Class 10 Nso 5 Years e Book

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CLASS 10

Contents ªª 13th NSO 2010 ªª 14th NSO 2011 ªª 15th NSO 2012 - SET A ªª 15th NSO 2012 - SET B ªª 16th NSO 2013 - SET A ªª 16th NSO 2013 - SET B ªª 17th NSO 2014 - SET A ªª 17th NSO 2014 - SET B

MTG Work-Books / olympiad books CLASS 1

International Mathematics Olympiad

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National Cyber Olympiad


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CLASS 6








Science IQ Challenge

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Psychology of Success

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CLASS 12


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Class

1 to 10

JEE (Main & Advanced) | AIPMT | BOARDS | OLYMPIAD | NTSE

FOUNDATION COURSE For Classes 7, 8, 9 & 10 Class 7

Class 8

Class 9

Class 10

Class 10 13th

Year 2010

Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

MENTAL ABILITY 1.

A triangle has sides 8 cm, 17 cm and 15 cm. The area of the triangle is ________ (A) 50 cm 2

2.

(B) 68 cm 2

(C) 40 cm 2

(D) 60 cm 2 A

In the adjoining figure, if BO and CO are the bisectors of ÐEBC & ÐDCB respectively the value of ÐBOC is ________ (A) 60°

(B) 120°

(C) 30°

(D) 90°

60° B 70° 1

C

2

E

D O

A

3.

What is the area of a right angled triangle if the radius of its circumcircle is 3 cm and altitude drawn to the hypotenuse is 2 cm? (A) 4 3 cm 2 (C) 7 cm 2

4.

9.

(C) 27 cm

(D) 30 cm

(B) 5a + b = 0

(C) a – 5b = 0

(D) 5a – b = 0

(B) –2 < b < 2

(C) b > 2

(D) b < – 2

The 9 th term of an A.P. is 449 and 449 th term is 9. The term which is equal to zero is ________ (A) 501 th

8.

(B) 26 cm

If the equation x 2 – bx + 1 = 0 does not possess real roots, then ________ (A) –3 < b < 3

7.

C

B

If 2x – 3y = 7 and (a + b) x – (a + b – 3) y = 4a + b represent coincident lines, then a and b satisfy the equation ________ (A) a + 5b = 0

6.

(D) 6 cm 2

The areas of two similar triangles DABC and DDEF are 144 cm 2 and 81 cm 2 respectively. If the longest side of larger DABC be 36 cm, then the longest side of the smaller triangle DDEF is ________ (A) 20 cm

5.

D

(B) 6.5 cm 2

(B) 502 th

(C) 508 th

(D) None of these

If tan 2 45° – cos 2 30° = x sin 45° cos 45°, then x = ________ 1 (A) 2 (B) – 2 (C) – 2

(D)

1 2

A number x is chosen at random from the numbers –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3. The probability that |x| < 2 is ________ 5 2 3 1 (A) (B) (C) (D) 7 7 7 7

10. In the given question, group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once. (A) 7, 8, 9; 2, 4, 3; 1, 5, 6 (B) 1, 3, 2; 4, 5, 7; 6, 8, 9 (C) 1, 6, 8; 3, 4, 7; 2, 5, 9 1

(D) 1, 6, 9; 3, 4, 7; 2, 5, 8.

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

11. Find the alternative which contains Fig. (X) embedded in it. Fig. (X)

(A)

13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10

(B)

(C)

2


(D)

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

12. Consider the adjoining diagram : What is the minimum number of different colours required to paint the given figure such that no two adjacent regions have the same colour? (A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 5

(D) 6

13. In the given question, a set of figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming that the characters in the set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character. (A) 35 15

(B) 48

2

9

80

(C) 72

6

5

7

13

65 4

16 ?

6

8

11

(D) 120 14. If REQUEST is written as S2R52TU, then how will ACID be written? (A) 1394

(B) IC94

(C) BDJE

(D) 1D3E

(C) 5

(D) 51

15. Find the missing number if 17 : 52 : : 1 : ? (A) 3

(B) 4

SCIENCE

V

V

V

V

16. I Fig(I)

I Fig(II)

I Fig(III)

I Fig(IV)

The relation between the potential difference (V) and current (I) across a conductor is correctly represented by ________ (A) Fig(I)

(B) Fig(II)

(C) Fig(III)

(D) Fig(IV)

17. Optical density of a medium depends on ________ (A) Density of the medium

(B) Thickness of the medium

(C) Velocity of light in that medium

(D) None of these

18. Two equilateral prisms are arranged as shown in figure such that a ray of white light is incident at point X. The ray of light which emerges out of the prism Q ________

e l hit W

igh

(A) Will show all the colours of spectrum

(B) Will be white light

(C) Will be orange in colour

(D) Will be dull white in colour

t X

Q P

19. A long sighted person cannot see objects clearly at a distance less than 40 cm from his eyes. The power of the lens needed by him to read a paper at 25 cm is ________ (A) –2.5 D

(B) +2.5 D

(C) – 6.25 D

(D) +1.5 D

20. During a planned manoeuvre in a space flight, a freefloating astronaut X pushes another freefloating astronaut Y, the mass of X being greater than that of Y. Then, the magnitude of the force exerted by astronaut X on astronaut Y is ________ (A) Equal to zero

(B) Equal to the force exerted by Y on X

(C) Greater than the force exerted by Y on X

(D) Less than the force exerted by Y on X

3



CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

21. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Fine particles in atmosphere scatter the light of shorter wavelength more. Statement 2 : Sky appears blue. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 22. Which of the following is the best thing to do during heavy lightning ? (A) Lying on the ground in an open place (B) Going into the nearest water body (C) Staying indoors away from metallic doors or windows (D) Standing under a tall tree P

23. Study the diagram carefully and select the correct statement. Q (A) Water flowing through hole 'P' will move a smaller distance as compared Water to that through 'Q' and 'R'. R (B) Water flowing through hole 'Q' will move maximum distance. (C) Water flowing through 'R' will move more distance than 'Q' but less than 'P'. (D) Water flowing through all holes will travel same distance as pressure exerted by a liquid is equal in all directions. DIRECTION : Read the passage carefully and answer Q. nos. 24 and 25. An electric bulb 'P' rated 220 V, 60 W is working at full efficiency. Another identical bulb 'Q' is connected across the mains as shown here.

220 V

24. The total power consumed is ________ (A) 20 W

Bulb Q

Bulb P

Mains

(B) 40 W

(C) 30 W

(D) 70 W

25. What will be the total power if the bulbs are connected in parallel? (A) 120 W

(B) 60 W

(C) 200 W

(D) 70 W

26. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II (a) Fleming’s left hand rule (i) Application of electromagnetic induction (b) Fleming’s right hand rule (ii) Direction of magnetic force on a current carrying conductor in uniform magnetic field (c) Solenoid (iii) Similar to bar magnet (d) Electric generator (iv) Direction of induced current. (A) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (B) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (C) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (D) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 27. A few substances are arranged in order of increasing force of attraction between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement? (A) Milk, Sugar, Air

(B) Air, Sugar, Milk

(C) Sugar, Milk, Air

(D) Air, Milk, Sugar

28. Two mixtures containing mustard oil and water, and carbon disulphide and water are poured into separating funnels and kept undisturbed for some time. Two layers separate out according to their densities. Which of the following observations do you think are correct ? (A) (i) and (ii)

Oil Water

(B) (i) and (iii) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iii) 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10

Carbon disulphide

Water Oil

(i)

(ii)

Carbon disulphide

Water

Oil

Water

Water

Carbon disulphide

Water

(iii)

4


(iv)

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

29. Which of the following involves fractional distillation? i. Separation of constituents from liquefied air. ii. Separation of constituents from crude petroleum. iii. Separation of carbon tetrachloride from water. iv. Separation of naphthalene from common salt. (A) i and ii

(B) i and iv

(C) ii and iv

(D) i and iii

30. 1.2375 g of cupric oxide on being heated in a current of hydrogen, gave 0.9322 g of the metal. In another experiment, 0.9369 g of pure copper was dissolved in nitric acid. Excess of acid evaporated and the residue was ignited. The weight of the cupric oxide left was 1.2469 g. Which law of chemical combination is shown by the above results? (A) Law of constant proportions

(B) Law of multiple proportions

(C) Law of conservation of mass

(D) Law of constant volumes

31. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Only one out of every 12000 alpha particles rebound in Rutherford’s experiment. Statement 2 : Most of the space in the atom is empty. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

32. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. (a) (b) (c) (d)

Column I Electron Proton Nucleus Neutron

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Column II Chadwick J.J. Thomson Goldstein Rutherford

(A) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv)

(B) (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (i)

(C) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)

(D) (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iii)

33. Out of 4 g of methane and 11 g of CO 2, which has more number of molecules? (A) Methane

(B) Carbon dioxide

(C) Both have equal number of molecules

(D) It is not possible to compare

34. Solution X is taken into test tube1 and made to react with dilute Thistle funnel Iron stand HCl. Gas Y is evolved in the reaction which is made to pass through Rubber cork the delivery tube into test tube2 having solution Z and a milky Hard glass test tube solution is obtained. What are X, Y and Z respectively ? (A) NaOH, CO 2 , Na 2 CO 3

Delivery tube

Test tube 2 Gas Y Solution Z

Dilute hydrochloric acid

(B) Ca(OH) 2 , H 2 , Ca(HCO 3 ) 2

Substance X

(C) Ca(OH) 2 , CO 2 , CaCO 3

Test tube 1

(D) CaCO 3 , CO 2 , Ca(OH) 2 35. Which of the following elements does not belong to the same period ? 16 8

(A)

16 8

P

(B)

20 23 P , 19 9 Q, 10 R and 11 S

19 9 Q

(C)

20 10 R

5


(D)

23 11 S


CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

36. Study the following flow chart and mark the correct options from the given choices to fill (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi). Organic compounds (Hydrocarbons) Closed chain or Cyclic

Open chain or Aliphatic

(ii)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) Cyclobutane Benzene Butane Butene

(iii)

(ii) Cyclobutene Butene Butene Butyne

Aromatic e.g. (vi)

Alicyclic

Unsaturated e.g.

Saturated e.g. (i)

Saturated e.g. (iv)

(iii) Butane Cyclobutane Butyne Butane

Unsaturated e.g. (v)

(iv) Butene Butyne Cyclobutane Cyclobutene

(v) Butyne Butane Cyclobutene Cyclobutane

(vi) Benzene Cyclobutene Benzene Benzene

(C) Colourless, brown, blue, colourless

Aluminium sulphate solution

(D) Colourless, green, blue, colourless

P

Aluminium wire

(B) Colourless, colourless, colourless, colourless

Copper wire

Zinc metal

(A) White, brown, blue, green

Iron nail

37. Four test tubes P, Q, R and S were taken and filled half with a solution of aluminium sulphate in water. Clean piece of metal zinc was placed in test tube P, iron nail in test tube Q, copper wire in test tube R and aluminium wire in test tube S. What colour change will be observed in all the four test tubes respectively ?

Q

R

S

38. Three students were given colourless liquids of water, lemon juice and a mixture of water and lemon juice. After testing these liquids with pH paper, a sequence in colour change of pH paper was reported. Which is the correct sequence ? (A) Blue, red and green

(B) Orange, green and green

(C) Green, red and red

(D) Red and green I Ethanol + CO + Energy 2

39. Glucose

Pyruvate

II III

Lactic acid +Energy CO + H O + Energy 2 2

The above flow chart shows the three steps of glucose breakdown in different conditions. Which of the given steps is responsible for muscle cramps? (A) Step I

(B) Step II

(C) Step III

(D) Both (A) & (B)

40. The given figure is associated with which of the following types of plant tissues ? (A) Vascular bundle (B) Epidermis (C) Endodermis (D) Pith


6


CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

41. The given figure shows the pathway taken by a nerve impulse in a reflex action. Which part serves as a link between other neurons ?

Message to brain

P

(A) P (B) Q

Q S

R

(C) R (D) S 42. Each ovule consists of a large oval shaped cell called the embryo sac and the mature embryo sac contains ________ nuclei. (A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Five

(D) Eight

43. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits to the farmers? (A) Use of high quality seeds, fertilizers and no irrigation. (B) Use of quality seeds, irrigation, fertilizers and crop protection measures. (C) Use of ordinary seeds, irrigation and fertilizers. (D) Use of quality seeds, irrigation and protection measures. 44. Which of the following is correct about chromosomes? (A) It is composed of DNA and lipids. (B) It is composed of DNA and proteins. (C) It is composed of DNA only. (D) It is composed of RNA and proteins. 45. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the given figure ?

Violet flowers ´ White flowers

(A) It shows Mendel's monohybrid cross. F1 generation

(B) The ratio of violet and white flowers is 3 : 1. (C) Violet flowers are dominant.

F2 generation

(D) All of these. 46. Preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils. What type of fossil is shown in the figure ? (A) Fossil of a tree trunk (B) Fossil of Trilobite (C) Fossil of Ammonite (D) Fossil of Knightia

47. The green plants or producers capture _______ of energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves to prepare food by photosynthesis. (A) 2%

(B) 1%

(C) 10%

(D) 50%

48. In a grassland ecosystem which of the following groups of animals are likely to occupy the same trophic level ? (A) a, b, c (B) b, c, e (C) c, d, e (D) b, d, e

a

b

c

d

e

49. Ozone higher up in the atmosphere acts as a shield to prevent UV rays from reaching the Earth's surface. These UV rays are responsible for which of the following diseases? (i) Skin cancer (ii) Eye damage (iii) Lung cancer (iv) Damage to immune system (v) Colour blindness (A) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v)

(C) (i), (iii), (v) 7


(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) 13 th NSO | LevelI | Class 10

CLASS 10 | 13th NSO -- 2010

50. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Our main aim of conservation is to preserve the biodiversity. Statement 2 : Loss of biodiversity leads to loss of ecological stability. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

(D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


8


Class 10 14th

Year 2011


2

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

MENTAL ABILITY 1.

On a page of a telephone directory, there are 300 telephone numbers. The frequency distribution of the digits at the unit's place is given below : Unit digit

0

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

9

Frequency

35

21

28

30

25

14

16

38

38

55

Without looking at the page, a number is chosen at random from the page. What is the probability that the digit at the unit's place of the number chosen is greater than 3 but less than 9 ?

(A) 186/300

2.

A hall-room 39 m 10 cm long and 35 m 70 cm broad is to be paved with equal square tiles. Find the number of tiles required so that the tiles exactly fit.

(A) 483

3.

30 trees are planted in a straight line at intervals of 5 metres. To water them, the gardener needs to bring water for each tree, separately from a well, which is 10 metres from the first tree in line with the trees. How far will he have to walk in order to water all the trees beginning with the first tree ? Assume that he starts from the well.

(A) 4785 metres

4.

If every side of a triangle is doubled, then increase in the area of the triangle is _____.

(A) 100 2%

5.

  If  ( 

(B) 131/300

(B) 358

(B) 4795 metres

(B) 200%

(C) 161/300

(C) 475

(C) 4800 metres

(C) 300%

(D) 216/300

(D) 583

(D) None of these

(D) 400%

  a  −2  2   1 −    a  b   = 1 and a + b = 5, then find a and b respectively. a − b )2 + 2 ab 

(A) 3, 2

(B) 4, 1

6.

If the animals which can walk are called 'swimmers', animals who crawl are called 'flying', those living in water are called 'snakes' and those which fly in the sky are called 'hunters', then what will a lizard be called ?

(A) Swimmers

7.

For the set of numbers 2, 2, 4, 5 and 12, which of the following expressions is true ?

(A) Mean = Median

8.

Namita walks 14 metres towards west, then turns to her right and walks 14 metres and then turns to her left and walks 10 metres. Again turning to her left she walks 14 metres. What is the shortest distance (in metres) between her starting point and the present position ?

(A) 10

9.

How many numbers from 1 to 100 are there each of which is not only exactly divisible by 4 but also has 4 as a digit ?

(A) 7

(B) Snakes

(B) Mean > Mode

(B) 24

(B) 10

10. Simplify by combining similar terms : 3 147 −

189

(A)

3 3

175 (B) 3 3

(C) 2, 3

(C) Flying

(C) Mean < Mode

(C) 28

(C) 20

(D) –1, 6

(D) Hunters

(D) Mode = Median

(D) 38

(D) 12

7 1 1 +7 3 3 3 208 3 3

(C)


203

(D)

3 3

3

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

11. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet ?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) I

(D) T

12. If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form ax2 + bx + 1 = 0 having real roots is ______.

(A) 10

(B) 7

13.

Consider the (i) adjacent (iii) opposite Which of the

(A) (i) and (iii)

(C) 6

(D) 12

following statements : When two straight lines intersect, angles are complementary (ii) adjacent angles are supplementary angles are equal (iv) opposite angles are supplementary following statements must be true? (B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i) and (iv)

(D) (ii) and (iv)

(C) 1

(D) 2

14. If sinq + sin2q = 1, then cos2q + cos4q = _______ .

(A) 0

(B)

2

15. The middle digit of a number between 100 and 1000 is zero and the sum of the other digits is 11. If the digits be reversed, the number so formed exceeds the original number by 495; find it.

(A) 304

(B) 308

(C) 403

(D) 803

science 16. The answer to which of the following options will distinguish between a magnetic material and a

non-magnetic material? (A) Is it a metal or a non metal? (B) Is it a conductor or an insulator? (C) Can it be given an electric charge? (D) Does it affect the direction in which a compass needle points?

17. Figure shows a ray of light P striking a mirror AB. The mirror AB and the mirror CD make an angle of 120° with each other. The angle of reflection of ray P at CD is _____.

(A) 20°

(B) 30°

(C) 50°

(D) 70°

18. A boy of mass 55 kg, runs up 40 stairs, each measuring a height of 0.15 m, in 5 s. Column II gives numerical values for quantities described in column I. Match both the columns and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I

Column II

Work done by all the forces Work done by conservative forces Work done by external forces Work done in uniform acceleration (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Change in potential energy Change in kinetic energy Change in mechanical energy Zero (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

(a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (C)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (B) (D)

19. The equation, E = Dmc2 gives the amount of energy released as a result of nuclear fission. What

does Dm stand for? (A) The original mass of the nuclei (B) The final total mass of the nuclei (C) The increase in total mass of the nuclei (D) The difference in mass between the original nuclei and the product nuclei Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

4

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

20. A body is left free on a frictionless inclined plane as shown in the figure. It takes 4 seconds to reach the bottom of the plank. What time would it take to slide from point P to point Q?

(A) 1 s (C) 3 s

(B) 2 s (D) 4 s

21.

The diagram shows a resistor connected to a cell of e.m.f. 2 V. How much heat energy is produced in the resistor in six seconds? (A) 2.5 J (B) 4.8 J (C) 10 J (D) 60 J

22. Rectangular components of a force are applied to move a body. One of the components is 30 N.

What should be the other component to obtain a resultant force of 50 N? (A) 30 N (B) 40 N (C) 50 N (D) 90 N

23. In the circuit shown here, at which point is the current least ?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R (D) S

24. An optician while testing the eyes finds the vision of a patient to be 6/12. By this he means that

______. (A) The (B) The (C) The (D) The

person can read the letters of 6 inches from a distance of 12 m. person can read the letters of 12 inches from 6 m. person can read the letters from 6 m which the normal eye can read from 12 m . focal length of eye lens has become half that of the normal eye.

25. The diagram shows waves set up in a rope by a student

moving the free end up and down at a steady rate. What is the wavelength of the waves shown, and what will be the wavelength when the student doubles the frequency at which the free end is moved up and down?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Wavelength as shown Wavelength when frequency doubled 0.50 m 1.00 m 0.50 m 0.50 m 1.00 m 1.00 m 1.00 m 0.50 m

26. Refer the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : Aeroplanes always fly at low altitudes. Statement 2 : According to Newton's third law of motion, for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

27. Aqua-regia is ______. (A) HNO3 + HCl

(B) HNO3 + 3HCl

(C) 3HNO3 + HCl

(D) H2SO4 + 3HCl

28. As compared to the pure metal, the electrical conductivity and melting point of an alloy is ____. (A) More (B) Less (C) Equal (D) Can't generalise Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

5

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

29. In the given figure, the red-brown gas evolved is _____. (A) Oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide (C) Nitrogen dioxide (D) Carbon monoxide 30. Acetic acid was added to a solid X taken in a test tube. A colourless and odourless gas was evolved. The gas was passed through lime water which did not turn milky. However the gas burnt with a pop (A) Solid X (C) Solid X (D) Solid X

sound. It was concluded that ______. (B) Solid X is sodium and the gas evolved is H2 is sodium and the gas evolved is CO2 is sodium acetate and the gas evolved is CO2 is sodium chloride and the gas evolved is H2

31. Two non-metals X and Y combine with each other by sharing electrons to form compound Z. Which is the correct statement for compound Z? (A) Undergoes ionic reactions and soluble in organic solvents. (B) Undergoes ionic reactions and soluble in water. (C) Undergoes molecular reactions and soluble in organic solvents. (D) Undergoes molecular reactions and soluble in water. 32. A compound P is taken in a flat bottomed flask as shown in figure. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added drop by drop. A gas Q is evolved which is then passed in a test tube containing R. A solid precipitate S is formed. R is frequently used in white washing. During white washing a layer of R is applied on the wall and it reacts with gas Q (present in air) to produce white shiny layer of S on the wall. P, Q, R and S respectively are _____. P Q R S SO2 Ca(OH)2 CaSO4 (A) Na2SO4 (B) Na2SO3 O2 Ca(OH)2 CaO (C) Na2CO3 O2 Ca(OH)2 CaCO3 (D) Na2CO3 CO2 Ca(OH)2 CaCO3 33. Given below are the melting points and the atomic radii of four elements P, Q, R and S each having n electrons in the outermost shell of their atoms. Which element will have the highest atomic number? Element Melting point (°C) °) Atomic radius (A (A) P

(B) Q

P

Q

R

S

1.34

1.54

1.96

2.05

1.20

1.31

1.36

1.42

(C) R

(D) S

34. Monty fully filled a glass bottle with water, put a stopper on it and placed it upright in the freezer overnight. When he looked at it in the morning, the stopper was off the bottle and a column of

ice had emerged through the opening of the bottle. Which one of the following is the best explanation for what Monty had observed? (A) The bottle had contracted when it was put in the freezer and the water could no longer fit into it. (B) Extra water condensed from the air in the freezer and then froze to form the column of ice. (C) The bottle and stopper had contracted, allowing the water to pour out and form the ice column. (D) The volume of water increased when the water froze, forcing the stopper off the bottle and forming the column of ice. Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

6

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

35. When liquid carbon disulphide (CS2) is added to water taken in a tube, which is the correct

observation? (A) I

(B) II

(C) III

(D) IV

36. Light is passed through the solution of X and solution of Y. The following figure shows the observation.

What could be X and Y ? (A) X = Milk Y (B) X = Mud Y (C) X = Milk Y (D) X = Copper sulphate Y

= = = =

Mud Milk Copper sulphate Milk

37. How many moles of gold are present in an ornament containing 88.65 g of gold ? (Atomic mass of Au is 197 u) (A) 0.5 mol

(B) 0.45 mol

(C) 4.5 mol

(D) 5.0 mol

38. Match the names of the scientists given in column-I with contributions towards the understanding of the atomic structure as given in column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I

Dalton (i) Atomic number E. Goldstein (ii) Indivisibility of atoms Moseley (iii) Neutrons J.Chadwick (iv) Canal rays (P) - (ii), (Q) - (iv), (R) – (i), (S) - (iii) (B) (P) - (ii), (Q) - (i), (R) - (iv), (S) – (iii) (P) - (iv), (Q) - (ii), (R) - (i), (S) - (iii) (D) (P) - (iii), (Q) - (iv), (R) - (i), (S) - (ii)

(P) (Q) (R) (S) (A) (C)

Column-II

39. The given figure represents a plant cell after being placed

in a strong sugar solution. The different parts have been labelled as a, b, c, d & e. Which of the following is the correct labelling ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

a Cell wall Cell membrane Cell wall Cell membrane

Sugar Sugar Sugar Sugar

b solution solution solution solution

c Protoplasm Protoplasm Vacuole Vacuole

d Vacuole Vacuole Protoplasm Protoplasm

e Cell membrane Cell wall Tonoplast Tonoplast

40. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (A) (C)

Column I Suicide bag of the cell (i) Power house of the cell (ii) Protein factory of the cell (iii) Kitchen of the cell (iv) Circulatory system of the cell (v) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv), e-(v) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(v),e-(ii)

Column II Mitochondria Ribosome Lysosome Endoplasmic reticulum Chloroplast (B) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(v), e-(iv) (D) a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(v),e-(iv)


7

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

41. A leafy shoot is placed in a beaker containing a solution of a coloured dye. The given figure shows part of a section of the shoot after two days. Which part is now most coloured by the dye ?

(A) a (C) c

(B) b (D) d

42. The given diagram shows some stages in the carbon cycle. W, X , Y and Z are carbon compounds.

What is W ? (A) Carbon compounds in animals (B) Carbon compounds in plants (C) Carbon dioxide in the air (D) Coal and oil

43. Which of the following organisms show mixotrophic nutrition?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) Both (B) & (C)

44. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column I Column II (a) Auxin (i) Fruit ripening (b) Cytokinins (ii) Phototropism (c) Gibberellins (iii) Stimulation of cell division (d) Abscisic acid (iv) Suppression of cell division (e) Ethylene (v) Stomatal opening and closing (vi) Growth of lateral buds (vii) Stem elongation in "rosette" plants (A) a-(iii), (vi), b-(vii), c-(ii), d-(i),(iv), e-(v) (B) a-(ii), b-(v), c-(iii),(vi), d-(vii), e- (i), (iv) (C) a-(iii), (vi), b-(ii), c-(vii), d-(v),e-(i),(iv) (D) a-(ii), b-(iii), (vi), c-(vii), d-(v),e-(i), (iv)

45. Sperms travel during an ejaculation from the

(i)

, where they are stored to the

where they are transported to the ejaculatory duct and then to the

(iii)

(ii)

, from

, which carries both

reproductive and excretory fluids. A vasectomy is a surgical procedure for contraceptive purposes in which the _(iv) is cut and blocked so as to prevent sperms from being present in the semen. Select the correct sequence of terms to complete the above paragraph. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Vas deferens Epididymis Urethra Vas deferens (B) Vas deferens Epididymis Urethra Seminiferous tubules (C) Epididymis Vas deferens Urethra Vas deferens (D) Epididymis Vas deferens Urethra Seminiferous tubules 46. Which of the following control measures would not help to prevent the spread of malaria? (A) Boiling drinking water (B) Covering windows with netting (C) Draining swamps (D) Spraying insecticides on stagnant water Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

8

CLASS 10 | 14th NSO - 2011

47. Which of Mendel's laws states that when two homozygous individuals with one or more sets of contrasting characteristics are crossed, the characteristics which appear in F 1 hybrids are dominant and those which do not are recessive ? (A) Law of segregation (B) Law of dominance (C) Law of independent assortment (D) None of these 48. Rabi and Kharif crops are the major crops of India. Given below is a list of crops. Categorize them as Rabi and Kharif crops. Paddy, Wheat, Soyabean, Mustard, Maize, Cotton, Barley, Sugarcane. (A) Rabi crops Kharif crops (B) Rabi crops Kharif crops (C) Rabi crops Kharif crops (D) Rabi crops Kharif crops 49. The (A) (B) (C) (D)

: : : : : : : :

Paddy, Wheat, Cotton, Sugarcane Soyabean, Mustard, Maize, Barley Wheat, Mustard, Barley, Sugarcane Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton Wheat, Mustard, Barley Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton, Sugarcane Paddy, Soyabean, Maize, Cotton, Sugarcane Wheat, Mustard, Barley

correct sequence of taxonomic categories is ______. Division → Class → Family → Order → Genus → Species Phylum → Order → Class → Family → Genus → Species Class → Division → Order → Family → Genus → Species Division → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species

50. Refer the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : Hepatitis is a communicable disease.

Statement 2 : Hepatitis can pass from an infected person to a healthy person. (A) Both the statements 1 & 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both the statements 1 & 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both the statements 1 & 2 are false.



Class 10 15th

SET A Year 2012


15th NSO - SET A

2

meNtal ability 1.

105 goats, 140 donkeys and 175 cows have to be taken across a river. There is

only one boat

which will have to make many trips in order to do so. The lazy boatman has his own conditions for transporting them. He insists that he will take the same number of animals in every trip and they have to be of same kind. He will naturally like to take the largest possible number each time.

The number of animals went in each trip is _________. (A) 75 (B) 35 (C) 154

(D) 63

2. In the given diagram, the circle stands for College Professors, the triangle stands for Surgical Specialists, and Medical Specialists are represented by the rectangle. Surgical Specialists who are

also Medical Specialists but not College Professors are represented by _____. (A) B (B) C (C) X (D) Z

3. The zeroes of the polynomial f(x) = x3 – 5x2 – 2x + 24, if it is given that the product of its two

zeroes is 12 are ______. (A) 3, 4, – 2 (B) – 3, – 4, – 2

4.

Choose from the options which most closely resembles the water image of the given combination.

QUARREL (A)

5.

In the given figure, if

(A) 16 cm

QUARREL EL (C) QUA RR

(D) 3, 4, 2

(D) Q

UA

L E

RR

(B) QU

ARREL

(C) 3, – 4, – 2

A

DE 2 = and AE = 10 cm, then AB is ____. BC 3

E D

105°

(B) 12 cm

(C) 15 cm

(D) 18 cm

6.

Values of p and q for which the given system of linear equations have infinite number of solutions

B

75°

65°

C

are ______.

(A) p =1, q = 5

2x + 3y = 9 (p + q)x + (2p – q)y = 3(p + q + 1) 5 1 (C) p = 4, q = – 2 (B) p = 3 , q = 3

(D) p = 4, q = – 1

7. Anita, Armaan, Narayani, Harsha and Ashish went on some days out during half term. The only one who went out bowling was Harsha. No-one except Narayani and Ashish went to the park. Anita, Armaan and Narayani watched a film together at the cinema. Everyone except Harsha went swimming. The

only child who did not visit the play centre was Armaan. Who visited the most places? (A) Anita (B) Armaan (C) Ashish (D) Narayani

8. Along a road lie an odd number of stones placed at intervals of 10 metres. These stones have to be assembled around the middle stone. A person can carry only one stone at a time. A man carried the job with one of the end stones by carrying them in succession. In carrying all the stones he

covered a distance of 3 km. Find the number of stones. (A) 26 (B) 23 (C) 25 Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

(D) 20

15th NSO - SET A

9.

3

In the adjoining figure, O is the centre of the circle. The radius OP bisects a rectangle ABCD, at right angle. If DM = NC = 2 cm

D

M

and AR = SB = 1 cm and KS = 4 cm and OP = 5 cm, then the

A

R

area of the rectangle ABCD is ______.

(A) 8 cm2 (C) 12 cm2

L

P

K O

N

C

S

B

(B) 10 cm2 (D) None of these

10. When a number is divided by 9235, we get the quotient 888 and the remainder 222, such a least

possible number is ______. (A) 8200902 (B) 8200920

(C) 8200680

(D) None of these

11. In the following question, find out which of the options completes the figure matrix.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

?

12. In the given figure, AB = CD = 2BC = 2BP = 2CQ. In the middle, a circle with radius 1 cm is drawn.

In the rest of the figure all are the semicircular arcs. The perimeter of the whole figure is ____. (A) 4p (B) 8p Q O C A P B D (C) 10p (D) None of these

13. If A be the area of a right triangle and b one of the sides containing the right angle, the length of

the altitude on the hypotenuse is _____. 2A 2 Ab (B) (A) 2 2 b + 2A b 4 + 4 A2

(C)

2 Ab 2 b 3 + 4 A2

(D)

2 A2 b b 4 + 3 A2

14. A conical vessel whose internal radius is 10 cm and height 72 cm is full of water. If this water is poured into a cylindrical vessel with internal radius 30 cm, the height of the water level rises in

it is ______. 2 (A) 2 cm 3

(B) 3

2 cm 3

(C) 5

1 1 15. If 2  x 2 + 2  − 9  x +  + 14 = 0 , then x = _____.   x x  1 (B) 1 (A) 2

2 cm 3

(C) 2

(D) 1

1 cm 3

(D) All of these

science 16. Wires A and B are identical except that each is made from a different material. The one end of wire A is connected to one end of wire B. The two remaining ends are connected across a battery and

current flows through the two wires. Which statement concerning this situation is true? (A) The potential difference across the two wires is the same, but the current through each wire is different. (B) The potential difference across the two wires is the same, and the current through each wire is same. (C) The potential difference across the two wires is the different, but the current through each wire is same. (D) Both the potential difference across the two wires and current through each wire is different.


15th NSO - SET A

4

17. A mirror is broken into two parts and these parts are separated by a distance of 1 cm as shown in figure. The focal length of the mirror is 10 cm. Find the location of the images (in cm), formed by the two parts

1 cm

of mirror. The object is midway between the two principal axes. (A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 2 (C) 2, 2 (D) 0.5, 1

15 cm

18. A particle is acted upon by a force of constant magnitude which is always perpendicular to the

velocity of the particle. The motion of the particle takes place in a plane. It follows that ______. (A) Its velocity is constant (B) Its acceleration is constant (C) Its kinetic energy is conserved (D) None of these

19. Match Column-I with Column-II and mark the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I

(a) gh at height h

(i)

(b) gh at depth h

(ii)

(c) gpoles

(iii)

(d) g (A) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (C) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)

(iv) (B) (D)

Column-II 2h   g 1 −   R  GM R2 h  g 1−   R maximum (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

20. A uniform magnetic field is directed into the page. A charged particle, moving in the plane of the page, follows a clockwise spiral of decreasing radius as

shown in the given figure. Which of the following statements is correct? (A) The charge is positive and slowing down. (B) The charge is negative and slowing down. (C) The charge is positive and speeding up. (D) The charge is negative and speeding up.

21.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) The distance between two consecutive compressions is called frequency of sound wave. (ii) Sound propagates as pressure variations. (iii) Compressions are narrower in a high pitched sound. (A) (i) only (B) (ii) only (C) (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iii)

22. Most of the sources of energy we use represent stored solar energy. Which of the following is not

ultimately derived from the sun's energy? (A) Geothermal energy (B) Wind energy

(C) Fossil fuels

(D) Biomass

23. The number of alphabetical capital letters such as A, B, C, D, which are not laterally inverted by

a plane mirror is ______. (A) 6 (B) 7

(C) 11

(D) 13

24. Two metallic wires A and B are connected in series. Wire A has length l and radius r, while wire B has length 2l and radius 2r. If both the wires are of same material then find the ratio of the total

resistance of series combination to the resistance of the wire A. 3 6 3 (B) (C) (A) 4 2 2 Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

(D)

6 5

15th NSO - SET A

25.

5

Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity is zero at a given instant. Statement 2 : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its direction of velocity. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

26. Consider a planet in some system which has a mass double the mass of the earth and density equal to the average density of the earth. If an object weighs W on the earth, then its weight on the planet is ____. W (A) W (B) 2W (C) (D) 21/3 W 2 27. Ananya prepared 300 g of 35% solution of cane sugar. She heated the solution for half an hour and found that the solution now weighed 130 g. The amount of water evaporated during heating is _____. (A) 25 g (B) 170 g (C) 195 g (D) 105 g 28.

Which of the following processes does not involve either oxidation or reduction? (A) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime (B) Heating mercuric oxide (C) Formation of manganese chloride from manganese oxide (D) Formation of zinc from zinc blende

29. 12 g of X2O5, an oxide of element X contains 7.2 g of X. How many moles of X does 7.2 g of the

element contain? (A) 6

(B) 0.5

(C) 0.2

(D) 4.5

30. A large volume of copper(II) sulphate solution is left in an iron container overnight. Identify the correct statement for above reaction. (A) The solution evaporates completely and some copper(II) sulphate crystals are left behind. (B) The part of the container in contact with the solution is coated with copper. (C) Some fine iron particles are formed in the solution. (D) Atmospheric oxygen reacts with the copper(II) sulphate to give black copper(II) oxide. 31. Naturally occurring argon (Ar) consists of three isotopes, the atoms of which occur in the abundances as given in the table. The atomic weight of argon is (A) 38.45 u (B) 37.20 u (C) 39.98 u (D) 40.98 u

Isotopes

Abundance

36

Ar

0.34%

38

Ar

0.07%

40

Ar

99.59%

32. Ashish took 4 test tubes P, Q, R

and S, each containing 10 mL of different solutions as shown in figure. Few drops of methyl orange are added to each tube. The solution in which tube will turn methyl orange to red? (A) P (B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

33. An ion M3+ contains 10 electrons and 14 neutrons. Element M has valency equal to the valency of an other element X which has five electrons less than Ar in its outermost shell. Identify the elements

M and X. (A) Element M is Al and X is N. (C) Element M is Ne and X is B.

(B) Element M is N and X is Al. (D) Both elements M and X are Al.


15th NSO - SET A

6

34. Compound X has the molecular formula C2H6O. 1. X can be made by fermentation process. 2. X can be oxidised to Y. 3. X can react with Y to form Z and water. To which homologous series do X, Y and Z belong? X Y Z (A) Alcohols Carboxylic Acids Esters (B) Alcohols Esters Carboxylic Acids (C) Carboxylic Acids Alcohols Esters (D) Carboxylic Acids Esters Alcohols 35. When sodium hydroxide is added to ferric chloride solution, a reddish brown precipitate is formed. The precipitate is separated from the mixture by the process of __________. (A) Evaporation (B) Sublimation (C) Fractional distillation (D) Filtration 36. Study the given table carefully. Identify P, Q, R, T and U. P Q R T (A) Mg O Ne P (B) O Mg Ar P (C) Mg O Ar P (D) O Mg Ne P

Groups → U Ar Ne Ne Ar

Periods ↓ 2 3

1

2 P

3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 S

T

Q

R U

Direction (Q. nos. 37 & 38) : The given graph represents the heating curve of a substance (solid) which is heated at a constant rate over a period of time. Observe the graph carefully and answer the question. 37. On the heating curve diagram, the section representing liquid only is

(A) PQ (C) RS

(B) QR (D) ST

38. Identify the process that takes place during line segment ST of the heating curve. (A) Melting (B) Sublimation (C) Evaporation (D) Vaporisation 39. Mature sieve tube elements are devoid of ______. (A) Nucleus (B) Cytoplasm (C) Protein

(D) Mitochondria

40. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Thallophyta (i) Marsilea (b) Bryophyta (ii) Pinus (c) Pteridophyta (iii) Ulothrix (d) Gymnospermae (iv) Ficus (e) Angiospermae (v) Funaria (A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(v), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv) (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iv) 41. Given below are statements about five types of fishes P, Q, R, S and T. (i) P is surface feeder. (ii) Q feeds in the middle zone of the pond. (iii) R and S are bottom feeders. (iv) T feeds on zooplanktons. Identify P, Q, R, S and T and select the correct option. (A) P is catla and Q is grass carp. (B) R is mrigal and S is catla. (C) Q is catla and T is mrigal. (D) Q is rohu and P is mrigal.


15th NSO - SET A

7

42. Fill in the blanks and select the correct option. (i) _____ disease continues for many days and causes long term effect on the body. (ii) _____ disease continues for a few days and causes no long term effect on the body. (iii) Antibiotics commonly block biochemical pathways important for the growth of _____. (iv) Sleeping sickness is caused by _____ and kala-azar is caused by _____. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) Chronic Acute Bacteria Leishmania, Trypanosoma (B) Acute Chronic Virus Leishmania, Trypanosoma (C) Chronic Acute Bacteria Trypanosoma, Leishmania (D) Acute Chronic Virus Trypanosoma, Leishmania 43. A farmer regularly sprayed insecticides on his crops throughout the cropping season. The insecticides get washed off into a nearby lake where they were absorbed by the producers of the given food chain.

Which of the following shows the correct levels of insecticides the cropping season? [Amount of insecticides is shown in ppm (A) (i) – 25.0, (ii) – 5.0, (iii) – 0.5, (iv) – 0.05 (B) (i) – 0.05, (C) (i) – 0.05, (ii) – 0.5, (iii) –5.0, (iv) – 25.0 (D) (i) – 25.0,

in these organisms at the end of (parts per million)] (ii) – 0.05, (iii) – 0.05, (iv) – 0.05 (ii) – 25.0, (iii) – 25.0, (iv) – 25.0

44. Beena conducted an experiment in which two potato tubers were peeled and a cavity was made in each of them. One of the potato tuber was boiled while the other one was not. The cavities in both tubers were filled with distilled water and they were then placed in petri-dishes containing 1M sucrose solution. The results are shown in the given figures. Select the correct statement regarding this.

(A) Water level decreased in the cavity of boiled potato tuber due to evaporation. (B) Water level decreased in the cavity of unboiled potato tuber due to osmosis. (C) In the cavity of unboiled potato tuber no sucrose was found while in the cavity of boiled potato tuber sucrose was found. (D) All of the above.

45. A student carried out an experiment to investigate the conditions necessary for photosynthesis. He fixed leaf 'A' of a potted plant into a flask containing potassium hydroxide solution. He fixed another leaf 'B' of the plant into a flask containing water and wrapped the flask with a piece of black cloth. The plant was left in sunlight. After 6 hours he detached and tested both leaves for starch. Which of the following results most likely the student had found? (A) Starch was found in both leaves A and B. (B) Starch was found in leaf A, but not in leaf B. (C) Starch was found in leaf B, but not in leaf A. (D) Starch was not found in any leaves. 46.

Which of the following is incorrect for the given figure? (A) The part labelled as S is called protein factory of the cell. (B) The part labelled as Q is formed with the help of part labelled as P. (C) The part labelled as R helps in synthesis of enzymes. (D) The functions of parts labelled as Q and R are controlled by part labelled as P. Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

15th NSO - SET A

8

47. Correct the following statements by replacing the terms underlined (wherever necessary) and select the correct option. (i) The part of human brain which regulates heart beat is called cerebrum. (ii) Chemotropism is directional movement. (iii) The centre for sexual behaviour is situated in medulla oblongata. (iv) The plant hormone named after the fungus causing bakane disease is IAA. (v) Centre for hunger and thirst is located in diencephalon. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (A) Hypothalamus Tropic Cerebrum Auxin Diencephalon (B) Medulla oblongata Directional Hypothalamus Gibberellin Diencephalon (C) Hypothalamus Tropic Cerebrum Auxin Metencephalon (D) Medulla oblongata Directional Hypothalamus Gibberellin Metencephalon 48. Which labelled parts in the given figure produce and store sperms respectively?

(A) S and Q

(B) P and R

(C) S and R

(D) R and Q

49. Given below are four statements (a – d) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in any two of these statements. (i)__ evolution. (a) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of ___ (i)__ organ and an ___ (ii)__evidence of evolution. (b) Vermiform appendix is a ___ (i) (c) Archaeopteryx shows ___ __ link between two different groups of organisms. (i)__ and ___ (ii)__ of the fittest. (d) According to Darwin evolution took place due to ___ (A) (d) – (i) mutations, (ii) survival (B) (a) – (i) divergent (a) – (i) convergent (b) – (i) rudimentary, (ii) anatomical (C) (b) – (i) vestigial, (ii) anatomical (D) (c) – (i) connecting (c) – (i) missing (d) – (i) small variations, (ii) multiplication 50. The given figure shows four food chains with human at the top. Which two of these chains supply maximum amount of energy to the human?

(A) P and Q

(B) P and S

(C) Q and R

(D) Q and S SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


Class 10 15th

SET B Year 2012


15th NSO - SET B

1

meNtal ability 1. The given diagram shows a square inscribed in a circle with centre O. The radius of the circle is 6 cm. The perimeter of the shaded region can be written as

(pp + q) centimetres. Then the value of p and q respectively is _____. (A) 12, 3 (B) 3, 12 (C) 3, 2

(D) 2, 3

2. Mohit, Raj, Kartik, Varun and Rajat spend some of their pocket money as given below. I. Mohit spends ` 100 more than Raj. II. Varun spends ` 50 less than Kartik. III. Rajat spends twice as much as Mohit. IV. Kartik spends ` 400. V. Raj and Varun spends the same amount. If these statements are true, only one of the sentences below must be true. Identify it. (A) Raj spends more than Rajat. (B) Mohit spends less than Kartik. (C) Varun spends ` 350. (D) Rajat spends the least. 3. The function f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + ax + b, where a and b are constants, is exactly divisible by (x – 3) and leaves a remainder of –55 when divided by (x + 2). The value of a and b is _____. (A) a = –10, b = 3 (B) a = 10, b = 3 (C) a = 10, b = –3 (D) a = –10, b = –3 A

4. In the given diagram, AB is parallel to DC. AC and BD intersect at X. If AB = 8 cm, AX = 4 cm, XC = 6 cm and BD = 14 cm. Find BX. (A) 4.5 cm (B) 5.6 cm (C) 8.5 cm (D) 12 cm

B

X D C

5. If secq + tanq = p, then sinq = ______. p2 p2 − 1

p2 − 1 p2 + 1

p2 + 1 p2 − 1

(A)

6.

Find the mode of the following distribution of marks obtained by 80 students.

(B)

(C)

(D)

Marks obtained

0-10

10-20

20-30

30-40

40-50

Number of students

6

10

12

32

20

(B) 34.82

(C) 36.25

p p +1 2

(A) 28.42

(D) 34.86

7.

How many 9's in the following sequence of the numbers are immediately preceded by 8 but not immediately followed by 4? 9 8 6 2 7 9 6 2 8 9 4 8 8 9 4 9 8 4 8 8 9 4 9 8 4 9 (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of these

8.

Shikha and Riya are friends and their ages differ by 2 years. Shikha's father Rajiv is twice as old as Shikha and Riya is twice as old as her sister Maya. The age of Rajiv and Maya differ by

40 years. Then the age of Shikha and Riya respectively are ____. 1 1 (A) 26 years, 24 years (B) 27 years, 29 years (C) 27 years, 29 years 3 3

(D) Both (A) and (B)

9. The number which will replace the question mark in the number pattern given below is _____.

(A) 262

(B) 622

(C) 631


(D) 643

15th NSO - SET B

10. If cot q =

(A)

2

3 , then the value of 4

sec θ − cosecθ is _____. sec θ + cosecθ 1 (B) –1 (C) 3

1 7

(D) 2

11. The triangle with vertices A(4, 4), B(–2, –6) and C(4, –1) is shown

in the diagram. The area of DABC is ______.

(A) 5 sq. units

(B) 12 sq. units

(C) 15 sq. units

(D) 20 sq. units

10

y

8 6

A

4 2 –4 –2 0 –2

2

4

C

6

8 10

x

–4

B

–6

12. Which of the following options replaces the (?) in the adjoining figure matrix?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

13. In a school there are two sections of class X - section A and section B. There are 32 students in section A and 36 students in section B. Determine the minimum number of books required for their

class library so that they can be distributed equally among students of section A or section B. (A) 258 (B) 268 (C) 288 (D) 298

14. The The (A) (B) (C) (D)

graph of a polynomial f(x) is as shown in the figure. number of real zeroes of f(x) is_______. 1 2 3 4

15. If sinq + sin2q = 1, then the value of cos12q + 3cos10q + 3cos8q + cos6q + 2cos4q + 2cos2q – 2 is _____. 1 (A) –1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2

science 16. A current of 0.5 A passes through a conductor in 2 seconds. How many electrons flow through this conductor from one end to the other end during this interval of time ? (Charge on each electron is 1.6 × 10–19 C) (A) 6.25 × 1018 electrons (B) 3.15 × 10 19 electrons (C) 1.53 × 1019 electrons (D) 1 × 1018 electrons 17. Two plane mirrors are placed parallel to each other at a distance L apart. A point object O is placed L from one mirror. Both mirrors form multiple images. The distance 3 between any two images cannot be ________. 2L 3L (B) (C) 2L (D) None of these (A) 3 2 between them, at a distance

18.

A constant current of 3.0 A flows counter clockwise in the circular coil P as shown in figure. What is the direction of the induced current in the coil Q on the right? (A) Clockwise (B) Counter clockwise (C) Out of the page (D) There is no induced current. P Q Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

15th NSO - SET B

3

19. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Acceleration due to gravity at a place on earth remains constant for all objects. Statement 2 : Acceleration due to gravity doesn't depend on the mass of the object, but only on mass of earth. (A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 20. The potential difference between the ends of a conductor is 12 V. How much electrical energy is converted to other forms of energy in the conductor when 100 C of charge flows through it? (A) 0.12 J (B) 8.3 J (C) 88 J (D) 1200 J 21. A hollow copper tube of 5 m length has got external diameter equal to 10 cm and its walls are 5 mm thick. The specific resistance of copper is 1.7 × 10–8 W m. The resistance of the copper tube is approximately _______. (B) 5.6 × 10–9 W (C) 5.6 × 10–5 W (D) 5.6 × 10–7 W (A) 5.6 × 10–3 W 22. A Juggler throws two balls to the same height so that one is at the halfway point going up when the other is at the halfway point coming down. At that point _______. (A) Their velocities and accelerations are equal (B) Their velocities are equal but their accelerations are equal and opposite (C) Their accelerations are equal but their velocities are equal and opposite (D) Their velocities and accelerations are both equal and opposite 23. Identical bulbs are connected in the circuit as shown in the figure. Statement 1 : Bulb C glows brighter than bulb A. Statement 2 : The current through bulb C is more than the current through bulb A. (A) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (B) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 24. The (A) (C) (D)

body will speed up if _______. Velocity and acceleration are in same direction (B) Velocity and acceleration are in opposite direction Velocity and acceleration are in perpendicular direction None of these

25. A metal cube is placed in an empty vessel. When water is filled in the vessel so that the cube is completely immersed in the water, the force on the bottom of the vessel in contact with the cube will _____. (A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain the same (D) Become zero 1

26. Which pairs of rays from the object in the drawing are used to 2 3 construct the image location produced by the convex spherical mirror of focal length f and radius R? R f (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) Any pair of rays shown will work

f

R

27. Diagrams W, X and Y show how the particles of a substance are packed at different temperatures.

W

X

Y

The given graph shows the temperature changes which occur on warming the substance. In which region of the graph would all the particles be packed as in Y? (A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

15th NSO - SET B

4

28. Study the given diagram carefully and

identify X and Y respectively.

(A) Conc. HCl, CO2

(B) Conc. H2SO4, HCl

(C) Conc. HNO3, H2

(D) Conc. NaOH, Cl2

29. Raghav, Ajay and Nita were given three test tubes K, L and M respectively containing unknown substances. They observed the following properties about their solutions. Substance

Property

K

The components can be separated by filtration.

L

Particles scatter the light.

M

Particles size is 10–9 to 10–7 m.

On the basis of the above properties, identify the solutions K, L and M respectively. (A) Ferrous sulphate solution, tonics, paints (B) Calcium carbonate solution, paints, milk (C) Muddy water, milk, calcium carbonate solution (D) Paints, ferrous sulphate solution, calcium carbonate solution

30.

R gives back P and Q on saponification. Identify P and Q respectively. CH2 (B) CH3CH2OH, CH2 CH2 (A) CH4, CH2 (D) CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH (C) CH3COOH, CH3COOC2H5

31. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I (a) Avogadro number (i) (b) Molar volume (ii) (c) Nitrogen element (iii) (d) Formula of glucose (iv) (e) Molecular weight of nitric acid (v) (A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv), (e)-(v) (B) (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii), (e)-(v) (D)

Column-II 63 C6H12O6 22,400 cm3 6.022 × 1023 Diatomic (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(i) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(iii)

32. Select the pairs of elements which form compounds by covalent bonding.

(i) Ca and S

(ii) P and Cl

(iii) S and O

(iv) F and O

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii) and (iii)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (iii) and (iv)

33. Ankit prepared 25% glucose solution in 180 g water. He stirred the solution for sometime to form a saturated solution. If solubility of sugar is 30 g/100 g water, then how much sugar remains

undissolved in the solution? (A) 24 g (B) 30 g

34.

Rohit categorized the elements P, Ar, B and Al into two categories. Category I : Elements with same valency. Category II : Elements with same number of shells. Select the option with correct categorisation of the given elements. (A) I → P, B, Al; II → P, Ar, Al (B) I → Al, B; II → P, Ar (C) I → Ar, B; II → P, Al (D) I → P, Al; II → B, Ar

(C) 6 g


(D) 10 g

15th NSO - SET B 35.

5

The correct chemical formulae of the given compounds: (i) Aluminium phosphate, (ii) Potassium permanganate and (iii) Ammonium carbonate are (B) (i)-AlPO4, (ii)-KMnO4, (iii)-(NH4)2CO3 (A) (i)-Al2PO4, (ii)-K2Mn, (iii)-NH4CO3 (C) (i)-Al(PO4)3, (ii)-KMn, (iii)-NH4C (D) (i)-Al3PO4, (ii)-KMnO, (iii)-NH4CO

36. The given diagram shows the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution containing both copper (II) ions and sodium ions. Which metal is deposited at the negative electrode and why? Metal deposited Reason (A) Copper Copper is less reactive than sodium (B) Copper Copper is more reactive than hydrogen (C) Sodium Copper is less reactive than hydrogen (D) Sodium Copper is more reactive than sodium 37. A compound of carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen contains these elements in the ratio 9 : 1 : 3.5. If its molecular mass is 108, what is the molecular formula? (B) C3H4N (C) C2HN2 (D) C6H8N2 (A) C2H2N 38. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the trends in periodic properties in the periodic table? (A) Metallic character increases from Li to Cs. (B) The acidity of oxides increases from left to right in a period. (C) Noble gases have the highest electron affinity among all the elements in the periodic table. (D) Ionisation energy of aluminium is lower than that of magnesium. 39. Gita is supposed to face an interview. During the first five minutes before the interview she experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, increased respiratory rate, etc. Which of the following hormones has increased in her blood and is responsible for her restlessness? (A) GnRH (B) Estrogen (C) Adrenaline (D) Insulin 40. The given graph shows the changes in the volume of the lungs of a person at rest over a period of 20 seconds. (i) How many breathes per minute was the person taking when at rest? (ii) At which two points on the graph C, D, E or F was the alveolar pressure in the lungs equal to the air pressure outside of the body? (i) (ii) (A) 5 D, E (B) 15 C, E (C) 15 C, D (D) 20 E, F 41. The given figure shows undisturbed sedimentary strata at the bottom of an ocean. The fossil found in layer Y resembles the fossil found in layer X. This similarity most likely suggests that (A) The fossil of layer X must be more complex than that of layer Y (B) Modern forms of life may have evolved from earlier forms of life (C) The fossil of layer Y was formed before the fossil of layer X (D) Vertebrate fossils are found only in sediments Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

15th NSO - SET B

6

42. Identify the given developmental stage of human embryo and select the correct option regarding it. Developmental stage Site of implantation (A) Blastocyst Uterine wall (B) Morula Uterine wall (C) Blastula Mid part of Fallopian tube (D) Gastrula Mid part of Fallopian tube 43. Albinism is an inherited condition caused by a recessive allele a. A is the dominant allele for the normal condition. What are the genotypes of individuals R and S? R S (A) AA AA (B) AA Aa (C) Aa Aa (D) aa aa 44. The given figures show different types of animal tissue. Identify their locations and select the correct option.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) Gall bladder Gastric glands Intestinal glands Sweat glands

(ii) Gastric glands Gall bladder Sweat glands Intestinal glands

(iii) Thyroid glands Lungs alveoli Fallopian tubes Bronchi

(iv) Lungs alveoli Bronchi Choroid layer of eye Ciliary body of eye

(v) Fallopian tubes Coelomic cavity Nasal passage Trachea

45. Which phylum do the given animals (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) belong to?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(i) Annelida Annelida Platyhelminthes Platyhelminthes

(ii) Platyhelminthes Platyhelminthes Annelida Annelida

(iii) Coelenterata Echinodermata Coelenterata Echinodermata

46. Refer the given Venn diagram and select the correct

option.

(A) P - Golgi apparatus; R - Microtubules

(B) Q - Endoplasmic reticulum; R - Ribosomes

(C) S - Microtubules; Q - Ribosomes

(D) S - Golgi apparatus; P - Lysosomes Copyright©2015. Science Olympiad Foundation (SOF)

(iv) Echinodermata Coelenterata Echinodermata Coelenterata

15th NSO - SET B

7

47. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : Anti-viral drugs are harder to make. Statement 2 : Viruses are devoid of any biochemical machinery and thus behave like dead particles inside the cells. (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1 (B) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. 48. Read the given statements. (i) Bee wax obtained from beehive is deposition of excretory products of honeybee. (ii) Fish culture is sometimes done in combination with rice crop so that fish are grown in the water accumulated in the paddy field. (iii) Fish feed in different zones of pond to make most efficient use of available food. (iv) Sahiwal and Murrah are exotic breeds used extensively in cattle farming. (v) Inter-cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite pattern. Which of the given statements are incorrect? (A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iv) (D) (i), (iv) and (v) 49. Sort out acute and chronic diseases given in the box and select the correct option. (i) Elephantiasis

(ii) Asthma

(iii) Measles

(iv) Dysentery

(v) Cholera

(vi) Cancer

(vii) Diabetes

(viii) Diarrhoea

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Acute diseases (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (ii), (iv), (vii), (viii) (iii), (iv), (v), (viii) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)

Chronic diseases (iv), (vi), (vii), (viii) (i), (iii), (v), (vi) (i), (ii), (vi), (vii) (i), (ii), (vii), (viii)

50. Rohan grew berseem and cowpea in his field. When the plants were about one foot high, he ploughed them back into soil. What is the most appropriate reason for this? (A) The crop has caught some disease. (B) Extensive growth of berseem has affected growth of cowpea plants. (C) It helps in nutrient enrichment of soil. (D) None of these SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


Class 10 16th

SET A Year 2013


Mental Ability 1.

About the number of pairs which have 16 as their H.C.F and 136 as their L.C.M., we can definitely say that

A. B. C. D.

2.

m, n are zeroes of ax2 + 7x + c. Find the value of a and c if the sum of zeroes is –7 and sum of squares of zeroes is 25.

A. C.

3.

10 students of class X took part in a Mathematics quiz. If the number of girls is 4 more than the number of boys, find the number of boys and girls who took part in the quiz. Which graph represents the solution of the problem?

No such pair exists Only one such pair exist Only two such pairs exist Many such pairs exist

–1, 12 1, 12

B. D.

A. B. C. D.

5.

Which pair of the given quadrilaterals is similar? A.

–1, –12 1, –12

B.

C.

D.

6.

In the given figure, ABC is a triangle and GHED is a rectangle. BC = 12 cm, HE = 6 cm, FC = BF and altitude AF is 24 cm. The ratio of area of rectangle to the area of triangle is

A. B. C. D.

7.

There is a question followed by the three statements. You have to study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement (s) is/are necessary to answer the question. What is the total surface area of the cone?

I. II. III. A. B. C. D.

A.

B.

Ar(DABC) > Ar(DDEF) Ar(DABC) < Ar(DDEF) Ar(DABC) = Ar(DDEF) Can't say

None of these

1 3 4 4

: : : :

4 4 1 3

The area of the base of the cone is 154 cm2. The curved surface area of the cone is 550 cm2. The volume of the cone is 1232 cm3. I, and either II or III II, and either I or III III, and either I or II Any two of the three

C.

D.

8.

4.

Compare the areas of the right angled triangles ABC and DEF in which ∠A = 30°, ∠B = 90°, AC = 4 cm, ∠D = 60°, ∠E = 90° and DE = 4 cm.

A die is numbered in such a way that its faces show the numbers 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 6. It is thrown two times and the total score in two throws is noted. Find the probability that the total score is atleast 6.

A. C.

12/36 11/36


B. D.

10/36 None of these

16th NSO - SET A 9.

2

Which is the wrong step that shows 5 − 3 is irrational?

(I) Contradiction: Assume that 5 − 3 is rational. (II) F i n d c o p r i m e a & b ( b ≠ 0 ) s u c h t h a t a a 5− 3 = , ∴ 5− = 3 b b a 5b − a Rearranging above equation 3 = 5 − = b b a (III) Since a & b are integers, we get 5 − is irrational b and so 3 is irrational. (IV) But this contradicts the fact that 3 is irrational. Hence 5 − 3 is irrational. A. Both I and II B. Only III C. Only II D. Both II and III

10. Find the missing number in the number pattern below.

A. B. C. D.

13. The shaded portion depicts a group of people ___.

B.

C.

D.

11. Housing Board built 100 flats. A painter is engaged to serially number each flat individually from 1 to 100. How many times will he be required to write ONE? A. 21 B. 6 C. 20 D. 18 12. If 123 × 754 = 715243, then 935 × 487 = ? A. 973984 B. 793857 C. 498379 D. 498375

classes, i.e. athletes, politician, cricketers, film stars Who are cricketers and politicians but also are athletes and film stars as well Politicians-turned cricketers who also do athletics as exercise and are friendly with film stars None of these

14. Study the following information to answer the given question.

11 14 20 12

A. Who belong to all

(i) Six books are kept one above the other. (ii) History book is just above Commerce, Mathematics book is between Civics and Physics. (iii) English is between History and Civics. Which book is between Mathematics and English? A. History B. Commerce C. Physics D. Civics

15. Study the following letter-number arrangement and answer the question given below : B 8 4 C R M 9 P D K W FA 2 E J 7 X U Q H LT Y 6 G S L If the first half of the above arrangement is written in reverse order followed by the second half-written in reverse order, which letter/number will be eighteenth from left?

A. C.

Y 7

B. D.

K 6

Science 16. The cable of an electric fan becomes so worn that the live wire makes electrical contact with the metal case. The case is earthed. The plug to the fan contains a 5 A fuse. There is a current of 4 A when the fan works normally. What will happen in this case?

A.

B. C.

D.

The current will run to earth and the fuse will not be affected. The metal case will become very hot. T he met al ca se w ill become live a nd dangerous. The fuse will melt and switch off the circuit.

17. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.

Statement 1 : Two particles moving in the same direction do not lose all their energy in a completely inelastic collision.

Statement 2 : Principle of conservation of momentum holds true for all kinds of collision.

A.

B.

C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

18. A body is suspended from a spring balance kept in a satellite. The reading of the balance is W1 when the satellite goes in an orbit of radius R and is W2 when it goes in an orbit of radius 2R. Then A. W1 = W2 B. W1 < W2 C. W1 > W2 D. W1 ≠ W2


16th NSO - SET A

3

19. Three closed similar coils P, Q and R are placed such that their planes are parallel. In the coil P and R, current of same magnitude flows as shown in the figure. Coils Q and R are static while coil P is moved with a uniform speed towards Q, then

A.

B.

C. D.

Clockwise current will be induced in coil Q, as seen by eye Anti-clockwise current will be induced in coil Q, as seen by eye No current will flow in coil P Current induced in coil Q will be equal to P and R, but in opposite direction, hence net current in Q will be zero.

20. Light is incident normally on face AB of a prism as shown in the figure. A liquid of refractive index n is placed on face AC of the prism. The prism is made of glass of refractive index 3/2. The limits of n for which total internal reflection takes place on face AC is 3 3 A. n > 2 B. n > 3

C.

D.

3 3 n< 4 3 3 n< . 8

21. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I Column II (a) Geothermal energy (i) Obtained from the splitting of atom (b) Nuclear energy (ii) Obtained from the interior of earth (c) Biomass energy (iii) Obtained from the decay of organic matter. A. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii) B. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii) C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i) D. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii)

22. An electric current runs counterclockwise in a rectangular loop around the outside edge of the page which lies flat on your table. A uniform magnetic field is then turned on, directed parallel to the page from the top to bottom. The magnetic force on the page will cause A. The left edge to lift up B. The right edge to lift up C. The top edge to lift up D. The bottom edge to lift up.

23. A sound is played on a flute. A sound of same pitch is played on a trumpet, then the frequency and speed of two sound waves respectively at the same place are A. Different, different B. Same, same C. Different, same D. Same, different 24. Study the given circuit. At which point is the value of current smallest?

A. B. C. D.

P and Q Q only P and R S only

25. The diagram shows the paths

of two rays of light from an object. The object is 10 cm in front of a lens as shown in the diagram. Which of the following statements is true about the given diagram?

A.

B.

C.

D.

The lens is converging and focal length of lens is greater than 10 cm. The lens is converging and focal length of lens is less than 10 cm. The lens is diverging and focal length of lens is greater than 10 cm. The lens is diverging and focal length of lens is less than 10 cm.

26. Vivek was given few models of atoms representing their structures. He was asked to choose one pair of isotopes and one pair of isobars.

17p 18n

18p 22n

(i)

(ii)

17p 20n

20p 20n

(iii) (iv) Which of the following options contains the correct pairs? Isotopes Isobars A. (i) and (ii) (iii) and (iv) B. (i) and (iv) (ii) and (iii) C. (i) and (iii) (ii) and (iv) D. (i) and (iii) None


16th NSO - SET A

4

27. Four metals P, Q, R and S are tested with water, steam and dilute hydrochloric acid. The table given below shows the results of the experiment. Metals

Reaction with Reaction Reaction with water with steam dil. HCl ×

P





× ×     × × × Between which two metals should hydrogen be placed in the series? A. P and Q B. Q and S C. P and R D. R and S Q R S

28. An experimental set up is shown in the figure. Identify the metal X and gas Y respectively in the figure. Metal X Y gas

Glass wool soaked with water

Water Gas jar

Burner

A. C.

Zinc, H2 gas Aluminium, CO2 gas

B. D.

30. The states of matter depending upon the interparticle distances are shown in the following diagram.

The A. B. C. D.

c,d

conditions a, b, c, d are a b c Increase Decrease Increase heat pressure heat Increase Increase Decrease heat pressure heat Decrease Increase Increase heat pressure heat Decrease Increase Decrease heat pressure heat

a.

Column I Column II CaO + H2O → (i) Decomposition Ca(OH)2 reaction

b.

2FeSO4 Heat (ii) Redox reaction Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3

c.

Al + 3AgNO3 → (iii) Combination reaction Al(NO3)3 + 3Ag

d.

2H2S + SO2 → (iv) Displacement reaction 2H2O + 3S

A. B. C. D.

a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)

32. A metal rod M was dipped in a coloured solution Y. After some time it was observed that the metal rod starts dissolving in the solution and the solution starts fading in colour. However, a coloured precipitate Z was seen at the bottom of the beaker. M, Y and Z could be

Copper, CO2 gas Platinum, H2 gas

29. The mass of few entities are mentioned in the column II. Match the two columns and mark the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II a. 10 moles of Na2SO3 (i) 124.5 g b. 1.5 moles of Na (ii) 34.5 g c. 1.5 × 1023 molecules of NH3 (iii) 1260 g d. 0.5 mole of CuSO4·5H2O (iv) 4.23 g A. a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i) B. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) C. a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) D a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)

a,b

31. Match the reactions given in column I with the type of reactions given in column II and mark the correct option from the codes given below.

d Decrease pressure Decrease pressure Decrease pressure Increase pressure

M Y

A. B. C. D.

M M M M

= Zn, = Cu, = Ag, = Fe,

Y Y Y Y

Z

= FeSO4, = Al2(SO4)3, = CuSO4, = ZnSO4,

Z Z Z Z

= Fe = Al = Cu = Zn

33. P is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime. Q is a non-corrosive base and used for faster cooking. On heating R at 373 K, it becomes calcium sulphate hemihydrate. Identify P, Q and R respectively.

A. B. C. D.

CaOCl2 , NaHCO3, gypsum CaO, Na2CO3, CaOCl2 Ca(OH)2 , NaHCO3, CaSO4 CaOCl2 , Na2CO3, NH4Cl

34. An element X belongs to group 2 and period 3 of the periodic table. The chemical formulae of its nitrate, sulphate and phosphate respectively will be

A. B. C. D.

X(NO3)2 , X NO3, X3(NO3)2 , X(NO3)3,


XSO4, XSO4, X2(SO4)2 , X2(SO4)3,

X3(PO4)2 XPO4 X2(PO4)3 X2(PO4)3

16th NSO - SET A

5

35. A drop of a sample of food colouring (X ) and four dyes (P, Q, R and S) are put onto a chromatography paper. The four dyes are banned because they are not safe to consume.

X

P

Q

R

A. B. C. D.

X contains P and Q dyes. Dyes P and S are mixtures of two different dyes. X contains R dye. Dyes P and R are pure.

36. Refer to the given flow chart for kingdom Plantae. Plant body is differentiated into No X true roots, stem and leaves Yes No Plants possess seeds Y Yes

C.

D.

S

Study the given chromatogram carefully and choose the correct statement among the following.

Z Select the correct statement regarding X, Y and Z. A. X can be thallophytes such as algae and fungi. B. Y can be bryophytes or pteridophytes. C. Y can be cryptogams such as pteridophytes. D. Z can be angiosperms only.

39. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : The trees that are present on road sides, usually do not show the growth of lichens. Statement 2 : Lichens are very sensitive to the levels of contaminants like SO2 present in air. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. D. Both statements 1 and 2 are false. 40. Study the given pedigree chart. The disease is caused by a recessive allele t and T is the dominant allele for normal condition.

A.

B.

C.

D.

Walls of the arteries are elastic, enabling them to stretch and contract with changes in blood pressure. Blood pressure in the veins is normally too low for blood to return to the heart without the action of skeletal muscles. Because of their small size, the blood in capillaries move more quickly than in other parts of circulatory system. Veins are typically larger in diameter than the arteries.

Key

I 1

Normal female

2

Normal male

II 1

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

the tissue is referred to as ciliated columnar epithelium. In mucous membrane of stomach, these cells develop mucus secreting cells called goblet cells and the tissue is referred to as glandular columnar epithelium. In the nephrons of kidneys, these cells possess cilia which keep the urine moving and the tissue is called as ciliated columnar epithelium.

Diseased female

2

Diseased male

III 1

2

3

Work out the genotypes of individuals from the given pedigree chart and select the correct option.

A. B. C. D.

I-2 Tt TT Tt tt

II-1 tt tt tt Tt

III-2 Tt Tt TT Tt

41. Given figure shows a part of the food web in terrestrial ecosystem.

38. Identify the given type of animal tissue and select the incorrect statement regarding this.

A.

B.

In the intestinal mucosa, these cells possess microvilli to increase the absorptive surface area and the tissue is called as brush- bordered columnar epithelium. In Fallopian tubes of females, these cells possess cilia for the movement of ovum/zygote and

Which of the following correctly represents pyramid of energy based on the given food web? A. C.


B.

D.

16th NSO - SET A

6

42. Refer the given experi mental set-up in which a ring of bark alongwith the phloem is removed from the stem and select the incorrect statement regarding this.

A.

B. C.

D.

Swelling of the stem occurs above the ring due to accumulation of nutrients. Downward translocation of food is blocked. Roots are starved and killed first due to non-availability of food. The experiment demonstrates that phloem is responsible for upward conduction of water and minerals.

43. Match different hormones given in Column-I with their respective functions given in Column-II and select the correct option from codes given below. a.

Column-I Column-II Luteinizing (i) Regulates calcium and hormone (LH) phosphate levels in blood b. Thyroxine (ii) Stimulates the rate of cellular oxidation and metabolism c. Oxytocin (iii) Stimulates the secretion of male sex hormones

d. Parathyroid (iv) Stimulates contraction of hormone (PTH) smooth muscles at the time of child birth A. a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) B. a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i) C. a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii) D. a-(i), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv) 44. Which of the following is not an example of natural method of vegetative propagation in plants? A. Roots in case of sweet potato and Dahlia B. Stem in case of potato and ginger C. Leaves in case of Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe D. Stem in case of rose and sugarcane 45. Which of the following statements correctly describes the light reactions and dark reactions taking place during photosynthesis?

(i)

Light reactions occur in grana thylakoids whereas dark reactions occur in stroma of chloroplasts. (ii) Light reactions generate ATP and NADPH2 whereas dark reactions consume ATP and NADPH2. (iii) Oxygen is released as a by-product during the light reactions as well as dark reactions. (iv) Light reactions take place in the presence of light and dark reactions are independent of the products formed during light reactions. A. (i) and (ii) B. (iii) and (iv) C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Achievers Section Direction (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given reactions and answer the following questions. X

Hot conc. H2SO4 

CH3CH2OH

Alk. KMnO4 

Y

+Y Z

46. Identify X, Y and Z respectively.

A. B. C. D.

CH3COOH, CH2 — — CH2 , CH3COOCH3 CH2 — — CH2 , CH3COOH, CH3COOCH2CH3 HCHO, CH3CH3, CH3CH2COOH CH3CH3, HCHO, CH3COOH

47. What are the types of reactions occurring in the formation of X, Y and Z respectively?

A. B. C. D.

Oxidation, Reduction, Substitution Substitution, Esterification, Dehydration Reduction, Substitution, Oxidation Dehydration, Oxidation, Esterification

48. Read the following statements. (a) Allergy is caused due to _____ response of immune system towards foreign antigens. (b) Syphilis and gonorrhoea are the sexually transmitted diseases, which are caused by ______. (c) Down's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome are the (i) diseases, which are caused by (ii) . (d) Penicillin is a ______ antibiotic, which inhibits the growth of a number of bacterial pathogens by blocking the metabolic processes which build the cell wall in bacteria. Select the correct fill-ups for any two of the above statements. A. (a) Exaggerated (d) Narrow-spectrum B. (b) Bacteria (c) (i) Congenital (ii) Chromosomal mutations C. (c) (i) Acute (ii) Chromosomal mutations (d) Broad-spectrum D. (a) Hypersensitive (b) Protozoans


16th NSO - SET A

7

49. The position-time graph of a particle of mass 40 g is shown here. Which of the following statement is true about the graph?

A.

B.

C.

D.

The particle 8 × 10–4 kg m s–1 The particle 8 × 10–4 kg m s–1 The particle 4 × 10–4 kg m s–1 The particle 4 × 10–4 kg m s–1

receives after every receives after every receives after every receives after every

an 1 s. an 2 s. an 1 s. an 2 s.

impulse of impulse of impulse of impulse of

50. Refer the given diagrammatical sections of mitochondrion (i) and chloroplast (ii), in which some of the parts have been incorrectly labelled. Identify them and select the correct option.

A. B. C. D.

(i) 80 S ribosomes Oxysomes Mitochondrial DNA 80 S ribosomes



(ii) Grana thylakoids Grana thylakoids Chloroplast DNA Stroma

Class 10 16th

SET B Year 2013


Mental Ability 1.

2.

Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find the probability of getting a multiple of 2 on first dice and a multiple of 3 on the second dice. 4 A. 6 2 B. 6 1 C. 6 1 D. 36 In a village there are 30% educated people and 60% of total population is females. If there are 20% educated females and shaded portion in the diagram is educated population, which of the figures will best describe the situation.

A. B. C. D.

3.

If sinq + cosq = x, then sin6q + cos6q =

A.

B.

C.

D.

4.

Five executives — A, B, C, D and E of a European Corporation hold a conference in Rome: (i) A converses in Spanish and Italian. (ii) B converses in Spanish and English. (iii) C converses in English and Italian. (iv) D converses in French and Spanish. (v) E, a native Italian, can also converse in French.

One number is chosen from numbers 1 to 200. Find the probability that it is divisible by 4 and 6 both.

A.

B.

C.

D.

6.

There is a question below followed by two statements. Read the question carefully and choose which of the statements I and II is/are necessary?

I.

7.

4 − 3( x 2 − 1)2 4

4 − 3( x 2 + 1)2 4 3 − 4( x 2 − 1)2 4 3 − 4( x 2 + 1)2 4

8.

Which of the following, can act as an interpreter when C and D wish to confirm? A. A only B. B only C. None of A, B and E D. Any of the other three executives

17 200 67 200 31 200 None of these

Who is the father of D if A and B are the sons of D?

R Q S P

5.

9.

C is the brother of A and the son of E.

II. F is the mother of D. A. Only I B. Only II C. Neither I nor II D. I and II both Fill in the blanks. Every composite number can be expressed as a product of _______ , and this factorization is unique except for the order in which the prime factors occur. A. Co-primes B. Twin primes C. Primes D. All of these The diagram shows the net of the right cylinder. Find the volume of the cylinder, in cm3. 20 A. π 50 B. π 25 C. π D. 40 p There are some numbers in a matrix that follow a certain rule row-wise or column-wise. Identify the number, which will replace the question mark? A. 12 4 7 5 B. 13 40 88 54 C. 11 8 ? 9 D. 10


16th NSO - SET B

2

10. If l the last term, d the common difference and 's' the sum of n terms (n ≠ 1) and 'a' the first term of an A.P. be connected by the equation 8ds = (d + 2l)2, then d = A. 2a B. a C. 3a D. 4a x 1 y 1 −z 1 = , = , = , then the 2 7+ 5 2 5+ 3 4 3+ 7 value of x3 + y3 + z3 – 2xyz is

11. If

A.

4 5 − 2 7 + 12 3

B.

−2 7 + 4 5 − 12 3

C.

2 7 − 4 5 − 12 3

D.

2 3+2 7 −4 5

A. B. C. D.

4:9 9 : 16 16 : 9 9 : 4

14. In a certain code language if GOD is coded as 6 – 8 – 14 – 16 – 3 – 5, then BEN is coded as A. 1 – 3 – 4 – 6 – 13 – 15 B. 1 – 2 – 4 – 6 – 13 – 15 C. 1 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 13 – 15 D. 1 – 3 – 4 – 6 – 14 – 25 15. The following data gives the distribution of total household expenditure (in rupees) of manual workers in a city:

12. Study the following arrangement of letters and digits carefully. Hence, answer the question given below it. N P D FA I G L O 4 K W C R N 9 X U Q F J 7 M N 3 4 T If starting from F every 4th element (including F) is replaced by the successive names of the days of the week starting with Sunday then which will be the position of Thursday from your right? A. 19th B. 16th th C. 8 D. 9th 13. In the given figure, LM || NQ and LN || PQ. If 1 MP = MN , find the ratio of areas of DLMN and 3 DQNP.

Expenditure Frequency Expenditure Frequency (in `) (in `)

1000-1500

24

3000-3500

30

1500-2000

40

3500-4000

22

2000-2500

33

4000-4500

16

2500-3000

28

4500-5000

7

Find the average expenditure which is being done by the maximum number of manual workers. A. 1500 B. 1660.896 C. 1647.826 D. 1847.826

Science 16. A fisherman is standing on the bank of a lake. To a fish under water, viewing obliquely the man looks A. Taller than what he actually is B. Shorter than what he actually is C. The same height as he actually is D. Depends on the obliquity

18. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in figure. AB and CD are perpendicular to each other and symmetrically placed with respect to the currents. The resultant magnetic field is expected to be zero on

17. Six identical resistors are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance will be

A.

AB

B.

CD

C.

Both AB and CD

D.

Both OD and BO

A. B. C. D.

Maximum between A and C. Maximum between B and C. Maximum between A and B. None of these

19. Two wires of the same material having lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and diameters in the ratio 2 : 3 are connected in series with an accumulator. Find the ratio of potential difference across two wires. A. 1 : 3 B. 3 : 4 C. 9 : 8 D. 8 : 9


16th NSO - SET B

3

20. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II 1 141 (a) Nuclear fusion (i) 235 92 U + 0 n → 56 Ba 92 1 + 36Kr + 3 0n + Q

(b) (c) (d) A. B. C. D.

Nuclear fission (ii) Liquid Hydrogen Nuclear fuel (iii) Plutonium Rocket fuel (iv) 12 H + 12H → 42He + Q a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(iii) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i)

21. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : A total reflecting prism is used to erect the inverted image without deviation. Statement-2 : Rays of light incident parallel to the base of prism emerge out as parallel rays. A. Both statements-1 and 2 are true and statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1. B. Both statements-1 and 2 are true but statement-2 is not the correct explanation of statement-1. C. Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false. D. Both statements-1 and 2 are false. 22. A railway engine whistling at a constant frequency moves with a constant speed. It goes past a stationary observer standing beside the railway track. The frequency (f ) of the sound heard by the observer is plotted against time(t). Which of the following best represents the resulting curve?

A.

f

B.

f t

t

C.

f

t

D.

f t

23. A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in a circular orbit about the earth. An object of mass m is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the earth. At the time of its ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is 1 2 mv A. 2 1 2 mv B. 4 C. mv2 D. 2mv2

24. A gun fires bullets each of mass 1 g with velocity of 10 m s–1 by exerting a constant force of 5 g weight. Then the number of bullets fired per second is (Take g = 10 m s–2) A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 25. A concave mirror is placed on a horizontal table, with its axis directed vertically upwards. Let O be the pole of the mirror and C its centre of curvature. A point object is placed at C. It has a real image, also located at C. If the mirror is now filled with water, the image will be A. Real, and will remain at C. B. Real, and located at a point between C and ∞. C. Virtual, and located at a point between C and O. D. Real, and located at a point between C and O. 26. A mixture of sodium chloride and calcium carbonate is separated using the steps given below. In which order should the steps be carried out?

A. C.

1, 2 then 3 1, 3 then 2

B. D.

2, 1 then 3 3, 1 then 2

27. Ankita was given an element Q which belongs to group 2 and period 2 of the periodic table. Which of the following properties would it exhibit? A. Liquid, Non-metallic, Monovalent B. Solid, Metallic, Divalent C. Gaseous, Non-metallic, Trivalent D. Solid, Non-metallic, Divalent 28. Few properties of substances P, Q, R and S are given below. Conductivity Melting Boiling Brittleness In solid In molten Point Point state state P 342 K 412 K × × × Q 1045 K 1900 K ×   R 821 K 542 K ×   236 K S 42 K ×   Which of the four substances represents calcium chloride? A. P B. Q C. R D. S


16th NSO - SET B

4

29. What is the chemical formula of the compound formed when 24 X combines with 199Y? 12 A. XY B. X2Y C. XY2 D. X2Y3

34. What is the particle shown in the given diagram?

30. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option from the codes given below. Column I Column II a. Cleaning agent for (i) Sodium hydrogen domestic purpose carbonate b. In soda-acid fire (ii) Bleaching powder extinguishers c. Disinfecting (iii) Sodium hydroxide drinking water d. De-greasing metals, (iv) Sodium carbonate Paper making A. a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii) B. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) C. a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(iv), d-(i) D. a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii)

35. The diagrams given below show the electron arrangement in the outer shells of five elements, 1 to 5. All elements are from period 3 of the periodic table.

31. Which of the following statements about the given chemical reactions is wrong? A. Calcium hydroxide reacts instantly with the carbon dioxide in air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. B. Reaction in which heat is released along with the formation of products are exothermic reactions. 340 atm C. CO(g) + 2H2(g) CH3OH(l) D. Decomposition of silver chloride to silver and chlorine occurs in presence of light. 32. Three elements X, Y and Z have consecutive, increasing proton (atomic) numbers. If element X is a noble gas, what will be the symbol for the ion of element Z in its compounds? A. Z 2– B. Z + 2+ C. Z D. Z 3+ 33. The table given below gives information about four unknown substances (Room temperature = 30°C).

Substance

Melting point (°C)

Boiling point (°C)

I

–188

– 40

II

–110

34

III

16

117

IV

37

340

Which of the following substances is a volatile liquid? A. I B. II C. III D. IV

A.

F–

B.

N3–

C. D.

Ne O2–

1 2 3 4 5 Which two elements will form a compound with the YZ 2 type formula? A. 4 and 2 B. 5 and 2 C. 3 and 5 D. Both A and B

36. Auxin is a phytohormone which is synthesized in the tips of plant shoots. In an experiment, a young shoot was taken and placed in a box. Light was allowed to reach towards it only from a hole. Which one of the following diagrams correctly depicts the movement of auxin after one hour of exposure to light? [X is the region where auxin is formed.]

A.

B.

C.

D.

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Pesticides on entering the food chain, accumulate in high amount in the bodies of higher predators which causes damage to the ecosystem. B. Blood in arteries has more oxygen than blood in veins, except for the pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins. C. When blood is spinned in a centrifuge to separate plasma from the blood cells (RBCs, WBCs, platelets etc.), blood cells constitute the supernatant and plasma constitutes the pellet. D. Poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low-fibre food stuff (which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious protein food.


16th NSO - SET B

5

38. Study the given flow chart regarding some cell organelles present in a cell.

Which of the following options is incorrect regarding X, Y and Z? A. Organelle X can transform solar energy into chemical energy of carbohydrates. B. Enzymes of organelle Y are present in the acrosome of human sperm cell which digest the limiting membrane of ovum during fertilization. C. On starvation, organelle Z digests stored food contents and other cellular components; this process is called as autophagy. D. Organelle X can bring about stepwise oxidation of carbohydrates to produce CO2 and water.

39.

40. With respect to typical Mendelian inheritance, which of the following statements is true for a cross between a tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and a dwarf plant with green seeds (ttyy)? A. Tall plants with yellow seeds and dwarf plants with green seeds are produced in equal proportion. B. Both genotypic as well as phenotypic ratios obtained are same, i.e., 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. C. This cites an example of a test cross which is performed to identify the genotype of an unknown parent. D. All of these 41. Which of the following is an incorrect match? Disease Causative Mode of organism transmission A. Pulmonary Bacterium Airborne and tuberculosis droplet infection B. Gonorrhoea Bacterium Through sexual contact C. Dengue Virus Through vector Culex mosquito D. Ringworm Fungus From clothes of infected person 42. The diagrammatic section given below shows exchange of gases between an alveolus and a pulmonary blood capillary.

Given graph shows the percentage yield of a crop in two crop fields A and B, over a period of time. Analyze the graph and select the correct statements regarding crop fields A and B. (i) In crop field A, chemical fertilizers are added which do not immediately supply the nutrients and thus the highest peak is slightly delayed. (ii) In crop field B, addition of manures results in sudden increase in crop yield due to more supply of N, P, K nutrients. (iii) In crop field B, chemical fertilizers are added and the gradual decline in crop yield is due to killing of the useful microbes in the soil as a result of persistence of chemicals. (iv) Crop field A is supplied with manure as it is consistently beneficial for the yield of crop, whereas crop field B is supplied with chemical fertilizer as it decreases yield of crop eventually. A. (i) and (ii) B. (iii) and (iv) C. (i), (ii) and (iv) D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Identify the labels (P, Q, R and S) and select the incorrect option regarding this. A. P – Contain a red pigment B. Q – O2 diffuses from the alveoli to the blood C. R – O2 diffuses from the blood to the alveoli D. S – Blood with high CO2 content

43. The plant tissue shown in the given figure is A. A simple permanent tissue, which stores food material. B. A complex permanent tissue, which stores food material. C. A simple permanent tissue which provides mechanical strength due to the presence of wall thickenings. D. A complex permanent tissue that performs conduction of water and minerals.


16th NSO - SET B

6

44. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement-1 : Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of biosphere consisting of abiotic and biotic components, which interact with each other and maintain a balance in nature. Statement-2 : In an ecosystem, energy and matter are continuously exchanged between living and nonliving components. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.

C. D.

Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

45. The diagram shows a foetus developing in a uterus. Which of the labelled parts prevents dessication of the foetus and acts as a protective cushion that absorbs shocks?

A.

P

B.

Q

C.

R

D.

S

Achievers Section DIRECTION (Q. 46 & 47) : Refer the given passage and answer the following questions. On the basis of reactivity, we can group the metals into the following three categories : (i) Metals of low reactivity. (ii) Metals of medium reactivity. (iii) Metals of high reactivity. Different techniques are to be used for obtaining the metals falling in each category. 46. The metals high up in the reactivity series are obtained by A. Reduction with carbon B. Electrolytic reduction C. Reduction by heating D. Displacement reaction 47. Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(l) + Al2O3(s) The above reaction is known as highly Y . What are X and Y respectively? A. Electrolysis, endothermic B. Refining, endothermic C. Calcination, exothermic D. Thermite reaction, exothermic

X

and it is

48. The velocity-time graph for a vehicle is shown below. Which among the following is the corresponding acceleration time graph?

A.

B.

C.

D.

49. Read the following statements. a. __________ are the plants with well differentiated reproductive tissues which ultimately produce seeds. b. Well-developed individuals breed more successfully than those who are less well-developed and pass on their genes to next generation. This process is called as _____________. c. Nictitating membrane and coccyx bone in human beings are the examples of __________ organs. d. ___________ is always an active, energy-requiring process involving contractions mainly of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles. e. Through the process of __________, cells formed by meristematic tissues lose the capacity to divide, transform into permanent tissue and become specialized to perform certain specific functions. Select the option which correctly fills the blanks in any two of the above statements. A. (a) Cryptogams (b) Natural selection B. (c) Vestigial (d) Expiration C. (a) Phanaerogams (e) Differentiation D. (b) Struggle for existence (d) Inspiration


16th NSO - SET B

7

50. Study the following features. – Triploblastic animal – Body can be divided into two similar halves by only one plane passing through longitudinal axis of body – No body cavity present between epidermis and gastrodermis – D igestive system is branched and incomplete without anus. Identify the animal on the basis of above given features.

A.

B.

C.

D.



Class 10 17th

SET A Year 2014


17th NSO - SET A

2

Logical reasoning 1.

2.

If yesterday was Saturday’s tomorrow and tomorrow is Wednesday’s yesterday, then what day would it be today? A. Sunday B. Monday C. Tuesday D. Friday

ba A. C.

4.

6.

In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Select the correct option.

3.

A. C.

acbb bcab

cb

b

4 6

B. D.

5 2

There are seven figures, the first and last of which are unmarked, and the remaining are marked as P, Q, R, S and T. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five marked figures does not fit into the series. Identify that figure in the given options.

bab B. D.

bacc cabb

Study the following information and answer the question given below. I. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing in a row facing North. II. B is not a neighbour of G. III. F is at the immediate right of G and neighbour of E. IV. G is not at the extreme end. V. A is sixth to the left of E. VI. H is sixth to the right of C. After making the linear arrangement, we join them to form a circular arrangement by joining A and H. Which of the following is the odd one out? A. B-D B. E-F C. A-C D. H-G The positions of four policemen A, B, C and D is given in a circular park. The park is divided into sixteen plots. P, Q, R and K are the offenders whom they have to catch after given moves. The given figure shows their positions. (Note that the by-lanes are North-South and East-West.)

A. C.

P R

B. D.

Q S

7.

A large cube is dipped into a tub filled with colour. When the cube is taken out, it is observed that all its sides are painted. This large cube is now cut into 125 small but identical cubes. How many of the smaller cubes have exactly three faces painted? A. 4 B. 8 C. 9 D. None of these

8.

Select the mirror image of given combination, if the mirror is placed vertically to the left.

9.

A. C.

B. D.

Following two figures show the expenditure on various items by families A and B. Which of the conclusions given below is not correct?

5.

If A, B, C and D were to move clockwise four plots and P, Q, R and K were to move anti-clockwise six plots, then out of the given options, who two would be North and South respectively? A. P and A B. R and D C. Q and B D. P and C In the following number series, how many 4s are there, which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 4? 534648947645748448023431472

A. B. C. D.

A spends B spends B spends A spends

more on food than B. more on clothing than A. equal amounts on food and clothing. more on rent than on any other item.

10. In a certain code language, the letters immediate next to vowels are replaced with D, all other consonants with preceding letters and the vowels are replaced with Z. How will the word STANDING be written in that code language? A. RSZMCZMF B. TSZMCZFM C. RSZMCZDF D. RSZDCZDF


17th NSO - SET A

3

11. In the following question, a related pair of figures is followed by four other pairs of figures. Out of the four pairs, select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the question pair. The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.

A.

A.

B.

C.

D.

14. P is the son of Q while Q and R are sisters to one another. T is the mother of R. If S is the son of T, which of the following statements is correct? A. T is the brother of Q. B. S is the cousin of P. C. Q and S are sisters. D. S is the maternal uncle of P.

B.

C.

15. Figures P, Q and R shows a sequence of folding of a piece of paper. Figure R shows the manner in which the folded paper has been cut. Select a figure from the options which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of figure R.

D.

12. A set of figures carrying certain characters is given. Assuming that the characters in each set follow a similar pattern, find the missing character. A.

13

B.

15

C.

17

D.

19

A.

B.

C.

D.

13. Select the figure from the options which will replace the question mark (?) in the given series.

Science 16. A body is suspended from a spring balance kept in a satellite. The reading of the balance is W1 when the satellite goes in an orbit of radius R and is W2 when it goes in an orbit of radius 2R. Then A. W1 = W2 B. W1 < W2 C. W1 > W2 D. W1 ≠ W2 17. Read the given statements and mark the correct option. Statement 1 : Magnetic field is not associated with a stationary charge. Statement 2 : Magnetic field can be detected by means of its effect on a current carrying conductor. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.

B. C. D.

Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

18. Three identical resistors are connected across a voltage source V such that one of them is in parallel with other two, which are connected in series as shown. The power dissipated through the first one, compared to the power dissipated by each of the other two is _______. A. The same B. Half as much C. Twice as much D. Four times as much V


17th NSO - SET A

4

19. A coordinate axis as shown in figure is kept in front of a converging lens at a distance 2f from it, where Y f is the focal length of the lens. Which of the following shows the approximate shape of the X image? Assume that X-axis is the principal axis of the lens. Z Y Z X

A.

Z

Y

C.

Z

Y

D.

X

X

B.

X Y

Z

20. A box of mass 2 kg has an initial speed of 10 m s–1 at the foot of the ramp. Given that the friction along the ramp is 2 N, –1 s find the height h that h m 10 the box reaches when its 60° 2 kg speed is 5 m s–1. –1 (Take g = 10 N kg ) A. 2.5 m B. 3.4 m C. 4.0 m D. 6.0 m 21. A boy stands between two vertical walls. After making a loud clap, he hears two echoes at an interval of 1 s. If the distance between the two walls is 1000 m, what is his distance from the nearest wall? (Take speed of sound = 300 m s–1). A. 425 m B. 215 m C. 265 m D. 365 m 22. Energy released in the fission of 1 kg of U-235 is equivalent to energy obtained from burning of coal weighing approximately ______. A. 25 ton B. 250 ton C. 2500 ton D. 25000 ton 23. A glass sphere of radius 1 m and refractive index 3 is silvered at its back. A point object is kept at 2 a distance of 1 m from the front face, as shown in figure. Find the position of the final image. −5 A. m 1m 7 7 m B. 1m 5

C.

−13 m 7

D.

7 m 13

24. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its initial direction, travelling in air. The particle is seen to follow the path as shown in the figure. (i) The magnetic field Entry strength may have been increased while the particle was travelling in air. B (ii) The particle lost energy by ionising the air. (iii) The particle lost charge by ionising the air. Which of the above statements is/are correct? A. (ii) only B. (i) and (ii) C. (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (ii) and (iii) 25. The height of mercury in a barometer at sea level is higher than that at the top of a hill. Which of the following inferences about this observation is correct? A. The air molecules at sea level have higher mass than that of at the top of a hill. B. The air molecules at sea level experience less gravitational force than that of at the top of a hill. C. The air molecules per unit volume at sea level are greater than that of at the top of a hill. D. The speed of air molecules at sea level is lower than that of at the top of a hill. 26. Nandita mixed two solutions X and Y. She recorded the following observations and conclusions in her notebook. I. A yellow precipitate is formed. II. It is a double displacement reaction. The solutions X and Y respectively are A. Pb(NO3)2 , KI B. AgNO3, NaCl C. Na2SO4, BaCl2 D. FeCl3, NH4OH 27. Which of the following is not an isotope of the other three? A. C.

7p 8n 7p 6n

B.

D.

8p 9n 7p 7n

28. Compound X decolourises acidified potassium dichromate to produce an acid with a pH value of 4.5. Which of the following could be the structure of X? A. CH3CH2COOH B. CH3CH2CH2OH D. CH3CH2CH3 C. CH2 CH CH3


17th NSO - SET A

5

29. The positions of four elements K, L, M and N in the periodic table are shown below : Group 13 K – Ga

Group 14 – L M

Group 15 – – N

Which of the following statements are correct? I. K, L, M and N are metalloids. II. K is a metal while L, M and N are non-metals. III. Among these four elements, K is the smallest in size. IV. K is a metal while L and M are metalloids and N is a non‑metal. A. II and III B. I and III C. III and IV D. None of these 30. Five students have different amounts of substances. Nitika : 6.022 × 1024 atoms of Ca Sagar : 2 g of C Pooja : 0.5 g atom of Ag Ranjan : 0.3 mole of H2SO4 Yash : 6.022 × 1025 atoms of CO2 [At. wts. of Ag = 108 u, S = 32 u, Ca = 40 u, C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u] Arrange the students in decreasing order of masses of the substances that they have. A. Sagar > Ranjan > Pooja > Nitika > Yash B. Yash > Nitika > Ranjan > Pooja > Sagar C. Yash > Nitika > Pooja > Ranjan > Sagar D. Pooja > Sagar > Yash > Ranjan > Nitika 31. Four solutions labelled as P, Q, R and S have pH values 1, 9, 3 and 13 respectively. Which of the following statements about the given solutions is incorrect? A. Solution P has higher concentration of hydrogen ions than solution R. B. Solution Q has lower concentration of hydroxyl ions than solution S. C. Solutions P and Q will turn red litmus solution blue. D. Solution P is highly acidic while solution Q is weakly basic. 32. The atomic numbers of some elements are given below : Element

M

N

O

P

Q

Atomic number

15

9

3

18

12

The number of valence electrons 8, 2, 1, 7 and 5 respectively are present in A. Q, P, O, N, M B. N, O, Q, M, P C. P, Q, O, N, M D. O, P, N, M, Q

33. Three hydrocarbons X, Y and Z are shown below: X : CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3; Y :

Z : CH3CH2 CH CH CH3 Identify the incorrect statements about these three hydrocarbons. I. X and Y both differ by a CH2 unit. II. X and Z have the same boiling point. III. All have different general formulae. IV. Y and Z have different molecular masses. A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. All the statements are incorrect.

34. Study the given graphs carefully.

Graph-1 : The heating curve of substance P

Graph-2 : The cooling curve of substance Q

Which of the following statements is correct? A. The melting point of the substance P is 200°C. B. The boiling point of the substance Q is 50°C. C. At point ‘b’, the substance P exists in both solid and liquid states. D. At point ‘x’, the substance Q exists in both liquid and gaseous states while at point ‘d’, the substance P exists in both gaseous and liquid states. 35. Aditya accidentally mixed copper sulphate crystals with sand. How can he recover the copper sulphate crystals? 1. Add water to the mixture and filter. 2. Evaporate the filtrate to dryness. 3. Heat the filtrate until it is saturated, and let it cool. 4. Wash the residue, and dry it between sheets of filter paper. A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1 and 4


17th NSO - SET A

6

36. Identify the given organisms, match them with their peculiar features as shown in the table and select the option with all the correct matches.

(i) P Q R S A. B. C. D.

(ii)

(iii)

Unicellular Multicellular Prokaryotic Eukaryotic (i) P, R, U, V P, R, V, T P, R, U, V P, R, V, T

T U V W

(ii) P, S, V P, S, V P, S, V P, S, V

39. Given are different parts of respiratory tract. P. Nasal cavity Q. Alveolar duct R. Larynx S. Respiratory bronchioles T. Epiglottis U. Terminal bronchioles V. Lobular bronchioles W. Trachea X. Bronchus Which path a molecule of carbon dioxide in the alveolus of the inferior lobe of lung takes on its journey to the outside? A. Q → U → S → V → X → W → R → T → P B. Q → S → U → V → X → W → T → R → P C. Q → S → U → V → X → W → R → T → P D. Q → S → U → X → V → W → R → T → P

(iv)

Cell wall present Cell wall absent Autotrophic Heterotrophic (iii) P, S, W, U P, S, U, W Q, S, W, U P, S, W, U

(iv) Q, S, V, W Q, S, U, W Q, S, T, W Q, S, T, W

37. Albumin is the most abundant protein in blood plasma, accounting for approximately 60% of all plasma protein. A person was found to have reduced level of plasma albumin due to kidney damage. Which of the labelled part(s) would you expect to be the primary site of damage for this patient?

40. A large forest area got burnt in a massive fire. The species that would invade such bared area to rapidly colonize it have __________ , __________ and __________ characteristics. Fill up the blanks from the given choices and select the correct option. (i) Long lifespan (ii) Rapid reproduction (iii) Fast growth (iv) Strong dispersal ability (v) Strong defense against natural enemies or predators. (vi) Large sized individuals A. (i), (ii), (iii) B. (ii), (iii), (iv) C. (i), (iv), (vi) D. (iii), (iv), (vi) 41. (i) SER (ii) Golgi apparatus (iii) Lysosome (v) Ribosome

A. C.

U, T R only

B. D.

P only P, Q, S

38. Four seedlings of equal size and length are taken and given different treatments: Plant P : Tip not removed, nothing applied. Plant Q : Tip removed, nothing applied. Plant R : Tip removed, gelatin block was placed on cut edge. Plant S : Tip removed, gelatin block with auxin was placed on cut edge. What would be the correct order of growth rates of the plants? A. S > P > R > Q B. S > R > P > Q C. P > R > Q > S D. P > S > Q > R

(iv) RER (vi) ER

Using the words in the box complete the synthesis process of digestive enzymes before their exocytosis then select the option that will complete the following passage correctly. 1. The (a) provides extensive surface on which (b) carry protein synthesis or synthesis of digestive enzymes. 2. Synthesized enzymes enter (c) and then (d) for modification. 3. The modified enzymes are stored in (e) which pass outwardly and fuse with plasma membrane during exocytosis. (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) A. (iv) (v) (vi) (ii) (iii) B. (iv) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii) C. (i) (v) (vi) (ii) (iii) D. (i) (v) (vi) (iii) (ii)


17th NSO - SET A

7

42. R is an organic compound containing only carbon, chlorine and fluorine. It is produced as a volatile derivative of methane, ethane and propane. It has been widely used as refrigerant, propellent and solvent. Montreal protocol phased out manufacture of such compounds because R contributes to S in the atmosphere. Which of the following would not be a consequence of S? A. Increased incidence of severe sunburns B. Increased incidence of cataracts C. Increased incidence of premature skin aging D. Increased rates of lung cancer 43. Rohan made the following statements regarding the section of a tissue as shown in the given figure. (i) It provides mechanical support to the plants. (ii) Its cell wall shows localized thickenings. (iii) Cells are dead. (iv) Cells are filled with protoplasm and have narrow lumen. (v) Cells have hard secondary walls. (vi) It is distributed in almost all parts of the plant body. Which among them are incorrect?

A. C.

(i), (iii), (iv), (v) (ii), (iv), (vi)

B. D.

(ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (ii), (iv), (v)

44. The given graph shows the concentration of dissolved oxygen along a river. At which point is sewage emptied into the river? A.

P

B.

Q

C.

R

D.

S

45. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Increased egg production (i) Viral disease (b) White leghorn (ii) Carp (c) Ranikhet (iii) Fish by-product (d) Isinglass (iv) Layers (e) Silver carp (v) Exotic fish (f) Bombay duck (vi) Silver revolution (g) Rohu and Catla (vii) Marine fish (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) A. (iv) (vi) (i) (iii) (v) (vii) (ii) B. (vi) (iv) (i) (iii) (vii) (v) (ii) C. (vi) (iv) (i) (vii) (v) (iii) (ii) D. (vi) (iv) (i) (iii) (v) (vii) (ii)

Achievers Section Direction (Q. 46 & 47): Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions. Metals are extracted from their ores by different methods depending on their position in the activity series.

A. B. C. D.

(a)-(v), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii), (e)-(i) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(v), (e)-(i) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iv)

47. Metals which are extracted by heating, electrolysis and by reduction with carbon respectively are A. Copper, magnesium, zinc B. Mercury, aluminium, lead C. Mercury, sodium, calcium D. Both A and B

46. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below. Column-I Column-II (a) Highly reactive metals (i) S (b) Calcination (ii) T (c) Electrolytic reduction (iii) P (d) Less reactive metals (iv) R (e) Roasting (v) Q

48. The dwarf variety of garden pea plants are now known to have a mutation in a gene needed for synthesis of gibberellin. F1 plant obtained by Mendel from the tall (TT) × dwarf (tt) cross were tall. Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the given information? (i) Gibberellin causes elongation of stems. (ii) Heterozygous (Tt) plants produce the same amount of gibberellin as homozygous dominant (TT) plants. (iii) Gibberellin induces production of auxin. (iv) Mutation may have occurred in a gene producing an enzyme.


17th NSO - SET A

A. C.

(i) and (ii) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

8

B. D.

(ii), (iii) and (iv) (i), (ii) and (iv)

49. The given figure shows monthly changes in the human ovary during the reproductive cycle.

B. C.

D.

The hormone produced by structure ‘R’stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete luteinizing hormone. The hormone produced by structure ‘S’ is responsible for the development of female secondary sex characters. The hormones produced by ‘P’ and ‘Q’ stimulate the proliferation of the endometrial lining of the uterine wall.

50. A particle starts from rest at time t = 0 and moves in a straight line with acceleration as plotted in given graph. The speed of the particle will be maximum at time ____.

Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the labelled structure(s)? A. Before puberty, only structure ‘T’ undergoes meiosis.

A.

1s

B.

2s

C.

3 s

D.

4s



Class 10 17th

SET B Year 2014


17th NSO - SET B

2

Logical Reasoning 1.

2.

3.

4. 5.

Some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the options below it. Select the correct option. A. C.

__ __ aba __ __ ba __ ab abbba B. abbab baabb D. bbaba

In the given number series, how many 9s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following 9? 87 89 A. C.

996845938492519226943925 37 4 B. 3 6 D. 5

If A is coded as 5, L as 16, J as 14 and so on. Following this code, STAR is coded as 296, which of the following represents the code of JAILER ? A. 316 B. 395 C. 237 D. 553

7.

8.

Abhishek said that he was born on 29 February 1900. What birthday will he celebrate in the year 2000? A. 99th B. 25th th C. 100 D. Abhishek is lying If the image of a figure in water is seen as what is the actual figure? A.

, then

B.

C.

D.

6.

Study the Venn diagram carefully and select the correct statement.

Mr. Sinha has six children – Pankaj, Ravi, Varun, Amit, Vikas and Prateek. They all were born on 13th November, but each was born in a different year, during six consecutive years. It is also known that (i) Pankaj is elder to Varun. (ii) Ravi is elder to both Amit and Vikas. (iii) Prateek is two years older than Amit. (iv) Pankaj was born either in the year 2002 or 2003. (v) The oldest member of the group was born in the year 2000. (vi) Amit is elder to both Vikas and Varun. Which of the following is the correct list of the group, from the youngest to the oldest? A. Varun, Pankaj, Ravi, Amit, Vikas, Prateek B. Varun, Vikas, Pankaj, Amit, Prateek, Ravi C. Varun, Vikas, Amit, Prateek, Pankaj, Ravi D. Varun, Vikas, Amit, Pankaj, Prateek, Ravi Select the pair that has a relationship similar to the pair in Fig. (X). The best answer is to be selected from a group of fairly close choices.

I

II

Fig. (X)

A.

C.

9.

I

II

I

II

B.

D.

B. C. D.

II

C D E Q P

K R

There are some postgraduates who are rural people. No professor is urban. All post-graduates are rural. All post-graduates are urban.

I

N

W

A.

II

A group of four policemen A, B, C and D is combining a circular park divided into sixteen plots. P, Q, R and K are the offenders who they have to catch after given moves. The figure below shows their positions. Note that the by-lanes are North-South and East-West. A B

I

S

If both A, B, C, D and P, Q, R, K moves clockwise three plots, then who would be positioned North-East and South-West from the given options respectively? A. A and P B. C and P C. D and Q D. B and R


17th NSO - SET B

3

10. Find the missing number, if the given matrix follows a certain rule row-wise or column-wise.

A. C.

8

6

7

3

7

5

14

12

13

9

13

?

9 13

B. D.

7 11

11. Select a figure from the options which will continue the series as established by the five problem figures. Problem Figures

A.

C.

B.

13. There are seven figures, the first and last of which are un-numbered and the remaining are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. These seven figures form a series. However, one of the five numbered figures does not fit into the series. Select the figure which does not fit into the series.

A. C.

1 4

1

2

3

4

B. D.

3 2

5

14. Which of the following figures will complete the given figure matrix?

A.

B.

C.

D.

?

D.

12. Six different faces of a cube are coloured in three different colours – black, green and blue. This cube is now cut into 216 smaller but identical cubes. If N is the number of cubes that is not coloured on any of its faces, then which of the following best describes the value of N ? A. 125 < N < 130 B. 120 ≤ N ≤ 125 C. 115 ≤ N ≤ 120 D. 50 < N < 100

15. A is the brother of B. B is the brother of C. D is the father of A. Which of the following statements cannot be definitely true? A. B is the brother of A. B. B is the son of D. C. A is the brother of C. D. C is the brother of A.

Science 16. A network is constructed using five resistors, each of resistance R, and three switches K1, K 2 and K 3. Which switch combination will give rise to maximum total resistance between points X and Y? R R X

K1

R K2

R

R

K1 K 2 K3 A. Open Closed Open B. Open Closed Closed C. Closed Closed Closed D. Closed Open Closed

K3

Y

17. A constant current flows N in a horizontal wire in the plane of the paper from W E west to east as shown in the given figure. The direction of magnetic field will be S north to south, at a point W E ______. A. Directly above the wire B. Directly below the wire C. Located in the plane of the paper, on the north side of the wire D. Located in the plane of the paper, on the south side of the wire.


17th NSO - SET B

4

18. Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1 : A concave mirror and a convex lens both have the same focal length in air. When they are submerged in water, they will still have the same focal length. Statement 2 : The refractive index of water is greater than the refractive index of air. A. Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. B. Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true. 19. An explosion takes place at a distance of 3200 m away from a sound detector that detects only the sound coming from the ground. Explosion The sound detector detects Sound two sound signals at detector 0.64 s and 0.80 s after the Air explosion. Find the depth 3200 m x x of the soft ground. Soft ground A. 1200 m Hard ground B. 2400 m C. 3600 m D. 4800 m 20. A concave mirror of focal length 10 cm is dipped in water as shown in the given figure. S Given that the refractive 10 cm 4 and object 3 S is placed on the principal axis of the concave mirror. The final image formed by Concave mirror the system is at 85 cm from water surface A. 4 85 B. cm from mirror surface 4 94 C. cm from water surface 3 94 D. cm from mirror surface. 3

index of water is

5 cm 3

21. An acrobat swings from point P to Q as shown in the given figure. The length of the swinging rod is 5 m. The minimum initial speed, the acrobat must have, at point P is (Take g = 10 N kg–1)

22. A heater, a fan and a bulb are connected to the 12 V battery as shown in the given diagram.

The fan with a resistance of R has a potential difference of 6 V across it and a current of 1 A through it. The bulb has a current of 2 A flowing through it. Which of the following statements is true? A. The voltage across the bulb is 6 V and its resistance is 2R. B. The voltage across the bulb is 6 V and its resistance 1 is R. 2 C. The voltage across the heater is 6 V and its resistance is 2 R. D. The voltage across the heater is 6 V and its 1 resistance is R. 2

23. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a typical solar cell? (i) It develops a voltage of 0.5 to 1 volt. (ii) It can produce only upto 0.5 W of electricity. (iii) It is made from silicon. (iv) Efficiency of solar cell is low. (v) It is used for many scientific and technological applications. A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only B. (i), (iii) and (iv) only C. (i), (iii), (iv) and (v) only D. All of these 24. Two identical balls, P and Q are being dropped from different levels of a building. If ball P takes twice the time than ball Q to reach the ground, then ______. A. The distance travelled by ball P is half the distance travelled by ball Q B. The distance travelled by ball P is twice the distance travelled by ball Q C. The distance travelled by ball P is four times the distance travelled by ball Q D. The distance travelled by ball P is eight times the distance travelled by ball Q

A.

10 m s–1

B.

20 m s–1

C.

50 m s–1

25. A satellite moves in a circle around the Earth. The radius of this circle is equal to one half of the radius of the Moon's orbit. The satellite completes one revolution in 1 2 lunar month B. lunar month A. 2 3

D.

Cannot be determined

C.

21/2 lunar month


D.

2–3/2 lunar month

17th NSO - SET B

5

26. Oxide M is a colourless gas. It reacts with oxygen to form a reddish-brown gas, oxide N. The solubility of oxides M and N in various solvents is shown below : Solvent Oxide M Oxide N Water Insoluble Soluble Aqueous NaOH Insoluble Soluble Hydrochloric acid Insoluble Insoluble Which of the following statements is correct? A. Oxide M is an acidic oxide. B. Oxide M is an amphoteric oxide. C. Oxide N is a basic oxide. D. Oxide N is an acidic oxide. 27. The boiling points of some gases found in air are given below : Element Krypton Neon Nitrogen Oxygen Boiling –152 –246 –196 –183 point (°C) If liquid mixture is fractionally distilled, the order of gases distilled out (starting from first) is _____. A. Krypton, neon, nitrogen, oxygen B. Neon, nitrogen, oxygen, krypton C. Nitrogen, neon, oxygen, krypton D. Oxygen, neon, nitrogen, krypton 28. How many of the total number of electrons in a molecule of ethyne C2H2 are not involved in bonding? A. 4 B. 10 C. 6 D. 0 29. Study the given graph carefully.

31. A compound P contains two hydrogen, one sulphur and four oxygen atoms. Another compound Q contains five hydrogen, one oxygen and one nitrogen atoms. The formula of a new compound formed by the divalent anion of P and monovalent cation of Q is A. NH4HSO4 B. (NH4)2SO3 C. NH4HSO3 D. (NH4)2SO4 32. A part of the periodic table is given below : Groups

I. II. III. IV. The A. C.

c and d contain same number of protons. Pairs (a, b), ( f, g) and (i, j) are isobars. Pairs (c, d) and (g, h) are isotopes. e and f have different number of neutrons. correct statements are I, II and IV B. I, III and IV I and III D. All of these

Metal X 30. Strips of metal X were dipped into two solutions as shown below : A greyish metallic Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate deposit was found on solution solution both strips. Which of the following could be metal X? A. Cu B. Mg C. Pb D. Fe

2

13

14

15

16

17

18

Periods 2 Q L R H 3 M 4 N V 5 G (The letters are not the actual chemical symbols of the elements.) Choose the incorrect statement among the following. A. Q and R combine together to form a compound, Q 2 R 3. B. N is a metal with valency 2 and L is a non-metal with valency 3. C. G is the most reactive metal and H is the most reactive non-metal. D. M for ms ionic compou nds and V is ver y reactive.

33. Schematic atomic structures of four different R and 147S 3– are I, II, III and IV elements 199P, 2412Q 2+, 28 14 respectively.

1

I

III The incorrect representations are A. I, II and IV B. C. III and IV D.

II

IV I, III and IV I and III

34. In the following reactions ethanol is either a reactant or product. I. Combustion of ethanol II. Dehydration of ethanol to ethene III. Fermentation of glucose IV. Oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid The reactions in which water is also either a reactant or product are A. I, III and IV B. II, III and IV C. I, II and IV D. I and IV


17th NSO - SET B

6

35. The melting and boiling points of three pure substances X, Y and Z are given in the table. Substance Melting point Boiling point (°C) (°C) 55 280 X –6 65 Y – 100 – 34 Z

At room temperature, 25°C A. Z is a gas B. X is a volatile liquid C. Y is a solid D. All are correct.

36. Study carefully the key depicting the type of plant tissues : Key : Types of meristematic tissue – P, Q Types of permanent simple tissue – R, S Types of parenchymatous tissue – T, U Identify these tissues (P to U) from the list of their functions given below. (i) It provides mechanical support, elasticity and tensile strength to the body. (ii) This tissue is responsible for linear growth of an organ. (iii) It provides a protective covering around seeds and nuts. (iv) It provides buoyancy to aquatic plants to help them float. (v) It is responsible for growth of leaves and internodes. (vi) It performs the process of photosynthesis. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) A. Q S T R U P B. S Q R T P U C. T U P Q S R D. P Q T R U S 37. Refer to the diagramshowing the vascular tissue from a dicotyledonous plant and answer the following question. Which of the following statements correctly compares structures P and Q? A. P has cell wall made of lignin, but Q has cell wall made of cellulose. B. P transports substances only from roots to leaves, but Q transports substances in either direction. C. P comprises cells that largely lack cytoplasm, but Q comprises cells that possess cytoplasm. D. P contains water and mineral salts, while Q contains food substances in the form of starch.

38. Cells without nucleoli die because they do not possess ______. A. Centrioles and so are unable to undergo cell division B. Lysosomes and so are unable to destroy worn out organelles C. Mitochondria and so are unable to obtain energy D. Ribosomes and so are unable to manufacture proteins. 39. Pea plants can have smooth seeds or wrinkled seeds. One of the phenotypes is completely dominant over the other. A farmer decides to pollinate one flower of a plant with smooth seeds using pollen from a plant with wrinkled seeds. The resulting pea pod has all smooth seeds. Which of the following conclusion(s) can be drawn? 1. The allele for smooth seeds is dominant over that for wrinkled seeds. 2. The parent plant with smooth seeds is a homozygote. 3. The parent plant with wrinkled seeds is a homozygote. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3 Direction : Refer to the food web given below to answer questions 40 and 41.

40. A non-biodegradable insecticide known as DDT was sprayed onto the pine trees. In which of the following organisms would most of the DDT eventually accumulate? A. Golden-crowned kinglet B. Pine borer C. Salamander D. Snake 41. With reference to the given food web, which of the following statements is true? A. There is only one organism that makes organic compounds from inorganic substances. B. There is no such one organism that converts organic compounds into inorganic substances. C. The inability of the oak tree to produce acorns would affect the red-tailed hawk more than the snake. D. Removal of X would cause an increase in the population of all the organisms.


17th NSO - SET B

7

42. The following data regarding two different plant species was obtained. Plant Average Average Texture mass of of pollen diameter pollen grain of pollen grain/mg grain/mm 15 200 Smooth, dry X 45 1800 Spiky, sticky Y What valid conclusion(s) can be drawn from the data? 1. Plant Y is more likely to be wind-pollinated. 2. Plant Y is more likely to be self-pollinated than plant X. 3. Since plant Y has larger and heavier pollen, a larger mass of pollens must be produced by plant Y per unit time to achieve the same efficiency of pollination as plant X. 4. The stigma of plant X is likely to have a larger surface area than those of plant Y. A. 4 only B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4 43. Read the following statements (a - c) and select the option which correctly fills up the blanks in any two of the statements. (a) (1) is a bacterial disease, while (2) is a viral disease. (b) (3) is the mode of prevention of diseases. (c) (4) and (5) are diseases which spread through sexual act. A. (1)-Chicken pox, (2)-Typhoid, (4)-Syphilis, (5)-Cholera B. (1)-Cholera, (2)-Chicken pox, (3)-Prophylaxis

C. D.

(3)-Immunization, (4)-AIDS, (5)-Tuberculosis (3)-Vaccination, (4)-Syphilis, (5)-Jaundice

44. Study the given flowchart. Which of the following are the correct examples of W, X, Y and Z?

A.

B. C.

D.

W X Ulothrix Marsilea Riccia Marsilea Lycopodium Marchantia Spirogyra Dryopteris

Y Z Selaginella Cycas Cycas Ipomoea Pinus Ipomoea Funaria Pinus

45. A student suggests that plant cells do not require mitochondria since they have chloroplasts. Which of the following statements would you use to convince him otherwise? A. Having both chloroplasts and mitochondria would maximise the rate of photosynthesis. B. Having both chloroplasts and mitochondria would maximise the rate of energy production. C. Mitochondria would be necessary at night when chloroplasts are no longer able to photosynthesize. D. The chemical energy stored in glucose cannot be efficiently utilized in the cell without mitochondria.

Achievers section 46. The plot represents the flow of current through a wire at three different times. The ratio of charges flowing through the wire at different intervals is A. 1 : 2 : 3 C. 3 : 2 : 2

B. D.

1:1:1 2:3:3

Direction (Q. No. 47 & 48): Refer to the given passage and answer the following questions. Redox reactions are those in which oxidation and reduction take place simultaneously. Oxidation is the gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen while reduction is the loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen. Those given off in the oxidation are taken on by another species in the reduction reaction. A substance which helps the other substance to undergo oxidation is called an oxidising agent. Similarly, a substance which helps the other substance to undergo reduction is called a reducing agent.

47. In the reaction, MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 A. HCl is reduced to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is oxidised to MnCl2 B. HCl is oxidised to H2O whereas MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2 C. HCl is reduced to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is oxidised to H2O D. HCl is oxidised to Cl2 whereas MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2. 48. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are not correct? Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 I. Fe2O3 is getting oxidised to Fe. II. Fe2O3 is acting as a reducing agent. III. CO is acting as a reducing agent. IV. CO is getting reduced to CO2. A. III only B. I, II and IV C. II and IV D. I and III


17th NSO - SET B

8

49. Refer to the diagram of the human digestive system to answer the following question.

What would be the likely consequence of swapping S and T i.e., from the stomach, food will pass through T to S? A. The digestive enzymes would be denatured. B. The intestinal contents would be highly alkaline and would damage the wall of T. C. The intestinal contents would be too dry and unable to pass through S properly. D. Water absorption would be highly reduced.

50. The graph below shows the hormonal changes during a normal menstrual cycle. What would be a likely consequence if the hormone represented by graph Q is lacking in an adult female?

A.

B.

C. D.

The uterine lining might not be sufficiently stable to support an implanted embryo. Levels of the hormone represented by graph P would be higher than normal. Fertilization of ovum would fail to occur. There would be no significant effect since the functions of the hormones overlap.



ANSWER KEYS 13 TH NSO 1. (D)

2. (A)

3. (B)

4. (C)

5. (C)

6. (B)

7. (D)

8. (D)

9.

(C)

10. (D)

11. (B)

12. (A)

13. (B)

14. (D)

15. (B)

16. (B)

17. (C)

18. (B)

19. (D)

20. (B)

21. (B)

22. (C)

23. (A)

24. (C)

25. (A)

26. (B)

27. (D)

28. (C)

29. (A)

30. (A)

31. (B)

32. (B)

33. (C)

34. (D)

35. (D)

36. (C)

37. (B)

38. (C)

39. (B)

40. (B)

41. (D)

42. (D)

43. (B)

44. (B)

45. (D)

46. (C)

47. (B)

48. (A)

49. (B)

50. (A)

7.

8.

9.

(A)

10.

(D)

14 TH NSO 1.

(B)

2.

(A)

3.

(B)

4.

(C)

5.

(A)

6.

(C)

(B)

(B)

11. (C)

12. (B)

13. (B)

14. (C)

15. (B)

16. (D)

17. (C)

18. (A)

19. (D)

20.

(B)

21. (B)

22. (B)

23. (B)

24. (C)

25. (D)

26. (B)

27. (B)

28. (B)

29. (C)

30.

(B)

31. (C)

32. (D)

33. (D)

34. (D)

35. (A)

36. (D)

37. (B)

38. (A)

39. (A)

40.

(B)

41. (C)

42. (C)

43. (C)

44. (D)

45. (C)

46. (A)

47. (B)

48. (C)

49. (D)

50.

(A)

7.

8.

9.

(B)

10.

(A)

15 TH NSO SET A 1.

(B)

2.

(D)

3.

(A)

4.

(A)

5.

(C)

6.

(B)

(D)

(C)

11. (A)

12. (C)

13. (B)

14. (A)

15. (D)

16. (C)

17. (A)

18. (B)

19. (C)

20.

(B)

21. (D)

22. (A)

23. (C)

24. (B)

25. (A)

26. (D)

27. (B)

28. (A)

29. (C)

30.

(B)

31. (C)

32. (A)

33. (D)

34. (A)

35. (D)

36. (A)

37. (C)

38. (D)

39. (A)

40.

(D)

41. (A)

42. (C)

43. (C)

44. (D)

45. (D)

46. (A)

47. (B)

48. (C)

49. (C)

50.

(B)

7.

8.

9.

(D)

10.

(A)

SET B 1.

(B)

2.

(C)

3.

(C)

4.

(B)

5.

(B)

6.

(C)

(D)

(D)

11. (C)

12. (B)

13. (C)

14. (D)

15. (B)

16. (A)

17. (A)

18. (D)

19. (A)

20.

(D)

21. (C)

22. (C)

23. (A)

24. (A)

25. (C)

26. (B)

27. (C)

28. (B)

29. (B)

30.

(D)

31. (B)

32. (B&D)

33. (C)

34. (A)

35. (B)

36. (A)

37. (D)

38. (C)

39. (C)

40.

(B)

41. (B)

42. (A)

43. (C)

44. (A)

45. (A)

46. (B)

47. (C)

48. (C)

49. (C)

50.

(C)

7.

8.

9.

(B)

10.

(A)

16 TH NSO SET A 1.

(A)

2.

(C)

3.

(C)

4.

(B)

5.

(A)

6.

None

(A)

(D)

11. (A)

12. (D)

13. (D)

14. (D)

15. (D)

16. (D)

17. (B)

18. (A)

19. (B)

20.

(C)

21. (B)

22. (D)

23. (B)

24. (B)

25. (A)

26. (C)

27. (B)

28. (A)

29. (A)

30.

(A)

31. (B)

32. (A)

33. (A)

34. (A)

35. (C)

36. (C)

37. (C)

38. (D)

39. (A)

40.

(A)

41. (C)

42. (D)

43. (B)

44. (D)

45. (A)

46. (B)

47. (D)

48. (B)

49. (B)

50.

(A)

7.

8.

9.

(C)

10.

(A)

SET B 1.

(C)

2.

(B)

3.

(A)

4.

(D)

5.

(D)

6.

(C)

(C)

(B)

11. (D)

12. (C)

13. (D)

14. (A)

15. (D)

16. (A)

17. (C)

18. (A)

19. (C)

20.

(B)

21. (A)

22. (D)

23. (C)

24. (A)

25. (D)

26. (B)

27. (B)

28. (B)

29. (C)

30.

(D)

31. (A)

32. (C)

33. (B)

34. (D)

35. (A)

36. (B)

37. (C)

38. (B)

39. (B)

40.

(D)

41. (C)

42. (C)

43. (A)

44. (A)

45. (B)

46. (B)

47. (D)

48. (B)

49. (C)

50.

(A)


17 TH NSO SET A 1. (B)

2. (B)

3. (D)

4. (B)

5. (B)

6. (A)

7. (B)

8. (D)

9.

(D)

10. (D)

11. (C)

12. (B)

13. (D)

14. (D)

15. (C)

16. (A)

17. (B)

18. (D)

19. (A)

20. (B)

21. (A)

22. (C)

23. (C)

24. (B)

25. (C)

26. (A)

27. (B)

28. (B)

29. (B)

30. (C)

31. (C)

32. (C)

33. (A)

34. (C)

35. (B)

36. (D)

37. (B)

38. (A)

39. (C)

40. (B)

41. (A)

42. (D)

43. (C)

44. (C)

45. (D)

46. (C)

47. (D)

48. (D)

49. (D)

50. (B)

SET B

1. (B)

2. (C)

3. (A)

4. (D)

5. (D)

6. (A)

7. (D)

8. (B)

9.

(A)

10. (D)

11. (D)

12. (D)

13. (A)

14. (B)

15. (D)

16. (A)

17. (A)

18. (D)

19. (A)

20. (A)

21. (A)

22. (B)

23. (C)

24. (C)

25. (D)

26. (D)

27. (B)

28. (A)

29. (B)

30. (B)

31. (D)

32. (D)

33. (B)

34. (C)

35. (A)

36. (B)

37. (B)

38. (D)

39. (D)

40. (D)

41. (C)

42. (A)

43. (B)

44. (B)

45. (D)

46. (B)

47. (D)

48. (B)

49. (C)

50. (A)


Class 10 Nso 5 Years e Book

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