Academic Module Practice Tests 1-10

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 1 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 1 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

PAN ASIAN AIRWAYS LOST PROPERTY REPORT FORM Example

Answer

First Name

Kirsty

Surname

Allen

Address Postcode

(1) ____________________ Windham Road Richmond (2) ____________________

Home tel.

020 8927 7651

Mobile tel.

(3) ____________________

Flight Number

(4) ____________________

Seat Number

(5) ____________________

From

New York

To

London Heathrow Page 1

Academic Test 1; Page 1 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 6 - 8 Circle THREE letters A - F. What items did Kirsty’s bag contain? A

17 pounds

B

pens

C

her passport

D

a book

E

200 dollars

F

her house keys

Questions 9 and 10 Choose a letter (A - D) that correctly answers questions 9 and 10. 9

10

What has Kirsty done regarding the loss of her credit card? A

Informed the police but not the credit card company.

B

Informed the credit card company but not the police.

C

Informed both the police and the credit card company.

D

Informed neither the police nor the credit card company.

What must Kirsty do after the call regarding her lost handbag? A

Call back after 11⁄2 hours.

B

Just wait for a call back.

C

Call back after 11⁄2 hours if she has heard nothing.

D

Call back the next day if she has heard nothing.


SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 14 Label the locations on the map below.

(14) _______________ _______________ _______________

Main Lecture Hall WE ARE HERE

Car Park Hall of Residence

(11)_______________ __________________ __________________

(12) ____________ ____________ ____________

Refectory

(13) ______________ __________________ __________________ Academic Test 1; Page 3 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 15 - 20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Notes on Student Facilities Students’ Union

Very cheap Bookshop Food and drink available Parties! Offices - travel, welfare etc. Open 8am - 12 midnight

Library

Must register Tours every (15) ____________________ for 2 weeks. Open 9am - 9pm (later during (16) ____________________)

Refectory

Cheap meals Lunch 12 noon - 3pm Dinner (17) __________ - 8.30pm Types of food favourites healthy ethnic (18) ____________________ vegan

Sports Hall

Must join Athletic Union which -

Discount Card

Costs (20) £_______________ Gives me discounts on all uni. services

lets me use facilities lets me play for teams (19) ______________ me all year


SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 25 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Day of Arrival Subjects Studying Monday’s 9am lecture Monday’s 2pm lecture Wednesday afternoon sport selected Location of Sport

John Thursday economics maths french french maths (24) _______________________

Jane (21) _______________________ (22) _______________________ history music history (23) _______________________ volleyball

sports hall

(25) _______________________

Questions 26 - 29 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 26

Students can choose from how many essay titles for their first assignment? _________________________________________________________________________

27

Where did John travel during the summer? _________________________________________________________________________

28

What is the word limit for the essays? _________________________________________________________________________

29

When must the first essay be handed in by? _________________________________________________________________________

Question 30 Circle the correct letter A - C. 30

Where will John and Jane meet up later that day? A B C

the economics course office the economics common room the campus cafeteria Academic Test 1; Page 5 © ieltshelpnow.com

SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 34 Choose the correct letters A - C. 31

Japan relies on oil tankers because... A B C

32

Professor Wilson says that oil tankers are... A B C

33

very safe. quite safe. quite unsafe.

According to Professor Wilson, the main cause of oil slicks is... A B C

34

the country consists of islands. the country has no pipeline network. the country has no natural oil resources.

accidents while loading and unloading oil. collisions. deliberate releases of oil.

According to Professor Wilson, slicks are rarely burned off nowadays because... A B C

the oil is refined. it usually doesn’t work. it creates too much air pollution.


Questions 35 - 39 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Oil exploration clean-up techniques Techniques The Containment Boom Chemical Detergents The Sponge Bacteria

Advantages Cheap and easy

Disadvantages Only good when there are (35) ________________ ____________________ Good for treating (36) _________ Chemicals remain in the water + ___________________________ kill marine life. Oil remains permanently in the The sponge mats turn into sponge. (37) _______________________ ___________________________ (39) _______________________ Cheap Easy to administer Totally (38) _________________ ___________________________

Question 40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

Optional essay question. Remember to check out the faculty’s notice boards. You will find: * * *

reading lists essay questions (40) __________________________________________________


ACADEMIC READING PRACTICE TEST 1 READING PASSAGE 1

Questions 1 - 13

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below.

THE BIG CATS AT THE SHARJAH BREEDING CENTRE It is one of the few places where you will be able to spot them all at the same time… the Arabian wolf, an African cheetah, an Arabian leopard, an oryx, a gazelle. These are just some of the animals, which, on the brink of extinction, are now getting a new lease of life thanks to the exemplary work being done at the Breeding Centre for Endangered Arabian Wildlife in Sharjah. Sharjah is one of the seven emirates that make up the United Arab Emirates. The Breeding Centre’s expertise and facilities have made it a prime destination for illegally imported animals confiscated by UAE and Sharjah authorities. In the last four years, more than 900 mammals and reptiles and 969 birds have arrived at the centre, including 25 North African cheetahs, Houbara bustard and falcons, lions, a baby Nile crocodile and a Burmese python that was left in a rental car at the airport. The 25 cheetahs were all imported illegally into the UAE and were intercepted at the UAE harbour and airport entry points. They nearly all arrived malnourished, dehydrated and highly stressed after long voyages stuffed into boxes, crates and suitcases. Now they are bright and full of energy. The Centre’s efforts have also been rewarded when the first cheetah mating took place at the end of 2002. Playing matchmaker with these beautiful creatures is no easy task – successful breeding requires considerable patience and intimate knowledge of each animal’s personality, and it is the result of intensive and expert management of each animal within the group as well as of the group as a whole. Because this group was still young and inexperienced in courtship matters, the keepers had to make the introductions only after careful planning and management, much like the lead role in a Jane Austen novel. The female cheetahs were initially intimidated by the presence of the male; however, as they advance to oestrus, the roles are reversed and the male cheetah becomes too wary to approach during the female’s most receptive phase of the cycle. It is the responsibility of the keeper therefore to monitor each individual and to be able to respond to any indication from the cheetahs that the time is right for introducing a pair. The close bond that invariably develops between the keeper and the cheetahs enables the keeper to spot even the most subtle signs from the animals in their care. The trust between keeper and animal has also allowed the opportunity to study cellular changes in the sexual organs of the females during the hormonal cycles that occur prior to reproduction. The Breeding Centre’s cheetahs are also participants in the European breeding programme, which aims to ensure that the genetic diversity of this endangered species is maintained and expanded by breeding as many founder animals as possible to introduce new bloodlines into the captive population. In this way, the group held at the centre plays a very important role in the future health of the international captive population, as they are potentially all new founders. Also very important for the Sharjah Breeding Centre is the leopard-breeding programme. Academic Test 1; Page 8

© ieltshelpnow.com

The Arabian leopard, Panthera pardus nimr, is critically endangered around the world and particularly in the Arabian peninsula, where it was once found throughout the coastal mountain ranges. Activities like hunting, trapping and habitat destruction has reduced their range to a few isolated and fragmented populations in Oman, Yemen and Saudi Arabia. In the 1980s, a captive breeding programme was established near Muscat with the capture of three leopards in southwestern Oman. The breeding programme in the UAE was initiated by the Arabian Leopard Trust and started with the arrival of two mature specimens: a male Arabian leopard from Yemen and a female on breeding loan from Oman in 1995. The arrival of these two animals led to the construction of the Breeding Centre in which the leopard has played the role of flagship species. Today there are twelve leopards at the Breeding centre, eight of which have been born at the centre since the first cub in 1998. Once more, the secret to the centre’s success is the close relationship between animal and keeper. The leopard is usually shy and secretive with people around, but here they react positively to the presence of their keepers, approaching the fence so they can be talked to or scratched behind an ear. The bond is particularly important during breeding season, when keepers decide to introduce pairs to each other. Male leopards are known to have killed their partners on introduction, so it is essential for the keeper to understand the leopards’ behaviour to decide when it is safe to do so. The trust is also important if keepers need to enter dens to check on and monitor the cub’s growth. Leopard females have been known to kill their cubs if the dens have been disturbed, but the centre’s leopards are quite comfortable with the staff handling the new generation of cubs. Source: The Gulf News, UAE

Questions 1- 8

Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the animals (A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your answer sheet. Write: A

if the statement refers to cheetahs at the Breeding Centre.

B

if the statement refers to leopards at the Breeding Centre.

C

if the statement refers to both cheetahs and leopards at the Breeding Centre.

D

If the statement refers to neither cheetahs nor leopards at the Breeding Centre. Example

Answer

These animals are endangered

C

1

These animals were smuggled into the UAE.

2

At first these animals did not adapt to life at the Sharjah Breeding Centre.

3

These animals are regarded as the most important animal at the Centre.

4

Half of these animals were born at the Breeding centre. Academic Test 1; Page 9 © ieltshelpnow.com

5

These animals can be dangerous to one another.

6

The role of the keeper is vital in the breeding programme of these animals.

7

The first of these animals at the Breeding Centre were relatively young.

8

It is normally difficult for humans to approach these animals.

Questions 9 – 13 Complete the summary below. Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes 9 – 13 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them all. Example

Answer

The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a __________ of animals including birds,…

variety

The Sharjah Breeding Centre now has a variety of animals including birds, mammals and (9) __________. As its name suggests, the Centre is primarily involved in breeding and (10) __________ the numbers of the species housed there whilst still maintaining the (11) _________ of bloodlines in order to retain genetic health. In spite of problems involving the complex (12) __________ of the animals, a fair amount of (13) __________ has been achieved with North African cheetahs and Arabian leopards.

reptiles

variety

behaviour

success

creating

expanding

difficulty

diversity

action

habitat

season

fish

change

working

programme


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 14 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. INSOMNIA – THE ENEMY OF SLEEP A It is not unusual to have sleep troubles from time to time. But, if you feel you do not get enough sleep or satisfying sleep, you may have insomnia, a sleep disorder. People with insomnia have one or more of the following: difficulty falling asleep, waking up often during the night and having trouble going back to sleep, waking up too early in the morning and unrefreshing sleep. Insomnia is not defined by the number of hours you sleep every night. The amount of sleep a person needs varies. While most people need between 7 and 8 hours of sleep a night, some people do well with less, and some need more. B Insomnia occurs most frequently in people over age 60, in people with a history of depression, and in women, especially after menopause. Severe emotional trauma can also cause insomnia with divorced, widowed and separated people being the most likely to suffer from this sleep disorder. Stress, anxiety, illness and other sleep disorders such as restless legs syndrome are the most common causes of insomnia. An irregular work schedule, jet lag or brain damage from a stroke or Alzeimer’s disease can also cause insomnia as well as excessive use of alcohol or illicit drugs. It can also accompany a variety of mental illnesses. C The mechanism that induces sleep is not known. When it becomes dark, the pineal gland in the brain secretes a hormone called melatonin, which is thought to induce sleep. Exactly why sleep is necessary for good health and efficient mental functioning is unknown. We do know that sleep consists of two very different states: rapid eye movement (REM) sleep and non-REM sleep. In REM sleep, dreams occur, the eyes move under the closed lids and there is an increase in oxygen consumption, blood flow and neural activity. REM sleep occurs four or five times during a night. Beginning periods last about ten to fifteen minutes but the periods get longer as the night goes on. The periods of REM sleep alternate with longer periods of non-REM sleep, when body functions slow. Non-REM sleep has four stages. During the deepest stages (3 and 4) it is hard to rouse a sleeper. As the night goes on, the periods of non-REM sleep become progressively lighter. Sleep in stages 1 and 2 are felt to be restorative as during this time the body repairs itself utilising a hormone called somatostatin. Lack of stage 4 sleep is believed to be important in chronically painful conditions such as fibromyalgia. D Healthcare providers diagnose insomnia in several ways. One way is to categorize insomnia Academic Test 1; Page 11 © ieltshelpnow.com

by how often it occurs. Another way is to identify the insomnia by what is causing the sleep deprivation. The two main types of insomnia have been described as Primary Insomnia and Secondary Insomnia. Primary Insomnia is a chronic condition with little apparent association with stress or a medical problem. The most common form of primary insomnia is psychophysiological insomnia. Secondary insomnia is caused by symptoms that accompany a medical condition such as anxiety, depression or pain. E Improving one’s sleep hygiene helps improve insomnia in all patients. Relaxing during the hour before you go to sleep and creating a comfortable environment suited for sleep can be helpful. Older people who wake up earlier than normal or have trouble falling asleep may need less sleep than they used to. Changing one’s sleep pattern, either by going to bed later or waking up earlier, can be effective in dealing with insomnia in older people. Therapy also depends on the cause and severity of the insomnia. Transient and intermittent insomnia may not require any direct action since these conditions last only a few days at a time. However, if insomnia interferes with a person’s daily activities, something should be done. Usually the best method of dealing with insomnia is by attacking the underlying cause. For example, people who are depressed often have insomnia and looking at this problem may eliminate it. F Not getting enough sleep can make you less productive, irritable and unable to concentrate. Lack of sleep can make it seem as if you “got up out of the wrong side of the bed.” Early morning headaches and waking up feeling as if you never went to sleep can result in frustration. Stress can cause insomnia but insomnia also increases stress. Insomnia can make driving unsafe as well. Insomnia can result in missed work, which can cause you to become less productive and miss promotions. It can leave you feeling as if you just can’t get enough done. Insomnia can also mask serious mental disorders. People with insomnia may think that not getting enough sleep is their only problem, but the insomnia may actually be one symptom of a larger disorder, such as depression. Studies show that people with insomnia are four times more likely to be depressed than people with a healthy sleeping pattern. In addition, lack of sleep can tax the heart and lead to serious conditions like heart disease. All of these are important problems that can affect every part of your life. G Establishing certain set routines can help insomniacs get better sleep. Examples of these routines include: going to bed and getting up at the same time every day, avoiding napping, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, alcohol and eating heavily late in the day, exercising regularly and making your bedroom comfortable in terms of the bed, noise and temperature. Insomniacs should also only use their bedroom for sleep so that their bodies associate the room with sleep. Finally, if you can’t get to sleep, don’t toss and turn all night. Get up and read or do something that is not overly stimulating until you feel really sleepy again. Source: 4woman.gov + McKinley Health Centre, Illinois


Questions 14 - 19 The reading passage on Insomnia has 7 paragraphs (A – G). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv

i

The Role of Sleep

ii

Insomnia Medication

iii

Habits to Promote a Good Night’s Sleep

iv

What is Insomnia

v

Complications for Insomniacs

vi

Government Action

vii

Available Treatment for Insomnia

viii

The Causes of Insomnia

ix

Therapy Solutions

x

Types of Insomnia

xi

Current Research

14

Paragraph B

15

Paragraph C

16

Paragraph D Academic Test 1; Page 13 © ieltshelpnow.com

17

Paragraph E

18

Paragraph F

19

Paragraph G

Questions 20 - 27 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading passage on Insomnia? In Boxes 20 - 27 write: YES

if the statement agrees with the writer

NO

if the statement doesn’t agree with the writer

NOT GIVEN

if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

20

Someone who only gets four hours of sleep a night must be suffering from insomnia.

21

Travelling can cause insomnia.

22

REM sleep is felt to be the most important for the body’s rest.

23

Secondary insomnia is far more common than primary insomnia.

24

Sufferers of insomnia can attend specialist sleep clinics.

25

Many people suffering from insomnia don’t realise that they suffer from it.

26

There is no actual correlation linking insomnia and depression.

27

Sleeping during the day can make insomnia worse.


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 28 - 40


ALTERNATIVE FARMING METHODS IN OREGON Onion growers in eastern Oregon are adopting a system that saves water and keeps topsoil in place, while producing the highest quality “super colossal” onions. Pear growers in southern Oregon have reduced their use of some of the most toxic pesticides by up to two-thirds, and are still producing top-quality pears. Range managers throughout the state have controlled the poisonous weed tansy ragwort with insect predators and saved the Oregon livestock industry up to $4.8 million a year. These are some of the results Oregon growers have achieved in collaboration with Oregon State University (OSU) researchers as they test new farming methods including integrated pest management (IPM). Nationwide, however, IPM has not delivered results comparable to those in Oregon. A recent U.S General Accounting Office (GAO) report indicates that while integrated pest management can result in dramatically reduced pesticide use, the federal government has been lacking in effectively promoting that goal and implementing IPM. Farmers also blame the government for not making the new options of pest management attractive. “Wholesale changes in the way that farmers control the pests on their farms is an expensive business.” Tony Brown, of the National Farmers Association says. “If the farmers are given tax breaks to offset the expenditure, then they would willingly accept the new practices.” The report goes on to note that even though the use of the riskiest pesticides has declined nationwide, they still make up more than 40 percent of all pesticides used today; and national pesticide use has risen by 40 million kilograms since 1992. “Our food supply remains the safest and highest quality on Earth but we continue to overdose our farmland with powerful and toxic pesticides and to under-use the safe and effective alternatives,” charged Patrick Leahy, who commissioned the report. Green action groups disagree about the safety issue. “There is no way that habitual consumption of foodstuffs grown using toxic chemicals of the nature found on today’s farms can be healthy for consumers,” noted Bill Bowler, spokesman for Green Action, one of many lobbyists interested in this issue. The GAO report singles out Oregon’s apple and pear producers who have used the new IPM techniques with growing success. Although Oregon is clearly ahead of the nation, scientists at OSU are taking the Government Accounting Office criticisms seriously. “We must continue to develop effective alternative practices that will reduce environmental hazards and produce high quality products,” said Paul Jepson, a professor of entomology at OSU and new director of OSU’s Integrated Plant Protection Centre (IPPC). The IPPC brings together scientists from OSU’s Agricultural Experiment Station, OSU Extension service, the U.S. Department of Agriculture and Oregon farmers to help develop agricultural systems that will save water and soil, and reduce pesticides. In response to the GAO report, the Centre is putting even more emphasis on integrating research and farming practices to improve Oregon agriculture environmentally and economically. “The GAO report criticizes agencies for not clearly communicating the goals of IPM,” said Jepson. Academic Test 1; Page 15 © ieltshelpnow.com

“Our challenge is to greatly improve the communication to and from growers, to learn what works and what doesn’t. The work coming from OSU researchers must be adopted in the field and not simply languish in scientific journals.” In Oregon, growers and scientists are working together to instigate new practices. For example, a few years ago scientists at OSU’s Malheur Experiment Station began testing a new drip irrigation system to replace old ditches that wasted water and washed soil and fertilizer into streams. The new system cut water and fertilizer use by half, kept topsoil in place and protected water quality. In addition, the new system produced crops of very large onions, rated “super colossal” and highly valued by the restaurant industry and food processors. Art Pimms, one of the researchers at Malheur comments: “Growers are finding that when they adopt more environmentally benign practices, they can have excellent results. The new practices benefit the environment and give the growers their success.” OSU researchers in Malheur next tested straw mulch and found that it successfully held soil in place and kept the ground moist with less irrigation. In addition, and unexpectedly, the scientists found that the mulched soil created a home for beneficial beetles and spiders that prey on onion thrips – a notorious pest in commercial onion fields – a discovery that could reduce the need for pesticides. “I would never have believed that we could replace the artificial pest controls that we had before and still keep our good results,” commented Steve Black, a commercial onion farmer in Oregon, “but instead we have actually surpassed expectations.” OSU researchers throughout the state have been working to reduce dependence on broadspectrum chemical sprays that are toxic to many kind of organisms, including humans. “Consumers are rightly putting more and more pressure on the industry to change its reliance on chemical pesticides, but they still want a picture-perfect product,” said Rick Hilton, entomologist at OSU’s Southern Oregon Research and Extension Centre, where researchers help pear growers reduce the need for highly toxic pesticides. Picture perfect pears are an important product in Oregon and traditionally they have required lots of chemicals. In recent years, the industry has faced stiff competition from overseas producers, so any new methods that growers adopt must make sense economically as well as environmentally. Hilton is testing a growth regulator that interferes with the molting of codling moth larvae. Another study used pheromone dispensers to disrupt codling moth mating. These and other methods of integrated pest management have allowed pear growers to reduce their use of organophosphates by two-thirds and reduce all other synthetic pesticides by even more and still produce top-quality pears. These and other studies around the state are part of the effort of the IPPC to find alternative farming practices that benefit both the economy and the environment.

Source: Peg Herring / Oregon State University


Questions 28 – 35 Match the views (28 – 35) with the people listed below. 28

There is a double advantage to the new techniques.

29

Expectations of end users of agricultural products affect the products.

30

The work on developing these alternative techniques is not finished.

31

Eating food that has had chemicals used in its production is dangerous to our health.

32

Changing current farming methods is not a cheap process.

33

Results have exceeded anticipations.

34

The research done should be translated into practical projects.

35

The U.S. produces the best food in the world.

TB

Tony Brown

PL

Patrick Leahy

BB

Bill Bowler

PJ

Paul Jepson

AP

Art Pimms

SB

Steve Black

RH

Rick Hilton


Questions 36 - 40 Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at the statements below. In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet write: TRUE

if the statement is true

FALSE

if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN

if the information is not given in the advertisement

36

Integrated Pest Management has generally been regarded as a success in the US.

37

Oregon farmers of apples and pears have been promoted as successful examples of Integrated Pest Management.

38

The IPPC uses scientists from different organisations.

39

Straw mulch experiments produced unplanned benefits.

40

The apple industry is now facing a lot of competition from abroad.


ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 1

WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The chart below shows estimated world literacy rates by region and by gender for the year 2000. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.


WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. With the pressures on today’s young people to succeed academically, some people believe that non-academic subjects at school (eg: physical education and cookery) should be removed from the syllabus so that children can concentrate wholly on academic subjects. To what extent do you agree or disagree? You should write at least 250 words.


ACADEMIC SPEAKING PRACTICE TEST 1 Section 1 * * *

Tell me about your family. Where do they live? What do you like doing when you are with your family?

Topic 1 * * * *

What sorts of things do you do to keep healthy? What other sorts of things are popular in your country to keep healthy? What sorts of exercise do you not like doing? How can we get young people to do more exercise?

Topic 2 * * * *

Health and Exercise

Music

What is your favourite type of music and why? Do you think that a country’s traditional music is important for its culture? (Why?) Why do people’s tastes in music often change as they get older? What are some of the different uses of music in your country?

Section 2 Describe your favourite film or television programme You should say: when you watch it who is in it what happens in it and explain why you particularly like it Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

Why do you think television has become so popular over the last 50 years? Do you think that there is still a future for radio with television being so popular? Which is better for presenting the news: television or radio? (Why?) How can we stop young people today watching too much television?

Topic 2 * * * *

TV and Radio

Films and Cinema

Can you compare television and cinema as forms of entertainment? Do people in your country prefer American films or films from their part of the World? How do you think World cinema will develop over the next 50 years? Do you feel that “film stars” are overpaid for what they do? Academic Test 1; Page 21 © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 2 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 2 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 6 Circle the correct letters A - C. Example Mr. Griffin is coming for... A B C 1

Mr. Griffin has been to the Sunrise Hotel.. A B C

2

Melbourne. Sydney. Perth.

Mr. Griffin’s passport number is... A B C

4

once previously. twice previously. three times previously.

Mr. Griffin is from... A B C

3

a holiday. a business trip. to see family.

87647489. 87637289. 87637489.

Mr. Griffin wants to book... A B C

a single room for 2 nights. a double room for 2 nights. a single room for 1 night. Academic Test 2; Page 1 © ieltshelpnow.com

5

Mr. Griffin will arrive at the Sunrise Hotel at... A B C

6

9.15 pm. 10.00 pm. 9.35 pm.

When he gets to the Sunrise Hotel, The food Mr. Griffin will find in his room will be... A B C

a cheese sandwich with fries. a cheese sandwich. a burger.


What number room will Mr. Griffin be in at the Sunrise Hotel? __________________

8

How much will Mr. Griffin pay per night at the Sunrise Hotel? $_________________

9

Who will take Mr. Griffin’s food to his room? __________________________________________________________

10

How much will Mr. Griffin pay for his food? $_________________


SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 15 Complete the descriptions below.

Below are descriptions that Police have released for the two men wanted in connection with the robbery at the local jewellery store, Nicholls.

PHOTOFIT PICTURES TO BE RELEASED LATER TODAY

Man 1 Height Build Hair Face Age Clothing

Man 2

(11) ___________ Slight Dark Small moustache Early 20s Blue jeans White t-shirt (12) ___________ Motorbike helmet

Height Build Hair Face Age Clothing

5 foot 8 (13) ___________ Red (14) ___________ (15) ___________ Dark blue sweater Black jeans Motorbike helmet


Questions 16 - 20 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer. *

CompTec blamed the job losses on reduced sales and (16) _____________________ _________________________.

*

The airport route expansion will result in a (17) _________________________ of new jobs.

*

The Oakley Woods development project was opposed by local residents and local (18) _____________________________________. George Finchly, the Westley (19) __________________________, gave the news to the media.

*

East Moors CC will play their final on Sunday (20) _______________________ August.


SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 26

Complete the admission tutor’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

ADMISSION TUTOR’S NOTES Student’s Name

Robert Johnson

Subject to study

(21) _________________________________________________

Why this subject

Always interested Father’s field At school, good at mathematics and (22) ____________________

Gap year

Worked and travelled in Australia and New Zealand

Jobs during Gap Year

(23) _________________________________________________ Pub work (24) _________________________________________________ Building site

Why Westley University

Department has (25) ___________________________________ Graduates from Westley get jobs in industry quickly Near Snowdonia for (26) ________________________________ Likes football - Westley has lots of teams


Questions 27 - 30 Complete Robert’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

ROBERT JOHNSON’S NOTES Type of Course

(27) _______________________________ (3rd year in industry)

Assessment

Year 1

5 exams

Year 2

(28) _________________________________

Year 3

No assessment

Year 4

Dissertation of (29) _______________________________ 8 final exams during (30) __________________________


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 33 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer. 31

The lecture will be useful for any students who are writing ___________________________ _________________________________.

32

Modernised countries are described by the speaker as now being ____________________ _________________________________.

33

The size of a sample depends on the __________________________________________ required.


Questions 34 - 40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Survey Size

Depends on statistical quality needed and total population size A 1000 individual survey can reflect the total population

Types of Survey Mail Telephone In-Person Street Interview

Survey Content

Advantages (34) _____________________ Good for particular groups Good for when time and survey length are limited Good for collecting complex information

Disadvantages Not good for decent response rate (35) _____________________ Can mean lots of (36) _____________________

(37) _____________________ Not scientific sampling

Questions can ask about: opinions and attitudes factual characteristics or behaviour Questions can be open-ended or (38) _________________________ Questions can be from 5 mins long to 1 hour + Survey can be (39) ____________________________ - interviewees can be questioned on 2 or more occasions

Ethics

Results must not be used commercially Individuals should not be mentioned Results should be in (40) ___________________________________ ie: statistical tables or charts



Questions 1 - 14


DIABETES Here are some facts that you probably didn’t know about diabetes. It is the world’s fastest growing disease. It is Australia’s 6th leading cause of death. Over 1 million Australians have it though 50% of those are as yet unaware. Every 10 minutes someone is diagnosed with diabetes. So much for the facts but what exactly is diabetes? Diabetes is the name given to a group of different conditions in which there is too much glucose in the blood. Here’s what happens: the body needs glucose as its main source of fuel or energy. The body makes glucose from foods containing carbohydrate such as vegetables containing carbohydrate (like potatoes or corn) and cereal foods (like bread, pasta and rice) as well as fruit and milk. Glucose is carried around the body in the blood and the glucose level is called glycaemia. Glycaemia (blood sugar levels) in humans and animals must be neither too high nor too low, but just right. The glucose running around in the blood stream now has to get out of the blood and into the body tissues. This is where insulin enters the story. Insulin is a hormone made by the pancreas, a gland sitting just below the stomach. Insulin opens the doors that let glucose go from the blood to the body cells where energy is made. This process is called glucose metabolism. In diabetes, the pancreas either cannot make insulin or the insulin it does make is not enough and cannot work properly. Without insulin doing its job, the glucose channels are shut. Glucose builds up in the blood leading to high blood glucose levels, which causes the health problems linked to diabetes. People refer to the disease as diabetes but there are actually two distinctive types of the disease. Type 1 diabetes is a condition characterized by high blood glucose levels caused by a total lack of insulin. It occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas and destroys them. The pancreas then produces little or no insulin. Type 1 diabetes develops most often in young people but can appear in adults. Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of diabetes. In type 2 diabetes, either the body does not produce enough insulin or the cells ignore the insulin. Insulin is necessary for the body to be able to use sugar. Sugar is the basic fuel for the cells in the body, and insulin takes the sugar from the blood into the cells. The diagnosis of diabetes often depends on what type the patient is suffering from. In Type 1 diabetes, symptoms are usually sudden and sometimes even life threatening - hyperglycaemia (high blood sugar levels) can lead to comas – and therefore it is mostly diagnosed quite quickly. In Type 2 diabetes, many people have no symptoms at all, while other signs can go unnoticed, being seen as part of ‘getting older’. Therefore, by the time symptoms are noticed, the blood glucose level for many people can be very high. Common symptoms include: being more thirsty than usual, passing more urine, feeling lethargic, always feeling hungry, having cuts that heal slowly, itching, skin infections, bad breath, blurred vision, unexplained weight change, mood swings, headaches, feeling dizzy and leg cramps. At present there is no cure for diabetes, but there is a huge amount of research looking for a cure and to provide superior management techniques and products until a cure is found. Whether it’s Type 1 or Type 2 diabetes, the aim of any diabetes treatment is to get your blood glucose levels as close to the non-diabetic range as often as possible. For people with Type 1 Academic Test 2; Page 9 © ieltshelpnow.com

diabetes, this will mean insulin injections every day plus leading a healthy lifestyle. For people with Type 2 diabetes, healthy eating and regular physical activity may be all that is required at first: sometimes tablets and/or insulin may be needed later on. Ideally blood glucose levels are kept as close to the non-diabetic range as possible so frequent self-testing is a good idea. This will help prevent the short-term effects of very low or very high blood glucose levels as well as the possible long-term problems. If someone is dependent on insulin, it has to be injected into the body. Insulin cannot be taken as a pill. The insulin would be broken down during digestion just like the protein in food. Insulin must be injected into the fat under your skin for it to get into your blood. Diabetes can cause serious complications for patients. When glucose builds up in the blood instead of going into cells, it can cause problems. Short term problems are similar to the symptoms but long term high blood sugar levels can lead to heart attacks, strokes, kidney failure, amputations and blindness. Having your blood pressure and cholesterol outside recommended ranges can also lead to problems like heart attack and stroke and in fact 2 out of 3 people with diabetes eventually die of these complications. Young adults age 18 - 44 who get type 2 diabetes are 14 times more likely to suffer a heart attack, and are up to 30 times more likely to have a stroke than their peers without diabetes. Young women account for almost all the increase in heart attack risk, while young men are twice as likely to suffer a stroke as young women. This means that huge numbers of people are going to get heart disease, heart attacks and strokes years, sometimes even decades, before they should.

Questions 1 - 7 Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 1? In boxes 1 - 7 on your answer sheet write: YES

if the statement agrees with the information

NO

if the statement contradicts the statement

NOT GIVEN

if there is no information on this in the passage

1

Carbohydrate foods are the body’s source of glucose.

2

Diabetics cannot produce insulin.

3

Some patients develop diabetes due to faults in their own immune systems

4

Hyperglycaemia leads to type 1 diabetes being diagnosed quite quickly.

5

Artificial insulin is the most effective treatment for those patients requiring insulin.

6

Frequent check ups at the doctor can drastically reduce the chances of suffering from problems related to diabetes.

7

The majority of diabetics develop heart problems or suffer strokes. Academic Test 2; Page 10 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 8 - 11 Complete the following statements with the best ending from the box on the next page Write the appropriate letters A - H in boxes 8 - 11 on your answer sheet. 8

Bizarre as it may seem, many people with diabetes…

9

Insulin is a hormone that allows glucose to be absorbed by…

10

Non severe type 2 diabetes can be solely treated by…

11

Increases in diabetes related heart problems are mainly seen in… A

a healthy lifestyle.

B

never suffer any ill effects.

C

women.

D

people also suffering strokes.

E

body cells.

F

the pancreas.

G

do not realise the fact.

H

injections.

Questions 12 - 14 According to the text which of the following are symptoms of diabetes? Choose THREE letters (A – G) and write them in boxes 12 – 14 on your answer sheet. A B C D E F G

hot flushes muscle pains nausea losing consciousness tiredness bleeding gums dilation of the eyes


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 15 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages.

Contaminating the Arctic Our perception of the Arctic region is that its distance from industrial centers keeps it pristine and clear from the impact of pollution. However, through a process known as transboundary pollution, the Arctic is the recipient of contaminants whose sources are thousands of miles away. Large quantities of pollutants pour into our atmosphere, as well as our lakes, rivers, and oceans on a daily basis. In the last 20 years, scientists have detected an increasing variety of toxic contaminants in the North, including pesticides from agriculture, chemicals and heavy metals from industry, and even radioactive fall-out from Chernobyl. These are substances that have invaded ecosystems virtually worldwide, but they are especially worrisome in the Arctic. Originally, Arctic contamination was largely blamed on chemical leaks, and these leaks were thought to be “small and localized.” The consensus now is that pollutants from around the world are being carried north by rivers, ocean currents, and atmospheric circulation. Due to extreme conditions in the Arctic, including reduced sunlight, extensive ice cover and cold temperatures, contaminants break down much more slowly than in warmer climates. Contaminants can also become highly concentrated due to their significantly lengthened life span in the Arctic. Problems of spring run-off into coastal waters during the growth period of marine life are of critical concern. Spring algae blooms easily, absorbing the concentrated contaminants released by spring melting. These algae are in turn eaten by zooplankton and a wide variety of marine life. The accumulation of these contaminants increases with each step of the food chain or web and can potentially affect northerners who eat marine mammals near the top of the food chain. Pollutants respect no borders; transboundary pollution is the movement of contaminants across political borders, whether by air, rivers, or ocean currents. The eight circumpolar nations, led by the Finnish Initiative of 1989, established the Arctic Environmental Protection Strategy (AEPS) in which participants have agreed to develop an Arctic Monitoring and Assessment Program (AMAP). AMAP establishes an international scientific network to monitor the current condition of the Arctic with respect to specific contaminants. This monitoring program is extremely important because it will give a scientific basis for understanding the scope of the problem. In the 1950’s, pilots traveling on weather reconnaissance flights in the Canadian high Arctic reported seeing bands of haze in the springtime in the Arctic region. It was during this time that the term “Arctic haze” was first used, referring to this smog of unknown origin. But it was not until 1972, that Dr. Glenn Shaw of the Geophysical Institute at the University of Alaska first put forth ideas of the nature and long-range origin of Arctic haze. The idea that the source was long range was very difficult for many to support. Each winter, cold, dense air settles over the Arctic. In the darkness, the Arctic seems to become more and more polluted by a buildup of mid-latitude emissions from fossil fuel combustion, smelting and other industrial processes. By late winter, the Academic Test 2; Page 12 © ieltshelpnow.com

Arctic is covered by a layer of this haze the size of the continent of Africa. When the spring light arrives in the Arctic, there is a smog-like haze, which makes the region, at times, looks like pollution over such cities as Los Angeles. This polluted air is a well-known and well-characterized feature of the late winter Arctic environment. In the North American Arctic, episodes of brown or black snow have been traced to continental storm tracks that deliver gaseous and particulate-associated contaminants from Asian deserts and agricultural areas. It is now known that the contaminants originate largely from Europe and Asia. Arctic haze has been studied most extensively in Point Barrow, Alaska, across the Canadian Arctic and in Svalbard (Norway). Evidence from ice cores drilled from the ice sheet of Greenland indicates that these haze particles were not always present in the Arctic, but began to appear only in the last century. The Arctic haze particles appear to be similar to smog particles observed in industrial areas farther south, consisting mostly of sulfates mixed with particles of carbon. It is believed the particles are formed when gaseous sulfur dioxide produced by burning sulfur-bearing coal is irradiated by sunlight and oxidized to sulfate, a process catalyzed by trace elements in the air. These sulfate particles or droplets of sulfuric acid quickly capture the carbon particles, which are also floating in the air. Pure sulfate particles or droplets are colourless, so it is believed the darkness of the haze is caused by the mixed-in carbon particles. The impact of the haze on Arctic ecosystems, as well as the global environment, has not been adequately researched. The pollutants have only been studied in their aerosol form over the Arctic. However, little is known about what eventually happens to them. It is known that they are removed somehow. There is a good degree of likelihood that the contaminants end up in the ocean, likely into the North Atlantic, the Norwegian Sea and possibly the Bering Sea — all three very important fisheries. Currently, the major issue among researchers is to understand the impact of Arctic haze on global climate change. The contaminants absorb sunlight and, in turn, heat up the atmosphere. The global impact of this is currently unknown but the implications are quite powerful.


Questions 15 - 27 Read the passage about alternative farming methods in Oregon again and look at the statements below. In boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN

if the information is not given in the advertisement

15

Industry in the Arctic has increased over the last 20 years.

16

Arctic conditions mean that the break down of pollutants is much accelerated

17

Pollution absorbed by arctic algae can eventually affect humans.

18

The AEPS has set up scientific stations in the Arctic to monitor pollution.

19

Arctic pollution can sometimes resemble US urban pollution.

20

Evidence that this smog has only occurred in the 20th Century has been found in the ice on the polar ice cap.

21

Research has shown that aerosol arctic pollutants remain the air indefinitely.


Questions 22 – 27 Complete the summary relating to Arctic Haze below. Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes 22 – 27 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them at all.

Example

Answer

____________ that the origins of spring, arctic haze, first seen over the ice cap...

Theories

(eg) ______________________ that the origins of spring, arctic haze, first seen over the ice cap in the 1950s, came from far away were at first not (22) _______________ _______. This haze is a smog formed in the dark, arctic winter by pollution delivered to the Arctic by storms (23) ______________________ in Europe and Asia. It is known to be a recent phenomenon as proof from (24) ______________________ shows it only starting to occur in the 20th Century. The smog consists of sulphates and carbon, the latter creating the (25) ______________________ of the haze. Due to lack of research, the final destination of the pollution is unknown but it probably ends up in the (26) ______________________ and therefore into the food chain. Scientists are presently more worried about the (27) ______________________ effect it has on climate change.

burning

terrible

ice cores

valid

certain

originating

sea

destroying

theories

unknown

agriculture

decided

bird life

dissipating

accepted

gases

darkness

air

density Academic Test 2; Page 15 © ieltshelpnow.com

READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40


THE STORY OF COFFEE A Coffee was first discovered in Eastern Africa in an area we know today as Ethiopia. A popular legend refers to a goat herder by the name of Kaldi, who observed his goats acting unusually friskily after eating berries from a bush. Curious about this phenomenon, Kaldi tried eating the berries himself. He found that these berries gave him renewed energy.

B The news of this energy laden fruit quickly moved throughout the region. Coffee berries were transported from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula, and were first cultivated in what today is the country of Yemen. Coffee remained a secret in Arabia before spreading to Turkey and then to the European continent by means of Venetian trade merchants.

C Coffee was first eaten as a food though later people in Arabia would make a drink out of boiling the beans for its narcotic effects and medicinal value. Coffee for a time was known as Arabian wine to Muslims who were banned from alcohol by Islam. It was not until after coffee had been eaten as a food product, a wine and a medicine that it was discovered, probably by complete accident in Turkey, that by roasting the beans a delicious drink could be made. The roasted beans were first crushed, and then boiled in water, creating a crude version of the beverage we enjoy today. The first coffee houses were opened in Europe in the 17th Century and in 1675, the Viennese established the habit of refining the brew by filtering out the grounds, sweetening it, and adding a dash of milk.

D If you were to explore the planet for coffee, you would find about 60 species of coffee plants growing wild in Africa, Malaysia, and other regions. But only about ten of them are actually cultivated. Of these ten, two species are responsible for almost all the coffee produced in the world: Coffea Arabica and Coffea Canephora (usually known as Robusta). Because of ecological differences existing among the various coffee producing countries, both types have undergone many mutations and now exist in many sub species.

E Although wild plants can reach 10 - 12 metres in height, the plantation one reaches a height of around four metres. This makes the harvest and flowering easier, and cultivation more economical. The flowers are white and sweet-scented like the Spanish jasmine. Flowers give way to a red, darkish berry. At first sight, the fruit is like a big cherry both in size and in colour. The berry is coated with a thin, red film (epicarp) containing a white, sugary mucilaginous flesh (mesocarp). Inside the pulp there are the seeds in the form of two beans coupled at their flat surface. Beans Academic Test 2; Page 16 © ieltshelpnow.com

are in turn coated with a kind of resistant, golden yellow parchment, (called endocarp). When peeled, the real bean appears with another very thin silvery film. The bean is bluish green verging on bronze, and is at the most 11 millimetres long and 8 millimetres wide.

F Coffee plants need special conditions to give a satisfactory crop. The climate needs to be hot-wet or hot temperate, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, with frequent rains and temperatures varying from 15 to 25 Degrees C. The soil should be deep, hard, permeable, well irrigated, with well-drained subsoil. The best lands are the hilly ones or from just-tilled woods. The perfect altitude is between 600 and 1200 metres, though some varieties thrive at 2000-2200 metres. Cultivation aimed at protecting the plants at every stage of growth is needed. Sowing should be in sheltered nurseries from which, after about six months, the seedlings should be moved to plantations in the rainy season where they are usually alternated with other plants to shield them from wind and excessive sunlight. Only when the plant is five years old can it be counted upon to give a regular yield. This is between 400 grams and two kilos of arabica beans for each plant, and 600 grams and two kilos for robusta beans.

G Harvesting time depends on the geographic situation and it can vary greatly therefore according to the various producing countries. First the ripe beans are picked from the branches. Pickers can selectively pick approximately 250 to 300 pounds of coffee cherry a day. At the end of the day, the pickers bring their heavy burlap bags to pulping mills where the cherry coffee can be pulped (or wet milled). The pulped beans then rest, covered in pure rainwater to ferment overnight. The next day the wet beans are hand-distributed upon the drying floor to be sun dried. This drying process takes from one to two weeks depending on the amount of sunny days available. To make sure they dry evenly, the beans need to be raked many times during this drying time. Two weeks later the sun dried beans, now called parchment, are scooped up, bagged and taken to be milled. Huge milling machines then remove the parchment and silver skin, which renders a green bean suitable for roasting. The green beans are roasted according to the customers’ specifications and, after cooling, the beans are then packaged and mailed to customers. Source: Sovrana Trading (Lavazza Coffee)


Questions 28 - 33 The reading passage on The Story of Coffee has 7 paragraphs A – G. From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 28 – 33 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. i

Growing Coffee

ii

Problems with Manufacture

iii

Processing the Bean

iv

First Contact

v

Arabian Coffee

vi

Coffee Varieties

vii

Modern Coffee

viii

The Spread of Coffee

ix

Consuming Coffee

x

Climates for Coffee

xi

The Coffee Plant

Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv

28

Paragraph B

29

Paragraph C


30

Paragraph D

31

Paragraph E

32

Paragraph F

33

Paragraph G

Questions 34 - 36 Complete the labels on the diagram of a coffee bean below. Choose your answers from the text and write them in boxes 34 - 36 on your answer sheet.

(35) ________________ (34) ________________

(36) ________________


Questions 37 – 40 Using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below. Write your answers in boxes 37 – 40 on your answer sheet. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. The Coffee Production Process The coffee (eg) ____________ is picked by hand and delivered to mills.

Answer cherry

The coffee cherry is pulped or (37) _________________________________.

The pulped beans are left (38) _________________ to ferment in pure water.

The wet beans are sun dried for one or 2 weeks to make parchment – they are (39) _________________________ often to ensure an even drying procedure.

The parchment is then bagged and taken to be milled to make the green beans.

The green beans are then roasted to (40) ________________________________.

The roasted beans are cooled.

The finished product is packaged and mailed to the customer. Academic Test 2; Page 20 © ieltshelpnow.com

ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 2 WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The chart below shows how the UK unemployed spent their time in the year 1982. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.

How the Unemployed Spend their Time, UK, 1982 morning men % Housework 19 Shopping 20 Job hunting 22 Visiting friends 6 or relatives Gardening 14 TV 4 Reading 9 Decorating 7 Walking 5 Nothing/Sitting 3 around Staying in bed 8 Visiting town 5 Playing sport 4 Drinking 2

morning women % 49 26 16 10

afternoon men % 7 9 12 12

afternoon women % 21 17 13 17

2 2 5 3 3 3

13 14 8 7 8 9

3 12 10 2 2 6

8 7 1 1

1 3 4 3

0 4 0 1


WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Do you believe that experimentation on animals for scientific purposes is justified. Are there any alternatives to animal experimentation? You should write at least 250 words.



Tell me about the part of the country where you live. What are the main ways of earning money in this area? What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in this area?

Topic 1 * * * *

Where have you studied English? What do you find most difficult about studying English? What’s the best way for you to study English? How can speaking English well help you in your life?

Topic 2 * * * *

Studying English

Transport

What is the best way to get around the place where you live? How would you improve transport in your town or area? How does transport cause pollution? Do people prefer using public or private transport in your country?

Section 2 Describe what you think would be the perfect holiday. You should say: where it would be what activities you would do how long it would last and explain why this holiday would be perfect for you. Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

What are some of the best places in your country for a tourist to visit? What are some of the advantages and disadvantages that tourism brings to an area? Could you compare the tourism industry in your country today with that of 50 years ago? What factors do you think could limit the expansion of tourism in the future?

Topic 2 * * * *

Tourism

Holidays

Why do you think people need holidays? How much holiday a year do you think a person needs? How have people’s expectations about holidays changed over the last 50 years? How do you think holidays will change in the next 50 years? Academic Test 2; Page 23 © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 3 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 3 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

WESTLEY PUBLIC LIBRARY MEMBERSHIP APPLICATION FORM Example

Answer

NAME

Camden

FIRST NAME

Peter

ADDRESS

Flat 5 53 (1) _________________________________ Finsbury

POSTCODE

(2) ____________________________________

DATE OF BIRTH

8th July (3) _____________________________

HOME TEL

None

MOBILE TEL

(4) ____________________________________

PROOF OF RESIDENCE PROVIDED

(5) ____________________________________


Questions 6 - 8 Circle THREE letters A - F. What type of books does Peter like? A B C D E F

Wildlife books Romance books Travel books Historical novels Science Fiction novels Mystery books

Questions 9 and 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 9

How much does it cost to join the library? _________________________________

10

How much does it cost to rent a DVD? _________________________________


SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 14 List FOUR reasons given for people needing blood transfusions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 11 - 14 on your answer sheet. 11

____________________________________________________________

12

____________________________________________________________

13

____________________________________________________________

14

____________________________________________________________

Questions 15 - 20 Complete the 2 sets of notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Blood Types of Blood

O, A, B + AB

Component Parts PART red blood cells white blood cells platelets plasma

USED FOR (15) __________________________ to cells help patients’ (16) ______________________ _____________________________________ blood clotting (17) ________________________ the other blood parts Academic Test 3; Page 3 © ieltshelpnow.com

GIVING BLOOD DAYS

Wednesday + next 2 days

WHERE

Westley General Hospital, (18) ___________________________ Department

WHEN

Between 9.00am and (19) ___________________________

MUST

be healthy be (20) ______________________ or over weigh more than 110 pounds have had no tattoos this year not have donated blood within past 56 days


SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 27 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Computer Labs The 4 labs below can be used by undergraduates. Other computer labs can only be used by postgraduates and (21) _________________________ Lab Locations

Wimborne Franklin Salisbury Court

Johnson Building Computer Sciences Building (22) ____________________ Johnson Building

Reservations

(23) ________________ a day unless computers are free Write reservation in book (24) ________________ (Penalty for erasing someone else’s reservation - 1 year ban)

User Name

jamessmith2

Password

(25) _________________

Printing

Pick up print outs from (26) ______________ in Franklin Costs (27) ________________


Questions 28 - 30 Choose the correct letters A - C.

28

The introductory computer course that James decides to take is... A B C

29

The computer laboratory for James’ introductory computer course is in... A B C

30

beginner. intermediate. advanced.

Wimborne Franklin Court

James will take his introductory computer course... A B C

on Thursday at 2.00pm. on Tuesday at 4.30pm. on Tuesday at 5.00pm



The Shinkansen or Bullet Train Safety

No deaths (bar 1 from passenger misadventure) since its launch in (31) ___________________________.

Speed

Holds world train record for (32) _______________________ of 261.8 kph. 500 series Nozumi’s fastest speed is 300kph.

Punctuality

Punctual to within the second. All bullet trains for 1 year were a total of (33) __________ late.

History

First used on Tokyo to Osaka route. Old models have now been retired. 300, 500 and 700 are recent models.

Services

Nozomi trains stop at the (34) _________________________. Hikari stop more frequently. Kodama trains stop at (35) ____________________________.


Questions 36 - 40 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer. 36

French TGV locomotives pull the TGV trains from both ends using a _______________.

37

Japanese ground is unsuitable for the TGV type of train because it is _______________ and the tracks frequently curve horizontally and vertically.

38

An extra advantage of the Japanese electric car system is that it can act as a _______________.

39

Even after the power supply is cut off in the electric car system, electricity is still produced by _______________.

40

Huge improvements in power, operability and safety administration have been made possible by advances in _______________.



Questions 1 - 14


Cleaning up The Thames The River Thames, which was biologically “dead” as recently as the 1960s, is now the cleanest metropolitan river in the world, according to the Thames Water Company. The company says that thanks to major investment in better sewage treatment in London and the Thames Valley, the river that flows through the United Kingdom capital and the Thames Estuary into the North Sea is cleaner now than it has been for 130 years. The Fisheries Department, who are responsible for monitoring fish levels in the River Thames, has reported that the river has again become the home to 115 species of fish including sea bass, flounder, salmon, smelt, and shad. Recently, a porpoise was spotted cavorting in the river near central London. But things were not always so rosy. In the 1950s, sewer outflows and industrial effluent had killed the river. It was starved of oxygen and could no longer support aquatic life. Until the early 1970s, if you fell into the Thames you would have had to be rushed to hospital to get your stomach pumped. A clean-up operation began in the 1960s. Several Parliamentary Committees and Royal Commissions were set up, and, over time, legislation has been introduced that put the onus on polluters - effluentproducing premises and businesses - to dispose of waste responsibly. In 1964 the Greater London Council (GLC) began work on greatly enlarged sewage works, which were completed in 1974. The Thames clean up is not over though. It is still going on, and it involves many disparate arms of government and a wide range of non-government stakeholder groups, all representing a necessary aspect of the task. In London’s case, the urban and non-urban London boroughs that flank the river’s course each has its own reasons for keeping “their” river nice. And if their own reasons do not hold out a sufficiently attractive carrot, the government also wields a compelling stick. The 2000 Local Government Act requires each local borough to “prepare a community strategy for promoting or improving the economic, social and environmental well-being of their area.” And if your area includes a stretch of river, that means a sustainable river development strategy. Further legislation aimed at improving and sustaining the river’s viability has been proposed. There is now legislation that protects the River Thames, either specifically or as part of a general environmental clause, in the Local Government Act, the London Acts, and the law that created the post of the mayor of London. And these are only the tip of an iceberg that includes industrial, public health and environmental protection regulations. The result is a wide range of bodies officially charged, in one way or another, with maintaining the Thames as a public amenity. For example, Transport for London - the agency responsible for transport in the capital - plays a role in regulating river use and river users. They now are responsible forcontrolling the effluents and rubbish coming from craft using the Thames. This is done by officers on official vessels regularly inspectiing craft and doing spot checks. Another example is how Thames Water (TW) has now been charged to reduce the amount of litter that finds its way into the tidal river and its tributaries. TW’s environment and quality manager, Dr. Peter Spillett, said: “This project will build on our investment which has dramatically improved the water quality of the river. London should not be spoiled by litter which belongs in the bin not the river.” Thousands of tons of rubbish end up in the river each year, from badly stored waste, people throwing Academic Test 3; Page 9 © ieltshelpnow.com

litter off boats, and rubbish in the street being blown or washed into the river. Once litter hits the water it becomes too heavy to be blown away again and therefore the rivers act as a sink in the system. While the Port of London already collects up to 3,000 tons of solid waste from the tideway every year, Thames Water now plans to introduce a new device to capture more rubbish floating down the river. It consists of a huge cage that sits in the flow of water and gathers the passing rubbish. Moored just offshore in front of the Royal Naval College at Greenwich, south-east London, the device is expected to capture up to 20 tons of floating litter each year. If washed out to sea, this rubbish can kill marine mammals, fish and birds. This machine, known as the Rubbish Muncher, is hoped to be the first of many, as the TW is now looking for sponsors to pay for more cages elsewhere along the Thames. Monitoring of the cleanliness of the River Thames in the past was the responsibility of a welter of agencies - British Waterways, Port of London Authority, the Environment Agency, the Health and Safety Commission, Thames Water – as well as academic departments and national and local environment groups. If something was not right, someone was bound to call foul and hold somebody to account, whether it was the local authority, an individual polluter or any of the many public and private sector bodies that bore a share of the responsibility for maintaining the River Thames as a public amenity. Although they will all still have their part to play, there is now a central department in the Environment Agency, which has the remit of monitoring the Thames. This centralisation of accountability will, it is hoped, lead to more efficient control and enforcement. Source: US Water News 2000

Questions 1 - 6 Some of the actions taken to clean up the River Thames are listed below. The writer gives these actions as examples of things that have been done by various agencies connected with the River Thames. Match each action with the agency responsible for doing it. Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 1 - 6 on your answer sheet. Actions to Clean up the River Thames A

Operating the Rubbish Muncher

B

Creating Community Strategies

C

Monitoring the Cleanliness of the River Thames

D

Monitoring Fish Levels

E

Collecting Solid Waste from the Tideway

F

Creating Enlarged Sewage Works

G

Controlling the River Thames’ Traffic Academic Test 3; Page 10 © ieltshelpnow.com

Example The Fisheries Department 1

The Environment Agency

2

Transport for London

3

The Greater London Council

4

Thames Water

5

Port of London

6

Local Boroughs

Answer D

Questions 7 - 14 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading passage on Cleaning up the Thames? In Boxes 7 - 14 write: YES


NO


NOT GIVEN


7

The Thames is now cleaner that it was in 1900.

8

Swimming in the Thames now poses no health hazards.

9

It is now mainly the responsibility of those who pollute the Thames to clean their waste up.

10

All local London boroughs are now partly responsible for keeping the Thames clean.

11

Transport for London now employs a type of River Police to enforce control of their regulations.

12

Rubbish Munchers are now situated at various locations on the Thames.

13

Previously no one department had overall responsibility or control for monitoring the cleanliness of the Thames.

14

British Waterways will no longer have any part in keeping the Thames clean. Academic Test 3; Page 11 © ieltshelpnow.com

READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 15 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. If it weren’t for nicotine, people wouldn’t smoke tobacco. Why? Because of the more than 4000 chemicals in tobacco smoke, nicotine is the primary one that acts on the brain, altering people’s moods, appetites and alertness in ways they find pleasant and beneficial. Unfortunately, as it is widely known, nicotine has a dark side: it is highly addictive. Once smokers become hooked on it, they must get their fix of it regularly, sometimes several dozen times a day. Cigarette smoke contains 43 known carcinogens, which means that long-term smoking can amount to a death sentence. In the US alone, 420,000 Americans die every year from tobacco-related illnesses. Breaking nicotine addiction is not easy. Each year, nearly 35 million people make a concerted effort to quit smoking. Sadly, less than 7 percent succeed in abstaining for more than a year; most start smoking again within days. So what is nicotine and how does it insinuate itself into the smoker’s brain and very being? The nicotine found in tobacco is a potent drug and smokers, and even some scientists, say it offers certain benefits. One is enhance performance. One study found that non-smokers given doses of nicotine typed about 5 percent faster than they did without it. To greater or lesser degrees, users also say nicotine helps them to maintain concentration, reduce anxiety, relieve pain, and even dampen their appetites (thus helping in weight control). Unfortunately, nicotine can also produce deleterious effects beyond addiction. At high doses, as are achieved from tobacco products, it can cause high blood pressure, distress in the respiratory and gastrointestinal systems and an increase in susceptibility to seizures and hypothermia. First isolated as a compound in 1828, in its pure form nicotine is a clear liquid that turns brown when burned and smells like tobacco when exposed to air. It is found in several species of plants, including tobacco and, perhaps surprisingly, in tomatoes, potatoes, and eggplant (though in extremely low quantities that are pharmacologically insignificant for humans). As simple as it looks, the cigarette is highly engineered nicotine delivery device. For instance, when tobacco researchers found that much of the nicotine in a cigarette wasn’t released when burned but rather remained chemically bound within the tobacco leaf, they began adding substances such as ammonia to cigarette tobacco to release more nicotine. Ammonia helps keep nicotine in its basic form, which is more readily vaporised by the intense heat of the burning cigarette than the acidic form. Most cigarettes for sale in the US today contain 10 milligrams or more of nicotine. By inhaling smoke from a lighted cigarette, the average smoker takes 1 or 2 milligrams of vaporised nicotine per cigarette. Today we know that only a miniscule amount of nicotine is needed to fuel addiction. Research shows that manufacturers would have to cut nicotine levels in a typical cigarette by 95% to forestall its power to addict. When a smoker puffs on a lighted cigarette, smoke, including vaporised nicotine, is drawn into the mouth. The skin and lining of the mouth immediately absorb some nicotine, but the remainder flows straight down into the lungs, where it easily diffuses into the blood vessels lining the lung walls. The blood vessels carry the nicotine to the heart, which then pumps it directly to the brain. While most of the effects a smoker seeks occur in the brain, the heart takes a hit as well. Studies have shown that a smoker’s first cigarette of the day can increase his or her heart rate by 10 to 20 beats a minute. Scientists have found that a smoked substance reaches the brain more quickly than one swallowed, snorted (such as cocaine powder) or even injected. Indeed, a nicotine molecule inhaled in smoke will reach the brain within 10 seconds. The nicotine travels through blood vessels, which branch out Academic Test 3; Page 12 © ieltshelpnow.com

into capillaries within the brain. Capillaries normally carry nutrients but they readily accommodate nicotine molecules as well. Once inside the brain, nicotine, like most addictive drugs, triggers the release of chemicals associated with euphoria and pleasure. Just as it moves rapidly from the lungs into the bloodstream, nicotine also easily diffuses through capillary walls. It then migrates to the spaces surrounding neurones – ganglion cells that transmit nerve impulses throughout the nervous system. These impulses are the basis for our thoughts, feelings, and moods. To transmit nerve impulses to its neighbour, a neurone releases chemical messengers known as neurotransmitters. Like nicotine molecules, the neurotransmitters drift into the so-called synaptic space between neurones, ready to latch onto the receiving neurone and thus deliver a chemical “message” that triggers an electrical impulse. The neurotransmitters bind onto receptors on the surface of the recipient neurone. This opens channels in the cell surface through which enter ions, or charged atoms, of sodium. This generates a current across the membrane of the receiving cell, which completes delivery of the “message”. An accomplished mimic, nicotine competes with the neurotransmitters to bind to the receptors. It wins and, like the vanquished chemical, opens ion channels that let sodium ions into the cell. But there’s a lot more nicotine around than the original transmitter, so a much larger current spreads across the membrane. This bigger current causes increased electrical impulses to travel along certain neurones. With repeated smoking, the neurones adapt to this increased electrical activity, and the smoker becomes dependent on the nicotine.

Questions 15 - 21 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of Reading Passage 2? In Boxes 15 - 21 write: YES


NO


NOT GIVEN


15

Although nicotine is probably the well-known chemical in cigarettes, it is not nessarily the one that changes the psyche of the smoker when cigarettes are smoked.

16

In spite of the difficulties, according to the text more than thirty-five million people a year give up smoking.

17

It has been shown that nicotine in cigarettes can improve people’s abillities to perform some actions more quickly.

18

Added ammonia in cigarettes allows smokers to inhale more nicotine.

19

Snorted substances reach the brain faster than injected substances. Academic Test 3; Page 13 © ieltshelpnow.com

20

Nicotine dilates the blood vessels that carry it around the body.

21

Nicotine molecules allow greater electrical charges to pass between neurones.

Questions 22 - 26 Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER from Reading Passage 2, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 22 - 26 on your answer sheet. 22

What is the natural colour of nicotine?

23

By how much would cigarete companies have to cut the nicotine content in cigarettes to prevent them from being addictive?

24

Name ONE of 2 things that first take nicotine into a smoker’s body?

25

According to the passage, by how many beats a minute can a cigarette raise a smoker’s heart rate?

26

What type of cell in the human body encloses neurones?

Questions 27 From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading Passage 2. A

How to Quit Smoking

B

The Dangers of Smoking

C

Cell Biology

D

Why Smoking is Addictive

E

Nicotine is a Poison


READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Reading Passage 3.

Questions 28 - 32 The reading passage on Deer Farming In Australia has 5 paragraphs (A – E). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) in boxes 28 – 32 on your answer sheet. NB


Industry Structures

ii

Disease Affects Production

iii

Trends in Production

iv

Government Assistance

v

How Deer Came to Australia

vi

Research and Development

vii

Asian Competition

viii

Industry Development

28

Paragraph A

29

Paragraph B

30

Paragraph C

31

Paragraph D

32

Paragraph E


Deer Farming In Australia Paragraph A Deer are not indigenous to Australia. They were introduced into the country during the nineteenth century under the acclimatization programs governing the introduction of exotic species of animals and birds into Australia. Six species of deer were released at various locations. The animals dispersed and established wild populations at various locations across Australia, mostly depending upon their points of release into the wild. These animals formed the basis for the deer industry in Australia today. Commercial deer farming in Australia commenced in Victoria in 1971 with the authorized capture of rusa deer from the Royal National Park, NSW. Until 1985, only four species of deer, two from temperate climates (red, fallow) and two tropical species (rusa, chital) were confined for commercial farming. Late in 1985, pressure from industry to increase herd numbers saw the development of import protocols. This resulted in the introduction of large numbers of red deer hybrids from New Zealand and North American elk directly from Canada. The national farmed deer herd is now distributed throughout all states although most are in New South Wales and Victoria. Paragraph B The number of animals processed annually has continued to increase, despite the downward trend in venison prices since 1997. Of concern is the apparent increase in the number of female animals processed and the number of whole herds committed for processing. With more than 40,000 animals processed in 1998/99 and 60,000 in 1999/2000, there is justified concern that future years may see a dramatic drop in production. At least 85% of all venison produced in Australia is exported, principally to Europe. At least 90% of all velvet antler produced is exported in an unprocessed state to Asia. Schemes to promote Australian deer products continue to have a positive effect on sales that in turn have a positive effect on prices paid to growers. The industry appears to be showing limited signs that it is emerging from a state of depression caused by both internal and external factors that include: (i) the Asian currency downturn; (ii) the industry’s lack of competitive advantage in influential markets (particularly in respect to New Zealand competition), and; (iii) within industry processing and marketing competition for limited product volumes of venison. Paragraph C From the formation of the Australian Deer Breeders Federation in 1979, the industry representative body has evolved through the Deer Farmers Federation of Australia to the Deer Industry Association of Australia Ltd (DIAA), which was registered in 1995. The industry has established two product development and marketing companies, the Australian Deer Horn and Co-Products Pty Ltd (ADH) and the Deer Industry Projects and Development Pty Ltd, which trades as the Deer Industry Company (DIC). ADH collects and markets Australian deer horn and co-products on behalf of Australian deer farmers. It promotes the harvest of velvet antler according to the strict quality assurance program promoted by the industry. The company also plans and co-ordinates regular velvet accreditation courses for Australian deer farmers. Academic Test 3; Page 16 © ieltshelpnow.com

Paragraph D Estimates suggest that until the early 1990s the rate of the annual increase in the number of farmed deer was up to 25%, but after 1993 this rate of increase fell to probably less than 10%. The main reasons for the decline in the deer herd growth rate at such a critical time for the market were: (i) severe drought conditions up to 1998 affecting eastern Australia during 1993-96 and (ii) the consequent slaughter of large numbers of breeding females, at very low prices. These factors combined to decrease confidence within the industry. Lack of confidence saw a drop in new investment within the industry and a lack of willingness of established farmers to expand their herds. With the development of strong overseas markets for venison and velvet and the prospect of better seasons ahead in 1996, the trends described were seen to have been significantly reversed. However, the relatively small size of the Australian herd was seen to impose undesirable restraints on the rate at which herd numbers could be expanded to meet the demands for products. Supply difficulties were exacerbated when the supply of products, particularly venison, was maintained by the slaughter of young breeding females. The net result was depletion of the industry’s female breeding herds. Paragraph E Industry programs are funded by statutory levies on sales of animals for venison, velvet antler sales and the sale of live animals into export markets. The industry has a 1996 - 2000 five year plan including animal nutrition, pasture quality, carcass quality, antler harvesting, promotional material and technical bulletins. All projects have generated a significant volume of information, which compliments similar work undertaken in New Zealand and other deer farming countries. Major projects funded by levy funds include the Venison Market Project from 1992 to 1996. This initiative resulted in a dramatic increase in international demand for Australian venison and an increase in the domestic consumption of venison. In an effort to maintain existing venison markets in the short term and to increase them in the long term, in 1997 the industry’s top priority became the increase in size and production capacity of the national herd. Source: Rural Industries Research & Development Corporation


Questions 33 - 37 Read the passage about Deer Farming in Australia again and look at the statements below. In boxes 33 - 37 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN

if the information is not given in Reading Passage 3

33

Until 1985 only 2 species of the originally released Australian deer were not used for farming.

34

Since 1985 many imported deer have been interbred with the established herds.

35

The drop in deer numbers since 1997 led to an increase in the price of venison.

36

Only a small amount of Australian venison production is consumed domestically.

37

Current economic conditions in Asian countries have had positive effect on the Australian deer industry.

Questions 38 - 40 Complete each of the following statements (Questions 38 - 40) with words taken from Reading Passage 3. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 38 - 40 on your answer sheet. 38

A stringent __________ allows the Australian deer industry to maintain their excellence of product.

39

Herd stock expansion was made difficult by the killing of __________ to continue product supply.

40

Foreign and home markets for Australian venison increased due to the __________.


ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 3 WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The charts below show information on crime in the UK for 2002. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.


WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. With the rise in popularity of the internet, newspapers will soon become a thing of the past. To what extent do you agree or disagree? You should write at least 250 words.



Tell me about the job or studies that you are doing. Why did you choose this field? Do you think you will ever change this job or study? (Why/Why not?)

Topic 1 * * * *

What were the good parts and the bad parts about your schooldays? What was your favourite subject at school? (Why?) How did your school teach sports? How would you improve the school that you went to?

Topic 2 * * * *

Schooldays

Rivers

Describe a river in your country. What kinds of things are rivers used for in your country? Are there any pollution problems with rivers in your country? (What?) What kind of problems do people face if they live near a big river?

Section 2 Describe your favourite restaurant You should say: where the restaurant is and how you found it what type of food it serves how often you go there and explain exactly why you like this restaurant so much. Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

Is fast food popular in your country? (Why?) Why has fast food become so popular over the last 30 years? Could you compare fast food with traditional meals? How can we stop young people eating so much fast food?

Topic 2 * * * *

Fast Food

Food Problems

What are some of the problems that some countries have with food production? Could you suggest any ways to solve these problems? What other problems can you predict happening in terms of food in the next 50 years? Could you compare methods of food production and distribution today with that of 50 years ago? Academic Test 3; Page 21 © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 4 LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 4 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Oakham Surgery New Patient Form Example

Answer

NEW PATIENT’S ROAD

Dawson Road

FULL NAME

Mike (1) _________________________________

WIFE’S FIRST NAME

Janet

CHILDRENS’ FIRST NAMES

1st 2nd 3rd 4th

ADDRESS

52 Dawson Road (3) ______________________________________ Melbourne

HEALTH CARD NUMBER

(4) ______________________________________

WIFE’S HEALTH CARD NUMBER

will give later

PREFERRED DOCTOR SELECTED

(5) ______________________________________

(2) ________________________________


Questions 6 - 10 Circle the correct letters A - C. 6

When is Mike’s wife’s first appointment? A B C

7

What is the surgery’s phone number? A B C

8

Rachel Elizabeth Angela

What’s the night doctor’s mobile number? A B C

10

7253 9819 7253 9829 7523 9829

What is the name of the girl with whom Mike is speaking at the surgery? A B C

9

Friday 21st at 2.00pm. Friday 21st at 2.30pm. Friday 21st at 3.30pm.

0506 759 3856 0506 759 3857 0506 758 3856

Which of the following does the surgery NOT make a charge for? A B C

Travel vaccinations Consultations Insurance reports



Notes on Library Joining Library

You will need:

A completed application form. (11) _____________________________________________ (12) ____________________________________________ Two passport photos.

Opening Hours

Library Reception

8am - 10pm (13) ___________________________________ 9am - 5pm (- 6.30 on (14) ___________________________) (Mon - Sat; closed on Sundays)

Borrowing

Undergraduates 4 books Postgraduates (15) _________________________________ books Borrowing for 2 weeks + (16) _________________________ renewals (in person) No renewals over phone Late return penalty: ₤2 per week


Questions 17 - 20 Label the library layout below below.

Ground Floor

First Floor

Second Floor

reception; (17) _______________________________ bathrooms; (18) _______________________________

(19) _______________________ section

Science Section

(20) ___________________ Stack System


SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 24 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 21

When will Simon begin writing his essay? ___________________________

22

According to Simon, what kind of problems did Jaguar have in the 1970s and 80s? ___________________________

23

What is the word limit for the essay? ___________________________

24

What is the preferable method for handing in the essay? ___________________________

Questions 25 - 27 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS for each answer.

25

Jennifer wants to write about how _______________ are used by supermarkets.

26

Jennifer found some publications in the library _______________ to help her analysis.

27

The tutor warned Jennifer about _______________ in her work.


Questions 28 - 30 Complete the tutor’s summary notes on Melanie below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Notes on Student Essays Student Melanie needs an (28) _______________ as she has been unwell with the flu. She will get a (29) _______________ from the doctor. She’s going to write about (30) _______________ in the UK and their effect on housing trends. She should be on track with the essay by the end of the weekend.


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 33 Choose the correct letters A - C. 31

The Pacific is more prone to tsunami because... A B C

32

The biggest tsunami are usually created by... A B C

33

it has many faults. its faults undergo subduction. its tectonic plates are bigger than elswhere.

undersea volcanic eruptions. undersea earthquakes. undersea landslides.

Tsunami are difficult to detect in deep water because of... A B C

their wavelength. their high speed. their wave rate.

Questions 34 and 35 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. List the two ways which the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has set up to detect tsunami.

34

_____________________________________________________

35

_____________________________________________________


Questions 36 - 40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. TSUNAMI EXAMPLES When Happened 1992 1992 1998 1998 1896 8000 years ago

Cause (36) _____________ _________________ Underwater earthquake (38) _____________ _________________ Underwater volcanic eruption Underwater earthquake Underwater landslide

Deaths Caused none

Wave Height 3 feet

none

(37) _____________

1200

23 feet

3000

40 feet

(39) _____________

35 feet

(40) _____________

30 feet



Questions 1 - 14


Questions 1 - 6 Reading Passage 1 has 7 paragraphs (A – G). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 1 – 6 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all. Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv

i

Factory Closures

ii

The Human Cost

iii

The Tragedy of State Mismanagement

iv

A Warning to the World

v

European Techniques

vi

Destructive Trawling Technology

vii

Lessons to be Learned

viii

The Demise of the Northern Cod

ix

Canadian Fishing Limits

x

The Breaking of Agreements

xi

Foreign Over-fishing Academic Test 4; Page 9 © ieltshelpnow.com

1

Paragraph B

2

Paragraph C

3

Paragraph D

4

Paragraph E

5

Paragraph F

6

Paragraph G

COD IN TROUBLE A In 1992, the devastating collapse of the cod stocks off the East coast of Newfoundland forced the Canadian government to take drastic measures and close the fishery. Over 40,000 people lost their jobs, communities are still struggling to recover and the marine ecosystem is still in a state of collapse. The disintegration of this vital fishery sounded a warning bell to governments around the world who were shocked that a relatively sophisticated, scientifically based fisheries management program, not unlike their own, could have gone so wrong. The Canadian government ignored warnings that their fleets were employing destructive fishing practices and refused to significantly reduce quotas citing the loss of jobs as too great a concern. B In the 1950s Canadian and US east coast waters provided an annual 100,000 tons in cod catches rising to 800,000 by 1970. This over fishing led to a catch of only 300,000 tons by 1975. Canada and the US reacted by passing legislation to extend their national jurisdictions over marine living resources out to 200 nautical miles and catches naturally declined to 139,000 tons in 1980. However the Canadian fishing industry took over and restarted the over fishing and catches rose again until, from 1985, it was the Canadians who were landing more than 250,000 tons of northern cod annually. This exploitation ravaged the stocks and by 1990 the catch was so low (29,000 tons) that in 1992 (121⁄2000 tons) Canada had to ban all fishing in east coast waters. In a fishery that had for over a century yielded a quarter-million ton catches, there remained a biomass of less than 1700 tons and the fisheries department also predicted that, even with an immediate recovery, stocks need at least 15 years before they would be healthy enough to withstand previous levels of fishing. C The devastating fishing came from massive investment poured into constructing huge “draggers”. Draggers haul enormous nets held open by a combination of huge steel plates and heavy chains and rollers that plough the ocean bottom. They drag up anything in the way, inflicting immense damage, destroying critical habitat and contributing to the destabilization of the northern cod Academic Test 4; Page 10 © ieltshelpnow.com

ecosystem. The draggers targeted huge aggregations of cod while they were spawning, a time when the fish population is highly vulnerable to capture. Excessive trawling on spawning stocks became highly disruptive to the spawning process and ecosystem. In addition, the trawling activity resulted in a physical dispersion of eggs leading to a higher fertilization failure. Physical and chemical damage to larvae caused by the trawling action also reduced their chances of survival. These draggers are now banned forever from Canadian waters. D Canadian media often cite excessive fishing by overseas fleets, primarily driven by the capitalist ethic, as the primary cause of the fishing out of the north Atlantic cod stocks. Many nations took fish off the coast of Newfoundland and all used deep-sea trawlers, and many often blatantly exceeded established catch quotas and treaty agreements. There can be little doubt that non North American fishing was a contributing factor in the cod stock collapse, and that the capitalist dynamics that were at work in Canada were all too similar for the foreign vessels and companies. But all of the blame cannot be put there, no matter how easy it is to do, as it does not account for the management of the resources. E Who was to blame? As the exploitation of the Newfoundland fishery was so predominantly guided by the government, we can argue that a fishery is not a private area, as the fisher lacks management rights normally associated with property and common property. The state had appropriated the property, and made all of the management decisions. Fishermen get told who can fish, what they can fish, and essentially, what to do with the fish once it is caught. In this regard then, when a resource such as the Newfoundland fishery collapses, it is more a tragedy of government negligence than a tragedy of the general public. F Following the ‘92 ban on northern cod fishing and most other species, an estimated 30 thousand people that had already lost their jobs after the 1992 Northern Cod moratorium took effect, were joined by an additional 12,000 fishermen and plant workers. With more than forty thousand people out of jobs, Newfoundland became an economic disaster area, as processing plants shut down, and vessels from the smallest dory to the monster draggers were made idle or sold overseas at bargain prices. Several hundred Newfoundland communities were devastated. G Europeans need only look across the North Atlantic to see what could be in store for their cod fishery. In Canada they were too busy with making plans, setting expansive goals, and then allocating fish, and lots of it, instead of making sound business plans to match fishing with the limited availability of the resource. Cod populations in European waters are now so depleted that scientists have recently warned that “all fisheries in this area that target cod should be closed.” The Canadian calamity demonstrates that we now have the technological capability to find and annihilate every commercial fish stock, in any ocean and do irreparable damage to entire ecosystems in the process. In Canada’s case, a two billion dollar recovery bill may only be a part of the total long-term costs. The costs to individuals and desperate communities now deprived of meaningful and sustainable employment is staggering. Academic Test 4; Page 11

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Questions 7 - 10 Choose the appropriate letters A – D and write them in boxes 7 – 10 on your answer sheet. 7

The Canadian government didn’t want to reduce cod catches pre 1992 because they were worried about… A B C D

8

possible rising unemployment the ecological effects the marine ecosystem drastic measures

Which graph most accurately describes Canadian cod catches from 1950 to 1992?

A

B


C

D

9

According to Reading Passage 1, which of the following is now true about the Newfoundland fisheries? A B C D

10

Catches of 1700 tons a year only are permitted. Normal fishing could start again in 2007. No cod fishing is allowed but some other species can be caught. Fishing with draggers will be allowed again in 2007.

Who does the writer blame for the collapse of the Newfoundland cod fishery? A B C D

The Canadian fishing industry. The foreign fishing industry. The Canadian government. The US fishing industry. Academic Test 4; Page 13 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 11 - 14 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading passage on Cod in Trouble? In Boxes 11 - 14 write: YES


NO


NOT GIVEN


11

Disruption of cod breeding was a major factor in the Newfoundland cod disaster.

12

Foreign trawlers frequently broke the catch allowances.

13

There was often conflict between the foreign fishermen and the Canadian authorities.

14

Europe does not face the seriousness of the Canadian disaster.


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 15 - 27


The Rise of Antibiotic-Resistant Infections A When penicillin became widely available during the Second World War, it was a medical miracle, rapidly vanquishing the biggest wartime killer - infected wounds. Discovered initially by a French medical student, Ernest Duchesne, in 1896, and then rediscovered by Scottish physician Alexander Fleming in 1928, Penicillium crippled many types of disease-causing bacteria. But just four years after drug companies began mass-producing penicillin in 1943, microbes began appearing that could resist it. B “There was complacency in the 1980s. The perception was that we had licked the bacterial infection problem. Drug companies weren’t working on new agents. They were concentrating on other areas, such as viral infections,” says Michael Blum, M.D., medical officer in the Food and Drug Administration’s division of anti-infective drug products. “In the meantime, resistance increased to a number of commonly used antibiotics, possibly related to overuse. In the 1990s, we’ve come to a point for certain infections that we don’t have agents available.” C The increased prevalence of antibiotic resistance is an outcome of evolution. Any population of organisms, bacteria included, naturally includes variants with unusual traits - in this case, the ability to withstand an antibiotic’s attack on a microbe. When a person takes an antibiotic, the drug kills the defenceless bacteria, leaving behind - or “selecting,” in biological terms - those that can resist it. These renegade bacteria then multiply, increasing their numbers a million fold in a day, becoming the predominant microorganism. “Whenever antibiotics are used, there is selective pressure for resistance to occur. More and more organisms develop resistance to more and more drugs,” says Joe Cranston, Ph.D., director of the department of drug policy and standards at the American Medical Association in Chicago. D Disease-causing microbes thwart antibiotics by interfering with their mechanism of action. For example, penicillin kills bacteria by attaching to their cell walls, then destroying a key part of the wall. The wall falls apart, and the bacterium dies. Resistant microbes, however, either alter their cell walls so penicillin can’t bind or produce enzymes that dismantle the antibiotic. Antibiotic resistance results from gene action. Bacteria acquire genes conferring resistance in different ways. Bacterial DNA may mutate spontaneously. Drug-resistant tuberculosis arises this way. Another way is called transformation where one bacterium may take up DNA from another bacterium. Most frightening, however, is resistance acquired from a small circle of DNA called a Academic Test 4; Page 15 © ieltshelpnow.com

plasmid, which can flit from one type of bacterium to another. A single plasmid can provide a slew of different resistances. E Many of us have come to take antibiotics for granted. A child develops a sore throat or an ear infection, and soon a bottle of pink medicine makes everything better. Linda McCaig, a scientist at the CDC, comments that “many consumers have an expectation that when they’re ill, antibiotics are the answer. Most of the time the illness is viral, and antibiotics are not the answer. This large burden of antibiotics is certainly selecting resistant bacteria.” McCaig and Peter Killeen, a fellow scientist at the CDC, tracked antibiotic use in treating common illnesses. The report cites nearly 6 million antibiotic prescriptions for sinusitis alone in 1985, and nearly 13 million in 1992. Ironically, advances in modern medicine have made more people predisposed to infection. McCaig notes that “there are a number of immunocompromised patients who wouldn’t have survived in earlier times. Radical procedures produce patients who are in difficult shape in the hospital, and there is routine use of antibiotics to prevent infection in these patients.” F There are measures we can take to slow the inevitable resistance. Barbara Murray, M.D., of the University of Texas Medical School at Houston writes that “simple improvements in public health measures can go a long way towards preventing infection”. Such approaches include more frequent hand washing by health-care workers, quick identification and isolation of patients with drug-resistant infections, and improving sewage systems and water purity. Drug manufacturers are also once again becoming interested in developing new antibiotics. The FDA is doing all it can to speed development and availability of new antibiotic drugs. “We can’t identify new agents - that’s the job of the pharmaceutical industry. But once they have identified a promising new drug, what we can do is to meet with the company very early and help design the development plan and clinical trials,” says Blum. In addition, drugs in development can be used for patients with multi-drug-resistant infections on an emergency compassionate use basis for people with AIDS or cancer, for example.” Blum adds. Appropriate prescribing is important. This means that physicians use a narrow spectrum antibiotics - those that target only a few bacterial types - whenever possible, so that resistances can be restricted. “There has been a shift to using costlier, broader spectrum agents. This prescribing trend heightens the resistance problem because more diverse bacteria are being exposed to antibiotics,” writes Killeen. So, while awaiting the next wonder drug, we must appreciate, and use correctly, the ones that we already have. Another problem with antibiotic use is that patients often stop taking the drug too soon, because symptoms improve. However, this merely encourages resistant microbes to proliferate. The infection returns a few weeks later, and this time a different drug must be used to treat it. The conclusion: resistance can be slowed if patients take medications correctly. Source: US Food and Drug Administration


Questions 15 - 21 Match the views (15 – 21) with the people listed below. Write the appropriate letters in boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet. 15

Antibiotics are sometimes used to only prevent infections.

16

Choosing the correct antibiotic for particular infections is important.

17

Today there are some bacterial infections for which we have no effective antibiotic.

18

Untested drugs can be used on terminal patients as a last resort.

19

Resistance develops every time an antibiotic is used.

20

Merely washing hands can have a positive effect.

21

Antibiotics are often impotently used against viruses. PK

Peter Killeen

JC

Joe Cranston

LM

Linda McCaig

MB

Michael Blum

BM

Barbara Murray

Questions 22 - 27 Reading Passage 2 has 6 paragraphs (A - F). Which paragraphs concentrate on the following information? Write the appropriate letters (A - F) in boxes 22 - 27 on your answer sheet. 22

How antibiotic resistance happens.

23

The survival of the fittest bacteria.

24

Factors to consider in solving the antibiotic-resistant bacteria problem.

25

The impact of the discovery of the first antibiotic.

26

The misuse and overuse of antibiotics.

27

The cessation of research into combating bacterial infections. Academic Test 4; Page 17

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READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 on the following pages. Hydroelectric Power Hydroelectric power is America’s leading renewable energy resource. Of all the renewable power sources, it’s the most reliable, efficient, and economical. Water is needed to run a hydroelectric generating unit. It’s held in a reservoir or lake behind a dam, and the force of the water being released from the reservoir through the dam spins the blades of a turbine. The turbine is connected to the generator that produces electricity. After passing through the turbine, the water re-enters the river on the downstream side of the dam. Hydroelectric plants convert the kinetic energy within falling water into electricity. The energy in moving water is produced in the sun, and consequently is continually being renewed. The energy in sunlight evaporates water from the seas and deposits it on land as rain. Land elevation differences result in rainfall runoff, and permit some of the original solar energy to be harnessed as hydroelectric power. Hydroelectric power is at present the earth’s chief renewable electricity source, generating 6% of global energy and about 15% of worldwide electricity. Hydroelectric power in Canada is plentiful and provides 60% of their electrical requirements. Usually regarded as an inexpensive and clean source of electricity, most big hydroelectric projects being planned today are facing a great deal of hostility from environmental groups and local people. The earliest recorded use of water power was a clock, constructed around 250 BC. Since then, people have used falling water to supply power for grain and saw mills, as well as a host of other uses. The earliest use of flowing water to generate electricity was a waterwheel on the Fox River in Wisconsin in 1882. The first hydroelectric power plants were much more dependable and efficient than the plants of the day that were fired by fossil fuels. This led to a rise in number of small to medium sized hydroelectric generating plants located wherever there was an adequate supply of falling water and a need for electricity. As demand for electricity soared in the middle years of the 20th century, and the effectiveness of coal and oil power plants improved, small hydro plants became less popular. The majority of new hydroelectric developments were focused on giant megaprojects. Hydroelectric plants harness energy by passing flowing water through a turbine. The water turbine rotation is delivered to a generator, which generates electricity. The quantity of electricity that can be produced at a hydroelectric plant relies upon two variables. These variables are (1) the vertical distance that the water falls, called the “head”, and (2) the flow rate, calculated as volume over time. The amount of electricity that is produced is thus proportional to the head product and the flow rate. So, hydroelectric power stations can normally be separated into two kinds. The most widespread are “high head” plants and usually employ a dam to stock up water at an increased height. They also store water at times of rain and discharge it during dry times. This results in reliable and consistent electricity generation, capable of meeting demand since flow can be rapidly altered. At times of excess electrical system capacity, usually available at night, these plants can also pump water from one reservoir to another at a greater height. When there is Academic Test 4; Page 18 © ieltshelpnow.com

peak electrical demand, the higher reservoir releases water through the turbines to the lower reservoir. “Low head” hydroelectric plants usually exploit heads of just a few meters or less. These types of power station use a weir or low dam to channel water, or no dam at all and merely use the river flow. Unfortunately their electricity production capacity fluctuates with seasonal water flow in a river. Until only recently people believed almost universally that hydroelectric power was an environmentally safe and clean means of generating electricity. Hydroelectric stations do not release any of the usual atmospheric pollutants emitted by power plants fuelled by fossil fuels so they do not add to global warming or acid rain. Nevertheless, recent studies of the larger reservoirs formed behind dams have implied that decomposing, flooded vegetation could give off greenhouse gases equal to those from other electricity sources. The clearest result of hydroelectric dams is the flooding of huge areas of land. The reservoirs built can be exceptionally big and they have often flooded the lands of indigenous peoples and destroyed their way of life. Numerous rare ecosystems are also endangered by hydroelectric power plant development. Damming rivers may also change the quantity and quality of water in the rivers below the dams, as well as stopping fish migrating upstream to spawn. In addition, silt, usually taken downstream to the lower parts of a river, is caught by a dam and so the river downstream loses the silt that should fertilize the river’s flood plains during high water periods. Theoretical global hydroelectric power is approximately four times larger than the amount that has been taken advantage of today. Most of the residual hydro potential left in the world can be found in African and Asian developing countries. Exploiting this resource would involve an investment of billions of dollars, since hydroelectric plants normally have very high building costs. Low head hydro capacity facilities on small scales will probably increase in the future as low head turbine research, and the standardization of turbine production, reduce the costs of low head hydro-electric power production. New systems of control and improvements in turbines could lead in the future to more electricity created from present facilities. In addition, in the 1950’s and 60’s when oil and coal prices were very low, lots of smaller hydroelectric plants were closed down. Future increases in the prices of fuel could lead to these places being renovated.

Academic Test 4; Page 19

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Questions 28 - 32 Read the passage about Hydroelectric Power again and look at the statements below. In boxes 28 - 32 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN

if the information is not given in the passage

28

Canada uses the most hydroelectric power in the world today.

29

An early use of hydroelectric power was in the timber industry.

30

The first hydroelectric power stations were more effective than those using competing energy sources.

31

People have been drowned by the flooding of their traditional territory when reservoirs are created.

32

Nowadays, agriculture below hydroelectric dams is not affected by the change in water flow.



The origin of hydroelectric power is the __________ produced when water obeys the laws of gravity.

34

How far water drops to the turbines in a power station is known as __________.

35

A drawback to low head hydroelectric power stations is that they depend on __________.

36

Derelict hydroelectric power stations could be __________ in the future.

Questions 37 - 40 Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 3, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 37 - 40 on your answer sheet. 37

What proportion of the world’s electricity supply is provided by hydroelectric power?

38

How is the flow rate of a hydroelectic power station quantified?

39

When do high head power plants use surplus electricity to transfer water to a second reservoir?

40

What underwater action can lead to the production of pollution similar to that produced by fossil fuel power stations?


ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 4 WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The charts below give information on UK spending habits for books bought over the internet. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.


WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Many people in the undeveloped world die from diseases that are curable because they can’t afford the medication to treat themselves. Do you believe that drug companies in the developed world should be obliged to make their products available at reduced prices in these undeveloped countries so that people do not die unecessarily. You should write at least 250 words.



Describe the house or flat/apartment in which you live at the moment. Do you think it is better to live in a house or a flat/apartment? What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a garden?

Topic 1 * * * *

Do you visit parks? (Why/Why not?) Do you think parks are important for towns and cities? (Why/Why not?) Do you think that parks should be free or that people should pay to use them? What are some of the disadvantages of parks in a town or city?

Topic 2 * * * *

Parks

Free Time

Do you have much free time in your life? (Why/Why not?) What do you like doing in your free time? What free time activities do you particularly dislike? How much free time do you think a person should have every day?

Section 2 Describe one of your good friends You should say where you met what this person does what things you do together and why you particularly like this person Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

Do you prefer spending time with your family or with your friends? (Why?) Can you compare the activities that you do with your friends and your family? Do you think it is important for your family and friends to like each other? Can you compare the relationships that you have with friends and the ones you have with family?

Topic 2 * * * *

Family and Friends

Living with Friends

Do you live alone, with friends or with family? (Why?) What are some of the advantages of living with friends? What are some of the disadvantages of living with friends? What are some of things that can break a friendship? Academic Test 4; Page 24 © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 5 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 5 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer.

BUS PASS APPLICATION FORM Example

Answer

PASS APPLIED FOR

1 month

NAME

Nathalie (1) ______________________________

ADDRESS

45 (2) ___________________________________ Newlands Adelaide

POSTCODE

(3) _____________________________________

DATE OF BIRTH

(4) 13th May 1982

TEL NUMBER

(4) _____________________________

UNIVERSITY CARD SHOWN

Yes

ZONES REQUIRED

(5) _____________________________________


Questions 6 - 10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer. Adelaide Day Trips on the Bus 1

The MacDonald Nature Park Outward Journey Leaves Length of Journey Return Journey Leaves Things to do/see Bring

2

Pearl Bay Outward Journey Leaves Length of Journey Return Journey Leaves Things to do/see Bring

3

8.00am 2 hours (6) ______________________________________ Walk nature trails + MacDonald River A camera

9.00am (7) ______________________________________ 4.00pm Walk along (8) _____________________ + see view Lie on the beach + swim Swimming gear + a towel

The Huron Gold Mine Outward Journey Leaves Length of Journey Return Journey Leaves Things to do/see Bring

9.30am Half an hour (9) ______________________________________ Go round the museum and tunnels Find some gold!! (10) ______________________________________


SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 16 Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11

The highest point of the bridge is 134m above __________________________________.

12

The two pairs of pylons are made of __________________________________.

13

_______________________________% of the steel for making the bridge came from the UK.

14

800 families from __________________________________ homes were moved without compensation to accomodate the construction of the approaches to the bridge.

15

People _________________________________ was the main cause of death of workers while constructing the bridge.

16

Three __________________________________ were made to mark the opening of the bridge. One is worth several hundred dollars today.


Questions 17 - 20 Which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true about the Sydney Harbour Bridge today? Choose FOUR letters (A - J) and write them in boxes 17 - 20 on your answer sheet.

A

There are no more trams crossing the bridge.

B

There are eight traffic lanes on the bridge.

C

Trains still cross the bridge.

D

People are allowed to walk across the bridge.

E

Buses are allowed to cross the bridge.

F

The Harbour Tunnel has not helped traffic congestion on the bridge.

G

More than 182 000 vehicles cross the bridge daily.

H

Horses can no longer cross the bridge.

I

Bicycles are not allowed to cross the bridge.

J

To go back and forward across the bridge costs $6.



While waiting for Phil, Mel and Laura were _______________________________________.

22

A telephone survey was rejected because it would be ______________________________.

23

A mail survey was rejected because it would _____________________________________.

24

The best number of people to survey would be ___________________________________.

25

If their survey only included 100 people, it would not be ____________________________.

26

The number of people that Laura, Phil and Mel agree to survey was __________________.

27

The number of questions in the survey was agreed to be ___________________________..

Questions 28 - 30 Circle THREE letters A - G. What are the three locations that Laura, Phil and Mel chose for their survey? A

The town square

B

The train station

C

The university cafeteria

D

Dobbins department store

E

The corner of the High Street and College Road

F

The bus station

G

The corner of the High Street and Wilkins Road


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 34 Complete the table below by matching the individual with their role (Questions 31 34) in the lecture on the coelacanth. Write the approprate letters (A - F) on your answer sheet. NB

There are more roles than individuals so you will not need to use them all.

INDIVIDUAL Dr. J.L.B. Smith Marjorie Courtney-Latimer Dr. Mark Erdmann Captain Goosen

ROLE (31) _____________________ (32) _____________________ (33) _____________________ (34) _____________________

ROLES A

Paid fishermen for unidentified finds.

B

Caught a strange looking fish.

C

Contacted scientists in Indonesia.

D

Photographed a coelacanth seen by accident.

E

First recognised the coelacanth for what it was.

F

Bought a specimen of a coelacanth in a market.


Questions 35 - 40 Choose the correct letters A - C. 35

The coelacanth was... A B C

36

The only difference between the Comoros coelacanth and the Sulawesi coelacanth is... A B C

37

of too much clay sediment. conditions where they lived were not favourable for fossilisation. volcanoes are needed for fossilisation.

Scientists had a better understanding of the coelacanth after 1991 because... A B C

40

360 million years ago. 240 million years ago. 80 million years ago.

Modern coelacanths probably left no fossilised remains over the past 80 million years because... A B C

39

their intercranial joint. their paired fins. their colour.

Coelacanths seemed to have their greatest population... A B C

38

well known to Indonesian fishermen. unknown to Indonesian fishermen. a first in the market.

the French government had previously limited study on the Comoros coelacanth. the Comoros were far away and difficult to reach. the Comoros opened an airport.

On the 1991 expedition, scientist studied the coelacanth... A B C

only from fishermen’s specimens. through the windows of their submarine. from diving down.



Questions 1 - 13


Questions 1 - 4 Reading Passage 1 has 5 paragraphs (A – E). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – E. Write the appropriate number (i – viii) in boxes 1 – 4 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iii

i

Climate Conditions

ii

Solutions from the Air

iii

Fire Starters

iv

Battling the Blaze

v

The Lie of the Land

vi

Rain – The Natural Saviour

vii

Fuelling the Flames

viii

Fires and Trees


Wildfires A Wildfires are usually the product of human negligence. Humans start about 90% of wild fires and lightning causes the other 10%. Regular causes for wildfires include arson, camping fires, throwing away cigarettes, burning rubbish, and playing with fireworks or matches. Once begun, wildfires can spread at a rate of up to 23 kph and, as a fire spreads over a landscape, it could undertake a life of its own – doing different things to keep itself going, even creating other blazes by throwing cinders miles away. Three components are necessary to start a fire: oxygen, fuel and heat. These three make up “the fire triangle” and fire fighters frequently talk about this when they are attempting to put out blazes. The theory is that if the fire fighters can remove one of the triangle pillars, they can take control of and eventually put out the fire. B The speed at which wildfires spread depends on the fuel around them. Fuel is any living or dead material that will burn. Types of fuel include anything from trees, underbrush and grassland to houses. The quantity of inflammable material around a fire is known as “the fuel load” and is determined by the amount of available fuel per unit area, usually tons per acre. How dry the fuel is can also influence how fires behave. When the fuel is very dry, it burns much more quickly and forms fires that are much harder to control. Basic fuel characteristics affecting a fire are size and shape, arrangement and moisture, but with wildfires, where fuel usually consists of the same type of material, the main factor influencing ignition time is the ratio of the fuel’s total surface area to its volume. Because the surface area of a twig is not much bigger than its volume, it ignites rapidly. However, a tree’s surface area is much smaller than its volume, so it requires more time to heat up before ignition. C Three weather variables that affect wildfires are temperature, wind and moisture. Temperature directly influences the sparking of wildfires, as heat is one of the three pillars of the fire triangle. Sticks, trees and underbrush on the ground receive heat from the sun, which heats and dries these potential fuels. Higher temperatures allow fuels to ignite and burn more quickly and add to the speed of a wildfire’s spread. Consequently, wildfires tend to rage in the afternoon, during the hottest temperatures. The biggest influence on a wildfire is probably wind and this is also the most unpredictable variable. Winds provide fires with extra oxygen, more dry fuel, and wind also makes wildfires spread more quickly. Fires also create winds of their own that can be up to ten times faster than the ambient wind. Winds can even spread embers that can generate additional fires, an event known as spotting. Winds also change the course of fires, and gusts can take flames into trees, starting a “crown fire”. Humidity and precipitation provide moisture that can slow fires down and reduce their intensity, as it is hard for fuel to ignite if it has high moisture levels. Higher levels of humidity mean fewer wildfires.


D Topography can also hugely influence wildfire behaviour. In contrast to fuel and weather, topography hardly changes over time and can help or hamper the spread of a wildfire. The principal topographical factor relating to wildfires is slope. As a rule, fires move uphill much faster than downhill and the steeper the slope, the quicker fires move. This is because fires move in the same direction of the ambient wind, which generally blows uphill. Moreover, the fire can preheat fuel further uphill as smoke and heat rise in that direction. On the other hand, when the fire reaches the top of a hill, it has to struggle to come back down. E Each year thousands of fire fighters risk their lives in their jobs. Elite fire fighters come in two categories: Hotshots and Smokejumpers. Operating in 20 man units, the key task of hotshots is to construct firebreaks around fires. A firebreak is a strip of land with all potential fuel removed. As their name suggests, smokejumpers jump out of aircraft to reach smaller fires situated in inaccessible regions. They attempt to contain these smaller fires before they turn into bigger ones. As well as constructing firebreaks and putting water and fire retardant on fires, fire fighters also use “backfires”. Backfires are created by fire fighters and burn towards the main fire incinerating any potential fuel in its path. Fire fighters on the ground also receive extensive support from the air with tankers dropping thousands of gallons of water and retardant. Dropped from planes and helicopters, retardant is a red chemical containing phosphate fertilizer, which slows and cools fires. Source: National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration

Questions 5 - 9 Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 2, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 5 - 9 on your answer sheet.

5

Complete the last pillar of the fire triangle. (5) _______________

Δ

heat source

fuel


6

What is measured in tons per acre?

7

When do wildfires burn at their fiercest?

8

What can travel in the wind to create fires at some distance from the initial fire?

9

Name a method using an additional fire that fire fighters use to control wild fires.


The most important factor in how quickly a wildfire catches fire is the surface to volume _____________________.

11

The most significant weather factor to affect wildfires’ actions is _____________________.

12

Fires on the tops of trees are known as _____________________.

13

Wildfires usually travel much faster _____________________ because of the typical direction of prevailing winds.


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 14 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. PROBLEMS WITH WATER Nearly half the world’s population will experience critical water shortages by 2025, according to the United Nations (UN). Wars over access to water are a rising possibility in this century and the main conflicts in Africa during the next 25 years could be over this most precious of commodities, as countries fight for access to scarce resources. “Potential water wars are likely in areas where rivers and lakes are shared by more than one country,” says Mark Evans a UN worker. Evans predicts that “population growth and economic development will lead to nearly one in two people in Africa living in countries facing water scarcity or what is known as ‘water stress’ within 25 years.” Water scarcity is defined as less than 1,000 cubic metres of water available per person per year, while water stress means less than 1,500 cubic metres of water is available per person per year. The report says that by 2025, 12 more African countries will join the 13 that already suffer from water stress or water scarcity. What makes the water issue even more urgent is that demand for water will grow increasingly fast as larger areas are placed under crops and economic development. Evans adds that “the strong possibility that the world is experiencing climate change also adds to this urgency.” How to deal with water shortages is in the forefront of the battle between environmental activists on the one hand and governments and construction firms on the other. At the recent World Summit on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg activists continued their campaign to halt dam construction, while many governments were outraged about a vocal minority thwarting their plans. One of the UN’s eight millennium development goals is to halve the proportion of people without “sustainable” access to safe drinking water by 2015. How to ensure this happens was one of the big issues of the summit. Much of the text on this was already agreed, but one of the unresolved issues in the implementation plan was whether the goal on water would be extended to cover sanitation. The risks posed by water-borne diseases in the absence of sanitation facilities means the two goals are closely related. Only US negotiators have been resisting the extension of goals to include sanitation due to the financial commitment this would entail. However, Evans says the US is about to agree to this extension. This agreement could give the UN a chance to show that in one key area the world development agenda was advanced in Johannesburg. But the UN has said Johannesburg was not about words alone, but implementation. A number of projects and funding initiatives were unveiled at the summit. But implementation is always harder, as South Africa has experienced in its water programme. Graham Bennetts, a water official in the South African government explains: “Since the 1994 elections government has provided easy access to water to 7 million people, but extending this to a further 7 million and ensuring this progress is sustainable is one of South Africa’s foremost implementation challenges.” In South Africa, access to water is defined as 25 litres a person daily, within a distance of 200m from where they live. “Although South Africa’s feat far exceeds the UN millennium goal on water supply, severe constraints on local government capacity make a more rapid expansion difficult,” says Bennetts. For some of those who have only recently been given ready access to water, their gains are under threat as the number of cut-offs by municipalities for non-payment rise, says Liane Greef of the Environmental Monitoring Group. Greef is programme manager for Water Academic Test 5; Page 12 © ieltshelpnow.com

Justice in southern Africa. Those who have their water supply cut off also automatically forfeit their right to 6000 free litres of water for a family a month under South Africa’s “water for all” policy. In the face of continued increases in unemployment, payment for water and other utilities has the potential to fast undo government’s high profile feats in delivery since 1994. It is also the way of ensuring sufficient water supply and its management that will increasingly become a political battleground in South Africa. Water Affairs director-general Mike Muller says South Africa is near the end of its dam-building programme. However, there are big projects proposed elsewhere in southern Africa that could possibly be halted by activists who could bring pressure on funding agencies such as the World Bank. Greef says her group will campaign during the summit against the proposed Skuifraam Dam, which would be built near Franschhoek to supply additional water to Cape Town. Rather than rely on new dam construction, the city should ensure that water is used wisely at all times rather than only in dry spells, Greef says. Another battleground for her group is over the privatisation of water supply, she says. Water supply, she insists, is best handled in the public interest by accountable government. There is increasing hope from advances in technology to deal with water shortages. It is agricultural production which takes up about 90% of water consumed for human purposes, says the UN. To lower agricultural demand for water the Sri Lanka-based International Water Management Institute is researching ways of obtaining “more crop per drop” through the development of drought resistant crops, as well as through better water management techniques. One of the institute’s research sites is the Limpopo River basin. According to the institute’s director-general, Frank Rijsbereman, rice growers in China use a quarter of the water a ton of produce to those in South Africa. The institute hopes the “green revolution” in crop productivity will soon be matched by the “blue revolution” in improving water utilisation in agriculture.

Questions 14 – 21 Match the views (25 – 32) with the people listed below. 14

Water needs to be utilised more prudently by some people.

15

South Africa has almost completed its plans for building dams.

16

Local government has excluded some South African households from getting free water for not meeting their bills.

17

The World Summit in Johannesburg will soon have its aims on hygiene agreed among all participants.

18

Faster development of water supply in South Africa is limited by the facilities of community administrations.

19

Water use is more efficient than in South Africa in some foreign food production.


20

Government should be answerable for water delivery and not private companies.

21

The water question’s importance has been increased due to the risk of global weather temperature rises. MM

Mike Muller

FR

Frank Rijsbereman

ME

Mark Evans

LG

Liane Greef

GB

Graham Bennetts

Questions 22 - 27 Read the passage about problems with water again and look at the statements below. In boxes 22 - 27 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


22

Some African countries are currently at war over water resources.

23

A recent report says by 2025 that 25 African countries will suffer from water scarcity alone.

24

Vocal environment activists were arrested at the World Summit.

25

Questions at the World Summit over including water sanitation have not yet been agreed.

26

The World Summit had many good ideas but had little contribution on how to put the ideas into practice.

27

Plants are being introduced that can flourish with little water. Academic Test 5; Page 14 © ieltshelpnow.com

READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. The History of Papermaking in the United Kingdom The first reference to a paper mill in the United Kingdom was in a book printed by Wynken de Worde in about 1495. This mill belonged to a certain John Tate and was near Hertford. Other early mills included one at Dartford, owned by Sir John Speilman, who was granted special privileges for the collection of rags by Queen Elizabeth and one built in Buckinghamshire before the end of the sixteenth century. During the first half of the seventeenth century, mills were established near Edinburgh, at Cannock Chase in Staffordshire, and several in Buckinghamshire, Oxfordshire and Surrey. The Bank of England has been issuing bank notes since 1694, with simple watermarks in them since at least 1697. Henri de Portal was awarded the contract in December 1724 for producing the Bank of England watermarked bank-note paper at Bere Mill in Hampshire. Portals have retained this contract ever since but production is no longer at Bere Mill. There were two major developments at about the middle of the eighteenth century in the paper industry in the UK. The first was the introduction of the rag engine or hollander, invented in Holland sometime before 1670, which replaced the stamping mills, which had previously been used, for the disintegration of the rags and beating of the pulp. The second was in the design and construction of the mould used for forming the sheet. Early moulds had straight wires sewn down on to the wooden foundation, this produced an irregular surface showing the characteristic “laid” marks, and, when printed on, the ink did not give clear, sharp lines. Baskerville, a Birmingham printer, wanted a smoother paper. James Whatman the Elder developed a woven wire fabric, thus leading to his production of the first woven paper in 1757. Increasing demands for more paper during the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries led to shortages of the rags needed to produce the paper. Part of the problem was that no satisfactory method of bleaching pulp had yet been devised, and so only white rags could be used to produce white paper. Chlorine bleaching was being used by the end of the eighteenth century, but excessive use produced papers that were of poor quality and deteriorated quickly. By 1800 up to 24 million pounds of rags were being used annually, to produce 10,000 tons of paper in England and Wales, and 1000 tons in Scotland, the home market being supplemented by imports, mainly from the continent. Experiments in using other materials, such as sawdust, rye straw, cabbage stumps and spruce wood had been conducted in 1765 by Jacob Christian Schäffer. Similarly, Matthias Koops carried out many experiments on straw and other materials at the Neckinger Mill, Bermondsey around 1800, but it was not until the middle of the nineteenth century that pulp produced using straw or wood was utilised in the production of paper. By 1800 there were 430 (564 in 1821) paper mills in England and Wales (mostly single vat mills), under 50 (74 in 1823) in Scotland and 60 in Ireland, but all the production was by hand and the output was low. The first attempt at a paper machine to mechanise the process was patented in 1799 by Frenchman Nicholas Louis Robert, but it was not a success. However, the drawings were brought to England by John Gamble in 1801 and passed on to the brothers Henry and Sealy Fourdrinier, who financed the engineer Henry Donkin to build Academic Test 5; Page 15 © ieltshelpnow.com

the machine. The first successful machine was installed at Frogmore, Hertfordshire, in 1803. The paper was pressed onto an endless wire cloth, transferred to a continuous felt blanket and then pressed again. Finally it was cut off the reel into sheets and loft dried in the same way as hand made paper. In 1809 John Dickinson patented a machine that that used a wire cloth covered cylinder revolving in a pulp suspension, the water being removed through the centre of the cylinder and the layer of pulp removed from the surface by a felt covered roller (later replaced by a continuous felt passing round a roller). This machine was the forerunner of the present day cylinder mould or vat machine, used mainly for the production of boards. Both these machines produced paper as a wet sheet, which require drying after removal from the machine, but in 1821 T B Crompton patented a method of drying the paper continuously, using a woven fabric to hold the sheet against steam heated drying cylinders. After it had been pressed, the paper was cut into sheets by a cutter fixed at the end of the last cylinder. By the middle of the nineteenth century the pattern for the mechanised production of paper had been set. Subsequent developments concentrated on increasing the size and production of the machines. Similarly, developments in alternative pulps to rags, mainly wood and esparto grass, enabled production increases. Conversely, despite the increase in paper production, there was a decrease, by 1884, in the number of paper mills in England and Wales to 250 and in Ireland to 14 (Scotland increased to 60), production being concentrated into fewer, larger units. Geographical changes also took place as many of the early mills were small and had been situated in rural areas. The change was to larger mills in, or near, urban areas closer to suppliers of the raw materials (esparto mills were generally situated near a port as the raw material was brought in by ship) and the paper markets. Source: Paper Technology March 1999 / British Association of Paper Historians

Questions 28 - 34 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the reading passage on The History of Papermaking in the U.K.? In Boxes 28 - 34 write: YES


NO


NOT GIVEN


28

The printing of paper money in the UK has always been done by the same company.

29

Early paper making in Europe was at its peak in Holland in the 18th century.

30

18th Century developments in moulds led to the improvement of a flatter, more even paper. Academic Test 5; Page 16 © ieltshelpnow.com

31

Chlorine bleaching proved the answer to the need for more white paper in the 18th and 19th centuries.

32

The first mechanised process that had any success still used elements of the hand made paper-making process.

33

Modern paper making machines are still based on John Dickinson’s 1809 patent.

34

The development of bigger mills near larger towns was so that mill owners could take advantage of potential larger workforces.

Questions 35 - 40 Match the events (35 – 40) with the dates (A - G) listed below. Write the appropriate letters in boxes 35 - 40 on your answer sheet. 35

Invention of the rag engine.

36

A new method for drying paper patented.

37

First successful machine for making paper put into production.

38

Manufacture of the first woven paper.

39

Watermarks first used for paper money.

40

The first machine for making paper patented. DATES A

1803

B

1757

C

1821

D

1697

E

1799

F

1670

G

1694



WRITING TASK 1 The diagrams below show how humans and plants interact to produce oxygen and carbon dioxide. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

Plants produce oxygen through photosynthesis.

carbon dioxide, co2, in

Humans and animals produce carbon dioxide by breathing.

sunlight in oxygen, o2, in

carbon dioxide, co2, out

oxygen, o2, out

water, h2o, in


WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. With all the troubles in the world today, money spent on space exploration is a complete waste. The money could be better spent on other things. To what extent do you agree or disagree? You should write at least 250 words.



Tell me a little about your country. What are some of the good things and some of the bad things about living in your country? Where would be your favourite place to live in your country? (Why?)

Topic 1 * * * *

Do you ever go to libraries? (Why/Why not?) Do you think libraries should be free or that people should have to pay to use them? How can we get more people to use libraries? Do you think government money for libraries could be spent on better things?

Topic 2 * * * *

Libraries

Team Sports

Do you play or watch a team sport? (Why/Why not?) Why do you think people like playing or watching team sports? What are some of the disadvantages of playing or watching team sports? How can we encourage younger people to play more sport?

Section 2 Describe a place that you like You should say: where this place is when you first went there what you do or did there and explain why this place is so special for you. Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

What kinds of places in your country are threatened by building or other types of progress? Do you think it is important to preserve historical areas in countries? (Why?) How can governments protect places of interest? What sort of places will be of interest to people in the future?

Topic 2 * * * *

Places of Interest

The Environment

What kinds of pollution problems does your country face? How can ordinary people help fight pollution? Do you think that there should be stricter punishments for people and companies that pollute the environment? What sort of pollution problems do you think the world will face in the future? Academic Test 5; Page 20 © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC PRACTICE LISTENING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

TEST 5

1. 48

1. B

1. Green Street

1. Jacobs

1. Jameson

2. R16 GH7

2. B

2. 7434

2. Rod

2. Forest Avenue

3. 07754 897 432

3. C

3. 1976

3. Highfield

3. 8490

4. PA 365

4. A

4. 06634 982 746

4. NH 87 18 12 C

4. 6249 7152

5. E6

5. B

5. (An addressed) letter

5. Dr. (Kevin) White

5. 1 - 5

6. B*

6. B

6. A˚

6. A

6. 4.30pm

7. D*

7. 34

7. D˚

7. B

7. 1 hour

8. E*

8. $100

8. F˚

8. C

8. The cliffs

9. C

9. Room service

9. Free/nothing

9. A

9. 1.30pm

10. C

10. $9

10. $6 ($60 deposit)

10. B

10. A sweater

11. Student’s Union

11. (About) 6 foot

11. accidents*/ burns*

11. 5 pound fee

11. Mean sea level

12. University Library

12. (A) black leather jacket

12. heart surgery*/ organ transplants*

12. University card

12. Concrete and granite

13. Hall of Residence

13. Fat

13. patients with leukaemia* / cancer*

13. Daily

13. About 79

14. Sports Hall

14. Clean shaven

14. premature babies*

14. Friday(s)

14. 438

15. 2 hours

15. Early 20s

15. Carrying/carry oxygen

15. 6

15. Falling

16. Final exams

16. Increased competition

16. Immune/defence System

16. 1 week

16. (Postage) stamps

17. 6pm

17. Significant number

17. Carrying/carries/carry

17. Computers

17. D˚

18. Vegetarian

18. Environmental groups

18. Outpatients

18. Non-lending section

18. F˚

19. (Fully) insures

19. Mayor

19. 4.30pm

19. Arts

19. G˚

20. £50

20. 30th

20. 17

20. Basement

20. J˚

21. Tuesday

21. Civil engineering

21. Staff

21. Tomorrow

21. Chatting/talking

22. Economics

22. Physics

22. Library

22. Reliability

22. Too expensive

23. free/nothing

23. Delivered furniture/ furniture delivery

23. 2 hours

23. 4000 words

23. Take too long

24. Squash

24. Hotel work

24. In pen

24. E-mail attachment

24. 1000

25. Main sports hall

25. (A very) good reputation

25. Biology

25. Market surveys

25. Statistically significant

26. About 10

26. Hiking/mountaineering

26. Tray

26. Stack system

26. 500

27. Africa and Asia

27. Sandwich

27. Nothing

27. Plagiarism/using their conclusions

27. 5

28. 4000 words

28. 5 exams

28. A

28. Extension

28. A*

29. 30th October

29. 15,000 words minimum

29. B

29. Doctor’s note / certificate

29. D*

30. B

30. June

30. C

30. Mortgage interest rates

30. E*

31. C

31. Dissertations and theses

31. 1964

31. B

31. E

32. B

32. Information societies

32. Fastest average speed

32. B

32. A

33. B

33. Statistical quality

33. 12 seconds

33. A

33. D

34. B

34. Low in cost/cheap

34. Most important stations

34. Seismic detection system

34. B

35. Very calm seas

35. Expensive/the cost

35. All stations

35. Buoys (at sea)

35. A

36. Larger slicks

36. Travelling (around)

36. Centralised power system

36. Offshore landslide

36. C

37. Toxic waste

37. Easy

37. Flimsy

37. No wave/zero feet

37. B

38. Eco-friendly

38. Closed

38. Brake

38. Submarine earthquake

38. B

39. No (discernable) drawbacks/none

39. Panel design

39. Magnetic Induction

39. 26,000 people

39. A

40. Deadline for submission

40. (Completely) anonymous summaries

40. Semiconductor technologies

40. None

40. B

* Answers for qu. 6, 7, + 8: these answers in any order.

˚ Answers for qu. 6, 7, + 8: these answers in any order. * Answers for qu. 11, 12, 13 + 14: any 4 from these answer boxes in any order.

˚ Answers for qu. 17, 18, 19 + 20: these answers in any order * Answers for qu. 28, 29, + 30: these answers in any order © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC PRACTICE READING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET TEST 1

TEST 2

TEST 3

TEST 4

TEST 5

1. A

1. YES

1. C

1. viii

1. vii

2. D

2. NO

2. G

2. vi

2. i

3. B

3. YES

3. F

3. xi

3. v

4. D

4. YES

4. A

4. iii

4. iv

5. B

5. NOT GIVEN

5. E

5. ii

5. Air/oxygen

6. C

6. NOT GIVEN

6. B

6. vii

6. The fuel load

7. A

7. YES

7. YES

7. A

7. In the afternoon

8. B

8. G

8. NOT GIVEN

8. B

8. Embers

9. reptiles

9. E

9. NOT GIVEN

9. B

9. Backfire(s)

10. expanding

10. A

10. YES

10. C

10. Ratio (of fuel)

11. diversity

11. C

11. YES

11. YES

11. The wind

12. behaviour

12. B*

12. NO

12. YES

12. Crown fires

13. success

13. E*

13. YES

13. NOT GIVEN

13. Uphill

14. viii

14. D*

14. NO

14. NO

14. LG

15. i

15. NOT GIVEN

15. NO

15. LC

15. MM

16. x

16. FALSE

16. NO

16. PK

16. LG

17. vii

17. TRUE

17. YES

17. MB

17. ME

18. v

18. NOT GIVEN

18. YES

18. MB

18. GB

19. iii

19. TRUE

19. NOT GIVEN

19. JC

19. FR

20. NO

20. TRUE

20. NOT GIVEN

20. BM

20. LG

21. YES

21. FALSE

21. YES

21. LC

21. ME

22. NO

22. Accepted

22. Clear

22. D

22. NOT GIVEN

23. NOT GIVEN

23. Originating

23. 95%

23. C

23. FALSE

24. NOT GIVEN

24. Ice cores

24. Mouth lining / Skin

24. F

24. NOT GIVEN

25. NOT GIVEN

25. Darkness

25. 10 - 20

25. A

25. TRUE

26. NO

26. Sea

26. None

26. E

26. FALSE

27. YES

27. Unknown

27. D

27. B

27. TRUE

28. AP

28. viii

28. v

28. NOT GIVEN

28. TRUE

29. RH

29. ix

29. viii

29. TRUE

29. NOT GIVEN

30. PJ

30. vi

30. i

30. TRUE

30. TRUE

31. BB

31. xi

31. iii

31. NOT GIVEN

31. FALSE

32. TB

32. i

32. vi

32. FALSE

32. TRUE

33. SB

33. iii

33. TRUE

33. Kinetic energy

33. TRUE

34. PJ

34. Epicarp

34. NG

34. The head

34. FALSE

35. PL

35. Mesocarp

35. FALSE

35. Seasonal water flow

35. F

36. FALSE

36. Endocarp

36. TRUE

36. Renovated

36. C

37. TRUE

37. Wet milled

37. NOT GIVEN

37. 15%

37. A

38. TRUE

38. Overnight

38. Quality assurance program

38. Volume over time

38. B

39. FALSE

39. Raked

39. Breeding females

39. At night

39. D

40. NOT GIVEN

40. The customers’ specifications

40. Venison market project

40. Decomposing flooded vegetation

40. E

* Answers for qu. 12, 13 + 14 in any order

© ieltshelpnow.com

Example Writing Answers for the ieltshelpnow.com Academic Practice Tests Below you will find example writing answers for all the writing questions in the ieltshelpnow.com Academic Practice Tests. Some of these example essays were written by IELTS students and some were written by an IELTS examiner in order to give an example of a good answer. Please refer to the question papers while you are reading these answers so that you understand the question that is being answered. After each of the example answers, an IELTS examiner has written a short commentary analysing the good and bad points of the answer. We hope this will give you an insight into how the writing answers should be written for IELTS Academic module.

Academic Writing Practice Test 1 Task 1 In this report I will describe a bar chart that shows the estimated world illiteracy rates by gender and region for the year 2000. First I will look at male illiteracy for the 6 areas shown. The lowest rates were in Developed Countries, Latin America/Caribbean and East Asia/Oceania with rates of 1% (approximately), 10% and 8% (approximately) respectively. The rates for the next three areas were much higher and quite similar to each other. Sub-Saharan Africa, the Arab States and South Asia had rates of approximately 31%, 29% and 34%. Female illiteracy was much higher relatively in each area except Latin America/Caribbean where it was only slightly higher. The lowest rates for female illiteracy were again Developed Countries, Latin America/Caribbean and East Asia/Oceania with rates of approximately 2%, 12% and 20%. Again the rates for the next three areas were much higher and quite similar to each other. Sub-Saharan Africa, the Arab States and South Asia had rates of approximately 48%, 52% and 56%. This ends my report. (168 words)

Estimated IELTS Writing Band 9

Commentary on the above answer. This letter was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good. The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written which wholly describes the bar chart with appropriate, accurate detail. Because there is not a lot of information on the bar chart, an appropriate amount of detail here would be all the figures for all the areas for males and females. Looking above we see a report has been produced and that all

the detail required is there and it is all accurate. The word limit has also been achieved. This would mean a good task fulfilment band. Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. To start with the structure helps cohesion. There is a small introductory paragraph saying what the report is about and there is a short closing sentence to finish the report. In between there are 2 paragraphs, one for male illiteracy and the second for female illiteracy. This is a good approach to describing this bar chart. The report also has good cohesion linguistically. It is sometimes difficult when writing these types of report with lots of numerical detail to make sure that the reader always understands which detail refers to which relevant item. Here the writer only describes 3 areas at a time and uses respectively to make clear the order. The coherence in the report is also very good. The reader notices bad coherence when he has to stop because he cannot understand what has been written for any reason. This report can be read straight through without stopping. The sentences are short and clear and none of the information is muddled or disorganised. The good grammar, word choices, structure and punctuation all help to giving the report good coherence. This report would get a very good cohesion and coherence band. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The word choices in this report are good. All the vocabulary is clear, used in the right way and spelled correctly. The grammar is also good. All the verb forms are accurate and all the other grammar is correctly used. The report would get a very good Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band.

Task 2 What young people should study at school has long been the subject of intense debate and this is a question that certainly does not have one correct answer. We need to provide young people the best possible chance of doing well at school. In traditional curriculum there is a wide variety of subjects with a mix of academic and nonacademic subjects. In this way a young person is formed with a rounded education. Nonacademic subjects would include sports, cooking, woodwork and metalwork. I believe this is the best form of education. A young person should learn things other than academic subjects. Sport is particularly important. Young people have to learn to love sport so that they can be fit and healthy later in life. If not we will be raising an obese and unfit generation. I totally understand the point of view that education is so important that students must be pushed as hard as possible to achieve their best. It sounds a good idea to only expose the students to academic subjects as then they can spend all of their school hours on studying areas that will get them into university and good jobs later in life. I just feel a more rounded education would produce a better individual. We must remember too that a lot of people, maybe even most people, aren‛t academically minded and would benefit more from a more vocationally based education. Forcing academic studies onto them would lead to failure and the student leaving school too early.

Therefore I agree that although a wholly academic curriculum would suit and benefit some young people, I believe that for most students non-academic subjects are important inclusions still in today‛s syllabuses. (283 words)


This essay was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good. The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. When you look at the above essay, you are first struck by how the it is set out with the paragraphs. Firstly there is a short introduction. Then there are 2 paragraphs that provide the ideas and evidence on both sides of the question of the essay with the writer starting to put forward his point of view. Finally there is a conclusion where the question is answered by the writer with his point of view. The writer examines both sides of the argument and shows that it is not an issue that is black or white. The minimum word limit of 250 words has also been passed so that is not a problem. All these things would lead to a good band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence. Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be structure, linking words, prepositions and agreements. The paragraphing is the first thing that helps the communicative quality. As said above the paragraphing is very good. It splits the essay up into easy-to-read chunks and separates the ideas of the essay into these chunks. The grammar, punctuation and vocabulary are all very good and all the linking words, prepositions and agreements are all correctly used. The Communicative Quality in this essay therefore is very good. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As pointed out in the section above, the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure are very good. All word usage is correctly used and spelt correctly. The grammar is all error free and the punctuation is good. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band would be very good.

Academic Writing Practice Test 2 Task 1 The chart shows unemployed spend their time in many different things. In the morning 19% men do housework with 49% women. In the afternoon this number is only 7% and 21% for housework. 20% of men and 26% of women shop in the morning but only 9% of men and 17% of women shop in the afternoon. For job hunting 22% of men and 16% of women do it

in the morning and 12% of men and 13% of women in the afternoon. 6% of men and 10% of women visiting friends or relatives in the morning and 12% of men and 17% of women do it in the afternoon. These four activities are the most popular. There are others with smaller percentages: gardening, watching TV, reading, decorating, walking, doing nothing or sitting around, staying in bed, visiting town, playing sport and drinking. Drinking is the least popular activity looking at the figures overall with only 2% of men and 1% of women doing it on the morning and 3% of men and 1% of women doing it in the afternoon. (181 words)


IELTS Examiner Commentary This letter was written by a Chinese IELTS student in the middle of an IELTS practice course. The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written which wholly describes the chart with appropriate, accurate detail. In this chart there is a large amount of detail and with only 150 words the examiner would not expect to see every single figure quoted. The examiner would look to find the most important details and a few describing the general trends. Firstly I would not say that this is a great report as there is no introductory or finishing sentence. The report isn’t too bad at all though in terms of detail. It outlines the four most popular activities and specifies the percentage for both men and women for the mornings and the afternoons. The other activities are listed with only the last one having percentages. This, I feel, is an appropriate amount of detail for a report on this chart. It could have been slightly better. The gardening figures for men were quite high and TV was watched a lot in the afternoon. There is also no general comparison between men and women. As far as accuracy goes, all the detail quoted is correct. It’s only a 150 word report though and you can’t put too much detail in. This report would get a reasonably good Task Fulfilment band. Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. Firstly the structure of this report is not good. As pointed out earlier, there is no introductory or finishing sentence. The writing is all in one lump with no paragraphing. Paragraphing can really help cohesion and coherence by allowing the writer to divide up separate parts of the report and so make it easier to read and understand. Apart from that the cohesion isn’t bad. The sentences are short and clear and the progression of ideas is logical following the order of the chart. As a result of the reasonable cohesion, the coherence isn’t too bad either. It’s a bit difficult to read as it’s all 1 paragraph and some expressions are a bit awkward but these are the only things that makes the coherence difficult. This report would get a reasonable cohesion and coherence band. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary in this report isn’t too bad though there are a couple of obvious errors: (in many different things; make housework). The grammar is mostly good though again with some noticeable slips. A lot of the verbs are in the present tense when

describing the past but the chart is from 1982. Verbs describing the chart are fine in the present tenses as the chart exists now (ie: The chart shows – the chart exists in the present so the present simple here is fine). But when referring to the activities in the past, the past tenses must be used (Unemployed spend their time; women shop in the morning – These verbs refer to 1982 so the verbs should be spent and shopped). The is also missed out several times and there is one other verb tense problem from probably copying too much from the chart (6% of men and 10% of women visiting friends). Apart from these areas, the grammar is OK and the report would get a quite good Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band.

Task 2 The animal experimentation is very dificult issue with a lots of people feeling very strongly of it, we are use the animals for the experimentation in diferent way, one of most big problem is for test the cosmetics, the images of animals with things put in there eyes for so we are able to look a bit better make many people very angry. Is it necessary. The companies such as the body shop said that they do not experiment on animals and they produce good cosmetics who make money, I am not agree that making the cosmetics that make our faces better does not mean the animals must suffering in terrible ways, it does not seem moral for me. On the other hand we also use the animals for test the new drugs. Without these new drugs people die and suffer when they need not, some of the people believe that the animals should not suffer and die so that we can avoid it, I am not agree here, these people will change the minds when it is they who are die or one of their children, it is sad that the animals have to suffer for this thing but here I believe that the suffering is justify. Is there alternative to the animal experimentation. I‛m not expert but I dont think so, the monkeys are most near biology animals and without test to them, we cannot sure of affects of the new drugs, we test on humans also but only when we know the drugs not a problem to us, the testing on humans without the tests on the animals could make the tragedies. So in conclusion I do not believe that the animal testing is justify for not esential things but for esential things I believe that there is not choice and it is justify. (307 words)


IELTS Examiner Commentary This essay was written by a Pakistani IELTS student studying in the UK. The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. First of all this essay is not set out as an essay should be. It is all together in one big lump that shows a lack of organisation. Apart from that though the essay is relevant to the question and has good ideas with examples to back them up. This essay would get a quite good band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence. Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. The worst problem affecting the Communicative Quality is the lack of organisation in the structure. The

entire essay is in one big paragraph and the punctuation within the paragraph is poor. There are too many commas and not enough full stops. This makes the reader go from one sentence into another without realising it and the change of meaning from one sentence to another makes the reader have to stop and go back to find out when the change of meaning happened. On top of this the spelling and grammar is often faulty and this makes it difficult for the reader. Connecting language is not used that well either though there is some good usage (On the other hand). So, this essay would not get a good band for Communicative Quality. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The word choices themselves in the essay are not bad at all but their spelling is not that good. As pointed out above the grammar is not good. There are problems with articles (experimentation is highly difficult issue; for the experimentation), tense choice and formation (are use; is justify; must sufering), verb patterns (for test), prepositions (very strongly of it; not a problem to us; test to them), superlatives (most big problem; most near) amongst others. The punctuation is also bad. The writer has used commas mostly instead of full stops and he doesn’t use question marks for his questions. This essay would not get a very good band for Vocabulary and Sentence Structure.

Academic Writing Practice Test 3 Task 1 In this report I am describing 2 charts: a line graph and a pie chart. The line graph show the relationship between age and crime in 2002 and the pie chart show the types of property crime in the UK in 2002. The line graph show that most crime is committed early in the life of most criminal. From birth to age 8 the crime rate is 0%. At 12 year crime is starting to be committed with 2% of 12 year olds doing crimes. At 16 year old there is a huge jump up to a rate of 70% of crimes done by 16 year olds. This is even higher at age 20 with a rate of 80%. After age 20 there is a sharp fall going down to 60% at age 24 and then an even sharper fall to 20% at age 24. From age 28 to 44 there is a slow decline in crime rate to 10%. From age 44 to 60 this decline slows further finishing at 8%. The pie chart split property crime into 4 types. The biggest is violent crime at 46% followed by property crime at 23%. Drug crime is just below at 22% and the smallest is public order crime at 9%. (210 words)


IELTS Examiner Commentary This letter was written by a Thai IELTS student at his college Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or

not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written which wholly describes the chart with appropriate, accurate detail. This question has 2 charts to describe. The line graph has a reasonable amount of detail but the pie chart has only 4 sections to describe. What I would expect for a good report here would be for the report to describe the trend of the line graph well giving the all the detail for the large increases between 12 and 28 years and generalising a bit more from 28 to 60 years. I would expect all 4 sections of the pie chart to be described with the percentages. At first glance the writer has given a proper report with an introduction and the information for the 2 charts being put into separate paragraphs. There is no closing sentence but this is not that important. The report actually follows the outline above on how I would expect a good report for these charts to be. The trend of the line graph is well described with the correct detail and the pie chart’s 4 sections are all described with the detail for each section. There is one small inaccuracy. Age 24 for the line graph is repeated and so 2 separate percentages are quoted for 1 age. The second percentage should have been for age 28. This is just a small slip and not vital. Finally the length is fine. It’s actually quite long but there are no marks taken away for going over the limit. The writer must just be sure that he has given himself enough time to write the Task 2. This report would get quite a good Task Fulfilment band. Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. As pointed out above the structure is good and so helps the cohesion and coherence. There are 2 good introductory sentences and then the information is divided up into 2 clear paragraphs. The writing is not very elegant but by using short sentences the writer avoids referencing problems. These short sentences are the key to this report’s success. In long sentences, the meaning and “thread” of the writing can get lost and confused. Because the writer does not give himself “room” to make these errors, the cohesion and coherence are both quite good. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary of this report isn’t bad. There could be more variety in the second paragraph but the words used to describe the big trend movements are all accurate and appropriate. There are a few mistakes in the grammar. The verb tenses and agreements in the verbs are fairly inaccurate (I am describing; the line graph show; the pie chart show; crimes are done; The pie chart split). There are a couple of missed plurals too (At 12 year crime; at 16 year old) but there is good grammar too with good use of to be and superlatives in the last paragraph. This would get a reasonable Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band.

Task 2 Internet is new thing. When I was young, it was no internet. But now everybody has computer and everybody can find what they want on internet like news, football, money, wether. Nowaday we can also find newspaper on internet. I think this is good ting. If you want in the morning you can go shopping and buy newspaper at shop. This is easy and no expensive. Then you have newspaper all the day. You can read when you want. But on internet you can also read when you want and it no cost nothing more. So, why spend money on newspaper in shop when you can see newspaper when you want on computer and no spend money. It is very

easy. However you can no take computer when you want. You can no take computer to beach and read newspaper. You can no take computer on bus and train and plane to read newspaper. Then it is better to take newspaper. Me I prefer to buy newspaper in shop so then I can read newspaper when I like. So some people like read newspaper on computer and this is OK but I think that the world always need newspaper on paper as well. Newspaper will no become a thing of the past. (212 words)


IELTS Examiner Commentary This essay was written by a Korean IELTS student doing an IELTS preparation course. The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. The main problem with this essay is the length. If an essay for the Academic Writing Task 2 does not equal or exceed 250 words the essay will be penalised on Arguments, Ideas and Evidence. The maximum band that can be awarded in this area for under length essays is 5 though it can be lower. The essay is also not set out as an essay. All the writing is one big chunk. So, the writer has not really produced an “essay”. It is not a thought out piece of writing. As far as content is concerned the writer has made a reasonable attempt to answer the question though he has been a bit repetitive. There are a couple of examples to back up the ideas but really the essay needs more ideas and examples to get a good band. So the Arguments, Ideas and Evidence band would not be very good for this essay. Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. Other things affecting communication would be structure, linking words, prepositions and agreements. As pointed out above the structure is bad and this does not help the Communicative Quality. Essays that are set out in easy-to-read paragraphs are much easier to understand for a reader. The punctuation and vocabulary are fine here but the grammar is not very good. The linking words however are quite well used (But; Then; So; However; etc…) and this helps the Communicative Quality a lot. The Communicative Quality band here would therefore be not too good but not too bad either. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The Vocabulary choices are not too bad in this essay though the spelling is not very good. Any minor errors in word choice are still understandable. Grammar is fairly weak. Articles throughout are not well used and verbs are often faulty. Negatives and plurals are not good in this essay. The Sentence Structure band for this essay wouldn’t be very good.

Academic Writing Practice Test 4 Task 1 On graph on 1997 11 million dollar is sell on intrnet, on 1998 is small ris to16 million dollar, on 1999 is mor ris to 19 million dollar, on 2000 rise is mor smal 22 million dollar. The 2001 21 million dollar and 2002 24 million dollar. 1997 to 2003 is ris 13 million dollar. On chart is 4 parts most big is englnd 81% books bought on internet, next scotland 10% next wales 8%, last is northern ireland 1%. This mean that mor money is spend in england on books on intrnet. (92 words)


IELTS Examiner Commentary This report was written by an Indian lady on an IELTS preparation course. The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Task Fulfilment This mark grades you basically on whether you have answered the question or not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written which wholly describes the chart with appropriate, accurate detail. The first thing that one notices is that the report is considerably under length. By not writing the required 150 words the writer is not answering the question and so is penalised under Task Fulfilment. If fewer than 150 words are produced then only a maximum band of 5 (less than 5 can also be given) can be awarded for Task Fulfilment. Apart from that the writer has made an attempt to describe the two charts. Unfortunately some of the detail that is included is inaccurate. The 2001 figure from the line graph is wrong and the writer has also mixed up two of the sections of the pie chart: Scotland is quoted at 10% and Wales at 8%. The financial detail given in the report is also all given in dollars while the graph gives the detail in pounds sterling. Because of all these errors this report cannot get a very good Task Fulfilment band. Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. Cohesion isn’t too bad in the report. There is so little writing that there is not much to join together. The writing consists of short sentences that are not elegantly put together. There aren’t many cohesion errors but there is little style in the writing. The coherence is very problematic. The lack of punctuation allows the sentences to run into each other and it is difficult for the reader to know when one sentence ends and the next begins. This with the big grammar and spelling errors make it very difficult to understand and read quickly. This report would get a poor Cohesion and Coherence band. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary in the report is very limited in range but there are no very bad word choices. The grammar in this report is terrible. Most of the verb forms are inaccurate, there are inaccurate prepositions, plurals are missing, articles are missing, the verb to be is often missing and comparatives and superlatives are inaccurate. The problem with the punctuation is that there seem to be commas instead of full stops in many places. The Vocabulary

and Sentence Structure band would be very poor for this report. The above report is useful as an illustration of how a bad report is written. Below you will find a good version written by an IELTS examiner answering the same question. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good. In this report I am going to describe 2 charts. The first is a line graph that records the amount of money (in pounds sterling) spent on books on the internet in the UK from 1997 to 2002. In 1997 £11 million were spent. This rises by £5 million by 1998. The increase in money spent then rises less rapidly through 1999 (£19 million), 2000 (£22 million) and 2001 (£23 million) until 2002 when £24 million were spent. This gives a total increase from 1997 to 2002 of £13 million. The second is a pie chart that shows the relative percentages of books bought on the internet in the UK individual countries. England is where by the far the most books are bought with 81% of the market. Wales comes next with 10% closely followed by Scotland with 8%. Northern Ireland lies last with only 1% of the market. This ends my report. (153 words)


Task 2 Last 150 year the medecine make too much important cure for bad diseaze. Now you no hear of people dying of colere, tubercule or other killer. It is because the medecine to stop it is no expinsive and easily to find. Nowaday we have other diseaze for fight against for example the AIDS and the cancer. The drugs are use to treat this diseazes and slow there affects can be find in west but in more poor countrys the people cannot pay it so people are die for no reazon. I think drug companys should be obliged to make there products at smal prices in poor countrys or allow cheaper one to be made in those countrys. They are still make the mony and nevertheless they are make more of mony if many of people buys cheap copies rather than no one buying the expinsive one. Anyway if they dont, companys in the mor poor countrys will produce the copies anyway. In Inde many drugs are copy and sell ilegal. The people from more rich countrys go to there for buy the drugs they want with a more cheap price. Some drug companys have promissed that they will give the drugs at a more cheap price. A company promised for example anti AIDS drugs to South Africe. Nowaday it seems the promises are just the words in the air and no action or drugs go to the millions of AIDS sufferers there. Therefor I am really believe that drugs companys should give the low cost drugs to mor poor countrys. It is a question of people die just to help the business dollar. It is imoral and indefendable no matter what companys say about there busines interests. (284 words)


IELTS Examiner Commentary This essay was written by a Japanese IELTS student studying in the UK. The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. The structure with the one big paragraph and short conclusion means this is not set out as a proper essay should be. The content though is mainly directed at the question and has examples to back up the ideas. In the conclusion the writer draws on his essay to give his opinion and fully answers the question. The band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence will be quite good though the structure does spoil it a bit. Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. The Communicative Quality here is not that good. The structure does not help, with most of the writing being grouped in one paragraph. In addition to this the grammar and spelling are all quite poor and this makes reading the essay not as easy as it should be. Some of the sentences, expressions and vocabulary are a bit awkward too. This would lead to a middling Communicative Quality band. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. As stated above the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure are quite weak. The actual vocabulary choices are not too bad but a lot of the spelling is not very good (medicine; disease; colere; tubercole; expinsive; affects; mony etc.). There are actual vocabulary mistakes as well though (more of money; Inde; indefendable). With grammar the article use is often faulty (Last 150 year the medicine), plurals are sometimes wrong (countrys; companys; other killer; etc.) and verbs are at times wrong in tense choice and form (the medicine make; are use; can be find; are die; They are still make; etc.). Some negatives are wrongly expressed (Now you no hear; it is no expensive). There are other grammar weaknesses: pronouns (there affects; there products; there business interests;), comparatives (more poor countrys; more rich countrys), prepositions (go to there; with a more cheap price), the infinitive of purpose (for fight; for buy;) and adjectives/adverbs (and easily to find; this diseases; and sell ilegal). Some of the errors seem to come from the writer’s first language. There is though some good grammar in the essay and a lot of the vocabulary is well chosen. However there are really too many errors to get a good band for Vocabulary and Sentence Structure.

Academic Writing Practice Test 5 Task 1 In this report I am going to describe the process that occurs when plants and human beings create oxygen and carbon dioxide. Plants make oxygen through photosynthesis. To do this plants need certain things. Firstly they take in water through their roots from the earth below. Secondly they take in carbon

dioxide from the air around them. Thirdly they absorb sunlight from the sun above. With these three things plants are able to produce oxygen through photosynthesis. Humans and animals perform an opposite process. Humans and animals take oxygen into their lungs through breathing. When humans and animals exhale they breathe out carbon dioxide. So plants, humans and animals provide services for each other. Humans and animals need the oxygen that plants produce in order to stay alive. When humans and animals breathe out, they provide the carbon dioxide that plants need in order to survive. This ends my report. (150 words)


Commentary on the above answer. This report was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good. The Academic Task 1 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Task Fulfilment This mark grades you on basically on whether you have answered the question or not. To answer this question correctly the examiner looks to see whether a report has been written which wholly describes the pictures representing the process. Looking at the above, the report is over the 150 word limit and completely summarises the process with nothing left out. The report would get a good Task Fulfilment band. Cohesion and Coherence These two are interrelated which is why they are done together. Cohesion is how your writing fits together. Does your writing with its ideas and content flow logically? Coherence is how you are making yourself understood and whether the reader of your writing understands what you are saying. The cohesion is very good. The introductory sentence explains what the report is about. The second paragraph uses firstly, secondly and thirdly to show clearly the stages of the process in the left hand picture. The second paragraph explains the right hand picture and the final longer paragraph comments on the significance of the process. Linguistically the cohesion is good too. This leads in turn to good coherence. There are no ambiguities in the language and the whole report can be read quickly with no problems. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. The vocabulary is good in the report. The descriptive language and the technical language are all used correctly. The grammar is also good. The present simple is used accurately throughout to describe the process and all other grammar areas are correct.

Task 2 It is true that vast amounts are spent on space exploration for apparently little gain while people suffer from terrible poverty around the world. Supporters of space programs say that space exploration has brought inventions to the world

that we would not have had. The famous example is non-stick pans! Supporters also point out that it is in human nature to strive to discover the unknown and that we can progress in all ways by unlocking the secrets of the stars. These are all valid points. On the other hand how can we as human beings justify the billions of dollars spent sending people into space so we can have non-stick pans while millions of people around the world are dying of disease and famine? With the money spent on space exploration, wells could be dug, farmland could be developed, medicine could be bought, schools and colleges could be built, and teachers, doctors and nurses could be trained. Even if we could justify money on exploration, wouldn‛t it be better to spend the money on exploring the sea on our own planet that could offer enough food to provide for the entire world? From what I have said in this essay it would seem that I would agree that money should be spent on better things than space exploration. However, this is not the case. I understand all the reasons for spending money on better things but I also strongly believe that it is necessary that the human race should continually strive to develop our technology and broaden our horizons. The money in the long run is well spent on space exploration. (272 words)


This essay was written by an IELTS examiner to give an example of a good answer. Please remember that there are other ways of approaching this question that are just as good. The Academic Task 2 Writing is marked in 3 areas. Let’s look at these. Arguments, Ideas and Evidence This band grades the essay on its content, how it structures its ideas and backs up the ideas with examples. This essay is structured well. There is a short introductory paragraph followed by the body of the essay in two paragraphs which examine both sides of the question. Finally the opinion of the writer is given in the conclusion with his justification. There are plenty of ideas backed up with relevant examples. All these factors would lead to an excellent band for Arguments, Ideas and Evidence. Communicative Quality This mark grades the candidate on how easily the reader understands the essay. This depends on accuracy in structure, grammar, punctuation and vocabulary, as bad grammar, punctuation and vocabulary will cause a breakdown in communication. The communicative quality of this essay is excellent. Because there is no inaccuracy in the factors mentioned that affect communication, the reader can get through the essay without having to stop. This essay would get an excellent band for Communicative Quality. Vocabulary and Sentence Structure With Vocabulary the examiner looks at the range of words used and whether they are used in the right place and at the right time. With Sentence Structure, the examiner looks at the grammar. In this essay the Vocabulary and Sentence Structure are very good. All word usage is correctly used and spelt correctly. The grammar is all error free and the punctuation is good. The Vocabulary and Sentence Structure band for this essay would therefore be very good.

Commentary on the Example Speaking Recordings for the ieltshelpnow.com Academic Practice Tests Below you will find reports by an IELTS speaking examiner on three recordings of example IELTS test interviews. The questions asked in the recordings are the questions in the Speaking Test sections of ieltshelpnow.com Academic Tests 1, 2 and 3. While listening to the recordings, it would be helpful for you to have the question sheets with you to refer to. The recordings are not real IELTS test recordings but the interviewer is a real IELTS examiner and the recordings are conducted in the exact way that an IELTS Speaking Test is done. The students interviewed were IELTS students who were doing an IELTS preparation course in the UK. The reports on each interview were written by the IELTS examiner who conducted the interviews. The examiner has tried to analyse the strong and weak parts of each of the students and this will give you a better understanding into how give a better performance in the IELTS Speaking Test. To further help you, if you have not done so already, please look at the right hand side of the ieltshelpnow.com Home Page where you will find a series of free Academic Test Tutorials including Speaking. Here you will find advice on how to do and prepare for the IELTS Speaking Test.

Speaking Practice Test 1 Examiner’s Commentary The student interviewed was Ilaria, an Italian female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. Let’s first look at the each of these sections in turn to identify the strong points as well as the weaknesses. Section 1 Ilaria was very confident and gave full answers to all the questions. It started well when Ilaria gave a very full answer to the first question about her family and, without being prompted, went on to talk about where her family lived as well. This kind of full answer going further than the question asks is a good sign that the student is comfortable in English and can talk with easy fluency. The rest of Section 1 went equally well. Ilaria was not sporty so the questions from Topic 1 on Health and Exercise could not have suited her that well. In spite of this Ilaria gave full answers to all the questions. This is important as Ilaria showed that she could speak capably on a subject about which she knew little and had little interest in. On the other hand in Topic 2 Ilaria showed the examiner that she could answer the questions at length in English. Because of this Ilaria only needed 2 questions to be asked in Topic 2. Also in reply to the second question in Topic 2, Ilaria answers Yes, absolutely and then goes on to explain her answer without the need for the examiner to have to ask Why. This is often a good sign of a good, fluent candidate. Section 1 was very well answered by Ilaria and I do not feel that there were any bad points. Section 2 Ilaria continued with the same fluency as Section 1. The examiner allowed Ilaria to talk for the full 2 minutes and she had no problem doing this. Not all IELTS interviews are this long but it is always

up to the examiner to decide the length of the interview and not the candidate. Ilaria hardly took any of the one available minute for preparation. This is absolutely no problem. It is wholly up to the candidate to decide to take all or part of the minute. It does not affect the marking of the test in any way. However, the longer that a student has to prepare the talk, then the easier it will probably be for the student to speak well. Therefore I would always advise candidates to take advantage of the full minute. Ilaria does not talk that fast, says erm quite a lot and has frequent, short hesitations. None of these is a problem. It is not a mistake to speak slowly. Indeed, if candidates talk slowly, then they are less likely to make any fluency, grammatical or vocabulary errors and subsequently are more confident and comfortable. The hesitations and erms are only normal features of someone who has to talk for 2 minutes on a quickly prepared subject. Ilaria talked with some fluency on the subject in the question and covered the areas that the question asked to be talked about with detail and relevant examples. Finally the examiner asked a question to finish off Section 2. Ilaria gave a short answer to this and that is all that is required. This Section 2 is shorter than a lot of others but this is because Ilaria did not use the minute available for preparation. Again there are no bad parts in this section. Section 3 In Topic 1 Ilaria’s answers were not as full as earlier. She does say though often that she didn’t know much about the subject. Despite this she still managed full answers to all the questions. However, as long as a student answers each question to some extent, the student can then wait for the question(s) that they can really take advantage of and speak longer about. Then in Topic 2 she had more to say and spoke at greater length in reply to the questions. So, although some answers were shorter than others, there are no bad parts to Section 3. Marking The marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates this student. Pronunciation Ilaria’s pronunciation of English is excellent which allows her to be easily understood at all times. There is a trace of an accent in her English but this does not interfere with intelligibility at any time. Grammatical Range and Accuracy Ilaria accurately and appropriately uses a wide range of grammatical structures. Lexical Resource There is the occasional slightly inappropriate word choice but this does not happen very often and it does not affect the listener’s understanding. Fluency and Coherence Ilaria’s fluency and coherence is very good. Ilaria’s language is appropriate and the joining language is all correctly used. Ilaria’s answers to questions are logically developed and there is little repetition or self-correction.

Estimated IELTS Speaking Band:

9

Speaking Practice Test 2 Examiner’s Commentary The student interviewed was Sandra, a Colombian female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. First of all let’s look at each of these sections in turn to identify the strong and weak parts of the interview. Section 1 Sandra was a little bit nervous and not very confident in her speech. She answered all the questions but some of the questions, particularly in Topic 2, could have been longer and better developed. Most people find that Section 1 of the IELTS Speaking Test is the easiest section and therefore students should take the opportunity to talk as long and as fully as they can while the questions are at their simplest. For example, the examiner asks Sandra about the advantages and disadvantages of living in her area. She talks about the climate as an advantage, which is good, and then mentions that her area is near other good places but she does not talk more about this. She could talk about other good things regarding her area and she did not even mention one disadvantage. This was wasting an opportunity. On the other hand she answered most of the questions quite well and this was certainly no disaster. Section 2 In Section 2 Sandra managed to get over the one minute mark without any problems but it appeared as though it would have been hard for her to go any longer than she did. Like Ilaria in the recording for the Academic Speaking Test 1, Sandra did not make use of the one minute preparation time. It sounds as though the examiner got her started early but it was Sandra who indicated that she was ready to begin. By not taking the time to make notes on each part of the question, Sandra’s talk was a bit disjointed and lost coherence at times. Here is an example where using the one minute preparation time would have had great benefit. On the other hand Sandra did manage to answer most parts of the question. Looking at her actual speaking, Sandra often had long hesitations as she searched for things to say and to connect her ideas. The connections were not always clear and she shifted subject a couple of times in one sentence. If she could have finished each of the sentences by developing the subjects of each sentence and then change the subject coherently, it would have been a much better talk. Again, preparation would have benefited her. She did not lose marks for not preparing but the lack of coherence in her talk that the lack of preparation caused affected her score. Section 3 Section 3 started very well with Sandra giving long and full answers to the questions in Topic 1. In Topic 2 however the answers were not as long and could have been better developed, speaking about the subjects in more depth. For example the last question was not really answered properly at all with Sandra only saying that holidays would change by having more amenities. If Topic 2 could have been answered as fully as Topic 1 then she would have made a much better

impression. Marking The Marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates this student. Pronunciation Sandra’s pronunciation was not that clear. There were areas where there were no problems but there were also times when her strong accent, intonation and stress problems caused difficulties for the listener. Grammatical Range and Accuracy Sandra’s grammar was often faulty. Sandra’s basic sentences were controlled fairly well but more complex grammar often broke down. There were lots of mistakes scattered throughout her speech as well, some of them quite basic. Lexical Resource Sandra’s vocabulary was good enough to discuss familiar and unfamiliar topics but she had limited flexibility. There were quite a few pauses where she had to stop to search for the right word and not always with success. Fluency and Coherence Sandra’s fluency and coherence was sometimes quite good and she showed the ability to talk independently and at some length to questions. On areas that she was not so sure about though her fluency and coherence sometimes broke down and this led to quite a lot of hesitation and a bit of repetition. Estimated IELTS Speaking Band:

5

Speaking Practice Test 3 Examiner’s Commentary The student interviewed was Tina, a Chinese female. The Speaking Test is in three sections. First of all let’s look at the each of these sections in turn to identify the strong and weak parts of the interview. Section 1 Tina was a bit nervous and hesitant at the start but she gave full answers that addressed the questions. She talked quite slowly but that is no problem. In fact talking slowly allowed Tina to consider what she was saying and so she was less likely to make grammar mistakes and lose control of her coherence. The fact that Tina did not need all the questions from Section 1 to finish

the section shows how well and fully she answered the questions. Section 2 Tina is lucky as she says she is interested in this topic and so she finds it easy to talk about. Candidates in IELTS are not allowed to ask for a change in topic so, if you are given a topic you know little about, you will just have to do the best you can. The topics are all of general interest and anyone should be able to talk about the topics for 2 minutes. The first important thing in this interview was that Tina took full advantage of the 1 minute preparation time. This allowed Tina to make notes on all parts of the question. At one point at the end of her talk Tina had finished a sentence and did not know how to continue. She checked her notes and saw that she had written something about how often she went to the restaurant. Therefore, after the short gap to check her notes (which is fine) she was able to continue confidently with her talk. This shows the value of using the 1 minute preparation time and making the notes on the paper provided. In Section 2 Tina again spoke quite slowly and, as pointed out above, there is nothing wrong with this. Sometimes though she was a bit overly hesitant and stopped in the middle of sentences which affected the fluency of the talk a little. On the other hand, Tina covered the areas required in the question and talked without any problems until the examiner asked her to stop. Section 3 Tina continued to give reasonable answers in Section 3. Where she sometimes went wrong was in trying to say too much. Occasionally she finished a sentence but wanted to continue in order to make a better impression. This is good of course but only if you have more to say. If you have no further ideas and you try to carry on, there will most likely be a lot of hesitations and eventually repetition of ideas. This is what happened sometimes to Tina. If you have no further ideas, it is better to stop with the good things that you have already said and wait for a new question. Nevertheless Tina had a lot of good things to say though she was more hesitant and had more breakdowns in fluency and accuracy due to the more complicated nature of the questions. She often hesitated at the start of answering questions while she thought momentarily about her answer. This is fine. The examiner does not expect everyone to be able to answer every question instantly without thinking for a short time. Marking The Marking of the IELTS Speaking Test is done in 4 parts. Below is how the examiner evaluates this student. Pronunciation Tina’s pronunciation was fairly clear. Most of her speech was easily understood and, although she has a Chinese accent, this does not interfere too much with the listener’s comprehension. Grammatical Range and Accuracy Tina’s grammar was often good but there were basic errors as well. The errors became more frequent in Section 3 as the questions became more demanding and the language became more complicated to answer them.

Lexical Resource Tina used quite a variety of vocabulary. It was easily sufficient to cope with familiar topics and some unfamiliar topics and, although sometimes she did not know the right word, she could come up with an acceptable alternative and attempted to paraphrase quite successfully. Fluency and Coherence Tina’s fluency and coherence was fine in Section 1 and parts of Section 2 but as the questions and language became more demanding, her speech broke down from time to time and hesitancy came in. However, she showed the ability to talk at length and clearly answered the questions asked her. Estimated IELTS Speaking Band:

6

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 6 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 6 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 3 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

DRURY’S ELECTRICAL STORE WORK FORM

Example

Answer

Customer’s Name

Phillipa Hutton

Address Postcode

13 Glen Avenue Westley (1) ____________________

Home Tel.

01748 524965

Mobile Tel.

(2) ____________________

Customer Receipt

Yes / No

Date of Repair Enquiry

(3) ____________________

Job Number

J25

Problem

New TV doesn’t work


Questions 4 and 5 Circle the correct letter A - D. 4

5

Which room did Jane want to use the new television? A

The dining room

B

The kitchen

C

The bedroom

D

The study

What will Jane do while the man is looking at her new television? A

She’ll wait in the shop

B

She’ll come back tomorrow

C

She’ll go shopping and come back in half an hour

D

She’ll go shopping and come back in an hour

Questions 6 - 10

Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 6

What was the problem with the television? _________________________________________________________________________

7

What day is Jane’s nephew’s birthday next week? _________________________________________________________________________

8

How old will Jane’s nephew be next week? _________________________________________________________________________

9

What does Jane think her nephew would like for his birthday? _________________________________________________________________________

10

What time will Jane go back to the shop tomorrow? _________________________________________________________________________ Academic Test 6; Page 2

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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 15 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 11

Who has organised the safety talk?

12

What crime is most common amongst students?

13

Where does PC Fair suggest that students can hide their belongings?

14

What should you take with you when you visit an insurance broker about your belongings?

15

What does PC Fair say that you can use to mark your property?

Questions 16 - 20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. UNI. SAFETY TALK At Home DOORS:

Lock front door & ask (16) ____________________ to put lock on bedroom door. Fit chain and keep it fastened while at home.

WINDOWS Lock windows, install extra locks and (17) ____________________ 24 hours. If frightened, tell someone in hall, (18) ____________________ at the Union or go to the police. Going Home * * * *

Walking home - stay in (19) ____________________ with good light + don’t be alone. 2 late regular night minibuses - priority for women. Taxi better than walking - licensed taxis only and from rank. Keep mobile with you with trusted taxi number inside.

***

Most Important Thing -

(20) ____________________. Academic Test 6; Page 3

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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 26 Circle the correct letter A - C. 21

What is Rachel’s extended essay about? A B C

22

What did Rachel mainly use to help her with her essay? A B C

23

The introduction The middle The conclusion

Which part of Rachel’s essay does Dr. Jones most want Rachel to change? A B C

26

Happy Quite happy Not happy

Which part of Rachel’s extended essay did Dr. Jones like best? A B C

25

A book The internet Magazines

How does Rachel feel about her essay at the moment? A B C

24

Hospitals Factories Towns

The statistics tables The statistics analysis The bibliography

By when does Rachel’s essay have to be finally given in? A B C

21th April 24th April 28th April


Questions 27 - 30 Complete Dr. Jones’ notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Books for Rachel’s Presentation on the Reform Act Book

Author

Where to get it

Great 19th Century Reform

Mark Needham

(27) _________ in library

Article in “History Monthly”

Jim Wood

(28) _________ in library

(29) _________

Rob Jenkins

Inter Library Loan

Reform and the Nineteenth Century

(30) _________

From me


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 36 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

31

Where did garlic originally come from?

____________________________________________________________________________ 32

What time of year does garlic begin its growth cycle?

____________________________________________________________________________ 33

What, along with its small leaves, is the key to garlic’s survival in harsh climates?

____________________________________________________________________________ 34

According to an ancient Egyptian record, how many sicknesses can garlic be used to treat?

____________________________________________________________________________ 35

In ancient Egypt, how much garlic could buy you a good slave?

____________________________________________________________________________ 36

What did Europeans in the Middle Ages believe garlic could help stop?

____________________________________________________________________________


Questions 37 - 40 Complete the summary below of the second half of the food science lecture on garlic. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Today investigations into garlic have shown that it can help cure and prevent many diseases as it boosts the (37) _______________. During World War 2 it was even used as (38) _______________ when other drugs were not available.

Although expert opinion differs on many aspects of garlic use, it is agreed that using (39) _______________ is the best form. This contains the most “allicin”, a compound that is efficient at killing many types of bacteria and, when heated, has beneficial effects in the blood. Indian doctors have recently shown its help in preventing such ailments as arteriosclerosis, thrombosis and (40) _______________.



Questions 1 - 14

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. Amber - Frozen Moments in Time Amber has a deep fascination both for ordinary people as a gem and for the scientist for whom it provides a glimpse into the past, a window into history. The majority of amber which has been discovered and studied originates in the Cenzoic Era. The earlier Mesozoic which consists of the Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic periods has also produced amber but in smaller and scarcer quantities due to its much older age. One of the problems associated with Mesozoic amber is the level of degradation it undergoes. Ancient fossil resin can be badly affected by oxidation, erosion, excessive heat and pressure. Amber begins as resin exuded from trees millions of years ago possibly to protect themselves against fungal or insect attack or as a by-product of some form of growth process. Most known deposits of amber come from various tree species which are now extinct. Baltic amber was produced by a giant tree called Pinites succinifer, a tree sharing many characteristics of the currently living genus Pseudolarix. The true reason for this resin discharge from various species of trees is not fully understood. Scientists have theorised that it also could be a form of desiccation control, an aid to attract insect pollinators or even a reaction to storm or weather damage. The resin from the trees needs to go through a number of stages in order to become amber. The first stage involves the slow cross chain linking of the molecular structure within the resin, a kind of polymerisation. This makes the resin hard but easily broken compared to its original state of being soft and plastic. Once it is in this state, the resin can be called copal. Following the polymerisation the next stage is the evaporation of volatile oils inside the copal. The oils, called turpenes, slowly permeate out of the amber. This second stage may take millions of years before the process turns the copal into something approaching the structure of amber. It is speculated that either one or both of these stages in the formation of amber must take place in an anaerobic environment or it may have to sustain a period of immersion in sea water. Amber which is exposed to air for several years undergoes oxidation which causes a distinct darkening and crusting of the gem’s surface producing over many years tiny splinters and shards. The chemical structure of amber is not consistent, not even within a single fragment, let alone a single deposit. Consequently numerous chemical formulas have been attributed to it. The reason for this wide variation is simply because amber is not a true mineral; it is an organic plastic with variable mixtures. Some aspects of amber are fairly consistent though. On Moh’s scale of hardness it lies between 2 and 2.5. It has a refraction index of 1.54 and a melting point between 150 - 180oC. The colour range is extremely varied, ranging from near white (osseous) through all shades of yellow, brown and red. There are even examples of blue and green amber. Blue - green amber is thought to have two possible causes: either the permeation of raw resin by mineral deposits present in the soil into which it fell, or the settling of volcanic dust and ash onto the resin when it was first secreted. One of the most exciting and interesting aspects of amber are the inclusions, both Academic Test 6; Page 8

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flora and fauna, which are found within it. The most frequent inclusions to be found in amber, particularly Baltic, are examples of the order Diptera or true flies. These tiny flies would have lived on the fungus growing on the rotting vegetation of the amber forest of which no doubt there was enough to support an enormous population. Occasionally a small lizard will be found trapped and encased in amber, particularly from the Dominican Republic deposits. The American Natural History Museum has a famous example of a 25,000,000 year old gecko. Another unusual find is the remains of a frog discovered in a piece mined in the Dominican Republic. At first it was thought to be just one animal with some tissue preserved. The distinct shape of the frog can be seen but most of the flesh has deteriorated and several bones are exposed, some broken. Under closer scrutiny a count of the bones suggests that this particular frog must have had at least 6 legs. Palaeontologists speculate that a bird that ate the frogs may have had a feeding site, perhaps on a branch directly above an accumulating pool of resin; hence the numerous bones present. The complete frog was perhaps an unlucky drop by the bird when it alighted on the branch. Mammalian hair can also infrequently be found trapped as tufts or single strands. When found in the Baltic area, hair in amber is often attributed to sloths that lived within the ancient forest. Resin in the process of hardening usually develops a skin whilst the interior is still soft. Occasionally amber of this nature has impressions stamped on its surface and thus becomes a trace fossil. For instance the clear impression of a cat’s paw has ben found on a piece of amber found in the Baltic area. The faking of inclusions in amber has been a major cottage industry since the earliest times. Gum is melted gently and suitable inclusions placed into the matrix; this is frequently some kind of colourful insect. Artificial colour is always a dead give away of a bogus amber fossil.

Questions 1 - 4 Read the passage Amber - Frozen Moments in Time again and look at the statements below. In boxes 1 - 4 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN

if the information is not given in the text

1

Both animal and plant life have been found trapped in amber.

2

Theorists claim that amber must be submerged at some point during its formation process. Academic Test 6; Page 9 © ieltshelpnow.com

3

It’s common to find impressions of animals made on the skin of amber while it was hardening.

4

There are two theories for how amber can develop different colours.

Questions 5 - 8 Complete the following statements with the best ending from the box on the next page Write the appropriate letters A - G in boxes 5 - 8 on your answer sheet. 5

For the most part Baltic amber found today was originally created by plant life which…

6

The faking of encasing things in amber is something which…

7

Prehistoric decaying forests provided food which…

8

Amber is a natural material which…

A

... grew to a great height all over the world.

B

… takes place in small houses.

C

… entrapped flies would have fed on.

D

… can be spotted by the colour.

E

… happened only in the Baltic area.

F

… produced gases conducive to amber formation.

G

… has a broad diversity in its chemical formula.


Questions 9 - 11 According to the text which THREE of the following are NOT given as possible reasons for the production of the resin by trees which later forms amber? Choose THREE letters (A – H) and write them in boxes 9 – 11 on your answer sheet. The order of your answers does not matter.

A

A defence system

B

Changes in the molecular structure of the tree

C

A development side-effect

D

An effect of the Baltic weather

E

A way of dealing with water loss

F

The result of oxidisation

G

Part of the reproduction process

H

A result of damage


Questions 12 – 14 Complete the summary below describing the amber formation process. Choose your answers from the box below the summary and write them in boxes 12 – 14 on your answer sheet. NB

There are more words than spaces, so you will not use them all.

SUMMARY The formation of amber goes through various stages of which at least one it has been theorised will need the absence of air. Starting as a viscous (12) __________from a tree, the malleability changes as the material becomes (13) __________with a modification of its structure at the molecular level. The next stage takes place over a long time as turpenes seep out of the material leaving an amber-like material which must undergo further degradation from exposure to (14) __________before it can finally be recognised as what we know as amber today.

tough

evaporation

polymers

soft

secretion

sea water

oxygen

expansion

brittle


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 15 - 26

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. The Death of the Wild Salmon The last few decades have seen an enormous increase in the number of salmon farms in countries bordering the north Atlantic. This proliferation is most marked in two countries famous for their salmon, Norway and Scotland. Salmon farming in Norway and Scotland has expanded to become a major industry and as the number of farmed salmon has exploded, the population of its wild relatives has crashed. The rivers of these countries that used to have such great summer runs of fish every season that they used to attract thousands of anglers from all over the world are now in perilous decline. Recently Truls Halstensen, a Norwegian fishing writer, wrote that his local river, the Driva, where he used to be able to catch five or more fish of over 20 pounds weight in a morning, is now almost totally fishless. The link between the increase in farmed salmon and the decline in the wild population is hotly disputed. Environmentalists claim that the increase in farming has affected wild salmon and the sea environment in various ways. Firstly it is claimed that the mass escapes of farmed fish present a grave threat to the gene pool of wild salmon stocks. Escapees breed less successfully than wild salmon but the young of the escapees, known as parr, breed aggressively and can produce four times more successfully than their wild counterparts. The parr bred by escapees also become sexually active far sooner than wild salmon and fertilise more eggs. The farmed salmon are therefore genetically changing the wild salmon stocks. Jeremy Read, director of the Atlantic Salmon Trust points out that: “the major problem of interbreeding is that it reduces a population’s fitness and ability to survive. Native salmon have evolved to meet the circumstances and habitat of sea and river life. Farm fish are under very different selection pressures in an artificial habitat. This could leave the world with a north Atlantic salmon which could not survive in its native conditions.” The huge increase in sea lice in coastal waters is another growing problem. Sea lice thrive in salmon farm conditions and their increase in numbers means that wild salmon and other fish entering waters where there are farms can fall prey to the lice. Another difficulty and one of the most worrying side effects of the salmon farm industry is that salmon farmers cannot function without vast quantities of tiny sea creatures to turn into food pellets to feed their stock. Lars Tennson of the Norwegian Fishermen’s association complains that “ the huge quantities of small fish caught by industrial trawlers is helping to strip fishing grounds of the small fish and of other species, including wild salmon, that depend on the feed fish.” Fish farms are also being blamed for increasing levels of nitrogen in the ocean. Over the last 2 years there have been 26 effluent leaks involving nitrogen-rich fish droppings. Naturally occurring algae feed on this and grow into large toxic blooms that kill most other marine life. Even legal chemicals used in farms, such as those used to combat the sea lice, can unbalance micro-organism populations, affecting the other organisms that feed on them. Kevin Dunnon, director of FEO Scotland, has warned that “using inappropriate chemicals and medicines has Academic Test 6; Page 13

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the potential to do real environmental damage… We will prosecute if we find enough evidence.” In spite of the evidence that farming is harming fish populations, fish farmers are adamant that they are not responsible. Nick Jury insists that “algal blooms and the decline in fish stocks have occurred naturally for decades because of a wide range of unrelated and more complex factors.” Jury feels that fish farms are being made a scapegoat for lack of government control of fishing. Overfishing is a major problem that affects salmon stocks and not just salmon. A combination of high trawler catches, net fishing at estuaries, sport fishing and poaching have all led to stocks of wild salmon diminishing. The UK government likes to think that this problem has been recognized and that the roots of the problems have been attacked by laws passed by them. Fishermen, at sea and in estuaries, have been set quotas and many salmon rivers have been closed to fisherman. Poachers are more difficult to control but their effect is not as marked as that of the fishermen. Angus Kilrie of the NASF feels that the efforts have been wasted: “Legislation has merely scratched the surface. Not enough money has been forthcoming to compensate fishermen and the allowances have been set too high.” The fate of the wild Atlantic salmon is anybody’s guess. Farmers and governments seem unworried, environmentalists fear the worst. Wild Scottish salmon stocks this year have actually gone up this year which is heralded by the UK’s fisheries department as a result of their policies. Paul Knight, Director of the Salmon and Trout Fishing Association has stated that he is “delighted with the upturn in numbers this year.” He adds the warning though that “ there are still significant threats to salmon stocks and that it is important not to take our eye off the ball.” Statistics though can always be interpreted in different ways. All issues concerning the health of the wild north Atlantic salmon need to continue to be addressed in order to protect the viability of future runs.

Questions 15 – 21 Match the opinions or statements (15 – 21) with the people who expressed or said them listed on the next page. Write the appropriate initial of the person in boxes 15 - 21 on your answer sheet. 15

Says farming cannot be blamed for the salmon stock collapse.

16

Claims the demand for feed for salmon farms is destroying the natural food for other types of fish.

17

Says that efforts must be maintained to protect the salmon.

18

Gives an example from his local area.

19

States that measures taken to stop overfishing are not adequate.

20

Says salmon could soon be genetically incapable of continuing to exist.

21

Threatens legal action against farms that misuse chemicals. Academic Test 6; Page 14

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JR

Jeremy Read

PK

Paul Knight

AK

Angus Kilrie

TH

Truls Halstensen

KD

Kevin Dunnon

NJ

Nick Jury

LT

Lars Tennson


The connection between the increase in the salmon raised on fish farms and the drop in the naturally raised salmon is fiercely ____________________.

23

The ____________________of farmed salmon reproduce in larger numbers and more effectively than their wild equivalent.

24

Fishing by ____________________ has led to a huge reduction in the numbers of smaller fish which other larger fish use as food.

25

Fish waste matter which escapes into the water is used for food by ___________________ which accelerates their growth leading to the death of other aquatic organisms.

26

The British government has tried to control fishing at sea and at river mouths by allocating specific ____________________ for netters and fishermen.


READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 27 - 40


The Can – A Brief History Lesson A The story of the can begins in 1795 when Nicholas Appert, a Parisian, had an idea: why not pack food in bottles like wine? Fifteen years later, after researching and testing his idea, he published his theory: if food is sufficiently heated and sealed in an airtight container, it will not spoil. In 1810 Peter Durand, an Englishman, wanted to surpass Appert’s invention, so he elected to try tin instead of glass. Like glass, tin could be sealed airtight but tin was not breakable and was much easier to handle. Durand himself did no canning, but two other Englishmen, Bryan Donkin and John Hall, used Durand’s patent. After experimenting for more than a year, they set up a commercial canning factory and by 1813 they were sending tins of food to British army and navy authorities for trial.

B Perhaps the greatest encouragement to the newborn canning industry was the explosion in the number of new colonial territories. As people and goods were being transported to all parts of the world, the can industry itself was growing in new territories. Englishmen who emigrated to America brought their newfound knowledge with them. One of these was Thomas Kensett, who might fairly be called the father of the can manufacturing industry in the United States. In 1812 he set up a small plant on the New York waterfront to can the first hermetically sealed products in the United States.

C Just before the Civil War, a technical advance by canners enabled them to speed up production. Adding calcium chloride to the water in which cans were cooked raised the water temperature, speeding up the canning process. Also for almost 100 years, tin cans were made by artisans by hand. It was a laborious process, requiring considerable skill and muscle. As the industrial revolution took hold in the United States, the demand for cans increased and machines began to replace the artisans’ handiwork. A good artisan could make only 10 cans a day. True production progress in can making began in 1922, when American engineers perfected the body making process. New methods soon increased production of cans to as many as 250 a minute.

D As early as 1940, can manufacturers began to explore the possibility of adapting cans to package carbonated soft drinks. The can had to be strengthened to accommodate higher Academic Test 6; Page 16

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internal can pressures created by carbonation (especially during warm summer months), which meant increasing the thickness of the metal used in the can ends. Another concern for the new beverage can was its shelf life. Even small amounts of dissolved tin or iron from the can could impair the drinking quality of drinks. Also the food acids, including carbonic, citric and phosphoric, in soft drinks presented a risk for the rapid corrosion of exposed tin and iron in the can. At this point the can was upgraded by improving the organic coatings used to line the inside. The can manufacturers then embarked on a program of material and cost savings by reducing both the amount of steel and the amount of coating used in can making. These efforts were in part inspired by a new competitor - aluminium.

E Beverage cans made from aluminum were first introduced in 1965. This was an exciting innovation for the packaging industry because the aluminum can was made with only two pieces - a body and an end. This made production easier. Some of the reasons for the aluminum can’s acceptance were its ductility, its support of carbonation pressure, its lighter weight and the fact that aluminum does not rust. Both steel and aluminum cans used an easy-open end tab but the aluminum tab was much easier to make. Perhaps the most critical element in the aluminum can’s market success was its recycling value. Aluminum can recycling excelled economically in the competition with steel because of the efficiencies aluminum cans realized in making new cans from recycled materials compared with 100 percent virgin aluminum. Steel did not realize similar economies in the recycling process.

F Prior to 1970, can makers, customers and consumers alike were unaware of the impact that the mining and manufacturing of steel or aluminium had on the environment. The concept of natural resource preservation was not an issue of great importance and the low growth of population during these early years further de-emphasized concerns for resource depletion. Both industries, however, came to realize the importance of reducing their impact on the environment in the late 1960s and early 1970s as a new environmentally conscious generation emerged. Manufacturers began to recognize the economics of recycling, namely lower manufacturing costs from using less material and less energy. By the 1980s and 1990s, recycling had become a way of life. Aluminum can recycling has become a billion-dollar business and one of the world’s most successful environmental enterprises. Over the years, the aluminum can has come to be known as America’s most recyclable package, with over 60 percent of cans being recycled annually

G Advances in can manufacturing technology have also brought us lighter aluminum cans. In 1972, one pound of aluminum yielded only 21.75 cans. Today, by using less material to make each can, one pound of aluminum makes approximately 32 cans - a 47 percent improvement. Just the lightening of can ends makes a huge difference. When you multiply the savings by the 100 billion cans that are made each year, the weight and savings are phenomenal - over 200 million pounds of aluminum! Academic Test 6; Page 17 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 27 - 32 The reading passage on The Can - A Brief History Lesson has 7 paragraphs A – G. From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – G. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 27 – 32 on your answer sheet. NB


Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv

i

The Invention of the Aluminium Can

ii

Technological Breakthroughs

iii

Canning and the Beer Industry

iv

The Invention

v

Canning and War

vi

Further Manufacturing Advances

vii

Problems with Spoiled Contents

viii

Expansion of the Industry

ix

Today’s Uses for Canning

x

Drinks Canning

xi

Cans and The Environment


27

Paragraph B

28

Paragraph C

29

Paragraph D

30

Paragraph E

31

Paragraph F

32

Paragraph G

Questions 33 - 38 Below are two lists. The first list (questions 33- 38) is a list of dates of events in Reading Passage 3: The Can - A Brief History Lesson. The second list (A - G) is a list of the events. Match the year with the correct event in the history of the can. Write your answers in boxes 33 - 38 on your answer sheet. One of the dates and and one of the events are matched as an example. Example

Answer

1810

E

QUESTION

DATE

EG

1810

33

1922

34

1812

35

1813

36

1965 Academic Test 6; Page 19

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37

1813

38

1940 EVENTS A

Mass production techniques revolutionized the canning process.

B

Tinned food was tested by military authorities.

C

Today’s canning material was first introduced.

D

The first American canning factory was opened.

E

Tin was used in the canning process for the first time.

F

The canning of fizzy drinks began.

G

The first business canning plant was opened.

Questions 39 and 40 Read paragraphs F and G of Reading Passage 3 The Can - A Brief History Lesson again and look at the statements below. In boxes 39 and 40 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


39

Recycling has helped reduce manufacturing overheads.

40

Aluminium can production costs have fallen by nearly 50% since 1972. Academic Test 6; Page 20

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WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The tables below show predicted and actual immigration figures for the UK for the years 1984 - 2000. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words. TABLE 1 - Predicted Immigration Figures for UK 1984 - 2000; in thousands

YEAR

1984

1985

1986

1987

1988

1989

1990

1991

FIGURE

38

40

42

45

46

80

97

91

1992

1993

1994

1995

1996

1997

1998

1999

2000

80

67

80

98

117

121

133

140

148

TABLE 2 - Actual Immigration Figures for UK 1984 - 2000; in thousands

YEAR

1984

FIGURE 58

1985

1986

1987

1988

1989

1990

1991

60

40

43

71

80

100

93

1992

1993

1994

1995

1996

1997

1998

1999

2000

64

66

82

114

102

105

140

158

163


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WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Many countries have compulsory military service for men after they leave school. It would be a good idea for all countries to adopt this system for men and possibly women. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? You should write at least 250 words.



Could you describe your bedroom in your house or apartment? How would you make your bedroom better? Do you think it’s a good idea to have a TV in a bedroom? (Why/Why not?)

Topic 1 * * * *

What is your favourite time of year? How much do you think people are affected by the seasons and the weather? What sorts of things do people in your country like to do in winter? What sorts of things do people in your country like to do in summer?

Topic 2 * * * *

The Seasons

Food and Cooking

What kinds of food do you like? (Why?) What kinds of things don’t you like to eat? (Why not?) Do you like cooking? (Why/Why not?) What was the last thing that you cooked?

Section 2 Describe an accident or injury that has happened to you You should say: when and where it happened how it happened what happened afterwards and explain how you felt about it Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

What are the worst health problems facing the world today? What do you think will be the major health problems to face the world over the next 50 years? Should richer countries assist with the health problems in poorer countries? What are some of the things that we can do to help provide cleaner water in poor countries?

Topic 2 * * * *

World Health

Your Country’s Health System

Describe the health system in your country? What’s the procedure for seeing a doctor in your country? What are the advantages and disadvantages of private health insurance? Do you think a country’s health system should be free? (Why/Why not?) Academic Test 6; Page 23

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CHEAPIES CAR HIRE RENTAL FORM

Example

Answer

Date Car Needed

7th August

Customer’s Name

Mr. John Wilson

Customer’s Address Postcode

(1) ____________________ Manchester MW7 4DF

Home Tel.

020 6834 6387

Mobile Tel.

(2) ____________________

Driving Licence No.

(3) ____________________

Number of Drivers

1

Length of Rental

(4) ____________________ days

Car Make Chosen

(5) ____________________


Questions 6 - 8 Complete the Cheapies Customer Information Leaflet below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR SOME NUMBERS for each answer. Cheapies Customer Information Leaflet Dear Sir/Madam Thank you for hiring a car from Cheapies. We value your custom and we will endeavour to provide you with the service that you expect. Total Price

(6) ______________________

Pick up point

The International Hotel

Drop off point

(7) ______________________

We provide some things in the car to help you. Your sales representative will go through all the things that you will find in your glove compartment and boot. Different cars have different things provided. In case of (8) ______________ or ______________, call our emergency number 06387 638 972 to order a replacement car.

Questions 9 and 10 Which TWO items are NOT provided in Mr. Wilson’s hire car? Choose and circle TWO letters A - J. A

insurance documents

F

a spare wheel

B

Westley town map

G

a set of tools

C

the car manual

H

RAC membership card

D

a larger area map of the local district

I

a small fire extinguisher

E

a map of London

J

spare keys for the car


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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 15 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN 3 WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 11

When is breakfast served in Chelston Hall on Sundays?

12

What method of food service is provided at Chelston Hall dining hall?

13

Where is coffee and tea served after dinner at Chelston Hall?

14

How much does it cost to do 1 wash in a washing machine at Chelston Hall?

15

From where can students buy washing powder inside Chelston Hall?


It is not the job of the cleaners at Chelston Hall to clear up _______________.

17

Students at Chelston Hall are asked to be careful going to and from the bathrom as the Hall is _______________.

18

If there is a fire at Chelston Hall, leave the building and meet your block leader in _______________ where the block leader will take a roll call.

19

Chelston Hall has to perform at least _______________ emergency fire practices yearly.

20

If a student is asked to leave for disciplinary reasons, he or she will not get a _______________. Academic Test 7; Page 3 © ieltshelpnow.com

SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 26 Complete Judith’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

NORTH SEA OIL AND GAS INDUSTRY BACKGROUND *

North Sea oil and gas exploration was initially rejected but has now really expanded during (21) ______________________ years.

*

First significant quantities of gas first discovered in Groningen area off The Netherlands in 1959.

*

First British discovery of same in West Sole field, off the coast of East Anglia, by (22) ______________________ in 1965.

*

British oil and gas industry experienced rapid growth in the early years.

*

An (23) ______________________ in the UK led to enormous pressure to increase production of North Sea gas and oil.

*

Oil field discoveries increased with British, European and American firms buying North Sea exploration (24) ______________________.

*

In 1990s the oil business suffered due to (25) ______________________ of oil.

*

Production grew and peaked around 2000/1.

*

North Sea is currently looked upon as a (26) ______________________ on a slow decline.


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Questions 27 - 30 Complete the summary of Fred’s talk below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

NORTH SEA OIL AND GAS INDUSTRY SAFETY INFORMATION Although the Sea Gem was the first North Sea oil exploration accident, the most well known accident was aboard the Piper Alpha platform in 1988 when 13 people died. Because of these and other accidents, platforms now have rigorous safety procedures, for example: ●

Installation Safety Tour showing all safety aspects eg:

● ● ● ● ● ●

Rig Safety Programme Introduction Weekly Safety Meetings Daily Pre “Tour” Meetings Inter Company Safety Information Scheme Fire and Boat Practice with (29) ______________________ Mock Abandon the Rig Exercise

* * * *

(27) ____________________ emergency muster stations (28) ______________________ emergency procedures

Statistics now show that these measures have succeeded and that workers are more likely to be killed on (30) ______________________.


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 34 Complete the lecture notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Billboard Advertising *

Johannes Gutenberg invented (31) ______________________ in 1450.

*

The lithographic process perfected in 1796.

*

In (32) ______________________ Jared Bell’s office in New York made the first large US outdoor poster when he printed circus posters.

*

In 1900 a boom in national billboard campaigns was created in America with the advent of a (33) ______________________ of billboard.

*

Last year US expenditure on outdoor advertising reached $5.5 billion.

*

Over the next few years there is expectation of a (34) ______________________ in outdoor advertising.


Questions 35 - 40 Choose a letter (A - D) that correctly completes the following statements (questions 35 - 40). 35

Allan Odell decided to use roadside advertising because...

A B C D

...no one else had tried it. ...other people were beginning to use it. ...it was the cheapest form of advertising. ...other people were improving their sales through it.

36

Allan Odell’s first advertisements were...

A B C D

...successful. ...boring. ...hard to understand. ...too far apart.

37

Allan Odell’s second type of advertising...

A B C D

...criticised people. ...amused people. ...made fun of people. ...irritated people.

38

Allan Odell’s company eventually decided to stop this form of advertising because...

A B C D

...it was no longer effective. ...people were in a hurry. ...it was old fashioned. ...people criticised the rhymes.

39

The main purpose of Lyndon Johnson’s bill was to...

A B C D

...improve the condition of the roads. ...stop roadside advertising. ...reduce federal grants. ...make the roads and countryside more attractive.

40

Roadside advertising continued because...

A B C D

...it was good for business. ...some states did not get federal aid. ...federal laws did not apply to some roads. ...some states ignored the law. Academic Test 7; Page 7 © ieltshelpnow.com


Questions 1 - 13

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. The Canals of De Lesseps Two of the most spectacular engineering feats of the last 200 years were of the same type though thousands of miles apart. They were the construction of the Suez and Panama canals. The Panama Canal joins the Pacific and Atlantic oceans while the Suez joins the Red Sea (Indian Ocean) and the Mediterranean (Atlantic Ocean). Both offer ships huge savings in time and mileage. For example, a nine hour trip on the Panama Canal would save a total of 18,000 miles on a trip from New York to San Francisco. Amazingly enough the same French engineer, Ferdinand de Lesseps, played a major part in the construction of both. The history of the Panama Canal goes back to 16th century with a survey of the isthmus and a working plan for a canal ordered by the Spanish government in 1529. In the 18th century various companies tried and failed to construct the canal but it wasn’t until 1880 that a French company, organized by Ferdinand Marie de Lesseps, proposed a sea level canal through Panama. He believed that if a sea level canal worked when constructing the Suez Canal, it must work for the Panama Canal. Finally the Panama Canal was constructed in two stages. The first between 1881 and 1888, the work being carried out by the French company headed by de Lesseps, and secondly, the work by the Americans which eventually completed the canal’s construction between 1904 and 1914. The French company ran out of money and an attempt was unsuccessful to raise funds by applying to the French government to issue lottery bonds which had been successful during the construction of the Suez Canal when that project was at the point of failure through lack of money. The French problems stemmed from their inability to create a viable solution to the differences in tidal changes in the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans. There is a tidal range of 20 feet at the Pacific whereas the Atlantic range is only about 1 foot. The Americans proposed that a tidal lock should be constructed at Panama which solved the problem and reduced excavation by an enormous amount. When construction was finally finished, the canal ran through various locks, four dams and ran the lengths of two naturally occurring lakes, the 32 mile Gatun Lake and the 5 mile Miraflores Lake. When the US took on finishing the canal they and the new state of Panama signed the Hay-Bunau-Varilla treaty, by which the United States guaranteed the independence of Panama and secured a perpetual lease on a 10 mile strip for the canal. Panama was to be compensated by an initial payment of $10 million and an annuity of $250,000, beginning in 1913. On December 31st 1999 United States transferred the 51 mile Panama Canal, the surrounding Panama Canal Area and the income back to the Panamanian government. The idea of a canal linking the Mediterranean to the Red Sea also dates back to ancient times. Unlike the modern canal, earlier ones linked the Red Sea to the Nile, therefore forcing the ships to sail along the River on their journey from Europe to India. It consisted of two parts: the first linking the Gulf of Suez to the Great Bitter Lake, and the second connecting the Lake to one of the branches in the Nile Delta that runs into the Mediterranean. The canal remained in good condition during the Ptolemaic era, but fell into disrepair afterwards and was completely Academic Test 7; Page 8

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abandoned upon the discovery of the trade route around Africa. It was Napoleon’s engineers who, around 1800 AD, revived the idea of a shorter trade route to India via a Suez canal. However, the calculation carried out by the French engineers showed a difference in level of 10 meters between both seas. If constructed under such circumstances, a large land area would be flooded. Later the digging of the canal was undertaken by the Ferdinand de Lesseps, who showed the previous French sea height estimates to be incorrect and that locks or dams were not needed. In 1859, Egyptian workers started working on the construction of the canal in conditions described by historians as slave labor, and the project was completed around 1867. The canal is 163 km long, and has a width of a minimum of 60 metres. The canal cuts through three lakes, Lake Manzala in the north, Lake Timsah in the middle and the Great Bitter Lake further south. The largest, the Great Bitter Lake makes up almost 30 km of the total length. The canal is extensively used by modern ships as it is the fastest crossing from the Atlantic Ocean to the Indian Ocean. In July 1956 the Egyptian president Nasser announced the nationalization of the canal in response to the British, French and American refusal for a loan aimed at building the Aswan High Dam on the Nile. The revenue from the canal, he argued, would help finance the High Dam project. Since then the Egyptians have controlled the canal. Today, approximately 50 ships cross the canal daily and the cities and beaches along the Great Bitter Lake and the canal serve as a summer resort for tourists.

Questions 1- 8 Use the information in the text to match the statements (1 – 8) with the canal references (A – D). Write the appropriate letter (A – D) in boxes 1 – 8 on your answer sheet. Write: A

if the statement refers to the Panama Canal.

B

if the statement refers to the Suez Canal.

C

if the statement refers to both the Panama Canal and the Suez Canal.

D

If the statement refers to neither the Panama Canal and the Suez Canal.

1

The surface of the whole canal is at sea level.

2

The canal’s construction had financial problems.

3

Dams had to be built to construct the canal.

4

The canal generates money for the country it passes through. Academic Test 7; Page 9 © ieltshelpnow.com

5

Previous labour conditions of construction workers at the canal have been criticised.

6

The canal’s construction was held up by war.

7

The canal is also a holiday destination.

8

Over half the canal is within a single lake.

Questions 9 - 13 Read the passage The Canals of de Lessep’s again and look at the statements below. In boxes 9 - 13 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


9

De Lessep’s Suez Canal construction theories were equally successful in the building of the Panama Canal as they were in building the Suez Canal.

10

The decision to use locks in the Panama Canal also saved time doing other activities.

11

The US were not happy about returning the control of the Panama Canal to Panama.

12

The current Suez Canal is the second canal that has joined the Red Sea to the Mediterranean.

13

The British government refused to give assistance in constructing the Suez Canal.


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READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 14 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following page.

Questions 14 - 19 The reading passage on The Ozone Hole has 6 paragraphs (A – F). From the list of headings below (i – ix) choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs A – F. Write the appropriate number (i – ix) in boxes 14 – 19 on your answer sheet. NB


The Destruction Process

ii

How Is Ozone Formed?

iii

How Technology Can Help

iv

Artificial Emissions

v

What Is Being Done?

vi

The Function of the Ozone Layer

vii

Empirical Analysis

viii

Initial Identification

ix

Hospitalisation

14

Paragraph A

15

Paragraph B

16

Paragraph C

17

Paragraph D

18

Paragraph E

19

Paragraph F Academic Test 7; Page 11

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The Ozone Hole Paragraph A Ozone is a bluish gas that is harmful to breathe. Nearly 90% of the Earth’s ozone is in the stratosphere and is referred to as the ozone layer. Ozone absorbs a band of ultraviolet radiation called UVB that is particularly harmful to living organisms. Stratospheric ozone is constantly being created and destroyed through natural cycles. Various ozone depleting substances however, accelerate the destruction processes, resulting in lower than normal ozone levels. Reductions in ozone levels will lead to higher levels of UVB reaching the Earth’s surface. The sun’s output of UVB does not change; rather, less ozone means less protection, and hence more UVB reaches the Earth. Studies have shown that in the Antarctic, the amount of UVB measured at the surface can double during the annual ozone hole. Laboratory and epidemiological studies demonstrate that UVB causes non melanoma skin cancer and plays a major role in malignant melanoma development. In addition, UVB has been linked to cataracts. Paragraph B Dramatic loss of ozone in the lower stratosphere over Antarctica was first noticed in the 1970s by a research group from the British Antarctic Survey (BAS) who were monitoring the atmosphere above Antarctica from a research station. Folklore has it that when the first measurements were taken in 1975, the drop in ozone levels in the stratosphere was so dramatic that at first the scientists thought their instruments were faulty. Replacement instruments were built and flown out and it wasn’t until they confirmed the earlier measurements, several months later, that the ozone depletion observed was accepted as genuine. Another story goes that the BAS satellite data didn’t show the dramatic loss of ozone because the software processing the raw ozone data from the satellite was programmed to treat very low values of ozone as bad readings. Later analysis of the raw data when the results from the British Antarctic Survey team were published, confirmed their results and showed that the loss was rapid and large-scale; over most of the Antarctica continent. Paragraph C Ozone occurs naturally in the atmosphere. The earth’s atmosphere is composed of several layers. We live in the Troposphere, ground level up to about 10km high, where most of the weather occurs such as rain, snow and clouds. Above that is the Stratosphere, an important region in which effects such as the Ozone Hole and Global Warming originate. The layer next to space is the Exosphere and then going inwards there are the Thermosphere and the Mesosphere. Supersonic passenger jets fly just above the troposphere whereas subsonic commercial airliners are usually well in the troposphere. The narrow region between these two parts of the atmosphere is called the Tropopause. Ozone forms a layer in the stratosphere, thinnest in the tropics and denser towards the poles. The amount of ozone above a point on the earth’s surface is measured in Dobson units (DU) - typically ~260 DU near the tropics and higher elsewhere, though there are large seasonal fluctuations. It is created when ultraviolet radiation in the form of sunlight strikes the stratosphere, splitting oxygen molecules to atomic oxygen. The atomic oxygen quickly combines with further oxygen molecules to form ozone. Academic Test 7; Page 12 © ieltshelpnow.com

Paragraph D The Ozone Hole often gets confused in the popular press and by the general public with the problem of global warming. Whilst there is a connection because ozone contributes to the greenhouse effect, the Ozone Hole is a separate issue. Over Antarctica (and recently over the Arctic), stratospheric ozone has been depleted over the last 15 years at certain times of the year. This is mainly due to the release of man-made chemicals containing chlorine such as CFCs (ChloroFluoroCarbons), but also compounds containing bromine, other related halogen compounds and also nitrogen oxides. CFC’s are a common industrial product, used in refrigeration systems, air conditioners, aerosols, solvents and in the production of some types of packaging. Nitrogen oxides are a by-product of combustion processes, for example aircraft emissions. Paragraph E The ozone depletion process begins when CFCs and other ozone depleting substances are emitted into the atmosphere where winds efficiently mix and evenly distribute the gases. CFCs are extremely stable, and they do not dissolve in rain. After a period of several years natural gases in the stratosphere combine with CFCs and this releases chlorine atoms, halons and methyl bromide. These in turn all release bromine atoms and it is these atoms that actually destroy ozone. It is estimated that one chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules before it is removed from the stratosphere. Paragraph F The first global agreement to restrict CFCs came with the signing of the Montreal Protocol in 1987 ultimately aiming to reduce them by half by the year 2000. Two revisions of this agreement have been made in the light of advances in scientific understanding, the latest being in 1992. Agreement has been reached on the control of industrial production of many halocarbons until the year 2030. The main CFCs will not be produced by any of the signatories after the end of 1995, except for a limited amount for essential uses, such as for medical sprays. The countries of the European Community have adopted even stricter measures. Recognizing their responsibility to the global environment they have agreed to halt production of the main CFCs from the beginning of 1995. It was anticipated that these limitations would lead to a recovery of the ozone layer within 50 years of 2000. The World Meteorological Organisation estimated 2045 but recent investigations suggest the problem is perhaps on a much larger scale than anticipated.


Questions 20 - 25 Complete the following statements (questions 20 - 25) with the best ending from the box below (A - H) according to the information in the reading passage The Ozone Hole. Write the appropriate letter (A - H) on your answer sheet. There are more sentence endings (A - H) than questions so you will not need to use them all. 20

International agreements will eventually lead to...

21

An apocryphal BAS story cites that equpiment was changed to measure...

22

It is a common mistake to associate the Ozone Hole problem with...

23

The thickness of the Ozone layer varies with...

24

The Ozone layer is destroyed by a by product of CFCs reacting with...

25

Common household appliances contribute to...

A

...the location of the layer relative to the earth.

B

...the discharge of synthetic chemicals into the atmosphere.

C

...the satellite orbiting the earth.

D

...the normal components of the earth’s atmosphere.

E

...the apparently anomalous readings taken earlier.

F

...the issue of the heating up of the earth’s atmosphere.

G

...recent investigations into the strength of Dobson Units.

H

...the cessation of the release of most CFC gases into the atmosphere. Academic Test 7; Page 14 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 26 and 27 Answer questions 26 and 27 below with reference to the diagram of the earth and its layers of atmosphere at the bottom of the page. Write the appropriate letter (A - E) on your answer sheet. 26

In which atmosphere layer would you find the Ozone layer and hole?

27

In which atmosphere layer would you find a conventional passenger airliner usually flying?


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READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 on the following pages. OLIVE OIL PRODUCTION Olive oil has been one of the staples of the Mediterranean diet for thousands of years and its popularity is growing rapidly in other parts of the world. It is one of the most versatile oils for cooking and it enhances the taste of many foods. Olive oil is the only type of vegetable/fruit oil that can be obtained from just pressing. Most other types of popular oils (corn, canola, etc.) must be processed in other ways to obtain the oil. Another important bonus is that olive oil has proven health benefits. Three basic grades of olive oil are most often available to the consumer: extra Virgin, Virgin and Olive Oil. In addition to the basic grades, olive oil differs from one country or region to another because of the types of olives that are grown, the harvesting methods, the time of the harvest, and the pressing techniques. These factors all contribute to the individual characteristics of the olive oil. Olive trees must be properly cared for in order to achieve good economic yields. Care includes regular irrigation, pruning, fertilising, and killing pests. Olives will survive on very poor sites with shallow soils but will grow very slowly and yield poorly. Deep soils tend to produce excessively vigorous trees, also with lower yields. The ideal site for olive oil production is a clay loam soil with good internal and surface drainage. Irrigation is necessary to produce heavy crops and avoid alternate bearing. The site must be free of hard winter frosts because wood damage will occur at temperatures below 15°F and a lengthy spell of freezing weather can ruin any chances for a decent crop. The growing season also must be warm enough so fruits mature before even light fall frosts (usually by early November) because of potential damage to the fruit and oil quality. Fortunately olive trees are very hardy in hot summer temperatures and they are drought tolerant. The best olive oils hold a certificate by an independent organization that authenticates the stone ground and cold pressed extraction process. In this process, olives are first harvested by hand at the proper stage of ripeness and maturity. Experts feel that hand harvesting, as opposed to mechanical harvesting, eliminates bruising of the fruit which causes tartness and oil acidity. The olives harvested are transferred daily to the mill. This is very important because this daily transfer minimizes the time spent between picking and pressing. Some extra virgin olive oil producers are known to transfer the olives by multi-ton trucks over long distances that expose the fragile fruit to crushing weight and the hot sun, which causes the olives to begin oxidizing and thus becoming acidic. In addition to the time lapse between harvesting and pressing, olive oil must be obtained using mechanical processes only to be considered virgin or extra virgin. If heat and/or chemical processes are used to produce the olive oil or if the time lapse is too long, it cannot be called virgin or extra virgin. Once at the mill, the leaves are sucked away with air fans and the olives are washed with circulating potable water to remove all impurities. The first step of extraction is mashing the olives to create a paste. The oil, comprising 20% to 30% of the olive, is nestled in pockets within the fruit’s cells. The olives are crushed in a mill with two granite millstones rolling within a metal basin. Crushing and mixing the olives releases the oil from the cells of the olive without heating the paste. A side shutter on the mill’s basin allows the mixed olive paste to be discharged and applied to round mats. The mats are stacked and placed under the head of a hydraulic press frame that applies downward pressure and extracts the oil. The first pressing yields the superior quality oil, and the second and third pressings produce inferior quality oil. Some single estate producers Academic Test 7; Page 16

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collect the oil that results from just the initial crushing while many other producers use an additional step to extract more oil. The olive pulp is placed on mats constructed with hemp or polypropylene that are stacked and then pressed to squeeze the pulp. Oil and water filter through the mats to a collection tank below. The water and oil are then separated in a centrifuge. Regardless of the method used for the first pressing, the temperature of the oil during production is extremely important in order to maintain the distinct characteristics of the oil. If the temperature of the oil climbs above 86ºF, it will be damaged and cannot be considered coldpressed. The first pressing oil contains the most “polyphenols”, substances that have been found to be powerful antioxidants capable of protecting against certain types of disease. The polyphenols are not the only substances in the olive with health-promoting effects, but they are quite unique when compared to other commonly used culinary oils such as sunflower and soy. It is these polyphenols that really set extra virgin olive oils apart from any other oil and any other form of olive oil. The more refined the olive oil is, the smaller the quantity of polyphenols. The result of the producers’ efforts is a cold pressed extra virgin olive oil with high quality standards and organoleptic characteristics, which give the oil its health-protective and aromatic properties.

Questions 28 - 31 Choose the appropriate letters A – D that best finish the sentence or best answer the question and write them in boxes 28 – 31 on your answer sheet. 28

According to the text, which of the following does NOT affect the individual features of olive oils from different regions? A B C D

29

Picking techniques The date of the picking Olive varieties Access to water

According to the text, which of the following is NOT part of olive tree management? A B C D

Careful watering Replanting Killing parasites Feeding


30

According to the text, what is the main danger of frost? A B C D

31

It kills the olive trees The fruit won’t mature Not enough fruit will be produced The olives produced will be small in size

According to the text, which of the following does NOT affect the “extra virgin” olive oil certification? A B C D

The temperature of the extraction process The time gap between tree and bottle Which pressing the oil is taken from Using water in the extraction process

Questions 32 - 34 Read the passage Olive Oil Production again and look at the statements below. In boxes 32 - 34 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


32

Olive trees don’t need a regular supply of water to survive.

33

No other cooking oils apart from olive oil contain polyphenols.

34

Damage to olives before they are pressed can affect the taste of the oil.


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Questions 35 – 40 Using the information in Reading Passage 3, complete the flow chart below. Write your answers in boxes 35 – 40 on your answer sheet. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. The Olive Oil Production Process The three grades of oil produced are (eg) ____________, Virgin and Olive Oil.

Answer extra Virgin

Olive trees should be planted in (35) _________________ earth with good drainage in a year round warm climate.

Trees must be carefully irrigated and fertilised and (36) _________________ must be controlled if you want to get (37) _________________ that will make you profit.

Olives are harvested when they are correctly ripened and matured and they are then taken to the mill.

Leaves are removed with drinking water.

Olives are crushed to form a (38) _________________.

The paste is put on round mats inside a (39) _________________. Water is blended in with the paste as it’s pressed and a water/oil mixture escapes.

Water is removed by a (40) _________________ process. The Oil is then bottled and distributed. Academic Test 7; Page 19

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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 7 WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The bar graph below shows the numbers of employed persons by job type and sex for Australia in the year 2003. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.

JOB TYPE

Numbers of Employed Persons by Job Type and Sex, Australia, 2003

(000s)


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WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Government investment in public transport and reductions in public transport prices will greatly help the fight against transport pollution. Do you agree or disagree with this statement? You should write at least 250 words.

Academic Test 7; Page 21 1

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Describe the house where you lived when you grew up? Do you prefer sharing the house/flat where you live or do you prefer living on your own? Do you think it’s better to share a house with friends or with someone you don’t know?

Topic 1 * * * *

Tell me what you would do on a normal working day? How do you like to relax after a hard day? Do you think it is a good thing or a bad thing for someone to develop routines? Do you have a bad habit that you would like to lose? (Why/Why not?)

Topic 2 * * * *

Habits and Routines

Birthdays

How do people celebrate birthdays in your country? Are there any ages that have special significance in your culture? What are some of the advantages of getting older? What are some of the disadvantages of getting older?

Section 2 Describe your favourite city You should say: what city it is and when you went there your favourite places there what you do when you’re there and explain why exactly it’s your favourite city Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

Does your country have many big cities? (Why/Why not?) What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of living in a city? How can we reduce some of the pollution problems in today’s cities? Would you ever consider living long term in a city in a different country? (Why/Why not?)-

Topic 2 * * * *

City Life

The Growth of Cities

Could you compare life in your country today with life in your country 50 years ago? Why have so many people nowadays gone to live in big cities? Do you think it is a good thing or a bad thing that the world has so many huge cities today? What are some of future problems that might happen with the growth of so many big cities? Academic Test 7; Page 22 © ieltshelpnow.com

ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 8 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 8 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 5 Complete the Travel agent’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SUN TOURS TRAVEL AGENTS Example

Answer

Number of people

4

Customer’s Name

Mr. George Collins

Other travellers (+ ages of children)

Mrs. Jane Collins (1) __________ Jennifer

7 years old (2) __________

Require 4 star quality hotel + breakfast; safe, warm, quietish, beach; pref. pool; lots of restaurants near hotel; no (3) __________ needed Dates of Holiday

Friday July 8th

TO

Pref. Flight Time

Less than (5) __________

(4) Sunday __________


Questions 6 - 10 Complete George’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Possible Holiday Ideas Top End Prices Bottom End Prices Crete

Italy and France (6) __________, Greece and Turkey (Turkey + Cyprus too far)

Hotel Tropicana * 1 mile safe walk on (7) __________ to beach. * Nice pool; only a few beach bars and restaurants. * Really quiet; not near other tourist destinations. Palm Hotel * 2 miles from beach but has (8) __________ service. * Hotel in quite a busy tourist town: lots of bars, restaurants and discos.

Rhodes

Ocean Hotel * Right on beach: less than (9) __________ from the rooms. * 4 star hotel quite far from main town; eat in hotel; good meals. Hotel Spiros * (10) __________ hotel quite close to beach (5/10 mins walk) in small village with small swimming pool. * A few restaurants in small, quiet village; not much to do.


SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 15 Complete the food options information sheet below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Solaris Hotel and Holiday Village - Food Options Meal Times Breakfast:

6.30am and 9.30am every day (Only in Harvest restaurant; English, American and (11) _________________ breakfasts on offer

Lunch

12.00 noon to 2.30pm

Dinner

7.00pm to 10.30pm

Menus same for lunch + dinner; see (12) _________________ for specials Food Styles The Harvest Restaurant

Traditional English + popular UK foreign dishes (eg: curry and spaghetti)

The Dene Restaurant

(13) _________________

The Mekong Restaurant

Far Eastern Cuisine

Payment * * *

All restaurants free; (14) _________________ needed for some specials All soft drinks free; pay for alcoholic drinks Pay any bill at end of meals or put on main bill - pay at end of holiday

Extras *

Bar menu available in (15) _________________ for pub food

*

Fast Food available until 2.30am at take away


Questions 16 - 20 Complete the activities information sheet below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Solaris Hotel and Holiday Village - Activities Beaches:

main beach adult beach (17s or over)

(16) _________________ on duty from 9.00am to 6.00pm on main beach (none on adult beach) * * *

Decked area with sun loungers in front of Harvest Restaurant with our 25 metre swimming pool Steps from pool area to beach - wash feet in foot pool to remove sand (17) _________________ on beach + in pool area.

Sports 8 tennis courts + 3 squash courts Fully equipped gym (No under 18s) 6 full sized snooker tables + 5 pool tables in games room adjoining the bar. (only charge for hiring any equipment) Water Sports water skiing + jet skis available (extra charge) snorkelling, inflatables and pedallos (free) (details from (18) _________________) Library & Cinemas Library contains books, magazines + newspapers. See (19) _________________ for terms + conditions 2 cinemas show 3 different films each every day. Shows at 2.00pm, 5.30pm + 8.30pm (First 2 shows always have a film for kids) (20) ________________ not allowed to attend 8.30 shows


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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 26 Complete the three tables below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. World’s Most Spoken Languages By Number of Individual Speakers Rank

Language

No. of Speakers

1

Mandarin Chinese

836 million

2

(21) __________

333 million

3

Spanish

332 million

4

English

(22) __________

World’s Most Spoken Languages By Number of User Countries Rank

Language

No. of Countries

1

English

115

2

French

35

3

(23) __________

24

4

Spanish

(24) __________

World’s Most Influential Languages - 6 weighing factors 1

Number of primary speakers

2

Number of (25) __________

3

Number and population of countries where languages are used

4

Number of major fields using the language internationally

5

(26) __________ of countries using the language

6

Socio-literary prestige of the language Academic Test 8; Page 5

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Questions 27 - 30 Complete the notes below of the second half of Jamie and Rebecca’s presentation. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Jamie and Rebecca’s Presentation Large countries currently shifting world economic balance of power: China Russia India (27) _______________ Reasons for shift

size of the populations cheap labour prices of (28) _______________

*

Big growing demand for people knowing languages of above countries + for teachers and English language training

*

China could be less important than possibly India or (29) _______________ due to their population increase. English will probably remain important though

*

Number of spoken languages between approx. (30) _______________. Hardly any of these studied by non native speakers

*

English taught in most countries with structured education program. This trend is getting stronger.



Mad cow disease attacks the ______________ of the affected cows’ brains.

32

BSE is thought to be caused by infectious forms of ______________ known as prions.

33

Abnormal prions in BSE infected cattle are found in the small intestines, ______________ and the central nervous tissues.

34

Humans can take in the abnormal prions when they eat infected beef as the prions are resistant to the usual _______________ such as heat.

35

The one American case of CJD was a woman who caught it in _______________ before going to the US.


Questions 36 - 40 Complete the summary below of the second half of the humanities lecture on BSE. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

SUMMARY CJD causes gradual loss of mental function and movement due to brain damage from abnormal prions or it can be possibly (36) _______________. CJD usually affects younger people (between ages 20 to 70) usually showing symptoms in patients’ (37) _______________. Symptoms include personality changes and problems with (38) _______________. Once symptoms appear, the disorder progresses quickly to disability and death.

The exact causes of BSE are unknown but the first UK cases have indicated that it could come from a prion disease in (39) _______________ called scrapie that was fed to cattle. Dead cattle with scrapie were then fed to (40) _______________ making them cannibals. So, we are in turn infected by the disease that we created when we eat infected beef.


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Questions 1 - 13

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 13 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. Myxomatosis is a highly lethal disease affecting rabbits caused by the myxoma virus. The disease was uncovered in South America in 1896 where it had a devastating effect on the rabbit population there. It was found that it was mainly the European rabbit imported early that century that contracted the disease as resistance had been built up by the local populations. Up until recently rabbits have been extensively hunted for both their fur and their meat. This activity as well as the presence of other predators such as foxes and feral cats acted in the past to keep down the population of rabbits and man is still the main predator in South American countries. However, in other countries man has had a less and less important role as a predator and has in fact helped to reduce the population of the rabbits’ natural predators through habitat destruction, urbanisation and cultivation. These changes have resulted in a precarious balance of the rabbit population in many areas where any factors enhancing rabbit survival can result in a huge population boom. Rabbits compete with livestock and native herbivores for food. They are highly selective grazers that concentrate on the most nutritious plants, including seedlings, and eat them to below ground level. This can change the species composition of pastures and reduce productivity. They act as competition for hares and other herbivores and grazing animals, reducing the agricultural output of the land. The European wild rabbit was introduced into Australia in 1759 when Thomas Austin imported 24 rabbits from England where it was also an exotic animal, having been introduced from Spain during the Norman conquests. He released the rabbits onto his property for sport hunting. The rabbit spread so rapidly that it reached the Queensland - New South Wales border by 1886. Almost all of the rabbits in Australia are descendants of the 24 original rabbits and are genetically homogenous. This fact beyond all others might be the cause of the spectacular effect the introduction of the virus had on the rabbit population as a whole. The lack of any herbivores capable of competing with the rabbit for food and burrows resulted in the decline of many species of native wildlife. This applied particularly to the small ground-dwelling mammals of the arid lands. This situation was made worse by the lack of a large population of predators able to deal with this new prey. However, to the human population of Australia, all of this was irrelevant next to the economic loss caused by rabbits grazing on pasture used by sheep and other herbivores, reducing the number of sheep capable of grazing per acre, and the loss of wool and revenue thus caused. It was not until 1950 that myxomatosis was successfully released among Australian rabbits. This occurred after much debate, experimentation of what the effects of such a drastic move would be and political wrangling. After a slow start the initial results fulfilled all expectations with a mortality rate of over 90%. The virus spread most quickly during the summer when the mosquito population was at its maximum, resulting in very successful transmission of the virus between separate colonies. Myxomatosis is accompanied by a profuse ocular discharge as well as a discharge from skin lesions, both of which are rich in virus. These discharges allow transmission of the virus by direct contact. Transmission via the respiratory tract is also possible if rare. Infection does not occur by feeding and therefore there is no faecooral transmission. Academic Test 8; Page 9

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A wide number of mosquitoes, fleas, ticks, mites and lice have also been shown to be vectors. This allows the spread of the virus to take place between colonies of rabbits and in the case of the fleas, allows rabbits from a different colony to become infected by coming into contact with flea-infested carcasses of rabbits in warrens where all the occupants have been killed by myxomatosis some months previously. The initial Australian epidemic continued during the next few years, spreading and remaining highly virulent, especially in the summers when the mosquito population was at its highest. Epidemics were often started by the continued inoculation by farmers of the wild rabbit population every summer and spring, a method still used today. However, the capacity for the virus to survive over the winter favoured a less lethal disease, and this, combined with genetic resistance, has resulted in a much reduced mortality rate, even though sporadic outbreaks of the original virulent virus sometimes occur. Rabbits which recover from myxomatosis are immune to re-infection for the rest of their lives. Also immune mothers pass passive immunity to their young. However, due to the short lifetimes of rabbits, often little more than a year in the wild, this has little effect in practice. Of more importance has been the in-built genetic immunity of certain rabbits in the population. Survival of these rabbits, combined with their high reproduction rate and the death of the competition, meant that a population of genetically more resistant rabbits was quickly built up. Today myxomatosis in Australia kills only about 40% of infected rabbits but rabbit numbers are much lower than they would have been in the absence of this disease. However, they still are a major pest in Australia and other methods for their eradication are being investigated.


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Questions 1 - 5 Look at the following 10 statements A - J. According to Reading Passage 1, FIVE statements are TRUE. The other FIVE statements are either FALSE or the information is not given in the passage. Choose from the appropriate letters A - J which statements are true and write them on your answer sheet for questions 1 - 5. The answers may be written in any order. A

Predators helped keep Australian rabbit numbers in check before the population boom.

B

Rabbits can still infect other rabbits after they have died from myxomatosis.

C

The rabbit is not a native animal to England.

D

Rabbits that recover from myxomatosis can still die if they are re-infected.

E

Enthusiastic support of myxomatosis introduction into Australia ensured that the introduction process went forward quickly.

F

Selected wild Australian rabbits are injected every year with the myxoma virus.

G

Discharge from the eyes of infected rabbits contributes to the spread of myxomatosis.

H

Interbreeding with Asian rabbit breeds has helped boost the Australian rabbits’ immunity to myxomatosis.

I

60% of Australian rabbits are now unaffected by myxomatosis.

J

The main reason for releasing myxomatosis into Australia was financial.


Where are humans still the main threat to rabbits?

7

Apart from damage to their natural environment, what TWO other factors have reduced the amount of animals that feed on rabbits? Academic Test 8; Page 9

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8

Why were rabbits originally taken to Australia?

9

What are TWO things that rabbits challenge other Australian plant eating animals for?

10

Which Australian raw material was particularly affected by the increase in Australian rabbit numbers?

11

What helped the spread of myxomatosis during the Australian summers?

12

What other factor has united with a more harmless form of the myxoma virus to allow more Australian rabbits to survive myxomatosis infection?

Questions 13 From the list below choose the most suitable title for Reading Passage 1. Write the appropriate letter (A - E) in box 13 on your answer sheet A

A Threat to Humanity

B

Australian Diseases

C

The Disease that Saved Australian Farmers

D

The Genetics of Australian Rabbits

E

The Pathology of Rabbit Infections


READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 14 - 26

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14 – 26 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following page. The Cause of the Next Ice Age? If you look at a globe, you’ll see that the latitude of much of Europe and Scandinavia is the same as that of Alaska and permafrost-locked parts of northern Canada and central Siberia. Yet Europe has a climate more similar to that of the United States than northern Canada or Siberia. It turns out that our warmth is the result of ocean currents that bring warm surface water up from the equator into northern regions that would otherwise be so cold that even in summer they’d be covered with ice. The current of greatest concern is often referred to as the Great Conveyor Belt which includes what we call the Gulf Stream. This is mostly driven by the force created by differences in water temperatures and salinity. The North Atlantic Ocean is saltier and colder than the Pacific. As a result, the warm water of the Great Conveyor Belt evaporates out of the North Atlantic leaving behind saltier waters which are cooled by the cold continental winds off the northern parts of North America. Salty, cool waters settle to the bottom of the sea, most at a point a few hundred kilometres south of the southern tip of Greenland, producing a whirlpool of falling water that’s 5 to 10 miles across. This falling column of cold, salt-laden water pours itself to the bottom of the Atlantic, where it forms a great undersea river forty times larger than all the rivers on land combined, flowing south down to and around the southern tip of Africa where it finally reaches the Pacific. Amazingly, the water is so deep and so dense that it often doesn’t surface in the Pacific for as much as a thousand years after it first sank in the North Atlantic off the coast of Greenland. The out-flowing undersea river of cold, salty water makes the level of the Atlantic fractionally lower than that of the Pacific, drawing in a strong surface current of warm, fresher water from the Pacific to replace the outflow of the undersea river. This warmer, fresher water slides up through the South Atlantic, loops around North America where it’s known as the Gulf Stream, and ends up off the coast of Europe. By the time it arrives near Greenland, it’s cooled off and evaporated enough water to become cold and salty and sink to the ocean floor, providing a continuous feed for that deep-sea river flowing to the Pacific. These two flows warm, fresher water in from the Pacific, which then grows salty and cools and sinks to form an exiting deep sea river - are known as the Great Conveyor Belt. Prior to the last decades it was thought that the periods between glaciations and warmer times in North America, Europe, and North Asia were gradual. We knew from the fossil record that the Great Ice Age period began a few million years ago and during those years there were times when for hundreds or thousands of years North America, Europe, and Siberia were covered with thick sheets of ice year round. In between these icy times, there were periods when the glaciers thawed, bare land was exposed, forests grew, and land animals (including early humans) moved into these northern regions. Most scientists figured the transition time from icy to warm was gradual, lasting dozens to hundreds of years and nobody was sure exactly what had caused it. Recently however, scientists have been shocked to discover that the transitions from ice age-like weather to contemporary-type weather usually took only two or three years. Something was flipping the weather of the planet back and forth with a rapidity that was startling. What brought on this sudden effect was that the warm-water currents of the Great Academic Test 8; Page 11

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Conveyor Belt had shut down. Once the Gulf Stream was no longer flowing, it only took a year or three for the last of the residual heat held in the North Atlantic Ocean to dissipate into the air over Europe and then there was no more warmth to moderate the northern latitudes. When the summer stopped in the north, the rains stopped around the equator. At the same time that Europe was plunged into an Ice Age, the Middle East and Africa were ravaged by drought and wind-driven firestorms. If the Great Conveyor Belt, which includes the Gulf Stream, were to stop flowing today, the result would be sudden and dramatic. Winter would set in for the eastern half of North America and all of Europe and Siberia and never go away. Within three years, those regions would become uninhabitable and nearly two billion humans would starve, freeze to death or have to relocate. Civilization as we know it probably couldn’t withstand the impact of such a crushing blow. Most scientists involved in research on this topic agree that the culprit is global warming, which melts the icebergs on Greenland and the Arctic icepack and thus flushes cold, fresh water down into the Greenland Sea from the north diluting its salinity. When a critical threshold is reached, the climate will suddenly switch to an ice age that could last minimally 700 or so years, and maximally 100,000 years. No one knows when it will happen but what’s almost certain is that if nothing is done about global warming, it will happen sooner rather than later.

Questions 14 - 18 Read the passage The Cause of the Next Ice Age? again and look at the statements below. In boxes 14 - 18 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


14

Another name for the Great Conveyer Belt is the better known name the Gulf Stream.

15

The surface of the Atlantic Ocean is higher than the surface of the Pacific Ocean.

16

The last time the Great Conveyer Belt shut down it caused the deaths of thousands.

17

The arrival of cooler water in the Pacific Ocean affects the weather there too.

18

Global warming has caused the North Atlantic Ocean to become less salty. Academic Test 8; Page 14

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The author points out the reason why Europe is not __________ like other countries of the same latitude.

20

The author likens the north – south flow of the Great Conveyer Belt to a __________.

21

Scientist can date the last great Ice Age thanks to __________.

22

Lately there has been a __________ discovery that the change from today’s temperate style weather to ice age weather was in fact a fast change.

23

The author identifies the __________ for the possible shutting down of the Great Conveyer Belt as being global warming.


What do the sinking waters create on the surface of the North Atlantic Ocean?

25

How long can it take for water leaving the surface near Greenland to travel through the Great Conveyer Belt to the surface of the Pacific Ocean?

26

If the Great Conveyer Belt stopped, what would be the maximum amount of time for it to stop heating northern Europe? Academic Test 8; Page 13

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READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 27 - 40


Malaria A Approximately 300 million people worldwide are affected by malaria and between 1 and 1.5 million people die from it every year. Previously extremely widespread, malaria is now mainly confined to Africa, Asia and Latin America. The problem of controlling malaria in these countries is aggravated by inadequate health structures and poor socio-economic conditions. The situation has become even more complex over the last few years with the increase in resistance to the drugs normally used to combat the parasite that causes the disease.

B Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium. Four species of Plasmodium can produce the disease in its various forms: plasmodium falciparum, plasmodium vivax, plasmodium ovale and plasmodium malaria. Plasmodium falciparum is the most widespread and dangerous of the four: untreated it can lead to fatal cerebral malaria. Malaria parasites are transmitted from one person to another by the female anopheline mosquito. The males do not transmit the disease as they feed only on plant juices. There are about 380 species of anopheline mosquito, but only 60 or so are able to transmit the parasite. Their sensitivity to insecticides is also highly variable.

C Plasmodium develops in the gut of the mosquito and is passed on in the saliva of an infected insect each time it takes a new blood meal. The parasites are then carried by the blood into the victim’s liver where they invade the cells and multiply. After nine to sixteen days they return to the blood and penetrate the red cells where they multiply again, progressively breaking down the red cells. This induces bouts of fever and anaemia in the infected individual. In the case of cerebral malaria the infected red cells obstruct the blood vessels in the brain. Other vital organs can also be damaged often leading to the death of the patient.

D Malaria is diagnosed by the clinical symptoms and microscopic examination of the blood. It can normally be cured by anti-malarial drugs. The symptoms - fever, shivering, pain in the joints and headache - quickly disappear once the parasite is killed. In certain regions, however, the parasites have developed resistance to certain anti-malarial drugs, particularly chloroquine. Patients in these areas require treatment with other more expensive drugs. In endemic regions where transmission rates are high, people are continually infected so that they gradually develop immunity to the disease. Until they have acquired such immunity, children remain highly vulnerable. Pregnant women are also highly susceptible since the natural defence mechanisms Academic Test 8; Page 16

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are reduced during pregnancy.

E Malaria has been known since time immemorial but it was centuries before the true causes were understood. Surprisingly in view of this some ancient treatments were remarkably effective. An infusion of qinghao containing artemisinin has been used for at least the last 2000 years in China and the antifebrile properties of the bitter bark of Cinchona Ledgeriana were known in Peru before the 15th century. Quinine, the active ingredient of this potion, was first isolated in 1820 by the pharmacists. Although people were unaware of the origin of malaria and the mode of transmission, protective measures against the mosquito have been used for many hundreds of years. The inhabitants of swampy regions in Egypt were recorded as sleeping in tower-like structures out of the reach of mosquitoes, whereas others slept under nets as early as 450 B.C.

F Malaria has social consequences and is a heavy burden on economic development. It is estimated that a single bout of malaria costs a sum equivalent to over 10 working days in Africa. The cost of treatment is between $US0.08 and $US5.30 according to the type of drugs prescribed as determined by local drug resistance. In 1987 the total cost of malaria - health care, treatment, lost production, etc. - was estimated to be $US800 million for tropical Africa and this figure is currently estimated to be more than $US1800 million.

G The significance of malaria as a health problem is increasing in many parts of the world. Epidemics are even occurring around traditionally endemic zones in areas where transmission had been eliminated. These outbreaks are generally associated with deteriorating social and economic conditions and the main victims are underprivileged rural populations. Economic and political pressures compel entire populations to leave malaria free areas and move into endemic zones. People who are non-immune are at high risk of severe disease. Unfortunately, these population movements and the intensive urbanisation are not always accompanied by adequate development of sanitation and health care. In many areas conflict, economic crises and administrative disorganization can result in the disruption of health services. The absence of adequate health services frequently results in recourse to self-administration of drugs often with incomplete treatment. This is a major factor in the increase in resistance of the parasites to previously effective drugs.

H The hope of global eradication of malaria was finally abandoned in 1969 when it was recognised that this was unlikely ever to be achieved. Ongoing control programs remain essential in endemic areas. In all situations control programs should be based on half a dozen objectives: provision of early diagnosis, prompt treatment to all people at risk, selective application of sustainable preventive measures, vector control adapted to the local situations, the development of reliable information on infection risk and assessment of living conditions of concerned populations. Malaria is a complex disease but it is a curable and preventable one. Academic Test 8; Page 15 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 27 - 33 The reading passage on Malaria has 8 paragraphs (A – H). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – H. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 27 – 33 on your answer sheet. NB


27

Paragraph B

28

Paragraph C

i

Old Remedies

ii

Fatality Rates

iii

Shifting Demographics Cause Further Problems

iv

The Current Situation

v

The Bug and its Carriers

vi

Total Elimination of Malaria

vii

Tackling Malaria Today

viii

Transmission to Humans and Effects

ix

Local African Medicine

x

Malaria’s Effect on the Community

xi

Identification

Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv


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29

Paragraph D

30

Paragraph E

31

Paragraph F

32

Paragraph G

33

Paragraph H

Questions 34 - 36 Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of Reading Passage 3 Malaria? In Boxes 34 - 36 write: YES


NO


NOT GIVEN


34

Ancient Peruvian doctors were famous for their malarial treatment.

35

Children are always under great threat from malaria.

36

Poorer people are usually more at risk from malaria.


Questions 37 - 40 Complete the following statements (Questions 37 - 40) with the best ending from the box below (A - H) according to the information in the reading passage Malaria. Write the appropriate letter (A - H) in boxes 37 - 40 on your answer sheet. There are more sentence endings (A - H) than questions so you will not need to use them all.

37

Anopheline mosquitoes…

38

Parasites located in victims’ livers…

39

Unfinished courses of anti-malarial drugs…

40

Control programs to protect people from malaria…

A

…have finally been eradicated.

B

…are not always affected by insecticides.

C

…are the results of incompetent doctors.

D

…are always female.

E

…have been taken for hundreds of years.

F

…should be based on seven clear goals.

G

…have resulted in parasitic resistance to treatment.

H

…are later found again in the bloodstream.


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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 8 WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The two pie charts below show the marital status of Australia’s and Canada’s populations for 1999 and 2000 respectively. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words. Marital Status of Australia’s Population, 1999

3% 53% 29% 7% 7% 1%

Marital Status of Canada’s Population, 2000 2% 41% 46% 5% 6%


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WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Success is something which most people try to achieve. What can success mean to different people? What is your view of success? You should write at least 250 words.


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Do you work or study? - What job do you do? / What job would you like to do? What hours do you work? / What hours would you like to work? At what age would you like to stop working?

Topic 1 * * * *

How often do you take photographs? Why do people take photographs? Do you like being in photographs? (Why/Why not?) What’s your favourite photograph? (Why?)

Topic 2 * * * *

Taking Photographs

Sleep

How many hours a night do you sleep? How many hours sleep a night do you think people need? Do you ever find it difficult to fall asleep? (Why/Why not?) Do you think it’s a good idea to have a short sleep during the day? (Why/Why not?)

Section 2 Describe a memorable journey you have taken You should say: where you went how long it took why you went on it and explain why it was so memorable for you Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

What’s the best way to travel around your country? Could you compare how people travel today with how they used to travel 50 years ago? What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of being able to travel around the world so easily nowadays? Do you feel that the globalisation of big business is a good or bad thing for the world?

Topic 2 * * * *

Changes in Travelling

Flying

How often do you travel by plane? Do you think flying is justified when you take into account how much pollution it produces? Could you compare travelling by plane and travelling by train? How do you think we will replace flying when we run out of fossil fuels? Academic Test 8; Page 21

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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC MODULE PRACTICE TEST 9 ACADEMIC LISTENING PRACTICE TEST 9 SECTION 1 Questions 1 - 10 Questions 1 - 5 Circle the correct letters A - C. Example When was the last time that John and Frank saw each other? A B C 1

What is John’s job? A B C

2

Europe Africa North America

What’s Frank’s job? A B C

4

Doctor Teacher Chemist

Which of the following continents did John not visit on his travels? A B C

3

9 years 10 years 11 years

Journalist Travel writer College lecturer

How many children do Frank and Liz have? A B C

0 2 3 Academic Test 9; Page 1 © ieltshelpnow.com

5

When did John and Kate get married? A B C

the last year of college the year after graduation 2 years after graduation


What time should Frank and Liz go to dinner? __________________

7

What’s Frank’s mobile phone number? __________________

8

What’s on the other side of the road from John and Kate’s flat? __________________

9

What does Liz NOT like to eat? __________________

Questions 10 Circle the correct letter A - C. 10

Which bell button is the one for John and Kate’s flat?

A ☼

☼ ☼ ☼

B ☼

C

☼ ☼ ☼ Academic Test 9; Page 2

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SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 14 What FOUR sports facilities are currently NOT available at the Westley University Sports Centre. football

hockey

basketball

badminton

martial arts

netball

trampolines

aerobics

modern dance

spinning

yoga

weight training

aerobic training

running machines

swimming pool

rugby

squash

football

cricket

hockey

Questions 15 - 20 Complete the student’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Joining the Sports Centre To be student member of Sports Centre you must be full time/part time at uni. + Students’ Union member. Come with NUS card to Sports Centre reception between 9.00am and 3.30pm from (15) __________ to Saturday. Present NUS card, fill out application form and pay subscription. Student subscription is (16) __________. Pay by cash or cheque; not credit cards. No photos necessary; (17) __________ at reception. Members can use the facilities at any time. Because of (18) __________ members must show membership card every time they come in. Replacement cards cost (19) __________. Members can book courts, not by phone, with membership cards. Opening Times (7 days a week) Monday to Saturday Sunday Academic Test 9; Page 3

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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 25 Answer questions 21 - 25 below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 21

What subject does Professor Cameron teach? ___________________________

22

What time will next week’s seminar be? ___________________________

23

To what problem of Maggie’s does Professor Cameron refer? ___________________________

24

Who has the students’ extended essays from the last semester? ___________________________

25

How many students did badly in last semester’s extended essay? ___________________________



The students will have a choice of _______________ titles for this semester’s extended essay.

27

Professor Cameron says that he will look at _______________ until the end of April.

28

This semester’s extended essay word limit range is between _______________.

29

The students extended essay for this semester will be based on _______________ at the university’s facilities.

30

Rob will be able to help students at _______________.


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 36 Complete the Megalodon description below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. THE MEAGALODON (Carcharadon Megalodon) - the largest predator that ever lived on Earth Size * *

12 m + (possibly up to 15m or 31m) About 3 X length of Great White Shark (estimates from fossilized teeth + vertebrae)

Teeth * * * *

Size of (31) _________________ Very hard and fossilised well unlike all other parts of sharks’ cartilage skeletons Bone-like material coated with (32) _________________ Like Great White Shark teeth but bigger, thicker + more finely serrated

Appearance *

Possibly like a huge, streamlined Great White Shark

Jaws * * * * * *

Open (33) _________________ wide and 7 feet high; could swallow enormous objects Loosely attached by ligaments and muscles to the skull Teeth probably located in rotating rows First two rows of teeth for (34) _________________, others rotate into place as needed Lost, broken or worn teeth replaced by new ones Did not chew food; gulped whole large chunks

Diet * * *

Mainly whales. Sharks eat approx. (35) _________________ of body weight daily Remains of whales with (36) _________________ indicate predator - prey relationship


Questions 37 - 40 Are the following statements TRUE or FALSE. 37

The speaker gives another example of a fish that everyone mistakenly thought was extinct.

38

In 1918, a giant shark attacked some Port Stephens fishermen killing one of them.

39

The Port Stephens fishermen all agreed with each other on their description of the shark that they saw.

40

The Megalodon sighting near Broughton Island happened again the next day.



Questions 1 - 14

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. PHRENOLOGY – INTERPRETING THE MIND Phrenology is the doctrine that proposes that psychological traits of personality, intellect, temperament, and character are ascertainable from analysis of the protrusions and depressions in the skull. It was an idea created by Franz Joseph Gall in 1796. Gall referred to his new idea in English as cranioscopy. It was only later that Johanne Spurzheim, one of Gall’s students, labeled the idea phrenology after Gall’s death. Gall’s idea was spurred when he noticed that university classmates who could memorize great amounts of information with relative ease seemed to have prominent eyes and large foreheads. He speculated that other internal qualities, besides memory, might be indicated by an external feature also. Gall theorised that traits were located in particular regions of the brain. Enlargements or depressions in the brain in particular areas meant a greater than normal or less than normal quantity of the given trait. It was assumed that the external contour of the skull accurately reflected the external contour of the brain where traits were localized. Carl Cooter, another advocate of phrenology asserted that there were five major parts to phrenology theory. The first was simply that the brain was the organ of the mind. The second was that the brain was not a homogeneous unity, but a compilation of mental organs with specific functions. The third was that the organs were topographically localised. The fourth was that the relative size of any one of the organs could be taken as a measure of that organ’s power over the person’s behaviour. The fifth and final part of Cooter’s theory was that external craniological features could be used to diagnose the internal state of the mental faculties. All of these parts were based on observations Cooter made. Sebastian Leibl, a student of Cooter’s, theorized that there could be anywhere from 27 to 38 regions on the skull indicative of the organs of the brain, each of which stood for a different personality characteristic. Leibl further theorised that the different regions of the brain would grow or shrink with usage, just as muscles will grow larger when exercised. If a certain part of the brain grew from increased use, the skull covering that part of the brain would bulge out to make room for the expanded brain tissue. With these assumptions, the bumps on one’s skull could be felt and the abilities and personality traits of a person could be assessed. Spurzheim put a more metaphysical and philosophical spin on Gall’s concept when he named it phrenology, meaning “science of the mind”. To Spurzheim phrenology was the science that could tell people what they are and why exactly they are who they are. Spurzheim wrote that the premise of phrenology was to use the methods to identify individuals who stood out at both poles of society: those with a propensity for making important social contributions and those with a greater than normal tendency for evil. The former were to be encouraged, nurtured, and developed in order to maximize their potential for good. The latter needed to be curbed and segregated to protect society from their predisposition to be harmful to others. Phrenology has met up with a good deal of criticism since it was proposed, but over time Academic Test 9; Page 8

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it has also been credited for certain things. John Fancher, a critic of phrenology, states that it was a curious mixture, combining some keen observations and insights with an inappropriate scientific procedure. Most criticism is aimed at the poor methods used by phrenologists and the tangent from standard scientific procedure in investigating. Pierre Flourens was also appalled by the shoddy methods of phrenologists and was determined to study the functions of the brain strictly by experiment. The specific technique that Flourens used was ablation, the surgical removal of certain small parts of the brain. Flourens was a very skilled surgeon and used ablation to cleanly excise certain slices from the brain. He ablated precisely determined portions of bird, rabbit, and dog brains. Flourens then observed the behavior of his subject. Since, for obvious ethical reasons, he was only able to use animals, he could not test uniquely human faculties. He never tested or measured any behaviour until he nursed his subjects back to health after their operations. Flourens’s subjects did show a lowering of all functions but not just one function as Gall’s theory would have predicted. Gall asserted that he wiped out many organs all at once when he ablated part of the brain. This explained the general lowering of all functions in many of his subjects. Despite attacks from Flourens and others, phrenology held its appeal to scientists in Europe who would bring the idea across to America where it would flourish.

Questions 1 – 8 Answer questions 1 - 8 below by writing the initials of the phrenology scientist to which the questions refer in boxes 1- 8 on your answer sheet. The initials of the phrenology scientists are in the table on the folowing page. NB

In one question you must write the initials of TWO phrenology scientists.

1

Which phrenology scientist did not use the term phrenology?

2

Which phrenology scientist theorised that you could identify people’s morality using phrenology?

3

Which phrenology scientist theorised that the size of certain parts of human brains would increase if they were used a lot?

4

Which TWO phrenology scientists did not agree with the way phrenologists came to their conclusions?

5

Which phrenology scientist theorised that the size of a certain part of the brain corresponds to that part of the brain’s influence over a person’s actions?

6

Which phrenology scientist theorised that the human brain was a collection of cerebral organs?

7

Which phrenology scientist was an expert at performing operations?

8

Which phrenology scientist proposed theories based on his observations of colleagues? Academic Test 9; Page 9

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The Phrenology Scientists

FG

Franz Joseph Gall

CC

Carl Cooter

SL

Sebastian Leibl

JS

Johanne Spurzheim

JF

John Fancher

PF

Pierre Flourens

Questions 9 - 14 Read the passage Phrenology - Interpreting the Mind again and look at the statements below. In boxes 9 - 14 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


9

Flourens conducted brain experiments on human patients.

10

The theories of phrenology thrived in America.

11

Gall theorised that phrenology could only indicate memory ability.

12

Flourens worked with Fancher to investigate phrenology using standard scientific experiments.

13

Gall also conducted experiments on live subjects.

14

Spurzheim’s theories were used by governments as a rationale to segregate certain undesirable parts of society. Academic Test 9; Page 10

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READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 15 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. DETECTING DECEPTION According to lay theory there exist three core basic signs for spotting liars. These are speaking quickly and excessive fluctuations in pitch of voice, the liar becoming fidgety and hesitant when questioned on detail, and failure to make eye-contact. There is nothing too perplexing about that. Yet, a good liar will be just as aware of these as the person they’re lying to and thus will ensure that eye contact especially is evident. Shifty eyes can indicate that someone is feeling emotional perhaps from a lie, or perhaps just from nerves as a result of lying. Of course, this does not apply to instances where eye contact is non-existent, like during a telephone conversation. Psychologist Paul Eckman states that extensive use of details can make lies more believable. But they can also often trip up the liar. If the details change or contradict each other, you should suspect you’re being had. There exists an intrinsic link between emotional connections and effective lying. The notion is that it is harder to lie to those whom we know well and care for. There are two reasons for this: firstly, those close to us are more aware of our mannerisms and behavioural patterns and can more readily detect our default lying techniques. The second reason is that people we don’t know lack the emotional response that people we are close to have regarding lying. Robert Galatzer-Levy, MD, a psychoanalyst in private practice, reasons that, “The good liar doesn’t feel bad or have a guilty conscience, so it’s much more difficult to pick up on cues that they are lying.” This is why it is apparently so easy for salesmen and politicians alike to lie so effortlessly. Recently a lot of politicians have been making outrageous claims about their ability to tell when a person is lying. Many lay people apparently believe that people can make a pretty good assessment of when a person is lying or not. Research illustrates, however, that nothing could be further from the truth. University of Maryland professor, Patricia Wallace, an expert on deception detection states, “Psychological research on deception shows that most of us are poor judges of truthfulness and this applies even to professionals such as police and customs inspectors whose jobs are supposed to include some expertise at lie detection.” She then goes on to describe two of the many experiments in the psychological research literature which support this contention. The first study was conducted in 1987 and looked at whether police officers could be trained to detect deceptive eye witness statements. They watched videotaped statements of witnesses, some of whom were truthful and others who were not. They were told to pay close attention to non-verbal cues, such as body movements and posture, gestures, and facial expressions. They were also instructed to pay attention to the tempo and pitch of voices. In the end, however, the officers did only slightly better than chance at determining whether the witnesses were being truthful. And the more confident the officer was of his or her judgment, the more likely he or she was to be wrong. Airline customs inspectors, whose very job is to try and determine suspiciousness and lying, and lay people were used in another experiment. The inspectors and lay people in this Academic Test 9; Page 11

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experiment weren’t given any specific training or instructions on what to look for. They were simply told to judge the truthfulness of mock inspection interviews viewed on videotape and determine whether the passenger was carrying contraband and lying about it. The “passengers” being interviewed were actually paid volunteers whose job it was to try and fool the inspectors. Neither lay people nor inspectors did much better than chance. When questioned about what types of signs they looked for to determine lying behavior, the inspectors and lay people relied largely on preconceived notions about liars in general: liars will give short answers, volunteer extra information, show poor eye contact and nervous movements and evade questions. What nearly all deception experiments have in common to date is that they use videotape instead of live people in their design. Some might argue that it is this very difference which politicians and others are trying to emphasize. This is that people can’t tell when people are lying on videotape but can when the person is there, live, in front of them. Without research teasing out these subtle differences, however, it would be a leap of logic to simply assume that something is missing in a videotaped interview. This is a seemingly baseless assumption. A person interviewed on videotape is very much live to the people doing the interviewing. It is simply a recording of a live event. While there may be differences, we simply don’t know that any indeed exist. Without that knowledge, anyone who claims to know is simply speaking from ignorance or prejudice. The conclusions from this research are obvious. Trained professionals and untrained lay people, in general, cannot tell when a person is lying. If you’ve known someone for years, your chances for detecting truthfulness are likely higher, but strangers trying to guess truthfulness in other strangers will do no better than chance in their accuracy.

Questions 15 - 20 Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer in Reading Passage 2? In boxes 15 - 20 on your answer sheet write: YES

if the statement agrees with the information

NO

if the statement contradicts the statement

NOT GIVEN

if there is no information on this in the passage

15

Tactics that liars use to trick people frequently give them away.

16

Good liars show less emotional response to the fact that they are lying.

17

In the two experiments described in the text, the police performed better than the airline customs inspectors.

18

The preparation for both experiments described in the text were very similar. Academic Test 9; Page 12

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19

Not looking people in the eye was one technique used by the airline customs inspectors to help successfully spot liars.

20

Patricia Wallace has carried out at least two deception experiments.


It has been put forward that politicians use the _____________ between speaking live and on television to help them fool people.

22

Liars are often _____________ the things that people look for in liars.

23

Two vocal clues that policemen listened for in their experiment were _____________.

24

_____________ were used to try and fool the airline customs inspectors and lay people.


Apart from television, what example does the text give of conversation when people don’t look each other in the eye?

26

Who have recently asserted that they can spot liars easily?

27

What is the similarity in most psychological lying research? Academic Test 9; Page 13

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READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below. The History of Paper A When we think of the origins of paper, our minds might wander back over 5000 years ago to the Nile river valley in Egypt. It was there that a marsh grass called Cyperous Papyrus flourished. The Egyptians cut thin strips from the plant’s stem and softened them in the muddy waters of the Nile. These strips were then layered in right angles to form a kind of mat. The mat was then pounded into a thin sheet and left in the sun to dry. The resulting sheets were ideal for writing on. Since they were also lightweight and portable they became the writing medium of choice of the Egyptians, Greeks and Romans for record keeping, spiritual texts and works of art.

B Paper as we know it today comes from another source, China. It wasn’t until the 3rd century that the secret art of papermaking began to creep out of China, first to Vietnam and later to India. It made its true push westward in 751AD when the Tang Dynasty was at war with the Islamic world. During a battle on the banks of the Tarus River, Islamic warriors captured a Chinese caravan which happened to include several papermakers. They spirited them away to Samarkand, which soon became a great centre for paper production. Finally, when the Moors from North Africa invaded Spain and Portugal they brought the technology with them and so it was that papermaking entered Europe in the 12th century.

C In Europe, the use of papyrus had dropped out in the 9th century. The preferred medium for the artists and literati of the time was the smooth and lustrous parchment. However, parchment made from animal skin - was extremely expensive. The notion of paper being used as a practical everyday item did not occur until the 15th Century when Johann Gutenburg perfected movable type and sparked off a revolution in mass communication. The birth of the modern paper and printing industry is commonly marked from this time.

D Printing technology rapidly developed and created an ever increasing demand for paper. Early european paper was made from recycled cotton and linen - and a huge trade quickly developed around the trading of old rags. It is said that the black plague entered England from Europe on these old rags. Others experimented with fibres such as straw, cabbage, wasp nests and finally wood. This resulted in inexpensive - and replaceable - materials for paper making. Today, the long soft fibres of softwoods such as spruce have become the most suitable source of pulp for mass production. Academic Test 9; Page 14

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E The demand for paper also created the need for greater efficiency in production. In the late 18th century the labours of Nicholas Luis Robert resulted in the creation of a machine that could produce a seamless length of paper on an endless wire mesh with squeeze rollers at one end. Perfected and marketed by the Fourdrinier brothers, the new machine made papers that soon replaced traditional single sheets made by hand. In Europe and America, the mass-production of paper became a thriving industry supplying huge volumes of paper for a huge variety of purposes.

F Papermaking in essence is a simple process. Whether using recycled materials or fresh organic matter, the process starts as the material is shredded into small strips and soaked overnight to loosen the fibres. Next, the fibres are boiled for 2 to 6 hours, being turned every so often. When finished, the fibres are washed with fresh water to remove impurities and then small particles or specks are removed by hand. The fibres are beaten in a blender creating a creamy pulp. At this stage, dyes can be added to create coloured papers. The pulp is then poured into a large tub and the fibres are suspended in the water. Framed screens are lowered into the water and then lifted to the surface catching the fibres onto the screen. The screens are then dried, pressed and smoothed.

G In the west, as industrial paper production boomed, the art of hand paper-making has been driven nearly to extinction - being practiced only by a few fine artists and crafts people. However, in small areas throughout Asia, the tradition has lived on through regular and rice paper made by hand. Incidentally, the traditional Asian paper which is often referred to as “rice paper” is not made from rice fibres at all. More commonly it is made from the versatile mulberry tree - varieties of which are also used for feeding silkworms and in medicine. In contrast to the cold precision and standardisation which industrial production demands, the soft, subtle textures and natural feeling of handmade paper is said to echo the warm heart of the papermaker who makes each sheet with devotion.

H The new Millennium will be dominated by the tremendous progress that has been made in computer science, thus triggering a complete change in our commercial and private communication and information behaviour. Does this mean that the paper era will come to an end? The answer is most definitely “No”. Clearly there will be a huge amount of data being generated electronically, but the issue is how to preserve it. The difficulties of data storage over a long period of time are well known (for example, the durability of disks; frequent changes of hardware and software, electronic breakdowns etc.). Once again, paper offers the most convenient and durable storage option.


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Questions 28 - 34 The reading passage on The History of Paper has 8 paragraphs A – H. From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – H. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 28 – 34 on your answer sheet. NB


Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv

i

Arabian Expertise

ii

Traditional Paper Producers

iii

Superstition

iv

The Origins of Paper

v

The Development of Mass Production

vi

The Journey to the West

vii

The Prospects for Paper

viii

The Age of Experimentation

ix

The Father of Modern Paper

x

The Modern Process

xi

A Change of Material

28

Paragraph B

29

Paragraph C Academic Test 9; Page 16

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30

Paragraph D

31

Paragraph E

32

Paragraph F

33

Paragraph G

34

Paragraph H

Questions 35 - 38 Look at the following 8 statements A - H. According to Reading Passage 3, which FOUR statements are TRUE? The other four statements are either false or the information is not given in the passage. Choose from the appropriate letters, A - H, and write them on your answer sheet for questions 35 - 38. The answers may be written in any order. A

Today’s style of paper originated in Egypt.

B

Papyrus style paper was employed up to the 18th century.

C

There is a story that disease was spread due to the great demand for paper.

D

The author cites reasons why computer technology is not dependable.

E

Rice Paper has been used in medicine.

F

Paper was not used extensively until movable type was commonly used.

G

Robert’s invention led to the redundancy of the hand made paper industry.

H

Today paper is no longer hand made. Academic Test 9; Page 17

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Questions 39 and 40 Using the information in the passage, complete the flow chart below. Write your answers in boxes 39 and 40 on your answer sheet. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. The Paper Production Process The paper raw material is (eg) ____________ and then saturated in water.

Answer shredded

The sodden material is then boiled while being turned periodically.

Material fibres are washed and checked manually.

Fibres are then blended to (39) _________________.

Colouring added if desired and mixed with water.

(40) _________________ are dipped into the liquid.

Liquid paper is then pressed, smoothed and dried.

Dried paper is cut packaged and distributed. Academic Test 9; Page 18 © ieltshelpnow.com

ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 9 WRITING TASK 1 You should spend about 20 minutes on this task. The two line graphs below show different New Zealand import figures from Australia and Japan. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should write at least 150 words.


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WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. The American film industry has too much influence on the film industry around the world. Governments have a duty to invest money in their own film industries in order to protect and develop their own culture. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? You should write at least 250 words.



Describe the town where you live? Describe the countryside outside your town? What’s the weather like in your town?

Topic 1 * * * *

What do you think is the best age for people to learn to drive? What advice would you give someone who is about to drive for 5 hours? How can we reduce the amount of traffic on our roads? Do you think it should be law to wear a seat belt in the front and back seats of cars?

Topic 2 * * * *

Driving

The Telephone

How often do you use the telephone? Do you ever turn your phone off? (Why/Why not?) Do you think the mobile phone is a good thing or a bad thing? (Why?) If you were having dinner with someone, would you keep your phone on or off? (Why?)

Section 2 Describe a memorable book you have read You should talk about: its name and the person/people who wrote it what it was about/what happened why you read it and explain why it was so memorable for you Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

How can we encourage young people to read more books? Is there a future for books and libraries with the rise in popularity of the internet? What kind of skills does a person need to write a book? Would you like to write a book? (Why/Why not?)

Topic 2 * * * *

Books

Information Technology and Computers

How has the computer affected society in your country? Do you think computer skills should be taught in schools? (Why/Why not?) How do you think computer technology and IT will develop in the future? Could you comment on the idea that the introduction of computers has enormously increased unemployment? Academic Test 9; Page 21 © ieltshelpnow.com


Tennants Insurance Brokers Car Insurance Form

Example

Answer

Client’s Name

Mrs. Norma Willis

Address

Postcode

Flat 8 (1) ____________________ Dene Road Westley (2) ____________________

Home Tel.

none yet

Mobile Tel.

(3) ____________________

Car

Make Model Age Engine Size Garaged

Toyota MR2 (4) ____________________ 2 litre YES / NO

No Claims Bonus

(5) ____________________

Endorsements

3 points Academic Test 10; Page 1 © ieltshelpnow.com

Questions 6 - 8 Complete the list of Norma’s valuables below. HiFi TV (6) ____________________ Video player Couple of radios (7) ____________________ Laptop Printer DVDs CDs Jewelry - necklaces, (8) ____________________, rings + brooches

Questions 9 and 10 Circle the correct letters A - C. 9

Which list, A, B or C, correctly assesses the protection for Norma’s flat?

A

B

Ground floor flat neighbourhood watch scheme motion sensor double glazed windows + extra locks smoke alarm

Ground floor flat dead bolt lock burglar alarm motion sensor double glazed windows + extra locks smoke alarm

C 1st floor flat dead bolt lock burglar alarm connected with police station motion sensor double glazed windows + extra locks smoke alarm 10

What does Norma buy at the end? A B C

Car insurance only Contents insurance only Car insurance + Contents insurance Academic Test 10; Page 2 © ieltshelpnow.com

SECTION 2 Questions 11 - 20 Questions 11 - 15 Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer. 11

Where will the future residence launderette be?

12

What special facility does Betty offer at the Launderette?

13

Which number bus does Simon advise Jo to take?

14

Where can students get advice on Council Tax?

15

Where does Simon say that Bill should register for his Council Tax?


If there is a fire, residents should meet on _______________.

17

Fire practices are held every _______________.

18

If you want to watch a _______________, do so in your own room.

18

Strangely enough the Chinese family sells _______________.

20

Simon suggests asking for a _______________ when residents order a meal from a takeaway. Academic Test 10; Page 3

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SECTION 3 Questions 21 - 30 Questions 21 - 25 Circle the correct letter A - C. 21

According to Nick the first Australian immigrants were: A B C

22

What was the name of the first British colony in Australia? A B C

23

Just after the first colony expanded After Australian Federation After World War II

Why was there bad feeling towards many Chinese immigratants in the 1850s? A B C

25

Victoria New South Wales New London

When was the White Australia Policy started? A B C

24

The ancestors of aborigines Petty criminals Sailors

They opened restaurants They were searching for gold They would work for less money than the local Australians

When were Asian students first allowed to study at Australian universities? A B C

1950 1957 1973


Questions 26 - 30 Complete Adrian’s notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Australian Immigration Two Current Immigration Programs 1

1 2

The Migration Program The Humanitarian Program

The Migration Program To get Australian permanent residence, immigrants must be: * *

(26) _______________, or sponsored by a family member currently resident in Australia

2004-05 Migration Program has 120,000 places available The Department of Immigration particularly wants: * * 2

skilled immigrants immigrants who will move to regional areas of Australia

The Humanitarian Program

Two Components designed for refugees + others in special humanitarian need *

(27) _______________:

assists people overseas in humanitarian need

*

Other component:

People in Australia on temporary visas/without permission claiming asylum

2004 and 2005 Humanitarian Program has (28) _______________ places available Australian Illegal Migrants

People who...

* * * *

enter Australia without authority (29) _______________ work without appropriate approval have their visas cancelled and stay

Australia’s Migration Act1958 All non Australian citizens unlawfully in Australia to be detained and (30) _______________ unless given permission to remain


SECTION 4 Questions 31 - 40 Questions 31 - 36 Complete the lecture notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The Super Volcano *

No specifically defined scientific meaning - refers to volcanoes that have generated the Earth’s largest volcanic eruptions.

*

Super volcano eruption form calderas. Whereas normal volcano craters are measured in the hundreds of metres, a caldera can be easily as large as (31) __________ miles wide.

Super Volcano Caldera Locations: (not all active)

Long Valley, Eastern California Toba, Indonesia Lake Taupo, (32) __________ Japan Indonesia Scotland Alaska

Normal Volcano Formation - Magma column rises from Earth, erupts and hardens down sides creating the familiar (33) __________ mountain Super Volcano Formation Magma rises from Earth’s mantle creating (34) __________ in the Earth’s crust. Chamber increases to enormous size, creating colossal pressure. Eruption finally forms massive caldera. Results of Super Volcano Eruption *

Ash, dust and sulphur dioxide ejected, blocking sun & creating cold wave lasting several years. Plants and animals (including humans) would die.

*

Most recent caldera-forming eruption ((35) __________ ago approx.). Ash, pumice, and gases covered more than 3000 square miles and also went high into the stratosphere to circle the Earth, affecting its temperature. Ash from this eruption stll found in Iowa and in (36) __________ from the Gulf of Mexico.


Questions 37 - 40 Acording to the Earth Sciences lecture, which FOUR of the following facts are NOT true. Choose FOUR letters (A - H) and write them in any order in boxes 37 - 40 on your answer sheet.

A

Yellowstone Park has previously suffered three enormous eruptions.

B

The first super eruption in Yellowstone was over three million years ago.

C

The first super eruption in Yellowstone park created a caldera bigger than another state of the US.

D

Scientists say Yellowstone Park should erupt approximately every 600 000 years.

E

The ground level of Yellowstone Park has increased by over half a metre over the last 10 years.

F

A taskforce has been set up to plan for the possible devastation that a Yellowstone eruption would cause.

G

Evidence suggests that the super-eruption at Toba caused the Earth’s population of humans to drop to about 10 000.

H

A super-eruption could make the Earth’s temperature drop to 5 to 10 degrees celsius.



Questions 1 - 14

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1 – 14 which are based on Reading Passage 1 below. Hydrogen Cars A Record gas prices are making road trips more expensive than ever. But what if, instead of gas, your car ran on the most abundant element in our universe? Many experts think hydrogen will replace petrol, diesel and natural gas as the main fuel for cars, buses and trucks over the next few decades. Already car manufacturers around the world have invested billions of dollars in research and development.

B The advantages of hydrogen are enormous: no more smog-forming exhaust gases, no more carbon dioxide emissions that contribute to global warming, no more worries about diminishing oil supplies and rising prices. But some tricky questions need to be answered before massproduced hydrogen cars start appearing on the streets. Where will the hydrogen come from? How will motorists fill up? How will cars store the fuel? And there’s also the question of how best to tap the energy in the fuel for good, on-road performance.

C Two kinds of engines can use hydrogen as a fuel; those that have an internal combustion engine converted to use it and those that are made up of a stack of fuel cells. Internal combustion engines have powered cars since they first began to replace horse-drawn carriages more than 100 years ago. These engines can be converted to run on a variety of fuels, including hydrogen. However, most car makers think that fuel cells powering an electric motor offer a better alternative. Unlike heavy batteries that need frequent recharging, fuel cells make electricity as they go. Recent developments in technology too have greatly increased the amount of power that a stack of cells can provide. This has opened up the prospect of efficient, non-polluting electric cars.

D Fuel cell technology sounds simple. The hydrogen fuel reacts with oxygen from the air to produce water and electricity, the reverse of the familiar electrolysis process that releases oxygen and hydrogen from water. In reality of course it’s a bit more complicated. The big advantage of a fuel cell engine over an internal combustion engine running on hydrogen is its greater efficiency. The same amount of hydrogen will take a fuel cell car at least twice as far as one with a converted internal combustion engine. Academic Test 10; Page 8

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E Hydrogen has many advantages as a fuel for vehicles, but a big disadvantage is that it is difficult to store. This is because at normal temperatures hydrogen is a gas. The obvious solutions are to strongly compress the hydrogen, or liquefy it. However, tanks designed to hold hydrogen at extremely high pressures, or at temperatures approaching absolute zero, are heavy and expensive. So, high cost and the large amount of energy needed to liquefy the fuel are likely to be the main problems with refuelling with liquid hydrogen. Filling up with compressed hydrogen gas will probably prove more practical, even though it may reduce the distance between fills. Cars could store the hydrogen in high pressure tanks similar to those used for compressed natural gas or specially treated carbon may also hold large amounts.

F Although there’s no risk that we’ll ever run out of hydrogen, on Earth it exists naturally only in chemical compounds, not as hydrogen gas. A relatively simple principal technology, steam reforming, can produce hydrogen gas for cars at central plants or filling stations. Alternatively fuel tanks could be filled with petrol or methanol, with the cars using on-board reformers to generate hydrogen for their fuel cells. This shows promise as a transitional measure while research proceeds on the problems of storing hydrogen. Water is the only potentially pollutionfree source of hydrogen. Researchers are looking at new ways of producing hydrogen from water such as using algae, bacteria or photovoltaic cells to absorb sunlight and split water into hydrogen and oxygen. But the technology most likely to be adopted on a large scale is electrolysis, which uses an electric current to split water into oxygen and hydrogen.

G ‘Remember the Hindenburg’ – that’s a phrase often heard when hydrogen is discussed. This German passenger airship, kept aloft by hydrogen, crashed in flames as it came in to land at Lakehurst, New Jersey, USA in May 1937. Thirty-five people died. Nowadays helium, which can’t burn, is the gas of choice for lighter-than-air craft. Hydrogen is highly flammable, but recent research has indicated that the airship’s fabric, not hydrogen, was the culprit in the Hindenburg disaster. Properly handled, there’s no reason to think hydrogen is any more dangerous as a fuel than petrol, the explosive liquid now carried safely in the tanks of untold millions of motor vehicles.

H Recent technological advances, particularly in fuel cell design, have made hydrogen-powered cars a practical proposition, and car makers expect to start mass-producing them within the next decade or so. Their power and acceleration should match those of today’s conventionallypowered vehicles, but they may have to be refuelled more often. The best ways to produce, distribute and store the hydrogen still have to be sorted out. In the short term fossil fuels may remain in demand as a hydrogen source. However, the idea that in the not too distant future most of us will be driving non-polluting cars fuelled by hydrogen from a clean, renewable source is no longer a flight of fantasy. Academic Test 10; Page 9

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Questions 1 - 7 Reading Passage 1 has 8 paragraphs (A – H). From the list of headings below choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B – H. Write the appropriate number (i – xi) in boxes 1 – 7 on your answer sheet. NB


Example

Answer

Paragraph A

iv

i

Hydrogen Storage

ii

Traditional Production Methods

iii

The Possible Danger of Combustible Hydrogen

iv

A Plentiful Alternative

v

Looking Forward

vi

Good Idea but…

vii

Today’s Hydrogen Production

viii

How the Process Works

ix

Hydrogen Sources and Production

x

The Workings of the Internal Combustion Engine

xi

The Engine Dilemma

1

Paragraph B

2

Paragraph C Academic Test 10; Page 10

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3

Paragraph D

4

Paragraph E

5

Paragraph F

6

Paragraph G

7

Paragraph H

Questions 8 - 12 Complete each of the following statements (Questions 8 - 12) with words taken from Reading Passage 1. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 8 - 12 on your answer sheet.

8

There is no reason that we’ll run out of hydrogen as it’s the ________ that exists.

9

________ have been devoted by companies to producing hydrogen cars.

10

________ could use traditional fuels to produce the hydrogen needed to power hydrogen cars.

11

Investigations have proved that ________ was the cause of the Hindenburg disaster.

12

Hydrogen cars have the potential to offer the ________ that we associate with today’s fossil fuel powered vehicles.


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Questions 13 and 14 Choose the appropriate letters A – D that best answer the question and write them in boxes 13 and 14 on your answer sheet.

13

Which of the following is NOT a potential problem with the introduction of hydrogen cars? A B C D

14

The frequency of refueling stops. The creation of by-products of the electricity production process. The volatility of hydrogen. Keeping hydrogen in cars.

Which of the following hydrogen production methods for hydrogen powered cars is viewed in the article as a temporary measure? A B C D

A system producing hydrogen from fossil fuels. A method producing hydrogen from water vapor. A process using microscopic organisms to produce hydrogen. An electrolysis basis hydrogen production system.


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READING PASSAGE 2

Questions 15 - 27

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 15 – 27 which are based on Reading Passage 2 on the following pages. CLONING Paragraph A The ethics of human cloning has become a great issue over the past few years. The advocates for both sides of the issue have many reasons to clone or not to clone. A recent poll has shown the differences in opinions with half as many women as men approving of the process. Many people find it strange to see such a clear difference between men and women with twenty-six percent of men favouring cloning. Paragraph B So, what is cloning? It has been defined as “the production of genetically identical organisms via somatic cell nuclear transfer”. You take an egg and remove its nucleus, which contains the DNA/genes. Then you take the DNA from an adult cell and insert it into the egg, either by fusing the adult cell with the enucleated egg, or by a sophisticated nuclear transfer. You then stimulate the reconstructed egg electrically or chemically and try to make it start to divide and become an embryo. You then use the same process to implant the egg into a surrogate mother that you would use with artificial insemination. What cloning does is that it copies the DNA/genes of the person and creates a genetic duplicate. The person will not be a Xerox copy. He or she will grow up in a different environment than the clone, with different experiences and different opportunities. Genetics does not wholly define a person and the personality. Paragraph C In February 1997, when embryologist Ian Wilmut and his colleagues at Roslin Institute in Scotland were able to clone a lamb named Dolly, the world was introduced to a new possibility and will never be the same again. Before this, cloning was thought to be impossible, but now there is living proof that the technology and knowledge to clone animals exist. Questions began to arise within governments and scientific organisations and they began to respond. Are humans next? Is it possible to use this procedure to clone humans also? Would anyone actually try? What can we learn if we clone humans? How will this affect the world? These are only a few of the questions that have surfaced and need answering. A whole new concept in ethics was created when the birth of Dolly was announced. Paragraph D When the cells used for cloning are stem cells, we are talking about cells that are pluripotential. This means that they have the capacity to develop into any of the numerous differentiated cell types that make up the body. Early embryonic cells are pluripotent and a limited number of stem cells are also found in adults, in bone marrow for instance. There is an important distinction to be made between therapeutic cloning and reproductive cloning. Reproductive cloning would Academic Test 10; Page 13

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be exactly like Dolly; it would involve the creation of a cloned embryo which would then be implanted into a womb to develop to term and the birth of a clone. On the other hand, therapeutic cloning involves the use of pluripotent cells to repair damaged tissue, such as found after strokes, Parkinson’s disease and spinal cord injuries. Paragraph E There is evidence for the effectiveness of therapeutic cloning as shown by work involving the introduction of stem cells into the brain of patients suffering from brain diseases, when the cells which have been added differentiate to form nerve cells which can in turn then lead to recovery of the lost function. In the US, foetal human cells have been similarly used though recent reports indicate that the results so far are disappointing. However, apart from the ethical problems associated with the use of foetal cells in this way, there are simply not enough cells available for it to be an effective treatment, since it needs the cells from three foetuses to treat one patient. Paragraph F After Dolly, governments began to take control and make laws before anything drastic could ever happen. Several ethics committees were asked to decide whether scientists should be allowed to try to clone humans. In the United States, the Bioethics Advisory Commission recommended a five-year moratorium on cloning a child through somatic cell nuclear transfer. In the United Kingdom, the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority and the Human Genetics Advisory Commission have approved human cloning for therapeutic purposes, but not to clone children. Many organisations have come out and stated their opinions also. Amongst all this ethical defining, many people are being ignored by the governments. People are speaking out about what they want done. Paragraph G Historically, we find that many a great medical breakthrough, now rightly seen as a blessing, was in its own time condemned by bio-conservative moralists. Such was the case with anaesthesia during surgery and childbirth. People argued that it was unnatural and that it would weaken our moral fibre. Such was also the case with heart transplantations and with in vitro fertilization. It was said children created by IVF would be dehumanised and would suffer grave psychological harm. Today, of course, anaesthesia is taken for granted; heart transplantation is seen as one of medicine’s glories and the public approval rate of IVF is up from 15% in the early seventies to over 70% today.


Questions 15 - 20 Reading Passage 2 has 7 paragraphs (A - G). Which paragraphs offers information on the following ideas? Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 15 - 20 on your answer sheet. One paragraph is used more than once and two are not used at all. 15

Different types of cloning.

16

Protective legislation.

17

Similar situations

18

A survey on attitudes towards cloning.

19

Scientific reasons why cloning is currently not viable for medical cures.

20

Illness examples that cloning could help treat.

Questions 21 - 24 Choose the appropriate letters A – D and write them in boxes 21 – 24 on your answer sheet. 21

Which bar chart most accurately describes attitudes indicated in the text towards cloning by men and women?

A


B

C

D


22

Which of the following is a feature of cloning used for possible medical treatment? A B C D

23

Which of the following is NOT a feature of cloning? A B C D

24

A genetic duplicate is born through use of a surrogate mother. The creation and implantation of an embryo. Implantation of differentiated pluripotent cells. Genetic mutation of pluripotent cells.

Reproduction of a genetic copy of the subject cloned. Reproduction of exact personality characteristics of the subject cloned. Reproduction of the pluripotential stem cells of the subject cloned. Reproduction of the DNA of the subject cloned.

Which of the following is NOT an example from the text of previous medical technologies that were initially mistrusted by people? A B C D

Test tube babies. Anaesthesia. Antiseptics. Heart replacements.

Questions 25 - 27 Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from Reading Passage 2, answer the following questions. Write your answers in boxes 25 - 27 on your answer sheet.

25

In what part of an egg is found the DNA used for cloning?

26

In what country has medical treatment through cloning been shown to be of limited value?

27

According to the text, what body wants to wait before cloning a human?


READING PASSAGE 3

Questions 28 - 40

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28 – 40 which are based on Reading Passage 3 below. What is Intelligence? Intelligence can be defined in many different ways since there are a variety of individual differences. Intelligence to a lot of people is the ability to reason and respond quickly yet accurately in all aspects of life, such as physically, emotionally, and mentally. Anyone can define intelligence because it is an open-ended word that has much room for interpretation but there are some theories which have more general acceptance than others. Jean Piaget, a Swiss child psychologist, is well known for his four stages of mental growth theory. The first stage is the sensorimotor stage, from birth to age 2, the child is concerned with gaining motor control and getting familiar with physical objects. Then from age two to seven, the child develops verbal skills. This is called the preoperational stage. In the concrete operational stage the child deals with abstract thinking from age seven to twelve. The final stage, called the formal operational stage, ends at age fifteen and this is when the child learns to reason logically and systematically. Piaget’s theory provides a basis for human intelligence by categorising the major stages in child development and how they contribute to intelligence. Each of these invariant stages has major cognitive skills that must be learned. Knowledge is not merely transmitted verbally but must be constructed and reconstructed by the learner. Thus this development involves a few basic steps. The first fundamental process of intellectual growth is the ability to assimilate the new events learned into the pre-existing cognitive structures. The second fundamental process is the capability to change those structures to accommodate the new information and the last process is to find equilibrium between the first two processes. Howard Gardener, a psychologist at Harvard University, has formulated an even more intriguing theory. He arranged human intelligence into seven sections. First of all Gardner characterises the logistical-mathematical intelligence as people who think logically and are able to transfer abstract concepts to reality. These people enjoy solving puzzles and can be good inventors because they can visualize an invention even before making a prototype. They normally do better in school, which is for the most part due to the fact that schools are designed for logical-mathematical type of thinkers. The linguistic type, as you might guess, is the natural born writer and poet. They usually have excellent storytelling skills, spelling skills, and love to play with words. They tend to be bookworms and can easily learn more than one language. This type of intelligence seems to be located in the Broca’s Area, since damage to that portion of the brain will cause a person to lose the ability to express themselves in clear grammatical sentences, though that person’s understanding of vocabulary and syntax remains intact. Next Gardener traced musical intelligence to certain areas of the brain. Impaired or autistic children who are unable to talk or interact with others have often exemplified exceptional musical talent. People of this type of intelligence show great aptitude for music, have excellent pitch, and a good sense of rhythm. They concentrate better with music playing in the background. A particular concerto by Mozart has shown positive changes in the brains of listeners. Thus, musical intelligence can be a form or a means of learning. Another form of intelligence is the interpersonal intelligence. This category is for people who are very well aware of their environment. They tend to be sensitive to people around them, have an excellent idea of how people behave, and are especially sociable. Politicians, leaders, counselors, mediators, and Academic Test 10; Page 18

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clergy are excellent examples of people with this type of intelligence. Damage to the frontal lobe has shown damage to this type of person’s personality and his or her ability to interact with others. Intrapersonal intelligence is almost the opposite of interpersonal intelligence. This kind of intelligence deals with how well you know yourself. People who possess a higher degree of this type of intelligence have a high self-esteem, self-enhancement, and a strong sense of character. They are usually deep thinkers, self-teachers, skilled in music or art, and have an inner discipline. This sort of intelligence is hard to measure since it is often difficult to recognize externally. Spatial intelligence is the ability to perceive and interpret images or pictures in three-dimensional space. The right hemisphere of the brain has been proven to control this form of intelligence and scientists are certain that spatial intelligence is clearly an independent portion of this intellect. A person of this intellect enjoys making maps and charts. Lastly, Gardner classifies people who are athletically inclined into the body-kinesthetic intelligence. They perform the best in atmospheres of action, touching, physical contact and working with their hands. Dancers and athletes are good examples of this form of intellect. Critics are a little sceptical that Gardner considers this a form of intellect since it is only a physical component of intelligence, but nonetheless, the brain does use both hemispheres to control movement. Gardner believes that everyone has a mixture of all the categories varying at different levels. We can see a couple of intelligence types that stand out in people we know and including ourselves. For example a math major’s logical-mathematical intelligence would be more predominant than his linguistic intelligence.

Questions 28 - 34 Gardner’s Intelligence Types and some descriptions of different types of people displaying different aspects of Gardner’s Intelligence types are listed below in two boxes. Match each description with the appropriate intelligence type. Write the appropriate letters (A - G) in boxes 28 - 34 on your answer sheet. Gardner’s Intelligence Types A

Logistical-mathematical type

B

Linguistic type

C

Musical type

D

Interpersonal type

E

Intrapersonal type

F

Spatial type

G

Body-kinesthetic type Academic Test 10; Page 19

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28

People with this type of intelligence are often good at developing new products for a company.

29

People with this type of intelligence are often good novelists.

30

People with this type of intelligence often mix well with other people.

31

People with this type of intelligence are often very self-confident.

32

Young people with mental handicaps frequently display this type of intelligence.

33

People with this type of intelligence often learn by imagining things as pictures.

34

People with this type of intelligence are often good physiotherapists.

Questions 35 - 40 Read the passage What is Intelligence? again and look at the statements below. In boxes 35 - 40 on your answer sheet write: TRUE


FALSE


NOT GIVEN


35

There are no theories of intelligence which have universal recognition around the world.

36

Part of Piaget’s development theory includes children learning how to walk.

37

Piaget theorised that psychological development is finished before adulthood.

38

Piaget’s and Gardner’s theories are not mutually exclusive.

39

People usually have a blend of Gardner’s intelligence types.

40

Someone can identify in themselves the kinds of Gardner’s intelligence types that they display. Academic Test 10; Page 20

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ACADEMIC WRITING PRACTICE TEST 10 WRITING TASK 1 The diagrams below show the process of how uranium is used in the production of nuclear power. Write a report for a university lecturer describing the information below. You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.

Step 2: Uranium ore is converted into first a gas and then enriched to make U-235 fuel pellets

Step 1: Uranium is mined from the earth

Step 3: Uranium fuel (U235) is used in nuclear power stations to deliver up to 7billion kWh of electricity per station per year

Step 5: Some spent fuel is reprocessed and then re-used in the nuclear power station

Step 4: Spent fuel is taken away after about 4 years of usage and then stored

Step 6: Finally, spent fuel that cannot be re-processed is stored in stainless steel containers and buried deep in the earth


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WRITING TASK 2 You should spend about 40 minutes on this task. Today our communications, medicine and transport systems all depend on computer technology. Our reliance on computer technology has created a dangerous situation. To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement? You should write at least 250 words.


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Could you describe the street that your house or apartment is in? Do you prefer to live in a town or in the country? Which town would you most prefer to live in (if you had to) and why?

Topic 1 * * * *

Do you have a pet at home? (Why/Why not?) What are the advantages and disadvantages of having a pet? Describe an animal that is famous in your country? What’s your favourite animal? (Why?)

Topic 2 * * * *

Animals and Pets

The Weather

What’s your favourite kind of weather? What’s the weather like in your country? What do you like to do when it’s raining? Would you like to live in a very hot/cold country?

Section 2 Describe your ideal house You should say: how big it would be what it would look like what would be inside it and explain why it would be your ideal house Section 3 Topic 1 * * * *

Do people in your country prefer to rent or own the place where they live? How has architecture changed in your country over the last 50 to 100 years? What do you think the housing of the future will look like in your country? Does your country have restrictions on how people can change or construct buildings?

Topic 2 * * * *

Where people live

Buildings and Tourism

Do you think it’s important for a country to preserve old houses and buildings? (Why?) Describe some of the famous buildings that a visitor to your country should see? Do you think that important buildings should be free of charge to visit? (Why/Why not?) Can you compare the importance of spending money on restoring a country’s old buildings and spending money on education and health? Academic Test 10; Page 23

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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC PRACTICE LISTENING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET Tests 6 - 10 TEST 6

TEST 7

TEST 8

TEST 9

TEST 10

1. WE5 8GF

1. 95 Green Lane

1. Mike

1. B

1. Chepping Dene

2. 07745 276 145

2. 07779 724 868

2. four/4

2. A

2. WE3 9HT

3. 7th June/7.6

3. WIL 94857 8269

3. creche facilities

3. A

3. 07525 745 642

4. B

4. four/4

4. 24th July

4. A

4. 4 years

5. D

5. Toyota

5. 4 hours

5. C

5. 3 years

6. a loose wire

6. £170

6. Spain

6. (about) 7.30

6. DVD player

7. Thursday

7. The International Hotel

7. path (through ields)

7. 07623 963 957

7. a hair dryer

8. 11

8. breakdown + an accident

8. minibus (NOT “bus”)

8. a postbox

8. bracelets

9. a computer game

9. E*

9. 5 minutes

9. red meat

9. B

10. 12 o’clock / noon

10. J*

10. family run

10. C

10. B

11. Students’ Union

11. 8.00 am (to 9.30am)

11. continental (style)

11. trampolines*

11. beside the reception

12. theft

12. cafeteria style

12. blackboards

12. yoga*

12. service washes

13. (in a) cupboard

13. the common room

13. ish + seafood

13. running machines*

13. 39

14. a valuables list

14. £1/1 pound

14. extra supplement

14. swimming pool*

14. the Students’ Union

15. ultra violet pen

15. (a) vending machine

15. main bar

15. Tuesday

15. the Town Hall

16. landlord

16. kitchens

16. (2) lifeguards

16. £15

16. the front lawn

17. keep curtains closed

17. co-ed

17. freshwater showers

17. (digital) camera

17. 6 months

18. the welfare ofice

18. (the) car park

18. water spors ofice

18. insurance agreement

18. late night ilm

19. busy/busier areas

19. 2/two

19. notice board

19. £5

19. ish and chips

20. don’t be alone

20. refund (of fees)

20. children / under 16s

20. 8.00am to 10.00pm

20. menu

21. B

21. the last 40

21. Hindi

21. agriculture

21. A

22. A

22. BP drilling rig/Sea Gem

22. 322 million

22. 4 o’clock

22. B

23. B

23. economic crisis

23. Arabic

23. attendance (record)

23. B

24. C

24. leases

24. 20

24. the external examiner

24. C

25. B

25. global price luctuations

25. secondary speakers

25. 1

25. A

26. C

26. mature province

26. economic power

26. 10

26. a skilled migrant

27. reference section

27. ire extinguishers

27. Brazil

27. drafts

27. offshore resettlement program

28. (library) stack system

28. lifeboat stations

28. Raw materials

28. 3000 and 3500

28. 13 000

29. Political Reform

29. a mock ire

29. Bangladesh

29. research

29. overstay visas

30. Dr. Jones

30. a building site

30. 2500 and 7000

30. the greenhouse complex

30. deported

31. (desert region of) Siberia

31. moveable type printing

31. nervous functions

31. a man’s hand

31. 40 or 50

32. the fall (autumn)

32. 1835

32. protein

32. (hard) enamel

32. New Zealand

33. (healthy) root system

33. standardised structure

33. tonsils

33. 6 feet

33. cone-shaped

34. 22

34. healthy increase

34. (food) disinfection treatments

34. obtaining prey

34. a boiling reservoir

35. 15 pounds

35. D

35. the UK

35. 2 percent

35. 650 000 years

36. the plague

36. A

36. genetically inherited

36. (large) bite marks

36. drill cores

37. immune system

37. B

37. late 50s

37. TRUE

37. B*

38. an antiseptic

38. A

38. coordination

38. FALSE

38. E*

39. fresh garlic

39. D

39. sheep

39. TRUE

39. F*

40. hypertension

40. C

40. calves / young cattle

40. FALSE

40. H*

˚ Answers for qu. 11, 12, 13 + 14: these answers in any order.

˚ Answers for qu. 37, 38, 39 + 40: these answers in any order

* Answers for qu. 9 + 10: these answers in any order.

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ieltshelpnow.com ACADEMIC PRACTICE READING TESTS - ANSWER SHEET Tests 6 - 10 TEST 6

TEST 7

TEST 8

TEST 9

TEST 10

1. TRUE

1. B

1. B*

1. FG

1. vi

2. FALSE

2. C

2. C*

2. JS

2. xi

3. FALSE

3. A

3. F*

3. SL

3. viii

4. NOT GIVEN

4. C

4. G*

4. JF + PF

4. i

5. A

5. B

5. J*

5. CC

5. ix

6. D

6. D

6. South American Countries

6. CC

6. iii

7. C

7. B

7. urbanisation + cultivation

7. PF

7. v

8. G

8. A

8. (sport) hunting

8. FG

8. most abundant element

9. B*

9. FALSE

9. food + burrows

9. FALSE

9. Billions of dollars

10. D*

10. TRUE

10. wool

10. TRUE

10. On-board reformers

11. F*

11. NOT GIVEN

11. (the) mosquito population 11. FALSE

11. the airship’s fabric

12. secretion

12. TRUE

12. genetic resistance

12. NOT GIVEN

12. power and acceleration

13. brittle

13. NOT GIVEN

13. C

13. TRUE

13. B

14. oxygen

14. vi

14. FALSE

14. NOT GIVEN

14. A

15. NJ

15. viii

15. FALSE

15. YES

15. D

16. LT

16. ii

16. NOT GIVEN

16. YES

16. F

17. PK

17. iv

17. NOT GIVEN

17. NOT GIVEN

17. G

18. TH

18. i

18. TRUE

18. NO

18. A

19. AK

19. v

19. permafrost-locked

19. NO

19. E

20. JR

20. H

20. great undersea river

20. NOT GIVEN

20. D

21. KD

21. E

21. the fossil record

21. (subtle) differences

21. B

22. disputed

22. F

22. startling

22. aware of

22. C

23. poor

23. A

23. culprit

23. tempo + pitch

23. B

24. (industrial) trawlers

24. D

24. a whirlpool

24. (paid) volunteers

24. C

25. (natural occurring) algae

25. B

25. 1000 years

25. a telephone conversation

25. (the) nucleus

26. (set quotas)

26. D

26. 3 years

26. politicians

26. the US

27. viii

27. E

27. v

27. videotape

27. Bioethics Advisory Commission

28. ii

28. D

28. viii

28. vi

28. A

29. x

29. B

29. xi

29. xi

29. B

30. i

30. C

30. i

30. viii

30. D

31. xi

31. D

31. x

31. v

31. E

32. vi

32. TRUE

32. iii

32. x

32. C

33. A

33. TRUE

33. vii

33. ii

33. F

34. D

34. TRUE

34. NOT GIVEN

34. vii

34. G

35. B

35. clay loam

35. YES

35. C*

35. TRUE

36. C

36. pests

36. YES

36. D*

36. TRUE

37. G

37. a decent crop/yields

37. B

37. F*

37. TRUE

38. F

38. paste

38. H

38. G*

38. NOT GIVEN

39. TRUE

39. hydraulic press frame

39. G

39. (a creamy) pulp

39. TRUE

40. NOT GIVEN

40. centrifuge

40. E

40. Framed screens

40. TRUE

* Answers for qu. 9, 10 + 11 in any order

* Answers for qu. 1, 2, 3, 4 + 5 in any order

* Answers for qu. 35, 36, 37 + 38 in any order

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Example Writing Answers for the ieltshelpnow.com Academic Practice Tests 6 - 10 Below you will find example writing answers for all the writing questions in the ieltshelpnow.com Academic Practice Tests, tests 6 to 10. All of these example reports and essays were written by an IELTS examiner in order to give examples of good answers. Please refer to the question papers while you are reading these reports and essays so that you understand the questions that are being answered. We hope this will give you an insight into how the writing answers should be written for IELTS Academic module. We must also point out that there are many ways of answering the writing questions with band 9 quality and that we have only produced one example for each question.

Academic Writing Practice Test 6 Task 1 In this report I am going to describe two tables. The first table shows predicted figures for UK immigration for the years 1984 to 2000. The second table shows the actual UK immigration figures for the same period. The predicted immigration figure for 1984 was 38 000. This predicted figure rose slowly by 1, 2 or 3 thousand each year until 1988 when the figure was 46 000. The next two years saw large increases, first to 80 000 in 1989 and then 87 000 in 1990. The next thee years showed decreases, the predicted figures being 91 000, 80,000 and 67 000. From 1993 to 2000 immigration was predicted to go up steadily finishing at 148 000 for the year 2000. The actual immigration figures for the same period were different. Some years‛ figures were higher and some were lower than what was predicted. Immigration for 1984 and 1985 was higher than what was predicted with figures of 58 000 and 60 000 respectively. From 1986 to 1990 immigration rose steadily to 100 000. The next two years showed a decrease similar to the predictions and then in 1993 immigration rose again. It continued to rise steadily to 163 000 in the year 2000 although in one year, 1996, there was a small dip. This ends my report. (219 words)

Task 2 The policy of having compulsory national service in a country is quite a controversial one. In some countries it is a good idea and even an essential part of their society. In other countries however it would not work and is not even really necessary. Many countries have compulsory national service. Some countries that I know that have it are France, Germany, Austria and Korea. I didn‛t do it myself but I have friends from these countries that did it and they did not enjoy it. The reason for it though is not enjoyment. The reason is to have a population who are semi-trained for the protection of their country. In my country we had national service after World War Two until 1960. At that time my country needed a large army in order to meet its obligations at home and abroad. After 1960 however

the army became a wholly professional one. A lot of people still feel that national service should continue as it gives discipline and experience to many young people who need this kind of training. However the population is such now in my country that national service would create an unnecessarily large army that would be a massive drain on public resources which come in turn from ordinary citizens‛ taxes. I only know one country that has national service for both men and women and that is Israel. This country definitely needs national service due to the terrible situation in which it finds itself. They have to have compulsory national service though I am sure that they would scrap it if their security situation changed. In conclusion I feel that national service is a necessary evil in some countries as they feel they have to have a force of men trained that can protect their country. In my opinion though, countries that can do with just a professional army do not need national service any more and, by stopping it, they no longer have the extra cost of funding it. I therefore disagree with the statement that all countries should adopt national service. (347 words)

Academic Writing Practice Test 7 Task 1 In this report I am going to describe a bar chart. It shows the types of job that employed men and woman held for the year 2003. Figures are given in hundreds of thousands. Many more men were managers than women in 2003. There were approximately 600 000 men employed as managers whereas only just under 200 000 women were employed in this capacity. Men and women shared professional jobs much more equally and here the figure for women (approx. 680 000) was slightly higher than the figure for men (approx. 640 000). Jobs as semi professionals were more common for men. There were about 500 000 men employed as semi professionals compared with about 360 000 women. As regards tradepersons, far more men were employed in this capacity. The figure for men was approximately 900 000 whereas the figure for women was just over 100 000. Figures for jobs in production were similarly mismatched with about 540 000 men and about 100 000 women employed in this field. Clerical jobs however, accounted for more women employed than men with approximately 945 000 women and 885 000 men respectively. Finally about 400 000 men were employed as labourers compared to about 290 00 women. This ends my report. (208 words)

Task 2

I agree with this statement very much as this is an issue that I feel strongly about. I feel very much that we should reduce the amount of fossil fuels that we use and I believe that investment by governments in public transport will help reduce the increase in transport pollution. At rush hour every city in the world experiences huge congestion on their roads. This is because nearly everyone who can afford a car owns one and uses it whenever they can. Very often cars which can fit five people in them only have one occupant. Just imagine the amount of unnecessary pollution! Now a bus with fifty seats could carry drivers of fifty cars. Pollution would be hugely reduced. To force more people into using public transport, governments could increase private fuel prices and car taxes. Some people say that buses are not reliable enough, that there are not enough of them and that the prices have become too high. However, if the government invests more so that there are many more buses and trains, all at cheaper prices, then more people would use them and so the money taken would pay for the extra buses and employees. Governments could in turn reduce fuel prices for public transport so that prices could be lowered more easily. Of course it would be even better if we could get everyone to use transport that didn‛t use fossil fuels at all. Denmark and Holland are famous for having lots of people who travel to work and back by bicycle. Maybe this will happen more in the future. Is my view realistic or am I just a dreamer? I feel that it‛s just a dream. People prefer their own cars and don‛t like buses. I still feel though that governments should try. (300 words)

Academic Writing Practice Test 8 Task 1 In this report I am going to describe two pie charts. The first pie chart shows the marital status of the Australian population in 1999. The second pie chart shows the marital status of the Canadian population in the year 2000. The first pie chart shows that 53% of the Australian population were married in 1999. The next highest group was for people who had never been married with 29% of the population. 7% of the Australian population in 1999 were widowed and also 7% were divorced. Just 3% of the population were separated but not divorced and finally 1% of the population were involved in a same sex marriage. The second pie chart shows that a smaller percentage (41%) of the Canadian population in 2000 were married than were in Australia in 1999. A higher proportion (46%) were single. The percentages for divorced, widowed and separated but still married people were slightly lower in Canada with 5%, 6% and 2% respectively. There is no data for same sex marriages in Canada in 2000.

This ends my report. (176 words)

Task 2 Success is certainly something which means different things to different people. In general I believe that being happy implies success in life. Thus, if someone has achieved what he wants out of life and he or she is happy with that, then you can see this person as successful. As an example of this I would like to look at two friends of mine. One is an incredibly successful businessman and has a business empire worth many millions of pounds. Anyone looking at him would think him a successful person. To my mind though it is more important to see whether he is happy and this is more a measure of his success. He is happy. He does what he loves and also is lucky enough to have a great family which he spends a lot of time with. Another friend of mine is a history teacher who lives a quiet life in the countryside with his wife and son. He too has what he wants in life and, although he does not have the material wealth of my other friend, I wouldn‛t class him as any less successful. They have both achieved what they want. So, to some people success is money, some it‛s a family and to some it‛s just being able to get on with life. To me success is happiness. I am not completely happy with my life at the moment but I have a plan and the plan is slowly working out. To me success is to be secure in work, home and the future for myself and my family. With any luck this will come about fairly soon and then I will look at myself as being a success. That does not mean I think of myself as a failure now. It takes time to achieve what I want. Therefore I hope I have shown that success can mean different things to different people and that, for me, the basis of success is happiness. (330 words)

Academic Writing Practice Test 9 Task 1 In this report I am going to describe two line graphs. The first line graph shows figures for New Zealand imports from Australia between 1994 and 2004. The second line chart shows figures for New Zealand imports from Japan for the same period. The figures are in New Zealand dollars. The first line graph shows that Australian imports into New Zealand began at $4 billion in 1994. This rose steadily to $5 billion in 1996. After that imports from Australia decreased sharply to about £3 billion in 1999 in spite of a small rise in 1998. Then there was a sharp rise to approximately $7 billion in 2000 and 2001. Although there was a dip in 2002 ($5 billion approx), imports then rose to about $8 billion in 2004.

Japanese imports started at $3 billion in 1994 and they rose steadily to just under $7 billion in 1997. They then dropped to approximately $4 billion in 1999 before rising again to about $6 billion in 2000. Imports then dropped dramatically to about $3 billion in 2001 and then dropped further to about $2 billion in 2004. This ends my report. (186 words)

Task 2 It is undeniable that the US film industry dominates world cinema. This is not to say that there are not flourishing film industries in other countries. Many great films are released from many different countries and a lot of these films are technically as good and, in artistic terms, often much better than the “Hollywood Style” films that we know so well. I believe that governments ought to invest in their own film industries and also to assist them in other ways such as tax breaks. By doing this their industries will become more successful and be more able to express their own culture. As an example of this I would like to look at the Indian film industry. “Bollywood” as it is known has become hugely successful. The more successful Bollywood has become, the more it has attracted investment. Thus after some time the industry contributed on a large scale to the Indian economy. Thus money initially invested in film industries is not money thrown away. The worry is that of course you need people of talent and vision to invest in. So, the people in charge of investment must know what they are doing. The UK film industry has received help from the government and high quality, money-making films have been the result. In order to compete with the US though, this investment must continue. Only then can films around the world continue to portray cultures and viewpoints different to that the US film industry. I therefore wholeheartedly agree that governments should invest in their own film industries to protect and develop their own cultures. (267 words)

Academic Writing Practice Test 10 Task 1 In this report I am going to describe how uranium is mined, processed, used and then discarded. Uranium is found under the ground and so it must be mined. Once the mined uranium has been extracted, it is taken to a processing centre. Here the uranium is converted into a form that can be used as a fuel in a nuclear power station. To do this, the uranium is changed into a gas and enriched before it is reformed as U-235 fuel pellets.

The fuel pellets are then used in nuclear power stations to provide up to 7 billion kilowatts of electricity from just one station. After the fuel has been used for about four years it is removed from the power station and stored. Some of the used fuel can be re-processed and re-used in a power station to produce more electricity. Finally, old stored fuel that cannot be re-processed is put into stainless steel containers and then buried deep in the ground. This ends my report. (176 words)

Task 2 It is true that all of the major systems around the world, whether they are to do with government, welfare or education, are based and reliant on computers. I do not, however, believe that this has created excessive risks. Before the advent of computers, human society survived very well. It is true that if all computers crashed, this would cause huge problems but it would only mean that we would go back to the situation that we had before. People would suffer, maybe I would too, but the world would not end. Reliance on certain systems is the price that we pay for progress. The very idea that all computers could crash is ludicrous anyway. All places which deal in life and death situations have back up generators that can provide power in the event of a power cut. Power cuts are only temporary and if something happened that completely destroyed the electrical systems of a country, such as nuclear war, people would have far more important things to worry about. Computers are now reliable and we have armies of technicians who can repair or replace faulty systems. Things can and will go wrong but this would happen whether we were reliant on computer systems or on humans. The difference is that computers will make fewer mistakes from day to day! In conclusion I would therefore say that I disagree with the idea that our reliance on computer technology has created a dangerous situation. I believe our lives are better and safer because of this reliance. (257 words)

Academic Module Practice Tests 1-10

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