PRACTICE TEST 2: High Risk Newborn
Assessment 1. The nurse conducts a physical assessment of the neonate as the initial bath is given several hours after birth. In assessing the baby’s skin, which of the following observations most likely require special attention? A. Cyanosis of the hands and feet B. Vernix caseosa C. Harlequin sign D. Jaundice
2. In comparing the newborn’s head and chest measurements, which of the following observations would the nurse expect to find? A. The chest circumference is approximately 1 inch smaller than the head circumference B. The chest circumference is approximately 1 inch larger than the head circumference C. The head and chest circumference are equal D. The chest circumference is approximately 3 inches smaller than the head circumference 3. The nurse assesses a 1-hour-old newborn’s eyes. Which condition, if found, would most likely require additional assessment? A. Transient strabismus B. Subconjunctival hemorrhage C. Lack of tears when crying D. Opacity of a pupil 4. The nurse assessing a neonate’s trunk shortly after birth makes the following observations. Which one would alert the nurse to the need for further assessment? A. Breast engorgement B. Audible bowel sounds C. Palpable liver and kidneys D. Umbilical cord with one artery and one vein 5. Which of the following assessments would the nurse report to the physician concerning a 1-hour old infant’s ears? A. The upper parts of the ears are on a plane with the angle of the eyes. B. The upper parts of the ears are well below a line extending through the inner and outer canthi of the eyes C. There is incurving of the pinna and instant recoil D. The infant responds to sound with a startle or blink 6. The parents of a newborn ask the nurse how much their new baby can see. The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that the newborn’s visual capacity shortly after birth is primarily A. Long-distance vision C. Convergence of the eyes B. Short-distance fixation D. Coordinated peripheral vision 7. To check the grasp reflex in the newborn, the nurse would implement which of the following actions? A. Lightly touch either corner of the baby’s
9. To check the sucking reflex in the newborn, the nurse would implement which of the following actions? A. Lightly touch either corner of the baby’s mouth B. Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole upward across the ball of the foot C. Rotate the head to one side and then the other D. Exert pressure on the palm at the base of the digits 10. To elicit Moro’s reflex, the nurse would implement which of the following actions? A. Shake the infant rapidly from head to toe B. Hold the infant in both hands and lower both hands rapidly about an inch C. Place the infant in the prone position and observe posture D. Turn the infant’s head to one side while he or she is in a supine position 11. When examining the inside of a newborn’s mouth, the nurse notices a small, raised white bump on the palate; it does not come off nor does it bleed when touched. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? A. Milia C. Thrush B. Epstein’s pearls D. Milk curd 12. Neonates often “spit up” small quantities following feedings. Which of the following conditions offers the best explanation for this behavior? A. Immature cardiac sphincter B. Overfeeding C. Activity of the infant during feeding D. Inadequate concentration of enzymes 13. In examining the newborn’s head during the initial physical assessment, the nurse palpates the posterior fontanel. The nurse knows that this fontanel is formed by which of the following bones? A. Frontal and parietal C. Temporal and frontal B. Parietal and occipital D. Frontal and occipital 14. While assessing a 2-hour-old neonate, the nurse observes the neonate to have acrocyanosis. Which of the following actions should be performed initially? A. Activate the code blue or emergency system B. Do nothing because acrocyanosis is normal in the neonate C. Immediately take the neonate’s temperature D. Notify the physician of the need for a cardiac consult 15. When performing a neurologic assessment, which sign is considered a normal finding in a neonate? A. Doll eyes C. Positive Babinski’s sign B. “Sunset” eyes D. Pupils that don’t react to light
mouth B. Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole upward across the ball of the foot C. Rotate the head to one side and then the other D. Exert pressure on the palm at the base of the digits
16. A mother of a term neonate asks what the thick, white, cheesy coating is on his skin. Which correctly describes this finding? A. Lanugo C. Nevus flammeus B. Milia D. Vernix
8. To check the Babinski reflex in the newborn, the nurse would implement which of the following actions? A. Lightly touch either corner of the baby’s mouth B. Stroke the lateral aspect of the sole upward across the ball of the foot C. Rotate the head to one side and then the other D. Exert pressure on the palm at the base of the digits
17. Which of the following fetal circulatory structures close and become nonfunctioning after birth? A. Ductus arteriosus, umbilical arteries, pulmonary artery, and hypogastric arteries B. Ductus venosus, foramen ovale, portal vein, and ductus arteriosus C. Foramen ovale, pulmonary artery, ductus venosus, and umbilical vein D. Umbilical vein, foramen ovale, ductus venosus, and ductus arteriosus
18. A neonate has been diagnosed with caput succedaneum. Which statement is correct about caput succedaneum? A. It usually resolves in 3-6 weeks B. It doesn’t cross the cranial suture line C. It is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum D. It involves swelling of the tissue over the presenting part of the fetal head
27. The nurse is assigned to care for a newly delivered primiparous client and her term neonate 1 hour after a vaginal delivery. The nurse observes that the neonate’s Apgar score at 5 minutes was 9. The nurse interprets this as indicating which of the following about the neonate? A. Vigorous resuscitation was needed B. The neonate was cyanotic at birth C. Oxygen administration was necessary at birth D. The neonate is in stable condition
19. The nurse is teaching a postpartum client about the normal stooling pattern of a neonate. Which color and consistency best describes the typical appearance of meconium? A. Soft, pale yellow C. Sticky green, black B. Hard, pale brown D. Loose, golden yellow 20. A nurse is assessing a neonate. Which of the following findings is considered common in the healthy neonate? A. Simian crease B. Conjunctival hemorrhages C. Cystic hygroma D. Bulging fontanelle 21. When assessing a neonate’s skin, the nurse observes small, white papules surrounded by erythematous dermatitis. This finding is characteristic of which condition? A. Cutis marmorata C. Erythema toxicum B. Epstein’s pearls D. Mongolian spots 22. A postpartum client asks the nurse, “Why does my baby have those red areas on his eyelids?” Which response is appropriate? A. “They’re called milia. They’re clogged oil glands, which are normal in a neonate.” B. “They’re called telangiectasia or stork bites. They usually disappear within 1 year.” C. “ We’ll watch them closely. They could indicate a bleeding disorder.” D. “ They’re nothing to worry about. The physician will order topical cream to help
28. One minute after birth, a neonate has a heart rate of 60 beats/minute. Five minutes after birth, his heart rate is 80 beats/minute. Which Apgar heart rate score should he receive? A. 0 C. 2 B. 1 D. 3 General Care 29. Terramycin or erythromycin ointment is administered to the neonate’s eyes shortly after birth to prevent which disorder? A. Cataract C. Ophthalmia neonatorum B. Diabetic retinopathy D. Strabismus 30. The neonate is vulnerable to heat loss because of which anatomic characteristic? A. Immature liver B. Immature brain C. Large skin surface area to body weight ratio D. More brown fat (adipose tissue) than an adult 31. During the transition period, a neonate can lose heat in many different ways. A neonate who isn’t completely dried immediately after birth or a bath loses heat through which of the following methods? A. Conduction C. Evaporation B. Convection D. Radiation 32. Maintaining thermoregulation in the
them go away.” 23. When performing an assessment on a neonate, which assessment finding is most suggestive of hypothermia? A. Bradycardia C. Metabolic alkalosis B. Hyperglycemia D. Shivering 24. An initial assessment of a female neonate shows pink-streaked vaginal discharge. Which factor is the probable cause? A. Cystitis B. Birth trauma C. Neonatal candidiasis D. Withdrawal of maternal hormones 25. While performing an initial assessment on a term neonate with an Asian mother, a bluish marking is observed across the neonate’s lower back. What is the significance of this finding? A. It’s probably a sigh of birth trauma B. It’s probably a telangiectatic hemangioma C. It’s probably a typical marking in darkskinned races D. It probably indicates that hyperbilirubinemia may follow 26. The mother of a newborn asks the nurse why the neonate’s head is coneshaped. Which response is accurate? A. “It results from caput succedaneum. The difficult labor caused bruising and swelling of the neonate’s head.” B. “It results from molding. Overriding of the cranial sutures allows the neonate’s head to pass through the birth canal.” C. “It results from cephalhematoma. Some blood has collected between the skull bone and periosteum.” D. “It results from hydrocephalus. Either too much cerebrospinal fluid is being formed or too little is being absorbed.” SGA 36. A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a small for gestational age term infant. The nurse observes tachypnea, grunting, retractions, and nasal flaring. The nurse interprets that these symptoms are likely the result of: A. Hypoglycemia B. Meconium aspiration syndrome C. Respiratory distress syndrome D. Transient tachypnea of the newborn 37. The small-for-gestation neonate is at increased risk during the transitional period for which complication? A. Anemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia B. Hyperthermia due to decreased glycogen stores C. Hyperglycemia due to decreased glycogen stores D. Polycythemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia LGA 38. A nurse is teaching a mother with diabetes mellitus who delivered a large for
neonate is an important nursing intervention because cold stress in the neonate can lead to which condition? A. Anemia B. Hyperlgycemia C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Increased oxygen consumption 33. When teaching umbilical cord care to a new mother, the nurse would include which information? A. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper change B. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after bathing C. Keep the cord dry and open to air D. Wash the cord with soap and water each day during a tub bath 34. When assessing a male neonate, the nurse notices that the urinary meatus is located on the ventral surface of the penis. How should the nurse document this finding? A. As the normal location for the urinary meatus B. As epispadias C. As hypospadias D. As cryptorchidism 35. A home health nurse assesses a neonate who is 48 hours old and was discharged from the hospital 24 hours ago. Which assessment finding indicates a potential problem? A. The neonate cries but no tears appear B. Small papules appear all over the neonate’s skin C. The neonate doesn’t turn his head in the direction that his cheek is stroked D. The neonate produces a greenish, tarry stool
45. A woman delivers a 3,250g neonate at 42 weeks’ gestation. Which physical finding is expected during an examination of this neonate? A. Noticeable veins B. Absence of sole creases C. Breast bud of 1-2 mm in diameter D. Leathery, cracked and wrinkled skin 46. A 34-week-gestation neonate in an Isolette experiences sudden apnea. The nurse would first A. Administer oxygen with positive pressure B. Call the pediatrician C. Increase the humidity in the incubator D. Gently stimulate the infant 47. Which action best explains the main role of surfactant in the neonate? A. Assists with ciliary body maturation in the upper airways B. Helps maintain a rhythmic breathing pattern C. Promotes clearing mucus from the respiratory tract D. Helps the lung remain expanded after the
gestational age male infant about the care of the infant. Which statement, if made by the mother, indicates further teaching is necessary? A. “I will talk to my baby when he is in a quiet alert state.” B. “I will watch my baby closely, because I know he may not be as mature in motor development.” C. “I will breastfeed my baby every 2 1/2 to 3 hours, and will implement arousing techniques.” D. “I will allow my baby to sleep throughout the night, because he needs his rest.” 39. Which of the following characteristics is most commonly associated with a large for gestational age newborn? A. Weight under 4000g C. Risk for birth injury B. Dysmorphic features D. Hypothermia Endocrine 40. Neonates of mothers with diabetes are at risk for which complication following birth? A. Atelectasis C. Microcephaly B. Pneumothorax D. Macrosomia 41. Which of the following infants would be at lowest risk for hypoglycemia? A. A 2-hour old, full-term neonate whose mother’s blood glucose level was 350mg/dl during labor B. A large for gestational age neonate 10 hours after birth whose hemogluco test shows a reading of 60mg/dl C. A 32-week-gestation neonate 5 hours after birth D. A small-for-gestational age neonate, 12 hours after birth, who is NPO because of respiratory distress 42. Which of the following orders would be included when planning care for an infant of a diabetic mother? A. Provide extra stimulation B. Use oil on the body after bathing C. Give early feeding of glucose and water D. Start early infusion of insulin 43. When caring for an infant of a mother with diabetes, which physiological finding is most indicative of a hypoglycemic episode? A. Hyperalert state B. Jitteriness C. Positive Babinski reflex D. Serum glucose level of 60mg/dl
initiation of breathing 48. The physician orders betamethasone (Celestone) for a 34-year old multigravid client at 32 weeks’ gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. The nurse explains that this drug is given for which of the following reasons? A. Enhance fetal lung maturity B. To counter the effects of tocolytic therapy C. To treat chorioamnionitis D. To decrease neonatal production of surfactant Respiratory 49. Which symptom would indicate the neonate was adapting appropriately to extrauterine life without difficulty? A. Nasal flaring B. Light audible grunting C. Respiratory rate 40-60 breaths/minute D. Respiratory rate 60-80 breaths/minute 50. Which condition or treatment best ensures lung maturity in a neonate? A. Meconium in the amniotic fluid B. Glucocorticoid treatment just before delivery C. Lecithin to sphingomyelin ration more than 2:1 D. Absence of phosphatidylglycerol in amniotic fluid 51. After reviewing the client’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate? A. Hypoglycemia C. Respiratory depression B. Jitteriness D. Tachycardia 52. Which circumstance of delivery would predispose a neonate to respiratory distress syndrome? A. Premature birth C. First born of twins B. Vaginal delivery D. Post date pregnancy 53. Which assessment finding would be the most unlikely risk factor for respiratory distress syndrome? A. Second born of twins B. Neonate of a diabetic mother C. Neonate born at 34 weeks D. Chronic maternal hypertension
PRETERM/POSTERM 44. A nurse is performing an assessment on a postmature neonate. Which physical characteristic would the nurse expect to observe? A. Vernix that covers the body in a thick layer B. Desquamation over the body C. Smooth soles without creases D. Lanugo covering the entire body
54. A nurse is monitoring a newborn infant for signs of respiratory distress syndrome. The nurse monitors the infant for A. Cyanosis, tachypnea, retractions, grunting respirations, and nasal flaring B. Acrocyanosis, apnea, pneumothorax, and grunting C. Barrel-shaped chest, hypotension, and bradycardia D. Acrocyanosis, emphysema, and interstitial edema
55. A nurse is assessing a 3-day-old neonate with a diagnosis of respiratory
64. A nurse is caring for a term newborn. Which assessment finding would alert the
distress syndrome. Which assessment finding indicates that the neonate’s respiratory status is improving? A. Presence of systolic murmur B. Respiratory rate between 60 and 70 breaths/min C. Edema of the hands and feet D. Urine output of 1-3ml/kg/hr 56. Which complication is common in neonates who receive prolonged mechanical ventilation at birth? A. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia B. Esophageal atresia C. Hydrocephalus D. Renal failure MAS 57. When a neonate is delivered with meconium staining in the amniotic fluid, which sequence of events will most effectively decrease the risk of meconium aspiration? A. Deliver the thorax, then suction the mouth B. Clamp the umbilical cord, then suction the neonate’s mouth C. Deliver the head and then suction the mouth and then the nose D. Deliver the thorax, then suction the nose then the mouth 58. Which of the following positions is recommended for placing an infant to sleep? A. Prone position B. Supine position C. Side-lying position D. With head of bed elevated 30 degrees 59. Which of the following definitions best describes the etiology of sudden infant death syndrome? A. Cardiac arrhythmias B. Apnea of prematurity C. Unexplained death of an infant D. Apparent life-threatening event 60. Which of the following children has an increased risk of sudden infant death syndrome? A. Premature infant with low birth weight B. A healthy 1 year old C. Infant hospitalized for fever D. First born child 61. Sudden infant death syndrome is confirmed by which of the following procedures? A. Autopsy C. Skeletal survey B. Chest X-ray D. Laboratory analysis 62. Which of the following reactions are usually exhibited by the family of an infant who has died from sudden infant death syndrome? A. Feelings of blame or guilt B. Acceptance of the diagnosis C. Requests for the infant’s belongings D. Questions regarding the etiology of the diagnosis
nurse to suspect the occurrence of jaundice in this newborn? A. A negative result to a direct Coomb’s test B. Birth weight of 8lb 6oz C. Presence of a cephalhematoma D. Infant blood type of O negative 65. A client with group AB blood whose husband has group O blood has just given birth. The major sign of ABO blood incompatibility in the neonate is which complication or test result? A. Negative Coomb’s test B. Bleeding from nose or ear C. Jaundice after the first 24 hours of life D. Jaundice within the first 24 hours of life 66. Which clinical finding is most suggestive of physiologic hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate? A. Clinical jaundice before 36 hours of age B. Clinical jaundice lasting beyond 14 days C. Bilirubin levels of 12 mg/dl by 3 days of life D. Serum bilirubin level increasing by more than 5mg/dl/day 67. On the second day of life, a neonate develops hyperbilirubinemia and is placed under phototherapy. Which of the following would be included in the nurse’s care plan for this infant? A. Keep the infant swaddled in a blanket B. Record the type and amount of stools C. Maintain continuous eye patches D. Limit fluid intake 68. A 3-day-old neonate needs phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. Nursery care of a neonate receiving phototherapy would include which nursing intervention? A. Tube feedings B. Feeding the neonate under phototherapy lights C. Mask over the eyes to prevent retinal damage D Temperature monitored every 6 hours during phototherapy 69. On the first postpartum day, a neonate diagnosed with an ABO incompatibility has a bilirubin level of 10 mg/dl. After teaching the parents about this condition, which of the following statements by the parents about the neonate indicates the need for additional teaching? A. “Phototherapy causes the baby’s stools to be bright green.” B. “Breastfeeding may need to be stopped temporarily.” C. “The baby will need an exchange transfusion with type A blood.” D. “The baby may become anemic over the next 2 weeks.” 70. A postpartum mother who is Rh negative is to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh positive baby. Before receiving the medication, she asks the nurse how the drug works. Which fo the following best describes how RhoGAM acts in the
Hyperbilirubinemia/Isoimmunization 63. Which statement is the best explanation for physiologic hyperbilirubinemia? A. The neonate usually also has a medical problem B. In term neonates, it usually appears after 24 hours C. It is caused by elevated conjugated bilirubin levels D. It is usually progressive from the neonate’s feet to his head
71. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client develops during which of the following conditions? A. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies B. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies C. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into maternal blood, stimulating maternal antibodies D. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into fetal blood, stimulating fetal antibodies Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn 72. A postpartum client asks why her newborn is getting an injection of vitamin K. Which statement best explains why this drug is given to neonates? A. Vitamin K assists with coagulation B. Vitamin K assists with the gut to mature C. Vitamin K initiates the immunization process D. Vitamin K protects the brain from excess fluid production Cardiovascular 73. Which is the most common cause of heart failure in children? A. Myocarditis C. Severe hypoxia B. Complete heart block D. Congenital heart disease 74. Which of the following factors indicating a cardiac defect might be found when assessing a 1-month-old infant? A. Weight gain C. Poor nutritional intake B. Hyperactivity D. Pink mucous membranes 75. Which of the following signs may be seen in a child with ventricular septal defect? A. Cyanosis of the nailbeds B. Above average height on a growth chart C. Above average weight gain on growth chart D. Pink nailbeds with capillary refill less than 2 seconds 76. Which of the following conditions best describes ventricular septal defect? A. Narrowing of the aortic arch
expectant mother’s body? A. RhoGAM attaches to maternal anti-Rh antibodies and directly destroys them B. RhoGAM suppresses the production of maternal antibodies C. RhoGAM destroys fetal Rh positive red blood cells in the maternal circulation before sensitization occurs D. RhoGAM prevents fetal-maternal bleeding episodes from occurring at the former placenta site
81. A nurse is teaching parents about tricuspid atresia. Which of the following statements indicates the parents understand? A. “There’s a narrowing at the aortic outflow tract.” B. “The pulmonary veins don’t return to the left atrium.” C. “There’s a narrowing at the entrance of the pulmonary artery.” D. “There’s no communication between the right atrium and right ventricle.” 82. Which of the fallowing statements best describes transposition of the great arteries? A. The body receives only saturated blood B. It is classified as an acyanotic defect with increased pulmonary blood flow C. The pulmonary artery leaves the left ventricle, and the aorta exits from the right ventricle D. It is a condition in which the right atrium and the left atrium empty into one ventricular chamber 83. Which of the following cardiovascular disorders is considered acyanotic? A. Patent ductus arteriosus C. Tricuspid atresia B. Tetralogy of Fallot D. Truncus arteriosus NEC 84. A nurse assessing a client with necrotizing enterocolitis would expect which of the following findings? A. Abdominal distention and gastric retention B. Gastric retention and Guaiac-negative stools C. Metabolic alkalosis and abdominal distention D. Guaiac-negative stools and metabolic alkalosis Maternal Infection 85. The most common neonatal sepsis and meningitis infections seen within 24 hours after birth are caused by which organism? A. Candida albicans B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Escherichia coli D. Group B beta-hemolytic streptococcus 86. A pregnant woman, 36 weeks’
B. Failure of a septum to develop completely between the atria C. Narrowing of the valves at the entrance of the pulmonary artery D. Failure of a septum to develop completely between the ventricles 77. Which of the following conditions best describes coarctation of the aorta? A. Absent tricuspid valve B. Narrowing in the area of the aortic valve C. Localized constriction or narrowing of the aortic wall D. Narrowing at some location along the right ventricular outflow tract 78. Which of the following assessments is expected when assessing a child with tetralogy of Fallot? A. Machine-like murmur B. Normal blood pressure C. Increasing cyanosis with crying or activity D. Higher pressures in the upper extremities than with the lower extremities 79. A child with tetralogy of Fallot has clubbing of fingers and toes, a finding related to which of the following conditions? A. Polycythemia C. Pansystolic murmur B. Chronic hypoxia D. Abnormal growth and development 80. A child with tetralogy of Fallot may assume which position of comfort during exercise? A. Prone C. SemiFowler B. Side-lying D. Squat Drug Addiction/FAS 89. With heroin addiction in the newborn, signs of withdrawal are most likely to A. Appear within the first 4 hours after birth B. Occur 1-2 days after delivery C. Be delayed up to 5 days postnatally D. Be eliminated or greatly reduced if the newborn receives a narcotic antagonist such as naloxone immediately after delivery 90. Which intervention is helpful for the neonate experiencing drug withdrawal? A. Place the isolette in a quiet area of the nursery B. Withhold all medication to improve the liver’s metabolization of drugs C. Dress the neonate in loose clothing so he won’t feel restricted D. Place the isolette near the nurse’s station for frequent contact with health care workers 91. When attempting to interact with a neonate experiencing drug withdrawal, which behavior would indicate that the neonate is willing to interact? A. Gaze aversion C. Quiet alert state B. Hiccups D. Yawning 92. A nurse explains to a mother that her newborn is being admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with a probable diagnosis
gestation, learns that she is HIV positive. She asks the clinic nurse how this will affect her unborn baby. The nurse responds A. “A cesarean delivery will prevent your baby from being infected.” B. “There is about 50% chance that your baby will be infected.” C. “Because your pregnancy is past the first trimester, the baby will not be infected.” D. “If you are symptom-free, your baby will not be infected.” 87. A nurse is developing a teaching plan for the mother of a newborn infant who is human immunodeficiency virus-positive. Which specific instruction should be included in the teaching plan? A. Instruct the mother to provide meticulous skin care of the newborn infant and to change the infant’s diaper after each voiding or stool B. Instruct the mother to feed the newborn infant in an upright position with the head and chest tilted slightly back to avoid aspiration C. Instruct the mother to feed the newborn infant with a special nipple and bubble the infant frequently to decrease the tendency to swallow air D. Instruct the mother to check the anterior fontanel for bulging and sutures for widening each day 88. Which of the following best indicates that a neonate may have an infection? A. Respiratory rate of 65 at rest B. Weight increase of 1 lb on 2 successive days C. Axillary temperature of 37 degrees C D. Hemoglobin of 20 g/dl of blood 93. A 36-week neonate born weighing 1,800g has microcephaly and microophthalmia. Based on these findings, which risk factor might be expected in the maternal history? A. Use of alcohol C. Gestational diabetes B. Use of marijuana D. Positive group B streptococci 94. Which neonatal behavior is most commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome? A. Hypoactivity C. Poor wake and sleep patterns B. High birth weight D. High threshold of stimulation
of fetal alcohol syndrome. The nurse explains the expected effects of FAS to the mother. The nurse evaluates the effectiveness of the explanation when the mother states: A. “Withdrawal symptoms will occur after 3 days.” B. “Mental retardation is unlikely to happen.” C. “Withdrawal symptoms are tremors, crying, seizures, and reflexes that aren’t normal.” D. “The reason the child is so large is because of the fetal alcohol syndrome
