CAMBRIDGE
E X A M I N AT I O N S , C E R T I F I C AT E S & D I P L O M A S
CAE
C ER E R T IF I F I CA C A T E I N A DV D V A NC N C ED E D E NG N G LI LI S H
English as a Foreign Language
H A N D B O O K
PREFACE
This Handbook is intended principally for teachers and course designers who are, or intend to become, involved in preparing candidates for the Certificate in Advanced English (CAE). There are separate Handbooks for other Cambridge EFL examin examinations ations.. The introductory part of the handbook provides a general background to the Cambridge EFL examinations and an overview of the work of UCLES-EFL, including a description of current procedures for test design, production and marking. For further information on any of the Cambridge EFL examinations, please contact: EFL Infor Information mation University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate Syndicate Buildings 1 Hills Road Cambridge CB1 2EU Tel: +44 12 1223 55 553355 Fax: +44 12 1223 46 460278 email: efl@u
[email protected] cles.org.u rg.ukk www.cambridge-efl.org.uk
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C H A N G E S TO C A E
The following changes to CAE are being introduced from the December 1999/June 2000 examining sessions:
Paper 3 (see page 32) The following changes to CAE Paper 3 are being introduced for the first time in the December 1999 examining session: A new task appears on the paper. This is a word formation task consisting of two short texts containing in total 15 gaps. Candidates are required to form a new word to complete the gap using a prompt word provided. The current Question 6 (expansion of notes into sentences) will no longer appear on the paper. Paper 3 thus consists of: Part 1
(formerly Section A, question 1) Multiple choice cloze
Part 2
(formerly Section A, question 2) Open cloze
Part 3
(formerly Section B, question 3) Error correction text
Part 4
Word formation (a new task)
Part 5
(formerly Section B, question 4) Register change gap-fill task
Part 6
(formerly Section C, question 5)
The time allowed for the paper (1 hour and 30 minutes) remains unchanged.
Paper 4 (see page 40) The following change to CAE Paper 4 is being introduced for the first time in the June 2000 examining session: Part 4 (formerly Section D): the taped material remains unchanged (i.e. five short listening texts with common theme), but an alternative task will be introduced in some versions of the test consisting of ten 3-option multiple choice questions, with two questions relating to each short text.
Paper 5 (see page 49) The following changes to CAE Paper 5 are being introduced for the first time in the December 1999 examining session: In Part 2 ‘describe and draw’ tasks no longer appear in the specifications for the test. In Part 4 the Assessor no longer takes part in the discussion.
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INTRODUCTION
Introduction to UCLES The University of Cambridge Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES) was established as a department of the University of Cambridge in 1858 in order to set a standard of efficiency for schools in England. The Cambridge examinations cover a wide range of academic and vocational subjects and include examinations specially designed for the international market. Examinations in English as a Foreign Language (EFL) were started at UCLES in 1913, with the Certificate of Proficiency in English (CPE). The First Certificate in English (FCE) was introduced in 1939. Other EFL examinations and schemes for Teachers of English as a Foreign Language (TEFL) have been added periodically since then, so that UCLES now offers the most comprehensive range of EFL examinations and TEFL schemes with a total annual candidature of over 500,000.
The English as a Foreign Language (EFL) UCLES-EFL has specific responsibility for all the professional and specialist aspects of the EFL examinations and the TEFL schemes. The EFL team is made up of staff with qualifications mainly in the area of applied linguistics and TEFL, and with considerable experience in overseas teaching situations.
For UCLES-EFL, user service concerns professional matters such as the production of information for test users, e.g. specifications, handbooks, sample materials, examination reports, etc. It is also the responsibility of EFL e.g. specifications, handbooks, sample materials, examination reports, etc. It is also the responsibility of EFL staff to ensure that obligations to test users are met, and that in this context UCLES EFL examinations fulfil the Code of Practice established by the Association of Language Testers in Europe (see below). This Code of Practice focuses on the responsibilities of both examination providers and examination users and covers four main areas: •
developing examinations;
•
interpreting examination results;
•
striving for fairness;
•
informing examination takers.
The Association of Language Testers in Europe (ALTE) UCLES is a member of the Association of Language Testers in Europe (ALTE) which was formed in 1990. The members are all providers of language examinations and certificates from countries within the European Union. The principal objectives of ALTE are as follows: •
to establish a framework of levels of proficiency in order to promote the transnational recognition of certification, especially in Europe;
•
to establish common standards for all stages of the language testing process: i.e., for test development, question and item writing, test administration, marking and grading, reporting of test results, test analysis and reporting of findings;
•
to collaborate on joint projects and in the exchange of ideas and know-how.
The work of UCLES-EFL covers four main areas: •
question paper production;
•
support for the administration of the examinations (particularly the Speaking Tests);
•
processing of examinations (marking, etc.);
•
user service.
In all these areas there is a programme of ongoing validation, and specialist staff work on analysis and evaluation. The aim is to ensure that standards are being met and that the examinations develop in order to meet the changing needs of candidates and other test users.
At the present stage of development of the framework, considerable agreement has been reached on the content definition of all five levels of proficiency. Further empirical research is taking place.
The core of the EFL system is the question paper production process. This is described in detail on pages 6 and 7.
More information about ALTE and copies of ALTE documents can be obtained from the ALTE Secretariat at UCLES.
UCLES-EFL is responsible for ensuring that various professional requirements are met. This includes, for example, the development and implementation of training and monitoring procedures which are required for carrying out the assessment of spoken and written language by examiners. UCLES-EFL is also responsible for the administration and processing of examinations.
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The Production of EFL Question Papers
The Production Cycle for Pretested Question Papers
The production process for question papers for EFL examinations and TEFL schemes begins with the commissioning of material and ends with the printing of question papers.
UCLES employs a team of Item Writers to produce examination material, and throughout the writing and editing process strict guidelines are followed in order to ensure that the materials conform to the test specifications. Topics or contexts of language use which might introduce a bias against any group of candidates of a particular background (i.e., on the basis of sex, ethnic origin, etc.) are avoided.
For the majority of EFL question papers there are five main stages in the production process: •
commissioning;
•
editing;
•
pretesting/trialling;
•
analysis and banking of material;
•
question paper construction.
After selection and editing, the items are compiled into pretest papers. Pretesting plays a central role as it allows for questions and materials with known measurement characteristics to be banked so that new versions of question papers can be produced as and when required. The pretesting process helps to ensure that all versions conform to the test requirements in terms of content and level of difficulty.
This process can be represented in the diagram below.
Commissioning of material for question papers
A
B Pre-editing and editing of material
Pretest construction
Trial construction
Each pretest paper contains anchor items or is supplied to candidates with an additional anchor test. The anchor items are carefully chosen on the basis of their known measurement characteristics and their inclusion means that all new items can be linked to a common scale of difficulty. Pretest papers are despatched to a wide variety of EFL schools and colleges, which have offered to administer the pretests to candidates of a suitable level. After the completed pretests are returned to the Pretesting Section of the EFL Division, a score for each student is provided to the centre within two weeks of receiving the completed scripts. The items are marked and analysed, and those which are found to be suitable are banked. Material for the productive components of the examinations is trialled with candidates to assess its suitability for inclusion in the Materials Bank.
The UCLES Main Suite: A Five-Level System Trialling
Revision
Pretesting
Trialling review
Rejection
Item Analysis
UCLES has developed a series of examinations with similar characteristics, spanning five levels. Within the series of five levels, the Certificate in Advanced English is at Cambridge Level Four. In 1998 there were over 50,000 candidates for the CAE examination throughout the world. Cambridge Level Five
MATERIALS BANK*
Certificate of Proficiency in English (CPE) Cambridge Level Four Certificate in Advanced English (CAE)
Question paper construction *electronic bank for pretested materials
Cambridge Level Three First Certificate in English (FCE) Cambridge Level Two Preliminary English Test (PET) Cambridge Level One Key English Test (KET) Page 5
B A C K G R O U N D TO C A E
CAE was introduced in December 1991. It is designed to offer a high-level qualification in the language to those wishing to use English for professional or study purposes. It is also designed to encourage the development of the skills required by students progressing towards CPE, with emphasis very much on real-world tasks.
The Level of CAE As well as being at Cambridge Level Four, CAE also falls within Level Four of the ALTE framework, and a brief description of this level is given below. This description is not a specification for the examination content but refers to language activities in real-world, non-examination contexts.
ALTE Level Four - Competent User At this level, learners are expected to be able to use the structures of a language with ease and fluency. They are aware of the relationship between the language and the culture it exists in, and of the significance of register. This means that to some extent they are able to adapt their language use to a variety of social situations, and express opinions and take part in discussions and arguments in a culturally acceptable way. Learners at this level can develop their own interests in reading both factual and fictional texts. They can also produce a variety of types of texts and utterances, such as letters of varying degrees of formality. They can use language in a creative and flexible way, with the ability to respond appropriately to unforeseen as well as predictable situations, producing quite long and complex utterances. The written and spoken texts encountered in most common everyday situations can be dealt with at a level below that reached by the Level Four Learner, but certain more difficult situations, e.g., connected with renting accommodation, demand this level of language. Users at this level can enjoy a wide range of social contacts.
CAE Candidature Information is collected about the CAE candidates at each session, when candidates fill in a Candidate Information Sheet. The candidates for CAE come from a wide range of backgrounds and take the examination for a number of different reasons. The following points summarise the characteristics of the current CAE candidature. Nationality - CAE is taken by candidates throughout the world in about 67 countries, although the total number of nationalities represented in the candidature is over 175. The majority of these candidates enter for CAE in European and South American countries. Many candidates also take the examination in the UK. Age - Nearly 80% of candidates are under 25, with the average age being about 23. In some countries the average age is lower (e.g., in Greece it is about 17). Gender - About 70% of candidates are female. Employment - Most candidates are students, although there are considerable differences in the proportion of students in different countries. Exam Preparation - A large proportion of candidates (about 80%) undertake a preparatory course before taking the examination. Reasons for taking CAE - Candidates’ reasons for wanting an English language qualification are roughly distributed as follows: • • •
for study (44%) for work (41%) other (15%)
C A E C O N T E N T : A N OV E RV I E W
The examination consists of five papers: Examinations at Level Four may be used as proof of the level of language necessary to work at a managerial or professional level or follow a course of academic study at university level.
Reading
1 hour 15 minutes
Writing
2 hours
English in Use
1 hour 30 minutes
Recognition
Listening
45 minutes (approximately)
CAE is recognised by the majority of British universities for English language entrance requirements. These are listed in a leaflet ‘Recognition in Britain’ available from UCLES. More information about recognition is also available from British Council Offices.
Speaking
15 minutes (approximately)
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Reading Candidates are expected to be able to read and understand texts taken from magazines, newspapers, leaflets, etc. They should demonstrate a variety of reading skills including skimming, scanning, deduction of meaning from context and selection of relevant information to complete the given task.
There are four compulsory texts, giving a total of about 3,000 words. There are forty to fifty questions. The three main task types are: multiple matching, multiple choice and gapped text.
The final two parts are linked. The candidates first complete a collaborative task. This is followed by further discussion between candidates and the Interlocutor on points which have arisen from the collaborative task.
Writing
G R A D I N G A N D R E S U LT S
Candidates are expected to complete non-specialist writing tasks in response to the stimuli provided (input text and task descriptions). The input texts are taken from articles, leaflets, notices, formal and informal letters, etc. Both audience and purpose are made clear in the task descriptions. The first part is compulsory and candidates must complete one or more tasks in response to a reading input which is usually made up of several short texts. The second part involves choosing one of four tasks from a range of writing activities (letters, articles, instructions, messages, etc.). Responses should be about 250 words in length.
English in Use Candidates are expected to demonstrate the ability to apply their knowledge of the language system by completing tasks based on authentic passages. They must complete six tasks with a total of eighty items. The tasks include the following types: cloze exercises, gap filling, proof-reading exercises, word formation exercises and text completion.
The five CAE papers total 200 marks, after weighting. Each paper is weighted to 40 marks. A candidate’s overall CAE grade is based on the total score gained by the candidate in all five papers. It is not necessary to achieve a satisfactory level in all five papers in order to pass the examination. The overall grade boundaries (A, B, C, D and E) are set according to the following information: •
statistics on the candidature;
•
statistics on overall candidate performance;
•
statistics on individual items, for those parts of the examination for which this is appropriate (Papers 1, 3 and 4);
•
advice, based on the performance of candidates, and recommendations of examiners where this is relevant (Papers 2 and 5);
•
comparison with statistics from previous years’ examination performance and candidature.
Listening Candidates are expected to understand each text as a whole, gain detailed understanding and appreciate gist and the attitude of the speaker. They must also be able to identify and interpret the context. Texts take the form of announcements, speeches, radio broadcasts, etc. There are four parts lasting approximately forty-five minutes in all, with a total of thirty to forty questions. The first two parts consist of two short monologues, the third of a longer dialogue/interview and the fourth of conversational extracts. The tasks candidates are asked to perform include the following: information transfer, multiple choice, various types of matching and note completion.
Speaking The Speaking paper is conducted by two examiners with a pair of candidates. They must be able to demonstrate a range of oral skills: interactional, social, transactional, negotiation and collaboration. The test lasts for about fifteen minutes. The candidates first respond to one another’s and the Interlocutor’s questions about their interests, careers, etc. Each candidate is then given a set of visual stimuli which serves to encourage a ‘long turn’ from each candidate.
Results are reported as three passing grades (A, B and C) and two failing grades (D and E). The minimum successful performance which a candidate typically requires in order to achieve a Grade C corresponds to about 60% of the total marks. Statements of results for those candidates who achieve a pass grade provide an indication of those papers in which an outstanding performance has been achieved. Statements of results for those candidates who fail with grade D and E provide an indication of those papers in which performance is particularly weak.
Awards The Awarding Committee meets after the grade boundaries have been confirmed. It deals with all cases presented for special consideration, e.g. temporary disability, unsatisfactory examination conditions, suspected collusion, etc. The committee can decide to ask for scripts to be remarked, to check results, to change grades, to withhold results, etc. Results may be withheld because of infringement of regulations or because further investigation is needed. Centres are notified if a candidate’s results have been scrutinised by the Awarding Committee.
Notification of Results Statements of results are issued through centres approximately two months after the examination has been
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Certificates are issued about six weeks after the issue of statements of results. Enquiries about results may be made through Local Secretaries, within a month of the issue of statements of results.
C A E A D M I N I S T R AT I O N
CAE is held each year in June and December in about 1,000 centres worldwide. Candidates must enter through a recognised centre.
Special Arrangements Special arrangements are available for disabled candidates. These may include extra time, separate accommodation or equipment, Braille transcription, etc. Consult the UCLES Local Secretary in your area for more details.
Further Information Copies of the Regulations and details of entry procedure, current fees and further information about this and other Cambridge examinations can be obtained from the Local Secretary for UCLES examinations in your area, or from: EFL UCLES 1 Hills Road Cambridge CB1 2EU Telephone: +44 1223 553355 Fax: +44 1223 460278 In some areas this information can also be obtained from the British Council.
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CAE SUPPORT
Course Materials A number of course books and practice materials are available from publishers. A comprehensive list of those published by members of the Publishers’ Association is available from UCLES. CAE requires an all-round language ability and this should be borne in mind when selecting course materials. Most course books will need to be supplemented; care should be taken to ensure that course books and practice materials selected accurately reflect the content and format of the examination. N.B. UCLES does not undertake to advise on text books or courses of study.
Past Papers & Examination Reports Past examination papers, which can be used for practice, are available from Local Secretaries and from the Publications Department at UCLES. The sample question papers included in this Handbook (in reduced format) are taken from previous CAE examinations and trialled materials. Examination Reports are also available from Local Secretaries or from UCLES. However, candidates are strongly advised not to concentrate unduly on working through practice tests and examinations as this will not by itself make them more proficient in the different skills.
Seminars for Teachers UCLES offers a wide range of seminars designed for teachers concerned with the EFL examinations; some are also suitable as introductions for administrators, school directors, etc. Some seminars are intended to provide information and support for teachers who are familiar with the examinations, and others can be used to introduce teachers to established examinations and also to new UCLES examinations. Contact EFL Information for further details.
A DETAILED GUIDE TO CAE PAPER 1 READING
General Description
Task Types Multiple matching, multiple choice, gapped text.
Paper Format The paper contains four parts. Each part contains a text and corresponding comprehension tasks. A text may consist of several short pieces.
Number of Questions Approximately 50.
Understanding gist, main points, detail, text structure or specific information, deducing meaning or recognising opinion/attitude.
Answering For all parts of this paper, candidates indicate their answers by shading the correct lozenges on an answer sheet.
Length of Texts 3,000 words approximately overall; 450 - 1,200 words approximately per text.
Timing 1 hour 15 minutes.
Text Types From the following: newspapers, magazines, journals, nonliterary books, leaflets, brochures, etc. From the following: informational, descriptive, narrative, persuasive, opinion/comment, advice/instructional, imaginative/journalistic.
Part
Task Focus
Task Type and Focus
Number of Questions
Marks One mark is given for each correct answer to the multiplematching tasks; two marks are given for each correct answer to the multiple-choice and gapped-text tasks.
Task Format
1
Multiple matching Main focus: specific information
12-18
A text preceded by multiple-matching questions. Candidates must match a prompt from one list to a prompt in another list, or match prompts to elements in the text.
2
Gapped text Main focus: text structure
6 or 7
A text from which paragraphs have been removed and placed in jumbled order after the text. Candidates must decide from where in the text the paragraphs have been removed.
3
Multiple choice Main focus: detail, opinion/attitude
5-7
4
Multiple matching Main focus: specific information
12-22
A text followed by four-option multiple-choice questions. As 1st Text.
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PREPARING FOR PAPER 1
Introduction The Reading paper consists of four parts, tested by means of different types of task. The range of texts and task types which appear on the Reading paper is intended to encourage familiarity with texts from a range of sources, written for different purposes and presented in different formats. The Reading paper aims to test skills which reflect the real-world needs of learners/users of English at an advanced level, i.e. the ability to process large quantities of text in real time. The variety of sources used for texts on the Reading paper is reflected in the contents of coursebooks and skills books available for CAE students. Students should also be encouraged to read widely outside the classroom, for their own needs and interests.
Task Focus and Format The task formats included on the Reading paper indicate the main purposes for reading. Part 1 of the paper, the first multiple-matching task, tests the ability to locate particular information, including opinion or attitude, by skimming and scanning a text. The task consists of one or two sets of questions followed by a single page of text; the text may be continuous, or consist of a group of short texts or of a text divided into sections. Candidates are required to match the questions with the relevant information from the text. Some of the answers may be correct for more than one question, and there may be more than one correct answer to some questions; if so, the instructions to candidates will indicate this. The range of possible answers may be presented in the form of a list of, for example, names of people or places, titles of books or films, types of occupation, sections of a text. The questions for the multiple-matching task are printed before the text so that the candidate knows what to look for in the text; where the text is made up of several sections or shorter texts, with a number of options to choose from in order to answer each question, it can be helpful to skim the whole text before scanning it for the specific information required. Candidates should notice the particular wording of questions since these are intended to lead the reader to specific information and to disregard irrelevant information. Candidates should practise scanning texts for particular information required and not feel that they must read every word in the text. In preparing for Part 1 of the CAE Reading paper, candidates should practise reading the instructions carefully and noticing the information they provide regarding the type of text, its content and the precise nature of the multiple-matching task. It can be helpful for students to underline key words in the questions as this helps when trying to find the information in the text which provides the answers.
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Students should practise skimming and scanning texts, looking for sections of the text which are close in meaning to the wording of the questions. They should be discouraged from selecting an answer solely on the basis of lexical proximity, however, since careful reading of a particular part of the text is required to ensure an accurate match in terms of meaning. Candidates for the Reading paper need practice in doing multiple-matching tasks within a certain time-limit and without recourse to a dictionary. Part 2 of the Reading paper, the gapped-text task, tests understanding of how texts are structured and the ability to predict text development. The task requires candidates to select from a number of choices the paragraphs which fit the gaps in a text; only one answer is correct in each case. The task consists of a single-page gapped text followed by the extracts from the text and one extra paragraph which does not fit in any of the gaps. Candidates should be trained to read the gapped text first in order to gain an overall idea of the structure and the meaning of the text, and to notice carefully the information and ideas before and after each gap as well as throughout the gapped text. The way in which a text has been gapped may require the reader to consider large sections of the text, including more than one gap, in order to reconstitute a particular part of the text; candidates should be trained to consider the development of the text as a whole, and not to focus on each gap separately. Sometimes candidates will need to choose carefully between two extracts as possible answers and will need practice in making decisions about which is the most logical extract to fill the particular gap. Practice is needed in a wide range of linguistic devices which mark the logical and cohesive development of a text, e.g. words and phrases indicating time, cause and effect, contrasting arguments; pronouns, repetition; use of verb tenses. Candidates should beware of approaching the gapped-text task as an exercise requiring them merely to identify extracts from the text and sections in the text containing the same words, including names and dates; the task is designed to test understanding of the development of ideas, opinions, events rather than the superficial recognition of individual words. Part 3 of the Reading paper, the multiple-choice task, tests detailed understanding of the text, including opinions and attitudes; candidates need to read the text closely in order to distinguish between apparently similar viewpoints, outcomes, reasons. The task consists of a single-page text followed by a number of questions; the questions are presented in the same order as the information in the text so that candidates can follow the development of the text. The final question may depend on interpretation of the text as a whole, e.g. the writer’s purpose, attitude or opinion. Candidates should read each question very carefully, as well as the four possible answers, all of which may at first appear to be likely answers. The questions can be answered correctly only by close reference to the text.
Candidates should be encouraged to read the text before reading the multiple-choice questions. Preparation for the multiple-choice task should include practice in reading the text quickly for a first overall impression, followed by close reading of the text in order to prevent any misunderstandings which may lead candidates to choose an answer subsequently proved wrong by the text. Part 4 of the CAE Reading paper complements Part 1; both are multiple-matching tasks, testing candidates’ ability to locate specific information in a text. Part 4 usually requires candidates to scan a two-page text; this may be continuous or made up of a group of shorter texts or sections of text. The advice on examination practice for Part 1 also applies to Part 4; in addition, candidates should be reminded to fold out the second page of the text so that all the information is available to them simultaneously. When preparing for the examination, it is helpful for candidates to spend time going through past papers. The Reading paper has a standard structure and format so that candidates will know, in general terms, what to expect in each part of the paper. The number of questions within a task may vary for different CAE Reading tests, though the total number of questions remains fairly constant. It is important to familiarise candidates with the instructions on the front page of the test, and for each part of the text; candidates should also be familiar with the technique of indicating their answers on the separate answer sheet so that they can do this quickly and accurately. Some candidates prefer to transfer their answers at the end of each task rather than wait until the end of the examination, to ensure accuracy of transfer and in case they do not finish the paper.
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PAPER 2 WRITING
General Description
Answering Candidates write their answers on separate answer paper.
Paper Format The paper contains two parts.
Timing 2 hours.
Number of Tasks Candidates are required to complete two tasks: a compulsory one in Part 1 and one from a choice of four in Part 2.
Marks Each question in this paper carries equal marks.
Task Types From the following: newspaper and magazine articles, contributions to leaflets and brochures, notices, announcements, personal notes and messages, formal and informal letters, reports, reviews, instructions, directions, competition entries, information sheets, memos, written for a given purpose and target reader.
Part
1
2
Task Type and Focus
Number of Tasks and Length
Task Format
Applying information contained in the input, selecting & summarising input, comparing items of information; writing text types from the following: newspaper and magazine articles, contributions to leaflets and brochures, notices, announcements, personal notes and messages, formal and informal letters, reports, reviews, instructions, directions, competition entries, information sheets, memos.
One or more compulsory tasks. Approx. 250 words in total.
Candidates are required to deal with substantial reading input well below the expected reading comprehension level of CAE. Input may consist of several individual texts and visuals.
One task from a choice of four.
Task descriptions specified in approximately five lines each.
Writing text types as for Part 2.
Approx. 250 words.
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PREPARING FOR PAPER 2
Part 1 Part 1 is compulsory and requires candidates to process about 400 words of input material, using the information appropriately to perform the task required. Candidates must carefully read all the input material, selecting that which is important and ignoring the irrelevant. Input material may consist of varied combinations of text and notes, sometimes supported by illustrations or diagrams. The task is often divided into more than one section. Task types will vary in Part 1, and may include formal letters, informal letters, reports, articles, notes or any combination of these.
Part 2 In Part 2, candidates have to choose one of four tasks. This part covers a range of task types, such as articles, reports and leaflets, and includes a work-orientated task as one of the four questions. Students must become aware of the need to adopt an appropriate style, layout and register for the format (or text type) of each writing task: the overall aim of the task being to have a positive effect on the target reader. Teachers need to spend time focusing on the key elements of text genre and draw attention to the differences and constraints involved. Notes, for example, need to be concise, while a report should not look like an ‘opinion’ composition. Candidates should be told to avoid selecting a task in Part 2 if they are unfamiliar with the appropriate features of the particular format. Equally, candidates with no relevant business experience would be best advised not to choose the business question. During the preparation stage, students can learn to write in a variety of styles and registers and identify which tasks are best suited to their interests and experience.
Some students fail to do as well as they might otherwise, due to their poor grammar. To help rectify this, teachers should encourage students to spend time looking carefully at their corrected written work. Serious, numerous and/or repetitive errors may need to be dealt with systematically. There are various ways in which this might be done. Some students may benefit from re-writing their work, in whole or in part, leaving gaps where grammatical errors occur. They can then go back to the gapped version later and try to fill the gaps. Further remedial action may be taken where errors persist. Model answers which incorporate typical student errors, such as spelling, unecessary and omitted words can also help students to identify and correct common grammatical errors. Well-written model answers can also provide students with good examples of natural language appropriate to the task. However, care should be taken. Students do not need to write ‘perfect’ answers and model answers which are beyond the level to which students might reasonably aspire might be demotivating and therefore should be avoided. To become more effective at written communication, students often need to improve the range and extent of their productive vocabulary. Wordlists, recycling activities, vocabulary games and exercises, as well as extensive and intensive reading practice will serve to achieve this aim.
Examiners are looking for an appropriate selection and expansion of the key points. Paragraphs should be well organised and points need to be appropriately linked. Therefore, answers need to be planned carefully and students may need help in this respect. They also need to practise checking their work for errors and inaccuracies. To get them into the habit, teachers can encourage students to give homework a final check, in class, before handing it in. Answers which suffer from irrelevance, repetition, deviation, needless repetition of rubric, illegibility, misinterpretation, or omission are likely to be penalised. In assessing written work, teachers should become familiar with the assessment criteria and try to apply them. Examiners will consider a number of factors, such as: content, organisation, cohesion, range of structure and vocabulary, register and effect on target reader. Feedback on students’ written work which relates to the assessment criteria will help them to learn what is being assessed and where their strengths and weaknesses lie.
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ASSESSMENT
An impression mark is awarded to each piece of writing; all tasks carry the same maximum mark. The general impression mark scheme is used in conjunction with a task-specific mark scheme, which focuses on criteria specific to each particular task, including relevance, range of structure, vocabulary and presentation and register. The criteria for assessment with reference to the general impression mark scheme are summarised as follows.
Band 5
Minimal errors: resourceful, controlled and natural use of language, showing good range of vocabulary and structure. Task fully completed, with good use of cohesive devices, consistently appropriate register. No relevant omissions. N.B. Not necessarily a flawless performance. Very positive effect on target reader.
Band 4
Sufficiently natural, errors only when more complex language attempted. Some evidence of range of vocabulary and structure. Good realisation of task, only minor omissions. Attention paid to organisation and cohesion; register usually appropriate. Positive effect on target reader achieved.
Band 3
Either (a) task reasonably achieved, accuracy of language satisfactory and adequate range of vocabulary and range of structures or (b) an ambitious attempt at the task, causing a number of non-impeding errors, but a good range of vocabulary and structure demonstrated. There may be minor omissions, but content clearly organised. Would achieve the required effect on target reader.
Band 2
Some attempt at task but lack of expansion and/or notable omissions/irrelevancies. Noticeable lifting of language from the input, often inappropriately. Errors sometimes obscure communication and/or language is too elementary for this level. Content not clearly organised. Would have a negative effect on target reader.
Band 1
Serious lack of control and/or frequent basic errors. Narrow range of language. Inadequate attempt at task. Very negative effect on target reader.
Band 0 or or
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(a) Fewer than 50 words per question. (b) Totally illegible work. (c) Total irrelevance (often a previously prepared answer to a different question).
Length The specific number of words used is not taken into account (except in Band 0), as length is an integral part of task achievement. Significantly fewer words are likely to mean that the task has not been completed, whereas over-long pieces of writing may involve irrelevance or have a negative effect on the target reader. If this is the case, over-length will be penalised.
Examiners discuss these individual mark schemes and refer to them regularly while they are working. During marking, each examiner is apportioned scripts chosen on a random basis from the whole entry in order to ensure there is no concentration of good or weak scripts or of one large centre of one country in the allocation of any one examiner. A rigorous process of co-ordination and checking is carried out before and throughout the marking process.
Handwriting Work which is difficult to read is penalised by a one or possibly two-band reduction depending on the degree of illegibility.
Spelling American spelling is acceptable, but there should be consistency. Poor spelling is penalised by a one-band reduction if it interferes with communication.
Irrelevance The examiners’ first priority is to give credit for the candidates’ efforts at communication, but candidates who introduce blatantly irrelevant material learned by heart or who deliberately misinterpret the question are penalised.
Layout Following the conventions of writing letters, reports and instructions is part of task achievement. Any acceptable modern layout for a formal letter may be used. Paragraphs should be clearly laid out either by indenting or by leaving a space between each paragraph.
MARKING
The panel of examiners is divided into small teams, each with a very experienced examiner as Team Leader. The Principal Examiner guides and monitors the marking process, beginning with a meeting of the Principal Examiner and the Team Leaders. This is held immediately after the examination and begins the process of establishing a common standard of assessment by the selection of sample scripts for all the questions in Paper 2. These are chosen to demonstrate the range of responses and different levels of competence, and a task-specific mark scheme is finalised for each individual task on the paper. This summarises the content, organisation and cohesion, range of structures and vocabulary, register and format, and target reader indicated in the task, in the form of satisfactory band descriptors. The accuracy of language, including spelling and punctuation, is assessed on the general impression scale for all tasks.
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PAPER 3 ENGLISH IN USE
General Description
Answering
Paper Format
For all parts of this paper candidates write their answers on an answer sheet.
The paper contains six parts. Timing Number of Questions
1 hour 30 minutes.
80. Marks Task Types
One mark is given for each correct answer.
Multiple choice cloze, open cloze, error correction, word formation, register transfer, gapped text.
Task Focus Understanding and control of the formal elements of language in context.
Part
1
Task Type and Focus
Number of Questions
Multiple choice cloze
15
A modified cloze text of approximately 200 words containing 15 gaps and followed by 15 four-option multiple choice questions.
15
A modified cloze text of approximately 200 words containing 15 gaps.
16
A text of about 200 words containing errors as specified in the rubric, e.g., extra words, misspellings, punctuation errors, etc., which must be identified.
15
Two short texts of up to 130 words each. Candidates must form an appropriate word to complete each gap using the given prompt words.
13
Two texts, each about 150 words in length. The first may include information in tabular or diagrammatic form, and is followed by an incomplete (gapped) text providing the same information in a different register.
6
A text of about 300 words with gaps at phrase and/or sentence level followed by a list of 10 options. Candidates must select the correct options from the list to complete the text.
An emphasis on lexis 2
Open cloze
Task Format
An emphasis on structure 3
Error correction An emphasis on proofreading
4
Word formation An emphasis on word formation
5
Register transfer An emphasis on register
6
Gapped text An emphasis on cohesion and coherence
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PREPARING FOR PAPER 3
The English in Use paper is divided into six parts, each part being defined in terms of its task type and language focus. In Part 1, candidates must choose one word from a set of four (A, B, C, D) to fill a gap in a text. This involves choosing the answer which has the right meaning and fits both in the local grammatical context and within the text as a whole. This part of the paper tests phrases and collocations, as well as idioms and phrasal verbs, and linkers. Part 2 is an open modified cloze containing fifteen gaps, testing awareness and control of structural items. Answers must be correct both syntactically and semantically. A single word is needed to fill each gap but there may be more than one word acceptable for each gap. Part 3 consists of a correction exercise of which there are two types. In the first, candidates have to identify additional words which are incorporated into the text. In the second type, errors of spelling and punctuation have to be identified. There are 16 lines to be corrected and candidates should not expect more than five lines to be correct. Part 4 is designed to test awareness of word formation. The task requires candidates to form an appropriate word, using the given prompt words, to fill each of the gaps in the two short texts. The use of a prefix will be necessary in at least one of the words in the task. Part 5 is designed to test awareness and control of features of style and appropriateness. The task requires candidates to transfer information given in one text into another. The two texts are different from each other in terms of register, writer’s purpose and/or style. The grammar and items of vocabulary given in one text need to be transformed into suitable expressions in order to complete the second text. The answers must be grammatically accurate as well as stylistically appropriate in terms of both the text’s audience and the writer’s purpose. Words contained in the first text may not be used in the second.
words and candidates should be encouraged to learn whole phrases rather than words in isolation. With gapped texts (as in tasks 1, 2 and 6), it is a good idea for candidates to start by thinking briefly about the title as this might provide clues as to style and/or subject matter. By reading the text through quickly, ignoring the gaps as much as possible, candidates will become aware of the general subject of the text and its style. Consideration of such features may help when deciding which words are right. When deciding which word or phrase should go in each gap, candidates must give careful consideration to the local context and other parts of the text as well. Clues may lie in a number of features, such as the grammatical context and/or the punctuation. While the absence or misuse of capital letters in answers is ignored, incorrect spelling is penalised. The exact nature of the correction task varies from paper to paper, so candidates must learn to look carefully at the task rubric and the example answers, and follow the guidance they offer. The skill of proof-reading can have obvious benefits for candidates’ own writing. Teachers may choose to indicate to students in which lines of their written work errors have occurred to provide further proof-reading practice. Teachers may also choose to encourage students to proof-read and help correct each other’s written work. In the word formation task candidates should look at the surrounding context to determine the word class of the missing word. Concentrating on the use of prefixes and suffixes to build words and focusing on how words change word class will help candidates, not only in this task, but also to further extend their own lexicons. To prepare for the fifth task, the transfer of information from one text type to another, candidates will benefit from extensive work on text comparison. They need to become acquainted with the relevant grammatical and lexical features of different styles of writing. This will also have obvious benefits for candidates’ writing for Paper Two.
Part 6 consists of a text from which a selection of phrases/short sentences have been removed and placed below the text along with several additional phrases. Candidates need to select the appropriate phrase/short sentence for each gap in the text. This task is devised to test an awareness of discourse features which operate within and across a text, particularly features of cohesion and coherence. To develop their grammatical awareness, candidates will need plenty of controlled practice. They should also become familiar with grammatical terminology, such as adjective, conjunction, preposition, etc. Knowing grammatical patterns and collocations is as important as knowing the meaning of
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PAPER 4 LISTENING
Background sounds may be included before speaking begins, to provide contextual information. Subdued reaction from an audience to talks, speeches, etc., may also be included.
General Description Paper Format The paper contains four parts. Each part contains a recorded text or texts and corresponding comprehension tasks.
Task Types From the following: note taking, sentence completion, multiple choice, multiple matching.
Number of Questions 30 - 40.
Task Focus Text Types
Understanding specific information, gist, attitude, main points and detail.
From the following: Monologues: announcements, radio broadcasts, telephone messages, speeches, talks, lectures. Interacting speakers: announcements, radio broadcasts, telephone messages, interviews, meetings.
Answering
Recording Information
Timing
The texts in Parts 1, 3 & 4 are heard twice; the text in Part 2 is heard once only.
Approximately 45 minutes.
Recordings will contain a variety of accents corresponding to standard variants of English native speaker accent, and to English non-native speaker accents that approximate to the norms of native speaker accents.
Marks
For all parts of this paper candidates write their answers on an answer sheet.
Each question in this paper carries one mark.
Part
Task Type and Focus
Number of Questions
1
Sentence completion, note taking
8-10
A monologue of approximately 2 minutes, heard twice, from the following range of text types: announcements, radio broadcasts, telephone messages, speeches, talks, lectures, etc.
8-10
A monologue of approximately 2 minutes, heard once only, from the range of text types above. There may be prompts from a second speaker.
6-12
A conversation between 2 or 3 speakers, of approximately 4 minutes, heard twice, from the range of text types above, with the addition of interviews and meetings.
Understanding specific information 2
Sentence completion, note taking
Task Format
Understanding specific information 3
Sentence completion, multiple choice Understanding specific information, gist and attitude
4
Multiple matching, multiple choice Identifying speakers, topics, interpreting context, recognising function, attitude
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10
A series of five short extracts, of approximately 30 seconds each; the whole sequence is heard twice. In the multiple matching format there are two tasks; the questions require selection of the correct option from a list of eight. In the multiple choice format there are ten questions with two questions for each speaker. The questions require selection of the correct option from a choice of three.
PREPARING FOR PAPER 4
In the Listening paper, time is allowed for candidates to prepare for what they are about to hear and it is important for students to learn to use this preparation time to read through the task. From the task and from the introductory rubric which contextualises the text, students can try to predict something of the content of the text which they will hear. While listening, students should learn to focus on the key word(s) of an answer and to use that information in completing their answers to gap-fill questions. This will also help them to make more effective use of the time available. After doing a task, it can be useful to go through the tapescript to identify the relationship between the language of the listening text, the question and the expected answer. Students will benefit from both extensive and intensive listening practice: jigsaw listening tasks can provide interesting communicative purpose for listening, and dictation can provide useful practice in listening for detail. Extensive listening practice should also help students to be confident that, while not understanding every word of something they hear, they can nevertheless identify more important aspects, e.g., specific information, gist and attitude of speakers, etc. In practising productive tasks for the examination, teachers should encourage their students to limit the length of their answers. It is often the case that the more candidates write, the more likely they are to make errors. The length of the box is designed to cater for a maximum of three words. Moreover, the candidate who writes an unnecessarily long answer is more likely to make a slip when transferring that answer. It is also important in completing a gap-fill question that candidates look carefully at the stem or the wording of the question so that their answer fits the stem in every sense and provides an acceptable completion. Answers which require candidates to write down the words exactly in the order that they have heard them are unlikely to occur at this level. Although candidates are never asked to spell words which fall outside the CAE level, it is important to train students to be as accurate as possible and to check spelling carefully.
N.B. In the sample paper there is an example of the alternative task for Part 4. Please note that the CAE listening test consists of four parts, not five. The inclusion of both tasks is for information only.
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PAPER 5 SPEAKING
Task Focus
General Description
Using transactional, interactional and social language.
Paper Format The paper contains four parts.
Timing
The standard format is two candidates and two examiners. One examiner acts as both Interlocutor and Assessor and manages the interaction either by asking questions or providing cues for candidates. The other acts as Assessor and does not join in the conversation.
Approximately 15 minutes.
Marks Candidates are assessed on their performance throughout the test.
Task Types Social interaction with the Interlocutor and the other candidate; transactional long and short turns.
Part
1
Task Type and Focus
Length of Parts
Task Format
Three-way conversation between the candidates and the Interlocutor
3 minutes
The candidates are asked to respond to one another’s questions about themselves, and respond to the Interlocutor’s questions.
3-4 minutes
Each candidate in turn is given visual prompts. They make comments on the prompts for about one minute; the second candidate responds as specified.
3-4 minutes
The candidates are given visual and/or written prompts to set up a problem-solving task, involving sequencing, ranking, comparing & contrasting, selecting, etc. Based on this output candidates are asked about their decisions.
3-4 minutes
The topic area from Part 3 is opened up by discussing wider issues.
Using general interactional and social language 2
Two-way interaction between the candidates Using transactional language
3
Two-way interaction between the candidates Negotiating and collaborating; reaching agreement or ‘agreeing to disagree’
4
Three-way conversation between the candidates and the Interlocutor Explaining, summarising, developing the discussion
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PREPARING FOR PAPER 5
The CAE Speaking Test is designed to offer candidates the opportunity to demonstrate their ability to use their spoken language skills effectively in a range of contexts. The test takes about 15 minutes for a pair of candidates. One examiner, the Interlocutor, conducts the test and gives a global assessment of each candidate’s performance. The other, the Assessor, does not take any part in the interaction but focuses solely on listening to, and making an assessment of, the candidate’s oral proficiency. The test is divided into four parts and each part sets candidates a different task.
Part 1 This part of the test gives candidates the opportunity to show their ability to use general interactional and social language. The Interlocutor introduces both examiners to the candidates, then candidates ask one another questions about themselves using prompts given by the Interlocutor. The Interlocutor may ask the candidates further questions about themselves as appropriate. Candidates are expected to respond to their partner’s and to the Interlocutor’s questions, and to listen to what their partner has to say.
Part 2 In this part of the test, each candidate is given the opportunity to speak for a longer period of time (one minute) without interruption. Each candidate is asked to comment on and/or react to a different set of pictures or photographs. Candidates may be asked to describe, compare, contrast, comment, identify, rank, eliminate and hypothesise or speculate. Tasks may be completely different for each candidate or they may be ‘shared’, e.g., when there is a group of three candidates. Shared tasks set candidates the same task but each candidate, in turn, receives different visual stimuli. Candidates are expected to listen carefully to the verbal instructions they are given, show their ability to organise their thoughts and ideas, and express themselves coherently in appropriate language. Candidates should pay attention while their partner is speaking, as they are asked to comment briefly (for about 20 seconds) after their partner has spoken.
however, agree to differ. At the end of this part they are asked to report on the outcome of their discussion.
Part 4 In Part 4, candidates participate in a wider discussion of the issues raised in Part 3. The questions become broader and often more abstract as the discussion develops. Candidates may be asked to respond to the same or different questions. At the end of the Speaking Test, candidates are thanked for attending, but are given no indication of the level of their achievement.
Preparation It is essential that students are able to participate in pair and group activities effectively, showing sensitivity to turn-taking and responding appropriately to their partners. Pair and group activities should be a regular feature of classroom learning. Students should be given extensive practice in listening carefully to instructions and remembering what they are asked to do. They should be encouraged to react to pictures and diagrams, etc., rather than merely describe them, using speculative or hypothetical language whenever possible. Students need to be equipped with the right kind of language for, e.g., exchanging information/opinions, giving reasons, speculating, hypothesising, agreeing, disagreeing politely justifying and negotiating. During classroom activities, students should be instructed to speak clearly so that they can be heard and paraphrase effectively when they do not know or cannot remember a word. Students should be familiar with the timing and the focus of each part of the test. They should be able to handle the whole test confidently, yet ask for clarification/repetition if needed.
Part 1 Students should be made aware that they are expected to react naturally to their partners and not rehearse speeches for this part of the test. They should show sensitivity to each other’s contributions, invite their partners to participate, and not dominate the interaction.
Part 3 In Part 3, candidates are expected to negotiate and collaborate with each other, discussing a problem-solving task fully, openly and clearly. Candidates may be asked to discuss, evaluate, speculate and/or select. They are given a set of visual prompts on which the task is based. The task gives candidates the opportunity to show their own range of language and their ability to invite the opinions and ideas of their partner. There is no right or wrong answer to this task but candidates are asked to reach a conclusion. They can,
Part 2 Give students practice in talking for one minute on a set subject, or ‘holding the floor’ in a classroom situation so that they can organise their thoughts and ideas during this long turn. Make students aware that, in this part of the test, it is essential not to interrupt while their partners are speaking. Students need to be clear about what is considered an inadequate response, e.g., ‘In the first picture the scene looks
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modern, in the other it looks old-fashioned’, instead of, e.g., ‘Both pictures of the building portray a calm and peaceful setting, but the older scene suggests that there was more traffic on the river at the time, whereas ...’ Students should realise that their responses need to go beyond the level of pure description and contain a speculative element. Students who listen carefully to their instructions and follow them will do well.
Part 3 For this part of the test, candidates need to be able to interact and carry out the task while keeping the conversation going. Encourage students to make use of conversation ‘fillers’, e.g., ‘Well, now, let me see ...’, which they can call upon (sparingly) to give themselves time to think. Expose students to as great a variety of visual stimuli as possible and invite their reactions to it. Students should attempt to demonstrate their command of a wide range of linguistic resources and communication strategies. Simply agreeing or disagreeing with or echoing what their partner has said will not enable them to do this. Each student should make a positive contribution to the task in question. Although the completion of the task is not essential, it is advisable for students to attempt to reach the specified outcome within the time allotted.
Grammar and Vocabulary (Accuracy and Appropriacy) On this scale, candidates are awarded marks for the accurate and appropriate use of syntactic forms and vocabulary in order to meet the task requirements. At CAE level, candidates are expected to know enough grammar and vocabulary to produce accurate and appropriate language without continual pauses to search for words or structures. The range and appropriate use of vocabulary are assessed here. However, it should be noted that only the accuracy of the grammar is assessed here as the range of grammatical structures is assessed under Discourse Management.
Discourse Management On this scale, examiners are looking for evidence of the candidate’s ability to express ideas and opinions in coherent, connected speech. The CAE tasks require candidates to construct sentences and produce utterances (extended as appropriate) in order to convey information and to express or justify opinions. The candidate’s ability to maintain a coherent flow of language with an appropriate range of linguistic resources over several utterances is assessed here.
Pronunciation (Individual Sounds and Prosodic Features) Part 4 Students should be encouraged to talk about current events and express an opinion about them so that they can participate fully in the last part of the test. They are asked questions by the Interlocutor and they are expected to develop the discussion, rather than simply give one-word answers. Students should be aware that they are not being assessed on their ideas, but examiners can only assess candidates on the language they produce and those candidates who fail to make a contribution will not do well. At this stage of the test, both candidates and the Interlocutor can interact more freely. This gives candidates a final opportunity to show examiners what they are capable of.
ASSESSMENT AND MARKING
Throughout the test, candidates are assessed not in relation to each other but according to the following criteria: Grammar and Vocabulary, Discourse Management, Pronounciation, and Interactive Communication. These criteria should be interpreted within the overall context of the Cambridge Common Scale for Speaking (page 53), where CAE is at Level 4. Both examiners assess the candidates. The Assessor applies detailed, Analytical Scales, the Interlocutor applies a Global Scale, which is a less detailed scale based on the Analytical Scales.
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This refers to the candidate’s ability to produce comprehensible utterances to fulfil the CAE task requirements, i.e., it refers to the production of individual sounds, the appropriate linking of words, and the use of stress and intonation to convey the intended meaning. First language accents are acceptable, provided communication is not impeded. It is recognised that at CAE level, even in the top assessment band, candidates’ pronunciation will be influenced by features of their first language.
Interactive Communication (Turn-taking, Initiating and Responding) This refers to the candidate’s ability to interact with the Interlocutor and the other candidate by initiating and responding appropriately and at the required speed and rhythm to fulfil the task requirements. It includes the ability to use functional language and strategies to maintain or repair interaction, e.g., in conversational turn-taking, and a willingness to develop the conversation and move the task towards a conclusion. Candidates should be able to maintain the coherence of the discussion and may, if necessary, ask the Interlocutor or the other candidate for clarification.
Typical Minimum A dequate Performance A typical minimum adequate performance at CAE level can be summarised as follows: Develops the interaction with contributions which are mostly coherent and extended when dealing with the CAE level tasks. Grammar is mostly accurate and vocabulary appropriate. Utterances are understood with very little strain on the listener. Candidates are assessed on their own individual performance according to the established criteria and are not assessed in relation to each other. Assessment is based on performance in the whole test, and is not related to performance in particular parts of the test. The Assessor awards marks for each of the four criteria listed above. The Interlocutor awards each candidate one global mark. After initial training of examiners, standardisation of marking is maintained by both bi-annual examiner co-ordination sessions and by monitoring visits to centres by Team Leaders. During the co-ordination sessions, examiners watch and discuss sample Paper 5 Speaking Tests recorded on video, and then conduct practice tests with volunteer ‘candidates’ in order to establish a common standard of assessment. The sample tests on video are selected to demonstrate a range of task types and different levels of competence, and are pre-marked by a team of experienced examiners. In many countries, Oral Examiners are assigned to teams, each of which is led by a Team Leader who may be responsible for approximately fifteen Oral Examiners. Team Leaders give advice and support to Oral Examiners, as required. The Team Leaders are responsible to a Senior Team Leader who is the professional representative of UCLES for the oral examinations. Senior Team Leaders are appointed by UCLES and attend an annual co-ordination and development session in the U.K. Team Leaders are appointed by the Senior Team Leader in consultation with the local administration.
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Cambridge Main Suite
CPE
CAE
FCE
PET
KET
Cambridge Common Scale for Speaking
CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 5 Fully operational command of the spoken language. Able to handle communication in most situations, including unfamiliar or unexpected ones. Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express complex ideas and concepts and produce extended discourse that is coherent and always easy to follow. Rarely produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Pronunciation is easily understood and prosodic features are used effectively; many features, including pausing and hesitation, are ‘native-like’. CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 4 Good operational command of the spoken language. Able to handle communication in most situations. Able to use accurate and appropriate linguistic resources to express ideas and produce discourse that is generally coherent. Occasionally produces inaccuracies and inappropriacies. Maintains a flow of language with only natural hesitation resulting from considerations of appropriacy or expression. L1 accent may be evident but does not affect the clarity of the message. CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 3 Generally effective command of the spoken language. Able to handle communication in familiar situations. Able to organise extended discourse but occasionally produces utterances that lack coherence and some inaccuracies and inappropriate usage occur. Maintains a flow of language, although hesitation may occur whilst searching for language resources. Although pronunciation is easily understood, L1 features may be intrusive. Does not require major assistance or prompting by an interlocutor. CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 2 (Threshold) Limited but effective command of the spoken language. Able to handle communication in most familiar situations. Able to construct longer utterances but is not able to use complex language except in well-rehearsed utterances. Has problems searching for language resources to express ideas and concepts resulting in pauses and hesitation. Pronunciation is generally intelligle, but L1 features may put a strain on the listener. Has some ability to compensate for communication difficulties using repair strategies but may require prompting and assistance by an interlocutor. CAMBRIDGE LEVEL 1 (Waystage) Basic command of the spoken language. Able to convey basic meaning in very familiar or highly predictable situations. Produces utterances which tend to be very short - words or phrases - with frequent hesitations and pauses. Dependent on rehearsed or formulaic phrases with limited generative capacity. Only able to produce limited extended discourse. Pronunciation is heavily influenced by L1 features and may at times be difficult to understand. Requires prompting and assistance by an interlocutor to prevent communication from breaking down. Pre-Waystage Level Zero
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COMMON QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GENERAL
Do I need to take a course if I want to take the CAE examination? No, it is not necessary, although most candidates take a preparatory course before they take the examination.
What is the mark allocation for each paper? Each paper is equally weighted at 40 marks. An overview of the marks allocation: Paper 1 Parts 1&4 - 1 mark for each correct answer Parts 2&3 -2 marks each for each correct answer Paper 2 Each of the 2 questions is marked out of 5 Paper 3 1 mark for each correct answer Paper 4 1 mark for each correct answer Paper 5 Each candidate is assessed out of 30 The total for each paper is weighted to 40, bringing the maximum total to 200. A candidate achieving 60% is likely to pass the paper.
What is the pass mark? To pass the examination with Grade C it is necessary to achieve approximately 60% of the total marks available (200). Must candidates achieve a pass on each paper to pass the examination? No. Candidates cannot pass or fail any individual paper. The candidate’s grade is based on their total score from all five papers. There are no ‘hurdles’ or minimum levels of achievement required.
Can candidates make notes on the question paper?
PAPER 1 READING
What is the mark allocation? One mark is given for each correct answer to the multiple matching tasks; two marks are given for each correct answer to the multiple choice and gapped text tasks. The total score is then weighted out of a maximum 40 marks for the whole paper.
As the Paper is 1 hour 15 minutes long, what would be the recommended timing for each Part? This very much depends on candidates’ own strengths and preferred way of working, but it is worth bearing in mind how the tasks are weighted (see above). Normally 50% of the marks are allocated to the two multiple matching tasks (First and Fourth texts) while the other two tasks (multiple choice and gapped text) account for the remaining 50%.
If candidates make a mistake in filling in their answer sheets, is this picked up by the computer? If they omit a question, the computer accepts the answer sheet. If they fill in more than one lozenge for a question, the computer rejects it.
Do questions in the multiple choice task follow the order of the text? Yes, with global questions at the end.
What about the danger in Part 2, for example, that if a candidate makes one mistake, this may have a knock-on effect on at least one other question? The statistical analysis produced when material is pretested shows whether candidates are choosing wrong answers, so this potential problem can be spotted in advance.
Yes, but their notes won’t be marked. PA P E R 2 W R I T I N G
Is the use of dictionaries allowed? No.
Is each Part worth equal marks? Yes.
How can I get hold of CAE past papers? CAE past papers, and those for other EFL main suite examinations, are published by UCLES after each administration of the examination. These can be ordered through the UCLES publications department.
If candidates do include the address when writing a letter, will they be penalised? Candidates do not need to include addresses, but they will not be penalised if they do. Occasionally the instructions may ask for addresses. Page 25
Should candidates write their answers in pen or pencil? Pen should always be used, as answers in pencil may not always be legible.
PAPER 3 ENGLISH IN USE
What is the mark allocation overall? There is one mark for each question.
How do you guarantee that the different versions are all equal in difficulty? For security purposes, there are several versions of the Listening Test in use at each session. As for the other papers, the material for the Listening Tests is pretested in advance, in order to check that it is suitable in terms of content as well as levels of difficulty. After the examination has been taken, before grading takes place, the Listening Test results are analysed and the average marks gained by candidates in each test are compared.
If candidates write two possible answers to a question, how are they marked?
PAPER 5 SPEAKING
If both are correct, the candidate is awarded the mark(s); if one is incorrect, no marks are awarded. (This is also the same for Paper 4.)
Is Part 1 assessed?
What if the answer is right, but a candidate has misspelt it? All spellings must be correct in Paper 3.
How should answers for the ‘punctuation/spelling’ type task in Part 3 be recorded? The correct spelling of the incorrect word, or the punctuation mark together with the word which precedes or follows it, should be written on the answer sheet.
The examiners assess performance throughout the whole test.
Is 2:2 the only possible format? The standard format is 2:2 and, wherever possible, this will be the form which the Speaking Test will take. At centres where there is an uneven number of candidates, the last candidate will form a group of three with the previous pair of candidates. In exceptional circumstances and emergencies only a 1:1 format will be allowed.
Are candidates from the same school paired together? In Part 5, can a cognate of one of the words used in the first text be used in the answer? No. This task requires candidates to find a new way of expressing the information from the first text.
What happens if a candidate writes more than two words as an answer in Part 5? No marks will be awarded for an answer of more than two words.
PAPER 4 LISTENING
Is there any background noise on the tape? Sound effects may be used to ‘set the scene’, but are not used while there is speech. Very subdued audience reaction may be heard when a speaker is giving a talk, but this is never intrusive.
Does spelling have to be correct? Common words and those which are easy to spell are expected to be correct.
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In some centres candidates from the same school are paired together. However, where candidates from a number of different schools are entered at the same centre, some candidates may find that they are paired with a candidate from another school. Candidates should check with the centre through which they are entering for the local procedure.
Does knowing your partner make it easier or harder to do well? There is no evidence to suggest that candidates perform better when examined with someone they know or vice versa. Some candidates feel relaxed and confident when paired with someone they know, others may feel inhibited. In both cases, the examiners are trained to provide equal opportunities for all candidates to perform to the best of their ability.
Does it matter if a candidate uses slang or speaks with a regional accent? The use of slang is acceptable provided that it is appropriate. Regional accents are also acceptable so long as they are used consistently.
May candidates interrupt or ask questions during their partner’s ‘long turn’ in Part 2? No. Listening candidates should allow their partner to speak without interruption in this part of the test.
What about the mis-matching of candidates, e.g., a shy person with an extrovert? Examiners are trained to deal with this kind of situation and ensure no-one is disadvantaged. Everyone has the chance to show what they can do. However, candidates must remember that while it is important not to dominate a weaker candidate, it is vital that they make the best use of the time available to show off their language skills.
E N T R I E S & R E S U LT S
What is the date of the CAE examination? The CAE examination can be taken twice a year, in June and in December. The dates are published in the Examination Regulations. Check with your UCLES Local Secretary or British Council Office.
Where can candidates enrol? The UCLES Local Secretary or British Council Office can give you information about centres where the examination is taken. You do not need to apply to UCLES directly. Fees are payable to the local centre, and will vary slightly from place to place.
How do I get my results? Results are issued to Local Secretaries approximately six weeks after the examination has been taken. Certificates are issued about a month after that.
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