Atpl Exam Questions Answers

SKY4U AVIATION SERVICE - GERMANY

ATPL EXAM - SCREENING

ATPL QUESTIONS - EXAM - RANDOM CHOICE AIR LAW

Question 1 Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft? A) Annex 18

B) Annex 15 C) Annex 16 D) Annex 17

Question 2 Where was the Convention on o n International Civil Aviation signed in 1944? A) Chicago

B) Montreal C) Geneva D) Rome

Question 3 PANS-OPS means: A) Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations

B) Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures C) Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations D) Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations

PLEASE DO NOT WRITE ON THIS PAPER - MARK YOUR CHOICE ON THE ANSWER SHEET WITH "X"



Question 4 The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in approach, is: A) Visual manoeuvring (circling)

B) Visual approach C) Contact approach D) Aerodrome traffic pattern

Question 5 What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the relevant DH or MDH? A) Go around / Missed Approach B) Glide path C) Final approach D) Approach to landing

Question 6 The Transition Level: A) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

B) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established C) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command D) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP




Question 7 A radial is: A) a magnetic bearing to a VOR station B) a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station

C) a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or outbound to or from the VOR D) a QDM

ELECTRICAL

Question 8 In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a: A) 3 phase current transformer unit. B) static inverter. C) rotary converter. D) Transformer Rectifier Unit.

Question 9 Recharging an aircraft's battery from an AC system would require: A) nothing since the battery can supply AC as well. B) a rectifier. C) a TRU.

D) an inverter.




ENGINE

Question 10 An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by: A) the oil level being too high B) operating with a too high viscosity oil C) operating with an excessively rich mixture D) the oil level being too low

Question 11 In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: A) fuel cooling so as to prevent vapor creation likely to unprime nozzles B) automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter C) jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks

D) fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected

INSTRUMENTS

Question 12 Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument: A) ADI Attitude Display Indicator.

B) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator. C) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator. D) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.




Question 13 Where are the flight director Command Bars displayed? A) ND B) PFD

C) EICAM D) FD control panel

Question 14 Mode " Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means: A) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears. B) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline. C) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center line.

D) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized.

MASS & BALANCE

Question 15 What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane? A) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point

B) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect C) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag D) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab




Question 16 During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that: A) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit

B) the aeroplane is overloaded C) the centre of gravity is too far forward D) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity

PERFORMANCE

Question 17 Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by: A) VR and VMCG

B) VR and VMCA C) V2 and VMCG D) V2 and VMCA

Question 18 The take-off distance required increases: A) due to slush on the runway

B) due to lower gross mass at take-off C) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation D) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack




Question 19 In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1: A) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR B) the take-off must be continued

C) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance D) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF

FLIGHT PLANNING

Question 20 In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is: A) A B) P C) C

D) B

HUMAN PERFORMANCE

Question 21 Having consumed a small amount of alcohol, the prudent pilot will not fly for a minimum of ... Hours A) 8

B) 24 C) 12 D) 36




Question 22 The common illusion created by linear acceleration or deceleration is: A) a banking sensation due to disturbances in the fluid circulation in the inner ear B) a feeling that the aircraft has started to pitch up when the aircraft decelerates, causing an automatic attempt to push the nose down C) a combined pitch up and banking sensations D) a pitch up feeling when the aircraft accelerates

METEOROLOGY

Question 23 On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450Z 24009 KT 7000 SCT040 SCT120 15/12 Q1014 NOSIG = 0650Z 24010KT 6000 SCT040 SCT120 17/13 Q1012 NOSIG = 0850Z 23014KT 8000 BKN100 19/13 Q1009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS = 1050Z 28022G33KT 4000 TSRA SCT015 SCT050CB OVC080 16/14 Q1006 BECMG NSW = 1250Z 31016KT 9999 SCT025TCU BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSIG = 1450Z 30012KT 9999 SHRA BKN020TCU 14/10 Q1011 NOSIG = 1650Z 30009KT SCT025 BKN035 13/10 Q1013 RESHRA NOSIG = 1850Z 28006KT 9999 SCT040 11/09 Q1014 NOSIG = 2050Z 26004KT CAVOK 10/08 Q1015 NOSIG = You conclude, that... A) a cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather prevailed in the afternoon.

B) a warm front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have passed the station. C) a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather prevailed in the afternoon. D) a cold front in the morning, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the station.




Question 24 LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 + RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 KT 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB What is the lowest cloud base you may encounter at 1345Z? A) 700 ft B) 1000 ft C) 500 ft

D) 12.000 ft

Question 25 There is a natural tendency for air to flow from areas of: A) low pressure to high pressure. B) flat terrain towards the sea. C) mountainous areas to flat areas. D) high pressure to low pressure.

GENERAL NAVIGATION

Question 26 The planets move around the Sun: A) In circular orbits. B) In elliptical orbits.

C) At constant angular speed. D) At constant velocity.




Question 27 Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the mode selector switched to: A) STBY. B) ON. C) ATT/REF. D) ALIGN.

RADIO NAVIGATION

Question 28 What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? A) 600 FT/MIN.

B) 950 FT/MIN. C) 550 FT/MIN. D) 800 FT/MIN.

Question 29 The colour used on the B737-400 EHSI weather display to show turbulence is: A) flashing red. B) white or magenta. C) high colour gradient. D) magenta.




OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES

Question 30 The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by: A) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority. B) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer. C) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.

D) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority.

Question 31 According to ICAO Document 8168 Part V, when using Procedure A for noise abatement, when must you reduce power: A) 2000 ft. B) 3000 ft. C) 1500 ft.

D) 1000 ft.

Question 32 The Cat I minimum decision height is: A) 200 feet.

B) 100 feet. C) No decision height. D) 50 feet.




Question 33 When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor of: A) 1.3

B) 1.45 C) 1.5 D) 1.15

PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT

Question 34 Which speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? A) Vs0 B) Vlo C) Vfe D) Vle

Question 35 In a coordinated and level turn: A) an aeroplane cannot stall. B) the stall speed increases.

C) the stall speed decreases. D) the stall speed remains the same.




COMMUNICATION

Question 36 The words TAKE OFF are only to be used when: A) An aircraft is cleared for take-off or, when cancelling a take-off clearance. At all times the words DEPARTURE or AIRBORNE is used. Readback is mandatory.

B) An aircraft is cleared to start. C) An aircraft is cleared to line-up only. D) When clearance delivery authorises its use.

Question 37 Clearance limit is defined as: A) The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance.

B) The time at which the ATC clearance expires. C) The height below which you will hit the first obstacle. D) The flight level to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance.




ANSWER SHEET:

NAME: ______________________________________________ DATE: ___________________ QUESTION

ANS

ER

QUESTION

ANS

ER

QUESTION

ER

1

A

14

2

A

15

A

28

3

A

16

A

29

4

A

17

A

30

C

18

A

31

C

D

5 6

A

D

8

C

9

C

12 13

A

21

A

23

D A C

24

26

D

32

A

33

A D B

35 36

A

37

A

D TOTAL:

25

B

A

34

22

D

10 11

C

20

D

27

B

19

B

7

C

ANS

B

%=

MINIMUM PASS MARK IS 75% (TOTAL / 37 = ...%) EQUAL TO MINIMUM 28 CORRECT ANSWERS

FAIL: 

PASS: 

INSTRUCTOR SIGNATURE: _________________________


Atpl Exam Questions Answers

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