e.g. Ricinus (castor) and groundnut where fat is being converted into carbohydrates by a process called glyoxylate cycle.
(i) t helps in formation of middle lamellae (ii) t is secretory in nature. (iii) t helps in melanin synthesis (iv) Lipids and proteins synthesized in endoplasmic reticulum are packed at golgi complex. They provide the site for assembly of new membrane material. (v) It helps in the formation of acrosome.
Ribosomes •
Ribosomes are the sites of protein synthesis.
•
Ribosomes are made up of ribonucleoprotein & naked.
•
Ribosomes are smallest cell organelle.
•
Ribosome are two types (i) 70 S in prokaryotic cell.
Vacuoles
(ii) 80 S in eukaryotic cell. (s = Svedberg units)
•
These are membrane bounded regions in the cytoplasm containing water and other substances.
•
They are bounded by a single membrane called Tonoplast.
•
n animal cells vacuoles are smaller in size and numerous while in plant cells a single large vacuole is found which occupies about 90% of the volume of cell.
•
Functions :
•
t helps in maintaining osmoregulation in a cell.
(i) help in maintaining cell shape
•
t stores toxic metabolic products of plant cell.
•
t contains various coloured pigments like anthocyanins.
(ii) are involved along with microtubules in cell movements.
•
Functions : Ribosomes help in protein synthesis.
Three principal types of protein filaments are microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments, constitute the cytoskeleton. •
Microfilaments are made up of actin-like protein. They
(iii) participate in intracellular transport.
28
PAGE # 28
(iv) play an important role in movement of organelles. •
The intermediate filaments have 8-10 nm diameter. In most animal cells, they form a basket around the nucleus and are present in cell-cell junction.
•
Types of Cells.
•
On the basis of type of organization, cells are of two types :
Differences between a plant cell & an animal cell Plant Cell Cell wall is present Plastids are found One large vacuole Centriole is absent
Animal Cell Cell wall is absent Plastids are absent Numerous tiny vacuoles are found Centriole is present
(i) Prokaryotic cells : These are primitive and incomplete cells. They have less developed nucleus without nuclear membrane and nucleolus,e.g. Bacteria. (ii) Eukaryotic cells : These are well developed cells.They have advanced nucleus with nuclear membrane and nucleolus. e.g. Plants & animals.
Differences between prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cell Characters
Prokaryotic Cells
Eukaryotic Cells
Nuclear body
Incipient nucleus, No nuclear membrane Nucleolus absent DNA Single closed loop, (histones absent)
True nucleus, Nuclear membrane present Nucleolus present Multiple chromosomes, (histones present in chromosome)
Mitosis Respiratory system
No mitosis In plasma membrane, (mesosomes)
Mitosis found In mitochondria
Photosynthetic apparatus
in internal membranes, (Chromatophore)
In chloroplasts
Golgi bodies, Chloroplast, Endoplasmic reticulum. Mitochondria, Lysosomes
Absent
Present
Ribosomes Cell wall Vacuoles Capsule
70 S type Generally present. Absent May be present
80 S type Present in plant cell. Present Always absent
Some Important Points (i) Centrosome : •
It is found only in animal cell.
•
It consists of two centrioles.
•
It is membraneless structure.
•
It is made up of microtubules.
•
It helps in cell division and spindle formation. (ii) Cilia and flagella : These are thread like appendages used for locomotion and emerge from basal body. (iii) Chromosomes : These are thread like structures containing hereditary information in form of genes. (iv) There are four different types of membranes on the basis of permeability : (A) Permeable : They allow diffusion of both solvent and solute molecules or ions through them, e.g. Cell wall of plant cell. (B) mpermeable: They prohibit the diffusion of both solvent and solute particles through them, e.g. Cutinized cell wall, Lignified cell wall. (C) Semipermeable: Allows diffusion of solvent molecules but do not allow the passage of solute molecules, e.g. Parchment paper, Kidney membrane.
(D) Differentially permeable: t allows some solutes to pass through them along with the solvent molecules. e.g. Plasmalemma, Tonoplast. (v) Plasmodesmata : Connections through which cells communicate chemically with each other through their thick walls are called as “Plasmodesmata”. (vi) Protoplasm was called as “Physical Basis of Life” by Huxley. (vii) Euglena is the connecting link between plants and animals as it lacks cell wall but has plastids. (viii) Mesosomes in bacteria are analogous to mitochondria as they both help in cellular respiration. (ix) Centre for cellular and molecular biology is situated at Hyderabad. (x)n animal cell the ‘Cell Coat’ is present instead of cell wall which provides them protection and recognition. It is made up of glycocalyx. (xi) ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) is the energy currency of the cell i.e. energy in cell is stored in form of ATP molecules. (xii) DNA is called as “Chemical Basis of Life”. (xiii) DNA- structure explained by double helix model which was proposed by Watson and crick. DNA is a polynucleotide chain.
29
PAGE # 29
•
One nucleotide is made up of : Phosphate group + deoxy ribose sugar + nitrogen base [A/T/G/C] (xiv) Mitochondria, plastid and centrioles have their own DNA molecules so they are called as “Semiautonomous Cell Organelles”. (xv) RNA (Ribose Nucleic acid) : RNA responsible for protein synthesis in a living cell. RNA are of three type : mRNA, tRNA, rRNA. It is also a polynucleotide chain and one nucelotide is made up of Phosphate group + ribose sugar + nitrogen base [A/U/G/C] (xvi) Gene is the sub unit of DNA
(a) Mitosis : •
Term mitosis was given by Flemming.
•
It is also called as somatic division as it occurs during formation of body cells.
•
It is an equational division in which a parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each of them contains the same number of chromosomes as are present in parent cell.
•
It occurs in two steps : (i) Karyokinesis
(i) Karyokinesis : Division of nucleus. It is divided in four steps :
(xvii) Microscopy : Is the practice of using microscope for the study of finer details of small objects including cells and tissues.
Types of Microscope Simple Compound Light compound Electrone
(ii) Cytokinesis
(A) Prophase : Longest phase. In this chromatin condensed into chromosomes and nuclear membrane disappears.
Inventor Robert Hooke AV Leeuwenhoek Janssen and Janssen Knoll and Ruska
(B) Metaphase : Chromosomes are arranged at the equator & forming a metaphase plate. Chromosomes are shortest and thickest in this stage. This phase is most suitable for study of chromosomes. (C) Anaphase : Shortest phase of cell division.
Cell Division Chromosomes are appeared in different shapes. Cell division was first observed by Nageli in plant cell (1842) and it was first studied by Prevost and Dumas in the fertilized egg of frog. •
Cell Cycle : It is a series of programmed cyclic changes by which the cell duplicates its contents and divides into two daughter cells. Cell cycle was discovered by Howard and Pelc.It is divided into two phases :
•
V – Shaped (Metacentric)
•
L – Shaped (Submetacentric)
•
J – Shaped (Acrocentric)
•
I – Shaped (Telocentric) (D) Telophase : It is reverse of prophase
(i) Long non dividing (I – phase) or interphase.
(ii) Cytokinesis : It is referred to the division of cytoplasm. In animals it occurs by formation of cleavage furrow in the middle by constriction in plasma membrane. In plants it occurs by cell plate formation.
(ii) Short dividing M – phase or mitotic phase (i) Long non dividing (I – phase) or interphase or preparatory phase : Interphase divided in the following steps. •
G1 (First growth phase),
•
S(Synthesis phase),
•
G2 (Second growth phase)
•
Note : Colchicine is a mitotic poison. It blocks the completion of metaphase. (b) Meiosis :
Mitotic division phase
r) (1 h hase Mp
•
It occurs only once in the life cycle of organism.
•
It is a double division in which a diploid cell divides twice to form four haploid cells.
•
It can be studied in anthers of unopened flowers in plants and in testis of grasshopper in animals.It consists of two phases :
(3-4 hr)
G2 phase S-phase
(i) Interphase : Size of nucleus increases to three times. It also involves G1 – S – phase in meiosis-I and G1 – G2 in meiosis-II.
(12 hr) G1 phase
(ii) M – phase : It occurs in two steps
(6-8 hr) D.N.A. Synthesis
(A) Meiosis – I, (B) Meiosis – II
Cell cycle (ii) Short dividing M – phase : t is the phase of cell division. It consists of karyokinesis (nuclear division) and cytokinesis (cytoplasmic division).It is of three types:
(A) Meiosis – I : Also called as reduction division. Diploid stage changes to haploid stage. It occurs in four steps. •
Prophase – I : It is the longest phase of meiosis. It has following stages :
30
PAGE # 30
•
Leptotene
•
Zygotene : Synaptenemal complex is formed between two homologous chromosomes.
•
Pachytene : The exchange of segments between non sister chromatids of chromosome is called as crossing over.
•
Diplotene : Synaptinemal complex is dissolved, tetrads are cleared. At some places nonsister chromatids of two homologous chromosomes remain attached to form a chiasmata.
•
Diakinesis : Terminalization
•
Prophase – II
•
Metaphase – I
•
Metaphase – II
•
Anaphase – I
•
Anaphase – II
•
Telophase – I
•
Telophase – II
(B) Meiosis – II : It is also called as equational division and maintains the haploid number of chromosomes. No replication of DNA occurs in this stage (It is similar to mitosis)
Differences between mitotic and meiotic cell division
•
•
Mitosis It occurs in all somatic cells.
Meiosis It occurs in reproductive cells (germ cells)
In the resultant daughter cells, the number of chromosomes remains the same (i.e., diploid), hence, called equational division.
In resultant daughter cells, the number of chromosomes reduces to half (i.e., haploid), hence, called reductional division.
By mitosis two daughter cells are produced
By meiosis four daughter cells are produced.
During mitosis no crossing over takes place
During meiosis crossing over takes place.
Daughter cells have identical chromosomes which are also identical to that of parent cell (i.e. remains constant)
Chromosomes of the daughter cells are with combined components (genes) of both parents (i.e., genetic variability occurs)
Significance of mitosis : It is essential for growth, repair, differentiation, maintenance of chromosome number etc. Significance of meiosis : It produces variations and essential for sexual reproduction. It maintains the chromosome number in each generation of living organisms.
EXERCISE 1.
The red colour of the tomato is due to (A) leucoplast (B) chromoplast (C) chloroplast (D) none of these
2.
The cellular structure concerned with intra cellular digestion is (A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) ribosome (D) lysosome
3.
Power house of the cell is (A) Mitochondria (C) Lysosome
(c) Amitosis : It was discovered by Remak. In this division cells are divided in to two into cells without any particular pattern. e.g. prokaryotic cells.
(B) Ribosome (D) Golgi body
31
PAGE # 31
4.
‘Physical basis of life’ is the term used for (A) Cytoplasm (B) Protoplasm (C) Nucleoplasm (D) Sarcoplasm
5.
Cell was discovered by (A) Robert Brown (B) Robert Hooke (C) Leewenhoek (D) Whittaker
6.
Prokaryotic cell is (A) bacterial cell (C) nerve cell
7.
(B) amoeba (D) human bone cell
Centrioles and centrosomes occur in the cell of (A) green plants (B) animals (C) bacteria and cyanobacteria (D) both B and C
8.
Semi autonomous organelle is (A) endoplasmic reticulum (B) lysosome (C) peroxisome (D) chloroplast
9.
Lysosomes are store house of (A) proteins (B) hydrolytic enzymes (C) ATP (D) sugar
10. Who proposed the cell theory ? (A) Schleiden (B) Schwann (C) A and B both (D) None of the above 11. Enzymes are absent in (A) algae (B) plants (C) viruses (D) bacteria 12. In which of the following nucleoid is present ? (A) Plant cell (B) Animal cell (C) Green algae cell (D) Bacterial cell. 13. Cell organelle surrounded by a single unit membrane is (A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) lysosome (D) nucleus 14. The basic unit of a nucleic acid is (West Bengal/2011/Stage-1/ntse)
(A) nucleoside (B) nucleotide (C) nucleoid (D) pentose sugar 15. Smallest cell so far known is (A) Bacteria (B) Cyanobacteria (C) PPLO (D) Virus 16. The bacterial cell wall made up of (A) polypeptide (B) cellulose (C) mucopolypeptide (D) lipid & protein 17. Protein packaging is done by (A) nucleus (B) nucleolus (C) golgi apparatus (D) E.R.
18. Dictyosomes are (A) class of ribosomes (B) respiratory particles (C) pigment storing granules (D) golgi bodies 19. In humans the number of chromosomes in a haploid cell is (A) 23 (B) 46 (C) 44 (D) 30 20. In metacentric chromosomes, position of centromere is – (A) terminal (B) middle (C) subterminal (D) none of these 21. In plant cells, cytokinesis occurs by – (A) cell plate (B) invagination (C) furrowing (D) all of these are correct 22. Chromosomes are distinctly visible in – (A) anaphase (B) metaphase (C) prophase (D) telophase 23. In electron microscope, the source of light used is – (A) ordinary daylight (B) ultraviolet (C) infrared (D) beam of electrons 24. Which nitrogen base is present only in RNA ? (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./07)
(A) Adenine (C) Thymine
(B) Guanine (D) Uracil
25. If a nucleus is removed from a living cell, the reamaining part will be (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./07)
(A) Nucleoplasm (C) Cytoplasm
(B) Protoplasm (D) Cell Sap
26. True statement is (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./07) (A) Plant cell has cell membrane. (B) Number of Ribosome is constant. (C) Protein synthesis is done in Plastids. (D) The Shape of animal cells is spherical 27. Synthesis of protien in cell occurs at (A) Nucleus (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./08) (B) Chloroplasts (C) Cell membrane (D) Ribosomes 28. Suicidal bags of cells are (A) Lysosomes (C) Centrosomes
(NTSE Stage-I/Raj./08)
(B) Ribosomes (D) Nucleosomes
29. Genetic characters of a Iiving being are transmitted to the offsprings by (NTSE Stage-I/Raj./08) (A) Ribosomes (B) Chromosomes (C) Plasma (D) Lysosomes
32
PAGE # 32
30. Elephants eat grass and both have cells. Read the following statements regarding cells. Identify the correct ones. (NTSE Stage-II/Raj./08) (A) Elephant cells are bigger than grass cells. (B) Elephant cells have plastids and small vacuoles. (C) Grass cells have cell walls and vacuoles. (D) Grass cells have cilia and chloroplasts. (E) Elephant cells have cell membrane & mitochondria.
33. Chromosomes are made up of (NTSE\Stage-I/Bangalore\2011)
(A) proteins and carbohydrates (B) lipids and nucleic acids (C) nucleic acids and proteins (D) carbohydrates and lipids 34. In the given figure, solution-I is more dilute than solution-II. In which direction will the movement of water take place. (NTSE /stage - 1 / Punjab / 2012) Semi permeable Membrane
Which one of the following alternatives is correct ? (A) A and C (B) B and C (C) C and E (D) D and E 31. Largest Cell is (A) Red Blood Cell (C) Egg of ostrich
Water Solute
(NTSE Stage-I /Raj./09)
(B) Green Algae Cell (D) Animal Cell
32. The diagram below is of a plant cell or an animal cell. Identify the parts A, B and C. (NTSE Stage-II/Raj/09)
Solution-I
Solution-II
(A) From solution-I to solution-II (B) From solution-II to solution-I (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) No net movement of water takes place 35. In a Mitochondrion, F1 particle is present on the (West Bengal /2011/Stage-1/ ntse)
(A) Inner surface of inner membrane (B) Outer surface of outer membrane (C) Outer surface of inner membrane (D) Inner surface of outer membrane 36. One of the following is found only in animal cells Which one of the following alternatives is correct ? (A) Animal cell - plasma membrane, chromosomes, nuclear membrane (B) Plant cell - cell membrane, plastid, nuclear membrane (C) Animal cell - cell membrane, cell vacuole, protoplasm (D) Plant cell - cell wall, chromosomes, cell organelle
(ntse /stage - 1 / bihar/ 2011)
(A) Vacuole (C) Ribosome
(B) Mitochondria (D) Centriole
37. What are the components of DNA ? (Delhi\2011\Stage-1\NTSE)
(A) Sugar, bases, proteins (B) Sugar, phosphate, bases (C) Phosphate, bases, polypeptides (D) Polypeptides, proteins, sugar
33
PAGE # 33
THE MUGHAL EMPIRE BABUR ·1526-1530
INTRODUCTION (a) The Great Mughals (i)
Ruling as large a territory as the Indian subcontinent with such a diversity of people and cultures was an extremely difficult task for any ruler to accomplish in the Middle Ages. Quite in contrast to their predecessors, the Mughals created an empire and accomplished what had hitherto seemed possible for only short periods of time.
(ii) From the latter half of the sixteenth century they expanded their kingdom from Agra and Delhi, until in the seventeenth century they controlled nearly all of the subcontinent. (iii) They imposed structures of administration and ideas of governance that outlasted their rule, leaving a political legacy that succeeding rulers of the subcontinent could not ignore. (iv) Today the Prime Minister of India addresses the nation on Independence Day from the ramparts of the Red Fort in Delhi, the residence of the Mughal emperors.
THE MUGHALS (a) Who Were the Mughals (i)
1526 -
defeated Ibrahim Lodi and his Afghan supporters at Panipat.
1527 -
defeated Rana Sanga. Rajput rulers and allies at Khanua.
1528 -
defeated the Rajputs at Chanderi;
Established 'control over Agra and Delhi before his death. HUMAYUN 1530-1540, 1555-1556
The Mughals were descendants of two great lineages of rulers. From their mother's side they were descendents of Genghis Khan (died 1227), ruler of the Mongol tribes, China and Central Asia. From their father's side they were the successors of Timur (died 1404), the ruler of Iran, Iraq and modern-day Turkey. However, the Mughals did not like to be called Mughals or Mongol. This was because Genghis Khan's memory was associated with the massacre of innumerable people. It was also linked with the Uzbegs, their Mongol competitors.
(ii) On the other hand, the Mughals were proud of their Timurid ancestry, not least of all because their great ancestor had captured Delhi in 1398. (iii) They celebrated their genealogy prictorially, each ruler getting a picture made of Timur and himself. ( b ) Mughal Military Campaigns (i)
Babar, the first Mughal emperor (1526-1530), succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 when he was only 12 years old. He was forced to leave his ancestral throne due to the invasion of another Mongol group, the Uzbegs. After years of wandering he seized Kabul in 1504. In 1526 he defeated the Sultan of Delhi, Ibrahim Lodi, at Panipat and captured Delhi and Agra. Table 1 charts some of the major campaigns of the Mughals.
(1) Humayun divided his inheritance according to the will of his father: His brothers were each given a province. The ambitions of his brother Mirza Kamran weakened Humayun's cause against Afghan competitors. Sher Khan defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539) and Kanauj (1540), forcing him to flee to Iran. (2) In Iran Humayun received help from the Safavid Shah. He recaptured Delht in 1555 but died the next year after an accident in this building.
PAGE # 34
AKBAR 1556-1605
Jahangir 1605-1627
Military campaigns started by Akbar continued. The Sisodiya ruler of Mewar, Amar Singh, accepted MughaI service. Less successful campaigns against the Sikhs, the Ahoms and Ahmadnagar followed. Prince Khurram, the future Emperor Shah Jahan, rebelled in the last years of his reign, The efforts of Nur Jaha, Jahangir's wife, to marginalise him were unsuccessful. Shah Jahan 1627-1658 Akbar was 13 years old when he became emperor. His reign can be divided into three periods. (1) 1556-1570 - Akbar became independent of the regent Bairam Khan and other members of his domestic staff. Military campaigns 'were launched against the Suris and other Afghans, against the neighbouring kingdoms of , Malwa and Gondwana, and to suppress the revolt of his halfbrother Mirza Hakim and the Uzbegs. In 1568 the Sisodiya capital of Chittor was seized and in 1569 Ranthambhor. (2) 1570-1585 - military campaigns in Gujarat were followed by campaigns in the east in Bihar, Bengal and Orissa. These campaigns were complicated
Mughal campaigns continued in the Deccan under
by the 1579-1580 revolt in support of Mirza Hakim.
Shan Jahan. The Afghan noble Khan jahan Lodi rebelled and was defeated. Campaigns were
(3) 1585-1605 - expansion of Akbar's empire.
launched against Ahmadnagar; the Bundelas were defeated and Orchha seized. In the north-west, the
Campaigns were launched in the north-west. Qandahar was seized from the Safavids, Kashmir was annexed, as also Kabul, after the death of Mirza Hakim. Campaigns in the Deccan started and Berar, Khandesh and parts of Ahmadnagar were annexed. In the last years of his reign Akbar was distracted by the rebellion of Prince Salim, the future Emperor Jahangir.
campaign to seize Balkh from the Uzbegs was unsuccessful and Qandahar was lost to the Safavids. In 1632 Ahmadnagar was finally annexed and the Bijapur forces sued for peace. In 1657-1658, there was conflict over succession amongst Shah Jahan's sons. Aurangzeb was victorious and his three brothers, including Dara Shukoh. were killed. Shah Jahan was imprisoned for the rest of his life in Agra.
PAGE # 35
declared himself an independent king and resumed his campaigns against the Mughals. Prince Akbar rebelled against Aurangzeb and received support from the Marathas arid the Deccan Sultanate. He finally fled to Safavid Iran.
Aurangzeb-1658-1707
(2) After Akbar's rebellion Aurangzeb sent armies against the Deccan Sultanates. Bijapur was arnnexed in 1685 and Golconda in 1687. From 1698 Aurangzeb personally managed campaigns in the Deccan against the Marathas who started guerrilla warfare. Aurangzeb also had to face the rebellion in north India of the sikhs, Jats and Satnamis, in the north-east of the Ahoms and in the Deccan of the Marathas. His death was followed by a succession conflict amongst his sons.
(1) In the north-east, the Ahoms were defeated in 1663, but rebelled again in the 1680s. Campaigns in the north-west against the Yusufzai and the Sikhs were temporarily successful. Mughal intervention in the succession and intemal politics of the Rathor Rajputs of Marwar led to their rebellion. Campaigns against the Maratha chieftain Shivaji were initially successful. But urangzeb insulted Shivaji who escaped from Agra,
Akbar ordered one of his close-friends and courtiers, Abul Fazl, to write a history of his reign. Abul Fazl wrote a three-volume history of Akbar's reign, titled Akbar Nama. The first volume dealt with Akbar's ancestors and the second volume recorded the events of Akbar's reign. The third volume is the Ain-i Akbari. It deals with Akbar's administration, household, army the revenues and the geography of his empire. It also provides rich details about the traditions and culture of the people living' in India. The most interesting aspect about the Ain-i Akbar is its rich statistical details about things as diverse as crops, yields, prices, wages and revenues.
India during the emergence of Mughals (c) Mughal Traditions of Succession The Mughals did not believe in the rule of primogeniture, where the eldest son inherited his father's estate.
Instead they followed the Mughal and Timurid custom of coparcenary inheritance, or a division of the amongst all the sons.
PAGE # 36
( d ) Mughal Relations With Other Rulers (i)
The Mughal rulers campaigned constantly against rulers who refused to accept their authority. But as the Mughals became powerful many other rulers also joined them voluntarily. The Rajputs are a good example of this. Many of them married their daughters into Mughal families and received high positions. But many resisted as well.
(ii) The Sisodiya Rajputs refused to accept Mughal authority for a long time. Once defeated, however, they were honourably treated by the Mughals, given their lands (watan) back as assignments (watan jagir). The careful balance between defeating but not humiliating their opponents enabled the Mughals to extend their influence over many kings and chieftains. But it was difficult to keep this balance all the time. (iii) For example Aurangzeb insulted Shivaji when he came to accept Mughal authority.
THE MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION (a) Mansabdars and Jagirdars (i)
As the empire expanded to encompass different regions the Mughals recruited diverse bodies of people. From a small nucleus of Turkish nobles (Turanis) they expanded to include Iranians, Indian, Muslims, Afghans, Rajputs, Marathas and other groups. Those who joined Mughal service were enrolled as mansabdars.
(ii) The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank. It was a grading system used by the Mughals to fix (1) rank, (2) salary and (3) military responsibilities. Rank and salary were determined by a numerical value called zat. the higher the zat, the more prestigious was the noble's position in court and the larger his salary. (iii) The mansabdar's military responsibility required him to maintain a specified number of sawar or cavalary men. The mansabdar brought his cavalyrmen for review, got them registered, their horses branded and then received money to pay them as salary. (iv) Mansabdars received their salaries as revenue assignments called jagirs which were somewhat like iqtas. But unlike muqtis, most mansabdars did not actually reside in or administer their jagirs. They only had rights to the revenue of their assignments which was collected for them by their servants while the mansabdars themselves served in some other part of the countary. (v) Nobles with a zat of 5,000 were ranked higher than those of 1,000. In Akbar's reign there were 29 mansabdars with a rank of 5,000 zat; by Aurangzeb's reign the number of mansabdars had increased to 79.
(vi) In Akbar's reign these jagirs were carefully assessed so that their revenues were roughly equal to the salary of the mansabdar. By Aurangzeb's reign this was no longer the case and the actual revenue collected was often less than the granted sum. (vii) There was also a huge increase in the number of mansabdars, which meant a long wait before they received a jagir. These and other factors created a shortage in the number of jagirs. As a result many jagirdars tried to extract as much revenue as possible while they had a jagir. Aurangzeb was unable to control these developments in the last years of his reign and the peasantry therefore suffered tremendously. ( b ) Zabt and Zamindars (i)
The main source of income available to Mughal rulers was tax on the produce of the peasantry. In most places, peasants paid taxes through the rural elites, that is, the headman or the local chieftain. The Mughals used one term- zamindars - to describe all intermediaries, whether they were local headmen of villages or powerful chieftains.
(ii) Akbar's revenue minister, Todar Mal, carried out a careful survey of crop yields, prices and areas cultivated for a 10-year period, 1570-1580. On the basis of this data, tax was fixed on each crop in cash. Each province was divided into revenue circles with its own schedule of revenue rates for individual crops. This revenue system was known as zabt. It was prevalent in those areas where Mughal administrators could survey the land and keep very careful accounts. This was not possible in provinces such as Gujarat and Bengal. (iii) In some areas the zamindars exercised a great deal of power. The exploitation by Mughal administrators could drive them to rebellion. Sometimes zamindars and preasants of the same caste allied in rebelling against Mughal authority. These peasant revolts challenged the stability of the Mughal Empire from the end of the seventeenth century. (iv) Akbar ordered one of his close friends and courteirs, Abul Fazl, to write a history of his reign. Abul Fazl wrote a three-volume history of Akbar's reign, titled Akbar Nama. The first volume dealt with Akbar's ancestors and the second volume recorded the events of Akbar's reign. The third volume is the Ain-i Akbari. It deals with Akbar's administration, household, army, the revenues and the geography of his empire. It also provides rich details about the traditions and culture of the people living in India. The most interesting aspect about the Ain-i-Akbari is its rich statistical details about things as diverse as crops, vields, prices, wages and revenues.
PAGE # 37
described it as the fabled land of wealth. But these
A CLOSER LOOK
same visitors were also appalled at the state of poverty that existed side by side with the greatest
(a) Akbars Policies (i)
opulence.
The broad features of administration were laid down by Akbar and were elaborately discussed by Abul Fazl in his book, the Akbar Nama, in particular in its last volume, the Ain-i- Akbari.
(ii) The inequalities were glaring. Documents from the twentieth year of Shah Jahan's reign inform us that the highest-ranking mansabdars were only 445 in number out of a total of 8,000. This small
(ii) Abul Fazl explained that the empire was divided into provinces called subas, governed by a subadar who carried out both political and military functions. Each province also had a financial officer or diwan. For the maintenance of peace and order in his province, the subadar was supported by other officers such as the military paymaster (bakhshi), the minister in charge of religious and charitable patronage (sadr), military commanders (faujdars) and town police commander (Kotwal).
number a mere 5.6 per cent of the total number of mansabdars - received 61.5 percent of the total estimated revenue of the empire as salaries for themselves and their troopers. (iii) The Mughal emperors and their mansabdars spent a great deal of their income on salaries and goods. This expenditure benefited the artisans and peasantry who supplied them with goods and produce. But the scale of revenue collection left
(iii) Akbar's nobles commanded large armies and had access to large amounts of revenue. While they were loyal the empire functioned efficiently but by the end of the seventeenth century many nobles had built independent networks of their own. Their loyalties to the empire were weakened by their own self-interest.
very little for investment in the hands of the primary producers - the peasant and the artisan. (iv) The poorest amongst them lived from hand to mouth and they could hardly consider investing in additional resources - tools and supplies - to increase productivity. The wealthier peasantry and
(iv) While Akbar was at Fatehpur Sikri during the 1570s he started discussions on religion with the ulama, Brahmanas, Jesuit priests who were Roman Catholics, and Zoroastrians. These discussions took place in the Ibadat khana. He was interested in the religion and social customs of different people. (v) Akbar's interaction with people of different faiths made him realise that religious scholars who emphasised ritual and dogma were often bigots. Their teachings created divisions and disharmony amongst his subjects. This eventually led Akbar to the idea of sulh-i kul or "universal peace". This idea of tolerance did not discriminate between people of different religions in his realm. Instead it focused on a system of ethics - honesty, justice, peace - that was universally applicable. (vi) Abul Fazl helped Akbar in framing a vision of governance around this idea of sulh-i-kul. This principle of governance was followed by Jahangir and Shah Jahan as well.
artisanal groups, the merchants and bankers profited in this economic world. (v) The
and
resources
seventeenth century. As the authority of the Mughal emperor slowly declined, his servants emerged as powerful centres of power in the regions. (vi) They constitued new dynasties and held command of provinces like Hyderabad and Awadh. Although they continued to recongnise the Mughal emperor in Delhi as their master, by the eighteenth century the provinces of the empire had consolidated their independent political identities. Key words : 1.
Dogma : A statement or an interpretation declared as authoritative with the expectation that it would be followed without question.
2.
(i)
wealth
extremely powerful group of people in the late
Bigot : An individual who is intolerant of another person's religious belief's or culture.
THE MUGHAL EMPIRE (a) Impact of The Mughal Empire in The Seventeenth Century and After
enormous
commanded by the Mughal elite made them an
3.
Zat Ranking : Nobles with a gat of 5,000 were ranked higher than those of 1,000.
The administrative and military efficiency of the
In Akbar's reign there were 29 mansabdars with a rank
Mughal Empire led to great economic and
of 5000 zat, by Aurangzeb's reign the number of
commercial prosperity. International travellers
mansabdars had increased to 79. PAGE # 38
14. Who wrote Akbar Nama : (A) Abul Fazal (B) Al-Baruni (C) Barani (D) Amir Khusro
OBJECTIVE DPP-4.1 1.
The Mughals were proud of their : (A) Mongol Dynasty (B) Uzbegs ancestry (C) Timurid ancestry (D) None of these
2.
Babur succeeded to the throne of : (A) Delhi (B) Iran (C) Central Asia (D) Ferghana
3.
Ist battle of Panipat was fought in : (A) 1530 (B) 1526 (C) 1528 (D) 1529
4.
Cannons were used in warfare by : (A) Uzbegs (B) Babur (C) Ibrahim Lodi (D) Mirza Muhammad
5.
Battle of Khanua was fought between : (A) Aurangzeb & Sisodiya Rajput (B) Shah Jahan & Rathore Rajput (C) Babur & Rana Sanga (D) Akbar & Sher Shah Suri
6.
Battle of Khanua was fought in : (A) 1526 (B) 1527 (C) 1528 (D) 1529
7.
Which Mughal ruler died in an accident : (A) Babur (B) Humayun (C) Jahangir (D) Shah Jahan
8.
9.
What was the age of Akbar when he became emperor : (A) 12 yrs. (B) 13 yrs. (C) 14 yrs (D) 15 yrs Prince Salim was name of : (A) Shah Jahan (B) Aurangzeb (C) Jahangir (D) Akbar
10. The rank, salary & military responsibilities of a mansabdar were determined by a numerical value called : (A) Zat (B) Mansab (C) Jagirs (D) Iqtas 11. Sawar means : (A) Land revenue (C) Jagir 12. Zabt was a : (A) Revenue system (C) Police
(B) Cavalrymen (D) Trading tax (B) Military (D) Judicial
13. Todar Mal was the revenue minister of : (A) Humayun (B) Akbar (C) Jahangir (D) Shah Jahan
15. How many volumes were there in Akbar Nama : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 16. Match the following : A Military Pay master 1. Taiydars B Charitable patronage 2. Bakshi C Military Commanders 3. Kotwal D Town Police Commander 4. Sadr (A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (B) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 17. Sulh-i-kul means : (A) Religions prominence (B) Universal peace (C) Despotic rule (D) Bigot 18. Match the following King A. Queen Elizabeth B. Shah Abbas C. Ivan IV Vasilyenich D. Akbar (A) A-3, B-1,C-4, D-2 (C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
Ruling Place 1. Iran 2. Indian 3. England 4. Russia (B) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (D) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
19. Sultan Suleyman was the ruler of : (A) Iran (B) Afghanistan (C) Ottoman Turkey (D) Cairo
SUBJECTIVE DPP-4.2 1.
State the political condition of Indian of the time of Babar's invasion?
2.
Why is Babar called the founder of Mughal empire?
3.
Briefly comment upon the struggle for power between Humayun and Sher Shah?
4.
State the achievements of Sher Shah?
5.
What were the relations between Jahangir and the Mewar ruler?
6.
How did Shah Jahan spend his last days?
7.
What were the causes of unpopularity of Aurangzeb ?
8.
What was the condition of agriculture during the Mughal period?
9.
Discuss Mughal traditions of succession?
10. Explain the Mansabdari system of Mughals?
PAGE # 39
INSIDE OUR EARTH INTRODUCTION The earth, our homeland is a dynamic planet. It is constantly undergoing changes inside and outside.
(v) The crust forms only 0.5 per cent of the volume of the earth, 16 percent consists of the mantle and 83 per cent makes the core. (vi) The radius of the earth is 6371 k.m..
STRUCTURE OF THE EARTH (a) Interior of The Earth (i)
Crust(Sial) :- Just like an onion, the earth is made up of several concentric layers with one inside another. The uppermost layer over the earth's surface is called the crust. It is about 35 k.m. On the continental masses and only 5 k.m. on the ocean floors.
(ii)
The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are silica and alumina. It is thus called sial (si-silica and al-alumina). The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium : it is therefore called sima (si-silica and ma-magnesium).
Fig. : Structure of the Earth
ROCKS AND MINERALS (iii) Mantle(Sima) :- Just beneath the crust is the mantle which extends up to a depth of 2900 k.m.. below the crust. (iv) Core(Nife):- The innermost layer is the core with a radius of about 3500 k.m.. It is mainly made up of nickel and iron and is called nife (ni-nickel and feferrous i.e iron). The central core has very high temperature and pressure.
(a) Meaning of Rocks The earth's crust is made up of various types of rocks. Any natural mass of mineral matter that makes up the earth's crust is called a rock . Rocks can be of different colour, size and texture.
( b ) Table of Rock Types
Rocks Types
Igneous (LatinWord- Ignis)
Extrusive [volcanic] (e.g., Basalt)
Intrusive [plutonic] (e.g., Granite)
Sedimentary (Latin Word- Sedimentum)
Formed Mechanically (e.g., shale clay, sandstone rocksalt)
There are three major types of rocks : igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks . Igneous Rocks : (i)
When the molten magma cools, it becomes solid. Rocks thus formed are called igneous rocks. They are also called primary rocks. There are two types of igneous rocks: intrusive rocks and extrusive rocks.
(ii) Lava coming out from the volcanoes is actually fiery red molten magma coming out from the interior of the earth on its surface.
Metamorphic (Greek Word- Metamorphose) (e.g., marble) Formed Chemically (e.g., gypsum)
Formed Organically (e.g., chalk ,Dolomite lime stone )
(iii) When this molten lava comes on the earth's surface, it rapidly cools down and becomes solid. (iv) Rocks formed in such a way on the crust are called extrusive igneous rocks. (v) They have a very fine grained structure. For example, basalt. (vi) The Deccan plateau is made up of basalt rocks. Sometimes the molten magma cools down deep inside the earth's crust. PAGE # 40
(vii) Solid rocks so formed are called intrusive igneous rocks. Since they cool down slowly they form large grains.
the molten magma cools; it solidifies to become igneous rock. (iii) These igneous rocks are broken down into small
(viii) Granite is an example of such a rock. grinding stones used to prepare paste/ powder of spices
particles that are transported and deposited to form sedimentary rocks.
and grain are made of granite. (iv) When the igneous and sedimentary rocks are Sedimentary Rocks :
subjected to heat and pressure they change into
(i)
metamorphic rocks.
Rocks roll down, crack and hit each other and are broken down into small fragments. These smaller
(v) The metamorphic rocks which are still under great
particle are called sediments. These sediments are transported and deposited by wind, water, etc. These loose sediments are compressed and hardened to form layers of rocks. (ii) These types of rocks are called sedimentary rocks. For example, sandstone is made from grains of sand. These rocks may also contain fossils of plants, animals and other micro-
heat and pressure melt down to form molten magma. (vi) This molten magma again can cool down and solidify into igneous rocks. ( b ) Uses of Rocks and Minerals (i)
are naturally, occurring substances which have
organisms that once lived on them.
certain physical properties and definite chemical
(iii) Igneous and sedimentary rocks can change into metamorphic rocks under great heat and pressure. For example, clay changes into slate and limestone into marble.
Rocks are made up of different minerals. Minerals
composition. (ii) Minerals are very important to humankind. Some are used as fuels. For example, coal, natural gas and petroleum.
(iv) Rocks are very useful to us. The hard rocks are used for making roads, houses and buildings.
(iii) They are also used in industries - iron, aluminium, gold, uranium, in medicine, in fertilisers, etc.
Metamorphic Rocks (i)
The term 'metamorphic' is derived from the word
(c) Rock Distribution in India
'metamorphosis'; which means 'change of form.
(i)
(ii) W hen igneous or sendimentary rocks are subjected to extreme heat and pressure they undergo a complete change in their form and characteristics. Such rocks are called metamorphic rocks.
Granite is found in Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chota Nagpur Plateau, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and the Deccan trap region (Maharashtra).
(ii) Sandstone occurs in Vindhyachal and Aravali ranges. Limestone occurs widely in peninsular
(iii) The change may occur as a result of volcanic
India. Coal mines occur in the basins of rivers
activity, movements in the earth's crust or simply due to heat and pressure deep inside the earth.
Godavari, Mahanadi and Damodar, Marble is
Marble, Slate, Gneiss and Quartzite are some examples of metamorphic rocks.
sedimentary accumulation.
(iv) They have been formed from limestone, shale, granite and sandstone respectively.
found in Rajasthan. The Indo-Ganetic plain is of
(iii) Rocks have great economic value. The cotton soil found in the Deccan trap is a product of extrusive igneous rocks. Other soils like alluvium are also result of disintegrated rocks. Stones used in
ROCKS AND MINERALS (a) Rock Cycle
construction of houses and roads, dams. etc. are all rock products. Rocks are source of precious and useful metals. Iron ore, bauxite, copper, lead,
(i)
One type of rock changes to another type under
zinc and gold are found in igneous rocks. Non-
certain conditions in a cyclic manner.
metallic minerals include sulphur which is used
(ii) This process of transformation of the rock from one to another is known as the rock cycle. When
for medicinal purposes. Coal and Petroleum are important sources of energy.
PAGE # 41
( d ) Flow Chart of Rock Cycle
MAGMA
Heating and Melting
Cooling and Solidification Heating and Melting
IGNEOUS ROCK
Heating, Pressure and Chemical-action
METAMORPHIC ROCK
Heating, Pressure and Chemical-action
Weathering and Erosion Transportation of Eroded materials
SEDIMENTARY ROCK Deposition Consolidation, Compaction And Cementation Rock Cycle
OBJECTIVE DPP-2.1 1.
Which of the following is correct? After metamorphism: (A) Granite changes to Graphite (B) Limestone changes to Marble (C) Clay changes to Quartzite (D) Sandstone changes to Schist
2.
Which of the following is called “Primary Rocks” and ‘Parent Rocks’ : (A) Igneous Rocks (B) Sedimentary Rocks (C) Metamorphic Rocks (D) None of the above
3.
Mineral fuels, coal & petroleum are found in : (A) Igneous rocks (B) Sedimentary rocks (C) Metamorphic rocks (D) None of these
4.
The uppermost layer over the earth surface is called : (A) Sima (B) Crust (C) Mantle (D) Nife
5.
Where is the deepest mine in the world located ? (A) India (B) South Africa (C) Australia (D) Zaire
6.
The main mineral constituents of the continental mass are : (A) Silica and Alumina (B) Silica and Iron (C) Iron and Nickel (D) Silica and Nickel
7.
Read the following : 1. The crust forms only 0.5 percent of the volume of earth . 2. 16 percent consist of the mantle. 3. 83 percent makes the core. Which is/are incorrect ? (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of the above PAGE # 42
8.
The remains of the dead plants and animals trapped in the layers of rocks are called : (A) Sediments (B) Fossils (C) Ruins (D) Metamorphism
14. The innermost layer of the interior of earth is also known as : (A) Sima (B) Nife (C) Sial (D) Keil
9.
The rock which is made up of molten magma called is: (A) Igneous (B) Sedimentary (C) Metamorphic (D) Secondary rock
SUBJECTIVE DPP-2.2
10. Match the following : (i) Extrusive Igneous Rock (ii) Intrusive Igneous Rock (iii) Sedimentary Rock (iv) Metamorphic Rock Answer Code : (A) i - 1, ii - 2, iii - 3, iv - 4 (B) i - 4, ii - 1, iii - 2, iv - 3 (C) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 2, iv - 1 (D) i - 1, ii - 4, iii - 3, iv - 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Granite Sandstone Marble Basalt
11. Rocks which contain fossils are : (A) Sedimentary (B) Metamorphic (C) Extrusive (D) Intrusive 12. The thinnest layer of the earth is : (A) Crust (B) Mantle (C) Core (D) Nife 13. Stated below are some statement : (1) Sedimentary rocks are called secondary rocks (2) Sedimentary rocks are called stratified rocks (3) Sedimentary rocks are called primary rocks Which statement are true? (A) 1 & 2 (B) 2 & 3 (C) 1 & 3 (D) 1, 2 & 3
1.
Explain the three layers of the earth?
2.
What are the uses of rocks to us?
3.
What is the state of the middle zone in the mantle?
4.
What are sediments?
5.
Why igneous rocks are called primary rocks?
6.
Describe the interior of the earth explaining any one layer in detail. Illustrate your answer with a diagram.
7.
Explain the formation of different types of rocks? Give examples of each.
8.
What do you know about the rock cycle ? Explain with the help of a diagram.
9.
Distinguish between the following : (i) Magma and lava (ii) Rocks and ores (iii) Metamorphic rocks and sedimentary rocks (iv) Intrusive and extrusive igneous rocks.
10. Discuss the "Rock Distribution in India" with a suitable map.
PAGE # 43
STATE GOVERNMENT AND ITS ROLE IN HEALTH Part - I
INTRODUCTION (a) The State Government (i)
There are governments at three levels in India local, state and national Governments found in each state are known as state governments. The powers of a state government extend only within the boundaries of a state. The extent to which the state government can exercise its powers is mentioned in the Constitution of India. Carrying
out administration is a major task, which involves many institutions. These institutions act and react to many situations and take decisions for the welfare of the people of that state. (ii) The State Government has more or less the same structure as that of the Central Government. It has three organs - the State Legislature, the State Executive, and the State Judiciary (or the High Court). Each of these organs perform a certain function which is clearly defined. (iii) At present India is divided into 28 states and 7 union territories as shown in the map below.
PAGE # 44
all the MLAs, whether from the ruling party or from the opposition meet to discuss various things. Hence, some MLAs have dual responsibities : one as an MLA and the other as a minister.
COMPOSITION OF STATE GOVERNMENT (a) Who is an MLA (i)
Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) are elected by the people. They then become members of the legislative assembly and also form the government. In this way we say that the MLAs represent people. The example below will help us to understand this better.
(ii) Every state in India has a Legislative Assembly. Each state is divided into different areas or constituencies. For example, the state of Himachal Pradesh is divided into 68 assembly constituencies. From each constituency, the people elect one representative who then becomes a Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA). You would have noticed that people stand for elections in the name of different parties. These MLAs therefore, belong to different political parties. (iii) How do people who are MLAs become ministers or chief minister ? A political party whose MLAs have won more than half the number of constituencies in a state can be said to be in a majority. The political party that has the majority is called the ruling party and all other members are called the opposition. For example, the Legislative Assembly of the state of Himachal Pradesh has 68 MLA constituencies. (iv) Candidates from various political parties won the 2003 assembly elections and became MLAs. Since the total number of MLAs in the Legislative Assembly is 68, a political party would have needed to have more National Congress with 43 MLAs had the majority and it became the ruling party. All other MLAs became the opposition. In this case, Bharatiya Janata Party was the major opposition party, since it had the largest number of MLAs after the Indian National Congress. Among the opposition were other parties, including those who had been elected as independent candidates. (v) After the elections, the MLAs belonging to the ruling party will elect their leader who will become the chief minister. In this case, the Congress Party MLAs chose Shri Virbhadra Singh as their leader and he became the chief minister. The chief minister the selects other people as ministers. After the elections, it is the Governor of the state who appoints the chief minister and other ministers. (vi) The Head of the State is the Governor. She/He is appointed by the Central Government to ensure that the State Government works within the rules and regulations of the Constitution. (vii) The chief minister and other ministers have the responsibility of running various government departments or ministries. They have separate offices. A Legislative Assembly is a place where
(b) The Government (i)
The word 'government' refers to government departments and various ministers who head them. The overall head is the chief minister.
(ii) More correctly, this is called the executive part of the government. All the MLAs who gather together (assemble) in the legislative assembly are called the Legislature. (iii) They are the ones who authorise and supervise their work. (iv) It is from among them that the head of the executive or the chief minister is formed. (c) Working of the Government (i)
The Legislative Assembly is not the place where opinions are expressed about the work of the government and action is demanded.
(ii) Newspapers, TV channels and other organisatiion regularly talk about the government policies. In democracy, there are various ways through which people express their views and also take action. (iii) The people in power like the chief minister and the minister have to take action. They do so through various departments like the Public W orks Department, the Agriculture Department, the Health Department, the Education Department and so on. They also have to answer questions that are asked in the Legislative Assembly and convince people asking the questions that proper steps are being taken. (iv) At the same time, newspapers and the media widely discuss the issue and the government has to respond, for example, by holding the press conferences. (v) The government can also decide to make new laws for the state regarding sanitation and health facilities. For example, it may make it compulsory for municipal corporations to ensure that there are adequate toilets in every urban area. It may also ensure that a health worker is appointed in every village. (vi) This act of making laws on certain issues is done in the Legislative Assembly of each state. The various government departments then implement these laws. Laws for the entire country are made in the Parliament. (vii) In a democracy, it is the people who elect the representatives as Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLAs) and, thus, it is the people who have the main authority. The ruling party members the form the government and some members are appointed ministers. PAGE # 45
(viii) These ministers are in charge of various departments of the government such as health. (ix) Whatever work is done by these departments has to be approved by the members of the legislative assembly.
Part - II THE ROLE OF THE GOVERNMENT IN HEALTH (a) Introduction In a democracy people expect the government to work for their welfare. This could be through the provision of education, health, employment, housing or the development of roads, electricity etc. (b) Meaning of Health (i)
We can think of health in many ways. Health means our ability to remain free of illness and injuries. But health isn't only about disease.
(ii) Apart from disease, we need to think of other factors that affect our health. For example, if people get clean drinking water or a pollution free environment they are likely to be healthy. On the other hand, if people do not get adequate food to eat or have to live in cramped conditions, they will be prone to illness. (iii) All of us would like to be active and in good spirits in whatever we may be doing. It isn't healthy to be dull, in active, anxious or scared for long stretches of time. We all need to be without mental strain. (iv) All of these various aspects of our lives are a part of health. (c) Healthcare in India (i)
India has the largest number of medical colleges in the world and is among the largest producers of doctors. Approximately 15,000 new doctors qualify every year.
(ii) Healthcare facilities have grown substantially over the years. In 1950, there were only 2,717 hospitals in India. In 1991, there were 11,174 hospitals. In 2000, the number grew to 18,218. (iii) India gets a large number of medical tourists from many countries. They come for treatment in some of the hospitals in India that compare with the best in the world. (iv) India is the fourth largest producer of medicines in the world and is also a large exporter of medicines. (v) Most doctors settle in urban areas. People in rural areas have to travel long distances to reach a doctor. The number of doctors with respect to the population is much less in rural areas.
(vi) About five lakh people die from tuberculosis every year. This number is almost unchanged since Independence ! Almost two million cases of malaria are reported every year and this number isn't decreasing. (vii) We are not able to provide clean drinking water to all. 21 per cent of all communicable diseases are water borne. For example, diarrhoea, worms, hepatitis, etc. (viii) Half of all children in India do not get adequate food to eat and are undernourished. (ix) In order to prevent and treat illnesses we need appropriate healthcare facilities such as health centres, hospitals, laboratories for testing ambulance services, blood banks, etc., that can provide the required care and services that patient need. In order to run such facilities we need health workers, nurses, qualified doctors and other health professionals who can advice, diagnose and treat illnesses.W e also need the medicines and equipment that are necessary for treating patients. These facilities are required to take care of us. (x) India has a large number of doctors, clinics and hospitals. The country also has considerable experience and knowledge in running a public healthcare system. This is a system of hospitals and heatlh centres run by the government. It has the ability to look after the health of a large section of its population scattered over hundreds of thousands of villages. (xi) Moreover, there has been a phenomenal advancement in medical sciences whereby many new technologies and treatment procedures are available in the country. (xii) With all the above positive developments we are not able to provide proper healthcare facilities to people. This is the paradox - something that is contrary to what we would expect. Our country has the money, knowledge and people with experience but cannot make the necessary healthcare available to all
HEALTHCARE SERVICES (a) Public Health Services (i)
The public health services is a chain of health centres and hospitals run by the government. They are linked together so that they cover both rural and urban areas and can also provide treatment to all kinds of problems - from common illnesses to special services. At the village level there are health centres where there is usually a nurse and a village health worker.
(ii) They are trained in dealing with common illness and work under the supervision of doctors at the Primary Health Centre (PHC). Such a centre covers many villages in a rural area. At the district level PAGE # 46
the District Hospital that also supervises all the health centres. Large cities have many government hospitals. (iii) The health service is called 'public' for many reasons. In order to fulfil its commitment of providing healthcare to all citizens, the governement has established these hospitals and health centres. Also the resources needed to run these services are obtained from the money that we , the public, pay the government as taxes. Hence, such facilities are meant for everyone. (iv) One of the most important aspects of the public health system is that it is meant to provide quality healthcare services either free at a low cost, so that even the poor can seek treatment. (v) Another important function of public health is to take action to prevent the spread diseases such as TB, malaria, jaundice, cholera, diarrhoea, chikungunya, etc. (vi) This has to be organised by the government with the participation of people otherwise it is not effective. For example, when taking up a campaign to see that mosquitoes do not breed in water coolers, roof tops, etc., this has to be done for all houses in the area. (vii) According to our Constitution, it is the primary duty of the government to ensure the welfare of the people and provide health care facilities to all. (c) Healthcare and Equality
(viii) The government must safeguard the Right to Life of every person. If a hospital cannot provide timely medical treatment to a person, it means that this protection of life is not being given. (b) Private health facilities (i)
There is a wide range of private health facilities that exist in our country. A large number of doctors run their own private clinics. In the rural areas, one finds Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs). Urban areas have large number of doctors, many of them providing specialised services.
(ii) There are hospitals and nursing homes that are privately owned. There are many laboratories that do tests and offer special facilities such as X - ray, ultrasound, etc. There are also shops from where we buy medicines. (iii) As the name suggests, private health facilities are not owned or controlled by the government. Unlike the public health services, in private facilities, patients have to pay a lot of money for every service that they use. (iv) Today the presence of private facilities can be seen all around. In fact now there are large companies that run hospitals and some are engaged in manufacturing and selling medicines. Medical shops are found in every corner of the country. (i)
In India, we face a situation where private services are increasing but public services are not. What is then available to people are mainly private services. These are concentrated in urban areas. As these services are run for profit, the cost of these sercices is rather high. Medicines are expensive. Many people cannot afford them or have to borrow money when there is an illness in the family.
(ii) In order to earn more money, these private services encourage practices that are incorrect. At times cheaper methods, though available, are not used. For example, it is common to find doctors prescribing unnecessary medicines, injections or saline bottles when tablets or simple medicines can suffice. (iii) In fact, barely 20 per cent of the population can afford all the medicines that they require during an illness. Hence, even for those whom one might not think as being poor, medical expenses cause hardship. It was reported in a study that 40 per cent of people who are admitted to a hospital for some illness or injury have to borrow money or sell some of their possessions to pay for the expenses.
(iv) For those who are poor, every illness in the family is a cause of great anxiety and distress. What is worse is that this situation tends to happen again and again. Those who are poor are in the first place undernourished. These families are not eating as much as they should. They are not provided basic necessities like drinking water, adequate housing, clean surroundings, etc., and therefore, are more lik ely to fall ill. The expenses on illness make their situation even worse. PAGE # 47
(v) Sometimes it is not only the lack of money that prevents people from getting proper medical treatment. Women, for example, are not taken to a doctor in a prompt manner. Women's health concerns are considered to be less important than the health of men in the family. Many tribal areas have few health centres and they do not run properly. Even private health services are not available.
OBJECTIVE DPP-2.1 1.
The number of Union Territories in India is : (A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 6
2.
The decisions of the executive are executed by the : (A) Minister (B) Chief Minister (C) Secretary (D) Governor
3.
The tenure of a Governor is : (A) 6 yrs (B) 5yrs (C) 9yrs (D) 4yrs
4.
Minimum age of the member of a legislative council is: (A) 21yrs (B) 25yrs (C) 30yrs (D) 35yrs
5.
The governor of a state is : (A) Elected by the members of the legislative assembly (B) Elected by the people of the state (C) Appointed by the President of India (D) Appointed by the Prime Minister of India
6.
The Constitution of India says that the strength of a Legislative assembly can : (A) Any number (B) Not more than 500 and not less than 60 (C) Should be same as that of Rajya Sabha (D) Between 300 and 500
7.
Which among the following union territories has become a state recently ? (A) Goa (B) Chandigarh (C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Delhi
8.
Members of the legislative Assembly are elected by : (A) The people (B) The Prime Minister (C) The President (D) The Chief Minister
9.
During the President’s rule in a state, who practically runs the Government of the state ? (A) The President of India (B) The Governor with the help of advisors (C) The Care taker Government (D) The Central Government
(d) Remedies (i)
There is little doubt that the health situation of most people in our country is not good. It is the responsibility of the government to provide quality healthcare services to all its citizens, especially the poor and the disadvantaged. However, health is as much dependent on basic amenities and social conditions of the people, as it is on healthcare services. Hence, it is important to work on both in order to improve the health situation of our people , as it is on healthcare services. Hence it is important to work on both in order to improve the health situation of our people. And this can be done.
(ii) Look at the following example (iii) The Kerala experience : In 1996, the Kerala government made some major changes in the state. Forty per cent of the entire state budget was given to panchayats. They could plan and provide for their requirements. This made possible for a village to make sure that proper planning was done for water, food, women's development and education. This meant that water supply schemes were checked, the working of schools and anganwadis was ensured and specific problems of the village were taken up. Health centres were also improved. All of this helped to improve the situation. Despite these efforts, however, some problems - such as shortage of medicines, insufficient hospital beds, not enough doctors remained, and these needed to be addressed. Let us look at an example of another country and its approach to issues of health. (iv) The Costa Rican approach : Costa Rica is considered to be one of the healthiest countries in South America. The main reason for this can be found in the Costa Rican Constitution. Several years ago, Costa Rica took a very important decision and decided not to have an army. This helped the Costa Rican government to spend the money that the army would have used, on health education and other basic needs of the people. The Costa Rican government believes that a country has to be healthy for its development and pays a lot of attention to the health of its people. The Costa Rican government provides basic services and amenities to all Costa Ricans. For example, it provides safe drinking water, sanitation, nutrition and housing. Health education is also considered very important and knowledge about health is an essential part of education at all levels.
10. The number of states in India is : (A) 28 (B) 26 (C) 22 (D) 30 11. Full form of ORS : (A) Oral rehydration solution (B) Opposite rehydration solution (C) Optical rehydration solution (D) None of the above 12. Who has been given the duty to safe guard the right to life of every person in our Constitution ? (A) The government (B) Doctors (C) President (D) Advocate PAGE # 48
13. Full form of OPD : (A) Out patient department (B) Open patient department (C) Out patient doctor (D) Open patient doctor 14. Public health services means : (A) A chain of health centres and hospitals run by the Government. (B) A chain of health centres and hospitals run by the Doctors. (C) A chain of health centres and hospitals run by the Officers. (D) None of the above 15. India is the ____________ largest producers of medicines in the world. (A) First (C) Second
(B) Third (D) Fourth
16. What is the source of Income of government ? (A) Taxes (B) Government departments (C) Hospitals (D) All of the above
17. WHO means : (A) World Health Organisation (B) Wide Health Organisation (C) World Heavy Organisation (D) Wide Heavy Organisation SUBJECTIVE DPP-2.2 1.
Explain various levels of government.
2.
Explain the meaning of ruling party and opposition party.
3.
Explain the functions of the Governor.
4.
Discuss the duties and responsibilities of the Chief Minister.
5.
Explain the purpose of a press conference. What are its uses for getting information.
6.
Distinguish between public health services and private health facilities.
7.
Narrate the problems faced in private hospitals.
8.
Explain the prociedure of election of MLAs.
9.
Discuss the working of the State Government.
10. "Improvement in water and sanitation can control many disease". Explain with the help of examples.
PAGE # 49
NUMBER SERIES Series completion problems deals with numbers, Sol. alphabets and both together. While attempting to solve the question, you have to check the pattern of the series. Series moves with certain mathematical operations. You have to check the pattern. Type of questions asked in the examination : (i) Find the missing term(s). (ii) Find the wrong term(s). Ex 5.
NUMBER SERIES In this type of series, the set of given numbers in a Sol. series are related to one another in a particular pattern or manner. The relationship between the numbers may be • Consecutive odd/even numbers, • Consecutive prime / composite numbers, • Squares/cubes of some numbers with/without variation of addition or substraction of some Ex 6. number, • Sum/product/difference of preceding number(s), • Addition/subtraction/multiplication/division by some number, and Sol. • Many more combinations of the relationship given above.
(A) The pattern of the series are 12 = 1, 22 = 4, 32 = 9, 42 = 16, 52 = 25 Hence, the next term would be 62 = 36 Multiple Series : A multiple series is a mixture of more than one series : 6, 12, 7, 11, 8, 10, 9, ? (A) 8 (C) 11
[Difference series] (B) 9 (D) 12
(B) The sequence is a combination of two series I 6, 7, 8, 9 II 12, 11, 10, – The pattern followed in I is +1, + 1, + 1 The pattern followed in II is – 1, – 1, – 1
missing number = 10 – 1 = 9
4, 7, 3, 6, 2, 5, ? (A) 4 (C) 8
(B) 7 (D) 1
(D) The sequence is a combination of two series I 4, 3, 2, ?
Directions : (1 to 6) Find the missing numbers :
II 7, 6, 5 The pattern followed in I and II are – 1, – 1, – 1
Ex 1.
12, 15, 18, 21, ? (A) 26 (C) 23
(B) 27 (D) 24
Sol.
(D) As per series, a, a + d, a + 2d, .......... a = 12, d = 3 a + 4d = 12 + 4 × 3 = 24
Ex 2.
3, 6, 12, 24, ?, 96 (A) 60 (C) 48
Sol.
Ex 3.
Sol.
Ex 4.
Directions : (7 to 8) Find the wrong term (s) : Ex 7.
Sol. (B) 34 (D) 36
(B) 37 (D) 38
Ex 8. (C) This series consists of increasing numbers. The pattern is +4, +6, +8,+10, ........ Hence, the next term would be Sol. 29 + 10 = 39 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ? (A) 36 (C) 47
(B) 49 (D) 35
2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41 (A) 6 (C) 23
(C) The pattern of the series are previous term x 2 Hence, the next term would be 24 × 2 = 48 11, 15, 21, 29, ? (A) 36 (C) 39
missing number = 2 – 1 = 1
(B) 17 (D) 32
(C) This series consists of increasing numbers. The pattern is +4, +5, +6,+7, +8,+9, ........
24 2, 6, 11, 17, 23, 32, 41 +4
+5 +6 +7
+8
+9
The fifth term is not following the same rule. Hence, 23 is the wrong term and should be replaced by 24. 13, 22, 31, 41, 49 (A) 13 (C) 31
(B) 22 (D) 41
(D) Common difference between the consecutive terms is + 9 The fourth term is not following the same rule. Hence, 41 is the wrong term and should be replaced by 40.
50
PAGE # 5050
12.
1, 4, 27, 16, 125, 36, ?
EXERCISE Directions : (1 to 7) Find the missing numbers : 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
1, 3, 5, 7, 9, ? (A) 13 (C) 17
1, 2, 4, 7, ?, 16 (A) 9 (C) 12
14.
6, 8, 9, 12, 14, 18, ? (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2008) (A) 21 (B) 19 (C) 23 (D) 20 1, 4, 9, ?, 25, 36 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2009) (A) 11 (B) 19 (C) 21 (D) 16
(B) 25 (D) 27 15.
1, 10, 17, 22, 25 , ? (A) 26 (C) 27
(B) 25 (D) 29 16.
1, 3, 7, 13, ? (A) 19 (C) 21
(B) 23 (D) 25
20, 19, 17, ?, 10, 5 (A) 12 (C) 13
(B) 14 (D) 15
67, 62, 57, ? , 47 (A) 51 (C) 50
(B) 52 (D) 53
2, 2, 4, 4, 6, 8, 8, ? (A) 10 (C) 14
1, 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 28, 47 (A) 4 (B) 7 (C) 18 (D) 28
9.
0, 0, 1, 3, 5, 10, 15, 21 (A) 0 (C) 5
(B) 1 (D) 21
2, 5, 9, 11, 14 (A) 2 (C) 9
(B) 5 (D) 11
7, 12, 22, 37, ?, 82, 112 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2009) (A) 62 (B) 57 (C) 52 (D) 42
17.
27, 34, 40, 45, 49, 53, 54 , 55 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2007) (A) 53 (B) 45 (C) 56 (D) 34
18.
0, 2, 3, 6, 6, 20, 9, 54, 12 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2007) (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 20 (D) 12
19.
10, 15, 26, 35, 48, 63, 82 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2008) (A) 48 (B) 26 (C) 63 (D) 82
20.
2, 6, 10, 20, 30, 42, 56
(B) 12 (D) 16
8.
(NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2008) (B) 11 (D) 13
Directions : (17 to 22) Find the wrong term of the series :
Directions : (8 to 10) Find the wrong term (s) :
10.
13. (B) 15 (D) 11
2, 5, 10, 17, ? (A) 24 (C) 26
(NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2007) (B) 343 (D) 49
(A) 216 (C) 64
(A) 6 (C) 20
(NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2008) (B) 10 (D) 30
21.
3, 9, 27, 82, 243 (A) 27 (C) 82
(NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2009) (B) 54 (D) 162
22.
3, 6, 11, 18, 28, 38, 51, 66 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2009) (A) 18 (B) 28 (C) 38 (D) 51
Directions : (11 to 16) Find the missing numbers : 11.
2, 3, 10, 15, 26, ? (A) 34 (C) 36
(NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2007) (B) 35 (D) 37
51
PAGE # 5151
CODING-DECODING CODING-DECODING
G O O D
A code is “a system of signals”. Coding is, Sol. therefore, a method of transmitting a message between sender and receiver which cannot be understood or comprehended by a third person. The coding decoding test is set up to judge the candidate’s ability to decipher a particular word/ message and break the code to decipher the message. In coding, actual alphabets/words/ terms/numbers are replaced by certain other alphabets/words/terms/symbols etc. according to a specific rule. To solve these type of questions we Ex 3. have to detect the rule and then answer the questions. Decoding : It is a method to find the meaning of something that has written in code.
H Q R H +1 +2 +3 +4
(B)
D R E A M
E T H E R +1 +2 +3 +4 +5
Similarly,
If RADIO is written PYBGM, then how would OQDKNG be written in that code ? (A) MOBIEL (B) MOBLIE (C) MOIBLE (D) MOBILE
R A D I O LETTER-LETTER CODING
Sol.
In these type of questions, the letters in a word are replaced by certain other letters according to a specific rule to form its code. The candidate is required to detect the coding pattern / rule and answer the questions accordingly.
P Y B G M –2 –2 –2 –2 –2
(D)
Similarly,
O Q D K N G Ex 1.
Sol.
If in any code language, KUMAR is coded as LVNBS, How is EMOTIONAL coded in that language. (A) FNQUJQBM (B) FNPUJPOBM (C) GNPUJPOBM (D) GNQUJQOBM (B)
M O B I L E –2 –2 –2 –2 –2 –2
Ex 4.
If TRIANGLE is coded as SSHBMHKF, then SQUARE would be (A) RRIASF (B) RPVBSF (C) RRTBQF (D) RPVBSD T R I A N G L E
Sol.
Similarly, E M O T I O N A L
Ex 2.
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
(C)
F N P U J P O B M
If GOOD is written HQRH how will you write DREAM ? (A) ESPBN (B) ETHER (C) ETHPQ (D) ESHDR
S S H B M H K F –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1
Similarly,
S Q U A R E
R R T B Q F –1 +1 –1 +1 –1 +1
PAGE # 52
Ex 10.
LETTER-NUMBER CODING
called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the following does a fruit grow ?
In these types of questions, either numerical code values are assigned to a word or alphabetical code letters are assigned to the numbers. Ex 5.
Sol.
(A) 2100
(B) 3100
(C) 1003
(D) 1002
(A) T R E E 71 00
Ex 11.
(B) Food
(C) Tree
(D) Sky
(D) Clearly, a fruit grows on a ‘tree’. As given that
If brightness is called darkness, darkness is called green, green is called blue, blue is called red, red is called white and white is called yellow
FROG
then what is the colour of blood ?
21 5 9
Hence, F R E E 2 1 0 0 Ex 6.
(A) Water
‘tree’ is called ‘sky’, a fruit grows on ‘sky’.
In a certain code, if TREE is coded as 7100, FROG as 2159, how is FREE coded in that code ?
Sol.
If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is
(A) red
(B) darkness
(C) white
(D) yellow
In a certain code, C is coded as 0, E as 7, T as 4, I Sol.
(C) Colour of blood is ‘red’ and red is called white
as 9, P as 1, R as 3, and U as 5. How is 1904537
hence, the answer is ‘white’.
coded in that code ?
Sol.
(A) PICTRUE
(B) PICTURE
(C) RICTPUE
(D) PCTUREI
PUZZLE BASED CODING
(B) 1 P, 9 I, 0 C, 4 T,
In this type of questions, some messages are given
5 U, 3 R, 7 E
in the coded language and the code for a particular word or message is asked. To analyses such
Ex 7.
Sol.
Ex 8.
Sol.
If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, what
codes, any two messages bearing a common word
is the code number for GOVERNMENT ?
are picked up. The common code word will thus
(A) 6
(B) 8
represent that word. Proceeding similarly by picking
(C) 9
(D) 10
up all possible combinations of two, the entire
(C) The number of letters in the word –1 = Code in
message can be decoded and the order for
number for that word.
individual words found.
If FOX is coded as 45, what will be the code number Ex 12. for BOX ?
In a certain code language 389 means run very
(A) 41
(B) 49
run and come. Which digit in the language means
(C) 55
(D) 60
come ?
fast, 964 means come back fast and 487 means
(A) By their natural position numbers,
(A) 7
(B) 9
F 6,
(C) 4
(D) 8
O 15, X 24
So, FOX = (6 + 15 + 24) = 45
Sol.
Hence, BOX = (2 + 15 + 24) = 41
(C) In the second and third sentences, common number is 4 and common code is ‘come’. Hence, number 4 stands for ‘come’.
SUBSTITUTION CODING
Ex 13.
In these types of questions, some particular objects are assigned code names. Then a question is asked that is to be answered in the code language. Ex 9.
Sol.
In a certain code language, ken poti means good morning, hu shang means come on, and hu ken sue means come for good. Which word in that language does mean for ? (A) shang
(B) ken
If paper is called eraser, eraser is called bag, bag
(C) sue
(D) hu
is called scale, scale is called pencil and pencil Sol.
(C) In the second and third statements, the
is called paper, what will a person write with ?
common code word is ‘come’ and the common
(A) Pencil
(B) Paper
word is ‘hu’. So, ‘come’ means ‘hu’. In the first and
(C) Eraser
(D) Bag
third statements, the common code word is ‘good’
(B) A person will write with a pencil and a ‘pencil’ is
and the common word is ‘ken’. So, ‘good’ means
called ‘paper’.
‘ken’. Thus, in third and above statements ‘for’ means ‘sue’. PAGE # 53
Ex 14.
In a certain code, 256 means you are good, 637 7. means we are bad and 358 means good and bad. Which of the following does represent and in that code ?
Sol.
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 3
8.
In a certain language, if P is coded as 7, T as 3, O as 4, R as 9 and A as 2, how is PARROT coded in that code? (A) 372994 (B) 723349 (C) 279943 (D) 729943
statements, the common code digit is ‘3’ and the 9. common word is ‘bad’. So, ‘3’ means ‘bad’. Thus,
In a certain code, 5 is coded as Z, 7 as E, 2 as S, 9 as T, and 4 as W. How is 977452 coded in that code ? (A) SEEWZT (B) TEEWZS (C) ZEEWST (D) WEEZST
(C) In the first and third statements, the common code digit is ‘5’ and the common word is ‘good’. So, ‘5’ means ‘good’. In the second and third
in third statement ‘8’ means ‘and’. Ex 15.
In a certain code language, lim suk ta means boys are clever and pu ne ta means boys and girls. 10. Which word in that language means boys ?
Sol.
(A) lim
(B) suk
(C) ta
(D) pu
(C) In the first and second sentences, common 11. word is ta and common code is ‘boys’. Hence, word ta stands for ‘boys’.
EXERCISE 1.
(A) DCIJOB
(B) DCJKRD
(C) DCKMSG
(D) DCVXQK
3.
(A) KYJV
(B) IJYK
(C) YKVJ
(D) JKVY
4.
13.
If OX is coded as 39, what will be the code number for LION ? (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 38 (D) 50
14.
If BOOK is coded as 43, what will be the code number for PEN ? (A) 53 (B) 33 (C) 35 (D) 43
15.
If air is called water, water is called green, green is called dust, dust is called yellow and yellow is called cloud, which of the following does fish live in ? (A) Air (B) Water (C) Green (D) Dust
16.
If pen is called pencil, pencil is called scale, scale is called bag and bag is called book, which is used to carry the books ? (A) Scale (B) Pen (C) Book (D) Bag
17.
If orange is called butter, butter is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey and honey is called orange Which of the following is used for washing clothes ? (A) Honey (B) Butter (C) Orange (D) Ink
If BOX is coded as CDPQYZ, what will be the last two letters of word in the same code for HERO ? (A) N, M
(B) M, N
(C) P, Q
(D) Q, P
In a certain code, BODY is written APCZ. How would DELHI be written in that code ?
5.
(A) CFKGI
(B) BFKGI
(C) CFKIH
(D) CFKHI
If PAINTER is written in a code language as NCGPRGP, then REASON would be written as :
6.
(A) PCYQMN
(B) PGYQMN
(C) PGYUMP
(D) PGYUPM
If CRICKETER is coded as DQJBLDUDS, PLAYER will be coded as : (A) QMBZFS
(B) OMZZDS
(C) QKBXFQ
(D) QKBZDS
In a certain code, if GUN is coded as 309, DEAR as 1498, how is UNDER coded in that code ? (A) 90148 (B) 39148 (C) 09148 (D) 49138 If in a code language MENTAL is coded as 417253, then how is TEN & ANT coded in that language ? (A) 217,572 (B) 417,527 (C) 217,527 (D) 172,534
If DOWN is coded as FQYP then how will WITH be coded ?
If ROSE is written as 6821, CHAIR is written as 73456 then what will be REACH Written as (A) 61473 (B) 96713 (C) 34719 (D) 69714
12.
If JAPAN is coded as KCSES, then the code for CASTLE will be
2.
If POLITICS is coded as OPILITSC, then ARTICLES will be coded as : (A) RAITLCES (B) RAITLCSE (C) NNUHPM (D) NNVHPN
PAGE # 54
18.
If Eye is called Hand, Hand is called Mouth, Mouth 22. is called Ear, Ear is called Nose and Nose is called Tongue, with which of the following would a person hear ?
19.
(A) Eye
(B) Mouth
(C) Nose
(D) Ear
23.
If CLOTH is called GOLD and GOLD is called PAPER and PAPER is called CAKE, then JEWELLERY would be made up of ? (NTSE Stage-II, 2007) (A) Gold (B) Cloth (C) Cake (D) Paper
24.
In a certain code FORGET is written as DPPHCU. In the same code DOCTOR will be written as (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2008) (A) EPDUPS (B) ROTCOD (C) BPAUMS (D) CPBUNS
25.
If MALE = 31 and PLAY = 54 than CLASS = ? (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./ 2008) (A) 35 (B) 31 (C) 54 (D) 45
26.
If RUM stands for TWO, what are the symbols for ONE ? (NTSE Stage-I / Delhi/ 2007) (A) NMF (B) POF (C) MLC (D) QPG
27.
If QUIZ is written as RVJA how will you write CLASS ? (NTSE Stage-I / Delhi/ 2008) (A) BHIMB (B) DMBTT (C) DMVSS (D) QNZTB
In a certain code language, 743 means mangoes are good, 657 means eat good food and 934 means mangoes are ripe. Which digit means ripe in that language ?
20.
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 9
(D) 7
In a certain code language, pul ta nop means fruit is good, nop ko tir means tree is tall and pul ho sop means eat good food. Which of the following does mean fruit in that language ? (A) pul (B) ta (C) nop (D) Data inadequate
In a certain code 786 means study very hard, 958 means hard w ork pays and 645 means study and work. Which of the following is the code for very ?
21.
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) Cannot be determined
In a certain code language pit dar na means I love India, dar tok pa means India is great, and tim na tok means with great love. In that language, which word stands for with ? (A) na
(B) tok
(C) tim
(D) pit
PAGE # 55
DIRECTION SENSE TEST There are four directions such as North, South, Ex 3. East and West. The word NEWS came from North, East, West and South. There are four regions : (i) North-East ; (ii) North-West ;(iii) South-East ; (iv) South-West. NORTH S
I
II
EAST
O
WEST
Sol.
P
went 15 m to the North, then turned West and covered 10 m, then turned South, and covered 5 m then turned East and covered 10 m. In which direction am now from my house ? (A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West (A) Movement is shown from A to E. Final position is E which is in North of A (house).
IV
III Q
C
D
The directions OP, OS, OQ and OR are : North-East direction ; North-West direction ; South-West direction ; and South-East direction Ex 4. respectively. NOTE : The candidate must distinguish between the regions and directions, i.e., between North-East Sol. region and North-East direction. If you move with your face Eastwards, your left hand is towards North and your right hand is towards South. Similarly the positions of the directions of the hands can be fixed when you move in any of the other three directions.
Sol.
Ex 2.
Sol.
A man was facing East. He took Three paces forward, turned right, walked another two paces and then turned right again, took three paces and turned about. Which direction was he last facing ? (A) East (B) North (C) South (D) None of these Ex 5. (A) Man walks three faces in East, then moves 2 faces B A towards South, then turn right and move three faces towards C D West, then he turned about. Now he was facing East. Sol. A and B start walking from the same point. A goes North and covers 3 km; then turns right and covers 4 km. B goes West and covers 5 km, then turns right and covers 3 km. How far apart are they from each other ? (A) 10 km (B) 9 km (C) 8 km (D) 5 km (B) The movement of A from X to Z (X to Y, Y to Z) and the movement of B from X to D, (X to C, C to D) as shown in figure. Clearly, required distance ZD = (YD + YZ) = (XC + YZ) = (5 + 4) = 9 km.
C
5 km
3 km
15 m E
A man walks 9 km due East and then 12 km due South. How far is he from the starting point ? (A) 15 km. (B) 6 km. (C) 7 km. (D) None of these (A) Movement of man is shown from A to C. Required distance = AC AC =
AB 2 BC 2
A 9 km B 12 km C =
9 2 12 2 =
225 = 15 km
Kishen walks 10 km towards North. Form there, he walks 6 km towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point ? (A) 5 km, North (B) 5 km, North-East (C) 7 km, East (D) 7 km, West (B) The movements of Kishen are as shown in Fig. (A to B, B to C and C to D). AC = (AB – BC) = (10 – 6) km = 4 km. clearly, D is to the North-East of A. Kishen's distance from starting point A = AD =
AC 2 CD 2
4 2 3 2 25 = 5 km. So,
Kishen is 5 km to the North-East of his starting point. B 6km
Z 3 km
10 m
A
Y 4 km
D
B
5m
R SOUTH
Ex 1.
10 m
10km
3km
C
D
4km
X A
PAGE # 56
10.
EXERCISE 1.
2.
3.
Starting from a point, a person walked 12 metres North, he turned right and walked 10 metres, he again turned right and walked 12 metres, then he
Ramakant walks Northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little further to his left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometre, he turns to his left again. In which direction is he moving now? (A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
turned left and walked 5 metres. How far is he now and in which direction from the starting point ? (A) 10 metres towards West (B) 15 metres towards East (C) 10 metres towards West
Reena walks Eastwards after a while she turns to her left and then turn to her right. Finally she turn to her left. In which direction is she moving now ? 11. (A) West (B) East (C) South (D) North
(D) 5 metres towards West
(A) North-West
(B) South-East
Shantha and Uma start from a fixed point. Shantha moves 3 km Northward and turns right and then covers 4 km. Uma moves 5 km Westwards, turns 12. right and walks 3 km, The distance between Shantha and Uma now is (A) 10 km (B) 9 km (C) 8 km (D) 6 km
(C) South-West
(D) West
A watch reads 4 :30, If the minute hand points to West in which direction does the hour hand point ?
Vinod travelled 6 km South from the starting point D, then turned right and moved 4 km and again turned right and travelled 6 km and turned left and travelled 8 km. Find out how many kilometers he has to cover to reach his starting point D.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Vijayan started walking towards South. After walking 15 metre, he turned to the left and walked 15 metre. He again turned to his left and walked 15 metre. How far is he from his original position 13. and in which direction ? (A) 15 metre, North (B) 15 metre, South (C) 30 metre, East (D) 15 metre, East
(B) 12 km
(C) 14 km
(D) 16 km
Suresh moves a distance of 7 km form a place P towards North, then turns left and walks 4 km, again turns towards right and walks 3 km, then again turns right and walks 2 km to reach his destination Q.
Sita started from her house, walked 5 km North then 12 km West. How far away from her house was she then ? (A) 12 km (B) 13 km (C) 14 km (D) 15 km Mohan travels 7 km Eastwards, then he turns right and travels 3 km and further turns right again and travels 11 km. How far is he from the starting point? (A) 5 km (B) 14 km (C) 21 km (D) 23 km
(A) 10 km
Which direction is he facing now ?
14.
(A) West
(B) East
(C) North-West
(D) South
A child goes 50 metre towards South and then turning to his right, he goes 50 metre. Then, turning to his left, he goes 30 metre. Again he turns to his left and goes 50 metre. How far is he from his initial position ?
A man starts from his office and goes 4 km Northwards, then he turns left and goes 3 km and reaches a point ‘X’. At what distance is he from the 15. starting point ? (A) 5 km (B) 4 km (C) 3 km (D) 6 km
(A) 30 metre
(B) 40 metre
(C) 50 metre
(D) 80 metre
Ramesh started from his house, walked 2 km North then 3 km West then 6 km South. How far away from his house was he then ? (A) 2 km (B) 3 km (C) 4 km (D) 5 km
km and reaches Mohan's house. In which direction
From point P, Akshay starts walking towards East. After walking 30 metres, he turns to his right and 16. walks 10 metres. He then turns to his right and walks for 30 metres. He again turns to his right and walks 30 metres. How far is he from Point P and in which direction ? (A) Point P itself (B) 10 metre North (C) 20 metre West (D) 20 metre North
Ramesh starts walking from his house at 4 PM facing towards sun and walks 5 km. Then he turns left and walks 8 km. Again turning to left he walks 13 Ramesh's house is from Mohan's house ? (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2008) (A) North-West
(B) North-East
(C) South-West
(D) South-East
A man starts from his house and walks 3 km. towards South, then he turns left and walks 5 km. In which direction he is from his house ? (NTSE Stage-I / Haryana/ 2009) (A) South
(B) East
(C) South East
(D) North
PAGE # 57
RANKING & ORDERING -TEST NUMBER QUIBBLE
ALPHA-NUMERIC QUIBBLE
In these type of questions, generally a set, group or series of numerals is given and the candidate is required to find out how many times a number satisfying the conditions, specified in the question occurs. Ex 1.
Sol. Ex 2.
Sol.
In these type of questions a jumped sequence of some letters, numbers and symbols is given and the candidate is required to find out how many times a number or a letter or a symbol satisfying
the conditions, specified in the question occurs. How many 5's are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed by 3 but not immediately preceded by 7 ? Directions : (5 to 6) Study the following arrangement of 8953253855687 335775365335738 symbols, letters and numbers to answer the (A) One (B) Two questions given below it : (C) Three (D) Four = F 2 K S 7 5 # $ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 Q G 9 3 & T Y (C) 8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8 Clearly, there are three such numbers. Ex 5. How many such letters are there in the In the following number series how many 8’s are arrangement each of which is either immediately there which are exactly divisible by the numbers preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by which are preceded and followed by it ? a number, but not both ? 824517284842282698454832843183 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (D) As per the question 824517284842282698454832843183 Thus, four such numbers are there
Sol.
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) None of these
(D) The letters satisfying the given conditions are shown as under : = F 2 K S 7 5 # $ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 Q G 9 3 & T Y Clearly, there are 8 such letters.
ALPHABETICAL QUIBBLE
Ex 3.
In these type of questions, generally a letter-series Ex 6. is given, be it the English alphabets from A to Z or a randomised sequence of letters. The candidate is then required to trace the letters satisfying certain given conditions as regards their position in the given sequence or the sequence obtained by performing certain given operations on the given sequence. Sol. How many W's are there in the following series which are immediately followed by W but not immediately preceded by K ? DW W DHKVDW ZDW W W DDW KW W DKKD
Sol.
followed by a consonant but not immediately preceded by a symbol ? (A) Nil
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(B) We know that of the 26 letters of English alphabet, five letters namely A, E, I, O, U are vowels, while remaining are consonants. The consonants satisfying the given conditions may be shown as
(A) One
(B) Two
= F 2 K S 7 5 # $ P L V 8 @ M U E 6 Q G 9
(C) Three
(D) None
3 & T Y Clearly, there is only one such consonant.
(C) Clearly, W’s satisfying the given conditions can be marked as under DW W DHKVDW ZDW W W DDW KW W DKK DHC
Ex 4.
arrangement each of which is immediately
under :
HC
Sol.
How many such consonants are there in the above
How many L’s are there which do not have R preceding them and also do not have T following them ? Z Q S T LR M N Q N R T U V X R LTAS LT Q R S LT (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5 (C) Z Q S T L R M N Q N R T U V X R L TA S L T Q R S L T
RANKING TEST In these type of questions, generally the ranks of a person both from the top and from the bottom are mentioned and the total number of persons is asked. However, sometimes this question is put in the form of a puzzle of interchanging seats by two persons.
PAGE # 58
Ex 10.
of person Sol.
A is richer than B. C is richer than A. D is richer than C. E is the richest of all. If they are made to sit in the above degree of richness who will be in the middle position (central position) ? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (C) According to the given statement
of person
C is in the middle position.
USEFUL TIPS 1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Ex 7.
Sol.
Ex 8.
Sol.
Position of person from upward = [Total number of persons - position from down] + 1 Position of person from downward = [Total number of persons - position from up] + 1 Position of person from right = [Total number of persons - position from left] +1 Position of person from left = [Total number of persons - position from right] + 1 Total number of persons = [Position of person from upward/right of person from downward / left] – 1
of person
of person
+ position
Rohan ranks seventh from the top and twenty-sixth 1. from the bottom in a class. How many students are there in the class ? (A) 31 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) 34 Clearly, the whole class consists of: (i) 6 students who have ranks higher than Rohan : (ii) Rohan ; and (iii) 25 students who have ranks lower than Rohan, 2. i.e., (6 + 1 + 25) = 32 students. or Total number of students = [Position of Rohan from top+ position of Rohan from bottom] – 1 = [7 + 26] – 1 = 32 Anil and Sunil are ranked seventh and eleventh respectively from the top in a class of 31 students. 3. What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class ? (A) 20th and 24 th (B) 24th and 20th th st (C) 25 and 21 (D) 26th and 22nd (C) Number of students behind Anil in rank = (31 – 7) = 24 So, Anil is 25th from the bottom. 4. Number of students behind Sunil in rank = (31 – 11) = 20 So, Sunil is 21st from the bottom.
ORDERING TEST In such type of questions, clues are given regarding comparisons among a set of persons or things 5. with respect to their qualities. The candidate is required to analyses the whole information, form a proper ascending/descending sequence and then answer the given questions accordingly. Ex 9.
Sol.
A is shorter than B but much taller than E. C is the tallest and D is shorter than A and taller than E. 6. Which one is the shortest ? (A) A (B) E (C) B (D) D (B) According to the given statement E < D
EXERCISE How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately followed by an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even number ? 86768932753422355228119 (A) One (B) Three (C) Five (D) None of these In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even number ? 12346342593674123676543 (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) None of these In the following number series, how many 8's are there which are immediately preceded by a number which does not divide it but followed by a number which divides it ? 28283858853282384715838286 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 In the following series of numbers, find out how many times, 1, 3 and 7 have appeared together, 7 being in the middle and 1 and 3 on either side of 7 ? 2 9 7 3 1 7 3 7 7 1 3 3 1 7 3 8 5 7 1 3 7 71 7 3 9 0 6 (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four The positions of how many digits in the number 423157698 will remain unchanged after the digits within the number are arranged in ascending order ? (A) None (B) One (C) Two (D) Three In the following series how many C’s are there which are immediately followed by ‘Y’ but not immediately preceded by ‘J’ ? J C D Y J C Y O J H C YY Y C I J W C YAC Y (A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four
PAGE # 59
7.
How many A’s are there in the following series 13. which are immediately followed by B as well as immediately preceded by Z ? AM B ZANA AB ZABAZ BAP ZABAZAB (A) Nil (B) One (C) Two (D) Three
8.
Rohan ranked eleventh from the top and twenty14. seventh from the bottom among the students who passed the annual examinations is a class. If the number of students who failed in the exams. was 12, how many students did appear for the examinations ? (A) 48 (B) 49 (C) 50 (D) Can’t be determined 15.
9.
10.
11.
12.
In a group of six children, Q is taller than P but not as tall as L. M is taller than N and O, but not as tall as P. Who is the shortest among them ? (A) N (B) O (C) M (D) Data inadequate
There are five friends A, B, C, D and E. A is shorter than B but taller then E, C is tallest, D is little shorter than B and little taller than A. If they are standing in the order of their heights who will be in the middle ? (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2008) (A) D (B) C (C) A (D) B In a class the rank of Sohan is sixteen from the top and fortynine from the bottom. The total number of students in the class are (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2008) (A) 64 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 67 In the following series how many times 7, 8, 9 appear together when 7 being in the middle ? 7287921789167421797828972 (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2009) (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
16.
Five boys took part in a race, Raj finished before Mohit but behind Gaurav, Ashish finished before Sachin but behind Mohit. Who won the race ? (NTSE Stage-I / Haryana/ 2007) (A) Raj (B) Gaurav (C) Mohit (D) Ashish
17 How many A are in the given letter series which does not has B just before it but has C just after it ? (NTSE Stage-I / Raj./2007) D A C B A C D A CB C A C B A C B A D C (A) 3 (B) 4 18. (C) 5 (D) 6
If you are eleventh in a queue starting from either end, how many persons in the queue ? (NTSE Stage-I / Haryana/ 2007) (A) 11 (B) 20 (C) 21 (D) 22
R earns more than H but not as much as T, M earns more than R. Who earns least among them ? (A) H (B) R (C) T (D) M
If you write all the numbers from 201 to 250, then how many times will you write the numeral 2 ? (A) 70 (B) 65 (C) 25 (D) 80
Out of five Indian batsman Rahul scored more run than Saurav but less than Yuvraj, Sahwag scored more than Yuvraj but less than Sachin. Who scored the most runs ? (NTSE Stage-I / Haryana/ 2008) (A) Rahul (B) Sachin (C) Sahwag (D) Yuraj
PAGE # 60
ANSWER KEY ELECTRIC CURRENT AND ITS EFFECTS(PHYSICS)
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
A
C
B
D
D
B
D
B
C
B
Ques.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans.
A
B
B
A
C
C
D
B
C
C
Ques.
21
Ans.
B
GENERAL CHEMISTRY(CHEMISTRY)
Q.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A.
B
D
C
B
A
D
D
A
C
A
Q.
11
12
13
14
15
A.
D
B
C
B
A
RATIONAL NUMBERS
(MATHEMATICS)
Q.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
C
B
D
D
C
B
A
A
B
A
Q.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans.
C
B
C
C
A
C
C
C
D
C
LINEAR EQUATIONS IN ONE VARIABLE (MATHEMATICS)
Q.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
C
B
A
B
B
C
A
D
D
A
Q.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans.
B
A
A
C
A
A
A
D
B
D
Q.
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
Ans.
A
D
B
A
B
B
B
C
B
A
PAGE # 6161
CELL (BIOLOGY)
Q.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
A.
B
D
A
B
B
A
B
D
B
C
C
D
C
B
C
Q.
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
A. Q. A.
C 31 C
C 32 A
D 33 C
A 34 A
B 35 A
A 36 D
B 37 B
D
D
C
A
D
A
B
C
THE MUGHAL EMPIRE(HISTORY) Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
C
D
B
B
C
B
B
B
C
A
Ques.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
Ans.
B
A
B
A
C
A
B
A
C
INSIDE OUR EARTH (GEOGRAPHY) Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
B
A
B
B
B
A
D
B
A
B
Ques.
11
12
13
14
Ans.
A
A
A
B
STATE GOVERNMENT AND ITS ROLE IN HEALTH (CIVICS)
Ques.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A
B
A
Ans.
C
C
B
C
C
B
D
Ques.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
Ans.
A
A
A
A
D
A
A
NUMBER-SERIES(MENTAL ABILITY) Que.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
D
C
A
C
B
B
D
D
C
C
Que. 11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans.
B
B
B
A
D
B
A
C
A
B
Que. 21
22
Ans.
B
C
PAGE # 6262
CODING-DECODING Que.
1
Ans.
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
D
C
C
C
C
C
B
D
B
A
Que. 11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
Ans.
C
A
D
C
C
C
D
C
C
C
Que. 21
22
23
24
25
26
27
Ans.
B
D
C
C
D
B
C
DIRECTION SENCE TEST Que.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
A
D
D
B
Ans.
D
D
B
D
B
A
Que.
11
12
13
14
15
16
Ans.
C
B
B
D
A
C
RANKING & ORDERING-TEST Que.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Ans.
D
B
C
C
D
C
D
B
D
A
Que.
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
Ans.
A
B
A
A
B
B
C
B
PAGE # 6363
