MCU-FDT Medical Foundation Department of Microbiology and Parasitology College of Medicine 1.
Bacteria which require organic form of carbon for growth and requires light for their source of energy are classified as: ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed., p. 54) A. Photoorganotrophs C. Chemoautotrophs B. Photolautotrophs D. Chemolithotrophs MPL 0.25 2.
Doubling time of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is… (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5th ed., 430) A. 1 – 2 hours C. 10 – 12 hours B. 5 – 10 hours D. 15 – 20 hours MPL 0.25 3.
The CNM group of bacteria include the following EXCEPT: Microbiology, 19th ed., p. 81) A. Mycobacterium C. Clostridium B. Nocardia D. Corynebacterium MPL 0.5
(Zinsser
4.
The bioactive center of the lipopolysaccharide of gram-negative bacteria reside in this region: (Zinsser Microbiology , 19th ed, p. 84) A. I C. III B. II D. IV MPL 0.25 5.
Serologic specificity of the LPS reside in this region: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 84 A. I C. III B. II D. IV MPL 0.25 6.
Development of spores by Bacillus anthracis occurs during this phase in its growth cycle: A. Lag phase C. Stationary phase B. Log phase D. Decline phase MPL 0.5 7.
This is a process of exchange of genetic information wherein a bacterial virus serves as a vector for gene transmission: : (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 136) A. Transformation C. Transfection B. Transduction D. Conjugation MPL 0.5 8.
This process is the major mechanism transfer of drug resistance which can occur between unrelated genera: (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5 th ed., 297) A. Transformation C. Transfection B. Transduction D. Conjugation MPL 0.5
9.
The phosphoribosylribitol phosphate capsule plays the critical role in the pathogenesis of invasive disease caused by this organism: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 465) A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Haemophilus influenzae D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae MPL 0.33 10.
Martin, 2 years old, was admitted for difficulty of breathing and actibve measles. Chest X-ray revealed the presence of pneumonia with pleural effusion. Diagnostic tap revealed purulent material which was cultured in BAP. Colonies showed β-hemolytic colonies and Gram staining showed gram-positive cocci in clusters. Catalase test was positive. What is the most likely causative agent? (Zinsser Microbioology, 19th ed p. 402 and 412) A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Haemophilus influenzae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus aureus MPL 1.00 11.
Yinyin, 24 years old, was admitted because of diarrhea after eating oysters. The organism isolated is a gram-negative bacillus which grew best at pH of 7.6 to 9.0. It is oxidase positive. What is the most likely agent? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p.570) A. Shigella dysenteriae C. Escherichia coli B. Vibrio parahemolyticus D. Salmonella typhi MPL 1.00 12.
Sophia, 45 years old, consulted because of multiple nodular lesions on her face earlobes and wrists. Skin slit smear of the nodule on the earlobe showed numerous acid fast bacilli (+++++). What is the most likely classification of this patient? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p.518) A. Lepromatous leprosy C. Borderline leprosy B. Indeterminate leprosy D. Tuberculoid leprosy MPL 1.00 13.
Diana, 2 weeks old, was admitted because of seizure. CSF examination showed pleocytosis, increased protein and decreased sugar. The colonies isolated in BAP were β-hemolytic. (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed. p 426 – 427) A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Staphylococcyus aureus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis MPL 0.5 14.
Fred, 39 years old, consulted because of chronic cough of one month. Sputum culture was requested. The colonies were first observed after two weeks of incubation. The colonies were described as rough, dry and buff colored. What is the most likely causative agent? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 499 A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
MPL 14.
C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Haemophilus influenzae
0.5
Jodie, 10 years old, was admitted with admitting diagnosis of bacterial endocarditis. Blood culture in BAP grew colonies with partial hemolysis. Gram staining of the growth revealed gram-positive cocci. Optochin and bile solubility tests were negative. What is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 236) A. Staphylococcus aureus C. Viridans streptococcus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
MPL 1.00 15. Charlie, 21-year old male, complaint of dysuria. Urine culture was done on MacConkey showing colorless colonies. Biochemical test revealed K/A with H2S on TSI, urease and phenylalanine deaminase tests were positive. What is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23 th ed, p. 249) A. Yersinia enterocolitica C. Escherichia coli B. Pseudomoans aeruginosa D. Proteus mirabilis MPL 1.00 16.
Cholo, 27 years old engineer, was diagnoed with rickettsial infection. His serum sample was for Weil-Felix test which turned out to be positive for antibodies to Proteus OK-19 and OX-2. The serum sample was also inoculated intraperitoneally to a male guinea pig producing scrotal swelling. What is the most likely causative agent? (Essentials of Medical Microbiology, 5 th ed., 463) A. Rickettsia typhi C. Rickettsia tsutsugamushi B. Rickettsia prowazeki D. Rickettsia ricketsii MPL 0.25 16.
This organism is obligately intracellular, susceptible to sulfonamide and produces inclusion bodies that contain glycogen in tissue culture: (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 359) A. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Ureaplasma urealyticum B. Mycoplasma hominis D. Coxiella burnetti MPL 1.00 17.
This gram-negative, non-motile, non-lactose fermenting bacillus produces toxin which is neurotoxic, cytotoxic and enterotoxic: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 557-558) A. Salmonella typhi C. Escherichia coli B. Campylobacter jenuni D. Shigella dysenteriae MPL 0.5 18.
The following characteristics differentiate the el tor biotype of Vibrio cholera from the classic biotype EXCEPT: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 567) A. Positive VP test C. Agglutination of chicken erythrocytes B. Positive oxidase test D. Resistance to polymyxin B MPL 0.25 19.
This gram-negative bacillus grows well in moist environment, produces blue phenazine pigment, obtain energy from carbohydrates using the oxidative rather than the fermentative pathway: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 577) A. Klebsiella pneumoniae C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Proteus vulgaris D. Escherichia coli MPL 1.00 20.
This gram-negative, facultatively intracellular bacillus is marked by bipolar staining and produces V and W antigens which correlate with its ability to proliferate rapidly and cause overwhelming infection: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 585) A. Yersinia pestis C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis B. Bacillus anthracis D. Pasteurella multocida MPL 0.25
21.
The toxin of this gram-positive obligate cholinergic nerve endings to block the Microbiology, 19th ed p. 650) A. Clostridium botulinum C. B. Clostridium tetani D. MPL 0.5
anaerobic organism acts on the release of acetylcholine: (Zinsser Corynebacterium diphtheriae Bacillus anthracis
22.
Ryza, 6 years old, female, was diagnosed with meningitis. CSF specimen was cultured in CAP at 5-10% CO2. The colonies that grew were gram stained which revealed gram-negative cocci. What is the most likely causative agent of the meningitis? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 444 and 447) A. Haemophilus influenzae C. Neisseria meningitidis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus agalactiae MPL 0.5 23.
Jhona, 5 years old, was brought for consultation because of sore throat. PE showed enlarged, exudative tonsillitis with large palpable, tender, cervical lymph nodes. A smear from the tonsils was gram stained showing gram-positive, clubbed-shaped bacilli which lie parallel or form angles with each other. What is the most likely causative agent? ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 487 and 492) A. Clostridium tetani C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Bacillus anthracis D. Coxiella burnetti MPL 1.00 24.
Cathy, 28 years old, consulted because of dysuria. Urine was cultured on BAP. The growth was Gram stained showing gram-positive cocci in clusters. What is the most likely organism? ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 401 and 414) A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Proteus mirabilis B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Streptococcus agalactiae MPL 0.5 25.
Marie, 3 years old, was admitted with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Review of history revealed that she had impetigo on the buttocks. What Mprotein type of Streptococcus pyogenes is the most likely cause? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed p. 424) A. M4 C. M49 B. M12 D. M57 MPL 0.25 26.
This organism grows in 6.5% NaCl, 40% bile, and can hydrolyze esculin and is resistant to penicillin: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 427-428) A. Streptococcus bovis C. Enterococcus fecalis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Staphylococcus epidermidis MPL 0.25 27.
Sputum culture of a patient diagnosed with pneumonia showed partial hemolysis on BAP. Biochemical tests showed the colonies which are bile-soluble. Subculture of growth in disc containing ethylhydroxycupreine HCl showed inhibition of growth. What is the most likely causative agent? (Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 237). A. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus viridans B. Klebsiella pneumonaie D. Haemophilus influenzae MPL 0.5
30.
What is the most useful and rapid method for the identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 434) A. Bacitracin test C. CAMP test B. Neufeld Quellung test D. VP test MPL 0.5 31.
The capsule contributes to the invasive property of the following organisms EXCEPT one: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 447, 464, 549) A. Neisseria menigitidis C. Hemophilus influenzae B. Klebsiella pneumoniae D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae MPL 1.00 32.
The presence of this antigen is one of the factors that can explain the virulence of Escherichia coli in neonatal disease: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 545) A. Vi antigen C. O antigen B. H antigen D. K1 antigen MPL 0.33 33.
Edgar, 9 years old boy, was admitted because of fever of 5 days duration with accompanying headache, abdominal pain, and vomiting. Enteric fever was entertained. How are you going to confirm the diagnosis? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 563) A. Blood culture C. Polymerase chain reaction B. Stool culture D. Serology MPL 1.00 34.
What is considered the most sensitive method to the diagnosis of whooping cough? Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23th ed, p. 283. A. Direct fluorescent antibody test C. Culture isolation B. Polymerase chain reaction D. Serology MPL 0.5 35.
The exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Corynebacterium diphtheriae have the same mechanism of action: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 578) A. Inhibition of protein synthesis by blocking EF-2 B. Activation of intracellular adenyl cyclase C. Inhibition of the release of excitatory neurotransmitter D. Activation of extracellular guanyl cyclase MPL 0.5 36.
This highly specific laboratory test for syphilis is easy to perform, inexpensive and sensitive: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 664) A. IgG-FTA-ABS
C. MHA-TP
B. TPI
D.
MPL -
1.00
VDRL
37.
Chester, 17 years old, was brought for consultation for productive cough of three weeks duration. On PE, she was afebrile, not in CR distress, with coarse and fine rales appreciated on both lung fields. This is most probably caused by this gramnegative, branched, filamentous organism that can induce the development of hemagglutinins that will agglutinate human type-O erythrocytes when incubated at 0oC to 4oC, but not at 37oC: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 735)
MPL 38.
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Chlamydia pneumoniae
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
D. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
0.25
Laryngeal papilloma is commonly associated with this human papillomavirus serotypes: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 976) A. 6 and 11 B. 16 and 18
MPL 39.
0.5
A. Adenovirus
C. Parainfluenza virus
B. Rhinovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
1.00
Among these viruses, which one has the following characteristics: ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762) A. Respiratory syncytial virus
C. Coronavirus
B. Measles virus
D. Influenza virus
MPL 41.
D. 62 and 65
What is the most common cause of rhinitis is all age group?
MPL 40.
C. 45 and 52
0.25
The human immunodeficiency virus is described with the following characteristics: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762) A. ssRNA, enveloped virus with segmented, positive-sense genome B. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome C. ssRNA, enveloped virus with segmented, negative-sense genome D. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, negative-sense genome
MPL -
0.25
42.
The Rhabdoviruses are described with the following characteristics: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762) A. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome B. ssRNA, naked virus with non-segmented, positive-sense genome C. ssRNA, enveloped virus with non-segmented, negative-sense genome D. ssRNA, naked virus with non-segmented, negative-sense genome
MPL 43.
0.25
The picornaviruses are described with the following characteristics: Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 761-762) A. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome B. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome C. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome D. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome
MPL 44.
0.25
The hepatitis C virus is described as follows: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 761-762 and 1040) A. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome B. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome C. ssRNA, enveloped viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome D. ssRNA, naked viruses with non-segmented, positive-sense genome
MPL 45.
Which of these markers of hepatitis B infection correlates with the absence of HBcAg and DNA polymerase, less infectivity and a better prognosis for chronic hepatitis. (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1043) A. Anti-HBc
C. Anti-HBe
B. Anti-HBd
D. Anti-HBs
MPL 46.
0.25
0.33
Which of these markers of HIV indicates active viral replication? A. p24
C. gp41
B. p55
D. gp120
MPL -
0.5
47.
Which of the following is the only filamentous mammalian virus? Zinsser, 19 th ed, p. 761-762 and 1031 A. Ebola
C. Japanese B encephalitis
B. Dengue
D. Yellow fever
MPL 48.
This virus family is described with the following characteristics: double-stranded nucleic acid, naked with segmented genome: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 761-762) A. Picornaviridae
C. Coronaviridae
B. Reoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae
MPL 49.
A. Human herpes 1 and 2
C. Human herpes virus 4
B. Human herpes virus 3
D. Human herpes virus 5
0.25
This virus undergoes antigenic shift producing major changes in the H and N glycoproteins: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 994) A. Influenza A virus
C. Parainfluenza virus
B. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Calicivirus
MPL 51.
1.00
This virus shows tropism for the B lymphocytes and certain epithelial cells. It produces nonproductive infection and transformation of B cells: (Essentials of Medical Microbiology by Volk et al, 5th ed., p. 553-554 )
MPL 50.
0.25
0.5
This fungus occurs as yeast in tissues of infected patients and when cultured at room temperature occurs as mold form: (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p.1072) A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes B. Cladosporium werneckii
MPL -
0.5
C. Sporothrix schenckii D. Epidermophyton floccosum
52.
Mark, 24-year old male, consulted because of hypopigmented macules on his chest, upper back, shoulders and arms. Scrapings of the lesions were taken for microscopic examination. Short, unbranched hyphae and numerous spherical cells were seen. What is the most likely causative agent? Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1131-1132 A. Phialophora verrucosa
C. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Malassezia furfur
D. Trichosporon beigellii
MPL 53.
Rapid presumptive test for Candida albicans is… Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 1142 A. Grape-like clustering of microconidia
C. Multiple budding yeast cell
B. Germ tube production
D. Sclerotic bodies
MPL 54.
1.00
1.00
What is the most common cause of athlete’s foot? (Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 1130)
A. Trichophyton mentagrophytes B. Epidermophyton floccosum MPL .25 55.
Multiple budding yeast cell is characteristic of this fungus: Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1109)
A. Coccidioides immitis B. Histoplasma capsulatum MPL 1.00 56.
C. Coccidioides immitis D. Histoplasma capsulatum
What is the diagnostic feature of chromoblastomycosis? Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 1118
A. Spherule B. Sclerotic bodies MPL 0.5 58.
C. Sporothrix schenckii D. Paracoccidioides braziliensis
Charlie, 57 years old male, was admitted because of meningitis. India ink staining of the CSF showed large, encapsulated yeast cells. What is the most likely causative agent? Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 1144)
A. Cryptococcus neoformans B. Candida albicans MPL 1.00 57.
C. Microsporum canis D. Microsporum gypseum
C. Multiple buds D. Rosetting of microconidia
What is the infectious particle of Coccidioides immitis? Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 1092)
A. Arthroconidium B. Chlamydospore MPL 1.00
C. Spherule D. Macroconidia
57.
The defining feature of this fungal infection is the presence of local swelling and interconnecting sinuses containing sulfur granules: Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23rd ed, p. 633. A. Lobo’s disease C. Darling’s disease B. Mycetoma D. Sporothrichosis MPL 0.25 58.
Mang Tomas, 56 year old gardener, came in with multiple subcutaneous nodules and abscesses along the lymphatics: Jawetz Medical Microbiology, 23 rd ed, p. 636. A. Sporothrix schenckii C. Trichophyton tonsurans B. Epidermophyton floccosum D. Pseudoallescheria boydii MPL 1.00 61.
One of the following is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction: Zinsser Microbiology, 19th ed, p. 323
A. B. C. D. MPL -
Bronchial asthma Contact dermatitis ABO incompatibility Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis 1.00
62.
The following are mediators of non-specific cellular immunity EXCEPT A. T and B cells C. Macrophages B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes D. NK cells MPL 0.5 63.
Specificity of the immunoglobulin molecule is determined by these components: A. Variable and constant regions of the light chains B. Variable regions of both the light and the heavy chains C. Constant regions of both the light and heavy chains D. Variable and constant regions of the heavy chains MPL 1.00 64.
The cellular mediators of immediate response to cytosolic pathogens are the: A. PMNs C. NK cells B. T and B cells D. CRP
MPL 65.
The predominant antibody found in breastmilk is the: ( Zinsser Microbiology, 19 th ed, p. 224) A. IgA
C. IgG
B. IgE
D. IgM
MPL 66.
0.25
1.00
This antibody molecule has neutralizing, opsonizing and complement activating activity: A. IgA C. IgG B. IgE D. IgM MPL 0.25
67.
The level of this antibody approximates that of the adult at birth: A. IgA C. IgG B. IgE D. IgM MPL 1.00 68.
These cells have dual functions in immunity: antibody secretion and antigen presentation: A. B cells C. Macrophages B. NK cells D. Dendritic cells MPL 0.25 69.
This cytokine secreted by TH1 cells enhances the microbicidal power of the macophages: A. TNF-α C. IL-2 B. IFN-γ D. GM-CSF MPL 0.25 70.
The primary mediators of specific humoral immunity: A. Antibodies C. Acute phase proteins B. Alternate complement D. Lysozyme MPL 1.00 71.
What is the only nematode that requires intermediate host to complete its life cycle? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 246) A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Trichuris trichiura B. Enterobius vermicualris D. Trichinella spiralis MPL 0.5 72.
The infective larva of this parasite causes erythematous, serpiginous, intracutaneous tunnels which is accompanied by intense itchiness: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 281) A. Ancylostoma braziliense C. Toxocara canis B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura MPL 0.25 73.
The adult stage of this parasite is described to have attenuated anterior portion and a fleshy posterior portion: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 240) A. Ancylostoma brazilinese C. Necator americanus B. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichiura MPL 1.00 74.
All these parasites have a lung phase during their developmental cycle EXCEPT: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 259, 283, 310) A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Strongyloides stercoralis B. Enterobius vermicularis D.. Necator americanus MPL 1.00 75.
Embryonated ovum is the infective stage of this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 303) A. Trichinella spiralis C. Capillaria philippinensis B. Enterobius vermicularis D. Strongyloides stercoralis MPL 0.5
76.
This adult nematode is larviparous which means it produces larva rather than ova: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 232) A. Capillaria philippinensis C. Enterobius vermicualris B. Trichinella spiralis D. Trichuris trichiura MPL 0.5 77.
The most effective preventive measure against this parasite is thru thorough freezing or cooking of food potentially carrying the parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 240) A. Trichuris trichiura C. Enterobius vermicularis B. Trichinella spiralis D. Strongyloides stercoralis MPL 1.00 78.
When embryonated egg of this parasite is ingested, its second-stage larva encysts in tissues such as the liver and lungs and cause hypereosinophilia: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 326-327) A. Wuchereria bancrofti C. Toxocara canis B. Trichinella spiralis D. Trichuris trichiura MPL 1.00 79.
A stained peripheral blood film revealed the presence of this microfilaria with two discreet nuclei at the tip of the tail: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 365) A. Brugia malayi C. Onchocerc volvulus B. Loa loa D. Wuchereria bancrofti MPL 0.5 80.
The ova of this parasite are NOT commonly recovered in the stool: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 303) A. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Enterobius vermicularis B. Trichuris trichiura D. Hookworms MPL 1.00 81. Routine examination of a stool sample was submitted for facalysis. The result revealed the presence of spherical cyst-like material with two nuclei and one chromatoidal body with rounded ends. What is the most probable parasite seen? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 103) A. Balantidium coli C. Giardia lamblia B. Entamoeba coli D. Entamoeba histolytica MPL 0.5 82.
This parasite is transmitted by ingestion of the sporulated oocyst: (Basic ClinicalParasitology by Brown et al, 6th ed., p.52) A. Naegleria fowleri C. Cryptosporidium parvum B. Trichomonas vaginalis D. Balantidium coli MPL 0.25 83.
Parasites which are rounded anteriorly and pointed posteriorly with a pair of nuclei containing a central karyosome were seen in watery stool of a patient with severe diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 44) A. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Giardia lamblia B. Chilomastix mesnilii D. Endolimax nana MPL 0.5
84.
Nelson, 32-year old engineer. Was admitted because of on and off high grade fever with accompanying chills of two weeks duration. Peripheral blood smear showed ring form trophozoites and crescent-shaped gametocytes. What is the most probable causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 188) A. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum MPL 1.00 85.
The infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi is... (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 90) A. Amastigote C. Epimastigote B. Promastigote D. Trypomastigote MPL 0.25 Kalaazar is caused by this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 71) A. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Leishmania donovani B. Trypanosoma gambiense D. Leishmania tropica MPL 0.5 86.
87.
CJ, 1 year old male, had dysentery described as bloody and mucoid. What are the most probable causative agents? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 115, 216) A. Entamoeba coli and Endolimax nana B. Entamoeba histolytica and Balantidium coli C. Cryptosporidium parvum and Isospora belli D. Giardia lamblia and Trichomonas hominis MPL 1.00 88.
The infective stage of Plasmodium falciparum to the intermediate host is the… (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 176) A. Trophozoites C. Merozoites B. Sporozoites D. Gametocytes MPL 0.5 89.
This is the only trematode with a non-operculated ovum: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 418, 452, 459, 464) A. Schistosoma japonicum C. Clonorchis sinensis B. Fasciola hepatica D. Paragonimus westermani MPL 1.00 90. The metacercaria is the infective stage of the following parasites EXCEPT: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 416-417, 458, 473, 481) A. Opistorchis felineus C. Schistosoma japonicum B. Metagonimus yokogawai D. Echinostoma ilocanum MPL 0.25 91.
Mang Pandoy, 58 years old male, had a history of four weeks cough with bloodtinged expectorate. Sputum examination was done which revealed the presence of operculated ova. What is the most likely causative agent? (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 464) A. Metagonimus yokogawai C. Paragonimus westermani B. Clonorchis sinensis D. Echinostoma ilocanum,
MPL -
1.00
92.
This cestode requires two intermediate hosts for the completion of its developmental cycle: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 496) A. Taenia saginata C. Echinococcus granulosus B. Diphyllobothrium latum D. Dipylidium caninum MPL 0.25 93
Sparganum larva is the infective stage of this parasite: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 496) A. Diphyllobotrium latum C. Dipylidium caninum B. Taenia solium D. Hymenolepis nana MPL 1.00 94
These parasites are transmitted by eating improperly cooked pork EXCEPT: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 167, 240, 519, 533) A. Taenia solium C. Trichinella spiralis B. Echinococcus granulosus D. Toxoplasma gondii MPL 0.5 95
This parasite utilizes the snail as its first and second intermediate hosts to complete its developmental cycle: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 458) A. Metagonimus yokogawai C. Paragonimus westermani B. Clonorchis sinensis D. Echinostoma ilocanum, MPL 0.25 96.
This parasite is described as ribbon-like, scolex with 4 cup-like suckers and rostellum with double row of large and small hooks: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 513) A. Taenia solium C. Hymenolepis nana B. Taenia saginata D. Hymenolepis diminuta MPL 0.5 97.
This parasite is referred to as the dwarf tapeworm: (Basic Clinical Parasitology by Brown, 6th ed, p. 191) A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus B. Hymenolepid diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum MPL 1.00 98.
Which of the following cestodes does NOT require an intermediate host to complete its life cycle? (Basic Clinical Parasitology by Brown, 6 th ed, p. 192) A. Hymenolepis nana C. Echinococcus granulosus B. Hymenolepid diminuta D. Dipylidium caninum MPL 0.25 99.
Proper cooking of food is the most important preventive measure against this condition: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9 th ed., 247, 261, 425) A. Schistosomiasis C. Capillariasis B. Cochin china diarrhea D. Malaria MPL 0.5 100. Man becomes infected by this parasite by ingestion of cysticercoid larva: (Clinical Parasitology by Beaver et al, 9th ed., 508) A. Taenia solium C. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Dipylidium caninum D. Metagnonimus yokogawai MPL 0.5
