Aircraft English Tests

Ai r craft Engl ish Tes Tests

Page 1

TEST 1 1.

A warning _____ appears in the window. A. tab B. tag C. range D. flag

Prepared by Chu Th e Cuong QA -A76

13. Torque the union union to _____ 120 and 140 lbf. A. between B. around C. from D. over

2.

Put a _____ of sealant along the joint. A. bead B. stripe C. lead D. leak

14. The green LAND LAND RCVRY indication comes _____ view on the left of the ACC ESS busbar. A. in B. on C. into D. within

3.

Use the _____ to adjust the cable. A. bellcrank B. grommet C. rod D. turnbuckle

15. Put the aircraft _____ to its initial configuration. A. beyond B. behind C. back D. on

4.

Each task _____ is identified with a letter in parentheses. A. surface B. step C. job D. scale

16. The static inverter is active in flight and on the ground ground when _____ AC source is a vailable. A. some B. any C. no D. none

5.

Put a _____ below the drain port. A. case B. tank C. container D. shroud

17. The ECU is _____ vibration-isolated vibration-isolated single unit mounted on the fan case. A. one B. a C. an D. the

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. pitch adjustment handwheel trim B. pitch trim handwheel adjustment C. adjustment handwheel pitch trim D. trim adjustment pitch handwheel

7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. aft cargo compartment compartment sidewall B. aft sidewall cargo compartment C. cargo sidewall aft compartment D. aft sidewall compartment cargo

8.

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. travel control flight range B. flight travel control range C. flight control range travel D. flight control travel range Choose the correct group of words. A. rotor assembly low pressure turbine B. low pressure rotor turbine assembly C. turbine assembly low pressure rotor D. low pressure turbine rotor assembly

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. clamp hose fuel main supply supply B. main fuel supply hose clamp C. supply main clamp fuel hose D. hose clamp main fuel supply

18. _____ ECU channel channel receives data from the two ADIRUs. A. All B. A C. Both D. Each 19. A trim air valve adds _____ hot air from the the hot air manifold to the forward cargo compartment. A. the B. C. a D. several 20. The Captain and First Officer seats are symmetrical symmetrical and have the _____ functions. A. several B. same C. more D. some 21. One heat_____ power level only is available available for the windows. A. s B. ing C. D. ED

11. Make sure that the ENG/MASTER ENG/MASTER switch is _____ OFF. A. at B. from C. to D. on

22. The pitch trim actuator has three three brush_____ DC motors. A. less B. mounted C. over D. free

12. Make sure that the parts retained retained _____ the removed removed component are clean. A. on B. to C. around D. from

23. The BITE facilitates maintenance maintenance on _____-service _____-service aircraft. A. on B. in C. off D. into


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24. A restrict_____ pack installed in port B controls the rate of travel on the piston rod. A. ed B. C. or D. ly 25. Each light contains contains a step-_____ transformer transformer to decrease the 115V AC busbar supply to 28 VAC. A. up B. under C. on D. down 26. A forward transfer transfer is carried out if one of these conditions _____. A. completes B. allows C. occurs D. provides 27. The power from from the hydraulic hydraulic ground cart _____ the RAT test motor. A. drives B. releases C. excites D. energizes


35. The fuel flows inside the fuel tubes and takes away away the heat _____ by the oil. A. releasing B. releases C. released D. to release 36. The spent air exhausts via a _____ duct duct in the aft cavity of the intake cowl. A. rough B. flush C. solid D. shiny 37. This location gives the operator a _____ position and a clear view of the door travel A. secure B. clean C. safe D. straight 38. The air conditioning conditioning compartment compartment ventilation system ensures air circulation in order to maintain a _____ temperature of 80°C. A. mean B. operative C. minimum D. full

28. The water storage storage system _____ potable water for for use 39. Make sure that the travel ranges of the flight controls controls in the aircraft. are _____. A. keeps A. dry B. supports B. clean C. installs C. clear D. uses D. free 29. To _____ the maintenance maintenance personnel, personnel, this cover is 40. The basic fan frame frame structure is made of _____ _____ alloy. held open by a mechanical holding system. A. aluminum A. inform B. honeycomb B. display C. titanium C. enable D. steel D. help 41. Aerodynamic forces _____ cause unwanted 30. The thermo-sensitive thermo-sensitive elements trigger the fire movement of the spoiler if the device is not in the "0" warnings when the temperature _____ the threshold position. of the monitored area of the engine. A. should A. provides B. has to B. reaches C. will C. arrives D. shall D. increases 42. Use a respirator if you _____ smell smell vapors. 31. On each engine there _____ two continuous continuous loops. A. would A. is B. can B. are C. will C. has D. should D. have 43. The APU hoist hoist and the remaining remaining two mounts mounts _____ 32. The air intake flap flap actuator _____ the the air intake flap to support the APU when you remove an APU mount. the appropriate position. A. must A. moves B. can B. move C. may C. is moving D. could D. is moved 44. Work on the hydraulic hydraulic system _____ _____ be dangerous. 33. The maintenance maintenance messages _____ _____ in clear English A. will language. B. must A. display C. can B. displaying D. should C. to display D. are displayed 45. All loose items items _____ be secured before you start start work. 34. The oil quantity transmitter is a tank probe with a A. could compensator and an electronic module for probe B. are to _____ and signal output. C. may A. energized D. can B. energizing C. energize D. to energize


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24. A restrict_____ pack installed in port B controls the rate of travel on the piston rod. A. ed B. C. or D. ly 25. Each light contains contains a step-_____ transformer transformer to decrease the 115V AC busbar supply to 28 VAC. A. up B. under C. on D. down 26. A forward transfer transfer is carried out if one of these conditions _____. A. completes B. allows C. occurs D. provides 27. The power from from the hydraulic hydraulic ground cart _____ the RAT test motor. A. drives B. releases C. excites D. energizes


35. The fuel flows inside the fuel tubes and takes away away the heat _____ by the oil. A. releasing B. releases C. released D. to release 36. The spent air exhausts via a _____ duct duct in the aft cavity of the intake cowl. A. rough B. flush C. solid D. shiny 37. This location gives the operator a _____ position and a clear view of the door travel A. secure B. clean C. safe D. straight 38. The air conditioning conditioning compartment compartment ventilation system ensures air circulation in order to maintain a _____ temperature of 80°C. A. mean B. operative C. minimum D. full

28. The water storage storage system _____ potable water for for use 39. Make sure that the travel ranges of the flight controls controls in the aircraft. are _____. A. keeps A. dry B. supports B. clean C. installs C. clear D. uses D. free 29. To _____ the maintenance maintenance personnel, personnel, this cover is 40. The basic fan frame frame structure is made of _____ _____ alloy. held open by a mechanical holding system. A. aluminum A. inform B. honeycomb B. display C. titanium C. enable D. steel D. help 41. Aerodynamic forces _____ cause unwanted 30. The thermo-sensitive thermo-sensitive elements trigger the fire movement of the spoiler if the device is not in the "0" warnings when the temperature _____ the threshold position. of the monitored area of the engine. A. should A. provides B. has to B. reaches C. will C. arrives D. shall D. increases 42. Use a respirator if you _____ smell smell vapors. 31. On each engine there _____ two continuous continuous loops. A. would A. is B. can B. are C. will C. has D. should D. have 43. The APU hoist hoist and the remaining remaining two mounts mounts _____ 32. The air intake flap flap actuator _____ the the air intake flap to support the APU when you remove an APU mount. the appropriate position. A. must A. moves B. can B. move C. may C. is moving D. could D. is moved 44. Work on the hydraulic hydraulic system _____ _____ be dangerous. 33. The maintenance maintenance messages _____ _____ in clear English A. will language. B. must A. display C. can B. displaying D. should C. to display D. are displayed 45. All loose items items _____ be secured before you start start work. 34. The oil quantity transmitter is a tank probe with a A. could compensator and an electronic module for probe B. are to _____ and signal output. C. may A. energized D. can B. energizing C. energize D. to energize


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46. The nuts are are safetied _____ prevent unwanted movement. A. so B. therefore C. because D. in order to 47. The warning is triggered _____ the the flight phase. A. as soon as B. whatever C. once D. thus 48. Fill the tank _____ _____ the high level is reached. A. unless B. if C. until D. however 49. The generator is disconnected _____ an overload. overload. A. despite B. in the event of C. however D. provided 50. The blower fan fan is inoperative _____ _____ the equipment may overheat. A. because B. although C. so D. due to 51. Insert a _____ on the nose landing gear gear steering box. A. stud B. cotter pin C. safety pin D. grommet 52. Adjust the the upper door _____. A. socket B. hinge C. loom D. gasket 53. Torque the double double hexagon _____ to the given value. A. nut B. lug C. washer D. sleeve 54. The two pipes are connected by an _____ union. A. hose B. O-ring C. insert D. elbow 55. Lubricate the _____ of the the screw. A. thread B. pitch C. shank D. collar 56. A _____ is designed designed to firmly hold a part as you work on it. A. drill B. vise C. clamp D. bench 57. A _____ is used used to cut through through thick materials. materials. A. sling B. lathe C. file D. grinder


58. Install the removed engine engine in a _____. A. cradle B. rotab C. ground cart D. hoist 59. A toolkit contains a _____. A. dolly, a mallet and a soldering iron B. wrench, a lathe and an Allen key C. wire stripper, pliers and calipers D. drill bit, a ring spanner and a milling machine 60. Mix the fluids _____. A. thoroughly B. evenly C. at equally spaced intervals D. back and forth 61. If unsatisfactory, unsatisfactory, do the _____ step again. A. prevented B. previous C. subsequent D. next 62. _____ and sign the job card. A. Fill B. Record C. Replenish D. Fill in 63. De-energize the aircraft aircraft electrical _____. A. network B. net C. harness D. loop 64. _____ the cover cover with QAD QAD fasteners. A. Fix B. Safety C. Keep D. Secure 65. Engine oil must must be checked and _____ 5 minutes after each shutdown. A. completed B. filled C. refueled D. replenished 66. Install the front spar access panels. This is ATA chapter No. A. 49 - APU B. 28 - fuel C. 29 - hydraulic power D. 21 - air conditioning 67. Make sure that the pressure shown on the pressure pressure gage of the cylinder is more than the minimum pressure found. This is ATA chapter No.: A. 24 - elec. power B. 35 - oxygen C. 26 - fire protection D. 21 - air conditioning 68. Loosen the clamp and move the sleeve away from the smoke extraction fan. This is ATA chapter No: A. 49 - APU B. 21 - air conditioning C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 72 - engine 69. Install blanking plugs on the open discharge discharge port of the HMU and on the open ends of the fuel supply tube. This is ATA chapter No: A. 26 - fire protection B. 49 - APU C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 72 - engine


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70. When the reservoir is empty, tighten the screw. This is ATA chapter No: A. 29 - hydraulic power B. 27 - flight controls C. 28 - fuel D. 52 - doors 71. It is preferred to arrange splices so that adjacent splices do not overlap. Splices must not be: A. end to end B. on the same part of cable C. opposite each other D. too thick 72. After the subsequent subsequent flight, make make sure that the fault does not continue. You make sure that the fault is repaired _____. A. after the test flight B. after the next revenue flight C. at the first check D. as soon as possible 73. When the position indicator lamp comes comes on, you must must record the value shown on the pressure monitor. You need a : A. multimeter B. pressure gage C. pen D. ohmmeter 74. If the ends of the wear indicator pins are level with the reference face you must replace the brake. The indicator pin must be: A. protruding B. flush C. recessed D. available 75. View aft and inspect the inlet guide vanes and 1st1ststage blades for oil wetting and/or brown oil stains. You are checking for: A. chafing B. cracks C. leaks D. F.O.D. 76. Ice protection heats heats the intake cowls cowls with air bled bled from the engine compressor. The installation consists of ducting, coupling, seals, a shutoff valve, mechanical supports and a swirl nozzle. The anti-ice air is: A. routed and regulated B. isolated and monitored C. routed and vortexed D. regulated and isolated 77. The rotating artificial artificial feel mechanism mechanism consists of two two levers and is hinged on a shaft held by the rudder control frame, between which two parallel springs are installed. A. The artificial feel mechanism is installed on the rudder control frame. B. Two springs are connected to two levers. C. Two springs are connected connected to the rudder control frame. D. The artificial feel mechanism mechanism consists of a shaft. 78. The stage 3 LPT nozzle assembly assembly includes 18 nickel nickel alloy segments of 7 vane airfoils each with integral inner stationary air seals. The third LPT stage nozzle assembly has _____ vanes: A. 7 B. 18 C. 126 D. 378


79. During retraction of the main landing landing gear, the downlock actuator releases an overcenter lock of the lock stay. It then folds it and the side stay against the force in the lock springs. The actuator: A. folds the landing gear B. overcomes the spring force C. releases the lock stay D. releases the side stay 80. HP pipes outside fire zones are made of titanium titanium alloy and are unpainted. HP pipes in fire zones are in stainless steel and are painted. LP pipes are in light alloy and are painted for corrosion protection. HP hydraulic pipes inside the engine are in: A. painted aluminum alloy B. unpainted titanium alloy C. unpainted stainless steel D. painted stainless steel

Ai r craft Engl ish Tests

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TEST 2 1.

Pitch trim _____ can become difficult to move. A. handles B. handwheels C. displays D. leaks

2.

The aft cargo compartment comprises four _____. A. bays B. wells C. stowages D. holds

3.

Make sure that the travel _____ of the flight controls are clear. A. rates B. axes C. arcs D. ranges

4.

The _____ opens the poppet when the upstream pressure is greater. A. connector B. strap C. seal D. spring

5.

Examine all the ducts, _____ and check valves for leaks. A. wiring B. unions C. selectors D. nuts

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. button recline passenger seat B. seat recline passenger button C. passenger seat recline button D. recline seat passenger button

7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. engine de-icing air intake B. engine air intake de-icing C. engine intake air de-icing D. engine air de-icing intake.

8.

Choose the correct group of words. A. lockwire corrosion resistant steel B. steel corrosion lockwire resistant C. corrosion resistant steel lockwire D. steel resistant lockwire corrosion

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. over wing emergency exit B. wing over emergency exit C. over exit wing emergency D. emergency over wing exit

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. fan cowl hoist point B. cowl point fan hoist C. hoist cowl fan point D. cowl fan hoist point 11. The centering mode permits the system to bring _____ and hold the elevator in the 0 position. A. from B. over C. back D. around


13. The crossbleed valve isolates the left and right bleedair systems _____ each other. A. from B. through C. at D. to 14. A pressure regulating valve controls the air pressure and keeps the _____ pressure to a specified limit. A. lower B. under C. downstream D. down 15. Each wing is divided _____ two subsystems. A. within B. into C. by D. in 16. _____ servo control is connected to two flight control primary computers. A. Both B. All C. Any D. Each 17. Electrical power heats the system automatically when _____ of these conditions occurs. A. one B. both C. all D. some 18. The fire detectors are the _____ and operate independently. A. same B. several C. most D. equal 19. Install _____ DO-NOT-OPERATE tag on the APU central switch on the P5 panel. A. an B. a C. the D. 20. The nose gear must be compressed _____ than 8 inches before steering is attempted. A. most B. much C. more D. less 21. The _____ device indicates the loss of a fire detection loop. A. monitor B. monitors C. monitored D. monitoring 22. The APU is the primary source of _____ air on the ground. The air is bled from the APU load _____. A. compressor / compressing B. compressed / compressor C. compressing / compressor D. compressed / compressing

23. Remove the harness from the upper ignition _____. A. exciter B. exciting 12. The mode selector valve moves _____ the action of its C. excites spring. D. excited A. on B. from C. at D. under


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24. You cannot detect potential oil leaks with a _____ test. 35. The thermal switches _____ along the wing leading A. motored edge. B. motoring A. find C. motor B. are found D. motors C. finds D. is found 25. Four _____ drain masts are located on the lower fuselage centerline. 36. Corrosion-resistant _____ lockwire. A. heating A. steel B. heat B. aluminum C. heated C. iron D. heater D. copper 26. The position of the rudder is _____ on the SD. A. set B. controlled C. signalled D. shown

37. Lubricate the _____ seals with FUELS (Material N° 01001). A. fresh B. old C. new D. cool

27. The protection systems _____ if a pneumatic duct or a wing anti-ice duct bursts. 38. Lay the lockwire tails _____ on the surface and apply A. occur a 2 mm thick layer of SEALANTS. B. perform A. deep C. operate B. safe D. turn on C. flat D. curved 28. An air cycle machine first compresses the air and then _____ it. 39. Push in the LIGHT TEST P/BSW. Make sure that the A. extends _____ FAULT light comes on. B. extracts A. green C. expands B. applicable D. extrudes C. applied D. straight 29. When the valve block _____ hydraulic fluid to the retract port, the motor moves in the direction 40. Make sure that the work area is _____ and _____ of necessary to the flaps. tools and other items. A. receives A. clear / clean B. supplies B. dry / full C. ensures C. shiny / erased D. transmits D. clean / clear 30. Obey the safety procedures when you work in a fuel tank. This will _____ injury or damage. A. cause B. provide C. allow D. prevent 31. The valve _____ of a valve body with a butterfly _____ by a pneumatic actuator. A. consists / controlling B. consist / to control C. consist / controls D. consists / controlled 32. _____ too much cleaner. A. Use not B. Do not use C. No use D. Use no 33. _____ a bead of sealant around the retainer nuts _____ a sealing gun. A. To apply / using B. Applying / using C. Apply / using D. Apply / to use 34. Wiper operation _____ damage to a dry windshield. A. cause B. will cause C. causing D. to cause

41. Leaks _____ occur around plumbing fittings. A. should B. may C. will D. must 42. All A. B. C. D.

parts _____ be matchmarked before disassembly. must can could would

43. This task _____ two persons. A. need B. requires C. has D. must 44. If you turn the knob CW, the temperature _____ increase. A. can B. shall C. has to D. will 45. Particular care _____ exercised. A. must B. will C. is to be D. need 46. Each elevator is activated by a servo control in the active mode _____ the other is in the damping mode. A. provided B. although C. while D. as soon as


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47. Use the common grease _____ otherwise specified. A. unless B. as long as C. until D. whether

59. _____ tighten the nuts but do not torque at this time. A. Fully B. Slowly C. Suitably D. Hand

48. The lights remain on _____ the gear is in transit. A. as soon as B. as long as C. whereas D. however

60. Remove the safety _____ and tags and close these circuit breakers. A. wire B. pins C. sleeves D. clips

49. Lower the assembly carefully _____ sudden movements may result in damage. A. due to B. although C. as D. so 50. The cold fuel in the inner tank absorbs the heat and _____ it lowers the temperature of the regulated fuel. A. whereas B. thus C. moreover D. if 51. Put blanking _____ on the disconnected electrical connectors. A. lugs B. caps C. tabs D. plugs 52. Loosen the _____ and disconnect the line. A. gasket B. washer C. O-ring D. nut 53. Install a new O-ring on the _____. A. seal B. union C. hose D. bonding jumper 54. Put a _____ to tell persons not to supply the ground air source. A. flag B. tag C. warning notice D. caution 55. Remove the nut, the washer and the bonding _____. A. lanyard B. tie C. lead D. wrap 56. Put a _____ of one U.S. gal capacity under the IDG oil cooler to drain the remaining oil. A. cap B. container C. screen D. sump 57. Apply between 45 and 50 lbf.in with the suitable _____. A. Allen key B. screwdriver C. socket wrench D. torque wrench 58. Put the _____ in position under the cargo door. A. access platform B. jack C. hoist D. ground cart

61. The system is hydraulically _____ from the other two systems. A. insulated B. installed C. isolated D. issued 62. The reservoirs are designed to remain pressurized for at _____ 12 hours. A. loss B. least C. less D. last 63. The three phases and neutral are taken to the generator _____ terminal block. A. outlet B. outboard C. output D. outflow 64. Make sure that _____ of the weight is on the shaft. A. none B. no C. any D. nothing 65. Install a doorway safety barrier to _____ falling thru open doorway. A. provide B. warn C. prevent D. process 66. Installation of the Crossfeed Valve Actuator. This is ATA chapter: A. 29 - hydraulic power B. 36 - pneumatic power C. 28 - fuel D. 38 - water and waste 67. On the HP ground connectors, put warning notices to tell persons not to supply the ground air source. This is ATA chapter: A. 26 - fire protection B. 49 - APU C. 24 - elec. power D. 21 - air conditioning 68. Disconnect the electrical connector. Safety it away from the axle. This is ATA chapter: A. 32 - landing gear B. 27 - flight controls C. 29 - hydraulic power D. 72 - engine 69. Connect the nut of the rod supply pipe on the lower pivoting door actuator. This is ATA chapter: A. 27 - flight controls B. 31 - instruments C. 78 - exhaust D. 36 - pneumatic power


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70. Put a container below the manifold to collect the fluid leakage. This is ATA chapter: A. 21 - air conditioning B. 29 - hydraulic power C. 26 - fire protection D. 35 - oxygen


79. The reference chamber makes allowances for the differential pressure and temperature differences. This makes sure that the detector operates on the ground and in flight with the same l evel of sensitivity. Spurious warnings are prevented by: A. a ground and a flight mode 71. Paint a white line approximately 4 mm on each side of B. a temperature / pressure correlation the knot, then make sure that it does not move along C. internal adjustments made for delta P and the line. temperature A. you must paint a white line D. a large tolerance B. the white line must not move 80. The diffuser is downstream of the load compressor C. you must paint a white line 4 mm wide impeller. It is of radial design with 19 guide vanes in D. you must paint two white lines the shape of cambered vanes. The radial _____ has 19 72. Disconnect and remove the sense lines from the air _____ vanes. cycle machine, the condenser and the water extractor. A. diffuser / curved You must remove the _____ lines: B. impeller / flat A. power C. diffuser / flat B. monitoring D. impeller / curved C. detection D. supply 73. Make sure that the safety barriers are in position to prevent access to the landing gear door travel ranges. You must stop: A. people B. gear movement C. door movement D. hydraulic supply 74. Determine the position number of the fuel nozzles to be removed. You must know the _____ of the nozzles. A. P/N B. quantity C. identification D. location 75. If the pressure in all the reservoirs is less than 3.5 bars, continue as follows: - use special materials and do a leak test A. - you repair the leak if each reservoir < 3.5 bars B. - you repair the leak if any reservoir < 3.5 bars C. - you test the system if each reservoir < 3.5 bars D. - you test the system if any reservoir < 3.5 bars 76. The recirculation pipe starts on the engine at the FRV and finishes at the press-holding valve in the inner tank. The holes in the adaptor let the fuel flow through the recirculation pipe and into the inner tank. This fuel is used to: A. supply the engine B. fill the fuel tanks C. cool the IDG D. supply another engine 77. The ventilation of the wing leading edge makes sure that the flammable fuel vapor is removed and the hot components are cooled. Air enters through gaps around the slat tracks and goes out through drainage holes. The air flow avoids: A. icing B. overheating C. cavitation D. fire and overheating 78. If one of the mode selector valves is in by-pass mode while the other is in active mode, the interconnection of the two chambers is achieved and the pressure switch is activated by supply pressure. A difference of modes is indicated as a result of: A. chamber interconnection B. supply pressure on the pressure switch C. mode selector valve disagree D. overpressure detection


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13. The test results are shown _____ panel 231VU. A. in A coupling permits rapid removal or installation of the B. on electric pump without _____ of fluid. C. beyond A. bleed D. onto B. display 14. The storage system also helps to protect the fuel C. loss system _____ fire. D. level A. around Energize the ground service _____. B. against A. network C. along B. loop D. away C. retainer 15. All the fuel tanks have water drain valves _____ their D. hose lowest points. Remove the _____ plugs from the disconnected line A. thru ends. B. to A. sliding C. on B. bearing D. at C. bonding 16. _____ movement caused by the rudder pedals is D. blanking transmitted from the steering crank to the quadrant. Use solvents, _____ and other special materials only A. None with a good flow of air through the work area. B. Any A. seals C. Some B. fittings D. Several C. sealants 17. Do not hit the inlet plenum with your hands or your D. fixtures tools. _____ damage to the plenum can occur. Make sure that the safety _____ and warning notices A. The are in position. B. A A. devices C. B. designs D. Any C. displays 18. _____ windshield wiper is controlled with the WIPER D. detectors control switch. Choose the correct group of words. A. A A. bristle soft non-metallic brush B. B. non-metallic soft bristle brush C. Both C. soft brush non-metallic bristle D. Each D. brush soft non-metallic bristle 19. The duct leak detection system uses thermal switches Choose the correct group of words. to find _____ leak in a bleed air duct. A. cabin system test and cockpit A. some B. test system cockpit and cabin B. C. cabin system and cockpit test C. the D. cockpit and cabin system test D. a

TEST 3 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

Choose the correct group of words. A. main air extraction duct B. duct air main extraction C. main air duct extraction D. extraction duct main air

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. cargo forward compartment ceiling panels B. cargo ceiling forward compartment panels C. forward ceiling compartment cargo panels D. forward cargo compartment ceiling panels

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. 100 ATA specification, 29 revision B. ATA specification 100, revision 29 C. ATA specification 29, revision 100 D. revision 29-100 ATA specification 11. The windshield anti-icing system makes sure that the crew can see _____ the windshield and side windows. A. in B. through C. around D. over 12. The nominal temperature regulation is _____ 35° and 42°C. A. from B. within C. between D. below

20. Only one CPC operates its system at a time, with the _____ system on standby. A. other B. each C. together D. both 21. Tailwinds, or winds with tailwind components, _____ affect ground operation of engines. A. adverseless B. adverse C. adversely D. adversity 22. The equipment and furnishings are installed in the cargo compartments for the _____ and safety of the cargo. A. handler B. handling C. handled D. handle 23. The heating elements are part of the fill/drain nipple and _____ nipple of the potable water system. A. underfloor B. outflow C. overflow D. overboard


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24. The oxygen is sent to the oxygen stowage boxes which contain a _____-face _____-donning mask each. A. fully / quick B. full / quickly C. fully / quickly D. full / quick 25. Put the _____ collar-door MLG (3) in position on the piston rod of the MLG door actuator. A. safely B. safety C. safe D. safetied 26. Install the countersunk screws and _____. A. safety B. tighten C. discard D. loosen 27. Make sure that there _____ no leaks at the filter bowl. A. is B. has C. have D. are 28. The permanent measurement of the resistor of the inservice sensor _____ the correct temperature regulation. A. ensures B. prevents C. inserts D. supplies


35. The IP check valve _____ _____ any air recirculation through the engine. A. close / to prevent B. is closed / to prevent C. is closed / to be prevented D. closes / to be prevented 36. Make sure that all the circuits in maintenance are _____ before you supply electrical power to the aircraft. A. insulated B. detached C. isolated D. separated 37. Make sure that the engine throttle control levers are in the _____ position. A. idle B. shutoff C. cutout D. override 38. When the test is _____ monitor the trim air valve symbols on the AIRCOND page. A. serviceable B. updated C. replenished D. in progress 39. Make sure that the doors are closed, secured and _____. A. straight B. flush C. steady D. flushed

29. When the ground speed of the aircraft is more than 40 Knots the angle of steering available _____. 40. Working in the vicinity of the engine air intakes can be _____. A. decreases B. processes A. wrong C. initiates B. sharp D. increases C. hazardous D. protruding 30. The pressure relief disc will _____ out at a pressure of 2.7 to 6.8 bars relative. 41. Old retainers _____ be used. A. burn A. could B. flow B. must C. show C. must not D. blow D. do not have to 31. The hot heat probes can cause severe burns if not _____ correctly or not _____ to cool sufficiently. A. handling / allowing B. handle / allow C. handled / allowed D. handle / arrows

42. The system _____ to handle two channels simultaneously. A. is unable B. should C. will D. cannot

32. The outboard end of the retraction lever _____ to the rear spar through a retraction link. A. attach B. is attached C. attaching D. are attached

43. Loose lockwire _____ cut you. A. will B. can C. should D. must

44. You _____ wear protective clothing. 33. When trouble _____ trailing edge flap system faults A. shall which _____ no similar CMC messages, it is important B. could to note the EICAS messages and their faults. C. may A. shoot / have D. will B. shooting / has 45. The Airworthiness Directive is _____. C. shoot / has A. recommended D. shooting / have B. mandatory 34. The ballscrews should _____ at closely. C. optional A. be looked D. unreliable B. look C. be looking D. to look


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46. _____ the filter becomes clogged, a bypass valve opens. A. Despite B. Although C. If D. In order that

57. Connect the MLG shock absorber charging _____ to the nipple. A. container B. union C. accumulator D. adapter

47. The cabin vertical speed is -500 ft/min _____ the differential pressure reaches 0.1 psi. A. since B. while C. so D. until

58. Take the _____ safety precautions. A. conditional B. abnormal C. applicable D. emergency

48. The system is activated automatically _____ the switch is at ON or not. A. whatever B. whether C. because D. despite 49. The system is available _____ the aircraft electrical network is energized. A. however B. provided C. due to D. despite 50. The priority valve closes _____ a failure. A. because B. as C. in the event of D. whenever 51. Remove the 4 nuts, the 4 washers and the 4 _____. A. straps B. collars C. bolts D. bushings 52. Clean the component _____ and the adjacent area. A. surface B. interface C. fixture D. coating

59. Do A. B. C. D.

steps (7) thru (11) _____. still always again also

60. Move the bogie around its axle _____ it is in the horizontal position. A. once B. until C. immediately D. unless 61. _____ the tension bolt with corrosion-resistant steel lockwire (0.8 mm) dia. A. Safe B. Secure C. Seal D. Safety 62. Clean the area with a new or laundered lint-free _____. A. cloth B. clothing C. clothes D. cloths 63. Make sure that the rigging pins can be _____. A. introduced B. inserted C. ingressed D. entered

53. Install the clamp on the _____ and tighten. A. sleeve B. socket C. bracket D. plate

64. Install the clamps, the collar and the _____ duct on the shutoff valve. A. ingress B. input C. intake D. inlet

54. Tighten the two nuts until the distance between the two _____ is between 90 mm and 94 mm. A. pins B. raceways C. grommets D. flanges

65. Lightly _____ the outer edge of the QAD adapter with a soft face hammer. A. hurt B. hoist C. hold D. hit

55. Install the bonding _____ with the bolt, the washer and the nut. A. strip B. strap C. set D. stripe

66. Check the expiry date on the cylinder to make sure that you can still use the cylinder. This is ATA chapter: A. 26 - fire protection B. 35 - oxygen C. 21 - air conditioning D. 38 - water and waste

56. Make sure that the safety _____ and warning notices are in position before you start work. A. devices B. units C. packs D. fittings

67. Examine the torque shaft assemblies. This is ATA chapter: A. 28 - fuel B. 27 - flight controls C. 29 - hydraulic power D. 38 - water and waste


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68. Disconnect the overflow line from the union. This is ATA chapter: A. 21 - air conditioning B. 38 - water and waste C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 24 - elec. power 69. Remove the cover from the terminal block of the starter motor. This is ATA chapter: A. 32 - landing gear B. 26 - fire protection C. 27 - flight controls D. 49 - APU 70. Remove the forward hose from the muscle tube and from the anti-ice valve. This is ATA chapter: A. 26 - fire protection B. 30 - ice/rain protection C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 38 - water and waste 71. Make sure that the clearance between the sensing elements and the duct is approximately 12.7 mm minimum. Check the gap between: A. two ducts B. the detection and a duct C. the power supply and a duct D. the fittings and a duct 72. Make an entry into the log-book that the APU LP fuel shutoff valve is reactivated. You must: A. connect B. reactivate C. shut off D. write 73. Safety the free connector and the cable to the brake manifold of the bogie beam with plastic ty-wraps. You must _____ the equipment. A. connect B. remove C. stow D. install 74. Remove the hoisting point plugs and insert the hoisting lugs. You are going to _____. A. lift B. close up C. get access D. reactivate 75. Before installation, you must examine the gaskets already used to make sure that they are serviceable. You must: A. change all the seals B. install the supports C. change damaged seals D. inspect the supports 76. Alternate braking with anti-skid: braking inputs are made only at the pedals. These operate a LP system. This system causes the main hydraulic supply to go to the second set of pistons in the brakes. The alternate braking system: A. operates at reduced pressure B. is not provided with anti-skid C. operates few pistons D. operates another batch of pistons


77. For minimum cooling, the ram air inlets and outlets are almost closed and the regulation valves are fully open. On the ground, the inlets are fully closed to prevent dust entering the system. To increase air temperature, the inlets and outlets are: A. fully closed B. fully open C. nearly closed D. nearly fully open 78. A drop-out RATdrives a hydraulic pump to pressurize the green system in case of total generated DC power being unavailable, with outboard engines failed. The RAT is deployed in the event of the failure of: A. engines 1 and 3 B. engines 2 and 3 and non-battery DC C. engines 1 and 4 and non-battery DC D. engines 1 and 4 79. Low heating or overcurrent or heating loss triggers a warning. Monitoring of the TAT sensors is inhibited on the ground. A monitoring system activates when heating is incorrect. A warning is caused by: A. TAT sensor heating on the ground B. absence of voltage C. overvoltage D. low current 80. The distribution manifold is a forged component to decrease the possibility of leaks. The number connected/system is: - 2 LP systems for c ockpit distribution - 1 test port - 1 pressure switch. The oxygen manifold consists of _____ piece(s). A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5


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TEST 3B 1.

2.

Old retainers _____ be used. A. could B. must C. must not D. do not have to The system _____ to handle two channels simultaneously. A. is unable B. should C. will D. cannot

3.

Loose lockwire _____ cut you. A. will B. can C. should D. must

4.

You _____ wear protective clothing. A. shall B. could C. may D. will

5.

The Airworthiness Directive is _____. A. recommended B. mandatory C. optional D. unreliable

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. bristle soft non-metallic brush B. non-metallic soft bristle brush C. soft brush non-metallic bristle D. brush soft non-metallic bristle

7.

8.

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. cabin system test and cockpit B. test system cockpit and cabin C. cabin system and cockpit test D. cockpit and cabin system test Choose the correct group of words. A. main air extraction duct B. duct air main extraction C. main air duct extraction D. extraction duct main air Choose the correct group of words. A. cargo forward compartment ceiling panels B. cargo ceiling forward compartment panels C. forward ceiling compartment cargo panels D. forward cargo compartment ceiling panels

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. 100 ATA specification, 29 revision B. ATA specification 100, revision 29 C. ATA specification 29, revision 100 D. revision 29-100 ATA specification 11. The windshield anti-icing system makes sure that the crew can see _____ the windshield and side windows. A. in B. through C. around D. over 12. The nominal temperature regulation is _____ 35° and 42°C. A. from B. within C. between D. below


13. The test results are shown _____ panel 231VU. A. in B. on C. beyond D. onto 14. The storage system also helps to protect the fuel system _____ fire. A. around B. against C. along D. away 15. All the fuel tanks have water drain valves _____ their lowest points. A. thru B. to C. on D. at 16. _____ movement caused by the rudder pedals is transmitted from the steering crank to the quadrant. A. None B. Any C. Some D. Several 17. Do not hit the inlet plenum with your hands or your tools. _____ damage to the plenum can occur. A. The B. A C. D. Any 18. _____ windshield wiper is controlled with the WIPER control switch. A. A B. C. Both D. Each 19. The duct leak detection system uses thermal switches to find _____ leak in a bleed air duct. A. some B. C. the D. a 20. Only one CPC operates its system at a time, with the _____ system on standby. A. other B. each C. together D. both 21. Tailwinds, or winds with tailwind components, _____ affect ground operation of engines. A. adverseless B. adverse C. adversely D. adversity 22. The equipment and furnishings are installed in the cargo compartments for the _____ and safety of the cargo. A. handler B. handling C. handled D. handle 23. The heating elements are part of the fill/drain nipple and _____ nipple of the potable water system. A. underfloor B. outflow C. overflow D. overboard


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24. The oxygen is sent to the oxygen stowage boxes which contain a _____-face _____-donning mask each. A. fully / quick B. full / quickly C. fully / quickly D. full / quick 25. Put the _____ collar-door MLG (3) in position on the piston rod of the MLG door actuator. A. safely B. safety C. safe D. safetied 26. Install the countersunk screws and _____. A. safety B. tighten C. discard D. loosen 27. Make sure that there _____ no leaks at the filter bowl. A. is B. has C. have D. are 28. The permanent measurement of the resistor of the inservice sensor _____ the correct temperature regulation. A. ensures B. prevents C. inserts D. supplies


35. The Airworthiness Directive is _____. A. recommended B. mandatory C. optional D. unreliable 36. Make sure that all the circuits in maintenance are _____ before you supply electrical power to the aircraft. A. insulated B. detached C. isolated D. separated 37. Make sure that the engine throttle control levers are in the _____ position. A. idle B. shutoff C. cutout D. override 38. When the test is _____ monitor the trim air valve symbols on the AIRCOND page. A. serviceable B. updated C. replenished D. in progress 39. Make sure that the doors are closed, secured and _____. A. straight B. flush C. steady D. flushed

29. When the ground speed of the aircraft is more than 40 40. You _____ wear protective clothing. Knots the angle of steering available _____. A. shall A. decreases B. could B. processes C. may C. initiates D. will D. increases 41. The cabin vertical speed is -500 ft/min _____ the 30. The pressure relief disc will _____ out at a pressure of differential pressure reaches 0.1 psi. 2.7 to 6.8 bars relative. A. since A. burn B. while B. flow C. so C. show D. until D. blow 42. The system is activated automatically _____ the 31. The hot heat probes can cause severe burns if not switch is at ON or not. _____ correctly or not _____ to cool sufficiently. A. whatever A. handling / allowing B. whether B. handle / allow C. because C. handled / allowed D. despite D. handle / arrows 43. The system is available _____ the aircraft electrical 32. The outboard end of the retraction lever _____ to the network is energized. rear spar through a retraction link. A. however A. attach B. provided B. is attached C. due to C. attaching D. despite D. are attached 44. The priority valve closes _____ a failure. 33. When trouble _____ trailing edge flap system faults A. because which _____ no similar CMC messages, it is important B. as to note the EICAS messages and their faults. C. in the event of A. shoot / have D. whenever B. shooting / has 45. Remove the 4 nuts, the 4 washers and the 4 _____. C. shoot / has A. straps D. shooting / have B. collars 34. The ballscrews should _____ at closely. C. bolts A. be looked D. bushings B. look C. be looking D. to look


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46. Clean the component _____ and the adjacent area. A. surface B. interface C. fixture D. coating 47. Install the clamp on the _____ and tighten. A. sleeve B. socket C. bracket D. plate 48. Tighten the two nuts until the distance between the two _____ is between 90 mm and 94 mm. A. pins B. raceways C. grommets D. flanges 49. Install the bonding _____ with the bolt, the washer and the nut. A. strip B. strap C. set D. stripe 50. Make sure that the safety _____ and warning notices are in position before you start work. A. devices B. units C. packs D. fittings 51. Connect the MLG shock absorber charging _____ to the nipple. A. container B. union C. accumulator D. adapter 52. Take the _____ safety precautions. A. conditional B. abnormal C. applicable D. emergency 53. Do A. B. C. D.

steps (7) thru (11) _____. still always again also

54. Move the bogie around its axle _____ it is in the horizontal position. A. once B. until C. immediately D. unless 55. _____ the tension bolt with corrosion-resistant steel lockwire (0.8 mm) dia. A. Safe B. Secure C. Seal D. Safety


58. Install the clamps, the collar and the _____ duct on the shutoff valve. A. ingress B. input C. intake D. inlet 59. Lightly _____ the outer edge of the QAD adapter with a soft face hammer. A. hurt B. hoist C. hold D. hit 60. Check the expiry date on the cylinder to make sure that you can still use the cylinder. This is ATA chapter: A. 26 - fire protection B. 35 - oxygen C. 21 - air conditioning D. 38 - water and waste 61. Examine the torque shaft assemblies. This is ATA chapter: A. 28 - fuel B. 27 - flight controls C. 29 - hydraulic power D. 38 - water and waste 62. Disconnect the overflow line from the union. This is ATA chapter: A. 21 - air conditioning B. 38 - water and waste C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 24 - elec. power 63. Remove the cover from the terminal block of the starter motor. This is ATA chapter: A. 32 - landing gear B. 26 - fire protection C. 27 - flight controls D. 49 - APU 64. Remove the forward hose from the muscle tube and from the anti-ice valve. This is ATA chapter: A. 26 - fire protection B. 30 - ice/rain protection C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 38 - water and waste 65. Make sure that the clearance between the sensing elements and the duct is approximately 12.7 mm minimum. Check the gap between: A. two ducts B. the detection and a duct C. the power supply and a duct D. the fittings and a duct 66. Make an entry into the log-book that the APU LP fuel shutoff valve is reactivated. You must: A. connect B. reactivate C. shut off D. write

67. Safety the free connector and the cable to the brake manifold of the bogie beam with plastic ty-wraps. You 56. Clean the area with a new or laundered lint-free _____. must _____ the equipment. A. cloth A. connect B. clothing B. remove C. clothes C. stow D. cloths D. install 57. Make sure that the rigging pins can be _____. A. introduced B. inserted C. ingressed D. entered


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68. Remove the hoisting point plugs and insert the hoisting lugs. You are going to _____. A. lift B. close up C. get access D. reactivate 69. Before installation, you must examine the gaskets already used to make sure that they are serviceable. You must: A. change all the seals B. install the supports C. change damaged seals D. inspect the supports 70. Alternate braking with anti-skid: braking inputs are made only at the pedals. These operate a LP system. This system causes the main hydraulic supply to go to the second set of pistons in the brakes. The alternate braking system: A. operates at reduced pressure B. is not provided with anti-skid C. operates few pistons D. operates another batch of pistons 71. For minimum cooling, the ram air inlets and outlets are almost closed and the regulation valves are fully open. On the ground, the inlets are fully closed to prevent dust entering the system. To increase air temperature, the inlets and outlets are: A. fully closed B. fully open C. nearly closed D. nearly fully open 72. A drop-out RATdrives a hydraulic pump to pressurize the green system in case of total generated DC power being unavailable, with outboard engines failed. The RAT is deployed in the event of the failure of: A. engines 1 and 3 B. engines 2 and 3 and non-battery DC C. engines 1 and 4 and non-battery DC D. engines 1 and 4 73. Low heating or overcurrent or heating loss triggers a warning. Monitoring of the TAT sensors is inhibited on the ground. A monitoring system activates when heating is incorrect. A warning is caused by: A. TAT sensor heating on the ground B. absence of voltage C. overvoltage D. low current 74. The distribution manifold is a forged component to decrease the possibility of leaks. The number connected/system is: - 2 LP systems for c ockpit distribution - 1 test port - 1 pressure switch. The oxygen manifold consists of _____ piece(s). A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5


TEST 4 1.

Apply a thin _____ of common grease on the bare metal areas. A. screen B. coat C. collar D. shim

2.

On the center _____, make sure that the speed brake lever is set to RET. A. pedestal B. pylon C. post D. panel

3.

Use only special materials on the _____ of the nut. A. seat B. depth C. elbow D. thread

4.

The oxygen is stored in a high pressure cylinder made in _____ material. A. iron B. steel C. fabric D. glass

5.

Disconnect the fuel supply tube from the fuel pump and keep the _____. A. latch B. gasket C. grommet D. screen

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. Master Minimum List Equipment B. Equipment Minimum Master List C. Master Minimum Equipment List D. Minimum Equipment Master List

7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. doors operated hydraulically landing gear B. gear operated hydraulically landing doors C. landing gear hydraulically operated doors D. hydraulically operated landing gear doors

8.

Choose the correct group of words. A. high pressure ground air supply unit B. ground unit high pressure supply air C. high pressure unit ground air supply D. high pressure supply air ground unit

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. valve control wing anti-ice B. anti-ice wing control valve C. wing control valve anti-ice D. wing anti-ice control valve

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. potable water valve control handle B. portable water control handle valve C. potable water handle valve control D. potable water handle control valve 11. The cabin linings are formed to the _____ contour of the fuselage. A. lower B. inner C. over D. under


Page 17


23. The pneumatic system gets compressed air and 12. A door opening mechanism lets the forward doors be supplies it through ducts to the _____ systems. opened on the ground for access _____ the body gear A. using wheel well. B. used A. in C. user B. at D. usually C. on D. to 24. The related fire _____ valve stops the fuel supply. A. shutout 13. The supply and protection of the components and B. shutoff functions is given in the table _____. C. shutdown A. below D. shut away B. lower C. bottom 25. The engine lubrication system is completely _____ D. inside contained and separated from any other engine or airplane fluid system. 14. Each temperature sensor consists of a housing with a A. in thread and a tube without an orifice on one side. On B. auto the _____ side there is an electrical connector. C. inside A. next D. self B. opposite C. throughout 26. The oxygen source _____ one composite cylinder D. against with valve assembly. A. is made of 15. The fault occurs at _____ flaps 25 to 30 position. B. consists of A. away C. contains B. around D. stows C. adjacent 27. The pressure and temperature of the engine bleed air D. along are _____ by two pressure transducers. 16. If not, you can transmit _____ torque to the IDG A. comprised fittings and cause damage to the IDG bosses. B. controlled A. more C. contained B. too much D. monitored C. enough 28. Make sure that the two ground test switches are D. too many _____ to NORM after a ground test is complete. 17. Store in _____ rigid anti-static containers. A. pushed A. this B. positioned B. all C. set C. each D. controlled D. 29. See that the wiper operates smoothly and does not 18. Pedal steering engagement occurs if one or _____ _____ the window seal strips. interconnect actuators operate. A. overlap A. each B. override B. no C. overcome C. some D. overhaul D. both 30. With the squat switch not activated, the nose gear 19. Fleet experience has shown that _____ roughness on squat relays _____ de-energized. the screw threads can cause this fault. A. remain A. the B. begin B. C. rest C. each D. occur D. a 31. Acoustic panels _____ the fan case _____ sound 20. If there is _____ ground at pin 1, replace the bleed levels. valve. A. lines / to reduce A. an B. lines / reducing B. no C. line / to reduce C. any D. are lined / reducing D. none 32. Do these steps _____ the bearing surfaces. 21. Because each nose gear door is _____ _____, you A. examining must install two safety devices. B. to examine A. hydraulic independent C. examines B. hydraulically independent D. is examined C. hydraulically independently D. hydraulic independently 33. When the aircraft _____ up, tire pressure _____ 4% lower. 22. Removal of the _____ tank access panels. A. is jacked / are A. underwing B. is jacked / is B. inwing C. jacks / is C. overwing D. is jacking / are D. upperwing


Page 18


34. Disconnect the panel _____ the fasteners 90° counterclockwise. A. by turning B. turning C. to turn D. turns

45. The volume _____ be adjusted with this knob. A. needs B. can C. may D. should

35. Wipe the surface with a cloth _____ with solvent. A. by dampening B. dampened C. dampening D. dampen

46. The unit is designed _____ give the flight crew priority. A. in order to B. so C. due to D. because

36. Make sure that the thrust reverser doors are fully _____. A. stored B. staggered C. stacked D. stowed

47. The crossfeed valve opens automatically _____ the position of the selector. A. whereas B. whenever C. although D. irrespective of

37. Check for a puddle or oil _____ at the lower end of the 48. The resistance is de-energized _____ the threshold strut. temperature is reached. A. stripping A. as long as B. wetting B. as a result of C. fretting C. while D. icing D. as soon as 38. The input signals are _____ to the amount of pedal 49. Rudder deflection decreases _____ airspeed travel. increases. A. proportional A. as B. perpendicular B. thus C. mismatched C. therefore D. binary D. due to 39. Alternate braking without anti-skid is the _____ mode 50. The pointer will be in the green arc _____ the oxygen of operation. pressure is low. A. primary A. whereas B. minor B. until C. secondary C. unless D. major D. whenever 40. All ends of cable jacket must be cut _____ and at right 51. Put the sense line in position with the _____ holder. angles to the cable. A. collar A. chamfered B. cup B. tapered C. clamp C. longitudinally D. cam D. square 52. Open, safety and tag these _____. 41. The pump _____ to pressurize both systems. A. electrical connectors A. can B. circuit breakers B. may C. bonding jumpers C. is able D. terminal covers D. must 42. A rapid movement _____ cause damage to the equipment. A. should B. could C. need D. must 43. The escape slide _____ be disarmed before opening the passenger door. A. could B. may C. has D. is to

53. Pull the oxygen container forward until the _____ are released. A. safety pins B. studs C. cotter pins D. retainers 54. Remove the screws, the _____ and the handle. A. collars B. washers C. studs D. hi-locks

55. Remove and discard the _____ from the nut. A. lockwire 44. When you set the switch to ON, the cabin lights _____ B. link come on. C. loop A. can D. lanyard B. shall C. will 56. Put _____ under the nose and main gear wheels. D. must A. wedges B. chocks C. shims D. shocks


Page 19

57. Remove the bogie beam and put it on a wooden _____. A. trestle B. dolly C. truck D. fixture 58. Install the _____ in the cable quadrant of the rudder control frame. A. cotter pin B. pintle pin C. safety pin D. rigging pin 59. _____ pull the fuel supply hoses from the outlet manifold. A. Clockwise B. Suddenly C. Carefully D. Freely 60. Make sure that the _____ P/N of the emergency oxygen container is installed. A. next B. correct C. previous D. own 61. Do not pressurize the hydraulic _____ during the adjustment of the flaps. A. channels B. systems C. circuits D. loops 62. The _____ four digits (dash number) of the diskette part number reflects the software revision status. A. less B. last C. least D. first


67. On the center pedestal, on the panel 115 VU, make sure that the RUD TRIM indicator shows 0. This is ATA chapter: A. 24 - elec. power B. 49 - APU C. 27 - flight controls D. 32 - landing gear 68. The inlet guide vanes and the first 3 stages of the stator are variable. This is ATA chapter: A. 36 - pneumatic power B. 72 - engine C. 28 - fuel D. 21 - air conditioning 69. Hold the pump and remove it from its canister. This is ATA chapter: A. 25 - cabin furnishings B. 28 - fuel C. 29 - hydraulic power D. 73 - engine fuel and control 70. Check each heat-pack wear indicator with parking brake applied. This is page block: A. 201 B. 401 C. 501 D. 601 71. Set the oil tank in the correct position on the engine. You must: A. select a control position B. fill the oil tank C. adjust the oil D. put the tank in position

72. Make sure that the LOCKING TOOL - FLAP/SLAT CONTROL LEVER is installed on the slat/flap control lever. You must be: A. at the wing leading edge B. at the wing trailing edge 63. Use the inflation _____ to find the correct pressure C. at the wing leading and trailing edges from the temperature and dimension H measurements D. in the flight compartment you recorded. 73. Make a dummy connector with three jumper leads to A. range simulate an installed LDMCR (lower deck mobile crew B. scale rest compartment). You need: C. arc A. an LDMCR D. chart B. an electrician 64. The fuel tanks are located between the front and rear C. a simulator _____. D. a wire loom A. spars 74. Connect the pressure and case drain lines together B. spares with the engine pump case drain/pressure C. spears connection. Connect the pressure hose of the D. spans hydraulic cart to the case drain line with the interface. 65. Thirty seconds later (after the first bottle discharge), if You are going to _____ the system. the fire is _____ present, the pilot fires the second A. pressurize bottle. B. flush A. again C. drain B. always D. fill C. ever 75. Remove the nipple from the RACSB valve drain port D. still and set aside for use on the new RACSB valve. You 66. Probe heat is automatically initiated at each engine must _____ the nipple. start-up. This is ATA chpter: A. replace A. 30 - ice/rain protection B. adjust B. 26 - fire protection C. retain C. 36 - pneumatic power D. install D. 72 - engine


Page 20

76. The command from the ENG / MASTER switch interfaces directly with the lock type solenoid of the HP fuel shut-off valve. The opening function is ensured by: - a hydraulic changeover - a magnetic locking device The ENG/MASTER switch signals: A. a locking device B. a hydraulic shut-off valve C. the fuel shut-off valve D. a solenoid 77. A differential connects the hydraulic motors together. The hydraulic motors have a valve block. The Pitch Trim Actuator controls the valve block. The valve block can also be operated by the THS mechanical input. The valve block is actuated: A. electrically B. hydraulically C. electrically and hydraulically D. hydraulically and mechanically 78. The actuator body attaches to the butterfly and contains a rod. Two diaphragms divide the actuator body into three chambers. A spring in the top chamber keeps the actuator rod in the extended position. The actuator rod is maintained extended by the: A. three diaphragms B. top chamber C. middle chamber D. bottom chamber 79. If a REFUEL-DEFUEL-VALVES switch is moved to OPEN during the automatic refuel, the FCMS ignores the command until the automatic refuel is complete. Then, after approximately 15 seconds, the refuel will continue in manual mode into the applicable tank. A. you can override the automatic mode by setting the switch to OPEN B. you can override the automatic mode after a 15 s. time delay C. manual mode is only effective after the automatic cycle is finished D. the REFUEL-DEFUEL-VALVES switch initiates the automatic cycle


TEST 5 1.

Remove the QAD bolt and retain its _____ and the ball seat washer. A. shrouding B. coating C. packing D. cowling

2.

Apply common grease to the _____ of the drive shaft. A. looms B. elbows C. splines D. span

3.

Removal of the THS front _____ center box access panel. A. spar B. tip C. rib D. spare

4.

Install the call _____ on its support. A. worn B. jack C. bracket D. horn

5.

On the instrument panel, set the BRT/DIM _____ to OFF. A. wrench B. knob C. notch D. probe

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. reverse or normal operation thrust B. reverse operation or normal thrust C. normal or reverse thrust operation D. normal reverse or thrust operation

7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. one structure concial piece B. one conical structure piece C. one piece conical structure D. one conical piece structure

80. The loops are connected in parallel to a Fire Detection 8. Choose the correct group of words. Unit (FDU). The connection is made through an AND A. APU emergency shutdown pushbutton switch logic to avoid spurious FIRE warnings. If one loop B. pushbutton switch APU emergency shutdown fails, the AND becomes an OR logic. The aircraft can C. APU pushbutton switch emergency shutdown be released in this configuration. D. APU shutdown pushbutton switch emergency A. two sets of loops avoid false warnings B. the aircraft cannot depart with only one loop operative 9. Choose the correct group of words. A. bulk cargo lower deck compartment C. if one loop fails the OR logic becomes AND logic B. lower deck bulk cargo compartment D. normally, both loops must detect a fire simultaneously C. bulk cargo compartment lower deck D. bulk compartment lower deck cargo 10. Choose the correct group of words. A. pipe shroud drainage trim fuel B. fuel trim pipe shroud drainage C. drainage pipe trim shroud fuel D. fuel pipe trim drainage shroud 11. A problem in a trailing edge ballscrew transmission causes the torque limiter to lock _____. A. in B. back C. out D. through 12. If oil is flowing _____ the weld it will show a rippling effect. A. between B. up C. down D. within


Page 21


13. The fan stator contains fixed stator vanes mounted _____ all stages of the rotor. A. in front of B. beyond C. behind D. across

24. Cabin pressure _____ control the quantity of air that flows out of the fuselage. A. controller B. controlling C. controllers D. controlled

14. Make sure that the backlash of the motor/converter goes _____ when you apply light finger pressure on the arm. A. away B. out of C. off D. under

25. The WING P/BSW is installed on the _____-ICE _____ panel 225 VU. A. ANTI / overheat B. DE / overheat C. ANTI / overhead D. DE / overhead

15. The thermal switches are found _____ the wing leading edge and in the struts. A. over B. in front of C. through D. along 16. HP stage pressure _____ than 35 psig and lower than 100 psig, air is bled from the HP port. A. most B. less C. much D. higher 17. The engine features direct fan speed control for _____ low pressure and high pressure turbines. A. each B. both C. all D. either 18. This could cause _____ explosion. A. an B. one C. some D. a 19. _____ of the components of the green hydraulic system are installed in the main landing gear well. A. More B. Each C. Most D. Much 20. The computer operates using _____ channel 1 or 2. A. both B. either C. every D. each 21. The engine fuel system consists of four _____ systems. A. under B. pre C. sub D. semi 22. The water/waste system also discards wastewater from the toilet washbasins and from the galleys _____board. A. over B. under C. out D. in 23. Make sure that the O-ring is in the _____ position. A. corrected B. correctly C. correct D. correcting

26. _____ pressure from hydraulic system No. 1. A. Repair B. Request C. Release D. Require 27. During the APU shutdown cycle, when the P3 pressure _____ to a predetermined level, the springloaded valve will automatically start to close. A. remains B. drops C. reaches D. rises 28. The accessory drive system _____ energy from the high pressure compressor rotor to drive the engine accessories. A. extends B. expands C. extracts D. exceeds 29. Do these steps if the brake has _____ too hot because of a rejected takeoff. A. started B. begun C. come on D. become 30. Make sure that the controls _____ with the position of the items they operate. A. achieve B. agree C. appear D. act 31. The flaps _____ automatically when the signal _____. A. will be moving / will be activated B. will move / is activated C. are moving / will be activated D. are moving / is activated 32. _____ an engine on the other side _____ the relay to close. A. Starting / causes B. Start / will cause C. To start / causes D. Starting / to cause 33. If the starter _____ a malfunction, the input shaft _____. A. is / will disconnect B. has / disconnect C. has / disconnects D. is / disconnects 34. On A. B. C. D.

the ground the air _____ through a _____ unit. passed / cooled passes / cooling passing / cool pass / cooled


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35. The air conditioning system _____ the air in the _____ 46. Make sure the EICAS shows the TEST PASSED fuselage compartments at the correct pressure, message _____ the test is complete. temperature and freshness. A. while B. during A. is kept / pressurizing B. keep / pressurized C. when C. keeps / pressurized D. as long as D. to keep / pressurizing 47. A fire can be _____ excessive overheat or flammable 36. When the wiper blade is in the parked position it fluid leaks and can endanger the aircraft safety. should be _____ to move 1/8 to 1/4 inch from the stop. A. because A. available B. despite B. free C. as C. serviceable D. due to D. ready 48. On the ground, an external electrical power source is 37. The hot heater probes can cause _____ burns. needed _____ an internal aircraft power source is not A. hard available. B. deep A. although C. sharp B. as long as D. severe C. so that D. whereas 38. The fire extinguishing system is designed to extinguish at an _____ stage any fire occurring in the 49. The connection is made through an AND logic _____ protected nacelle zones. avoid spurious warnings. A. after A. in order to B. early B. due to C. accurate C. according to D. even D. therefore 39. If the fault produces a FLAPS PRIMARY message followed by a FLAPS DRIVE message, it is _____ the result of a Flaps Disagree. A. likely B. actually C. fully D. slightly

50. When energized in AP mode, the solenoid controls roller engagement, _____ locking the artificial feel mechanism. A. also B. then C. but D. thus

40. There are three cases of pneumatic operation: HP stage pressure _____ than 35 psig (average value)... A. slower B. hotter C. thicker D. lower

51. Lubricate the new _____ with oil. A. safety pin B. lockwire C. O-ring D. bonding braid

41. If these components are not installed in the correct position, oxygen flow _____ stop. A. shall B. would C. could D. should 42. Hot oil contacting eyes or skin _____ cause severe burns. A. will B. has to C. should D. needs to 43. Do not reroll on any core less than 7 inches in diameter or damage to laminate _____ occur. A. must B. would C. should D. may 44. Make sure you _____ see the threads on the end fitting through the inspection hole. A. will B. can C. shall D. would 45. Splices _____ not be installed under clamps or other supports. A. may B. can C. would D. shall

52. Push the line into the discharge head until you feel the _____. A. stop B. flange C. gasket D. grommet 53. Remove and discard the _____. A. washer B. rod C. cotter pin D. nut 54. Hold the spoiler and remove the _____ bolt and the bush. A. hinge B. groove C. thread D. shank 55. Engage the torque _____ into the torque limiter. A. spindle B. roller C. pipe D. shaft 56. Use _____ to protect the surface of the aileron during removal and installation. A. foil B. padding C. tape D. patches


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57. Use _____ to tie the shaft to the trolley. A. wires B. hoists C. lugs D. straps 58. The connections must point _____ from the door hinge of the compartment. A. away B. downstream C. counterclockwise D. overboard 59. Lock the mechanism of the access door with the _____ when you open the access door. A. key B. rigging pin C. wrench D. pip pin


68. Remove the related mount vibration-isolator. This is ATA chapter: A. 49 - APU B. 28 - fuel C. 21 - air conditioning D. 27 - flight controls 69. An air cycle machine first compresses the air then expands it. This is ATA chapter: A. 72 - engine B. 21 - air conditioning C. 36 - pneumatic power D. 38 - water and waste 70. Operational Test of Engine Pump Depressurization. This is page block: A. 201 B. 401 C. 501 D. 601

60. Move the lever _____ backwards and forwards several 71. Carefully put the valve into its recess on the rear face times. of the fan frame at the 4.30 o'clock position. You A. steadily install the valve in a: B. around A. cavity C. fully B. frame D. twice C. housing D. bracket 61. Troubleshooting ______: electrical power (MM 24-2200/201) and TE flaps position between up and 25 72. Put an entry in the aircraft log to tell people not to use units. towbarless tow operations. You must: A. requests A. not tow the aircraft B. records B. write to the manufacturer C. prerequisites C. use a tow vehicle and tow bar D. precedents D. placard the nose landing gear 62. The first troubleshooting _____ is to look for 73. Caution: Do not tighten the adjuster assembly on the something to jam the drive train. hoisting sling too much or you will cause damage to A. step the unit/assembly. You want to _____ a component: B. stage A. lift C. ladder B. adjust D. scale C. install D. repair 63. _____ the brakes and the wheels become cool. A. Leave 74. Make sure that the dimension "y" is between 0.1 mm B. Keep and 0.5 mm (the stops of the actuator rod-end are C. Let parallel). If one stop of the actuator rod end is in D. Get contact with the washer the dimension "y" is between 0.5 and 1.0 mm. You make sure that: 64. On the ENG/APU FIRE PNL (on the _____ control and A. "y" is between 0.5 and 1.0 mm indicating panel), press the ENG 1 TEST pushbutton B. the stops touch the washers switch. C. one stop touches a washer A. overheat D. the stops of the rod-end are parallel B. overhead C. overall 75. During a defuel, the fuel pump can empty the collector D. overhaul cell faster than the collector cell can fill. Thus you must let the collector cell fill again before the defuel 65. Instruments are powered with both _____ and direct can continue. You must: current. A. not let the collector cell become empty A. alternating B. drain the collector cell B. alternative C. wait for the collector cell to fill again C. alternate D. regulate the fuel pump D. alternated 66. Make sure that the wheel chocks are in position. This is ATA chapter: A. 29 - hydraulic power B. 27 - flight controls C. 32 - landing gear D. 38 - water and waste 67. The pressure regulator / transmitter reduces this high pressure to low pressure for the downstream system and distribution equipment. This is ATA chapter: A. 24 - elec. power B. 31 - instruments C. 27 - flight controls D. 35 - oxygen

76. To prevent a hazardous condition, a baulk in the bypass valve prevents the movement of the ground door-opening handles to the close position, unless the hydraulic system is pressurized. Unwanted door closure is prevented: A. hydraulically B. mechanically C. electrically D. by external safeties


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77. The duct-type cooling effect detector ensures permanent monitoring of the cooling capacity of the blowing airflow by measuring the cooling of a heating unit. The detectors monitor cooling: A. on several sample avionic units B. on a sample avionic unit C. on a device installed in the cooling duct D. by comparing inlet and outlet temperatures 78. As differential pressure increases, the piston compresses its spring and moves away from the upper magnetic piston. The upper piston spring overcomes the magnetic force and drives the pop-out indicator out. In case of excessive differential pressure: A. the upper piston moves B. a spring moves the pop-out indicator C. the upper piston pushes the pop-out indicator D. the lower piston moves under spring pressure


TEST 6 1.

Remove the 4 bolts which attach the fuel supply tube to the _____ of the IDG cooler port. A. groove B. flange C. thread D. height

2.

Make sure that the pressure shown on the pressure _____ is correct. A. grip B. gage C. gasket D. gouge

3.

Remove the _____ caps from the electrical connectors. A. setting B. crimping C. blanking D. rigging

79. It enables the airplane systems to be supplied with air under a nominal pressure below 48 psig. The 4. While you hold the outer body in this position, turn pressure levels are slaved to the flow to obtain a the removal _____ to push the lockwasher into balance between the flows from the engines. The position. bleed valve outlet pressure depends on: A. sill A. demand B. seal B. temperature C. beam C. flight phase D. tool D. flow 80. If there is a rupture of the aircraft return line, the relief 5. Put on _____ when you touch cables. A. gloves valve holds the fluid volume in the accumulator. The B. cloth mode selector valve moves under the action of its C. clothes spring and the servo control operates in damping D. goggles mode. Damping mode is triggered by: A. the relief valve 6. Choose the correct group of words. B. spring action on the mode selector valve A. defuel refuel isolation valves C. the accumulator B. refuel defuel valves isolation D. the servo control C. refuel defuel isolation valves D. defuel refuel valves isolation 7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. fixed interchangeable body servo controls B. fixed servo controls interchangeable body C. interchangeable fixed body servo controls D. interchangeable fixed servo body controls

8.

Choose the correct group of words. A. sealed ignition lead conduit B. conduit sealed ignition lead C. ignition lead conduit sealed D. sealed conduit ignition lead

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. air bleed system supply engine B. bleed air system engine supply C. engine system bleed air supply D. engine bleed air supply system

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. green valve fire shut-off B. fire shut-off green valve C. shut-off valve green fire D. green fire shut-off valve 11. This applies to S/N 8576 _____ 8690. A. between B. thru C. from D. within 12. The fire extinguisher bottles are controlled _____ the cockpit. A. from B. on C. into D. to


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13. The wrap shall extend 3/8 inch _____ the end of the splice. A. behind B. within C. in front of D. beyond 14. If only one actuator operates, the status message PEDAL STEERING will come _____ view on the EICAS. A. to B. on C. into D. in 15. The contact must be seated squarely _____ the cable dielectric or insulator. A. under B. against C. over D. near 16. Pressing the pushbutton switch at _____ attendant station will turn on all the cabin lights. A. these B. a C. some D. any 17. Charge the cylinder until the pressure is _____ than 1850 psi. A. greater B. most C. less D. equal 18. Apply _____ water to the windshield to test the windshield wiper system. A. the B. a C. D. any 19. The elevator hydraulic actuation is ensured by 2 electro-hydraulic servo controls on _____ surface. A. the B. each C. all D. a


24. Install the four _____ sunk screws. A. in B. down C. counter D. self 25. The current speed and altitude are displayed on a digital _____. A. reader B. readout C. readup D. reading 26. _____ goggles, protective gloves and face mask. A. Wear B. Carry C. Support D. Retain 27. The OFF legend of the IDG will _____ if a correct reset of the disconnect mechanism has occurred. A. lighten B. come on C. go off D. de-energize 28. The active CPC _____ control signals through a bus to the outflow valve. A. sets B. sends C. releases D. receives 29. _____ the operational test of the engine fire extinguishing. A. Ensure B. Perform C. Allow D. Provide 30. This temperature selection will _____ the heat probe stabilize at a temperature slightly below the nominal close temperature. A. do B. let C. permit D. cause

31. The failure data _____ and you can _____ it on the MCDU after each flight. 20. The MLI is a glass-reinforced plastic rod. At _____ end A. stored / see of the rod is a magnet. B. is storing / see A. one C. is stored / to see B. a D. is stored / see C. both D. an 32. If there _____ a warning signal, the MASTER WARN lights _____ and a continuous repetitive chime _____. 21. The test may be _____ at any time by _____ the line A. has / flash / hears select key next to the ABORT prompt. B. are / flash / is heard A. aborted / pressed C. is / flash / is heard B. aborted / pressed D. is / flashes / hearing C. aborting / pressing D.

aborted / pressing

22. The control surfaces must be _____ after installation. A. rigged B. rig C. rigging D. rigger 23. Handsets are installed at all the cabin _____ stations. A. attendants B. attendants' C. attendants's D. attendant's

33. The surfaces _____ by three types of computer _____ on their functions. A. controlled / depending B. are controlled / depending C. control / depended D. are controlling / depending 34. Mechanically and hydraulically _____ doors close _____ the aerodynamic contours when the landing gear retracts. A. operated / to make B. operating / to make C. operated / made D. operating / making


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35. Servo _____ is ensured _____ the position data supplied by one of the RVDTs driven by the other cam. A. monitored / to use B. monitor / using C. monitoring / to use D. monitoring / using 36. The _____ valve will automatically start to close. A. self-held B. built-in C. spring-loaded D. self-contained 37. The system is kept physically _____ from the other two systems wherever possible. A. connected B. integrated C. apart D. redundant 38. _____ checks should be made to make sure that the tire pressure is within limits. A. structural B. daily C. yearly D. unscheduled 39. Wear goggles, _____ gloves and other protective clothes. A. isolated B. rubber C. plated D. insulated 40. If any alodine is spilt on the skin, rinse immediately with a _____ supply of w ater. A. full B. replenished C. plentiful D. complete 41. You _____ carefully install the ground locks in all the landing gear. A. may B. must C. will D. can 42. Do not use external parts to pull or lift the IDG. If you do so you _____ cause damage to the IDG. A. would B. have to C. can D. should 43. All foreign matter _____ be removed before starting the repair. A. is to B. can C. will D. may 44. You _____ two persons to lift the assembly. A. must B. should C. need D. have to 45. Rinse the casing before refilling. There _____ be contamination. A. would B. may C. has to D. shall


46. The indication is normally based on data sent by FCSC1 _____ such data is found invalid. A. as long as B. except if C. provided D. if 47. The engine pumps are automatically controlled _____ the crew can control them from the cockpit when necessary. A. but B. thus C. if D. when 48. You can monitor the operation of the pneumatic system on the BLEED page of the SD. The APU page of the SD _____ shows some information. A. furthermore B. and C. so D. also 49. If a second crossfeed valve is opened, the two fuel feeds are connected together. _____ the four engines can be supplied with the fuel from one of the wings. A. Moreover B. Whereas C. Thus D. However 50. The oil must be retained within the engine, _____ seals of various types are provided to confine and direct oil re-circulation. A. therefore B. however C. since D. nevertheless 51. Install the new _____ on the union. A. packing B. groove C. sealant D. cable tie 52. Remove the blanking _____ from the disconnected hydraulic lines. A. taps B. caps C. plugs D. lugs 53. Remove the proximity sensor _____ with the proximity sensors. A. brackets B. clevises C. gaskets D. hinges 54. Put the hydraulic _____ and the 1 m harness in position on the guide blocks. A. tees B. unions C. locknut D. hoses 55. Fully install the _____ in the lug of the shortening mechanism rear pintle pin. A. backshell B. nut C. sleeve D. screw


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56. Put a safety _____ in position when you work near an open door. A. net B. procedure C. barrier D. harness 57. Turn the pump 30° _____. A. inboard B. upwards C. clockwise D. forward


67. The hydraulic actuation is controlled by the Pitch Trim Actuator. This is ATA chapter: A. 21 - air conditioning B. 27 - flight controls C. 32 - landing gear D. 49 - APU 68. Hold the water heater and remove the clamps. This is ATA chapter: A. 21 - air conditioning B. 36 - pneumatic power C. 30 - ice/rain protection D. 38 - water and waste

58. Wires break most _____ where cables go through fairleads or around pulleys. A. nearly B. frequently C. quietly D. slowly

69. Each detection loop has an electro/pneumatic detector element set at different thresholds. This is ATA chapter: A. 72 - engine B. 26 - fire protection C. 30 - ice/rain protection D. 49 - APU 59. You must _____ install a new O-ring before you install a removed union. 70. Remove and discard the lockwire from the seal A. often changeover valve drain plug. This is page block: B. never A. 201 C. always B. 401 D. again C. 501 D. 601 60. Adjust the position of the knurled nut with _____. A. your fingers 71. If you remove the drain tube from the fuel nozzle B. a screwdriver adjacent to the 6 o'clock borescope plug, you will be C. a wrench required to perform a leak check after this inspection. D. a ring spanner. Use the 6 o'clock borescope port only if necessary. A. you use the borescope port to check for leaks 61. The fire extinguishing system is _____ when fire is B. you remove the broescope plug to inspect the fuel detected by the fire and overheat detection system. nozzle A. actuated C. to remove the drain tube, you must remove the B. actualized borescope plug C. excited D. it is preferable not to remove the borescope plug D. activated 72. Wind three quarters of the full length of the microphone cable and flexible hose and put them at the bottom of the stowage box. A. put most of the microphone cable and all the oxygen hose at the bottom of the box B. coil most of the microphone cable and the oxygen hose at the bottom of the box 63. The relay continuously _____ the ground condition on C. put the three microphone cables at the bottom of the any switch. box A. displays D. coil the three microphone cables and oxygen hose at B. monitors the bottom of the box C. controls 73. Make sure that you cannot install the GAGE-END D. commands STOP, FLAP ACTUATOR between the rotary actuator 64. Put the removed parts in a bag in order not to _____ and the rotary actuator stop bolt. them. A. you should install a stop A. loose B. you should install an actuator B. loosen C. you should not be able to install a gage C. lose D. you should not be able to install a stop D. loss 74. Turn the upper drum of the HOIST-MINILIFT until you 65. You must wait 5 minutes after each engine shutdown have removed the slack from the hoist cable. Make before you check and _____ engine oil. sure that you do not lift the SUPPORT FRAME-APU. A. complete Then disconnect the APU from the SUPPORT FRAMEB. fulfill APU. To disconnect the APU: C. fill out A. the cable must be loose D. top off B. the support must be raised C. the cable must be tight 66. A self-sealing coupling permits rapid removal or D. the support must be removed installation of the electric pump without loss of fluid. 62. Slowly open the vacuum control _____ you get a stable pressure value. A. until B. under C. unless D. onto

This is ATA chapter: A. 36 - pneumatic power B. 29 - hydraulic power C. 32 - landing gear D. 26 - fire protection


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75. On the HP manifold 6103 JM, disconnect the pressure switches 7JS2 and 19CE2 and on the free end make a short circuit between the pins A and B with a plug type E0052R8B3APNE. A. you disconnect the HP manifold B. you connect two pressure switches C. you connect two pins D. you connect the two ends of the cables


TEST 7 1.

The maneuvering speeds are linked directly to the _____ and the center of gravity. A. weight B. depth C. height D. width

2. Wash your _____ with soap and rinse with clean 76. The transmitter unit has one potentiometer for each water. MLG. Each one has 4 tracks. They send outputs to the A. eyes BSCU. The BSCU has two isolated channels; only one B. coil controls system operation. The other is a backup. C. skin A. the BSCUs have 4 tracks each D. compound B. the potentiometer has 2 tracks per gear 3. For the second group of computers, the links with the C. only 1 potentiometer is active at a time data _____ are direct. D. only 1 channel is active at a time A. timer 77. The mounting flange is attached with six studs to the B. spacer bottom skin of the tank. Four of the studs also attach C. loader the actuator below the tank. The drive engages with D. charger the actuator. The actuator is installed _____ the tank 4. Make sure that the ON BAT _____ comes on for 5 with _____ studs. seconds, then goes off. A. in / six A. annunciator B. under / four B. flag C. under / six C. switch D. in / four D. pad 78. The gearbox housing has a capacity of 8.5 l. On the 5. The high voltage electrical current in the _____ of the left side there are the gravity oil fill, the fill-pressure strobe light is dangerous. and the overflow ports. The gearbox has internal oil A. lens lines. They transmit the oil from the gearbox sump to B. sleeve the oil pump. C. capacitor A. there are two oil-fill ports on the right D. backshell B. there is a single oil-fill port on the left C. each oil-fill port has an overflow port 6. Choose the correct group of words. D. the oil pump scavenges oil from the sump A. electrical power emergency pushbutton switch B. pushbutton switch emergency electrical power 79. The hydraulic fluid enters the annular space formed C. emergency electrical power pushbutton switch by the two tubes. The fluid flows: D. emergency pushbutton switch electrical power A. in the outer tube B. in both tubes 7. Choose the correct group of words. C. from one tube to the other A. flight control electrical system D. in the inner tube B. electrical flight control system C. electrical flight system control 80. The tank heater assembly is installed on the water D. system electrical flight control tank. It is wrapped around the water tank and held in position by the tension of loaded springs. The heating 8. Choose the correct group of words. resistance is: A. down loading and up system data A. at the bottom of the tank B. up and down data loading system B. in the center of the tank C. system loading up and down data C. around the outer surface of the tank D. data up and down loading system D. on the top of the tank 9. Choose the correct group of words. A. 3.5 unit disk inch drive B. disk drive unit 3.5 inch C. unit disk drive 3.5 inch D. 3.5 inch disk drive unit 10. Choose the correct group of words. A. floor proximity emergency escape path B. emergency escape proximity floor path C. floor proximity escape path emergency D. floor path proximity emergency escape 11. Each engine (HP rotor) drives its associated IDG _____ the accessory gearbox. A. inside B. around C. through D. across


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12. The current transformers provide outputs proportional to the current in the links connecting the neutral _____ of the main stator windings to the neutral terminal. A. ends B. sides C. tips D. edges 13. Remove excess solder _____ the outer surface of the contact. A. at B. from C. to D. in 14. Pulling a selector knob always leads _____ an immediate acquisition and hold of the corresponding parameter. A. on B. onto C. at D. to 15. Fully move down the handle to the _____ of the screen. A. rear B. bottom C. side D. top 16. The MCDU also indicates _____ failures in the system and gives trouble shooting data for the system. A. each B. some C. any D. both


22. _____ electrical power can be dangerous. A. shutoff B. unwanting C. shutdown D. unwanted 23. _____ turn the pushbutton switch clockwise. A. Smoothly B. Smoothed C. Smooth D. Smoothing 24. The aircraft navigation systems provide the crew with the data _____ for flight. A. requiring B. requires C. require D. required 25. A _____ panel is located on the center pedestal. A. switch B. switching C. switches D. switched 26. Where the wire lengths do not _____ arrangement in accordance with para. 5.A, arrange splices with 0.25 inch minimum spacing. A. apply B. agree C. allow D. achieve 27. The switches are _____ to close at 250°F. A. fitted B. set C. monitored D. followed up

17. Do not connect electrical equipment to a power source that is _____ than 30 meters away. A. less B. most C. least D. the same

28. The horn in the nose gear well must _____ as long as you push the CALLS/MECH pushbutton switch. A. operate B. apply C. trigger D. come on

18. The interconnection between the FMGECs and the peripherals is accomplished in such a way that a single failure of a peripheral has _____ effect on the AFS. A. none B. any C. nothing D. no

29. The clock is _____ with a built-in battery. A. provided B. pointed C. performed D. put

19. The AC main generation enables supply of the _____ aircraft electrical system in normal configuration. A. entire B. 100% C. each D. all

30. A short push action on the CLR key _____ the last character. A. releases B. transmits C. exits D. erases

31. After a certain time period, the relay _____ and the cams _____ their position. A. de-energizes / keep 20. The sensors are calibrated at zero degree A/C pitch B. de-energizes / keeps attitude. They have a range of operation from _____ 5° C. is de-energized / to keep to _____ 5° pitch attitude. D. is de-energized / keep A. less / more 32. If the operator does not make any action for 10 s., the B. least / most CMC, instead of _____ the current screen, _____ the C. minus / plus screen corresponding to the preceding level. D. minimum / maximum A. to display / displays 21. The VHF system is used for all _____-range voice B. displaying / display communications. C. to display / will display A. in D. displaying / will display B. short C. low D. on


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33. These keys _____ the operator _____ data to a specific system. A. enable / to enter B. enabling / enter C. enables / to enter D. will enable / entering 34. The system is also _____ as a data concentrator _____ data to other systems. A. using / provide B. used / to provide C. using / provided D. uses / providing 35. The AC emergency generator _____ part of the distribution network _____ in case of loss of the main generation sources. A. allows / to recover B. will allow / recovering C. is allowing / to recover D. allows / to be recovered 36. The generator is a 3-phase, _____, spray-oil cooled, rotating, rectifier machine. A. brushless B. foolproof C. lintfree D. fire-resistant 37. The GCU ensures the _____ power quality of the aircraft electrical system. A. requested B. required C. prerequisite D. redundant 38. If the amplifier output signal disappears or becomes too _____, a search cycle is triggered. A. hard B. strong C. soft D. weak 39. The height information has been duplicated, allowing a _____ comparison of the computed heights. A. cross B. mean C. relevant D. digital 40. Remove the _____ bulb from its socket. A. serviceable B. alternating C. defective D. spare 41. Uneven or ragged faces _____ not seat properly in contact or connector. A. should B. will C. shall D. must 42. Splices _____ not be installed inside connector backshells/adapters. A. will B. may C. would D. shall 43. Electrocution is _____ if the AC or DC power stays connected. A. possible B. mandatory C. preferred D. optional


44. Unwanted electrical power _____ be dangerous. A. has to B. should C. must D. can 45. Do not touch the strobe lights for at least 5 minutes after operation. The strobe light _____ still be hot. A. must B. shall C. will D. should 46. The computer is active _____ the aircraft is supplied with electrical power. A. until B. as long as C. unless D. whereas 47. The EICAS shows the TEST IN PROGRESS message _____ the test is in progress. A. while B. during C. although D. whatever 48. A data item is encoded in one or in the other or in the two languages _____ necessary. A. also B. and C. so D. as 49. Both APs can be engaged _____ the ILS approach mode is selected. A. but B. as soon as C. although D. thus 50. When a longitudinal mode is engaged, it is associated with an A/THR mode if the autothrust is engaged. _____, the AP may be engaged in longitudinal mode without A/THR engagement. A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. So 51. Do not remove the captive bolts and _____ from the contactor. A. bonding straps B. spring washers C. clamps D. hoses 52. In the cockpit, make sure that these _____ are released: A. pushbutton switches B. terminal blocks C. circuit breakers D. wire looms 53. Make sure that the _____ is in position on the access door. A. tag B. flag C. warning notice D. annunciator 54. Remove the blanking _____ from the electrical connectors. A. plugs B. taps C. caps D. straps


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55. Remove and discard the _____. A. crimping lugs B. backshell C. cable ties D. lampholder 56. Put the _____ of the voltmeter on the structure adjacent to the bonding points. A. pins B. stubs C. lugs D. prods


66. NOTE: The reflector is only at the aisle ballast unit. This is ATA chapter: A. 22 - autoflight B. 31 - instruments C. 33 - lighting D. 34 - navigation 67. The aircraft systems send their parameters in parallel to the two CMCs. This is ATA chapter: A. 24 - elec. power B. 26 - fire protection C. 34 - navigation D. 45 - centralized maintenance

57. Insulation test, 500 volt (nominal), with the related test _____. 68. The RETARD mode is available only in automatic A. harnesses landing. This is ATA chapter: B. leads A. 22 - autoflight C. wires B. 31 - instruments D. looms C. 34 - navigation D. 45 - centralized maintenance 58. The resistivity test _____ measures the continuity of the antistatic paint in relation to the aircraft metallic 69. Release the EMER GEN TEST pushbutton switch. This structure. is ATA chapter: A. can A. 22 - autoflight B. set B. 24 - elec. power C. calipers C. 31 - instruments D. case D. 45 - centralized maintenance 59. _____ the contacts on the board. A. crimp B. weld C. bond D. solder 60. Carefully pull the _____ to remove the head of the pushbutton switch. A. extractor B. probe C. screwdriver D. clip 61. The following conditions must be _____. A. fulfilled B. filled in C. filled out D. filled 62. The modules must be handled with extreme care. _____ in rigid anti-static containers. A. Stand B. Stow C. Store D. Stay 63. Use a heat sink on the leads to _____ damage to the device. A. provide B. prevent C. process D. warn 64. The human body generates and _____ static electricity. A. remains B. stays C. retains D. requires 65. The OFF legend of the IDG pushbutton switch will _____ if a correct reset of the disconnect mechanism has occurred. A. go off B. switch off C. cut off D. turn off

70. On the FCU, on the EFIS control panels, set the ROSE VOR mode. This is page block: A. 201 B. 401 C. 501 D. 601 71. Be careful not to scratch the metal. The diameter or width of the area you thus clean to bare metal must be larger than the diameter or width of the fastener or terminal by 2 mm to 4 mm. The terminal must be _____ the prepared surface _____. A. the same size as / to ± 2-4 mm B. larger than / by 2 to 4 mm C. smaller than / by 2 to 4 mm D. the same size as / or 2 to 4 mm smaller 72. Install the new white chamfered silicone seal on the ignition lead. The small diameter collar of the chamfered silicone seal must be put into the large collar of the caged spring assembly. A. insert the lead into the spring B. insert the seal into the spring C. insert the small collar into the large one D. insert the larger collar into the lead 73. On the FCU, engage AP2. Make sure that the load threshold of the rudder pedals is more than that of step 3 (the load you apply to the pedals must be below the new load threshold). A. you must overcome the load thresholds B. you must not overcome the load threshold C. you disengage the autopilot D. you apply less pressure than in step 3 74. Output voltage of the ignition unit is dangerous and could be lethal. Make sure it is de-energized and grounded before input and output leads are disconnected. Do not touch center contact of output terminal. You must ground: A. the center contact B. the input and output leads C. the capacitor D. the ignition unit


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75. If you must replace the ECB and the APU Memory Module, replace the Module first. After you have replaced it, do the APU BITE test. This automatically keeps the APU life data with the APU. In order not to lose APU data, you must: A. replace the ECB first B. download the data from the memory module C. do the APU BITE test D. replace the Memory Module, then do the APU BITE test 76. The Runway-Turnoff Lights System has two light units. Each light unit has a 28 VAC 150 Watt single filament lamp and a step-down transformer. The transformer decreases the 115 VAC bus-bar supply to 28 VAC. If you lose one transformer, you lose: A. 1 light B. 2 lights C. nothing D. brightness 77. The microcomputer checks the validity of the incoming word. It also sends data to the synthesizer and voltage to the transceiver which it tunes to the selected channel frequency. The _____ uses _____ to tune the transceiver. A. microcomputer / frequency B. synthesizer / words C. microcomputer / voltage D. synthesizer / voltage 78. One ECU is healthy for autothrust engagement if the comparison between the thrust target computed by the auto-thrust basic loop and the thrust target gi ven by each ECU is not greater than 10% RPM. ATHR engagement has a _______ tolerance of ±10%. A. speed B. current thrust / target thrust C. two target thrust D. manual / auto thrust


TEST 8 1.

The MCDU slew _____ (arrow up and arrow down) adjacent to the LAT indication are shown. A. keys B. prompts C. legends D. knob

2.

Lift the safety _____. Push and hold the EMER GEN TEST pushbutton switch. A. knob B. pin C. lug D. guard

3.

The _____ of this document is to give the detailed description of the SD, the logics and associated controls. A. purpose B. display C. range D. legend

4.

During the _____ of time or date, only the digits corresponding to the position of the UTC selector switch are displayed. A. sizing B. setting C. scanning D. sampling

5.

For all display _____, only valid data are displayed, otherwise dashes are displayed. A. arcs B. times C. fields D. lengths

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. test annunciator and dimming light B. annunciator light test and dimming C. annunciator light and test dimming D. test light and annunciator dimming

79. ADIRU power consumption includes the supply of 3 Air Data Modules. With ON BAT annunciator, add 0.6 W. With IR annunciator at I = 250 mA, add 1.3 W. Other annunciators are open/ground discretes. ADIRU 7. Choose the correct group of words. power consumption increases: A. lateral loss approach mode A. with all annunciators B. loss mode lateral approach B. with the ADMs C. lateral approach mode loss C. 0.6 Watts with ON BAT D. approach loss lateral mode D. with open/ground discretes 8. Choose the correct group of words. 80. WAIT FOR SYSTEM RESPONSE. When the response A. 28V essential bus contactor time is short, no message is sent to the scratchpad. If B. 28 V bus essential contactor the response display exceeds 1s, this message is C. essential bus 28 V contactor displayed. If the system responds within 3s, the D. essential bus contactor 28 V message is cleared. The message is displayed in: 9. Choose the correct group of words. A. < 1 second A. various system aircraft interfaces B. = 1 second B. aircraft system various interfaces C. > 1 second C. various interfaces aircraft system D. 1-3 seconds D. various aircraft system interfaces

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. landing gear control light red lever arrow B. landing gear control lever red arrow light C. red landing gear lever control arrow light D. red landing gear control lever light arrow 11. The CMC is the interface _____ the FWCs and the system BITEs. A. from B. to C. between D. thru


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12. 5 VDC is applied _____ pin AB. A. over B. around C. across D. through


22. From a data processing medium, the data loading unit is used to _____ the data bases. A. ondate B. update C. downdate D. indate

13. The ESS TR powered from AC BUS 1-1 supplies _____ its contactor: - the direct current bus 2 PP. 23. These disk-_____ data can be _____ analyzed on the A. across ground. B. through A. storing / direct C. on B. storing / director D. to C. stored / direct D. stored / directly 14. This lighting system is specially used _____ night for the check lists. 24. Set the ANN LT switch to DIM. The annunciators that A. at come on during the job _____ get _____. B. in A. set-up / dimmer C. on B. set-on / dimming D. to C. set-up / dimming D. set-on / dimmer 15. The fire protection system protects the engine pylon _____ any torching flame from the combustion 25. The galley can be shed _____ by _____ the chamber. COMMERCIAL pushbutton switch. A. away A. complete / push B. to B. completed / pushing C. beyond C. completely / pushing D. against D. completed / pushed 16. Forces on the landing gear caused by differential tire pressure have _____ effect on the measurement accuracy. A. any B. not C. no D. none 17. _____ BCD data word contains the sign and the transmitter hardware status in bits 30 and 31. A. Several B. Each C. Both D. All

26. The CMC _____ and _____ the data transmitted by the BITEs. A. achieves / performs B. acquires / processes C. actuates / prints D. applies / provides 27. This action _____ the identification and/or confirmation of fault conditions. A. computes B. contains C. covers D. consists of

18. Put _____ blanking caps on the disconnected electrical connectors. A. the B. some C. D. any

28. The PMG rotor causes an alternating flux in the winding. This alternating flux _____ an alternating voltage. A. induces B. introduces C. includes D. inserts

19. The printer communicates with _____ system at a time. A. a B. the C. one D. all

29. When at least one inertial position _____ valid, the FM position is initialized to the mixed IR position. A. begins B. goes C. becomes D. appears

20. Remove _____ blanking caps from the electrical connectors. A. the B. some C. D. many

30. Install the screws and _____ them to between 0.49 and 0.68m.daN. A. safety B. tighten C. turn D. loosen

21. The weather radar system is _____ used to detect and 31. On the SD, the AC ESS indication _____ green again localize various types of atmospheric disturbances in and the synoptic diagram _____. the area _____ by the antenna. A. become / modified A. mainly / scanning B. becomes / is modifying B. main / scanning C. becomes / is modified C. mainly / scanned D. is becoming / is modified D. main / scanned


Page 34

32. The pilot _____ the throttle control levers to the IDLE position and thus _____ manual control of the thrust at landing. A. moves / takes B. moves / to take C. move / take D. moves / taking 33. In the right window, with the dual selector knob, _____ the frequency of a station that _____. A. setting / transmitted B. set / transmits C. to set / transmits D. set / is transmitted 34. RMP 2 and 3 _____ the last frequencies _____. A. shows / using B. show / using C. is showing / to use D. show / used 35. When the IR is off, the output buses _____ and the IR FAULT legend _____. A. disable / inhibit B. is disabled/ is inhibited C. are disabled / are inhibited D. are disabled / is inhibited 36. The CLR and STS key lights come on when the corresponding bits are _____ to 1. A. timed B. split C. tuned D. set 37. The TCAS II system is designed to provide the air traffic control system with this _____ possibility. A. prior B. subsequent C. additional D. various 38. The cockpit loudspeakers broadcast _____ warnings. A. aural B. red C. visual D. twin 39. These systems have the capacity of memorizing data concerning the faults detected on the _____ flight. A. miscellaneous B. next C. actual D. last 40. The AC essential busbar and the AC _____ essential busbar are normally supplied in parallel from AC BUS 1-1. A. suitable B. sheddable C. dimmable D. retractable 41. Some components have dangerous voltages which _____ kill or injure you. A. need B. can C. should D. must 42. Do not touch the lamp glass with your fingers. The oils from your skin _____ quickly c ause deterioration of the lamp. A. must B. have to C. will D. should

43. All A. B. C. D.

Prepared by Chu Th e Cuong QA -A76 live circuits _____ be isolated. are to may might would

44. When the item you _____ bond has a bonding tab or rivet, it is not necessary to remove the surface protection. A. may B. must C. can D. do 45. Push the line key adjacent to the A/C STATUS indication. The A/C STATUS page _____ come into view. A. should B. will C. can D. must 46. On the ground, in the acceleration stop configuration, the dome light is automatically activated _____ the position of the switches. A. however B. due to C. whatever D. according to 47. The System Isolation Contactor closes automatically when GEN3 and EXT PWR A are not available and APU GEN is available _____ supply network 3 from the APU GEN. A. due to B. so C. provided D. in order to 48. _____ a given fault has been determined, an indication of the fault is written in the NUM. A. Once B. Although C. Before D. Whereas 49. The localizer operates in a frequency band which ranges from 108.1 MHz to 111.95 MHz _____ defined by ARINC specification 710. A. regardless B. as C. since D. however 50. Each lobe is modulated at 90 or 150 Hz, _____ an aircraft flying down the centerline would receive a signal with equal levels of each tone. A. so that B. because C. whilst D. in order to 51. Remove the ballast unit with the _____. A. guide blocks B. lampholder C. pushbutton D. terminal cover 52. Remove the controller from the _____. A. shim B. shelf C. shunt D. shaft


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53. Make a bead of sealant around the _____ of the engine scan light. A. lug B. strap C. board D. flange 54. Remove the igniter _____ from the terminals. A. thermocouple B. harness C. spacer D. wire 55. Hold the lower panel and loosen the three _____ by a quarter turn. A. nuts B. screws C. bolts D. Dzus fasteners 56. On the ACP _____ turn the INT reception pushbutton switch clockwise. A. correctly B. suitably C. smoothly D. still 57. Do a _____ inspection of the component interface and/or adjacent area. A. bonding B. continuity C. tapping D. visual 58. Remove the antenna drive and put it in a _____. A. can B. plastic bag C. flat surface D. trolley 59. Make sure that the two screws are _____ loose to permit free movement. A. lightly B. sufficiently C. enough D. fully 60. Use appropriate _____ to remove 3/8 inch of insulation. A. soldering iron B. wire-strippers C. pliers D. cutter 61. Install notices to _____ personnel of the danger. A. let B. prevent C. warn D. allow


64. This mode is selected by moving the MSU selector switch from NAV to OFF then to NAV _____ five seconds. A. in B. inside C. within D. into 65. When no ADR source is available, the labels 361 and 365 remain valid _____ 30 seconds. A. for B. in C. during D. since 66. Make sure that the data base numbers of the active data base are not the same. This is ATA chapter: A. 34 - navigation B. 31 - instruments C. 45 - centralized maintenance D. 22 - autoflight 67. Make sure that the lamp capsule is in the detached position when you remove it from an alternate action switch. This is ATA chapter: A. 34 - navigation B. 33 - lighting C. 31 - instruments D. 22 - autoflight 68. Remove the static inverter. This is ATA chapter: A. 24 - elec. power B. 34 - navigation C. 45 - centralized maintenance D. 31 - instruments 69. Carefully pull the smoke detector away from the ventilation duct. This is ATA chapter: A. 24 - elec. power B. 26 - fire protection C. 45 - centralized maintenance D. 21 - air conditioning 70. Remove the blanking caps from the electrical connectors. This is page block: A. 301 B. 401 C. 501 D. 801 71. In order to make the visual identification of these holes easier, you can also count them as the fifth and seventh holes clockwise, starting from the hole immediately under the horizontal line of the flange which is at 3 o'clock. The holes are: A. upper left B. upper right C. lower left D. lower right

62. The _____ current main generation is provided by four 72. On the painted surface, apply two parallel strips (100 Integrated Drive Generators. mm in length) of 3 m conductive electrical tape, 100 A. alternating mm away from each other so as to make a square. B. alternative Apply the plugs of the megohmmeter on each strip C. alternated and read the Square Resistance Rs. You must: D. alternate A. form a square of tape B. form a square of wiring 63. The BITE detects and identifies a failure related to the C. measure the resistance between the two strips ADIRS and _____ it to the CMS. D. connect the strips in parallel A. advises B. requires C. requests D. reports


Page 36


73. Make sure that the antenna attachment screw-head 80. The drive and control board controls the speed and recesses have no signs of paint, corrosion or sealant direction of the tape motion. The tape drive depends because the antenna electrical bonding is made on the run signal, the speed signal and the through the attachment screws. You must remove any forward/reverse command from the track select logic. paint, corrosion or sealant from: The _____ of the tape is controlled. A. the cavities A. activation B. the antenna B. activation and speed C. the screws C. activation, speed and direction D. the screw heads D. activation, speed, direction and tracks used 74. Make sure that the heating element of the static probe points in the direction of flight, but not the static probe between FR27 and FR28 RH, this points to the rear of the aircraft. Install the left hand static probes pointing: A. aft B. forward except between FR27 and 28 C. aft except between FR27 and 28 D. forward 75. Spiral wrap Scotch 3082 tape over one completed splice. Cover the entire splice with two wraps. Each wrap should have a 50% overlap. The first layer should be opposite the second layer. Place the two layers: A. one overlapping half the other B. in spirals in opposite directions C. superimposed D. with insulation between them 76. A discrete enables (ground signal) or inhibits (open circuit) the UPLOADING function. The LGCIU sends a ground RH shock absorber compressed and an open circuit with LH absorber extended. The function is disabled when _____ MLG is _____. A. right / compressed B. left / extended C. left / compressed D. right extended 77. A frequency-modulated signal is transmitted towards the ground, reflected and received after a delay (t) depending upon the aircraft height above the ground and the delay in the cables connecting the transceiver to the antennas. Signal time depends on: A. airspeed and frequency B. height and frequency C. altitude and wiring D. height and wiring 78. Each channel ensures the three functions. Reconfiguration for the activated channel therefore consists in connection of that channel to output interfaces via ARINC bus to the related control panel. The activated channel is reconfigured: A. from the control panel B. by an ARINC connection C. using output data D. by means of three functions 79. If 601 PP is lost, only the right dome light remains. It is supplied by busbar 403 PP through CB 1LE1. The three positions of the switch operate. In case of busbar 601 PP loss, the _____ dome light is supplied _____ regulation. A. captain / with B. captain / without C. First Officer / with D. First Officer / without


Page 37

TEST 9 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

These materials are poisonous and flammable and _____ irritants. A. sill B. skin C. shim D. seal Remove the old _____ from the floor panel and the component interface with a non-metallic scraper. A. stringer B. beam C. splice D. sealant Detailed visual inspection of the forward face of the rear pressure _____ below the cabin floor. A. ceiling B. bulkhead C. chord D. partition Clean the contact areas of the sealing _____ with cleaning agents with a lint-free cloth. A. strips B. straps C. scratches D. stripes Minor damage such as scratches, _____ and marks can cause cracks and corrosion. A. dents B. debonding C. buckling D. rupture Choose the correct group of words. A. light circular alloy frames B. alloy light circular frames C. light alloy circular frames D. circular frames light alloy

7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. door passenger aft cutout B. aft passenger door cutout C. aft cutout passenger door D. passenger cutout aft door

8.

Choose the correct group of words. A. bonded non surface slip B. bonded non slip surface C. non bonded surface slip D. non bonded slip surface

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. carbon procedure identification rod B. carbon rod procedure identification C. identification rod carbon procedure D. carbon rod identification procedure

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. horizontal front stabilizer trimmable spar B. trimmable horizontal stabilizer front spar C. front spar trimmable horizontal stabilizer D. front trimmable horizontal stabilizer spar 11. Obey the special precautions before you start work _____ the door. A. through B. into C. on D. to 12. Torque the nut to _____ 0.54 and 0.59 m.daN. A. through B. between C. from D. around


13. Put an access platform _____ the belly fairing. A. above B. over C. across D. under 14. Examine the structure of the _____ face of pressure bulkhead at FR 40 below the wing center box. A. lower B. aft C. under D. after 15. Make sure that the safety devices and the warning notices are in position before you start a task on or _____ the flight controls. A. off B. rear C. near D. in 16. _____ the mating surfaces of the threaded pins are chrome-plated. A. None B. All C. Most D. Each 17. Bushes are installed in _____ shackle point. A. each B. all C. many D. no 18. These access doors are located on _____ side of the pylon box. A. both B. all C. three D. either 19. The skin panels extend the _____ length of the fuselage. A. equal B. all C. same D. whole 20. Put on _____ protective clothing. A. a B. the C. D. some 21. The pylon bar is secured to the wing by shackles reinforced with corrosion-_____ steel. A. less B. resistant C. proof D. free 22. Two _____, for the installation of static _____, are attached to the lightning conductor. A. retainers / discharging B. retainings / discharging C. retainers / dischargers D. retainings / dischargers 23. Remove the _____ sealant and release agent around the work area with _____ agents. A. remaining / cleaning B. remained / cleaned C. remaining / cleaned D. remained / cleaning


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24. Make sure that the floor _____ are _____ fastened on the floor structure. A. panel / correctly B. panels / correctly C. panel / correct D. panels / correct 25. If you install a new support strut, drill and ream the support strut with the DEVICE-_____ AND _____. A. DRILLED / REAMED B. DRILLS / REAMS C. DRILL / REAM D. DRILLING / REAMING 26. Make sure that the ground safety locks are correctly installed on the landing gear. This _____ unwanted movement of the landing gear. A. permits B. provides C. prevents D. supplies 27. Remove and _____ the cotter pin. A. discard B. disconnect C. display D. distort 28. _____ a thin layer of common grease. A. Hold B. Install C. Apply D. Release 29. Install the ligature cord MISCELLANEOUS (Material No. 19-008) so that it _____ approximately 250.0 mm over the floor panel ends. A. expands B. presses C. extracts D. protrudes 30. Some skin panels are chemically _____ in areas to which high loads are applied. A. riveted B. milled C. countersunk D. drilled 31. _____ sure that the attachment fittings _____ in the correct condition. A. Make / be B. To make / are C. Make / are D. Making / is


35. _____ a torch _____ the inspection. A. Take / to do B. To take / do C. Taking / does D. Take / doing 36. For high aircraft performance, it is necessary that the aircraft has an aerodynamically clean shape and a _____ external surface. A. clear B. smooth C. shiny D. steady 37. The seals must be sufficiently _____ to form an air tight seal and not come into the airflow. A. compressed B. stiff C. loose D. expanded 38. Polish the _____ metal with SPECIAL MATERIALS (Material No. 05-025) and a lint-free cloth. A. missing B. rounded C. flammable D. bare 39. The surface coating for aluminum-alloy components is _____ chromating or chromic acid anodizing. A. white B. gray C. yellow D. brown 40. Tighten the bolts before the sealant becomes _____. A. moist B. dry C. soft D. wet 41. Be careful when you release the leaf spring. The tension in the spring _____ cause injury. A. will B. must C. should D. can 42. All objects _____ to be secured before you start work in this area. A. must B. are C. should D. shall

43. Safety precautions _____ be respected at all times. A. shall 32. The upper section of the center wing box _____ of two B. could skin panels _____ between the front spar and the C. would center spar. D. may A. consist / located 44. A sudden movement _____ cause damage to the B. consists / located C. consist / locating equipment. D. consists / locating A. must B. will 33. _____ the old sealant from the mating surface _____ a C. should non-metallic scraper. D. could A. To remove / using B. To remove / used 45. Impact damage and scratches _____ be found in this C. Remove / using area. D. Remove / to use A. would B. may 34. _____ sure of the correct installation of the removed C. must screws _____ the positions of the removed screws. D. should A. Make / to record B. To make / recording C. Make / record D. To make / record


Page 39

46. The structure is an extension to the lower fuselage _____ contains air-conditioning equipment. A. but B. and C. if D. when 47. _____ the cabin pressure is below a certain value, springs hold the valves open and let the water condensation drain out. A. So B. Due to C. However D. If 48. When a repair or cleaning procedure removes the original surface protection, the protective treatment must _____ be repaired. A. thus B. until C. also D. however 49. Any panels with cracks must be repaired, _____ their length. A. depending on B. irrespective of C. according to D. as a result of 50. A polyurethane top coat is applied _____ give protection to the structure. A. providing B. due to C. because D. in order to 51. Remove the nuts, the _____ and the bolts. A. bushings B. collars C. washers D. spacers 52. Remove the screws and the spherical _____ assembly. A. fitting B. bearing C. sealing D. bonding 53. Remove and discard the _____. A. bonding strap B. fastener C. cotter pin D. double hex. nut 54. Remove the support _____. A. strut B. shaft C. groove D. shim 55. Pre-assemble the link assembly with the adjustable _____. A. captive bolts B. rings C. spacers D. lock nuts 56. Make sure that the tool _____ go into the nut slots which do not contain the lockwasher tabs. A. spacers B. lugs C. grooves D. threads


57. Put the installation tool core in the _____ extended position. A. manually B. slowly C. carefully D. fully 58. Attach a _____ capable of lifting 1,500 Kg. A. shackle B. strap C. beam D. hoist 59. Put A. B. C. D.

_____ in position at the rudder. an adjustable access platform a jack a fire extinguisher a trolley

60. Wear and attach a _____ when you work on high sections. A fall can kill or injure you. A. safety barrier B. safety net C. safety harness D. safety pin 61. The slat mounting brackets are installed on the forward face of the front _____. A. spares B. pans C. spars D. spans 62. Struts attach the shroud box to the fuselage through _____ installed on the inboard rib. A. fillets B. fairings C. fittings D. fixtures 63. The nose/forward fuselage _____ from FR 0 to FR 18. A. expands B. extends C. extracts D. extrudes 64. Remove the 3 m length of rubber sealing _____. A. strap B. stripe C. tip D. strip 65. Apply a _____ of sealant to the clearances between the panels. A. bead B. bed C. head D. seat 66. Put the wing tip in the correct position using the SLING-WING TIP. This is ATA chapter: A. 53 - fuselage B. 54 - pylons C. 55 - stabilizers D. 57 - wings 67. Remove the door frame lining panels. This is ATA chapter: A. 53 - fuselage B. 56 - windows C. 52 - doors D. 55 - stabilizers


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68. Installation of the pylon-to-engine attach fittings. This is ATA chapter: A. 54 - pylons B. 55 - stabilizers C. 52 - doors D. 56 - windows 69. Remove the textile floor covering. This is ATA chapter: A. 57 - wings B. 52 - doors C. 53 - fuselage D. 55 - stabilizers 70. The length of the damage shows as a dark line on the graph paper. This is page block: A. 201 B. 401 C. 501 D. 601 71. Apply a continuous fillet of sealant along the repair area. NOTE: The repair must have an overlap of at least 12.5 mm on the sealant adjacent to the repair. The repair part must overlap the existing sealant by: A.

>6.5 mm

B.

>12.5 mm

72. To do the inspection of the forward shackles, remove the shackles on one side, with the shackles of the opposite side installed. Inspect the _____ shackles. A. left then right B. left and right C. forward then rear D. forward and rear 73. Do not remove the soft liner from the windshield. If it is necessary to replace the soft liner, you must remove the windshield and send it to the vendor. If the inner surface of the windshield is damaged: A. repair it B. replace it C. send the whole assembly to the supplier D. contact the supplier 74. Be careful when you go into the center wing box. You can cause damage to the carbon rods. You may cause damage because of: A. limited access B. composite materials C. sharp tools D. incorrect procedures 75. To prevent contamination of the cleaning agent, put the clean agent to the cloth. You should always: A. use a new cloth B. use fresh cleaning agent C. pour the cleaning agent on the cloth D. replace the plug on the container 76. Raceways contain some electrical cables. They are made in U-sections from aluminum alloy with a nylon coating. The mounting brackets are installed on the forward face of the front spar and the aft face of the rear spar. Wiring is routed _____ . A. along the wing trailing edge B. throughout the wing C. along the wing leading edge D. along the wing leading and trailing edges.


77. Two hinge arms connect the door to the fuselage. They are made of machined aluminum. Each hinge arm is attached to the door at two points. The lower attach point has an adjustable shockmount. The door has _____ attachment fittings. A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8 78. The skin panels are attached to the front spar and to the ribs. Hi-Loc fasteners attach them to the front spar and ribs. Honeycomb cores make them stronger. Screws connect the aft joint of the skin panels. This is the: A. forward fuselage B. pressure bulkhead C. elevator box D. tail cone 79. The spar is made of resin-fiber composite, which is bonded to a honeycomb core. It has holes which make it lighter and also give access to the inside of the main rudder structure. The holes are designed for: A. access and ventilation B. access and weightsaving C. cables and ventilation D. access and cables 80. The horizontal pressure bulkhead extends from the wing center box FR 47 to FR 53.2. This bulkhead consists of a catenary floor with longitudinal beams and a floor support structure. The horizontal pressure bulkhead is located: A. above the nose landing gear wheel well B. from the wing center box to FR 47 C. from the wing center box to FR 53.2 D. level with the wings


Page 41

TEST 10


13. Carefully put a non-metallic wedge _____ the fuselage skin and the scuff plates. A. along B. between C. from D. across

1.

Measure the _____ of the scratch. A. height B. duration C. depth D. weight

2.

Remove all the paint from the area with abrasive _____ grade 280. A. clothes B. lint-free C. scale D. cloth

14. Apply SPECIAL MATERIALS (Material No. 05-013) _____ the panel and the related surfaces of the aircraft. A. at B. to C. onto D. across

3.

Put the drilling gage in position on the drilling _____ and install the knurled screws. A. lathe B. jack C. ream D. jig

15. With the installation tool, move the front window panel in position _____ the center post. A. forward B. against C. rear D. upper

4.

The bottom structure between FR0 and FR19 includes a nose landing gear bay which has _____ panels. A. flushed B. machined C. reworked D. embedded

16. Make sure that the floor panels have _____ damage, scratches, dents or holes. A. not any B. any C. none D. no

5.

There is a _____ between FR59 and FR65 for the aft cargo-compartment door. A. cut-out B. close-up C. pick-up D. feed-through

17. Put _____ blanking plugs on the disconnected line ends. A. any B. C. the D. a

6.

Choose the correct group of words. A. fairing fillet triangular rudder B. triangular fillet rudder fairing C. triangular fairing rudder fillet D. triangular rudder fillet fairing

7.

Choose the correct group of words. A. trimmable horizontal stabilizer attachment fitting B. attachment stabilizer trimmable horizontal fitting C. horizontal trimmable stabilizer fitting attachment D. fitting attachment trimmable horizontal stabilizer

18. The primary structural components of the stabilizer are made of Carbon Fiber Reinforced Plastic. _____ other components are made of Glass Fiber Reinforced Plastic. A. All B. Every C. Each D. More

8.

9.

Choose the correct group of words. A. cargo compartment door forward bracket hinge B. forward cargo compartment bracket hinge door C. cargo compartment door forward hinge bracket D. forward cargo compartment door hinge bracket Choose the correct group of words. A. round type hose seal B. round hose type seal C. seal type round hose D. round type seal hose

10. Choose the correct group of words. A. cross bracket support beam B. cross beam support bracket C. beam support cross bracket D. beam bracket cross support 11. Use solvents, sealants and other special materials only with a good flow of air _____ the work area. A. through B. around C. along D. from 12. Make sure that the access platform is in position _____ the maintenance door. A. behind B. above C. beyond D. below

19. Remove _____ roller bearing (10). A. B. the C. a D. both 20. Use _____ indelible marker to identify the position of the side pad. A. a B. one C. the D. an 21. Remove the old sealant from the _____ surface with a non-metallic _____. A. mated / scraping B. mating / scraper C. mated / scraper D. mating / scraping 22. Support struts and _____ beams support the cabin floor structure. A. standing B. cross C. twin D. inter 23. The lower part of the assembly contains the forward cargo-compartment door-_____. A. cutout B. cutaway C. cutthrough D. cutaround


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24. Remove the _____ _____ strips. A. damaged / sealed B. damaging / sealed C. damaged / sealing D. damaged / sealed 25. Clean the surface with a lint-_____ cloth. A. less B. ness C. resistant D. free 26. Crossbeams, which are attached to the frames, _____ the mechanical strength of the assembly. A. include B. contain C. increase D. extend 27. All the mating surfaces of the threaded pin are chrome _____. A. plated B. bonded C. treated D. cured 28. The pylon bar is _____ to the wing by the forward shackles. A. disconnected B. safetied C. located D. secured 29. Movement of components can _____ or _____ persons. A. hit / damage B. kill / damage C. kill / injure D. hit / injure


35. _____ the surface _____ an approved solvent. A. Clean / to use B. To clean / using C. Cleaning / to use D. Clean / using 36. Remove the old sealants with a _____ or plastic scraper. A. serrated B. tapered C. wooden D. sharp 37. The longitudinal beams and crossbeams are made of _____ caps and clad sheet webs. A. extracted B. extruded C. expanded D. extended 38. Do not open the radome if the wind speed is _____ than 35 knots. A. larger B. wider C. higher D. harder 39. Make sure that the scratch is not more than 0.5 mm _____. A. long B. deep C. thick D. wide 40. The skin panels are made of 2024 _____. A. stainless steel B. compound material C. steel alloy D. aluminum alloy

30. If you _____ corrosion damage, refer to the Structural Repair Manual for types, inspection, removal and corrosion protection. A. appear B. tell C. display D. find

41. The rod _____ be re-installed if you do not use the proper fittings. A. can B. may C. cannot D. should

31. If you _____ the fitting, _____ a layer of primer. A. will replace / apply B. replace / apply C. replace / to apply D. are replacing / to apply

42. You _____ special materials to perform the inspection. A. need B. must C. have to D. would

32. Put the warning notices in position _____ persons not 43. Make sure that the part _____ move freely. _____ the cargo door. A. should A. tell / opening B. must B. telling / open C. may C. to tell / to open D. can D. tell / to open 44. You _____ not use any sharp tools. 33. The crossbeams _____ _____ holes. A. would A. have / lightened B. should B. has / lightened C. will C. have / lightening D. may D. has / lightening 45. Ground locks _____ be installed on all the gears. 34. The floor panels _____ of honeycomb core, which A. could _____ between sheets of composite materials. B. will A. are made / is bonded C. must B. are made / are bonded D. need C. made / are bonded D. are made / bonds


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46. It is not necessary to replace the structure _____ the damage is less than half an inch from the attachment holes. A. if B. because C. unless D. provided 47. All A. B. C. D.

cracks must be repaired _____ their length. according to whatever depending on however

48. Perform the inspection _____ specified in SRM 53-1116. A. per B. as C. while D. once 49. _____ you use the hoisting points you must remove the plugs and install the hoisting lugs. A. When B. In order to C. Thus D. As long as


58. Make sure that the safety _____ and the warning notices are in position before you start a task. A. kit B. device C. fixtures D. procedure 59. Use the related tool from the tool _____. A. set B. container C. stand D. shop 60. _____ pull the sleeve from its housing. A. Quickly B. Quietly C. Correctly D. Carefully 61. _____ the clamping levers of the drilling gage. A. Loose B. Lose C. Loss D. Loosen

62. _____ the bolts with new cotter pins. A. Security B. Safety C. Safe 50. Install the bolts _____ do not tighten them at this time. D. Secure A. if B. and 63. Wear protective _____. C. then A. clothing D. but B. cloths C. fabrics 51. Remove the old sealant from the _____ surfaces of D. cloth the elevator leading edge panels. 64. Make sure that you use the _____ revision of the SRM A. bonding B. splicing procedure. C. hoisting A. standby D. mating B. current C. previous 52. Remove and discard the _____. D. actual A. tab washer 65. Cut a groove 65 mm long and 12 mm _____. B. bolt head C. sleeves A. large D. flanges B. high C. wide 53. Install the _____ in its housing. D. thick A. collar 66. Removal of the THS Front Spar Box Access Panel. B. bracket This is ATA chapter: C. bearing D. lug A. 53 - fuselage B. 54 - pylons 54. Lubricate the screw _____. C. 55 - stabilizers A. splines D. 57 - wings B. threads 67. Detailed Visual Inspection of the Outer-Wing Fixed C. shank D. head Leading Edge Lower Roller Pin Holes. This is ATA chapter: 55. Put a _____ to tell persons not to supply power to the A. 57 - wings ECU. B. 56 - windows A. safety pin C. 55 - stabilizers B. label D. 54 - pylons C. warning notice D. flag 68. Clean the outer surface of the windshields with a sponge and a solution 1/3 cleaning agent 2/3 water. 56. Tighten the turnbuckles with _____ . This is ATA chapter: A. your hands A. 57 - wings B. a torque wrench B. 56 - windows C. a screwdriver C. 55 - stabilizers D. a hammer D. 54 - pylons 57. Use the _____ and remove the slotted nut. A. pneumatic gun B. notched wrench C. Allen key D. extractor


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69. Remove the protective linings of the forward cargocompartment. This is ATA chapter: A. 55 - stabilizers B. 57 - wings C. 52 - doors D. 53 - fuselage 70. Removal of Rudder Hinge Bearing No. 4. This is page block: A. 201 B. 301 C. 401 D. 601


77. The skin panels are made of aluminum alloy sheet and chemically milled in areas to which high loads are applied. Antichafing plates are installed between FR 85 and FR91 around the horizontal stabilizer cutouts. _____ surround the THS installation. A. Chafing plates B. Chemically-milled panels C. Ordinary aluminum alloy panels D. Stiffeners

78. The forward secondary structure is made up of: - 10 ribs - 2 sealed longitudinal webs - 1 lower cap - 1 fixed fairing - 6 removable panels - 1 pressure relief door hinge fittings for the thrust reversers. You are on: A. the wing 71. Beginning at the forward edge and working rearwards B. the vertical stabilizer tighten the nuts in small increments so that the C. the pylon clamping bars hold the fairing assembly fully engaged D. the horizontal stabilizer on the fairing supports. A. only partially tighten the nuts 79. Most of the shroud box is made from composite B. tighten the nuts gradually material, but it has 5 ribs of aluminum alloy. The C. tighten the nuts at the forward and rear edges trailing edge of the shroud box has a honeycomb core D. tighten the nuts at both sides and a rubbing strip made of Fabroid. _____ the shroud box has a honeycomb core. 72. Put the removal tool core in the fully extended A. all position: make sure that its inner face aligns with the B. the front of bottom internal face of the outer tab lockwasher body. C. the top of Align the _____ face of the tool with the _____ part of D. the rear of the lockwasher. A. inner / internal 80. The fan cowls are made from epoxy skins that contain B. extended / internal a Nomex honeycomb core and copper screen. Lands C. inner / outer provide an interface with the intake cowl at the D. extended / outer forward end, and with the thrust reverser at the aft end. The rear edge of the fan cowls touches: 73. You must mix the base compound and accelerator of A. the exhaust nozzle the sealant slowly to an even consistency and color. B. the turbine casing Fast mixing will cause heat and air bubbles and C. the thrust reverser shorten the application life of the sealant. You must D. the pylon fillets not prepare the compound too _____. A. quickly B. late C. slowly D. early 74. Excessive white light will interfere with detection of a rejectable size indication. A test part having a known defect can be used to evaluate effectiveness of white light shielding. You may need a _____ to do this inspection. A. measure B. sample C. shield D. second light source 75. NOTE: Parts to be cleaned before being subjected to the inspection process. Plug or cap tubes and holes in the area to be inspected to prevent inspection materials from being entrapped. You must take action to avoid: A. mismatching B. corrosion C. interference D. contamination 76. The floor panels are made of honeycomb core bonded between composite sheets. A core filler makes the panels at the edges and the screw hole area stronger. The _____ strengthen the attachment area. A. composite materials B. panels C. core fillers D. sheets

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