National University Manila College of Engineering Bachelor of Science in Environmental and Sanitary Engineering
"100 QUESTIONS IN WASTEWATER ENGINEERING" ASSIGNMENT/REPORT Submitted by: JULIANO ISAAC C. ANTONIO Student Submitted to: ENGR. MANNY TAGUBA Professor
SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT Examination Questions Multiple Choices: Write the letter of the correct answer before the number. NO ERASURES Note: Answers are in Bold Font 1. Which of following does not affect municipal water use? a.Community Size c. Climate
b. Extent of metered services d. None of the above
2. Physical Characteristics of wastewater a. pH c. organic matters
b. turbidity d. heavy metals
3. Which of the following is not characteristics of microorganisms a. Cause diseases c. deteriorate materials
b. spoil food d. none of the above
4. Amount of oxygen needed to chemically oxidize organic compounds found in wastewater a. BOD5 c. ThOD
b. COD d. TOD
5. Which of the following is correct interpretation of organic content of wastewater a. BOD>COD>TOD c. BOD=COD=TOD 6.
b. BODTOD>COD
Triclosan are compounds considered as a. EMB c. EDS
b. POPs d. ORP
7. Organoleptic parameter of wastewater a. bacteria c. surfactant
b. turbidity d. ph
8. Which of the following is not beneficial use of Class C Water?
a. Fishery Water c. Recreational Water
9.
b. Public Water Supply d. Industrial Water Supply
No industrial or domestic sewage influent shall be discharged into Class AA and SA waters. a. true c. false
10.
Which of the following is not considered on-site treatment of wastewater? a. wetlands c. ponds
11.
b. maybe d. undetermined
b. septic tank d. none of the above
The following are products of septic tank except a. sludge c. effluent
b. scum d. none of the above
12. Type of lagoon which oxygen is provided by using mechanical or diffused air system. a. aerobic lagoon c. aerated lagoon 13.
Source of pollution occur when harmful substances are emitted directly into a body of water from a pipeline or sewer. a. commercial waste c. industrial waste
14.
b. RA 8749 d. None of the above
Which of the following is not minimum water quality parameter for classifying bodies of water. a. DO c. BOD
17.
b. decreases d. none of the above
The Clean Water Act of 2004 is known as a. RA 8794 c. PD 8794
16.
b. sewage d. none of the above
As the temperature increases, DO __________. a. increases c. no relationship
15.
b. facultative lagoon d. none of the above
b. Ph d. None of the Above
Class of surface water requires approved disinfection treatment only.
a. Class AA c. Class SA 18.
b. Class A d. Class SB
The method of supplying varying quantities of air into the different parts of an aeration tank in the activated sludge process. a. High Rate Aeration c. Extended Aeration
19.
b. Tapered Aeration d. Step feed
Promotes the aggregation of small particles into larger particles to enhance their removal by gravity. a. flocculation c. coagulation
20.
b. sedimentation d. adsorption
The average time that a given unit of cell mass stays in the activated-sludge aeration tank. a. solids retention time c. hydraulic sludge age
21.
Wastewater whose initial BOD value before treatment is equal to or greater than 3000 ppm. a. Moderate waste c. Organic waste
22.
b. imhoff cone method d. azide modification
Odor of odorous compounds of Mercaptans a. rotten cabbage b. decayed cabbage
25.
b. nutrifaction d. all of the above
Method of analysis for BOD5 a. calorimetric method c. winkler method
24.
b. Strong waste d. none of the above
Aging of lake due to excessive nutrients. a. algal bloom c. eutrophication
23.
b. MCRT d. A & B
b. decayed fish d. ammoniacal
The accumulated solids separated from liquids during the treatment process that have not undergone a stabilization process. a. sludge c. biofilm
b. biomass d. total solids
26.
Pasig river classification is CLASS ___ a. Class C c. Class D
27.
Bacteria that use inorganic materials for energy and growth a. Heterotrophic bacteria c. Anoxic bacteria
28.
b. Facultative bacteria d. Autotrophic bacteria
Discharge wastewater at any treatment either partially or completely treated a. sewage c. effluent
29.
b. Class SC c. Class SD
b. sewerage d. influent
Designed to remove contaminants accumulated on the membrane a. Chemical Cleaning b. Backwashing c. Filter Aid d. Fouling
30.
Controls membrane fouling, particularly inorganic scaling and organic befouling that is not removed with backwash. a. Treatment b. Backwashing c. Prewashing d. Chemical Cleaning
31.
Volume of permeate per unit area and time. a. Feed b. Concentrate c. Flux d. Retentate
32.
The volume of liquid entering a membrane system. a. Flux b. Filtrate c. Feed d. Brine
33.
Process that involves killing of pathogens. a. Disinfection b. Filtration c. Desalination d. Salination
34. The ability of a membrane barrier to allow the passage or diffusion of a substance. a. Permeability b. Filtration c. Percolation d. Passage 35.
Precipitation of solids in the element due to solute concentration on the feed stream of the membrane. a. Condensation b. Precipitation c. Retentate d. Scaling
36.
Is a measure of water clarity how much the material suspended in water decreases the passage of light through the. a. Permeability b. Hardness c. Turbidity d. Softening
37.
Philippine Law on Effluent Regulations a. RA 9275 b. DAO 34 c. RA 7160 d. DAO 35
38. is a chemical that is added to destabilized particles and accomplish coagulation. a. Coagulant b. Sediment c. Asphyxiant d. Floc 39.
The duration of slow sand filters runs depends on water quality and loading rates. Ideally, the raw water turbidity should be less than _____________. a. 5 NTU b. 10 NTU c. 15 NTU d. 20 NTU
40.
Slow sand filters are recognized for being superior technology for the treatment of surface water sources by what organization? a. WHO b. United Nations c. USEPA d. All of the above
41.
In the formation of biolayer, biofilm on the mineral particles are exactly the same as the observed in “trickling filters” used for aerobic treatment of wastewater. a. True b. False c. Sometimes d. Never
42.
Slow sand filtration is a a. Physical Process b. Biological Process c. Chemical Process d. None of the above
43.
It involves the removal of suspended and colloidal particles from the water by passing it through a layer or bed of porous granular material such as sand. a. Slow Sand Filtration b. Rapid Sand Filtration c. Filtration d. Depth Filtration
44.
45.
46.
When high organic waste load reaches an activated sludge plant, the operators first indicator is a decrease in: a. COD in plant influent b. DO residual in the aeration tanks c. floatables in the primary clarifiers d. flow to the treatment plant Which of the following organisms should not be present in a healthy lagoon treatment system: a. aerobic bacteria b. anaerobic bacteria c. algae d. fungi What is the purpose of heating and mixing a primary anaerobic digester: a. to eliminate all oxygen present b. to increase the digestion rate
c. to keep methane gas in suspension d. to prevent grit from settling to the bottom of the digester 47.
Chlorine is primarily used to:
48.
a. disinfect b. prevent corrosion c. raise pH d. stabilize organics Common hydraulic detention times for primary clarifiers range from:
49.
a. 15 to 30min b. .5 to 1hr c. 2 to 3hrs d. 4 to 5hrs What organisms will be found in a balanced, good settling mixed liquor:
50.
a. flagellate and amoeboid organisms b. flagellates and free-swimming ciliates, but no stalked ciliates and rotifers c. free swimming and stalked ciliate, some flagellates, and rotifers d. nematodes, rotifers, ciliates, flagellates, and amoeboid What should be an operator’s top priority when making operational decisions? a. b. c. d.
51.
protecting aquatic life cleanup procedures protecting the public’s health preventing odors
Jar tests may be used to determine the optimum dosage of: a. polymer b. BOD c. oil and grease d. volatile acids
52.
the ash content remaining at the end of a VSS test is the same as the: a. difference in raw sludge and the sludge after air drying b. inorganic solids c. organic solids d. volatile solids
53.
Which gas is produced in anaerobic digesters and can be used as a fuel: a. propane b. methane c. ethane d. carbon dioxide
54.
Healthy mixed liquor in an activated sludge process should have what appearance? a. black with a gray foam b. dark brown, covered with a greasy tan foam c. light brown and frothy d. gray with no foam of any kind
55.
The time it takes for a unit volume of wastewater to pass entirely through a primary clarifier is called: a. detention time b. hydraulic loading rate c. overflow time d. weir loading rate
56.
The mechanism used to remove dewatered sludge from the belt of a belt filter press is commonly referred to as a(n): a. pressure belt b. edge sensor c. doctor blade d. scum collector
57.
The BOD laoding rate divided by the quantity of microorganisms present in the biological reactors (aeration tanks) is known as: a. organic loading b. toxicity c. hydraulic loading d. food to microorganism ration F:M
58.
The temperature of a drying oven used for TSS analysis must be kept at: a. 104 ± 1 F b. 104 ± 1 C c. 180 ± 2 C d. 500 ± 50 C
59.
Which of the following is/are characteristic of an old sludge a. Fast Settling b. Loose
c. Dense d. Both A & C
60. It is a biological solids which have settled in the secondary clarifier, continuously reverted to the aeration system. a. Waste Activated Sludge b. Returned Activated Sludge
c. Sludge Wasting d. NOTA
61.
It is the prefer temperature for Mesophilic microorganisms. a.24 – 38 °C b.26 – 38 °C
62.
These are large organic molecules that are slightly soluble in water and cause foaming in wastewater-treatment plants and in the surface waters into which the waste effluent is discharged. a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins
63.
c. 28 – 38 °C d. 22 – 38 °C
c. Surfactants d. FOG
What is BOD5/COD? a. Biologically Index
c.
Biodegradability
Index b. Biochemically Index 64.
It is the amount of (dissolved) oxygen required to oxidize and stabilize organic and inorganic content of the sample solution. a. BOD b. TOD
65.
c. Nitrification d. Euthrophication
It is achieved under anaerobic condition in suspended or attached growth reactors. Nitrite and nitrate are reduced to nitrogen gas by microorganisms. a. Denitrification b. Nitrosomonas
67.
c. ThOD d. COD
It is achieved under anaerobic condition in suspended or attached growth reactors. Nitrite and nitrate are reduced to nitrogen gas by microorganisms. a. Denitrification b. Nitrosomonas
66.
d. NOTA
c. Nitrification d. Euthrophication
A fixed-bed, biological reactor that operates (mostly) at aerobic conditions. Attached growth wastewater treatment process. a. RBC b. Trickling Filters
c. MBBR d. STM Aerator
68. Activated Sludge process was developed in England in ______ by Adern & Lockett a. May 5, 1914 b. May 6, 1914
c. May 3, 1914 d. May 4, 1914
69.
It is a process wherein microorganisms derive energy from carbonaceous organic matter in aerated wastewater for the production of new cells. a. Respiration b. Nitrification
70.
A mixture of activated sludge and the wastewater in the aeration tank. a. Mixed Liquor b. MLSS
71.
c. MLVSS d. MCRT
It is the concentration of suspended solids in activated-sludge mixed liquor expressed in mg/L. a. Mixed Liquor b. MLSS
72.
c. Synthesis d. Eutrophication
c. MLVSS d. MCRT
It is the fraction of the suspended solids in activated sludge mixed liquor that can be driven off by combustion at 550 oC which indicates the concentration of microorganism available for biological oxidation, expressed in mg/L. a. Mixed Liquor b. MLSS
c. MLVSS d. MCRT
73. Type of mechanical aerators of which its oxygen is entrained from the atmosphere. a. Submerged Aerators b. Diffusers 74.
It is an aeration source that is designed to produce fine, medium, or coarse (relatively large) bubbles. a. Mechanical Aerators b. Diffusers
75.
c. Sludge d. Slime
Nitrification process generally occurs when MCRT is ________ a. Increased b. Decreased
77.
c. Jet Aeration d. Submerged Aerators
It is used to denote the organic matter or nutrients that are converted during biological treatment or that may be limiting in biological treatments. a. Surfactants b. Substrate
76.
c. Jet Aeration d. Surface Aerators
c. Dispersed d. Dissolved
It refers to all the chemical reactions occurring within a cell. a. Anabolism c. Acclimation b. Catabolism d. Metabolism
78.
Any molecule that is a nutrient, an intermediary product, or an end product in a metabolic reaction. a. Metamorphic b. Zeolite
c. Metabolite d. Armalite
79. It involves breaking of bonds; whenever chemical bonds are broken, energy is released. a. Anabolism b. Catabolism 80.
c. Acclimation d. Metabolism
It involves the creation of bonds; it takes energy to create chemical bonds. a. Anabolism b. Catabolism
81.
Under catabolism, it is the reaction of larger molecules are broken down into smaller molecules. a. degradative b. biosynthetic
82.
c. 0.05; 1.00 d. 0.04; 0.09
It is the accumulation of settled sludge in the clarifier. Ideally, it should be in the lower quarter of clarifier. a. Sludge Wasting b. Sludge Bulking
85.
c. enzyme d. molecule
Food to microorganisms varies from _____ to _____ a. 0.02; 0.05 b. 0.03; 0.07
84.
c. metabolic d. asymptotic
It is an organic catalysts produced by the living cell. They are proteins or protein combined w/ organic or inorganic molecule. a. zeolite b. ammonia
83.
c. Acclimation d. Metabolism
c. Viscous Bulking d. Sludge Blanket
In Settleability Testing, how many minutes of settling of a liter sample of mixed liquor in a graduated cylinder. a. 30 c. 15 b. 60 d. 45
86. For SVI > 150, which of the following are the expected condition/possible indication a. Old Solids
c. Good settling
b. Sludge bulking 87.
In temperature, the rate of microorganism growth _________ every 10 oC increase in temperature up to a limiting temperature. a. once b. doubles
88.
91.
c. COD load d. Shock load
It is designed to remove grit, consisting of sand, gravel, cinders, or other heavy solid materials that have subsiding velocities or specific gravities substantially greater than those of the organic putrescible solids in wastewater. a. grit chamber c. grinder
92.
c. MBBR d. MBR
This refers to the amount of water entering the aeration tank. As the flow increases, the concentration of organics may decrease. a. BOD load b. Hydraulic load
93.
c. Sloughing d. Sliming
The following are advantages of trickling filters except a. Low bio solids yield c. Simplicity of operation b. Resistance to shock loads d. Odour production It is a process that a biofilm grows in immobilized form on the surface of a large number of closely spaced discs or inside corrugated packing units that slowly rotate in a trough, partially immersed in liquid and partially in the air space above the reactor. a. RBC b. SBR
92.
c. Zeolite d. Sludge
It is the phenomenon of losing the slime layer a. Eutrophication b. Bulking
90.
c. thrice d. below
A biological slime layer consisting of bacteria, inert material, etc. a. Catalyst b. Biofilm
89.
d. Normal Operation
b. screening d. comminutor
The following are objectives of the application of the grit chamber except a. Protect moving mechanical equipment from abrasion/ accompanying abnormal wear b. Reduce formation of heavy deposits in pipelines, channels, and conduits
c. Reduce the frequency of digester cleaning caused by excessive accumulations of grit d. None of the above 93.
The process of removing pollutants and pathogens from wastewater, discharging the water to the environment, and disposing of the byproducts of the treatment process. a. Wastewater control system b. Wastewater softener c. Wastewater decomposition d. Wastewater treatment
94.
is a measure of the amount of fatty matter from animal and vegetable sources and hydrocarbons form petroleum products and waxes, such as from lotion, shampoos, and tanning oils a. Sewage b. Sludge c. Fats, Oils & Grease (FOG) d. Scum
95.
Portion of the wastewater stream that originates in sinks, tubs, showers, laundry; i.e. all portions excluding toilet wastes. a. Blackwater b. Greywater c. Sludge d. Scum
96.
These are pond-like bodies of water or basins designed to receive, hold, and treat wastewater for a predetermined period of time. a. Aeration b. Oxydation c. Lagoons d. Wetlands
97.
What are wetlands? a. habitats b. lands that are often wet c. homes to a variety of animals d. all of the above
98.
Hydrogen sulfide gives off an odor similar to a. Ammonia. b. Chlorine gas.
c. Rotten eggs d. Decayed wood 99.
Measures the leaching effect of screenings a. Paint Filter Test b. Leachate Level Test c. Azide Modification d. Glass Electrode Method
100.
Referring to “animal glue” a. Flavorbacterium b. Leptothrix c. Zooglea d. Slime
101.
The total mass of microorganisms will slowly decrease as the cells use up all their stored reserves and slowly begin to die
a. Lag phase b. Log growth phase c. Declining growth phase d. Endogenous phase 102. The untreated wastewater or raw sewage coming into a wastewater treatment plant a. Effluent b. Influent c. Filtrate d. Percolate 103.
Calculating the SVI in the activated sludge process requires which information? a) Settleability and DO b) Volatile Acids and Alkalinity c) Settleability and mixed liquor suspended solids d) Settleability and F:M ratio
104.
The purpose of flow equalization in general is a) Balance flows, dilute strong wastes and impound excessive flows temporarily b) Remove phosphorous c) Neutralize strong acid wastes d) Aerate the influent
105.
If mixed liquor is black in color and the level of DO is extremely low, this typically indicates that the mixed liquor is:
a. healthy b. recycling c. septic d. reversing
106.
These are long chains of amino acids a. Carbohydrates b. Proteins c. Surfactants d. LAS
107.
Which of the following are not classified as greese a. Fat b. Oil c. Waxes d. Nitrogen
108.
The following aree not under wastewater preliminary treatment a. Screening b. Flow measurement c. Grit removal d. None of the above
109. C.
For a fresh sewage to be stale, it requires ______ at temperature 20 degrees a. 24 to 48 hours b. 2 to 6 hours c. 12 to 24 hours d. 15 to 20 hours
110.
As defined in DAO 35, maximum COD value for NPI Class C is a. 150 b. 120 c. 100 d. 30
