A320 Tech Questions (1) (1)

TECHNICAL QUESTIONS ON A320 1/4 POWER PLANT PNEUMATICS AIRCON/PRESS./ VENT. ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

Disclaimer This document is for training purpose only. Always refer latest revisions of manuals in case of conflict.

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Contents POWER PLANT .................................................................................. 1 PNEUMATIC SYSTEM .................................................................... 13 AIRCON / PRESS. / VENTILATION ............................................... 21 ICE & RAIN PROTECTION ............................................................. 31


POWER PLANT

POWER PLANT Q.1

What are the various sections of an engine? A turbine engine consists of an air inlet, compressor {LP + HP}, combustion chamber, turbine section {HP+ LP}, and exhaust.

Q.2

What is the other name of FADEC? EEC

Q.3

What are the functions of the FADEC? Control of fuel flow and Power management Automatic control of engine thrust rating Computation of thrust parameter limits Manual management of power as a function of thrust lever position Automatic management of power (A/THR demand) Protection against engine exceeding limits {Protection against N1 and N2 over-speed / Protection against EGT Over limits during Auto-Start on ground only. Monitoring of EGT during Manual Engine Start} Automatic engine starting sequence • control of The start valve (ON/OFF) / the HP fuel valve / the fuel flow / the ignition (ON/OFF) • monitoring of N1, N2, FF and EGT • Initiation of Auto-abort and Auto Cranking (on the ground only for Auto Start) Manual engine starting sequence • Passive monitoring of engine • Control of the closure of start valve / Cut-off of the ignition Thrust reverser control Fuel recirculation control Protection against fan flutter

Q.4

How the FADEC is powered? When A/C is initially energized, FADEC uses A/C Supply for 5 minutes and shuts down. During Engine start, when Mode Selector is set at IGNITION / START, FADEC is energized and uses A/C Supply until N2 reaches 10%. During Engine Shut Down, when Master Switch is set to OFF, FADEC remains energized for 5 minutes. The FADEC system is self-powered above 10 % N2. FADEC uses a/c supply below 10% N2. If the ENG MODE SELECTOR is set back to NORM before engine start, FADEC supply is cut-off.

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Q.5

For calculating EPR & N1, what are the factors taken in to account? The FADEC computes the command EPR as a function of: Thrust Lever Angle (TLA) Altitude Mach number Ambient temperature =+Air inlet total temperature (T2){f (M, Ambient Temp)} Service bleed.

Q.6

Why FADEC will revert to N1 MODE? If the FADEC is unable to sense or to calculate EPR, an automatic reversion to N1 control mode is provided. If there is a problem with Pressure sensing trouble, it goes to Rated N1 Mode. If there is a problem with temperature sensing trouble, it goes to Un-Rated N1 Mode. In N1 Mode, the rotor speed reference depends on the thrust lever angle, T2, and altitude.

Q.7

What is the RATED N1 Mode? If no EPR is available (either sensed or computed) the affected FADEC will automatically revert to N1 mode. Depending on the type of failure, the FADEC will revert to either rated or unrated mode. An automatic reversion to rated N1 mode occurs in the event of loss of sensed EPR. This occurs when P2 (engine inlet total pressure) and/or P5 (LP turbine exit total pressure) engine parameters are not available.

Q.8

What are the indications if an engine goes to Rated N1 Mode? ECAM EPR Indications will show amber crosses. N1 MODE and N1 rating limit {The N1 MODE indication is displayed in blue. / The N1 rating limit, corresponding to the thrust lever position and the N1 thrust limit mode are displayed in blue.} Auto-thrust control is lost. After finishing the checklist, you will see on the N1 gauges: N1 TLA {a small white circle shows the N1 corresponding to the thrust lever position} MAX N1 {this amber index shows the N1 the engine would produce, with the thrust lever all the way forward}

Q.9

What is the UN-RATED N1 Mode? An automatic reversion to unrated N1 mode occurs in the event of loss of computed EPR due to the loss of T2 (engine inlet total air temperature).

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Q.10 What are the indications if an engine goes to Un-Rated N1 Mode? ECAM of N1 DEGRADED MODE EPR Indications will show amber crosses. N1 MODE and N1 rating limit {Amber crosses will be displayed in the box.} Auto-thrust control is lost. After finishing the checklist, you will not see N1 TLA {a small white circle on the N1 gauge} nor MAX N1 {an amber index on the N1 gauge} Max N1 can be obtained from FCOM Performance Tables. The N1 rating limit, N1 TLA and maximum N1 indications on ECAM E/WD are lost. In case of Go-Around in this failure {in the unrated N1 mode}, an over boost can occur, with the thrust levers at full forward position.

Q.11 How is Unrated N1 mode identified to the crew on ECAM? {What is the caption?} N1 DEGRADED MODE Important to note: The rated N1 mode can also be manually selected through the ENG N1 MODE pb-sw on the overhead panel whereas un-rated N1 is just automatically due to a failure. It possible that one engine remains in Rated N1 mode whereas other one is in Un-rated Mode. However, it is not allowed that one engine being in EPR Mode and other one in N1 mode.

Q.12 How many types of engine start procedures are for A320? Auto-Start / Manual Start

Q.13 What is Auto Start Procedure? Refer FCOM

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Q.14 What is the role of FADEC during auto-start of an engine? FADEC provides protection against over limit of EGT / N1 / N2. It controls opening of Start Valve, ignition. It controls closure of Start Valve and Ignition Cut-Off at N2>43% FADEC will provide Auto – Cranking in case of an abort of Engine Start.

Q.15 What is the role of FADEC during manual-start of an engine? During Manual Start, FADEC Will not provide Auto-Cranking, Will not provide Auto Abort of Engine Start Controls Closure of Start Valve and Ignition Cut-off. No protection for EGT over limit.

Q.16 What is the Manual Start Procedure? Refer FCOM

Q.17

What are the conditions when ECAM of ENG “START FAULT” can come for an engine during auto-start? ENG IGNITION FAULT: No light up within 20 s (30 s in flight) or NO N1 ROTATION: or STALL or EGT OVERLIMIT or HUNG START On ground (auto start): In case of no light up, detected stall, potential EGT overheat or hung start, the FADEC will immediately shut off fuel and turn off ignition. Then a dry crank phase is automatically performed. At the end of the dry crank sequence, the start valve is closed. Following message is displayed on ECAM during crank phase: “AUTO CRANK IN PROGRESS.” When dry cranking process is finished: ENG MASTER (AFFECTED).................................................................................OFF Setting ENG MASTER to OFF confirms automatic start abort. Following starter cool down, the pilot must decide whether to attempt auto or manual start, or to report the no start condition for appropriate maintenance action. Note: With engine above idle, if EGT limit is exceeded ECAM requires to set engine master at OFF.

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Q.18 What happens during AUTO Start on ground, if FADEC detects a hot start, hung start or no light up? The FADEC detects a hot start, a hung start, a stall, or no light up, amber FAULT light illuminates on the ENG MASTER panel and an ECAM message will appear. Runs an abort sequence if start aborts on the ground when N2 is below 50 % Closes the HP valve Turns off ignition Cranks the engine after the start abort in order to clear out fuel vapors and then closes the start valve Ensures an automatic dry crank sequence of 30 s at maximum motoring speed. During engine start with residual EGT > 250 °C, an auto-crank function motors the engine until EGT decreases below 250 °C. For an inflight start, the FADEC decides whether the engine is wind milling fast enough or needs assistance from the starter in view of current engine parameters and flight environment parameters.

Q.19 What is the meaning of FAULT Light on ENG MASTER Panel? FAULT lt : This amber light comes on, and a caution appears on ECAM, if there is: An automatic start abort. A start valve fault. A disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded position.

Q.20 What is the meaning of “AUTO CRANK IN PROGRESS” message appearing on E/WD during auto start? That means there is a Start Abort and Engine is being cranked in order to clear out fuel vapors.

Q.21 What happens after Dry Crank sequence is over during Auto start? ECAM may ask you to put Master Switch to OFF or may guide the crew to do another AutoStart.

Q.22 Will FADEC always perform second start if first attempt is aborted by it? Not necessary.

Q.23

During Auto-Start usually one igniter is on. Do you remember any situation during auto start when both igniters come on? What is that? When the FADEC detects an impending hung start or hot start, the FADEC applies an automatic recovery sequence without an ECAM message. The crew will notice that dual ignition (A+B) is applied, and that fuel will be commanded OFF, and then re-commanded ON within 0.5 s. It is not necessary for the crew to shut down the engine.

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Q.24 What happens when N2 reaches 43% during AUTO start of the engine? Start Valve Close and Ignition is cut-off.

Q.25 What happens when N2 reaches 50% during AUTO Start? After reaching 50% N2, FADEC will not perform Auto Abort etc. in case of START malfunction.

Q.26 When can you say that engine start sequence is over? When gray area over N2 is disappeared.

Q.27 Which igniters are working when performing a manual start of an engine? Both A & B

Q.28 Before starting the engine, THRUST LEVERs have to be at IDLE. If THR LEVERS are not at idle, what will happen? Engines will start, regardless of the thrust lever position; thrust will rapidly increase to the corresponding thrust lever position, causing a hazardous situation, if thrust levers are not at IDLE.

Q.29 During a manual start, how is the start valve opened? ENG MODE selector............................................................................. IGN / START ENG MAN START p/b....................................................................................... ON

Q.30 What takes place when you push the MAN START button during manual start of engine? Start Valve opens The N1 and N2 indications show amber crosses, until the actual N1 and N2 reach about 4 %. On the ECAM lower display; check that the START VALVE is inline On the ECAM displays, check that theN2 increases, and OIL PRESS increases.

Q.31 What happens when you select Master Switch to ON, in Manual Start? Both igniters come ON. LP & HP Fuel Valves open. Ignition stops when N2 reaches 43% but only on ground. Check : ‐ Indication of igniters A and B ‐ Fuel flow increase ‐ EGT increase 20 s (maximum) after fuel is on. ‐ N1 increases before 34 % N2

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Q.32 Does the FADEC provide EGT limit protection constantly? Only on ground and that too in Auto-Start

Q.33 How do you carry out dry cranking cycle, if required manually? MODE SEL................................................................................. CRANK MAN START (AFFECTED)...................................................... ON Dry crank the engine for 30 s. The start valve automatically reopens when N2 is below 10 %.

Q.34 During a manual start, are the automatic start interruption and auto-crank functions available? NO

Q.35

During a manual start of an engine, does the ENG MAN START pushbutton have to be depressed again to close the start valve? NO

Q.36 What are the conditions that may require a Manual Engine Start? Manual starting is recommended in the following cases: ‐ After aborting a start, because of : • Engine stall, or • Engine EGT overlimit, or • LO START AIR PRESS, or • No N1 rotation, or • Hung start. ‐ When expecting a start abort, because of : • Degraded bleed performance, due to hot conditions, or at a high-altitude airfields. • An engine with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions, or at a high-altitude airfields. • Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group. • Tailwind greater than 10 kt Starting in tailwind may fail due to N1 counter rotation, hot gas black flow. Fuel should be set to ON at N2 max motoring speed, provided N1 has stopped, and turn clockwise. (confirmation by the ground crew).

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Q.37 During an engine start sequence, the gray background on N2 disappears at about 57%. What does this indicate? Engine has stabilized and engine start is complete.

Q.38 FADEC takes care of start abort or recycle of engine starting but only on ground and that too in Auto-Start. True

Q.39 When is Continuous ignition provided automatically? • • • • • •

Engine anti – ice pb-sw on Thrust selected to Max TO {EPR or Rated N1} or FLEX {EPR} Approach idle Selected Inflight unscheduled or sub – idle surge EIU Data failed. Master Switch Recycle from On to OFF and then back to ON.

Q.40 After engine start, how would the PF select continuous ignition on the engine? If Engine Mode Selector is left at IGNITION / START, recycle the selector to NORM and then back to IGNITION / START. Otherwise, just select to IGNITION / START position.

Q.41 What happens if you hold ENG Mode Selector to CRANK? The start valve opens, if the MAN START pushbutton is ON, and N2 < 10 %. Ignition does not fire.

Q.42 What is LVR ASYM? Appears in amber (3rd line on the FMA) if, {with A/THR active and both engines running,},one thrust lever is set out of the CLB detent.

Q.43 What is LVR CLB? Flashes white (3rd line on the FMA) if the thrust levers are not in CL position while the aircraft is above the altitude of thrust reduction with both engines running.

Q.44 What is LVR MCT? Flashes white (3rd line on the FMA) if the thrust levers are not in MCT position after an engine failure (with speed above green dot).

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POWER PLANT

Q.45 What do you mean by Modulated Idle? IDLE Power of engines: In flight, when the flaps are retracted (FLAPS lever at zero position) On ground, provided reverse is not selected. Modulated idle is regulated according to: Bleed system demand and ambient conditions

Q.46 What do you mean by Approach Idle? Approach idle is the idle power in flight, when the flaps are extended (FLAPS lever not at zero position) It is regulated according to aircraft altitude, regardless of bleed system demand. Approach idle allows the engine to accelerate rapidly from idle to go-around thrust.

Q.47 How the thrust is controlled when A/THR active? By FMGS & FADEC

Q.48 How the thrust is controlled when A/THR is just armed and not active? Mode is Manual Thrust and depends upon the THR Lever position.

Q.49 Is there a mechanical connection between the thrust levers and the engines? No

Q.50 What is important to note before starting/relight of the engine in flight? No attempt should be made to restart an engine, or if there are indications of engine damage, or if the engine had been shut down because of an engine fire, or if there is a recognizable possibility that an attempted relight may result in fire.

Q.51 If no FLEX TEMP is set, then only TO/GA power can be selected? True

Q.52 If the thrust levers are set in the idle detent, is Alpha floor protection still available? Yes

Q.53 You are just about to take off. You have not inserted a FLEX temperature. Can you still takeoff? How? Yes by using TO / GA Power. CHAPTER 70

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Q.54 What happens if you hold the instinctive disconnect push buttons for more than fifteen seconds on THR LEVERS? If the flight crew pushes and holds one instinctive disconnect pb for more than 15 s, the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight. All A/THR functions including ALPHA FLOOR are lost, and they can be recovered only at the next FMGC power-up (on ground).

Q.55 What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch? 11 Qts + estimated consumption

Q.56 What is the oil pressure limitation on an engine? Minimum oil pressure.........................................................60 PSI

Q.57 What are the oil temp limitations? OIL TEMPERATURE Minimum prior to exceeding idle.............. Minimum prior to takeoff.......................... Max continuous temperature...................... Max transient temperature (15 min)........... Minimum starting temperature...................

.............. -10 °C ..............50 °C .............155 °C ...............165 °C .................-40 °C

Q.58 What are the EGT limitations of an engine? TAKEOFF and GO-AROUND 5min 10 min {only in case of engine failure} MCT STARTING

Q.59

635 °C 635 °C 610 °C Unlimited 635 °C

What is the limitation of engaging start valve/motor vis-à-vis N2?

‐ 3 consecutive cycles : 2 cycles of 2 min each, followed by a 3rd cycle of 1 min . ‐ Pause between start attempts : 15 s. ‐ Cooling period, following 3 start attempts or 4 min of continuous cranking : 30 min . ‐ No running engagement of the starter, when N2 is above 10 % on ground, and N2 is above 18 % in flight.

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POWER PLANT

Q.60 What is keep-out zone? Keep Out Zone is for protection against fan flutter, • When on ground at low speed (less than or equal to M 0.1), the Electronic Engine Computer (EEC) protects engine against fan flutter. In so doing, the EEC prevents the engine from being stabilized between an approximate range of 60 % to 74 % N1 (depending on the outside air temperature). Therefore, during engine acceleration on ground, the pilot may notice a non-linear thrust response to thrust lever movement and pilot can not set power in the range of 60% to 74% N1 on ground.

Q.61

What is the meaning of hot start? During engine start-up, it is possible for the temperatures inside the combustion section to get hot enough to cause internal damage to the engine. The engine manufacturer has determined a specific "do not exceed" EGT Limit for the engine, and pilots monitor these values carefully during start-up to insure the engine does not exceed that limit. Hot starts are caused by too much fuel entering the combustion chamber, or insufficient turbine r.p.m.

Q.62 What is the meaning of “Hung Start”? If the engine fails to accelerate to the proper speed after ignition or does not accelerate to idle r.p.m., a hung start has occurred. A hung start may also be called a false start. A hung start may be caused by an insufficient starting Pneumatic power or fuel control malfunction.

Q.63

What do you mean by “no light up” of an engine? Even after 20 sec of FF, there is no rise in EGT. It may be due to some igniter troubles.

Q.64

What are the indications for the engine stall {Compressor Stall}? A stall may be indicated by varying degrees of engine noises, accompanied by flame from engine exhaust, fluctuating performance parameters, sluggish or no thrust lever response, high EGT, and / or a rapid rise when thrust lever is advanced. Compressor blades are small airfoils and are subject to the same aerodynamic principles that apply to any airfoil. A compressor blade has an angle of attack. The angle of attack is a result of inlet air velocity and the compressor’s rotational velocity. These two forces combine to form a vector, which defines the airfoil’s actual angle of attack to the approaching inlet air. A compressor stall can be described as an imbalance between the two vector quantities, inlet velocity and compressor rotational speed. Compressor stalls occur when the compressor blades’ angle of attack exceeds the critical angle of attack. At this point, smooth airflow is interrupted and turbulence is created with pressure fluctuations. Compressor stalls cause air flowing in the compressor to slow down and stagnate, sometimes reversing direction.

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Compressor stalls can be transient and intermittent or steady state and severe. Indications of a transient/intermittent stall are usually an intermittent “bang” as backfire and flow reversal take place. If the stall develops and becomes steady, strong vibration and a loud roar may develop from the continuous flow reversal. Quite often the cockpit gauges will not show a mild or transient stall, but will indicate a developed stall. Typical instrument indications include fluctuations in r.p.m., and an increase in exhaust gas temperature. Most transient stalls are not harmful to the engine and often correct themselves after one or two pulsations. The possibility of engine damage, which may be severe, from a steady state stall is immediate. Recovery must be accomplished quickly by reducing power, decreasing the airplane’s angle of attack and increasing airspeed. Although all gas turbine engines are subject to compressor stalls, most models have systems that inhibit these stalls. One such system uses variable inlet guide vane (VIGV) and variable stator vanes, which direct the incoming air into the rotor blades at an appropriate angle. The main way to prevent air pressure stalls is to operate the airplane within the parameters established by the manufacturer. If a compressor stall does develop, follow the procedures.

Q.65

What do you mean by “Flame out” of an engine? A flameout is a condition in the operation of an engine in which the fire in the engine unintentionally goes out. It generally results from very fast engine acceleration, where an overly rich mixture causes the fuel temperature to drop below the combustion temperature. It also may be caused by insufficient airflow to support combustion. Another, more common flameout occurrence is due to low fuel pressure and low engine speeds, Any interruption of the fuel supply also can result in a flameout. Symptoms of a flameout normally are the same as those following an engine failure. If the flameout is due to a transitory condition, such as an imbalance between fuel flow and engine speed, an air start may be attempted once the condition is corrected.

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PNEUMATICS

PNEUMATIC SYSTEM

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PNEUMATICS

Q.1

What are the uses of Pneumatic Air? The pneumatic system supplies high-pressure air for: Air conditioning Engine starting Wing anti-icing Water pressurization Hydraulic reservoir pressurization

Q.2

What are the possible sources of HP Air? High-pressure air has three sources: Engine bleed systems APU load compressor HP ground connection

Q.3

What are the conditions in which Engine Bleed Valve close automatically? The bleed valve is fully closed either pneumatically or electrically. Pneumatically: If upstream pressure goes below 8 PSI If there is return flow Electrically by means of: The BLEED pushbutton switch (switched OFF) The ENG FIRE pushbutton (pushed) The Bleed air Monitoring Computer (BMC) in the following cases: Leak Open starter valve APU bleed being ON. Over temperature Overpressure

Q.4

At high power settings, is air bled from IP or HP stages of the Engine? IP

Q.5

What is the normal Bleed pressure maintained by Engine Bleed Valve? At low engine speed, when the pressure and temperature of the IP air are too low, the system bleeds air from the HP stage and maintains it at 36 ± 4 PSI. It maintains delivery pressure at 45 ± 5 PSI. Note: Bleed pressure may fluctuate between 38 and 56 PSI (with a maximum peak to peak pressure of 16 PSI) particularly at high engine power (takeoff or climb) up to FL 100.

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PNEUMATICS

Q.6

What happens to Engine Bleed Valves and to X bleed Valves {in Auto} when APU Bleed Valve is selected ON? The APU BLEED pb-sw, on the AIR COND panel, controls the APU bleed valve. When the flight crew selects ON with the pushbutton, APU bleed air supplies the pneumatic system, if the APU speed is above 95 %. This opens the cross bleed valve and closes the engine bleed automatically. However, an ECAM will appear if ENGINE BLEED VALVE does not close. ENG 1 (2) BLEED NOT CLOSD bleed valve not automatically closed during engine start or with APU bleed selected

Q.7

What happens to No2 Engine Bleed Valve, when X Bleed Valve is shut and you select APU Bleed ON? The Engine bleed valve 2, remains open, if the cross bleed valve is SHUT and APU Bleed is ON,

Q.8

Which areas of the aircraft are monitored for bleed leaks? Leak detection loops detect any overheating near the hot air ducts in the fuselage, pylons, and wings. For the pylon and APU, the sensing elements are tied to form a single loop and for the wing, a double loop.

Q.9

What are the indications and effects of a left wing leak?    

the bleed valve on the related side to close automatically the associated FAULT light on the AIR COND panel to come on the x-bleed valve to close automatically (except during an engine start) the APU bleed valve to close automatically (if it is open, and if the leak concerns the left wing) (except during engine start)

Q.10 What are the indications and effects of a right wing leak?    

the bleed valve on the related side to close automatically the associated FAULT light on the AIR COND panel to come on the x-bleed valve to close automatically (except during an engine start) the APU bleed valve to close automatically (if it is open, and if the leak concerns the left wing)(except during engine start)

Q.11 What are the indications of a pylon leak?   

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the bleed valve on the related side to close automatically the FAULT light for the related engine on the AIR COND panel to come on the x-bleed valve to close automatically (except during an engine start). Page 15 of 37

PNEUMATICS

Q.12 What are the indications of an APU leak ?   

the APU bleed valve to close automatically (except during engine start). the FAULT light the APU BLEED pushbutton switch on the AIR COND panel to come on the x-bleed valve to close automatically (except during an engine start).

Q.13 With the BMC1 failure, what functions are lost? If BMC 1 fails, the BMC 2 takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary : overpressure overtemperature wing leak. The ENG 1 BLEED FAULT light on the AIR COND panel is lost, and the ENG 1 BLEED VALVE does not close automatically. ENG BLEED LEAK warning is lost for the No.1 engine, and The APU BLEED LEAK warning is also lost.

Q.14 With the BMC2 failure, what functions are lost? If BMC 2 fails, the BMC 1 takes over the monitoring of the bleed system to issue the following ECAM warnings if necessary : overpressure overtemperature wing leak. The ENG 2 BLEED FAULT light on the AIR COND panel is lost, and the ENG 2 BLEED VALVE does not close automatically. ENG BLEED LEAK warning is lost for the No.2 engine.

Q.15 Is it True that leak detection is ignored during engine start? Yes

Q.16 Under which situations, do you get ENG 1 BLEED FAULT light? This amber light comes on, and an ECAM caution appears, if : There is an overpressure downstream of the bleed valve. There is a bleed air overheat. There is a wing or engine leak on the related side. The bleed valve is not closed during engine start. The bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed ON. Light goes out when the ENG BLEED pushbutton switch is OFF and if the fault has disappeared.

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PNEUMATICS

Q.17 Under which situations, do you get APU BLEED FAULT light? When the system detects an APU leak, this amber light comes on, and an ECAM caution appears.

Q.18 In cross bleed valve, if the position disagrees with selected position, what are the warnings? In line - Amber : BLEED valve not in commanded (open) position Cross line - Amber : BLEED valve not in commanded (closed) position

Q.19 How will you be informed if X Bleed Valve fails to Open? With an ECAM of X BLEED FAULT Position disagree with selected position

Q.20 How will you be informed if X Bleed Valve fails to close? With an ECAM of X BLEED FAULT Position disagree with selected position

Q.21 Following an ENGINE 1 BLEED FAULT, why can you use only one pack if Wing Anti Ice (WAI) is on? Otherwise Pre-cooler will get overloaded and may cause this bleed also to fail.

Q.22 Does BLEED page show positions for HP BLEED Valve, Engine BLEED Valve and Wing Anti Ice Valve?

Q.23 When does engine identification number on ECAM Bleed page turns amber? It is normally in white. It becomes amber, when engine N2 is below idle.

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PNEUMATICS

Q.24 In AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT Checklist/QRH procedure, why it is that in one case you have to descend to FL100 and in other case to FL 200? Since, in one case you can use APU and can have single pack on the APU where as in other case you do not have APU and so loss of pressurization.

Q.25 In flight, a dual bleed fault {AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT} occurs. The QRH procedure directs use of the APU for a bleed source. What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed operations? FL 200 for single pack / FL 150 for Dual Pack on APU.

Q.26 To which side of the X bleed valve, is the Ground HP connection? Left

Q.27 What are the positions of the X Bleed Selector? AUTO / OPEN / CLOSE

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AIRCON / PRESSURIZATION / VENT. SYSTEM

1)

Write down the details for all the numbers in the picture above?

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2)

Write down the details for all the numbers in the picture below?

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AIRCON / PRESS. / VENTILATION Q.1

Which air is used for air-conditioning system? Air for air condition system is supplied by the pneumatic system. It is via: ‐ Two pack flow control valves, ‐ Two packs, ‐ The mixing unit, which mixes the air that comes from the cabin and the packs. Air is then distributed to the cockpit and the cabin where trim air {or hot air} is mixed for optimization of the temp.

Q.2

How the warm Pneumatics Bleed air is cooled? Warm pre-conditioned bleed air enters the cooling path via the pack flow control valve, and is ducted to the primary heat exchanger. Then, the cooled bleed air enters the compressor section of the air-cycle machine and is compressed to a higher pressure and temperature. It is cooled again in the main heat exchanger and enters the turbine section, where it expands and, in expanding, generates power to drive the compressor and cooling air fan. The removal of energy during this process reduces air temperature, resulting in very low air temperature at turbine discharge.

Q.3

Name the important components of the Air conditioning system? Air conditioning pack {2} Pack flow control valve {2} Emergency ram air inlet {1} Mixer unit {1} Hot-air pressure-regulating valve {1} Trim air valves {3}

Q.4

What is the RAM AIR P/B for? When is it used? When the guarded p/b of RAM AIR is used, an emergency ram air inlet valve opens and ram air enters the cabin / cockpit via Mixer Unit and ventilates the cockpit and cabin. It is used in case of Smoke removal Procedure to remove smoke, or if both packs fail. The emergency ram air inlet valve is controlled by the RAM AIR pushbutton on the AIR COND panel. This pushbutton opens the ram air valve, provided that ditching is not selected.

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Q.5

What is the limitation for opening the RAM AIR inlet? {Open it if cabin differential pressure is < 1psi.} However, when RAM AIR pushbutton (guarded) is switched ON; the ON light comes on white. If the DITCHING pushbutton, on the CABIN PRESS panel, is in normal position: ‐ The RAM air inlet opens. ‐ If Δp ≥ 1 PSI: The outflow valve control remains normal. No emergency RAM air flows in. ‐ If Δp < 1 PSI: The outflow valve opens to about 50 % when under automatic control. It does not automatically open when it is under manual control. Emergency RAM airflow is directly supplied to the mixer unit.

Q.6

What are the conditions in which HOT AIR FAULT light comes? The HOT AIR FAULT light comes on amber, along with an associated ECAM caution, when duct overheat is detected. The fault circuit detects an overheat when the duct temperature reaches 88 °C. The valve and trim air valves close automatically. The FAULT light goes off when the temperature drops below 70 °C, and the flight crew selects OFF. The valve closes automatically, if: ‐ The duct overheats, or ‐ The cockpit trim air valve fails, or ‐ Both cabin trim air valves fail. The hot-air pressure-regulating valve remains operative, even if either the forward or aft cabin trim air valve fails.

Q.7

If Hot Air Press Reg. valve fails in closed condition, what happens? What you are supposed to do, if in flight? Failed closed: Optimized regulation is lost. Trim air valves are driven to the fully closed position. Pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected value and pack 2 controls the cabin temperature (FWD and AFT) to the mean value of the selected temperatures.

Q.8

What are the three supply zones for conditioned air?

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Q.9

What happens when a temperature selector rotary knob is adjusted in the cockpit?

Q.10 How many trim air valves are fitted and what do they do? Three. The cockpit trim air valve, controlled by the ACSC 1, and the cabin trim air valves, controlled by the ACSC 2, adjust the temperature by adding hot air.

Q.11 Under what conditions, Pack Flow Control Valve will close automatically? ‐ ‐ ‐ ‐ ‐

Upstream pressure below minimum. Compressor outlet overheat. Engine start sequence Fire pushbutton, of the engine on the related side, is pressed, Ditching is selected.

Q.12 When will you get PACK FAULT Light? Comes on amber, and a caution appears on the ECAM, if the pack flow control valve position disagrees with the selected position, or in the case of compressor outlet overheat or pack outlet overheat.

Q.13 What happens when ACSC No.1 fails? Pack no. 1 will fail, {Pack flow control valve no.2 will go to higher flow irrespective of the PACK FLOW Selector position} Pack flow control valve no. 1 will fail Hot Air Pressure regulating Valve will close. {Basic temp regulation only as optimization is lost and is by Pack no. 2 only} Cockpit Trim Air Valve closes Cockpit + Cabin temp at fixed temp only {Because of Hot Air Press Regulating Valve closure, al trim air valves close}

Q.14 What happens when ACSC No.2 fails? Pack no. 2 will fail, {Pack flow control valve no.1 will go to higher flow irrespective of the Pack Flow Selector position} Pack flow control valve no. 2 will close. Cabin Trim Air Valves close {FWD + AFT} Cockpit temp control normal but Cabin temp at fixed temp only.

Note: The air conditioning system controller 2 regulates the temperature of the two cabin zones, and the air conditioning system controller 1 regulates, the cockpit temperature. CHAPTER 21

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Q.15 On which of the ECAM pages, the packs’ parameters are shown? What are they? Bleed page

Q.16 On ECAM COND page, two temperature values are shown. What is the meaning of it? One is Duct temp and other is actual temp in Zone.

Q.17 The ram air inlet flaps, {for the ACM heat exchangers}, automatically close under two conditions regardless of heat exchanger requirements. What are those two conditions? Where can you see them during walk-around inspection? Each air conditioning system controller regulates the temperature of its associated pack, by modulating the bypass valve and the ram air inlet flap. The ram air inlet flap closes during takeoff and landing to avoid the ingestion of foreign matter. Note: During takeoff, the ram air inlet flap closes when takeoff power is set, and the main landing gear struts are compressed. During landing, it closes as soon as the main landing gear struts are compressed, as long as speed is at or above 70 kt. It opens 20 s after the speed drops below 70 kt.

Q.18 Is cargo heat provided to the forward cargo compartment? NO for IndiGo a/c

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CHAPTER 21

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Q.1

How many modes of pressurization exist on A320? The flight crew can set the system to operate automatically, semi-automatically, or manually. In normal operation, cabin pressurization is fully automatic.

AUTOMATIC OPERATION

The flight crew monitors the operation of the system, but does nothing to control it. Air pressure in the cabin follows schedules from the FMGS. When FMGS data is not available for automatic pressurization, the crew only needs to select the landing field elevation. This is called as semi-automatic mode of operation. The controller normally uses the landing elevation and the QNH from the FMGC, and the pressure altitude from ADIRS. If FMGC data are not available, the controller uses the captain BARO Reference from the ADIRS and the LDG ELEV selection. MANUAL OPERATION

In manual mode, the flight crew controls the cabin altitude via the manual motor of the outflow valves, by operating controls on the pressurization control panel.

When the system is in automatic or semi-automatic mode, one controller is active, the other is on standby. In automatic mode, the operating controller signals the position of the valve to the ECAM. LDG ELEV FAULT: No FMGS LDG ELEV data is available.

Q.2

In auto mode of operation, what will be the max cabin altitude if system is functioning normal? It limits the cabin pressure to 8 000 ft maximum and optimizes it during climb and descent phases.

Q.3

When will CPC changeover take place automatically? An automatic transfer occurs: • 70 s after each landing. • If the operating system fails.

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Q.4

If pilot suspects that the selected controller is malfunctioning, how can he change the controller {CPC}, while operating pressurization in AUTO? Switching the MODE SEL pb to MAN, for at least 10 s, then returning it to AUTO will select the other system.

Q.5

If one cabin pressure controller fails, how is pressurization maintained? What ECAM Caution will be generated?

Q.6

If Cabin Pressurization is in Auto, and if you have to push open Emer. RAM AIR, what happens to the Out Flow Valve? When the RAM AIR pushbutton is ON, and ▵p is below 1 PSI, the system drives the outflow valve about 50 % open if it is under automatic control.

Q.7

What happens to the outflow valve if the MODE SEL switch is in MAN? If the system is under manual control, the outflow valve does not automatically open, even if ▵p is below 1 PSI.

Q.8

If you increase Cabin V/S {when pressurization in MAN Mode}, what happens to the Out-Flow Valve? It opens

Q.9

While in MAN Mode, how do you increase the cabin ALT? By opening the Out Flow Valve with MAN V/S CTL switch UP

Q.10 By increasing cabin altitude in flight, what happens to Cabin Diff Pressure? Will it increase or decrease? It will decrease.

Q.11 What is the role of Safety Valves? Two independent pneumatic safety valves prevent cabin pressure from going too high (8.6 PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI below ambient). They are located on the rear pressure bulkhead, above the flotation line.

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Q.12 How many safety valves are fitted on A320? Two

Q.13 What do you understand by negative differential pressure? When outside pressure is more than a/c cabin pressure.

Q.14 With the LDG ELEV selector in AUTO, which reference altitude is used for landing field pressurization? The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to construct an optimized pressure schedule. To exit the AUTO position, pull out and turn the selector.

Q.15 With the LDG ELEV selector at 1, what would be the landing elevation? 1000 feet

Q.16 What is RPCU? What are the logic conditions for RPCU to open the Out Flow Valve? The Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) automatically depressurizes the aircraft in case of abnormal residual pressure on ground. It automatically opens the outflow valve, when: The aircraft is on ground, and Both CPCs are failed, or manual mode is selected, and the outflow valve is not fully open, and All ADIRS indicate an airspeed below 100 kts or all engines are shutdown.

Q.17 What happens when the DITCHING pushbutton is selected ON? The operating system sends a “close” signal to the outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves, pack flow control valves. Note: The outflow valve will not close automatically, if it is under manual control.

Q.18 “Cabin V/S” info is displayed on three ECAM pages. Which are those? CABIN PRESS Page / CRUISE Page /

Q.19 When will V/S FT/MIN (cabin vertical speed) pulse in green? The analog and digital presentations appear in green when V/S is in the normal range. The digital presentation pulses when V/S > 1 750 ft/min (resets at 1 650 ft/min).

Q.20 When will ΔP PSI (cabin differential pressure) pulse in green? The digital presentation pulses if Δp > 1.5 PSI (resets at 1 PSI) during flight phase 7.

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Q.21 When will ΔP PSI (cabin differential pressure) become amber? Never. The analog and digital presentations appear in green when ▵P is in the normal range. They appear in amber when ΔP ≤ –0.4 PSI or ≥ 8.5 PSI.

Q.22 When does CAB ALT become red? CAB ALT FT (cabin altitude) Indication: The analog and digital presentations appear in green, in normal range. They appear in red if the cabin altitude goes above 9 550 ft. The digital presentation pulses if the cabin altitude is at or above 8 800 ft (resets at 8 600 ft).

Q.23 Can Out flow valve indication become amber? When? Outflow valve position indication is shown on ECAM CAB PRESS Page. The diagram becomes amber when the valve opens more than 95 % during flight.

Q.24 Name the important components of Pressurization? The system consists of: ‐ Two Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC) ‐ One Residual Pressure Control Unit (RPCU) ‐ One outflow valve, with an actuator that incorporates three motors (two for automatic operation, one for manual operation) ‐ One control panel ‐ Two safety valves

Q.25 Where will you see Out- Flow Valve during walk-around inspection? The outflow valve is on the right-hand side of fuselage, behind the aft cargo compartment and below the flotation line.

Q.26 What happens when you press Blower P/B to OVRD? When you set Blower pb / sw to Override, Blower stops, air-conditioning air is added for ventilation and avionics ventilation sys goes into Closed Config.

Q.27 What happens when you press Extract P/B to OVRD? When you set Extract pb / sw to Override, extract fan keeps running, air-conditioning air is added for ventilation and avionics ventilation sys goes into Closed Config.

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Q.28 What will happen when you press both Blower & Extract P/B to OVRD? Name some situations when you have to push both Blower & Extract p/b to OVRD? If both Blower and Extract pb / sw are set to override, Blower fan stops, Extract keeps running, air conditioning air is added for avionics ventilation and configuration is Intermediate Config.

Q.29 What happens when Blower Fan stops on ground with engines shut down? The external horn sounds. + FAULT light in BLOWER pb-sw

Q.30 What indications are given on the ventilation panel, if smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct? FAULT light in BLOWER pb-sw + FAULT light in EXTRACT pb-sw

Q.31 What is the Avionics Ventilation System configuration o During Taxi out if OAT is +7 degrees C?..... ….

Closed

o During taxi out if OAT is +15 degrees C?.....

…..

Open

o During taxi out if OAT is +40 degrees C?.....

……

Open

o Once you apply take-off power if OAT is +40 degrees C? .. ..Intermediate

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ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

ICE & RAIN PROTECTION Q.1

What is the definition of icing conditions? Icing conditions may be expected when the OAT (on ground and for takeoff), or the TAT (in flight), is 10 °C or below, and there is visible moisture in the air (such as clouds, fog with low visibility, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals), or when standing water, slush, ice or snow is present on the taxiways or runway.

Q.2

What types of ice protections are available on A320? And, which areas of the a/c are anti-iced? Either hot air or electrical heating protects critical areas of the aircraft as follows. HOT AIR ‐ three outboard leading-edge slats of each wing. ‐ engine air intakes. ELECTRICAL HEATING ‐ flight compartment windows. ‐ sensors, pitot probes and static ports. ‐ waste-water drain mast.

Q.3

It is the first flight of the day and you are doing your cockpit preparation. Due to the cold weather operation, the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT p/b is selected ON. Will the windshield heat be operating? At what level? Windshield heating operates at low power on the ground and at normal power in flight. The changeover is automatic.

Q.4

After engine start the F/O selects the ENG ANTI ICE pushbutton ON. The FAULT light illuminates, what does this FAULT light indicate? Amber light comes on, and caution message appears on ECAM, if the position of the anti-ice valve disagrees with the ENG 1 (2) pushbutton selection. Note: The amber FAULT light comes on briefly as valve transits.

Q.5

After taxi out, you turn on ENG ANTI ICE? What should you do in the event of an EAI Fault? If ENG ANTI ICE is selected ON and the valve(s) do not open (FAULT light(s) remain on), increase the N2 of the associated engine by about 5 %. When the valves are open, retard the thrust lever(s) to idle.

Q.6

What affect does Engine Anti-Ice have on engine performance? The EPR limit is automatically reduced.

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Q.7

What happens to engine RPM when engine anti-ice valve is open? Engine rpm increases. The idle EPR is automatically increased for both engines in order to provide the required pressure

Q.8

What happens when ENG ANTI ICE is ON? Blue light in ENG 1 (2) ANTI ICE pb-sw comes on. ECAM MEMO displays “ENG A. ICE”. Engine anti-icing valve opens if bleed air is available from the engine. Continuous ignition is selected when the valve is opened and the ENG ANTI ICE pb-sw is selected ON. This makes the IGNITION memo appear on the ECAM. Engine rpm increases. EPR LIMIT value reduces. When an engine anti-ice valve is open, the EPR limit is automatically reduced and, if necessary, the idle EPR is automatically increased for both engines in order to provide the required pressure.

Q.9

With EAI selected ON, what types of memos will be appearing? ECAM MEMO display: IGNITION ENG A. ICE.

Q.10 While operating in icing conditions electrical power for the ice protection systems is lost, what happens to the Engine Anti-Ice Valve? It is fail safe open. It opens. After landing with icing conditions present, when should the EAI system be selected OFF? After takeoff, when should WING ANTI-ICE be selected ON, if needed? On approach, when should WING anti-ice be selected OFF?

Q.11 What part of each wing is anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air? Or Which slats are anti-iced? Out board Slats 3, 4 & 5.

Q.12 Can APU be used for wing anti-ice? No, APU is not authorized for Wing Anti-Ice.

Q.13 What happens if the wing anti-ice p/b is switched ON, on the ground? When Wing Anti-Ice pb-sw is switched on, on the ground, the anti-ice valves open for about 30 s (test sequence), then close as long as the aircraft is on ground.

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Q.14 What happens when Wing Anti-Ice is on and a bleed leak is detected? If the system detects a leak during normal operation, the affected side’s wing anti-ice valve automatically closes (Refer to DSC-36-10-50 LEAK DETECTION).

Q.15 When will probe heat automatically come on? The probes are heated: ‐ Automatically when at least one engine is running, or when the aircraft is in flight. ‐ Manually, when the flight crew switches ON the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb.

Q.16 Which probes are not heated on ground? On the ground, the TAT probes are not heated and pitot heating operates at a low level (the Change over to normal power in flight is automatic)

Q.17 When are the windshields and side windows heated automatically on the ground? After one engine start.

Q.18 What would happen if the RAIN RPLNT pushbutton was pushed on the ground with the engines shut down? This function is inhibited when the aircraft is on the ground and the engines are stopped.

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TECHNICAL QUESTIONS ON A320 2/4 ELECTRICAL FIRE PROTECTION FLIGHT CONTROLS FUEL HYDRAULICS LANDING GEARS

Disclaimer This document is for training purpose only. Always refer latest revisions of manuals in case of conflict. [email protected] [email protected]


Contents ELECTRICAL ...................................................................................................... 5

FIRE PROTECTION .......................................................................................... 13

FLIGHT CONTROLS SYSTEMS ..................................................................... 19

FUEL SYSTEM .................................................................................................. 31

HYDRAULICS SYS. ......................................................................................... 35

LANDING GEARS ............................................................................................ 43


ELECTRICAL

ELECTRICAL Q.1

There are four sources of AC power: GEN1, GEN2, APU GEN, & EXT PWR. What is the normal priority of supply for AC BUS1? GEN 1 and 2 when operating have priority over the APU generator and over external power. External power has priority over the APU generator when the EXT PWR pb switch is ON. In other words, it is GEN1 / EXT PWR / APU GEN / GEN2

Q.2

After no 2 engine start, which generator is powering AC BUS 1? {Consider APU GEN online.} APU GEN

Q.3

In flight, GEN 1 has failed and there is no APU. Which generator is powering AC BUS 1? GEN 2

Q.4

Name the different AC bus bars? AC BUS 1 / AC BUS 2/ AC ESS / AC ESS SHED

Q.5

Name the different DC Bus bars? DC BUS 1 / DC BUS 2 / DC ESS / DC ESS SHED / DC BAT BUS

Q.6

What is TR? Transformer Rectifier which converts AC to DC and supplies up to 200 A of DC current.

Q.7

Normally, how the TRs supply the electrical network? TR1 supplies to DC BUS 1, DC BAT BUS & DC ESS BUS . TR2 supplies to DC BUS 2

Q.8

If in a flight, both TR1 & TR2 are lost, which buses are lost? If TR 1 and TR 2 are lost, DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, and DC BAT BUS are lost. The DC ESS BUS is supplied by the ESS TR.

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ELECTRICAL

Q.9

Normally, ESS TR does not supply a/c electrical network. True or False? TRUE

Q.10 What is the function of static inverter? And to which BUS will it supply? A static inverter transforms DC power from Battery 1 into one KVA of single-phase 115 V 400 Hz AC power, which is then supplied to the AC Essential Bus. When the aircraft speed is above 50 kt, the inverter is automatically activated, if only the batteries are supplying to the aircraft, regardless of the BAT 1 and BAT 2 pushbutton positions and will supply to AC ESS BUS + AC STAT INV Bus. When the aircraft speed is below 50 kt, the inverter is activated, if Only the Batteries are supplying to the aircraft, and The BAT 1 and BAT 2 pushbuttons are both at Auto. Only AC STAT INV Bus will be powered. AC ESS Bus is automatically shed below 50kts.

If you enter a dark cockpit, and you push both BAT P/B to Auto, AC ESS BUS will be powered ON??? No.

Q.11 What does the amber FAULT light in BAT P/B indicate? Comes on amber, accompanied by an ECAM caution of ELEC BAT 1(2) FAULT, when the charging current for the corresponding battery is outside limits. In this case the battery contactor opens.

Q.12 If the BAT pushbuttons are in AUTO position overnight without any other power, will the batteries discharge completely? A battery automatic cut-off logic prevents the batteries from discharging completely when the aircraft is on the ground (parking).

Q.13 If automatic cutoff has occurred, how can the crew re-establish battery power? The flight crew can reset the contactors by switching the BAT pb-sw to OFF then to AUTO.

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ELECTRICAL

Q.14 If the battery switches are at AUTO, when will batteries be connected to the DC BAT BUS? The batteries are connected to the DC BAT BUS in the following cases: APU starting (MASTER SW pb-sw at ON and N < 95 %). Battery voltage below 26.5 V (battery charge). The charging cycle ends when battery charge current goes below 4 A. ▪ On ground, immediately ▪ In flight, after a time delay of 30 min. • Loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 when below 100 kt (EMER GEN not supplying). If AC BUS 1 and 2 are not energized and the EMER GEN is not supplying: • Battery 1 supplies the AC STAT INV BUS, and, if speed is greater than 50 kt, the AC ESS BUS. • Battery 2 supplies the DC ESS BUS. In normal configuration the batteries are disconnected most of the time.

Q.15 Prior to the flight, what should be the battery voltage? >25.5V

Q.16 During preflight, what options are available if the battery voltage for either battery is below 25.5 volts? Simply charge it by connecting EXT PWR.

Q.17 If EXT PWR p/b-sw is pressed momentarily, what happens? If the AVAIL light was on:  The external power line contactor closes  The AVAIL light goes off  The ON light comes on blue. If the ON light was on:  The external power line contactor opens  The ON light goes off  The AVAIL light comes on.

Q.18 What is the meaning of green AVAIL light in EXT PWR p/b? AVAIL light comes on green, if:  External power is plugged in, and  External power parameters are normal. Chapter 24

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ELECTRICAL

Q.19 What is the meaning of Blue ON light in EXT PWR p/b? EXT PWR is supplying the a/c when engines are stopped.

Q.20 If both engines are started at the gate using external electrical power, will blue ON light in EXT PWR p/b extinguish automatically after engine start? NO. The Blue ON light stays on, even when the engine generators supply the aircraft.

Q.21 Can the APU generator power all the buses? Yes

Q.22 In flight, you get an ECAM, ELECT IDG1 OIL PR LO. As per the checklist, you have to disconnect IDG1. What are the cautions you will follow while disconnecting the IDG?  

Do not hold this pushbutton switch in for more than about 3 s, otherwise may damage the disconnection mechanism. Do not disconnect the IDG when the engine is not running (or not wind milling), because starting the engine after having done so will damage the IDG.

How will you know that IDG is disconnected?   

FAULT light of IDG extinguishes when the IDG is disconnected. The DISC legend appears in amber on ECAM ELECT Page, when the IDG is disconnected. The IDG legend is normally white, but becomes amber when IDG is disconnected.

In the above situations, how AC BUS 1 is powered? By GEN 2.

Is Main Galley still powered in this situation? No Main Galley is SHED.

Can you start APU and use its GEN in the above case? Yes

Can this IDG be reconnected in flight if required? No Chapter 24

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ELECTRICAL

Q.23 What is the meaning of FAULT Light in IDG p/b-sw? Lights up amber, and ECAM caution comes on, if:  IDG oil outlet overheats (above 185 °C), or  IDG oil pressure is low (inhibited at low engine speed: N2 below 14 %).

Q.24 IDG label is normally displayed in white on ELECT page. Under what conditions, this turns into amber in color? The IDG legend is normally white, but becomes amber, if:  • Oil outlet temperature > 185 °C.  • Oil pressure gets too low.  • IDG becomes disconnected. The 1 or 2 is white if the corresponding engine is running, amber if it is not and the FADEC is powered.

Q.25 What happens if GEN 2 also fails while GEN 1 is not available as its IDG is disconnected in flight? Consider APU not available. Or If both main AC buses are lost with airspeed above 100 knots, what will happen? This is an ELECT EMERG CONFIGURATION. RAT will deploy automatically. Meanwhile, for initial 8 sec, flight will go on Battery. BAT 1 will power AC ESS Bus through Static Inverter and BAT 2 will power DC ESS Bus. After about 8 seconds, when EMER GEN is available, the flight will be powered by EMERG GEN. In this new situation, AC ESS Bus is directly supplied by EMERG ELECT GEN & DC ESS through ESS TR. AC ESS SHED + DC ESS SHED Buses are also powered.

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ELECTRICAL

Q.26 What does the RAT & EMER GEN red FAULT light indicate when illuminated? This light comes on red if the emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are not powered.

Q.27 What is the difference when you extend RAT manually from HYD panel and from EMER ELEC Panel? When you extend RAT manually from HYD panel: The RAT extends and powers Blue Hyd. System. However, the EMER GEN does not supply the a/c network.

Q.28 When you extend RAT manually from EMER ELEC panel: The RAT extends and powers Blue Hyd. System. The blue hydraulic system drives the emergency generator. As soon as the emergency generator electrical parameters are within tolerance, the emergency generator is connected to the aircraft network.

Q.29 Which buses are supplied by EMER GEN?    

AC ESS BUS DC ESS BUS AC ESS SHED BUS DC ESS SHED BUS

Q.30 What is the main difference in ELECT EMER CONFIG due to failure of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 & ELECT EMER CONFIG due to smoke? In the first case, fuel pumps in inner tanks are not working and as such you have to do QRH procedure of FUEL GRAVITY FEED. In second case, one tank pump on each inner tank is supplied so no gravity fuel feed procedure has to be followed.

Q.31 What is the meaning of SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE p/b? SMOKE light comes on amber, along with a warning on ECAM, when smoke is detected in the avionics ventilation duct.

Q.32 If you put GEN 1 LINE p/b off, what happens? When do you have to switch off GEN1 LINE to OFF? When you put GEN 1 LINE OFF GEN 1 line contactor opens. The AC BUS 1 channel is supplied from GEN 2 through bus tie contactors. This is used for smoked drill. Chapter 24

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ELECTRICAL

Q.33 What is the normal source of power for AC ESS BUS? AC BUS 1

Q.34 What is the meaning of FAULT light in the AC ESS FEED p/b? The amber light, and ECAM caution come on, when the AC ESS BUS is not electrically-supplied.

Q.35 Which buses are powered if GEN 1 fails when DC TIE p/b is OFF? AC BUS 2 / AC ESS BUS through AC BUS 2 / DC BUS 2 / DC ESS BUS / DC BAT BUS

Q.36 What is the AUTO function of the GALLEY p/b? Or when is the main galley power automatically shed? The main galley is automatically shed:  In flight: When only one generator is operating.  On ground: When only one engine generator is operating. (All galleys are available when the APU GEN or EXT PWR is supplying power.)

Q.37 What is special about green colored CBs? All green colored CBs are monitored and when out for more than 1 min, the C/B TRIPPED warning is triggered on the ECAM. The flight crew can clear the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution by pressing either clr p/b or EMER CANC p/b. If ECAM is cleared by using: 

The CLR p/b: When pressed, this pushbutton only clears the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution. If the C/B remains pulled, any additional tripped circuit breakers on the same panel will not be detected, and the ECAM will not trigger the caution{all the green CBs on that panel will become unmonitored class} However, if the C/B is pushed, any additional tripped circuit breakers will be detected, and the ECAM will trigger the caution again.



The EMER CANC p/b: When pressed, this pushbutton clears and inhibits the ECAM C/B TRIPPED caution for the remainder of the flight, {i.e. all green CBs become unmonitored for remainder of the flight.} or

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ELECTRICAL


Chapter 24

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FIRE PROTECTION

FIRE PROTECTION Q.1

What & where are the fire protection systems installed on A320? Aircraft Fire Protection Systems are comprised of: ‐ Fire and overheat detection and extinguishing systems for the: • Engines • APU ‐ Smoke detection and extinguishing systems for the : • Cargo compartments • Lavatories ‐ Smoke detection for the: • Avionic bay ‐ Portable fire extinguishers for the: • Flight compartment • Passenger cabin

Q.2

How many fire loops {or gas detection loops } are installed on each Engine and on APU? Two

Q.3

Where are the engine fire loops {or gas detection loops} installed? The gas detection loops consist of: ‐ Three sensing elements for each engine, one in the pylon nacelle, one in the engine core and one in the engine fan section

Q.4

If there is a fault in one of the loops, will fire detection be affected? No, A fault in one loop (break or loss of electrical supply) does not affect the warning system. The unaffected loop still protects the aircraft.

Q.5

You are cruising and you get ECAM caution of ENG 1 LOOP „A‟ FAULT. What did you lose? Is fire detection on ENG 1 available? ENG 1 LOOP A Yes

Q.6

If a failure in both engine fire loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, what will happen? Fire warning appears

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FIRE PROTECTION

Q.7

When will fire warnings for engine be triggered? ‐ The fire warning appears in case of : • a fire signal from both loop A and B or, • a fire signal from one loop when the other is faulty, or • breaks in both loops occuring within 5 s of each other (flame effect), or • a test performed on the control panel.

Q.8

When do you get LOOP FAULT for Engine? ‐ The loop-fault cautions appear if : • one loop is faulty or, • both loops are faulty or, • the fire detection unit fails.

Q.9

If you get an ECAM of ENG 1 FIRE DET FAULT, is fire detection available for no 1 Engine? NO, Loss of both fire detection loops.

Q.10 How many fire extinguisher bottles are available for fighting an engine fire? Two

Q.11 What action arms the engine fire extinguishing squibs? When ENG FIRE P/B is pushed in, it arms the squibs. There are two independent power supplies to each squib of fire bottles.

Q.12 When you push Eng Fire P/B, what happens? When the pilot pushes ENG FIRE p/b to release it. It pops out, sending an electrical signal that performs the following for the corresponding engine: Silences the aural fire warning ‐ Arms the fire extinguisher squibs ‐ Closes the low-pressure fuel valve ‐ Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve ‐ Closes the engine bleed valve ‐ Closes the pack flow control valve ‐ Cuts off the FADEC power supply ‐ Deactivates the IDG

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FIRE PROTECTION

Q.13 How do you know that an engine fire extinguisher bottle has discharged? A brief push on the button discharges the corresponding fire bottle. ‐ “SQUIB” lights up white when the flight crew pops the ENG FIRE button for its engine to help the flight crew identify the AGENT pushbutton to be activated. ‐ “DISCH” lights up amber when its fire extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.

Q.14 Why there is a 10 seconds delay in firing first agent in case of engine fire checklist in flight? Why there is no such delay if there is fire in engine on ground? 10 sec delay is to allow for nacelle ventilation and speed of engine to fall for efficient use of agent in flight. On ground this is really not needed. Q.15 If an APU start is initiated on battery power only, is fire protection available? Yes

Q.16 If an APU fire occurs on the ground, what must be done to shut down the APU and extinguish the fire? If the system detects an APU fire while the aircraft is on the ground, it shuts down the APU automatically and discharges extinguishing agent.

Q.17 Is there any difference between APU fire on ground and in flight? Yes. If the system detects an APU fire while the aircraft is on the ground, it shuts down the APU automatically and discharges extinguishing agent. Whereas, if APU Fire is in air, crew will have to shut the APU and do the Fire checklist.

Q.18 How many fire loops are installed on APU for fire detection? The gas detection loops consist of: One sensing element in the APU compartment.

Q.19 How many fire extinguisher bottles are installed for fighting APU fire? One

Q.20 Can the APU FIRE test be performed with the APU running? Yes

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FIRE PROTECTION

Q.21 What external indications may be received in the event of an APU fire while on the ground? When the aircraft is on the ground, an APU fire causes an additional external warning. The red APU FIRE light comes on and an external warning horn sounds when the system detects an APU fire.

Q.22 Name the components of the APU fire detection system?

Q.23 How many fire extinguisher bottles are provided for the cargo compartments? Two

Q.24 Is it true that the FWD + AFT Cargo has a common fire extinguishing system and it caters for one cargo only? Yes

Q.25 In case of FWD cargo smoke, a) Once you discharge agent 1, how will you know that 1st bottle is discharged? By DISCH 1 light on

b) When do you have to discharge second bottle? After 60 min when DISCH AGENT 2 light comes up

c) When you discharge second bottle, what happens? 2nd bottles starts discharging with a flow metering system. It will run for 90 min

d) How will you know that 2nd bottle is discharged? When 2nd bottle is fired, its squib will ignite and DISCH AGENT 2 light will go off.

Q.26 In the case of an ECAM of SMOKE FWD CARGO BTL1 FAULT, what did you lose? If bottle 1 is lost, fire extinguishing capability is lost in the FWD cargo compartment. If bottle 2 is lost, agent concentration will not be ensured after fire extinguishing.

Q.27 If a cargo smoke detector fails, does that render the system inoperative? No

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FIRE PROTECTION

Q.28 How many cargo smoke detectors must sense smoke to issue a warning? Smoke in one cavity activates the cargo smoke warning if: ‐ Both smoke detectors detect it, or ‐ One smoke detector detects it and the other is inoperative.

Q.29 In case of an ECAM appearing for FWD CARGO SMOKE on ground, what is important to note? Order the ground crew not to open the door of the affected cargo compartment, unless the passengers have disembarked and fire services are present. Also ensure that the FWD(AFT) cargo door is closed before discharging the extinguishing agent.

Q.30 What are the indications of avionics smoke? ECAM AVNCS SMOKE SINGLE CHIME MASTER CAUT ELEC Local lights of: • SMOKE lt on EMER ELEC PWR panel • FAULT lts on BLOWER and EXTRACT pb sw

Q.31 Does avionics compartment has a fire extinguishing system? No, only smoke detection system

Q.32 Explain cargo smoke detection system installed on IndiGo a/c?

NOTE: If you are taxing-in on single engine with APU off, and if this engine catches fire, o You will perform ON GND ENG FIRE C/L. o Only AGENT 1 will be available for discharge after putting Master Switch OFF of this engine. AGENT 2 will not be available for discharge after putting Master Switch OFF as its Squib is supplied by DC BUS 2.

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FIRE PROTECTION


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FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM

FLIGHT CONTROLS SYSTEMS Q.1

Is it true that flight control surfaces are electrically controlled and hydraulically activated? Yes

Q.2

Do you agree that there is no flight control available if you lose all the three hydraulics? Yes

Q.3

Is it true that stabilizer and rudder can be mechanically controlled but still need hydraulics? Without hydraulics, these can not be operated. Yes

Q.4

Name various computers used for flight control? ELAC 1 (2) SEC 1 (2) (3) FAC 1 (2)

Q.5

Which of the spoiler surfaces are the speed brake surfaces? 2, 3 & 4

Q.6

If a/c is dispatched with SEC1 inoperative {under MEL}, then which of the flight control surfaces are not available for you in flight? Speed Brakes 2 & 3

Q.7

Which of the flight controls are lost completely, if ELAC 1+2 are lost? Ailerons LH + RH

Q.8

Which of the flight control surfaces are lost, if G + Y are lost? THS / FLAPS

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Q.9

Which of the Flt/controls are lost, if FAC 1+2 are lost? Rudder

Q.10 What are the conditions in which Speed Brakes get retracted automatically? SAFE-T

Q.11 What happens to the extended speed brakes when CONFIG FULL is selected? Retracts automatically If an inhibition occurs when the speed brakes are extended, they retract automatically and stay retracted until the inhibition condition disappears and the pilots reset the lever. (The speed brakes can be extended again 10 s or more after the lever is reset).

Q.12 What happens to the symmetric surface on the other wing, when a speed brake surface (on one wing) fails? When a speed brake surface on one wing fails, the symmetric one on the other wing is inhibited.

Q.13 When does SPD BRK memo turn amber? When the speed brakes are extended in Flight Phases 2, 3, 4, and 5, the “SPEED BRK” memo flashes in amber. When the speed brakes are extended in Flight Phases 6 and 7, the “SPEED BRK” memo appears in green. It flashes in amber, after 50 s, if at least one engine is above idle.

Q.14 What are the logic conditions for ground spoiler extension to occur during RTO? If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are reset to idle. If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

Q.15 What are the logic conditions for full ground spoiler extension to occur during landing? If the ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are at idle, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both main landing gears have touched down. If the ground spoilers are not armed and both main landing gears have touched down, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

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Q.16 Partial ground spoiler extension can also occur during landing. What are the conditions? The ground spoilers partially extend (10 °) when reverse is selected on at least one engine (other engine at idle), and one main landing gear strut is compressed. This partial extension, by decreasing the lift, eases the compression of the second main landing gear strut, and consequently leads to full ground spoiler extension.

Q.17 When will extension of ground spoilers take place, if ground spoilers were not armed before landing? If the ground spoilers are not armed and both main landing gears have touched down, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

Q.18 How to retract the extended spoilers? The ground spoilers retract: when the ground spoilers are disarmed. Note: If ground spoilers are not armed, they extend at the reverse selection and retract when idle is selected.

Q.19 Is it true that the Rudder deflection is a function of speed? Yes

Q.20 Name the protections available in Normal Law for pitch? The normal law protects the aircraft throughout the flight envelope, as follows : ‐ load factor limitation ‐ pitch attitude protection ‐ high-angle-of-attack (AOA) protection ‐ high-speed protection. LOW ENERGY WARNING:

The low energy warning is computed by the FAC

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Q.21 Explain working of Auto-Pitch Trim? Automatic pitch trim freezes in the following situations: ‐ The pilot enters a manual trim order. ‐ The radio altitude is below 50 ft (100 ft with autopilot engaged). ‐ The load factor goes below 0.5 g. When angle-of-attack protection is active, the THS setting is limited between the setting at the aircraft’s entry into this protection and 3.5 ° nose down. (Neither the pilot nor the system can apply additional nose-up trim). Similarly, when the load factor is higher than 1.25 g or when the aircraft exceeds 33 ° of bank, the THS setting is limited to values between the actual setting and 3.5 ° nose down. When High Speed or High Mach Protection is active, the THS Setting is limited between the setting at the aircraft’s entry into this protection and 11 ° nose-up.

Q.22 Explain the Load Factor Protection? The load factor is automatically limited to: +2.5 g to -1 g for clean configuration. +2 g to 0 for other configurations.

Q.23

Explain the Pitch Attitude protection? PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION Pitch attitude is limited to : ‐ 30 ° nose up in conf 0 to 3 (progressively reduced to 25 ° at low speed). ‐ 25 ° nose up in conf FULL (progressively reduced to 20 ° at low speed). ‐ 15 ° nose down (indicated by green symbols “=” on the PFD’s pitch scale). The flight director bars disappear from the PFD when the pitch attitude exceeds 25 ° up or 13 ° down. They return to the display when the pitch angle returns to the region between 22 ° up and 10 ° down.

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Q.24 Explain the High Angle of Attack protection? Under normal law, when the angle-of-attack becomes greater than αprot, the system switches elevator control from normal mode to a protection mode, in which the angle-of-attack is proportional to side stick deflection. That is, in the αprot range, from α prot to αMAX, the side stick commands α directly. However, the angle-of-attack will not exceed αMAX, even if the pilot gently pulls the side stick all the way back. If the pilot releases the side stick, the angle-of-attack returns to αprot and stays there. This protection against stall and wind shear has priority over all other protections. The autopilot disconnects at α prot + 1 °.

Vα prot, Vα floor, Vα MAX vary according to weight and configuration. To deactivate the angle of attack protection, the pilot must push the sidestick: ‐ Greater than 8 ° forward, or, ‐ Greater than 0.5 °for at least 0.5 s when α < α MAX. In addition, below 200 ft, the angle of attack protection is also deactivated, when: ‐ Sidestick deflection is less than half nose-up, and ‐ Actual α is less than α prot – 2 °. Note:

1. At takeoff α prot is equal to α MAX for 5 s. 2. αfloor is activated through the A/THR system, when: ‐ α is greater than αfloor (9.5 ° in configuration 0; 15 ° in configuration 1, 2; 14 ° in configuration 3; 13 ° in configuration FULL) or ‐ Sidestick deflection is greater than 14 ° nose up, with either the pitch attitude or the angle-of-attack protection active. The α-floor function is available from lift-off to 100 ft RA before landing.

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Q.25 What happens when angle of attack becomes greater than α-Prot? High Angle of Attack protection gets activated.

Q.26 What is the High Speed protection when a/c is in Normal Law? The aircraft automatically recovers, following a high speed upset. Depending on the flight conditions (high acceleration, low pitch attitude), High Speed Protection is activated at/or above VMO/MMO. When it is activated, the THS setting is limited between the setting at the aircraft’s entry into this protection and 11 ° nose-up. Positive spiral static stability is introduced to 0 ° bank angle (instead of 33 ° in normal law), so that with the side stick released, the aircraft always returns to a bank angle of 0 °. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67 °to 40 °. As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the side stick nose-down authority is progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions. High Speed Protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO, where the usual normal control laws are recovered. The autopilot disconnects, when High Speed Protection becomes active.

Note: The ECAM displays an “O/SPEED” warning at VMO + 4 kt and MMO + 0.006.

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Q.27 What are the possible degradations from Normal Law? Depending on the failures occurring to the flight control system, or on its peripherals, there are 3 levels of reconfiguration: ‐ Alternate law They are two levels of alternate law: with and without reduced protections. ‐ Direct law ‐ Mechanical

Q.28 What are the protections available when a/c is in alternate pitch law {Prot Lost} or ALTERNATE LAW WITHOUT PROTECTION? This is identical to alternate law except that it does not include the low-speed stability or the high-speed stability. It includes only the load factor limitation.

Q.29 Is it true that there are two types of Alternate law? What are these? Yes, ALTERNATE LAW WITH PROTECTION or ALTERNATE LAW WITHOUT PROTECTION

Q.30 Are there any protections in Direct Law? No protections are operative. There is no automatic trim : the pilot must trim manually. The PFD displays in amber the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”. The α floor function is inoperative. Over speed and stall warnings are available as for alternate law.

Q.31 What is the meaning of PFD displaying a message in red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”? A/C is in “MECHANICAL BACKUP LAW”

Q.32 If the flight controls degrade to alternate law, what will happen when the landing gear is extended (if no autopilots are engaged?) A/C enters “DIRECT LAW”

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Q.33 What are the protections available when a/c is in alternate pitch law ALTERNATE LAW WITH PROTECTION? LOAD FACTOR LIMITATION: The load factor limitation is similar to that under normal law. PITCH ATTITUDE PROTECTION: There is no pitch attitude protection. Amber Xs replace the green double bars “=” on the PFD. LOW SPEED STABILITY An artificial low speed stability replaces the normal angle-of-attack protection. It is available for all slat/flap configurations, and the low speed stability is active from about 5 kt up to about 10 kt above stall warning speed, depending on the aircraft’s gross weight and slats/flaps configuration. A gentle progressive nose down signal is introduced, which tends to keep the speed from falling below these values. The system also injects bank-angle compensation, so that operation effectively maintains a constant angle of attack. In addition, audio stall warnings (crickets + “STALL” synthetic voice message) is activated at an appropriate margin from the stall condition. The PFD speed scale is modified to show a black/red barber pole below the stall warning. The α floor protection is inoperative. HIGH SPEED STABILITY Above VMO or MMO, a nose up demand is introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed. The pilot can override this demand. In addition, the aural over speed warning (VMO + 4 or MMO + 0.006) remains available. BANK ANGLE PROTECTION : Not provided. Note: The AP will disconnect, if speed exceeds VMO/MMO, or if the bank angle exceeds 45

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Q.34 Is automatic pitch trim available in alternate law? NO

Q.35 Is hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup? YES

Q.36 When both side sticks are operated simultaneously, is the sum of the side stick inputs limited to Normal law deflection limits? YES

Q.37 What would result if both side sticks were moved at the same time during flight with the autopilot OFF? Or what are the indications when both side sticks are moved simultaneously? DUAL INPUT AUDIO Flashing Green Lights on Glare shield Panel “CAPT” & “F/O” Response to the Flt Control algebraically added limited to one full deflection.

Q.38 What is the meaning of SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light? Opposite side has taken priority.

Q.39 How does the crew know whose side stick has priority? By seeing the red Side Stick Priority arrow

Q.40 If the takeoff configuration is 1+F and the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, what will happen? Flap will get retracted automatically when a/c speed reaches 210 kts. Slat will remain out and so the Vmax will increase to 230 kts.

Q.41 On approach when Config 1 is selected, what flaps/slats combination is received? Slats at 1 and Flaps Zero.

Q.42 Which computers control Slats operation? SFCC 1 & 2

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Q.43 Which computers control Flaps operation? SFCC 1 & 2

Q.44 If one SFCC is lost, which of the flight controls are lost? What are the consequences of one SFCC failure? No flight control is lost but both Slat & Flaps will move at half the speed.

Q.45 Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Flaps inoperative? G+Y

Q.46 Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Slats inoperative? B+G

Q.47 Can the rudder be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged? NO

Q.48 When will Wingtip Brakes get activated? Wingtip brakes (WTBs), activated in case of assymetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway, or uncommanded movement of the surfaces. They cannot be released in flight. They use blue and green hydraulic power for the slats and for the right wing flaps, and blue and yellow hydraulic power for the left wing flaps. {ROAM}

Q.49

If the WTBs lock the flap surfaces and prevent further movement, can the slats be still extended? Yes

Q.50 If the WTBs lock the Slats and prevent further movement, can the Flaps be still extended? Yes

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Q.51 If WTB are applied and there is an ECAM associated. Can you recycle the SLATS /FLAPS? You should recycle only if the surface is not locked. It will be a part of the ECAM and should follow ECAM. FLAPS LEVER (IF SLATS NOT LOCKED)............................................... RECYCLE Return to the previous selection, then back to the desired position. Or FLAPS LEVER (IF FLAPS NOT LOCKED)................................................RECYCLE Return to the previous selection, then back to the desired position.

Q.52 What are the indications, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system? ECAM of F/CTL FLAPS FAULT/LOCKED + If flaps locked: WING TIP BRK ON OR ALIGNMENT FAULT Limit speed to the VFE corresponding to the next flap position

Q.53 What are the indications, if wing tip brakes are applied in the Slats System? ECAM of F/CTL SLATS FAULT/LOCKED + If Slats locked: WING TIP BRK ON OR ALIGNMENT FAULT Limit speed to the VFE corresponding to the next flap position

Q.54 What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pushbutton indicate? Comes on amber, along with an ECAM caution: ‐ When a failure is detected ‐ During ELAC power-up test (eight seconds).

Q.55 Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative? No

Q.56 Which control surfaces are controlled by the FACs computers? Rudder

Q.57 What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight? Depending on when the failure occurs, the rudder travel limiter system may not be in the correct position for the flight speed. Therefore, to prevent damage to the aircraft structure, use the rudder with care, when the speed is above 160 kt. At slats’ extension, full rudder travel authority is recovered. Chapter 27

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Q.58 What are the functions of ELAC COMPUTER? ELAC 1(2) performs the following functions: ‐ Normal pitch and roll ‐ Alternate pitch ‐ Direct pitch and roll ‐ Abnormal attitude ‐ Aileron droop ‐ Acquisition of autopilot orders.

Q.59 What are the functions of FAC computer? Both FACs perform the following functions: ‐ Normal roll (coordinating turns and damping dutch roll) ‐ Rudder trim ‐ Rudder travel limit ‐ Alternate yaw

Q.60 Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes THS inoperative? G+Y Dual Hyd Sys Failure

Q.61 When does „PITCH TRIM‟ indication become amber on F/CTL page? Pitch trim position indication The pitch trim numbers are in green. They become amber, if green and yellow hydraulic system pressure decreases. The “PITCH TRIM” legend is in white. It becomes amber, if the pitch trim jams.

Q.62 What is the recommended action if the FLAP LOCKED message appear on the ECAM after the flaps have crossed 3 and moving towards FULL for landing? Follow ECAM. But if this msg. appears when F>3, keep CONFIG FULL.

Q.63 What is the Slats‟ ALPHA / SPEED LOCK function? This function inhibits slat retraction at high angles-of-attack and low speeds. The SFCCs use corrected angle-of-attack (alpha) or airspeed information from the ADIRUs to inhibit slat retraction. If alpha exceeds 8.5 ° or the airspeed goes below 148 kt, retraction from position 1 to position 0 is inhibited. And, the “A-LOCK” legend pulses in cyan near Slat Indication on E/WD, when the slat alpha/speed lock function is active.

Q.64 What happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET p/b when AP is engaged? They are ineffective. Even if you use these controls, nothing will happen.

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FUEL SYSTEM

FUEL SYSTEM Q.1

What is the total fuel capacity of the A320? 18 728 Kgs.

Q.2

Which type of fuel is being used? JET A1

Q.3

What is the normal sequencing of fuel feed? The tanks empty in the following sequence : 1. The center tank. 2. The inner tanks : Each inner tank empties down to 750 kg (1 650 lb). 3. The outer tanks : Fuel transfers into the inner tanks.

Q.4

During gravity feed, which tank fuel is used? INNER TANK

Q.5

Why gravity feeding is not possible from center tank? Center tank pumps are not fitted with suction valves. Therefore, gravity feeding is not possible from the center tank.

Q.6

How will you know that center tanks are supplying engines? By a memo on E/WD of CTR TK FEEDG.

Q.7

When there is a fuel in center tank with wing tanks full and MODE SEL at AUTO:  Why do you get CTR TK FEEDG memo during engine start? DURING engine start, CTR Tank Pump runs for two minutes as self-test and stops so this memo appears.



What happens to the center tank pumps when SLATS are extended after engine start? Centre Tank pump will get inhibited as long as Slats are out.



When will the center tank pumps resume supplying after takeoff? Each center tank pump will remain stopped until approximately 500 kg of the fuel in its associated inner tank fuel has been used even if Slats are retracted. After takeoff, “CTR TK FEEDG” appears on the E/WD only when CTR TK Pump runs.

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FUEL SYSTEM

Q.8

What is the meaning of ECAM caution of FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT? Any time when CTR TK > 250 kg and L or R WING TK < 5 000 kg OR CTR TK pumps do not stop after slat extension or CTR TK pumps do not stop after CTR TK low level An ECAM of FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT will appear.

Q.9

If CTR TK PUMPS keep running after slats extension, which ECAM will be triggered? or If CTR TK PUMP does not run after Slats retraction, which ECAM should be triggered? An ECAM of FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT will appear

Q.10 How can you know that the cross feed valve is fully open? The valve opens, and the ON pushbutton comes on in white. On Fuel ECAM page, X feed indications will be Inline - Green for X-feed valve in open. Memo on E/WD: FUEL X FEED appears in green,

Q.11 When and how the fuel is normally transferred from the outer to inner wing tanks? The transfer valves automatically open, when the inner tank fuel reaches the low level (about 750 kg), thus enabling the fuel to drain from the outer to inner tanks.

Q.12 What are the indications when fuel from outer tank gets transferred to inner tank? On Fuel ECAM page:

On E/WD: OUTR TK FUEL XFRD appears in green, if at least one transfer valve is open in one wing tank

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FUEL SYSTEM

Q.13 What is the “Fuel Recirculation System”? Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve and to the outer fuel tank. This operation ensures the IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power. The FADEC controls the fuel return valve. If the outer tank is already full, the fuel overflows to the inner tank through a spill pipe. If center tank is feeding, the wing tank will tend to overfill and the system automatically selects the CTR TK PUMP off when the inner tank is full. The wing tank pumps will feed until the engine has used approximately 500 kg of fuel when the fuel level reaches the under full sensors. The logic circuits then restart the center tank pumps. When the center tank is empty, CTR TK PUMP LO PR warning will come on.

Q.14 If the fuel pumps in the left fuel tank were OFF, how would the APU obtain fuel? A special fuel pump supplies fuel for APU startup when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply).

Q.15 When do you get FAULT light in MODE SEL p/b for FUEL? Amber light comes on, and ECAM caution { FUEL AUTO FEED FAULT } comes on when center tank has more than 250 kg of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 5 000 kg .

Q.16 During flight an ECAM caution of FUEL L INNER TK LO TEMP is triggered. What are the crew actions? Consider descending to a lower altitude and/or increasing Mach to increase TAT.

Q.17 How about crew actions if same caution is triggered but in outer tank? Consider descending to a lower altitude and/or increasing Mach to increase TAT.

Q.18 On FUEL ECAM page, if you see FOB half boxed in amber, what is the meaning? The indication is half-boxed in amber, if: ‐ Center tank pumps fail, or are switched OFF. ‐ Both transfer valves fail to open, when the inner tank is at low level.

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FUEL SYSTEM

Q.19 On FUEL ECAM page, if you see an amber line appearing across the last two digits for FOB, what is the meaning? Which procedure has to be applied? An amber line appears across the last two digits, when the FQI is inaccurate (Crew has to follow supplementary procedure of “FQI IN DEGRADED MODE”).

Q.20 On FUEL ECAM page, if you see fuel quantity indication boxed in amber, what is the meaning? The outer indication is boxed amber, if both transfer valves fail to open when the inner is at low level. ‐ The center tank indication is boxed amber, if both center tank pumps are failed, or are switched OFF.

Q.21 On FUEL ECAM page, if you see an amber line appearing across the last two digits for fuel quantity, what is the meaning? Which procedure has to be applied? An amber line appears across the last two digits, when the FQI is inaccurate. (Crew has to follow supplementary procedure of “FQI IN DEGRADED MODE”).

Q.22 Is refueling possible if the aircraft batteries are the only source of power? Yes

Q.23 How will you detect a fuel leak? A fuel leak may be detected, if: ‐ The sum of FOB and FU significantly less than FOB at engine start or is decreasing, or ‐ A passenger observes fuel spray from engine/pylon or wing tip, or ‐ The total fuel quantity is decreasing at an abnormal rate, or ‐ A fuel imbalance is developing, or ‐ Fuel quantity in a tank is decreasing too fast (leak from engine/pylon, or hole in a tank), or ‐ The Fuel flow is excessive (leak from engine), or ‐ Fuel is smelt in the cabin. ‐ The destination EFOB turns to amber on the F-PLN (or on the FUEL PRED) page, or ‐”DEST EFOB BELOW MIN” appears on the MCDU scratch pad. If visibility permits, leak source may be identified by a visual check from the cabin.

Q.24 Review QRH Procedure of “GRVTY FUEL FEEDING”. What care do you have to take when applying this procedure? AVOID NEGATIVE G FACTOR.

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HYDRAULICS SYSTEM

HYDRAULICS SYS. Hydraulic fluid cannot be transferred from one system to another.

Q.1

How is Green Hyd. Sys pressurized? EDP & PTU

Q.2

How is Yellow Hyd. Sys pressurized? EDP / Elect Pump / Hand Pump / PTU

Q.3

How is Blue Hyd. Sys pressurized? Blue Elect Pump + RAT

Q.4

Name the Hyd. systems in which Hyd. Fire Shutoff valve is installed? And, what is the purpose of the engine fire shutoff valves? G+Y Closes the hyd supply to EDP when fire p/b is pressed.

Q.5

Name the hydraulic systems, which have engine driven pumps? G+Y

Q.6

Name some of the major users of the GREEN system? Landing gears / Normal Brakes + other systems as in FCOM

Q.7

Name some of the major users of the BLUE system? Emer. Elect Gen + As per FCOM

Q.8

Name some of the major users of the YELLOW system? NWS + Parking Brakes + other systems as per FCOM

Q.9

When does the Blue Pump energize? {With the a/c on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO}

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HYDRAULICS SYSTEM

Q.10 What is the purpose of the priority valve in the Green Hydraulic System? Priority valves cut off hydraulic power to heavy load users{like Landing Gear, Flaps / Slats} if hydraulic pressure in Green system gets low.

Q.11 What happens to the yellow hydraulic system, when a cargo door is being opened or closed? It gets pressurized.

Q.12 What is PTU and what is its purpose? When does it operate automatically and when it is inhibited? A bidirectional power transfer unit enables the yellow system to pressurize the green system and vice versa. The power transfer unit comes into action automatically when the differential pressure between the green and the yellow systems is greater than 500 PSI and when no inhibition to PTU.

Q.13 PTU will operate whenever there is a difference of 500psi or more between Green and Yellow and there is no inhibition condition on PTU? True

Q.14 Yellow Electric Pump can be started by using Cockpit push button or by using Cargo Door Handle. True

Q.15 When Cargo Door is operated, Yellow Hyd. Sys gets pressurized, but some of the Yellow services cannot be used. True

Q.16 If accumulator pressure is less during cockpit operation and you start yellow electric pump to pressurize the accumulator, will Green Hyd. System get pressurized? Or Is it possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU? Yes The PTU, allows the green system to be pressurized on the ground when the engines are stopped

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HYDRAULICS SYSTEM

Q.17 After finishing the cargo loading, when ground crew wants to close the cargo door, they operate cargo door handle and because of this Yellow electric Pump starts. This pressurizes the Yellow Hyd. System. Will PTU operate in this situation as Green Sys. Pressure is zero and Yellow is pressurized? or Will the PTU operate during Cargo Door operation? No, PTU remains inhibited for 40 seconds after the operation of cargo door.

Q.18 When you start No.2 engine, Yellow hydraulics will get powered. Will PTU run in this situation as No.1 engine is not yet started so green is not pressurized and there is a differential pressure of more than 500 psi between Green & Yellow Sys.? No, PTU remains inhibited during first engine start.

Q.19 When is the PTU self-tested? During second engine start.

Q.20 After airborne, No. 1 engine EGT has gone beyond limits and as such as per ECAM you have to shut down the No.1 Engine. •Will No. 1 EDP {Engine Driven Pump} stop working? {yes} •Will PTU run and pressurize in this situation in flight as Green not available and Yellow is 3000 psi? {yes} •After landing, will PTU keep running? {yes} •If you apply parking brakes during Taxi-in, what happens to PTU? {PTU is inhibited as long as Parking Brakes are applied} •Once you release Parking Brakes, what happens to PTU? {PTU restarts and as such pressurize Green Hyd system}

Q.21 PTU transfers pressure. It does not transfer liquid. Is it true? True

Q.22 Can fluid be transferred between hydraulic systems? No

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Q.23 If there is a Lo Level in one of the Hyd. System, Is it still available or lost for the remainder of the flight? Lost for remainder of the flight.

Q.24 If there is a Lo Level or OVERHEAT of the reservoir in G or Y Hyd. Sys, is PTU available? No, as per ECAM PTU has to be switched off.

Q.25 Which of the Hyd. Sys is supplied by RAT? Blue

Q.26 If there is a Lo Level in Blue Hyd. System, can RAT power Blue Hyd. system if required? No

Q.27 Why there are two guarded p/bs at different places on overhead panels for extending RAT manually? If you extend RAT by using guarded switch from Hyd Panel, only Blue hyd will be pressurized. But if you extend RAT using guarded sw from EMER ELECT Panel, Blue Hyd and EMER GEN will supply.

Q.28 What happens when you press the guarded RAT MAN ON p/b on Hyd. Panel,? RAT deploys and powers Blue Hyd Sys. In this case Emer Elect Gen does not come on line.

Q.29 Will there be always PTU FAULT light if there is a FAULT light on G or Y ENG PUMP s/w p/b? Yes

Q.30 When do you get FAULT light in G or Y ENG PUMP s/w p/b? This amber light comes on, and the ECAM caution appears, if : ‐ The reservoir level is low ‐ The reservoir overheats ‐ The reservoir air pressure is low ‐ The pump pressure is low (but inhibited on the ground, when the engine is stopped). This light goes out, when the crew selects OFF, except during an overheat. (The light stays on as long as the overheat lasts).

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Q.31 When do you get FAULT light in PTU sw p/b? This amber light comes on, and a caution appears on the ECAM, if : ‐ the green or the yellow reservoir overheats ‐ the green or the yellow reservoir has low air pressure ‐ the green or the yellow reservoir has a low fluid level. The light goes out when the crew selects OFF, except during an overheat. (The light stays on as long as the overheat lasts).

Q.32 When do you get FAULT light in BLUE Elect pump? This amber light comes on, and a caution appears on the ECAM, if : ‐ The reservoir level is low ‐ The reservoir overheats ‐ The air pressure in the reservoir is low ‐ The pump is delivering low pressure (inhibited on the ground, when the engines are stopped) ‐ The pump overheats. The light goes out, when the crew selects OFF, except during an overheat. (The light stays on as long as the overheat lasts).

Q.33 When do you get FAULT light in YELLOW Elect pump? This amber light, accompanied by an ECAM caution, comes on if : ‐ the reservoir level is low ‐ air pressure in the reservoir is low ‐ the reservoir overheats ‐ pump pressure is low ‐ the pump overheats. The light goes out when the crew selects OFF, except during an overheat. (The light stays on as long as the overheat lasts).

Q.34 How to reset HYD PTU FAULT if it appears during engine start? Why it will come during engine start? Reset the warning by switching the yellow ELEC pump ON, then OFF. A PTU FAULT is triggered, if the second engine is started within 40 s following the end of the cargo doors operation.

Q.35 Why do you switch off PTU first in HYD OVHT or HYD LO LVL in G or Y Hyd. System before switching ENG PUMP OFF? Otherwise PTU will run when next ECAM line items are completed {ENG PUMP OFF} for these ECAMs. Chapter 29

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Q.36 If you have lost green hydraulics system, what other check list will have to be followed by the crew in approach? QRH procedure for L/G GRAVITY EXTENSION

Q.37 If you lose yellow hydraulic system in flight, which of the systems are not available? Why should you monitor BRK Y ACCU PR? What caution has to be followed when you come for parking with Y SYS lost? N/W STRG SPLR 2 + 4 CAT 3 DUAL ALTN BRK REVERSER 2 YAW DAMPER 2 BRK Y ACCU PR MONITOR This check is recommended to cover the case of a pipe rupture, which could lead to the simultaneous loss of the hydraulic system and the accumulator fluid. If this occurs, the loss of the accumulator should be observed on the indicator within 10 min. In that case: The only remaining braking means is normal braking, using green pressure. The parking brake should not be used since, it is not available. And, the chocks should be in place before Engine 1 shutdown.

Q.38 If there is a Lo Level in Yellow Hyd. System in flight, will you get NWS after landing? No as Yellow is lost due to LO LVL and PTU can not back up.

Q.39 What is the purpose of the hand pump? To pressurize the yellow system in order to operate the cargo doors when no electrical power is available.

Q.40 If you have AIR DUAL BLEED FAULT, will there be loss of Hyd. reservoir pressurization? No, because there are check valves fitted for the reservoirs so air can not escape once entered in the reservoir.

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Questions from ECAM HYD PAGE Q.41 When will the Reservoir quantity symbol become Amber? Which ECAM caution will be generated? Whenever the fluid level goes below the warning level it becomes amber. HYD {G} {B} {Y} RSVR LO LVL

Q.42 Is there any difference in ELEC OVHT and Reservoir OVHT on HYD page? What is that? OVHT near ELECT pump indication: This appears in amber if the electric pump for that system (blue or yellow) overheats.

Q.43 By switching PTU OFF, what change do you see on HYD page? The following indication on HYD Page will turn Amber.

Q.44 You will be seeing letters 1 and 2 near ENG PUMP on HYD page. What happens to it when N2 is below idle? Normally white, becomes amber when N2 is below idle.

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LANDING GEARS

LANDING GEARS Q.1

Which hydraulics system is used for operating Landing Gears? Green

Q.2

What happens to the green hydraulic supply to L/G when a/c is flying faster than 260kts? Or at what speed will the safety valve cut off hydraulic supply to the landing gear? When the aircraft is flying faster than 260 kt, a safety valve automatically cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear system. Below 260 kt, the hydraulic supply remains cut off as long as the landing gear lever is up.

Q.3

Will landing gear operate normally if ADR 1 + 3 fail? No. In case of an ADR 1+3 FAULT, the landing gear safety valve is controlled closed: ‐ Landing gear retraction is inoperative ‐ Landing gear extension must be performed by gravity.

Q.4

What happens when the Emergency Gear Extension crank handle is operated? When a crew member turns the crank, it : ‐ isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green hydraulic system, ‐ unlocks the landing gear doors and the main and nose main gear, ‐ allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position.

Q.5

Is nose wheel steering available after emergency gear extension? Yes provided no fault related to NWS.

Q.6

After emergency gear extension do the gear doors remain open? Yes

Q.7

How many LGCIUs are fitted on A320 a/c and what is the transfer logic for each LGCIU? Two One LGCIU controls one complete gear cycle, then switches over automatically to the other LGCIU at the completion of the retraction cycle. It also switches over in case of failure.

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Q.8

What is the function of LGCIU? The LGCIUs control the sequencing of gear and doors electrically. The LGCIUs receive position information from the landing gear, cargo door, and landing flap Systems through proximity sensors installed on these devices. And then these signals are sent to various users. Some users will see “flight” condition. Some users will see “ground” condition.

Q.9

What is the meaning of red UNLK lights on the LDG Gear Indicator panel?

UNLK: comes on red if the gear is not locked in the selected position.

When gears are selected down, this light is associated with an ECAM of: L/G GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED When gears are selected down, this light is associated with an ECAM of: L/G GEAR NOT UPLOCKED Both of these warnings appear, if the landing gear sequence is not completed after 30 s. The lights on the LDG GEAR indicator panel come on as long as the LGCIU1 is electrically supplied.

Q.10 Is it true that the lights on the LDG GEAR INDICATOR panel illuminate if the LGCIU #1 is supplied with electricity? Yes. The lights on the LDG GEAR indicator panel come on as long as the LGCIU1 is electrically supplied.

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Q.11 What does the RED ARROW on the landing gear selector lever indicate? The red arrow lights up if the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration, and a red warning {L/G GEAR NOT DOWN} appears on ECAM. This warning appears in approach at 750 ft RA, if the landing gear is not set to DOWN, and the system has not failed. When this warning appears, the red arrow on the instrument panel comes on. This warning could be wrongly triggered in case of landing gear position sensors disagreement between LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2. In this case, check that at least one green triangle is displayed on each landing gear strut on the WHEEL SD page page. This confirms that the landing gear is down locked. Rely also on the “LDG GEAR DN” green LDG MEMO message to confirm that the landing gear is down locked. Press the EMER CANC pb Cancel the warning by on the ECAM Control Panel (ECP) to stop the Continus Repetitive Chime (CRC) and press CLR pb on the ECP to clear the warning on the ECAM display.

Q.12 What is the meaning of ECAM L/G GEAR NOT DOWNLOCKED? Refer question no. 9 above.

Q.13 What is the meaning of ECAM L/G GEAR NOT DOWN? Refer question no. 11 above.

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Q.14 What is the meaning of “LDG CTL” legend appearing on ECAM WHEEL page? This legend appears amber along with an ECAM caution if the landing gear lever and the landing gear position do not agree. This legend only appears when the landing gear is moving to the selected position.

Q.15 What is the meaning of triangles on the WHEEL page? The landing gear positions are indicated by 2 triangles for each gear on the WHEEL Page. The left triangle is controlled by LGCIU 1, the right one by LGCIU 2. ‐ A green triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear downlocked, ‐ A red triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear in transit, ‐ No triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear uplocked, ‐ Amber crosses on one triangle indicate that LGCIU1 or LGCIU2 is failed. Note: Only one green triangle on each landing gear strut is sufficient to confirm that the landing gear is downlocked. Q.16 How an LGCIU failure is indicated on the ECAM WHEEL Page? Amber crosses on one triangle indicate that LGCIU1 or LGCIU2 is failed.

Q.17 What is the meaning of a red triangle, if shown on WHEEL Page? A red triangle indicates that one LGCIU detects a landing gear in transit

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Q.18 Is nose wheel steering available with the YELLOW hydraulic system inoperative? No

Q.19 Is it true that when using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees at 130 knots? Above 130 kts N/W Steering is not available from rudder pedals? Yes

Q.20 Above which speed, the nose wheel steering not available when using the steering hand wheels? 80 kts.

Q.21 When the towing control lever is in the tow position, a green NW STRG DISC message is displayed on ECAM. What happens to the message after the first engine is started? It turns amber.

Q.22 What message is displayed on ECAM when the towing control lever is in the tow position? NW STRG DISC

Q.23 Which hydraulic system is used for Normal brake system? Green

Q.24 Which hydraulic system is used for Alternate brake system? Yellow

Q.25 Which of the brake functions are lost If braking capabilities degrade to alternate brakes with antiskid? Or does the alternate brake system have the same capabilities as normal brakes? Auto Brake will be lost in alternate brakes with anti-skid,

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Q.26 Is it true that Normal brake system is still available and not inhibited when parking brakes are applied? Yes

Q.27 With which of the failures, braking capabilities degrade to alternate brakes without anti-skid? G + Y Lost or Anti-Skid fail / off

Q.28 With which of the hydraulic failure, Auto-brakes will not be available? Green failure

Q.29 After touchdown, with the auto brakes selected, what control surface must move before auto braking will begin? Ground spoiler surfaces

Q.30 What speed must be met or exceeded during rejected takeoff for Auto brakes to activate? 72 nots and above

Indications on the AUTO BRK panel: The blue ON light comes on to indicate positive arming.

Q.31 What is the meaning of green DECEL light on the auto brake pushbutton? The green DECEL light comes on when the actual deceleration is 80 % of the selected rate. Note: On slippery runways, the predetermined deceleration may not be reached, due to antiskid operation. In this case, the DECEL light will not come on. This does not mean that auto-brake is not working. Chapter 32

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Q.32 What is the meaning of LO, MED, MAX p/b on the AUTO BRK Panel? These are three modes of operation for Auto-Brake.

MAX:

MAX mode is normally selected for takeoff. Use of MAX mode is not

recommended at landing. In the case of an aborted takeoff, maximum pressure goes to the brakes, as soon as the system generates the ground spoiler deployment order.

MED / LO: MED or LO mode is normally selected for landing: • LO mode sends progressive pressure to the brakes 4 s after the ground spoilers deploy, in order to decelerate the aircraft at 1.7 m/s² (5.6 ft/s²). On long runways, LO mode is recommended. • MED mode sends progressive pressure to the brakes 2 s after the ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at 3 m/s² (9.8 ft/s²). On short or contaminated runways, use MED mode. Note: If, on very long runways, the flight crew anticipates that braking will not be needed, use of the auto brake is not necessary.

Q.33 On the WHEEL Page, what is the meaning of a:  Steady Green AUTO BRK Memo?  Flashing green AUTO BRK Memo?  Amber AUTO BRK Memo? AUTO BRK This legend appears: ‐ in green when auto brake is armed, ‐ flashing green for 10 s after auto brake disengagement. ‐ in amber, along with an ECAM caution, to indicate a system failure. MED, LO, or MAX appears underneath in green to show which rate has been selected.

Q.34 What are the memos related to AUTO BRK on E/WD? ‐ If the auto brake is armed, AUTO BRK LO, AUTO BRK MED, or AUTO BRK MAX appears. ‐ If the auto brake is faulty, "AUTO BRK OFF" appears.

Q.35 What is the maximum allowable brake temperature for takeoff with brake fan? Maximum brake temperature for takeoff (brake fans off)....................

300 °C

If the brake fans are running:

BRAKE TEMP.....................................................................

CHECK

‐ If brake temperature is above 150 °C, delay takeoff. ‐ If brake temperature is below 150 °C, select brake fans off.

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Q.36 When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, how many brake applications can the pilot expect? Seven if accumulator is fully charged.

Q.37 How long will the accumulator maintain adequate parking break pressure? 12 Hours

Q.38 Which hydraulic system does the parking brake use? Yellow

Q.39 What system pressure is indicated on the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS Indicator? Yellow

Q.40 What is important to note for selection of Brake Fan after landing? Brake fans selection should be delayed for a minimum of about 5 min, or done just before stopping at the gate (whichever occurs first), to allow thermal equalization and stabilization and thus avoid oxidation of brake surface hot spots. Selecting the brake fans before reaching the gate prevents the brake fans from blowing carbon brake dust on the ground personnel. However, when turnaround times are short, or brake temperatures are likely to exceed 500 °C, use the brake fans, disregarding possible oxidation phenomenon.

Q.41 What is the procedure for BSCU RESET - ON GROUND? In the case of BRAKES SYS 1(2) FAULT or BRAKES BSCU CH 1(2) FAULT ECAM caution, the flight crew can attempt a BSCU reset. The BSCU reset must be performed, aircraft stopped and parking brake applied, by setting the A/SKID & N/W STRG s/w to OFF then ON. If the BSCU reset is not successful, the flight crew may attempt a further reset by using the BSCU circuit breakers. After a successful reset, the flight crew can continue the flight. ‐ On ground, after any BSCU reset, the flight crew must: ‐ Check the braking efficiency of the normal braking system, as soon as the aircraft starts moving again (the aircraft must slow down when pressing the brake pedals). ‐ Record the BSCU reset in the logbook to ensure that troubleshooting is systematically done, in order to investigate the failure.

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Q.42 What is the procedure for BSCU RESET - IN FLIGHT? In the case of BRAKES SYS 1(2) FAULT or BRAKES BSCU CH 1(2) FAULT ECAM caution, the flight crew can attempt a BSCU reset. The BSCU reset must be performed, landing gear retracted, by setting the A/SKID & N/W STRG s/w to OFF then ON.

Q.43 What is the important to remember as far as BSCU RESET Procedure for WHEEL N.W STEER FAULT or WHEEL N/W STRG FAULT ECAM caution? In the case of WHEEL N.W STEER FAULT or WHEEL N/W STRG FAULT ECAM caution, the flight crew can attempt a BSCU reset. If the BSCU reset is successful, the pilot is still required to go back to the gate for troubleshooting. The flight crew must taxi with care, at a taxi speed of 10 kt .

Q.53 What are the conditions when you have to report in flight log for maintenance action as far as brake temperature limitations requiring maintenance actions is concerned? Maintenance action is required in the following cases: ‐ The temperature difference between the 2 brakes on the same gear is greater than 150 °C, and the temperature of either one of the brakes is higher than, or equal to 600 °C, or ‐ The temperature difference between the 2 brakes on the same gear is greater than 150 °C, and the temperature of one brake is lower than, or equal to 60 °C, or ‐ The difference between the average temperature of the left gear brakes and the average temperature of the right gear brakes is 200 °C or more, or ‐ A fuse plug has melted, or ‐ One brake’s temperature exceeds 900 °C.

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A320 TECH QUESTIONS 3/4  

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM

INDICATING & RECORDING SYTEM 

NAVIGATION SYSTEM

Disclaimer This document is for training purpose only. Always refer latest revisions of manuals in case of conflict. [email protected] [email protected]


 Before printing, think about responsibility towards the ENVIRONMENT

Table of Contents:

AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM ................................................................................... 5

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEM........................................................ 56

NAVIGATION SYSTEM .................................................................................. 70




AUTO FLIGHT SYSTEM

AUTO FLIGHT System Q.1

Write the names of the pilot interfaces with FMGS? T/HR LEVERS FCU MCDU

Q.2

Name the modes of operation for FMGS? Single / Independent / Dual / Backup

Q.8

How will you identify if FMGS is operating in Independent Mode? When the cross-talk is lost between both FMGC, they operate in independent mode.  Scratch pad message “INDEPENDENT OPERATION”  IND light on each MCDU  Each FMGC drives its own AP/FD, PFD / ND & MCDU.  On the POS MONITOR page (and GPS MONITOR page), FMGS position (and GPS position) from the opposite FMGC is not displayed.  On the RAD NAV page, navaids tuned on the opposite MCDU are not displayed. Corresponding fields are blank. When cross talk is recovered, FMGC go into Dual Mode automatically.

Q.9

How will you identify if FMGS is operating in Single Mode? {say FMGC 1 has failed}. This happens when one of the FMGC fails. If AP & A/THR were engaged, they trip & AUTO FLT AP PFF & A/THR OFF are triggered on ECAM. AP2 can be engaged. FM1 light on MCDU 1 only will appear indicating on side FM has failed. “OPP FMGC IN PROCESS” will appear on MCDU1. 2FD2 will be displayed on both FMAs. Only FMGC 2 position is computed. FMGC 2 tunes the off side navaids. ND 1 displays “SET OFFSIDE RANGE MODE” & “MAP NOT AVAILABLE” messages as long as ND1 range & mode are not identical to those on ND2.

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Q.10

What are the indications of Dual FMGC failure? FMGC Dual Failure (FMS2):  “MAP NOT AVAIL” is displayed on both NDs.  FM and FG capability are lost.  MCDU MENU page is displayed and FMGC prompt is no longer available.  AP/FD and A/THR are lost.  Flight Path Vector is available  FMGS Navaid tuning is not performed.  The following ECAM messages are displayed: o “AUTO FLT AP OFF” (if AP was engaged) o “AUTO FLT A/THR OFF” (if A/THR was engaged)

Q.11 How to tune RMPs in case of DUAL FMGC Failure? Remote Tune Navaids: a) RMP 1 NAV (guarded) .......................................... Press On b) RMP 2 NAV (guarded) .......................................... Press On c) RMP VOR or ILS Key (as required) ......................... Press On Note: Green lights illuminate. Both windows display previously selected frequencies. RMP 1 tunes VOR 1, RMP 2 tunes VOR 2. Either RMP 1 or RMP 2 tunes the ILS receivers. d) Set the VOR or ILS frequency in the STBY/CRS window e) Transfer Key.........................................................Press The active window displays the selected frequency f) Set the course in the STBY/CRS window Note: The receiver is now tuned to the frequency of the new station and the course is selected. To select another station, press the transfer key (both windows now display the previously selected frequency) before retuning the VOR or ILS. g) To tune Comm radios, select the appropriate VHF or HF key.

Q.12 Which of the FMGCs is master if: a) b) c) d) e) f)

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Only FD1 is on?.............................................FMGC 1 Only FD2 is on?.............................................FMGC 2 Both FDs {1+2} are on?.................................FMGC 1 Both FDs and AP1 are on?.............................FMGC 1 Both FDs and AP2 are on?.............................FMGC 2 Both FDs and both APs are on?.....................FMGC 2

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Q.13 What to do if FMGS is in INDEPENDENT MODE? a) PROCEDURES ON GROUND If each FMGC is loaded with a different database, The FMGS will only operate in independent mode. CHECK the database number and validity. CROSS LOAD the database to restore the dual operation. Cross load function is available on ground only (in preflight or done phase), when an independent operation is detected. b) PROCEDURES IN FLIGHT DO NOT SWITCH the navigation databases. MAKE the same entries on both MCDUs to have both AP/FDs similar orders. Both FGs being valid, 2 APs may be engaged for CAT II or CAT III operations. In the event of a go-around and when the second AP is disconnected: ENSURE that the FMGC in command has correct flight plan orders and an updated nav database. Airbus does not recommend pulling one FMGC circuit breaker to force the system to operate in SINGLE mode.

Q.14 What to do if FMGS is in SINGLE MODE? If a transient failure triggers a single mode of operation: DO NOT USE the MCDU(s) until the PLEASE WAIT message is suppressed. SET both NDs on the same range and mode to display the same information from the operative FMGC. When convenient, RESET the failed FMGC as per Supplementary procedures.

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Q.15 What is back up navigation mode? Which features of the flight management are available if a/c is in Back-Up navigation mode?

The flight crew selects on the MCDU MENU page this degraded mode when both FMGCs fail. They The MCDU continuously memorizes the active flight plan in its memory. If both FMGCs fail, the back up navigation provides the following functions: ‐ Flight Planning ‐ Aircraft position using onside IRS, IRS3, or GPIRS position ‐ F-PLN display on ND ‐ No AP/FD NAV mode ‐ Limited lateral revision ‐ F-PLN automatic sequencing. The MCDU NAV B/UP allows to link a MCDU to its associated IRS in order to allow the flight crew to monitor the navigation and to be provided with some basic flight planning functions in case of FM 1 +2 failure. CAUTION: The MCDU NAV B/UP is to be used only in case of FM 1 + 2 failure. It can be selected temporarily in case of FM1 or 2 only failure, in order to ensure that the function is available on the failed side. When in MCDU NAV B/UP on both sides, one FG at least must be available to engage AP and A/THR. The MCDU NAV B/UP function provides: ‐ Aircraft position using onside IRS or IRS 3 ‐ ‐ F-PLN as memorized in the MCDU ‐ F-PLN display on ND ‐ F-PLN automatic sequencing ‐ AP/FD selected modes, if at least one FG is available ‐ Limited lateral revisions

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‐ Mag (True) bearing depending on the pilot selection, from aircraft position to the TO WPT and associated distance ‐ True track between waypoints ‐ Time estimates computed with current GS from onside IRS ‐ Total time and distance to destination

The following features are not provided:

‐ No DATA BASE available: • No autotuning, NAVAIDS must be selected on RMP • No radio position • No EFIS CTL PANEL options • No LDG ELEV (must be manually selected on overhead panel). ‐ No performance data: • No CLB/DES/APP NAV/FINAL modes • No SPEED MANAGED • No automatic SPD/MACH change over. ‐ Most of predictions are lost: • No EFOB • No XTRA • No ETA at DEST. ‐ No multiple lateral F-PLN ‐ No AF/FD managed modes ‐ No crosstalk between MCDUs: F-PLN revisions have to be achieved on both MCDUs.

BACK UP NAV SELECTION FM F-PLN DOWNLOAD IN MCDU While BACK UP NAV is not active, the FM downloads permanently a condensed form of the F-PLN in the MCDU. Downloaded information include: ‐ Waypoint position ‐ Waypoint identifier ‐ Leg type ‐ Discontinuity ‐ Overfly ‐ Turn direction. Heading legs, course to fix legs, ..., computed INTCPT positions, pseudo waypoints, ..., cannot be downloaded. They are replaced by discontinuities. Maximum of 150 waypoints are downloaded.

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EXAMPLE OF DOWNLOADED F-PLN

In that procedure, all the legs are coded as CF (Course to Fix) legs. This explains all the discontinuities resulting in the B/UP F-PLN. These discontinuities may be cleared. When the second FM fails REENGAGE and SELECT the required AP and A/THR modes (if disconnected). SELECT the NAV B/UP prompt on both MCDU. SELECT NAV on both RMP Tune the required navaids

‐ Only MCDU MENU • F-PLN key • PROG key • DIR key ‐ B/UP F-PLN page + • B/UP PROG page + • B/UP IRS 1, 2, 3 pages are available when BACK UP NAV is selected. ‐

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BACK UP NAV OPERATION AP AND A/THR One FG at least must be available to allow the engagement of AP/FD and A/THR. All FM managed modes are lost as well as managed speed. As a consequence: ‐ LAT F-PLN is flown in HDG/TRK modes ‐ VERT F-PLN is flown in OPEN/V/S/FPA modes ‐ SPD TARGET is manually SELECTED on the FCU ‐ SPD/MACH crossover is manually SELECTED on the FCU. It is recommended to use the TRK/FPA modes: SELECT the required TRK on FCU at waypoint sequencing (as no AP/FD coupling exists in NAV B/UP). F-PLN sequencing is automatic. MONITOR the track of the next leg prior reaching the TO waypoint (track between TO and next waypoints is true track). ADJUST the track to follow the F-PLN with X-TRK = 0 USE OP DES or FPA to descend as suitable. FPA allows easy altitudes predictions: DNM = ▵(FL)/FPA° NAVIGATION MONITORING The navigation accuracy check must be achieved periodically using the same principle as with FM navigation: COMPARE computed data with raw data SELECT ON RMP the applicable navaid PRESS the [PROG] key B/UP PROG page is displayed WRITE in the scratchpad then ENTER the navaid LAT/LONG SELECT associated navaid needle on the EFIS control panel. COMPARE computed BRG/DIST with RAW DATA on ND ‐ If the crosscheck is POSITIVE the ND may be used in ROSE NAV/MAP modes with raw data ‐ If the crosscheck is NEGATIVE the ND must be used in ROSE VOR/ROSE ILS modes.

FLIGHT PLANNING The following revisions may be achieved: ‐ WPT insertion/deletion ‐ OVERFLY insertion/deletion ‐ DIR TO a waypoint ‐ CLR waypoints/discontinuities. Waypoint identifiers are either published waypoint identifiers if present in the MCDU active F-PLN, or coded LAT/LONG identifiers resulting from flight crew entries. All flight planning functions are directly applied on active F-PLN without LAT REV page. WAYPOINT INSERTION Waypoint insertion into the F-PLN is performed via the B/UP F-PLN page by selecting the line key adjacent to the desired point of insertion, whenever a pre-existing waypoint identifier or valid IDENT/LAT/LONG or LAT/LONG entry is displayed in the scratchpad. Any waypoint entry which causes the number of legs in the route to exceed the maximum allowed results in the “F-PLN FULL” message.

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Note: ‐ If the inserted waypoint is entered only with LAT/LONG, its identifier would be : N48E001 ‐ If the flight crew writes a waypoint IDENT/LAT/LONG with an IDENT already used in the F-PLN, a message “NOT ALLOWED" is displayed. WAYPOINT DELETION Waypoint and discontinuity may be deleted from the B/UP F-PLN page by using the CLR key. OVERFLY INSERTION/DELETION Same as for the FM F-PLN. DIRECT TO A WAYPOINT The DIR TO function operates as for the normal F-PLN, except that RADIAL INTERCEPT and ABEAM functions are not available. PRESS the DIR key, then SELECT the downpath waypoint WRITE LAT/LONG (or IDENT/LAT/LONG) on the scratchpad then INSERT in [1L]. Confirm the DIR TO [6R]. SELECT the correct track on the FCU in order for the aircraft to turn toward the new TO waypoint.

In this example, the entered DIR TO waypoint is a LAT/LONG waypoint. Due to the fact that this new waypoint is not identical to any waypoint in the F-PLN, a direct leg to that waypoint is created and followed by a discontinuity. When the DIR TO function is completed, the B/UP F-PLN page is displayed with the DIR TO waypoint as the TO waypoint and the T-P waypoint as the FROM waypoint.

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CLR WAYPOINT/DISCONTINUITY CLR as for normal operation.

APPROACHES ‐ ND display selection rule As per normal operation, it depends upon the result of NAV ACCY CROSS CHECK. Furthermore it depends also whether the F-PLN is complete, including the approach.

ND F-PLN

NAV ACCY CHECK PF

PNF ARC or ROSE NAV Ref navaid Raw data

Positive Complete with appropriate approach Negative Incomplete

ARC or ROSE NAV or ROSE VOR/ILS Ref Navaid Raw Data

ROSE VOR/ILS

Positive or Negative

ROSE VOR/ILS

END OF DESCENT ADJUST manually the landing elevation on the overhead panel. SET the MDA on the standby altimeter. NON ILS APPROACHES SELECT on RMP the approach reference navaids. The autopilot and flight director available modes are TRK-FPA and HDG/VS The autothrust available speed target is selected speed. ILS APPROACHES Only CAT 1 approaches may be flown since the DH indication is not available. CHECK the ILS frequency and course on the RMP. PUSH the LS pb on the EIS control panel. The autopilot and flight director available modes are APP (LOC – G/S – LAND) The autothrottle available speed target is selected speed CHECK VAPP in the QRH.

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Q.16 What is the meaning of following annunciators on MCDU? FAIL: Indicates that the Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU) has failed. MCDU MENU: Indicates that the flight crew should call up a peripheral linked to the MCDU (such as ACARS, ATSU or CFDS).

FM: Comes on while the flight crew is using the MCDU to display peripherals. This light tells the flight crew that the FMGC has an important message to deliver. The flight crew accesses the message by pressing the MCDU MENU key and the line select key adjacent to the FMGC prompt

FM1 The onside FM is failed {FM1 in this case} IND: The onside FM detects an independent mode of operation while both FM are healthy. RDY: MCDU has passed its power up test after it was turned off using its DIM key FM2: The onside FM is failed {FM2 in this case}

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Q.17 In flight with dual FMGCs failure, could we still navigate and complete our flight? Yes

Q.18 What are the Flight Management functions of FMGS? ‐ ‐ ‐ ‐ ‐

Navigation Management of flight planning Prediction and optimization of performance Management of navigation radios Management of displays

Q.19 What are the Flight Guidance functions of FMGS? The Flight Guidance (FG) part of the FMGS controls: ‐ The Flight Director (FD) ‐ The Autopilot (AP) ‐ The Autothrust (A/THR).

Q.20 What are the Flight Augmentation functions of FMGS? The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform four main functions: • Yaw function ‐ Yaw damping and turn coordination ‐ Rudder trim ‐ Rudder travel limitation • Flight envelope function ‐ PFD speed scale management ▪ Minimum/maximum speed computation ▪ Maneuvering speed computation ‐ Alpha-floor protection • Low-Energy Warning function • Windshear detection function

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Q.21 Explain how FMGS computes the aircraft position? Each FMGC computes its own aircraft position (called the "FM position") from  a MIX IRS position and  a computed radio position, or a GPS position. The FMGS selects the most accurate position, considering the estimated accuracy and integrity of each positioning equipment. FMGS selects best position based from following methods:  MIX IRS POSITION  GPS POSITION  RADIO POSITION GPS Position is the best FM Position generally.

Q.22 The FMGS updates the FM position via the use of GPS or radio navaids and it uses a priority rule for FM position update. What is the order of priority for determining FM position? GPS/INERTIAL is the basic navigation mode, provided GPS data is valid and successfully tested. Otherwise, navaids plus inertial or inertial only are used. The decreasing order of priority is: ‐ IRS-GPS ‐ IRS-DME/DME ‐ IRS-VOR/DME ‐ IRS only. This priority is different during ILS approaches. During ILS approaches, the system performs a temporary lateral update, via one of the following modes: ‐ IRS-GPS/LOC ‐ IRS-DME/DME-LOC ‐ IRS-VOR/DME-LOC ‐ IRS-LOC.

If the GPIRS data does not comply with an integrity criterion that is based on a Horizontal Integrity Limit (HIL) and on the automatic detection of failed satellites, the FMS rejects the GPS mode and uses the radio position update.

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Q.23 What is the MIX IRS position? Each FMGC receives a position from each of the three IRSs, and computes a mean-weighted average called the “MIX IRS” position:

Q.24 How does FMGS determine a/c position with the help of GPS? {GPS POSITION used by FMGS} Each IRS computes a mixed IRS/GPS position called the GPIRS position. For this, each IRS can independently select their GPS source in order to maximize the availability of GPS data. Of the three GPIRS positions that each FMGC receives, the FMS uses the following hierarchy to perform the selection:  Onside GPIRS position  GPIRS 3  Opposite GPIRS position. The flight crew can deselect/select the GPS position on the SELECTED NAVAIDS page, if necessary.

Q.25 At the time of flight initialization, what is the FM Position? At flight initialization, each FMGC displays an FM position that is a MIX IRS/GPS position (GPIRS): ‐ At takeoff, when the FM position is updated to the runway threshold position as stored in the database, possibly corrected by the takeoff shift entered on PERF TO page. ‐ In flight, the FM position approaches the radio position or the GPS position at a rate depending upon the aircraft altitude.

Q.26 How does FMGS determine a/c position with the help of RADIO POSITION? Each FMGC uses onside navaids to compute its own radio position. These navaids are displayed on the SELECTED NAVAIDS page. The available navaids are: ‐ DME/DME ‐ VOR/DME ‐ LOC ‐ DME/DME-LOC ‐ VOR/DME-LOC. It uses LOC to update the lateral position, using LOC beam during ILS approach. LOC is also used for quick update, when in GPS/IRS mode. If one or more navaids fail, each FMGC can use offside navaids to compute the VOR/DME, or the DME/DME radio position.

The radio navaid selection is displayed on the DATA “SELECTED NAVAIDS” page. CHAPTER 22

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Q.27 What is a Bias? Each FMGC computes a vector {distance and direction} from its MIX IRS position to the radio position or GPIRS position. This vector is called the “bias”.

Q.28 How can you monitor the position computation being calculated by FMGS? The flight crew may check the position computation using the GPS MONITOR or POSITION MONITOR page.

Q.29 What is EPU? Or EPE? The FMGS continuously computes an Estimated Position Uncertainty (EPU). It is an estimate of how much the FM position diverged or deviated, and it is a function of the navigation mode that the system uses {i.e. IRS / GPS or IRS / DME / DME or IRS / VOR / DME or just IRS ONLY}.

Q.30 What is the EPU set in the system if GPS PRIMARY is ACTIVE? It means that the navigation is by GPIRS mode {also called as IRS / GPS}, it therefore is 0.05 nm.

Q.31 What is the EPU set in the system if GPS PRIMARY LOST but there is a sufficient Radio Navaid coverage to update IRS? For IRS/DME/DME: it is 0.27 nm - 0.37 nm. For IRS/VOR/DME: it is 0.30 nm - 0.42 nm. And is Dependent on the distance between the aircraft and the VOR/DME.

Q.32 What is the EPU set in the system if GPS PRIMARY LOST and there is no sufficient Radio Navaid coverage to update IRS? That means the navigation is in IRS ONLY. +6 kt for the first 40 min.{ = 4nM} 0 kt for the following 50 min.{=0 nM} +4 kt for the following 40 min.{=2.667 nM} 0 kt for the following 45 min.{=0 nM} +2 kt after. Further, EPU increases continuously in IRS ONLY. That is the reason that when IRS ONLY, NAV ACCURACY DOWNGRADES faster. CHAPTER 22

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Q.33 What is the EPU set in the system, after IRS Alignment? After an IRS alignment, the EPU is set at 5 nm.

Q.34 What is the EPU set in the system at Take-off? At takeoff, the EPU is set at 0.2 nm.

Q.35 If GPS function is lost, is navigation accuracy immediately downgraded? When GPS function is lost, the message GPS PRIMARY LOST is displayed on the ND and MCDU scratchpad. During an approach a triple click sound is triggered. In this case, navigation accuracy is not downgraded immediately, but only when EPE exceeds RNP.

Q.36 When the accuracy is considered HIGH? The FMS displays the EPU to the flight crew and compares it with the Required Navigation Performance (RNP): ‐ If the EPU does not exceed the RNP, accuracy is HIGH ‐ If the EPU exceeds the RNP, accuracy is LOW. Based on EPE, a message of HIGH or LOW ACCURACY is generated. Crew has to do NAVIGATION ACCURACY Check when LOW ACCURACY message is generated. "HIGH" or "LOW" on the PROG page indicates the FM position accuracy, based on estimated uncertainty. If Required is Higher than Estimated, ACCURACY is HIGH as shown on PROG Page.

Q.37 When the accuracy is considered LOW? If Required is Lower than Estimated, ACCURACY is LOW as shown on PROG Page.

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Q.38 Where will you see RNP data on the MCDU? The RNP is displayed in the REQUIRED field of the PROG page. The displayed RNP is (in a decreasing order of priority): ‐ The value that the flight crew entered ‐ The navigation database procedure value ‐ The system’s default value. When a flight crew enters an RNP that is higher than the published value, one of the following messages is displayed: "PROCEDURE RNP IS XX.XX", or "AREA RNP IS XX.XX". When this occurs, the flight crew should verify the RNP value that was manually entered in the REQUIRED field of the PROG page, and clear or modify it if necessary. The "AREA RNP IS XX.XX" message is also displayed at the change of flight area if the new RNP (default value) is smaller than the displayed RNP (manually entered).

Q.39 What are the DEFAULT AREA RNP VALUES? EN ROUTE…………. 2.0 nm TERMINAL………… 1.0 nm APPROACH…… GPS 0.3 nm OTHER CASES 0.5 nm

Q.40 When do you have to perform the Navigation Accuracy Check? Whenever accuracy downgrades to LOW When GPS PRIMARY is not available, the flight crew must perform this essential check: ‐ Periodically in cruise ‐ At 10 000 ft in descent.

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Q.41 What is the Navigation Accuracy Check? How do you perform this check? When GPS PRIMARY is available, the navigation accuracy check is not required. When GPS PRIMARY is not available, the flight crew must perform this essential check: ‐ Periodically in cruise ‐ At 10 000 ft in descent. When entering a terminal/approach area, the flight crew must monitor navigation accuracy. The procedure is: ‐ While en route, check the HIGH/LOW accuracy information. • If accuracy is "LOW" (and whenever "NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD" appears), compare raw data from the tuned navaids with the corresponding FM computed data on the ND or the MCDU PROG page • If accuracy is "HIGH", periodically perform the comparison (about once per hour). ‐ In descent, and in terminal and approach areas, validate the estimated accuracy, whether it is "HIGH" or "LOW", by comparing the FM data with the raw data from the VOR/DME at the destination airfield, if available.

Q.42 For "NAV ACCUR UPGRAD" message to appear, should both FMGC detect NAV Accuracy change or any one of the FMGC which is affected? When one FMGC changes the NAV accuracy from LOW to HIGH (or HIGH to LOW), the MCDU and the ND display the "NAV ACCUR UPGRAD" (or DOWNGRAD) message. These messages are inhibited when the navigation mode is IRS/GPS.

Q.43 What are the criteria for GPS PRIMARY ACTIVE message to appear? When the GPS PRIMARY is ACTIVE {in IRS/GPS mode}, the system checks two different criteria: ‐ The accuracy criterion described as HIGH/LOW accuracy. ‐ An integrity criterion: This is the capability to detect a failure and provide appropriate warning of it. This criterion indicates the confidence that the flight crew can have in the FMS position. If the GPS PRIMARY status complies with both criteria, "GPS PRIMARY" is displayed on the MCDU (PROG page, [5R] field and scratchpad) and temporarily on the ND. If the GPS PRIMARY status no longer complies with one of these criteria (Navigation downgraded or integrity lost), the GPS PRIMARY status is lost and the MCDU and the ND display the "GPS PRIMARY LOST" message. It is possible to clear the scratchpad message on the MCDU, but not on the ND.

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Q.44 When does the ECAM display NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE amber caution? When the GPS PRIMARY function is active, and either of the FM positions deviate from the GPS positions 1 or 2 by more than: ‐ A longitude threshold that depends on the latitude: • 0.5' for latitudes below 55° • 0.9' for latitudes at or above 55°, and below 70°. ‐ A latitude threshold of 0.5', regardless of the latitude,

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Q.45 Mark True or False for the following questions: {all are true} a) Radio navaids are tuned for display purpose as well as for computing Radio position purpose. b) Each FMGC may tune one VOR, one ILS, one ADF and five DMEs. c) When FMGS is in Dual mode or Independent mode, each FMGC tunes the navaids on its own side. d) When FMGS is in Dual mode or Independent mode, crew can also tune VOR and its associated DME, ILS and ADF.

e) When FMGS is in Single mode, the valid FMGC tunes navaids on both sides.

f) When FMGS is in Single mode, manual tuning for both VORs, both ADF and ILS can be done by crew using RAD NAV page. g) Manual tuning has priority over automatic tuning.

h) Manual tuning is performed via MCDU RAD NAV page or via RMP{if both FMGCs or both MCDUs fail}

i)

In case of a failure of any one radio receiver, both FMGC will use the operative receiver to compute the radio position.

j)

If you want to see which navaids are tuned by onside FMGC, just go to POSITION MONITOR Page and select “SELECTED NAVAIDS PAGE”

k) You cannot modify navaid through “SELECTED NAVAID PAGE”

l)

You may deselect max of 6 navaids for whole of the flight from ”SELECTED NAVAIDS Page”

m) For NAVAID identification, ILS is checked on PFD whereas VOR or ADF identification is checked on ND.

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Q.46 What is the purpose of tuning the Radio navaids? {For the purpose of display and for the purpose of computing position}

Q.47 Which page show the NAVAIDs used for a/c position update? {SELECTED NAVAIDS}

Q.48 Which page show the NAVAIDs used for display of NAVAIDS? {RADNAV}

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Q.49 Why do you need SECONDARY flight plan? • When an alternate takeoff runway is probable • To plan a diversion • To prepare the next flight • To compare predictions or evaluations.

Q.50 What is the Primary Flight Plan? ...flight plan from origin to destination and missed approach

Q.51 What is the Alternate Flight Plan? ...from destination to alternate destination.

Q.52 What do you mean by the ACTIVE flight plan? It is the plan which is either primary or alternate flight plan and is basis for: • Lateral and vertical guidance • MCDU and ND display • Radio navigation auto tuning • Performance predictions • Fuel planning.

Q.53 What are the components of a typical flight plan? The lateral flight plan includes the following elements: ‐ Departure • Takeoff runway • SID • En route transition. ‐ En route • En route waypoints and airways. ‐ Arrival • En route transition • STARs/VIAs • Landing runway with selected approach • Missed approach. ‐ Alternate flight plan. These elements are defined by waypoints and legs between the waypoints.

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Q.54 What do you mean by F-PLAN Discontinuity? The flight plan has a discontinuity if any two waypoints do not have a leg defined between them. The computer assumes that the aircraft will fly a direct leg between the two waypoints that define the discontinuity.

Q.55 Which speed is the basis of the managed speed profile? ECON speed is the basis of the managed speed profile. For each phase the FMGS computes an optimum (ECON) speed as a function of the strategic parameters (CI, CRZ FL, ZFW, ZFWCG, block FUEL) and performance criteria.

Q.56 Is it true that In addition to the data entered by the flight crew, the FMS uses some real flight data parameters (CRZ SAT, actual wind) to improve the accuracy of the computed predictions? Yes

Q.57 How does FMGS come out of Take-Off Phase and goes into Climb Phase? At acceleration altitude Or By engagement of another vertical mode.

Q.58 How does it change from CLB to CRZ phase? On reaching cruise FL i.e. the same FL as it is inserted in MCDU {when ALT CRZ is shown in FMA}

Q.59 How does the FMGS go into Descent phase from CRZ phase? No step descent, and Distance to destination < 200 nm, Or No step descent, and All engines operative and selected altitude below Max [FL 200, highest DES ALT CSTR]

Q.60 How is the Approach phase activated? Overflying (DECEL) pseudo waypoint with NAV (or LOC*/LOC) mode engaged and altitude <7 200 ft AGL Or ‐ Manual activation of the approach phase.

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Q.61 How to reactivate the CRZ phase if the descent or the approach phase is inadvertently activated? If the descent or the approach phase is inadvertently activated (manual approach phase activation, for example), the flight crew may reselect a CRZ FL on the PROG page to reactivate the CRZ phase.

Q.62 How is the Go - Around phase activated for FMGS? By taking the Thr. Levers to TOGA gate.

Q.63 How to come out of the Go-Around Phase? FMGS will change from Go-Around phase:  To Approach: Manual activation of the approach phase, or  To Climb: Above acceleration altitude by ‐ Selecting ALTN, or ‐ inserting NEW DEST

Q.64 What is the meaning of Vertical Revision of a Flight Plan? Vertical revisions of a flight plan means to enter or modify: ‐ The speed limit in the climb and descent phases ‐ An altitude or speed constraint at the revised waypoint ‐ A time constraint (RTA) ‐ A Constant Mach value to be kept in cruise ‐ A step climb or a step descent ‐ New wind data. The vertical revision page is accessed by pressing a right hand select key of the flight plan page.

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Q.65 Where do you insert Trip Wind? On the INIT B page. The trip wind, is defined as a headwind component (HDXX, XXHD or - XX), or as a tailwind (TLXX, XXTL or + XX). The FMGS uses the trip wind to compute preliminary performance, time and fuel predictions. The trip wind is a mean wind component for the entire flight from origin to destination. The crew can enter it on the INIT B page before engine start. It is usually shown on the computerized flight plan. The FMGS does not consider the trip wind for alternate predictions. Trip wind function is intended for on-ground predictions only. In addition to the data entered by the flight crew, the FMS uses some real flight data parameters (CRZ SAT, actual wind) to improve the accuracy of the computed predictions.

Q.66 ENTERING THE TRIP WIND AND TEMPERATURE DURING F-PLN INITIALIZATION Or ENTERING THE WIND AND TEMPERATURE DURING F-PLN INITIALIZATION In order to obtain the best predictions, the crew must enter wind values for the different phases and for various waypoints of cruise phase. The system uses the temperature value at a given altitude, associated with the tropopause entered on the INIT A page, to optimize the temperature profile. The crew can enter wind data as follows: ‐ For climb phase: By inserting either the HISTORY WIND data (as recorded during the last descent), or by inserting winds (at up to 5 altitudes/FL) on the CLIMB WIND page ‐ For cruise phase: By inserting winds (at up to FL 4) at various CRZ waypoints on the CRZ WIND pages. The 4 levels are the same for all the cruise waypoints. The crew may enter the temperature at each waypoint on this page ‐ For descent phase: By inserting winds (at up to FL 5 /altitudes) on the DES WIND page ‐ For the ALTN F-PLN, an average wind may be entered on the DES WIND page for alternate cruise flight level. Once a CLIMB, CRZ, or DESCENT WIND is entered, the system ignores the TRIP WIND. Once temperature and winds are inserted, the FMGS computes the ISA profile, and the F-PLN B page displays the forecast wind profile (by linear interpolation and propagation). CLIMB WIND cannot be modified when the climb phase is active.

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The crew should modify the entered winds and temperatures in flight, if a significant difference is expected (greater than 30 kt or 30 ° for the wind data and greater than 5 °C for the temperature). Once in flight, the FMGS considers the real, measured wind up to 100 nm ahead of the aircraft, to permanently update the wind profile. This updated wind profile is used to compute the predictions and the performance data, but is not displayed to the crew. The CRUISE WIND pages display the propagated values in small cyan font, and the crew (or AOC) entries in large cyan font. Note: The CRUISE WIND page displays AOC data, crew-entered data or propagated data. It never displays computed data (displayed on the F-PLN B page only).

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Q.67 What is COST INDEX (CI)? CI=0 in climb page, will give you best rate of climb speed indeed. The cost index is a fundamental input for the ECON SPEED or ECON MACH computation. ECON SPEED and ECON MACH reduce the total flight cost in terms of flight time and fuel consumption (and not only in terms of fuel saving). CI is the ratio of flight time cost (CT) to fuel cost (CF). CI = CT/CF (kg/min or 100 lb/h). CI = 0 corresponds to minimum fuel consumption (Max Range). CI = 999 corresponds to minimum time. CI = Long Range Cruise (Refer to PRO-NOR-SRP-01-50-B Preparation for Descent and Approach - Cost Index for Long-Range Cruise). Note: The airline's operations department usually defines the cost index, to optimize each company route. The flight crew does not ordinarily modify the cost index during a flight.

Q.68 What is “IDLE FACTOR”? The IDLE factor is dedicated to the FM descent segment. The aim of the IDLE factor is to adjust FM descent predictions. In particular, the Top of Descent (T/D) position, with the actual engine idle thrust used during descent. A positive IDLE factor gives an earlier T/D (shallower path). A negative IDLE factor delays the T/D (steeper path). An IDLE factor of -3 decreases the computed descent length by 5 nm. The IDLE factor set at delivery is 0 %.however, there is a PROCEDURE TO MODIFY THE IDLE FACTOR on ground only.

Q.69 What is “PERF” factor? The PERF factor is a positive or negative percentage that is used to correct the predicted fuel flow, used for fuel prediction computation within the FMGS. It is necessary when the aircraft’s performance differs from the performance model stored in the FMGS database.

Q.70 What is “ENERGY CIRCLE”? The energy circle is a green arc, centered on the aircraft’s position and oriented towards the current track line. It is displayed on the NDs during descent, when HDG or TRK mode is selected. It represents the required distance to land from the aircraft’s position down to airport elevation at VAPP speed, considering all speed constraints on the vertical profile.

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Q.71 When both FDs engaged, how is it shown on FMA in 5th col.? 1FD2

Q.72 If FD #1 is disengaged after engaging both FDs, what will FMA show in 5th col.? -FD2

Q.73 If FD #2 is disengaged after engaging both FDs, what will FMA show in 5th col.? 1FD-

Q.74 If FD #1 fails when both FDs were ON, what will FMA show in 5th col.? {Same is valid when FMGC#1 also fails or invalid.} 2FD2

Q.75 What indications will appear when AP gets disconnected due system failure? These indications are different than if you disconnect AP intentionally.

Q.76 What indications will appear if you disconnect AP intentionally by pressing Take-over P/B?

Q.77 What indications will appear if you disconnect AP intentionally by pressing AP p/b on FCU?

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Speed of the a/c is controlled either by AP/FD Pitch channel or by A/THR. A/THR mode will get engaged either in SPD/MACH or fixed thrust {THR CLB or THR IDLE}, based on what is engaged in pitch column of FMA, It is not necessary that in climb, A/THR will always be in THR CLB or in descent; A/THR will be in THR IDLE modes.

Q.78 With the aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, in which mode will the A/THR engage? Depends upon which mode is engaged in Pitch Mode.

Q.79 Name the AP/FD pitch modes, in which A/THR maintain THR CLB Mode {fixed thrust in climb}? CLB / OP CLB / EXPED CLB

Q.80 Name the AP /FD pitch modes, in which A/THR maintain THR IDLE Mode {fixed thrust in descent}? DES / OP DES / EXPED DES

Q.81 Name the AP/FD pitch modes, in which A/THR maintains SPEED / MACH mode? {i.e. You will see SPEED / MACH in FMA 1 col.} V/S , G/S , ALT / ALT CRZ / ALT CSTR / ALT* / ALT CSTR*

Q.82 If both AP/FDs are disengaged, what will be A/THR mode? If no AP/FD pitch mode is engaged, the A/THR mode will revert to SPD/MACH mode.

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Q.83 Draw the FMA when you  Taxi-out?

CLB



NAV

1FD2

Apply Take-Off Power {FLX +55}? For Takeoff, when thrust levers are set at TOGA gate {with FDs ON and V2 defined on PERF TAKE OFF page},

 MAN FLX +55



SRS CLB

TOGA

SRS CLB

1FD2 A/THR

RWY NAV

1FD2 A/THR

After reaching 30 feet after Take-Off? SRS

MAN FLX +55

CHAPTER 22

NAV

Apply Take-Off Power {TOGA}? For Takeoff, when thrust levers are set at TOGA gate {with FDs ON and V2 defined on PERF TAKE OFF page}, MAN



RWY

CLB

NAV 1FD2 A/THR

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

After reaching THR RED ALT? MAN FLX +55 LVR CLB



SRS

NAV AP1 1FD2 A/THR

CLB

After bringing THR Levers to CLB gate after THR RED ALT? SRS

AP1 1FD2 A/THR

NAV

THR CLB CLB



After reaching ACCL ALT & climbing with CLB mode?

CLB

AP1 1FD2

NAV

THR CLB

A/THR

ALT



At reaching ALT CSTR or maintaining ALT CSTR? ALT CSTR

AP1 1FD2

NAV

SPEED

A/THR

CLB



Reaching cruising altitude which is same as FMGC ALT?

MACH / SPEED

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ALT CRZ

NAV

AP1 1FD2 A/THR

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

If ATC ask you to maintain altitude which is lower than FMGC ALT? MACH / SPEED



A/THR

ALT CRZ

NAV

AP1 1FD2 A/THR

DES

NAV

AP1 1FD2 A/THR

ALT

Nearing TOD, if ATC clears late descent after TOD using DES Mode? DES THR IDLE ALT

CHAPTER 22

AP1 1FD2

Nearing TOD, if ATC clears early descent before TOD using DES Mode? MACH / SPEED



NAV

If ATC ask you to maintain altitude which is higher than FMGC ALT? MACH / SPEED



ALT

NAV

AP1 1FD2 A/THR

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Q.84 If NAV is disarmed by selecting HDG PRESELECT while taxied-out, what will FMA read?

CLB

1FD2

Q.85 Under this scenario, on reaching 

30 Ft, what is engaged on FMA?

SRS

MAN FLX +55



RWY TRK 1FD2 A/THR

CLB

ACCL ALT, which mode will engage for pitch?

OP CLB

HDG

THR CLB ALT

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NAV

AP1 1FD2 A/THR

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Q.86 What is SRS speed guidance during T/O with both engines working? Speed Reference System is a vertical mode which controls pitch to maintain a speed defined by SRS guidance (provided V2 is inserted in the MCDU PERF TO page, the slats are extended, and the aircraft is on the ground). It is v2 + 15 kt.

Q.87 What is SRS speed guidance during T/O in single engine? When the FMGS detects an engine failure, the speed target becomes the highest of V2 or current speed, limited by V2+15 kt.

Q.88 Does SRS mode provide any protection apart from providing speed guidance? What are these? The SRS guidance law also includes: ‐ Attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect during takeoff (18 ° or 22.5 ° maximum in case of wind shear) ‐ Flight path angle protection that ensures a minimum vertical speed of 120 ft/min ‐ A speed protection limiting the target speed to V2+15 kt.

Q.89 When will SRS disengage after T/O in case of both engines working? The SRS mode disengages: ‐ Automatically, at the acceleration altitude (ACC ALT), or if ALT* or ALT CST* mode engages (above 400 ft RA) ‐ If the flight crew engages another vertical mode ‐ If the flight crew selects a speed while in SRS mode: SRS reverts to OP CLB mode, and a triple-click aural warning is heard.

Q.90 When will SRS disengage automatically after T/O in case of single engine? In Engine Out conditions, the SRS mode does not automatically disengage at EO ACC ALT.

Q.91 What is SRS speed guidance during G/Around with both engines working? The SRS law maintains the current speed at Go-around engagement, or VAPP, whichever is higher. Nevertheless, the SRS speed target is limited to VLS+25 kt, in a two-engine configuration.

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Q.92 What is SRS speed guidance during G/Around in single engine? The SRS law maintains the current speed at Go-around engagement, or VAPP, whichever is higher. Nevertheless, the SRS speed target is limited to VLS+15 kt, in an engine-out configuration.,

Q.93 When does the RWY mode engage? Mode used at takeoff to guide the aircraft along the runway centre line, using LOC. Triggered by the thrust levers at FLX or TOGA position. Remains engaged until 30 ft after T/Off.

Q.94

When does the RWY TRK mode engage? At 30 ft, RWY TRK is annunciated until the HDG/TRK knob is pulled.

Q.95 How can you cancel the HDG /TRK PRESET? The flight crew can cancel a preset HDG/TRK by: ‐ Engaging the NAV mode using the DIR TO ‐ Pushing in the HDG/TRK knob (arming NAV mode) ‐ Disengaging AP/FD.

Q.96 What is the Speed profile when NAV mode is engaged? If NAV mode is engaged, the SPD profile takes into account all the constraints linked to the flight plan. The SPD profile is: V2 - SPD LIM - SPD CSTR (if applicable) - ECON CLB SPD/MACH - ECON CRZ MACH - ECON or preset DES MACH/SPD -SPD LIM - SPD CSTR (if applicable) - HOLD SPD (if applicable) - VAPP.

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Q.97 What is the a/c Speed profile when NAV is not used in a particular flight completely? If NAV mode is not engaged, the SPD/MACH constraints are not considered. The SPD profile is: V2 - SPD LIM - ECON CLB SPD/MACH - ECON CRZ MACH - ECON or preset DES MACH/SPD - SPD LIM - VAPP. The managed speed/Mach target may be set below maneuvering speed but as long as the speed target is managed, the FMGS limits the aircraft to the maneuvering speed of the current slats/flaps configuration (VAPP, F, S, Green Dot). If the managed speed/Mach target is set above VMAX (VFE, VMO, MMO), the FMGS automatically limits the speed to VMAX. If a SPD/MACH constraint has already been taken into account, it remains applied (until a more restrictive constraint applies)

Q.98 What are the conditions in which NAV mode will engage? NAV mode engages: ‐ Automatically at 30 ft RA after takeoff (if armed on the ground) ‐ When the flight crew orders “DIR TO" (except below 700 ft RA in LOC mode) ‐ When the flight crew pushes in the HDG/TRK knob when the aircraft is close to (within ∼1 nm of) the active flight plan leg ‐ Automatically in flight when NAV is armed and the aircraft reaches the capture zone for the active flight plan leg.

Q.99 How to disengage the NAV Mode? The NAV mode disengages when: ‐ Any other lateral mode is engaged ‐ The flight plan is lost or the aircraft enters a flight plan discontinuity.

Q.100 How to disarm NAV Mode? NAV mode disarms if one of the following occurs: ‐ The flight crew pulls out the HDG/TRK knob ‐ The flight crew selects a preset HDG/TRK (TO or GA) ‐ The flight crew arms the LOC mode by pressing the LOC pb ‐ LAND mode has engaged ‐ The flight crew presses the APPR pb, if an XLS approach is selected.

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Q.101 If you pull out ALT knob, what will happen if you were in managed climb? The CLB mode is disarmed

Q.102 In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is above profile, what is A/THR mode and

what does A/P pitch channel control? THR IDLE SPEED of the a/c Q.103 In a managed DES mode, if aircraft is below profile, what is A/THR mode and

what does A/P pitch channel control? MACH / SPEED V/S of the a/c

Q.104 In DES mode, if speed is managed, target speed range is displayed on PFD and defines acceptable speed variations around the nominal descent speed target. True What happens when a/c is above the descent profile? What happens when a/c is below the descent profile?

Q.105 What do you mean by mode reversion? REVERSION AND AUTOMATIC SPEED PROTECTION MODES A mode reversion is when the AP and/or A/THR modes change automatically to ensure mode compatibility. The new mode is displayed on the FMA and depending upon the reversion, is sometimes accompanied by triple click. When a mode reversion occurs, the FMA should be announced in the normal manner. If required, take the appropriate action to correct the flight path. In some circumstances, to prevent an inappropriate speed trend, the AP may temporarily abandon a vertical speed target to prevent the speed from either reducing below VLS or from exceeding VMAX. In this case, the FMA modes do not change, however the V/S indication on the FMA pulses and is boxed amber, and a triple click is generated. TRIPLE CLICK

The “triple click” is an aural alert designed to draw the pilots attention to the FMA. The FMA highlights a mode change or reversion with a white box around the new mode, and the pulsing of its associated FD bar. The triple click aural alert also occurs in the following less common cases:

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  

Reversion to CLB (OP CLB) mode, if the pilot selects a speed on the FCU while in SRS. Inhibition of V/S mode engagement, if the pilot pulls the V/S knob while in ALT*. Automatic speed protection at VLS/VMAX if the V/S target is not followed because the selected target is too high.

Q.106 In climb, if you set FCU altitude below current a/c altitude, what will happen?

Q.107 In descend, if you set FCU altitude above current a/c altitude, what will happen?

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Q.108 MARK THE TRUE STATEMENTS: Once on ILS {LOC + G/S engaged}, ILS approach can be discontinued by pressing APPR P/b, if a/c is above 400 ft {by pressing APPR P/B.} …. True/false

Once on ILS {LOC + G/S engaged},if LOC or G/S signal is lost for more than 7 seconds and above 200ft RA, AP/FD disengages and FDs reengage in basic modes of {HDG V/S or TRK FPA} …. …. True/false

LAND Mode engages automatically when LOC and G/S Modes are engaged, and the a/c is below 400 feet RA. No action on FCU will disengage LAND Mode . …. True/false

LAND Mode disengages upon engagement of Go-Around Mode or if both AP/FDs are disengaged . …. True/false

With DES mode engaged and you extend speed brakes, descent rate of a/c will increase only if a/c is above profile …. True/false OP DES disregards all altitude constraints …..true/false OP DES disregards all constraints including speed…….false/true Pulling out V/S Knob or ALT Knob will disengage the EXPED mode …true/false Pushing EXPED knob again will not disengage the mode ….true/false

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Q.109 In hand flying { FDs On but AP off}, if a/c speed goes beyond VMAX+4, both FDs will disengage and A/THR will revert to SPEED if active and reduce the thrust to recover the speed.

Q.110 Same way, during descend, In hand flying {FDs On but AP off}, if a/c speed goes below VLS-2 kts, both FDs will disengage and A/THR will revert to SPEED if active and reduce the thrust to recover the speed.

Q.111 What happens during climb, when speed drops below VLS due to high V/S and V/S mode engaged?

Q.112 What happens during descend when speed increases above Vmax due to high V/S and V/S mode engaged?

Q.113 On what basis, FMGC computes its own automatic landing capabilities? e.g CAT1, CAT2, CAT3 SINGLE or CAT3 DUAL

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Q.114 What are the two ways to engage the OP DES? One by pulling out ALT selector In EXPED DES mode, if a speed is selected, OP DES will get engaged.

Q.115 ATC clears you to descend from FL 390 to FL210 and asks you to expedite. As such you use EXPED DES mode. Around passing FL 240, ATC asks you to slow down to 260 kt. When you select Speed to 260kt on FCU, This will cause FMA to change to THR IDLE / OP DES/ HDG or This will cause FMA to change to SPEED / VS / HDG

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Q.116 What are the conditions to engage Go Around mode? Setting at least one thrust lever to the TOGA detent engages both SRS/NAV modes, if: ‐ The flaps lever is at least in position 1, and ‐ The aircraft is in flight, or ‐ The aircraft has been on ground for less than 30 s (AP disengages and can be re-engaged 5 s after lift-off). FD bars are automatically restored in SRS/NAV modes. If FPV/FPD was previously selected, it reverts to FD bars. The FMA displays “SRS” and “NAV” in green. When the flight crew performs a go-around, the Speed Reference System (SRS) vertical guidance mode automatically engages. In addition: ‐ The NAV mode is automatically engaged or armed, except if HDG/TRK was preset.

Q.117 What would cause a red AUTOLAND light to illuminate below 200'? The auto land red warning flashes in LAND mode when the radio altitude goes below 200 ft and: ‐ The aircraft gets too far off the beam (LOC or GLIDE), or ‐ Both glide slope transmitters or receivers fail, or ‐ Both localizer transmitters or receivers fail, or ‐ The difference between both radio altimeter indications is greater than 15 ft, or ‐ Both autopilots fail.

Q.118 During the ROLL OUT mode of an auto land approach, how is nose wheel

steering controlled? By auto pilot

Q.119 When the roll bar is replaced by Yaw bar? The yaw bar is displayed in RWY mode on takeoff and in FLARE and ROLL OUT modes at landing.

Q.120 When are the pitch and roll bars visible? ‐ The pitch bar is displayed if a vertical mode is engaged. It gives pitch orders for the vertical guidance ‐ The roll bar is displayed if a lateral mode is engaged. It gives roll orders for lateral guidance. Just by engaging FDs, pitch and roll bars will not be visible.

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Q.121 When will Pitch FD bar flash permanently? Transmission of the GLIDE data is interrupted when in G/S, G/S* or LAND modes above 100 ft RA.

Q.122 When will Roll FD bar flash permanently? Transmission of the LOC data is interrupted when in LOC, LOC* or LAND modes above 15 ft RA.

Q.123 When do you get “CHECK WEIGHT MESSAGE”? What are you supposed to do if current gross weight on the MCDU is correct? The “CHECK WEIGHT” message appears on the MCDU when the Gross Weight (GW) computed by the FMGC and the GW computed by the FAC disagree by more than 7 t. When this message appears: FMS FOB......................................................................................................................CHECK CALL UP the MCDU FUEL PRED page and compare the FOB to the FOB from the Computerized F-PLN. Correct it if necessary. FMS ZFW value........................................................................................................... CHECK CALL UP the MCDU FUEL PRED page and compare the ZFW to the ZFW on the load sheet (ZFW + FOB). 

If the FMS ZFW on the MCDU is not correct: FMS ZFW........................................................................................... CORRECT/RE-INSERT The entry of a correct ZFW will clear the MCDU message.



If the FMS ZFW on the MCDU is correct: (VLS, F, S, GREEN DOT PFD).................................................................DISREGARD If the FMS GW is correct, the characteristic speeds computed by the FAC (displayed on PFD) are not correct. QRH OPERATING SPEEDS......................................................................................... USE Refer to QRH/FPE-SPD Speeds

Q.124 What will you do if you get spurious ENGINE OUT indications on the FM? If a spurious engine-out is detected: PROCEDURE: PRESS the EO CLR prompt of the MCDU PERF page RE-ENGAGE previous vertical mode RE-ENTER preselected speeds (if any). No other consequences are to be expected. CHAPTER 22

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Q.125 When will you say that A/THR is “Active”? The auto thrust is active when the ‐ The A/THR pb on the FCU lights up green, ‐ The FMA displays A/THR mode in green in the first column and "A/THR" in white in the fifth column. The position of the thrust levers determines whether A/THR is armed, active, or disconnected. i.e when both thrust levers will be between the CL and IDLE detents (two engines operative) for A/THR to be active.

Q.126 What is the range of thrust levers where A/THR is active? ‐ When the flight crew sets both thrust levers between the CL and IDLE detents (two engines operative), or ‐ When the flight crew sets one thrust lever between the MCT and IDLE detents (one engine inoperative).

Q.127 What does A/THR System perform when A/THR is active? The auto thrust system, when active: ‐ Maintains a specific thrust in THRUST mode ‐ Controls the aircraft speed or Mach in SPEED/MACH mode ‐ Uses ALPHA FLOOR mode to set maximum thrust when the aircraft angle of attack exceeds a specific threshold. The auto thrust system can operate independently or with the AP/FD: ‐ When performing alone, A/THR always controls the speed ‐ If the auto thrust system is working with the AP/FD, the A/THR mode and AP/FD pitch modes are linked together. {Refer to Interaction between AP/FD and A/THR Modes.}

Q.128 What happens if both thrust levers are set above CL detent in case of both engines in flight? While A/THR is active: ‐ When both thrust levers are set above the CL detent (both engines operative) or one thrust lever is set above MCT (one engine operative), the A/THR reverts from active to armed. “A/THR” turns to blue on the FMA and the thrust levers control thrust directly. The FMA displays "MAN THR” in white in its first column. The thrust levers provide the flight crew with an immediate increase of thrust when both thrust levers are pushed above the CL detent (two engines) or the active thrust lever above the MCT detent (one engine operative).

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Q.129 After Take-Off, once out of thrust reduction altitude, if you bring back the thrust levers to below CLB gate, what will happen? When both thrust levers are set below the CL detent (both engines operative) or one thrust lever is set below MCT (one engine operative), a repeating warning (amber caution, single chime, “A/THR LIMITED” ECAM message) is activated every 5 s until the flight crew moves the lever back into the detent. “LVR CLB” (both engines operative) or “LVR MCT” (one engine operative) flashes white in the first column of the FMA. This device reminds the flight crew that the normal operating position of the thrust levers, when A/THR active, is the CL detent (two engines) or the MCT detent (one engine operative).

Q.130 When will you see “LVR ASYM” amber message? When one thrust lever is in the CL detent and the other one out of detent, the “LVR ASYM” amber message comes up until both levers are set in the CL detent (only with both engines operative).

Q.131 You are about to perform a Take- Off but you realize that you have not inserted FLEX temperature. Can you still take off? Yes. Use TOGA

Q.132 While a/c in cruise, with the thrust lever in CLB gate, A/THR disconnects on its own. What will happen and what warning/message will be shown? The Thrust Lock function is activated when the thrust levers are in the CL detent. When the Thrust Lock function is active: ‐ “THR LK” flashes amber on the FMA ‐ ECAM “ENG THRUST LOCKED” flashes every 5 s ‐ ECAM displays “THR LEVERS......MOVE” ‐ A single chime sounds and the Master Caution light flashes every 5 s. The thrust is locked at its level prior to disconnection. Moving the thrust levers out of CL or MCT suppresses the thrust lock and gives the flight crew manual control with the thrust levers.

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Q.133 What is the meaning of “THR LK {flashing}”? The Thrust Lock function is active.

Q.134 Review the warnings / cautions when A/THR is disconnected by using instinctive disconnect p/b? MASTER CAUTION light illuminates for 3 s maximum ECAM MESSAGE of A/THR OFF in amber for 9 s maximum will appear. AUDIO Single chime CLR p/b on ECAM CONTROL PANEL will remain extinguished

Q.135 Review the warnings / cautions when A/THR is disconnected due some system failure? MASTER CAUTION light illuminates as long as not cleared. ECAM : Flashing ENG THRUST LOCKED amber caution, AUTO FLT A/THR OFF amber caution, blue "THR LEVERS.....MOVE" AUDIO Single chime CLR p/b on ECAM CONTROL PANEL will remain illuminated.

Q.136 What will happen if A/THR is disconnected by pressing instinctive p/b for more than 15 seconds? If the flight crew pushes and holds one instinctive disconnect pb for more than 15s, the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight. All A/THR functions including ALPHA FLOOR are lost, and they can be recovered only at the next FMGC power-up (on ground).

Q.137 If thrust levers are brought to idle when A/THR was active, what happens? A/THR is disconnected {Standard disconnection}

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Q.138 When will “A-FLOOR” be annunciated? Alpha-floor protection automatically sets the thrust at TOGA thrust, when the aircraft reaches a very high angle of attack. The Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) generates the signal that triggers the alpha-floor mode. This, in turn, sets TOGA thrust on the engines, regardless of the thrust lever positions “A-FLOOR” in amber box will be annunciated in A/THR col of FMA + on E/WD also. A/THR will get engaged in active mode, i.e. A/THR will be in white color. {“A FLOOR” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA, and in amber on the engine warning display, (as long as α-floor conditions are met)}

Q.139 When will “TOGA LK” be annunciated and how to cancel TOGA Lock? “TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber box on the FMA, when the aircraft leaves the α-floor conditions. TOGA thrust is frozen. To cancel ALPHA FLOOR or TOGA LK thrust, the flight crew must disconnect the auto thrust.

Q.140 With auto thrust active, what is the upper limit of the EPR target? CLB

Q.141 In which of the situations, Alpha-Floor protection is lost? ‐ Alpha-floor is lost under alternate or direct flight control law. ‐ Alpha-floor is lost when the FADECs are in N1 degraded mode. ‐ Alpha-floor is lost in engine-out, when slats/flaps are extended. Or If any time A/THR is lost If one AP is engaged with both FDs off, the AP engages in HDG-V/S or TRK-FPA mode. If the AP is engaged with at least one FD on, the AP engages in the current active mode. At AP engagement, the load thresholds on the side stick controllers and rudder pedals are increased. AP may be engaged in selected modes in case of dual FM failure. The AP will disengage when:

1. The take-over pb on side stick is pressed. 2. The corresponding AP pb switch on FCU is pressed. 3. A certain force is applied to the sidestick. 4. The other AP is engaged, except in GS, LOC or GA modes.

5. TLA above MCT detent with aircraft on the ground 6. When reaching MDA-50ft in APPR and a non-ILS selected. 7. If one of the engagement conditions is lost. 8. In NL: HSS or alpha prot active or AoB > 45°.

An Autoland red warning in LAND mode occurs for: 1. AP OFF <200ft 2. Excessive LOC deviation between 15 & 200ft 5. 15ft differential between RadAlts

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3. Excessive G/S deviation between 100 & 200ft 4. No data from ILS at < 200ft

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Q.142 What are the conditions when low energy warning (SPEED, SPEED, SPEED) will get activated? An aural low-energy “SPEED SPEED SPEED” warning, repeated every 5 s, warns the pilot that the aircraft’s energy level is going below a threshold under which he has to increase thrust, in order to regain a positive flight path angle through pitch control. It is available in Configuration 2, 3, and FULL.wih a/c below 2000 ft RA. The warning is inhibited when: ‐ TOGA is selected, or ‐ Below 100 ft RA, or ‐ Above 2 000 ft RA, or ‐ Alpha-floor, or the ground proximity warning system alert is triggered, or ‐ In alternate or direct law, or ‐ If both radio altimeters fail. During deceleration, the low-energy warning is triggered before alpha floor (unless alpha floor is triggered by stick deflection). The amount of time between the two warnings depends on the deceleration rate

Q.143 What are the conditions when “WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR WINDSHEAR” warnings are displayed on both PFDs? The FACs generate the windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold. The windshear detection function is provided by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) in takeoff and approach phase in the following conditions: ‐ At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1 300 ft RA ‐ At landing, from 1300 ft RA to 50 ft RA ‐ With at least CONF 1 selected. The warning consists of: ‐ A visual “WINDSHEAR” red message displayed on both PFDs for a minimum of 0 m ‐ An aural synthetic voice announcing “WINDSHEAR” three times.

Q.144 What is the Principle for generating Reactive Wind shear Warnings? In computing this energy level prediction, the FACs use data from different sources. From ADIRS comes data such as vertical speed, air and ground speeds and slope; From other sources come such derived parameters as total slope, longitudinal wind gradient, and vertical wind. The FACs expresses this energy level as an angle of attack and compares it

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with an angle-of-attack threshold above which wind shear conditions are most likely and pilot action is required.

Q.145 Is it true that there is no ECAM when     

Windshear warnings are activated? Low Energy warnings are activated? ILS capability is downgraded? Mode Reversion take place? GPS Primary is lost? …………….

TRUE for all…

Q.146 Must the flight director be on for the wind shear function of the FAC's to operate normally? Q.147 What is the minimum value which you can feed for Thrust reduction altitude (THR RED ALT) on Take-Off PERF page?

Q.148 Mark True / False about Alpha-Floor protection for each sentence: A. When Alpha-floor protection is activated, thrust will be set to TOGA value irrespective of any thrust lever position. …………………………………………. TRUE B. Alpha-floor protection is available from lift-off until a/c reaches 100 RA in approach. …………………….. TRUE C. In case of single engine, alpha-floor is available only in CLEAN CONFIG….TRUE. D. Alpha-floor is not available when slats / flaps are extended………. TRUE

Q.149 Mark True / False about wind-shear detection function for each sentence: A. Wind shear function is available at takeoff 3secs after liftoff until 1300 feet. It is not available just after T/O….. ……………………………………. TRUE B. At landing, it available from 1300 RA to 50 FT…………………. TRUE C. At least CONFIG 1 is required for this function to be available……. TRUE

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Something from LIMITATIONS for AUTO-FLT SYSTEMS:

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT FUNCTION FMGS lateral and vertical navigation has been certified for after takeoff, en route, and terminal area operations, for instrument approach procedures (except ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF and MLS), and for missed approach procedures. RNP accuracy with GPS PRIMARY, or radio updating, has been demonstrated to be: With AP ON in NAV

With AP OFF and FD ON in NAV

With AP OFF and FD OFF

En route

1 nm

1 nm

1.1 nm

In terminal area

0.5 nm

0.51 nm

0.51 nm

In approach

0.3 nm

0.3 nm

Not authorized

Without GPS PRIMARY (or GPS deselected or inoperative), the accuracy has been demonstrated, provided the appropriate RNP value is checked or entered on the MCDU, and HIGH accuracy is displayed.

Without GPS PRIMARY (or GPS deselected or inoperative), navigation accuracy is a function of ground radio NAVAID infrastructure, or elapsed time since the last radio update. The FMGS is also certified for navigation within BRNAV, PRNAV, RNP-4 and RNP-10 airspace. RNP 10 oceanic/remote area operations are approved with GPS PRIMARY, or without GPS PRIMARY (or GPS deselected or inoperative), provided time limitations in IRS only navigation (acceptable to operational authorities), are established. FMGS approval is based on the assumption that the navigation database has been validated for intended use. Obstacle clearance and adherence to airspace constraints remains the flight crew's responsibility. Fuel, time predictions/performance information is provided for advisory purposes only. NAV mode may be used after takeoff, provided FMGS runway updating has been checked. TAKEOFF IN GPS PRIMARY

For certain airports, where the difference between the local coordinate system and WGS 84 (geodesic standard used by GPS, FMS) is not negligible, an incorrect NAV guidance may occur after takeoff. GPS must be deselected for takeoff from these airports, until a safe altitude is reached.

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USE OF NAV AND FINAL APP MODES FOR NON-PRECISION APPROACH

NAV, or NAV and FINAL APP mode may be used for VOR, VOR/DME, NDB, NDB/DME or RNAV (including GPS) approach, but not for ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, SDF, or MLS final approach. For instrument procedures not coded in the WGS 84 coordinate system, the GPS must be deselected, unless the shift between the local coordinate system and the WGS 84 is found acceptable for the intended operation. Note: 1. The assesment of this shift can be done: ‐ In flight, monitoring the NAVAID raw data in non RNAV procedures, ‐ On ground performing a GPS survey of the procedure waypoints. 2. RNAV (GPS) and RNP RNAV approach procedures require WGS 84 coordinates and GPS. FINAL APP mode guidance capability with GPS PRIMARY has been demonstrated down to MDH/DH (barometric) 250 ft.

VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or NDB/DME approach procedures may be performed, in NAV, or NAV and FINAL APP mode, provided AP or FD is used, and: ‐ GPS PRIMARY is available. In this case, the reference NAVAID may be unserviceable, or the airborne radio equipment may be inoperative, or not installed, provided operational approval is obtained. ‐ Without GPS PRIMARY: • The reference NAVAID and the corresponding airborne equipment is serviceable, tuned, and monitored during the approach, or • The radio NAVAID coverage supports the RNP value, specified for the approach procedure, and an operational approval is obtained. For GPS approach, GPS PRIMARY must be available. RNAV approach without GPS PRIMARY may be performed only if the radio NAVAID coverage supports the RNP value and HIGH accuracy is displayed on the MCDU with the specified RNP, and operational approval is obtained. NAV mode may be used in the terminal area, provided: ‐ GPS PRIMARY is available, or ‐ HIGH accuracy is displayed, and the appropriate RNP is checked or entered on the MCDU, or ‐ NAVAID raw data is monitored.

CATEGORY II Minimum decision height...................................................................................................... 100 ft AGL At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA. If the flight crew performs an automatic approach without autoland, the autopilot must be disengaged no later than at 80 ft AGL. CATEGORY III FAIL PASSIVE (SINGLE) Minimum decision height.................................................................................................................50 ft At least one autopilot must be engaged in APPR mode, and CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA. A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed. CATEGORY III FAIL OPERATIONAL (DUAL) A/THR must be used in selected or managed speed. Alert height................................................................................................................................... 100 ft ‐ CAT III with DH : Minimum decision height.............................................................................................................25 ft

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2 autopilots must be engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA. ‐ CAT III without DH : 2 autopilots must be engaged in APPR mode and CAT 3 DUAL must be displayed on the FMA. Minimum Runway Visual Range................................................................................................ 75 m ENGINE OUT CAT II and CAT III fail passive autoland are only approved in configuration FULL, and if engine-out procedures are completed before reaching 1 000 ft in approach. MAXIMUM WIND CONDITIONS FOR CAT II OR CAT III AUTOMATIC APPROACH LANDING AND ROLL OUT 1 Headwind : 30 kt Tailwind : 10 kt Crosswind : 20 kt Note: Wind limitation is based on the surface wind reported by ATC. If the wind displayed on ND exceeds the above-noted autoland limitations, but the tower reports a surface wind within the limitations, then the autopilot can remain engaged. If the tower reports a surface wind beyond limitations, only CAT I automatic approach without autoland can be performed.

AUTOMATIC LANDING CAT II and CAT III autoland are approved in CONF 3 and CONF FULL. Automatic landing is demonstrated: ‐ With CAT II and CAT III ILS beam. ‐ With slope angle within (-2.5 °, -3.15 °) range. ‐ At or below the maximum landing weight. ‐ For airport elevation at or below 6 500 ft. ‐ At approach speed (VAPP) = VLS + wind correction. Minimum wind correction 5 kt, maximum wind correction 15 kt. Automatic rollout performance has been approved on dry and wet runways, but performance on snow-covered or icy runways has not been demonstrated.

AUTOMATIC LANDING IN CAT I OR BETTER WEATHER CONDITIONS The automatic landing system’s performance has been demonstrated on runways equipped with CAT II or CAT III ILS/MLS approaches. However, automatic landing in CAT I or better weather conditions is possible on CAT I ground installations or on CAT II/III ground installations when ILS/MLS sensitive areas are not protected, if the following precautions are taken: ‐ The airline has checked that the ILS/MLS beam quality and the effect of terrain profile before the runway have no adverse effect on AP/FD guidance. In particular, the effect of terrain discontinuities within 300 m before runway threshold must be evaluated. ‐ The crew is aware that LOC or GS beam fluctuations, independent of the aircraft systems, may occur and the PF is prepared to immediately disconnect the AP and take appropriate action, should unsatisfactory guidance occur. ‐ At least CAT2 capability is displayed on the FMA, and CAT II/III procedures are used. ‐ Visual references are obtained at an altitude appropriate to the performed CAT I approach, otherwise go–around is initiated.

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INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEM

INDICATING & RECORDING SYSTEM Q.1

How many EFIS {Electronic Flight Instrument System} display units are installed? {EFIS displays are PFD /NDs}

Q.2

How many ECAM display units are installed? {ECAM Display units are E/WD and SD}

Q.3

What happens if there is a case of Dual FWC Fault? {What are the functions of The Flight Warning Computers (FWCs)}? ECAM cautions and warnings, aural warnings, master caution and warning lights are lost. ECAM system pages are still available. Therefore cockpit panels must be monitored for local warnings and ECAM system pages must be regularly called for system checks. ECAM WARN + ALTI ALERT + STATUS + A/CALL OUT + MEMO are lost.

Q.4

Review single SDAC Fault? It’s a Crew Awareness and Although the ECAM may display some symbols and/or parameters in amber, this does not always signify that additional systems are failed.

Q.5

Review Dual SDAC Fault? {What is the function of the System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs)?} Amber cautions are lost. Aircraft status on the ECAM STATUS page is lost. Only red warnings, engine and fuel parameters, and slat/flap positions are available on the upper ECAM DU. MONITOR OVERHEAD PANEL

Q.6

Is it true that In case of Dual FWC failures, all MC / MW / ECAM warnings and Cautions are lost? Yes

Q.7

Is it true that In case of Dual SDAC, only amber cautions are lost? Yes

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Q.8

How many DMC's are there? Three

Q.9

What is the basic role of the DMCs? or Is it true that the three Display Management Computers (DMCS) acquire and process all input from airplane sensors and computers to generate the display images. Yes

In normal operation: DMC1 drives Capt side PFD, ND, and ECAM DUs. DMC2 drives F/O side PFD, and ND. DMC3 is on standby, ready to drive any DU. If any of DMC1 or DMC2 fails, crew manually selects the DMC 3 with the help of EIS DMC selector. DMC3 will not come automatically online to back up the failed DMC. If DMC1 fails, DMC2 will automatically drives the ECAM.

Q.10

After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units? By following ECAM, use EIS DMC switching selector to CAPT 3 position.

Q.11

How will crew know if there is a DMC1 fail? As DMC1 drives Capt. side PFD, ND, and ECAM DUs, there will be a message “INVALID DATA” on all these DUs.

Q.12

Is it true that in case of DMC Failure, “INVALID DATA” message is displayed on the related DUs? Yes

Q.13

When should you term DU as a failure? If a DU fails, the flight crew may find one of the following displays: ‐ A blank screen with an “F” letter in amber, or ‐ A distorted display, or ‐ A blank screen with the “INVALID DISPLAY UNIT” message in amber.

Q.14

Is it true that even if a DU is switched off, it is equivalent to a failure? Yes

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Q.15

Is it true that in case of EFIS DUs, PFD has a priority over ND? Yes

Q.16

Is it true that if the PFD display fails or is switched off, the PFD automatically replaces the ND display unit? Yes

Q.17

Is it true that in case of ECAM DUs, E/WD has priority over SD? Yes

Q.18

Is it true that if the upper ECAM display fails or is switched off, the engine/warning page automatically replaces the system/status page on the lower ECAM display unit? Yes

Q.19

When you see E/WD at the bottom DU and SD at the top DU, how will you restore E/WD & SD to correct configuration? Switch off both DUs and switch on top display first and then bottom display.

Q.20

The upper ECAM Display Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the ELECT page. How can you see it? The flight crew can display the system/status page by: ‐ Using the “ECAM/ND XFR“ switch, on the SWITCHING panel, to move it to a Navigation Display Unit (NDU), or ‐ Pushing and holding (for a maximum of 3 min) the related system page pushbutton, on the ECAM control panel, to temporarily display it on the lower ECAM DU (instead of the engine/warning page).

Q.21

Both ECAM screens have failed. Is it possible to get E/WD indications? If both ECAM displays fail, the flight crew may: ‐ Use the "ECAM/ND XFR", on the SWITCHING panel, to display the engine/warning page on a navigation display and, if needed, ‐ Push and hold (for a maximum of 3 min) the related system page pushbutton, on the ECAM control panel, to temporarily display the system/status page on an ND.

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Q.22

What do you mean by FEEDBACK MESSAGE? The DU displays the following messages in amber when the Display Management Computer (DMC) detects a discrepancy between the parameters obtained by the DMC and the operational parameters displayed on the DU: ”CHECK CAPT PFD” (“CHECK F/O PFD”) if the discrepancy concerns the PFD parameters ”CHECK CAPT ND” (“CHECK F/O ND”) if the discrepancy concerns the ND parameters ”CHECK EWD” if the discrepancy concerns the E/WD parameters ”CHECK SD” if the discrepancy concerns the SD parameters.

Q.23

What happens, when a discrepancy between the signal obtained by DMC (and sent to the DU) and the operational parameter displayed on the DU (in the form of feedback signal) is detected? A message is generated which is called as FEEDBACK MESSAGE.

Q.24

Is it true that FEEDBACK Messages are displayed on the permanent data area of SD also along with affected PFD /ND /EWD /SD? Yes

Q.25

What are the SIDE1/SIDE2 DISCREPANCY MESSAGES? The DU displays the following messages along with a caution on the ECAM E/WD when there is a discrepancy between the parameters displayed on the Captain’s EFIS and the First Officer’s EFIS: ‐ Both PFDs display the message “CHECK ATT” if there is a discrepancy of at least 5 ° between the attitude values, pitch and/or roll ‐ Both PFDs display the message “CHECK ALT” if there is a discrepancy between the altitude values greater than 250 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH different from STD, or 500 ft when the flight crew selects a QNH STD ‐ Both PFDs and NDs display the message “CHECK HDG” if there is a discrepancy of at least 5 ° between the heading values.

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Q.26

Is it true that DISCREPANCY MESSAGE will come with ECAM where as FEEDBACK MESSAGE will not come with ECAM. True

Q.27

Do the “Check ATT” Messages appear on both PFDs at the same time? Yes

Q.28

If there is a discrepancy of at least 5 degrees between the heading values, a message of “CHECK HDG” is displayed: Yes How many levels of failures are issued by ECAM? What are they? Level 3 Level 2 Level 1 Advisory

Q.29

Q.30

What is a “Level 3” failure? Give two examples. It’s a failure in which following warnings are issued: Red warning: The configuration or failure requires immediate action: ‐ Aircraft in dangerous configuration, or limit flight conditions (eg: stall, o/speed) ‐ System failure altering flight safety Associated with Repetitive Chime (CRC) or specific sound or synthetic voice ‐ MASTER WARN light red flashing or specific red light ‐ Warning message (red) on E/WD. ‐ Automatic call of the relevant system page on the S/D. (eg : Eng fire, excess cab alt)

Q.31

What is a “Level 2” failure? Give two examples. It’s a failure in which following cautions are issued: Amber caution : The flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure, but does not need to take any immediate action. However, time and situation permitting, these cautions should be considered without delay to prevent any further degradation of the affected system: ‐ System failure without any direct consequence on the flight safety (eg: HYD G SYS LO PR) Associated with Single Chime (SC) ‐ MASTER CAUT light amber steady ‐ Caution message (amber) on E/WD ‐ Automatic call of the relevant system page on the S/D

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Q.32

What is a “Level 1” failure? Give two examples. It’s a failure in which following cautions are issued: Amber caution: Requires crew monitoring: ‐ Failures leading to a loss of redundancy or system degradation (eg : FCDC fault) No audio will be generated + no Master Caution ‐ Caution message (amber) on E/WD generally without procedure.

Q.33

What is an “Advisory”? Give two examples. System parameters monitoring + No Aural + Automatic call of the relevant system page on the S/D. The affected parameter pulses green. The relevant system page automatically appears, when a parameter drifts out of its normal Range, The value (shown in green) pulses, as long as it is outside its limits. • The advisory mode is inhibited in some flight phases.

Q.34

What is the priority rule for the levels of warnings and cautions are concerned? There are three priority levels for warnings and cautions: - A level 3 warning has priority over a level 2 caution which has priority over a level 1 caution. The FWC observes these priorities.

Q.35

During cruise, on SD the CRUISE page disappears, a system page appears and a parameter is found pulsing. What does it mean? This is an advisory and you have to monitor the pulsing parameter. There may be some QRH Procedure for this situation.

Q.36

What does a pulsing green engine parameter indicate? An Advisory Situation

Q.37

There are three types of failures: Independent, Primary and Secondary. What is an Independent failure? A failure that affects an isolated system or item of equipment without degrading the performance of others in the aircraft.

Q.38 What is a Primary Failure? A failure of a system or an item of equipment that costs the aircraft the use of other systems or items of equipment.

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Q.39

What is a Secondary Failure? The loss of a system or an item of equipment resulting from a primary failure.

Q.40

Give two examples of:  Independent failure: 

Primary failure:



Secondary failure:

Q.41

Is it true that In the case of ELECT EMER CONFIG, secondary failures are inhibited on E/WD. YES

Q.42

With every warning and caution, some kind of Audio is generated. What is the meaning of o o o o o

CRC: CONTINUOUS REPETITIVE CHIME for Red Warnings SC: SINGLE CHIME for Amber Cautions CAVALRY CHARGE: A/P DISCONNECTION BY TAKE OVER p/ b or by failures CRICKET: In case of STALL CONTINOUS BUZZER: for SELCAL CALL

Q.43

Is it true that with the help of EMER CANC p/b, pilot can cancel any audio indication? YES, the pilot can cancel any audio indicator, by pressing the EMER CANC p/b on the ECAM control panel

Q.44

Is it true that with the help of MASTER WARN p/b, any audio can be cancelled except for OVERSPEED or L/G NOT DOWN? Yes

Q.45

Is it true that SELCAL CONTINUOUS BUZZER can even be cancelled by MASTER CAUTION p/b? Yes

Q.46

What is displayed on upper part of E/WD? Engine parameters like EPR / EGT / N1/ N2 / FF/ EPR Limit Box Slats / Flaps indications FOB

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Q.47

What is displayed on the lower part of the E/WD? Memos and check list etc.

Q.48

What is the meaning of flight phase inhibition? To improve its operational efficacy, the computer inhibits some warnings and cautions for certain flight phases. It does so to avoid alerting the pilots unnecessarily at times when they have high workloads, such as during takeoff or landing. In these two phases, the DU displays magenta memos: “T.O. INHIBIT” (flight phases 3, 4, and 5), and “LDG INHIBIT” (flight phases 7 and 8).

Q.49

Where would a failure message and the associated checklist appear? in the lower part of the E/WD.

Q.50

Is it true that some action lines do not disappear from the E/WD even after the flight crew performs the necessary actions? Yes

Q.51

When does a green arrow does appear at the bottom of the display E/WD? Symbol displayed if data overflows the left or right area.

Q.52

FWC divides its functions according to ten flight phases. What is the meaning of:

    

Phase 1: Phase 4: Phase 5: Phase 8: Phase 9:

Q.53

When is T.O. INHIBIT active? “T.O. INHIBIT” is active in flight phases 3, 4, and 5.

Q.54

When is LDG. INHIBIT active? “LDG INHIBIT “is active in flight phases 7 and 8.

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Q.55

Is it true that If a failure occurs before inhibit phase, it is kept displayed even during inhibit phase. Yes

But, if failure occurs in inhibit phase, it is displayed once inhibit is over. Q.56

Is it true that Even if a failure message is inhibited, pilot can recall it by pressing RCL Yes

Q.57

Is it true that Memos appear in the lower part of the E/WD.? They are normally in green, but may be amber in abnormal situations. Yes

Q.58

Is it true that during the takeoff and landing phases, the right side of the memo area displays specific TO INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT (magenta) memos? Yes

Q.59

When does TO Memo appear? When does it disappear? The T.O Memo appears 2 min after second Engine start or after one engine start, if you press T.O CONFIG Test p/b. It disappears at TO Power application.

Q.60

When does LDG Memo appear? When does it disappear? LDG Memo appears below 2000 ft. and it disappears after touch down below 80 kts.

Q.61

What is the meaning of CONFIG WARNINGs? A set of warnings and cautions appear in the lower part of the E/WD if the aircraft is not in takeoff configuration when the flight crew presses the TO CONFIG pushbutton on the ECAM control panel or applies takeoff power.

Q.62

What configuration discrepancies will not trigger an ECAM warning or caution until takeoff thrust is applied? CONFIG PARK BRK ON (R) ENG FLEX THR LEVERS NOT SET (A)

Q.63

What are displayed on the lower ECAM display unit? ‐ Pages showing synoptic diagrams of the aircraft systems, or ‐ The status page.

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Q.64

In what conditions, SD pages are displayed automatically? The system may automatically display a page. Related to a failure: The relevant system page automatically appears, as soon as any fault or malfunction triggers a caution or warning message. Related to an advisory: • The relevant system page automatically appears, when a parameter drifts out of its normal range. • The value (shown in green) pulses, as long as it is outside its limits. • The advisory mode is inhibited in some flight phases. Related to flight phase mode: If no other mode is engaged, the SD displays the system page related to the present flight Phase. e.g. The F/CTL page replaces the WHEEL page for 20 s when either pilot moves his sidestick (more than 3 ° in pitch or roll) or when the rudder pedal deflection is more than 22 ° or The APU page appears when the APU MASTER switch is ON. It disappears when APU RPM has been above 95 % for 10 s, or when the APU MASTER switch is switched OFF. Or The ENGINE page appears at the beginning of start sequence or when a pilot selects “CRANK”. It disappears 10 s after the end of the start sequence, when the ENG MODE sel is set to NORM.

Q.65

What indications appear when the SD is displaying the CRUISE page? CRZ page

Q.66

Which of the system page is displayed on ECAM during TAXI? WHEEL Page

Q.67

During Engine start, when will Engine page is displayed? The moment you put ENG MODE SEL to IGN / START.

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Q.68

After engine start, when you put mode selector back to “NORM” which page is displayed? WHEEL Page

Q.69

When do you get CRUISE SD page after take-off? Above 1500 ft when THR LVR at CLB gate and F / S are retracted.

Q.70

What is STATUS page? The status page displays an operational summary of the aircraft status after the SD has displayed a failure.

Q.71

When does STATUS Page appear? The STATUS page automatically appears, once the crew has cleared all the pages corresponding to the current failure. The STATUS page also appears automatically during descent, when the slats are extended, unless the page is empty.

Q.72

On a bottom of the STATUS page, what does the green arrow mean? Symbol displayed if data overflows the left or right area. The pilot scrolls the display to view overflow by pressing the CLR pushbutton.

Q.73

After the engine shutdown, you observe a pulsing STS message. What does it mean? If the STATUS page holds messages in the MAINTENANCE, part on engine shutdown, the “STS” (status reminder) flashes on the E/WD screen. The screen displays the MAINTENANCE, only when the aircraft is on ground, before engine start-up or after engine shutdown (Phases 1 and 10).

Q.74

What are the PERMANENT DATA? Temperature The screen displays the Total Air Temperature (TAT) and Static Air Temperature (SAT) in green. G LOAD The screen displays the load factor (G LOAD) in amber, when the value is above 1.4 g or below 0.7 g. UTC GW

Q.75

Is it true that Load factor {G LOAD} in amber is displayed when value is more than 1.4g or less than .7 g Yes

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Q.76

Is it true that Feedback messages take priority over load factor indication? Yes

Q.77

Is it true that The SD displays the Gross Weight (GW) in green as soon as the second engine is started? Yes

Q.78

Is it true that as soon as the first engine is started. The last two digits are dashed if accuracy is degraded.. On ground, the indication is replaced by blue dashes, if no computed data is available. Yes

Q.79

Is it true that If a parameter value on any SD page is not available for display, amber crosses "XX" appear instead of the value. Yes

Q.80

Once the crewmember has completed viewing a specific system, what is the correct procedure for clearing the screen and returning it to a normal presentation? Press CLR to return to normal view.

Q.81

When should the EMER CANC push button be used? This pushbutton should only be used to suppress spurious MASTER CAUTIONS.

Q.82

You have cancelled a caution message on E/WD, with the help of EMER CANC p/b. If you want to see it back, how will you display it back? The pilot may restore it manually by pressing the RCL p/b for more than 3 s.

Q.83

Is it true that Red warning message on E/WD cannot be cancelled by EMER CANC p/b. Yes

In case of single ECAM display: If an ECAM warning / caution is triggered, the relevant system page is not displayed automatically nor its system page p/b lights up. If an advisory condition arises, the relevant system page is not displayed automatically but its system page p/b light pulses. To see the system page, pilot has to push and hold p/b for upto 3min.

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Q.84

Is it true that CLR p/b remains lighted as long as E/WD is displaying a Warning or caution/Status page? Yes

Q.85

How can the ILS 1 FAULT be restored from being a CANCELLED CAUTION? The pilot may restore it manually by pressing the RCL pb for more than 3 s.

Q.86

Is it true that If the ECAM control panel fails, the CLR, RCL, EMER CANC, and ALL pushbutton switches are still functioning? Yes

Q.87

Which statement is true about the use of the ALL key on the ECAM Control Panel? When you press the ALL key, all the systems pages are displayed in succession. When you press the ALL key, you cannot stop at a particular systems page until all have been displayed. The ALL key is not operable in case of failure of the ECAM Control Panel.

Q.88

Function of ECAM/ND XFR rotary selector? ECAM/ND XFR rotary selector Transfers the system/status display to either the Captain's or the First Officer's ND. The “ECAM ON ND” message is displayed on the lower ECAM display. Note: If both ECAM DUs (E/WD and SD) fail, the flight crew may use this switch to transfer the E/WD display to either navigation display. In this case, the “ECAM ON ND” message is not displayed.

Q.89

When will Master Warning or Master Caution light will disappear? These lights go out when : ‐ One pilot presses the light (except for some red warnings, such as the over speed and stall warnings) ‐ The warning/caution situation is over ‐ The pilot presses the CLR pb on the ECAM control panel (except for some red warnings, such as the over speed and stall warnings). ‐ The pilot presses the EMER CANC pb on the ECAM control panel.

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NAVIGATION SYSTEM

NAVIGATION SYSTEM Q.1

What information is supplied by the ADR’s? The ADR part (Air Data Reference) which supplies barometric altitude, airspeed, mach, angle of attack, temperature and over-speed warnings.

Q.2

What information is supplied by the IR's? The IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed and aircraft position.

Q.3

What do you understand by ADMs in ADIR System? ADMs means Air Data Modules, which convert pneumatic data from PITOT and STAT probes into numerical data for the ADIRUs. These are eight for A320 a/c.

Q.4

Which of the probes supply to ADIRU No.1? CAPT probes

Q.5

Which of the probes supply to ADIRU No.2? F/O probes

Q.6

Which of the probes supply to ADIRU No.3? STBY probes and CAPT TAT

Q.7

There are two types of ADIRS Panels. What are the differences between the two? On older ADIRS Panels, IR light has FAULT & ALIGN indications whereas on new ADIRS Panel, it is changed to PB – SW and has FAULT / OFF indications. On older ADIRU panels, DATA selector knob / SYS selector knob / Display / Keyboard are installed whereas on new types of ADIRS Panels these are removed.

Q.8

What is the meaning of ADR FAULT light? This amber light comes on with an ECAM caution if a fault is detected in the air data reference part.

Q.9

What is the meaning of steady IR FAULT light? This amber light comes on with an ECAM caution when a fault affects the respective IR.it can be steady or flashing. Steady: The respective IR is lost.

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Q.10 What is the meaning of flashing IR FAULT light? The attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT mode. What is the meaning of flashing ALIGN light on ADIRU Panel? IR alignment fault, or No present position entry after 10 min, or Difference between position at shutdown and entered position exceeds 1 ° of latitude or longitude.

Q.11 When does ON BAT light come on? Comes on amber when one or more IRs is supplied only by the A/C battery. It also comes on for a few sec at the beginning of the alignment, but not for a fast realignment.

Q.12 Will the ON BAT light come on if fast alignment is done? No

Q.13 What happens if one of the Mode Rotary Selector is left in the NAV or ATT position when a/c is parked and a/c supply is only on BAT? An external horn sounds ‐ The ADIRU and AVNCS light comes on amber on the EXTERNAL POWER panel What happens when ADR p/b is selected OFF? Air data output disconnected

Q.14 How will you determine the discrepancy If you get an ECAM of NAV HDG DISCREPANCY? Compare the 3 IR headings on ADIRS CDU {old panels} or on MCDU {new panels} or crosscheck with standby compass.

Q.15 Which procedure has to be applied first, in case of simultaneous failure of ADR and IR {same ADIRU}? In case of simultaneous failure of ADR and IR (same ADIRU), apply ADR FAULT procedure before IR FAULT procedure.

Q.16 Why the ECAM action calls for BARO REF CHECK in case of ADR2 FAULT only? If ADR 2 fails, both baro reference channels are driven by the same FCU channel. Consequently the baro reference displays must be checked.

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Q.17 Is it true that predictive functions of GPWS are inhibited in case of ADR1 FAULT? Yes, The predictive functions of the GPWS are inhibited & GPWS TERR FAULT light comes on, As such, the GPWS TERR pb-sw should be switched OFF

Q.18 What is the effect of ADR 1 + 3 FAULT on landing gear operation? In case of an ADR 1+3 FAULT, the landing gear safety valve is controlled closed: ‐ Landing gear retraction is inoperative ‐ Landing gear extension must be performed by gravity. In case of Total Loss of ADRs, ECAM does not display the procedure; you have to follow QRH Procedure, Control of Cabin pressurization has to be manual, Use rudder with care above 160 kts, Landing gear extension must be performed with gravity, Review GO-Around procedure,

Q.19 Is it true that there are separate procedures for ADR DISAGREE and IR DISAGREE? Yes

Q.20 In what conditions will you suspect unreliable speed indications? Unreliable speed indication may be due to radome damage, or due to air probe failure or obstruction. The indicated altitude may also be affected, if static probes are affected. Unreliable speed cannot be detected by the ADIRU. Unreliable speed indications may be suspected, either by: ‐ Speed discrepancies (between ADR 1, 2, 3, and standby instruments). ‐ Fluctuating or unexpected increase/decrease/steady indicated speed, or pressure altitude. ‐ Abnormal correlation of the basic flight parameters (speed, pitch attitude, thrust, climb rate). ‐ Abnormal AP/FD/ATHR behavior. ‐ STALL warning, or OVERSPEED warnings, that contradicts with at least one of the indicated speeds. • Rely on the stall warning that could be triggered in alternate or direct law. It is not affected by unreliable speeds, because it is based on angle of attack. • Depending on the failure, the OVERSPEED warning may be false or justified. Buffet,

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associated with the OVERSPEED VFE warning, is a symptom of a real overspeed condition. ‐ Inconsistency between radio altitude and pressure altitude. ‐ Reduction in aerodynamic noise with increasing speed, or increase in aerodynamic noise with decreasing speed. ‐ Impossibility of extending the landing gear by the normal landing gear control.

Q.21 What are the memory items in case of “UNRELIABLE SPEED INDCATION PROCEDURE”? AP/FD.................................................................................... OFF A/THR................................................................................... OFF PITCH/THRUST: Below THRUST RED ALT....................................................15° / TOGA Above THRUST RED ALT and Below FL 100......................10° / CLB Above THRUST RED ALT and Above FL 100......................5° / CLB FLAPS..................................................................................Maintain current CONFIG SPEEDBRAKES...................................................................Check retracted L/G........................................................................................UP When at, or above MSA or Circuit Altitude: Level off for troubleshooting.

Q.22 What is the difference between ATT position of the Mode Selector on ADIRS CDU and the ATT HDG Selector on Switching Panel? ATT : IR mode supplying only attitude and heading information, if the system loses its ability to navigate. The heading must be entered through the CDU / MCDU keyboard and has to be reset frequently (about every 10 min) whereas ATT HDG sel. ON Switching Panel at Pedestal has function to replace faulty IR by IR3. NORM: ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1, RMI and VOR/DME. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2, and ND2. CAPT 3: IR 3 replaces IR 1. F/O 3: IR 3 replaces IR 2.

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Q.23 What do you understand by a pulsing green “IRS IN ALIGN X MIN” memo? ”IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo appears during IRS alignment in phase 1 & 2. X MN indicates the number of minutes remaining (1 < X < 10), until NAV mode is reached. Before any engine is started, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo: ▪ Appears in green when at least one active IRS is being aligned, ▪ Pulses in green if the alignment of one IRS is faulty.

When one engine is started, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo appears in amber during IRS alignment. If the alignment of one IRS is faulty, “IRS IN ALIGN X MN” memo is replaced by the “IR NOT ALIGNED” ECAM caution.

Q.24 When will “IR IN ATT ALIGN” appear? ”IR IN ATT ALIGN” appears in green during the IR alignment in Attitude mode.

Q.25 What are the major limitations of dual IR FAULT? Attitude information is lost on one side (Captain or first officer).

Q.26 For slats/flaps retraction, which area of BACK-UP SPEED SCALE is recommended in case of ALL ADR OFF checklist? Fly within the green area of the speed scale to ensure safe flight. For slats/flaps retraction, it is better to fly at the top of the green area of the speed scale.

Q.27 For slats/flaps extension, which area of BACK-UP SPEED SCALE is recommended in case of ALL ADR OFF checklist? Before extending the slats/flaps, it is better to fly at the bottom of the speed scale green area, and to be in straight flight.

Q.28 Will STALL Warnings be associated with ECAM Message? No

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Q.29 What does the ECAM NAV FM/ GPS DISAGREE caution mean to you? The FMS and GPS positions differ by more than: ‐ A longitude threshold that depends on the latitude: • 0.5 min for latitude below 55 ° • 0.9 min for latitude at, or above, 55 °, and below 70 ° ‐ A latitude threshold of 0.5 min, regardless of the latitude. If the above message comes during LOC approach, what will be your decision? DISREGARD it.

Q.30 What are your actions if the above message appears in climb? CHECK navigation accuracy, using raw data. If the check is positive: NAV mode and ND ARC/ROSE NAV may be used. If the check is negative: HDG/TRK mode and raw data must be used If the message occurs during a non-precision approach: Overlay approach: SELECT HDG, or TRK, and use raw data. GPS or RNAV approach: GO AROUND or fly visual, if visual conditions are met.

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TUNING OF NAVAIDS: Q.31 In case of normal operations, FMGC 1 tunes no1 side of navaids automatically while FMGC 2 tunes no 2 side of navaids. If FMGC1 fails, how is tuning of no1 side is achieved?

Q.32 Does the other automatic functions of FMGC are interrupted, when MCDU is used to override the auto selection or auto tuning of navaid?

Q.33 If you were busy in tuning a navaid through RMP1, and if there is a call from ATC on VHF1, how will you answer?

Q.34 Is it true that a) To tune ILS1 from RMP2, in case of both FMGC failures, you will have to select NAV backup on both RMPs. b) To tune ILS2 from RMP1, you will have to select NAV backup on both RMPs, in case of both FMGC failure. c) If you set RMP 1 to NAV backup mode, navaid tuning from both FMGCs are removed d) RMP 3 is not used for navaids tuning? e) RMP1 controls VOR1 & ADF1 whereas RMP2 controls only VOR 2 in case of back tuning with both FMGC failures? f) PFD 2 will show ILS1 only if LS p/b is pressed. g) ND will show ADF or VOR1/VOR2 information depending upon the position of the ADF / VOR selector on the EFIS control panel. h) When crew uses an RMP to tune an ILS, the PFD does not display the DME distance.

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ATC TRANSPONDER:

Q.35 Is it true that ADIRS 2 is supplying altitude data for altitude reporting when ATC TRANSPONDER 2 is in use? Yes

Q.36 Which of the ADRs data are transmitted by ATC TRANSPONDER to ground? The ATC transponder is capable of enhanced surveillance: It transmits the following parameters upon ground request: ‐ Indicated airspeed, Mach number, and baro vertical speed, that are all supplied by the ADRs. ‐ Selected altitude and barometric reference settings supplied by the FCUs.

Q.37 Which of the IRs data are transmitted by ATC TRANSPONDER to ground? ‐ Magnetic heading, roll angle, ground speed, track angle, track angle rate, and inertial vertical speed, that are all supplied by the IRs.

Q.38 In which of the modes does ATC Transponder work, if ATC Mode Sel is in AUTO, while a/c on ground? Selected transponder only operates in mode S (Selective aircraft interrogation mode).

Q.39 What happens to TCAS if ALT RPTG s/w is OFF? No altitude data transmission. If the TCAS is installed, the upper ECAM displays "TCAS STBY" in green.

Q.40 What happens to TCAS if ATC Mode Sel is in STBY? "TCAS STBY"

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Weather Radar:

Q.41 If GAIN Knob is out of CAL position, which function of the radar is lost? Path Attenuation Compensation

Q.42 Is it true that even with SYS s/w at off for radar, predictive wind shear function is available if PWS s/w is at AUTO? Yes

Q.43 Is it true that if ATC selector is at STBY, predictive wind shear function is not available? Yes

Q.44 What are the conditions when PWS function operates? Activates the predictive wind shear function: wind shear areas are detected by antenna scanning below 2 300 ft RA, even if the SYS switch is set to OFF. They are displayed on the ND, if below 1 500 ft. or The weather radars have a Predictive Wind shear System (PWS) that operates when: ‐ The PWS switch is in the AUTO position (Even if the weather radar is OFF), and ‐ The aircraft is below 2 300 ft AGL, and ‐ The ATC is switched to the ON, or AUTO position, and ‐ Either engine is running.

Q.45 Is it true that wind shear alerts from PWS is for the range of 5 NM ahead of a/c only? Yes, only for 5 nm ahead of the a/c.

Q.46 Can you get wind shear alerts due to PWS at around V1? At takeoff, alerts are inhibited above 100 kt and up to 50 ft so such alerts will not generate.

Q.47 Is it correct to say that PWS Alerts have priority over TCAS, GPWS or other FWC aural warnings? Yes.

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Q.48 Soon after take-off, reactive wind shear alerts are generated and you get “WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR WIND SHEAR”. Can you get simultaneously PWS alerts also at the same time? No, as at that time PWS alerts are inhibited.

Q.49 When can “PRED W/S OFF” Memo turn amber? The “PRED W/S OFF” message appears, when wind shear is set to OFF on the weather radar panel. The “PRED W/S OFF”, message appears in green during flight phases 1, 2, 6 and 10. It appears in amber: ‐ In flight phases 3, 4, 5, 7, 8, and 9 ‐ When the T.O. CONFIG p/b is pressed during phase 2.

Q.50 Which of the ND Mode should be selected to receive the weather picture? Except for PLAN.

Q.51 Is there any change of display for tilt angle on ND if MULTISCAN toggle switch is moved from AUTO to MAN? The value of the tilt angle is in degrees, and quarters of a degree. It appears in the lower right corner of the screen: • In green, when the MULTISCAN sw is set to AUTO. This value represents the average of the lower and the upper beam tilts. • In blue, next to the blue “MAN” indication, when the flight crew sets the MULTISCAN sw to MAN. The tilt angle is the angle between the horizon and the radar beam axis.

Q.52 What is the message displayed to the crew if MULTISCAN function is lost in AUTO? When the multiscan function is lost, the tilt value is dashed and the “NO AUTO TILT” message appears in amber on the ND, until the flight crew sets the MULTISCAN sw to MAN.

Q.53 Is PAC function available when Mode selector is at TURB position on Wx Radar panel? No. When the flight crew sets the weather radar mode to WX or WX + T, and sets the gain to CAL, and when the aircraft is within 80 nm of a thunderstorm, the Path Attenuation Compensation (PAC) alert is available. CHAPTER 34

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Q.54 Can PAC Alert be indicated for cells in the range of 100-130 NM from a/c? No, within 80 nm of a thunderstorm, the Path Attenuation Compensation (PAC) alert is available.

Q.55 What should be the position of Mode selector on Wx Radar panel to receive PAC Alerts? At Wx or Wx + T

Q.56 What are the PWS related alerts in approach? They are warnings. Audio : «GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD» On PFD: W/S AHEAD (red) On ND: Wind shear icon

Q.57 What are the PWS related alerts in Take-off? They are warnings. Audio : «WINDSHEAR AHEAD» (twice) On PFD : W/S AHEAD (red) On ND: Wind shear icon

Q.58 When are the PWS alerts inhibited? At takeoff, alerts are inhibited above 100 kt and up to 50 ft. During landing, alerts are inhibited below 50 ft. The aural alerts of the Predictive Wind shear System (PWS): ‐ Have priority over TCAS, GPWS, and other FWC aural warnings ‐ Are inhibited by wind shear detection, via the FAC, stall warnings and aural messages.

Some information: Ground clutter is displayed on the screen if GCS toggle switch is OFF or MULTISCAN sw in MAN with any position of GCS Sw.

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GPWS:

Q.59 Which of the GPWS modes are inhibited when predictive GPWS functions are operative? When the predictive functions of the GPWS are operative, mode 2 of the GPWS is inhibited

Q.60 What are the warnings generated by predictive GPWS, if aircraft can climb over the terrain? ‐ A “TERRAIN AHEAD-PULL UP” warning, if the aircraft can climb over the terrain.

Q.61 What are the warnings generated by predictive GPWS, if aircraft cannot climb over the terrain with sufficient safety margins? ‐ An “AVOID TERRAIN” warning, if the aircraft cannot climb over the terrain with sufficient safety margin.

Q.62 What happens to the basic modes 1 to 5 of GPWS when FAULT Light is illuminated in the TERR P/B? The basic GPWS mode 1 to mode 5 are still operative if the SYS pushbutton OFF or FAULT lights are not illuminated.

Q.63 Which ECAM Caution will be generated when FAULT Light is illuminated in the TERR P/B? NAV GPWS TERR DET FAULT

Q.64 Which ECAM Caution will be generated when FAULT Light is illuminated in the SYS P/B? NAV GPWS FAULT

Q.65 You are flying in wx in a terrain area. By seeing ND how can you say if the display is not for weather and is for terrain? To differentiate between the terrain and the weather display, the TERR indication comes on, instead of the TILT indication, in the lower right corner of the ND + The sweep on the ND is different.

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Q.66 What happens when GPWS generate a caution / warning while TERR ON ND p/b is off? When the TERR pb-sw ON ND is set to ON, and ARC or ROSE mode is selected, the ND displays the terrain memorized in the database, depending on the aircraft’s position. The terrain is displayed in various densities of green, yellow, red, or magenta, depending on the threat (Refer to DSC-31-45 Flags and Messages Displayed on ND). If an alert is generated (caution or warning), and TERR pb ON ND is not selected, the terrain is automatically displayed, and the ON light of the TERR pb-sw ON ND comes on.

Q.67 What is Mode 1 of GPWS? MODE 1 : EXCESSIVE RATE OF DESCENT “SINK RATE” + GPWS light And then, “PULL UP” aural alert + both PULL UP lights

Q.68 What is Mode 2A of GPWS? THE FLAPS NOT IN LANDING CONFIGURATION. “TERRAIN” + GPWS lights and then “PULL UP”, + PULL UP light

Q.69 What is Mode 2B of GPWS? THE FLAPS ARE IN LANDING CONFIGURATION When gear and flaps are in the landing configuration, the aural message is “TERRAIN ” only and is not followed by “PULL UP” if the aircraft remains in the envelope.

Q.70 What is Mode 3 of GPWS? If the aircraft descends during the initial takeoff climb or during a go-around, the GPWS lights come on and the “DON’T SINK” aural alert sounds repeatedly.

Q.71 What is Mode 4A of GPWS? LANDING GEAR UP AND FLAPS NOT IN LANDING CONFIGURATION Two aural warnings may be triggered, depending on the area: “TOO LOW-GEAR” or “TOO LOW-TERRAIN”. In addition, the GPWS lights come on.

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Q.72 What is Mode 4B of GPWS? - LANDING GEAR DOWN, AND FLAPS NOT IN LANDING CONFIGURATION OR, LANDING GEAR UP, AND FLAPS IN LANDING CONFIGURATION Two aural warnings may be generated, depending on the airspeed: “TOO LOW-FLAPS” or “TOO LOW-TERRAIN”. In addition, the GPWS lights come on.

Q.73 What is the Mode 5 of GPWS? The alert is a repeated “GLIDESLOPE” aural message, and both GPWS lights come on.

Q.74 What are the different memos displayed on E/WD related to GPWS system? GPWS FLAP MODE OFF is displayed in green when GPWS FLAP MODE pb-sw is OFF. TERR STBY appears in green when any required predictive function input is missing or considered invalid.. TERR OFF is displayed when the TERR pb-sw is switched OFF: ‐ It appears in green in flight phase 2, before the Take Off Configuration test is launched, and in flight phase 6. ‐ It appears in amber in flight phase 2, after the Take Off Configuration test, and in flight phases3, 4, 5, 7, 8 and 9.

Q.75 With the failure in ILS1, which of the basic modes of GPWS are lost / inhibited? In this situation, will there be any FAULT light on the OVHD panel of GPWS? If ILS 1 fails, only mode 5 is inhibited. Consequently, the FAULT light does not come on and the GPWS FAULT warning is not triggered.

Q.76 In what situations, do you have to switch-off FLAP MODE? Flap mode (“TOO LOW FLAPS” mode 4) is inhibited. (To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced).

Q.77 In what situations, do you have to switch-on LDG FLAP3? In this condition, what is shown on the LDG MEMO? Flap mode is inhibited when FLAPS CONF 3 is selected (to avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3). In this case, LDG MEMO displays "FLAPS ... 3" instead of “CONF ... FULL”.

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TCAS: Q.78 What are the conditions in which TA mode is selected automatically even if TA/RA was selected previously? If TA/RA is previously selected, and: • The wind shear message is triggered or the stall message is triggered or GPWS messages are triggered or • Aircraft is below 1 000 ft AGL. Consequently: ‐ All RAs are inhibited and converted into TAs ‐ TA threshold is set to TAU ≤20 s, irrespective of the aircraft’s altitude ‐ No vertical speed advisories are indicated on the PFDs ‐ “TA ONLY” is displayed on the NDs.

Q.79 Is it true that in case of wind shear, stall, or GPWS messages, TCAS aural messages are suppressed? Yes

Q.80 How the RAs are displayed if Mode Sel for TCAS is at TA? All RAs are converted into TAs. TAs, proximate and intruders are displayed if the ALT RPTG switch is ON and the transponder is not on STBY The "TA ONLY" white memo is displayed on the NDs. The TCAS does not generate any vertical orders. This mode should be used, in case of degraded aircraft performance (engine failure, landing gear extended, or approach on parallel runways).

Q.81 What will be displayed when TRAFFIC Sel is at THRT? Proximate and other intruders are displayed only if a TA or RA is present, and they are within 2 700 ft above and 2 700 ft below the aircraft.

Q.82 What will be displayed when TRAFFIC Sel is at ALL Is at ABV, Proximate and other intruders are displayed even if no TA or RA is present (full time function), within 9 900 ft above the aircraft and 2 700 ft below.

Is at BLW? Proximate and other intruders are displayed even if no TA or RA is present (full time function), within 9 900 ft below the aircraft and 2 700 ft above.

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Q.83 How the traffic is indicated on ND? Other intruders Indicated by a white empty diamond. Proximate intruder Indicated by a white filled diamond. TA intruder Indicated by an amber circle. Associated with the TRAFFIC-TRAFFIC aural message. RA intruder Indicated by a red square. Associated with vertical orders displayed on the PFD and aural messages.

Q.84 Will intruder be still displayed if its range is not available? If the range of an intruder is not available, the intruder is not displayed. An intruder may be partially displayed when its range is out of scale.

Q.85 With what information the intruder is displayed, if altitude of an intruder is not available to TCAS? If the altitude of an intruder is not available, neither altitude nor vertical speed indications are displayed.

Q.86 What are the TCAS related messages on ND? (1) Mode and range messages Following messages can be displayed to draw pilot’s attention: TCAS: REDUCE RANGE: Displayed when a TA or RA is detected and ND range above 40 nm TCAS: CHANGE MODE: Displayed when a TA or RA is detected and ND mode is PLAN. Displayed amber or red depending on the advisory level (TA or RA). (2) TCAS operation messages TCAS: Displayed in amber in case of TCAS internal failure. TA ONLY : Displayed white when the TA mode is selected automatically, or manually by the flight crew.

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Q.87 What is the TCAS related message near V/S Indication on PFD, if TCAS has failed? TCAS message Appears in amber provided that the TCAS is not in standby, when the TCAS cannot deliver RA data, or in case of an internal TCAS failure.

Q.88 What happens to TCAS if ALT RPTG s/w is at off? TCAS STBY is displayed green

Q.89 What happens to TCAS if both ATC are failed? TCAS STBY is displayed green

Q.90 What happens to TCAS if both RA are failed? TCAS STBY is displayed green

Q.91 What happens to TCAS if ATC STBY or TCAS STBY is selected by the crew? TCAS STBY is displayed green

Q.92 Review your actions when RA Alert is triggered. Resolution advisory: All “CLIMB” and “DESCEND” or “MAINTAIN VERTICAL SPEED MAINTAIN” or “ADJUST VERTICAL SPEED ADJUST” or “MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED” type messages: AP (if engaged)......................................................................................................OFF BOTH FDs............................................................................................................. OFF Respond promptly and smoothly to an RA by adjusting or maintaining the pitch, as required, to reach the green area and/or avoid the red area of the vertical speed scale. Note: Avoid excessive maneuvers while aiming to keep the vertical speed just outside the red area of the VSI, and within the green area. If necessary, use the full speed range between Vαmax and VMAX. Respect stall, GPWS, or wind shear warning.

Notify ATC.

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A320 TECH QUESTIONS 4/4 

COMMUNICATIONS  LIGHTS  OXYGEN SYSTEM  APU  DOORS

Disclaimer This document is for training purpose only. Always refer latest revisions of manuals in case of conflict.

[email protected] [email protected]

Table of Contents: COMMUNICATIONS ......................................................................... 5

LIGHTS .............................................................................................. 11

OXYGEN SYSTEM .......................................................................... 15

APU .................................................................................................... 21

DOORS ............................................................................................... 25

COMMUNICATIONS

COMMUNICATIONS Q.1

Which components of the radio communication system will still be available in the EMER ELEC CONFIG? VHF1 functions in EMER ELEC CONFIG RMP 1 / ACP 1

Q.2

Which ECAM is going to be triggered if any push–to–talk {PTT} transmission selector is jammed in transmit position? If a microphone is in the emission position for more than 30 s, an interrupted tone sounds for 5 s, and the emission is turned off. To reactivate the emission, the crew releases the push-to-talk button and presses it again. {VHF has an alarm to indicate that the microphone is stuck in emission position for more than 30 seconds, an interrupted tone sounds for 5 seconds and the emission is turned off. It gets active once crew releases the PTT P/B and presses again} VHF 1(2)(3) EMITTING HF 1(2) EMITTING Transmitter emitting more than 60 s +Single Chime +MC

Q.3

If there is CIDS 1+2 FAULT is triggered on ECAM, what is inoperative in communication system? Passenger address, cabin and service interphone, and passenger signs are inoperative.

Q.4

When GND HF DATALINK is at OVRD, what happens? HF transmission is inhibited on ground; GND HF DATALINK is kept at override position so that after touchdown ACARS keep running.

Q.5

Which radios systems are dedicated for ACARS? VHF 3 + HF 1

Q.6

RMP3 is able to control VHF & HF TX/RX through RMP1 and RMP2 even if they are OFF…..True

Q.7

The last selected radio freq remains in active window if RMP comes back on line after power off….True

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COMMUNICATIONS

Q.8

How would you recognize a failed RMP, and what actions should be taken? Can all comm. Radios still be tuned from the remaining RMPs? The affected RMP is dead. No illumination on active / STBY windows.

Q.9

What is the meaning of SEL light? The SEL indicator on both RMPs comes on amber when a transceiver, normally associated with one RMP, is tuned by another : • VHF1 tuned by RMP2 or RMP3, • VHF2 tuned by RMP1 or RMP3. • VHF3, HF1, HF2 tuned by RMP1 or RMP2.

Q.10 If you tune HF2 from RMP1, will there be SEL light on? If yes, then on which RMPs? Yes. On RMP 2 & RMP 3.

Q.11 ATT legend on ACP flashes green and buzzer sounds for a call from cabin crew member. The ATT light goes off after 60 seconds if it is not reset…..True

Q.12 If you want to receive DME audio navigation signal associated with ILS, LS p/b on FCU has also to be selected…True? For reception of DME audio navigation signals associated to an ILS or MLS station, the ILS pb (or LS pb on the FCU) must also be selected.{Ref DSC-23-20-20 P 4/8}

Q.13 Is it possible to switch off aural alert and voice messages using the loudspeaker knob? Loudspeaker volume knob adjusts the level for radio communications. This knob does not control the loudness of aural alert and voice messages.

Q.14 The F/O’s ACP has failed, what are the required actions? Select the “AUDIO SWITCHING” Selector to “F/O 3” position. The copilot uses his acoustic equipment and the third occupant's ACP. AUDIO 3 XFRD appears in green on the ECAM MEMO display. By doing this, it takes away the third occupant's access to the acoustic equipment. CHAPTER 23

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COMMUNICATIONS

Q.15 Mechanic will communicate with the cockpit crew with the help of service interphone jack during Engine Start in “Start Valve not Opening Procedure”. Which transmission key on ACP will be selected? Which reception key on ACP will be selected?

ATT Transmission Key + CAB Reception knob.

Q.16 What is the use of switching ON of the SVCE INT OVRD p/b- sw? SVCE INT OVRD pushbutton switch has two positions. AUTO: Ground personnel can communicate with the flight crew by means of the service interphone jacks 10 s after the aircraft has landed. The landing gear must be compressed. ON: Communication is possible when the landing gear is not compressed. The ON light is white.

Q.17 Who can communicate through the service interphone system? Ground personnel can communicate with the flight crew by means of the service interphone jacks

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COMMUNICATIONS

Q.18 What are the indications when EMER CALL is initiated from cockpit to cabin? How will it reset? ‐ Two pink lights flash on all area call panels. ‐ The “EMERGENCY CALL” message appears on all AIPs. ‐ A high-low chime sounds three times, on all of the loudspeakers. Also, on the cockpit CALLS panel, the ON light flashes in white and the CALL light flashes in amber.

Q.19 What are the indications when EMER CALL is initiated from cabin to cockpit? How to reset it? When an emergency call is made from the cabin to the cockpit: ‐ On the EMER pb-sw: The ON light flashes in white, and the CALL light flashes in amber. ‐ The ATT lights will flash on all Audio Control Panels (ACPs). ‐ Three buzzers will sound consecutively (for approx. three seconds each).

Q.20 If a PA announcement has to be made with the help of cockpit handset, no action is required on ACPs….true?

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COMMUNICATIONS

Q.21 What are the EMER EVAC indications when initiated from cockpit? When COMMAND p/b is selected ON, EVAC signals initiate. In the cockpit: ‐ The EVAC light flashes red. In the cabin: ‐ The EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels. + ‐ The Evacuation tone sounds.

What are the EMER EVAC indications when initiated from cabin with CAPT & CAPT / PURS Selector in CAPT position? If one of the cabin CMD p/b is pressed, only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 s.

What are the EMER EVAC indications when initiated from cabin with CAPT & CAPT / PURS Selector in CAPT/PURS position? CMD p/b has to be used by cabin crew to initiate EVAC. Pressing this button activates the alert, if the cockpit switch is at the CAPT & PURS position. {In the cockpit: ‐ The EVAC light flashes red. Horn sounds + In the cabin: ‐ The EVAC lights flash at FWD and AFT attendant panels. ‐ The Evacuation tone sounds.} Pressing it again stops the alert. Note: If CAPT and PURS/CAPT sw is at: CAPT and PURS: The alert may either be activated from the cockpit or the cabin. CAPT: The alert may only be activated from the cockpit.

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COMMUNICATIONS

Q.22 How is CVR energized? On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton. It is energized automatically: ‐ on the ground during the first 5 min after the aircraft electrical network is energized ‐ on the ground with one engine running ‐ in flight On the ground, it is stopped automatically 5 min after the last engine shutdown provided the CVR jack is not used.

Q.23 How long is the CVR recording time? Last 2 h of recording are retained.

Q.24 For CVR testing, what should be the position of the Parking Brake? ON

Q.25 The Oxygen mask microphone activates when the mask is withdrawn from its stowage; however, when the mask is no longer required, how is its microphone de-activated? Pressing the RESET control slide {STOWAGE BOX for Crew O2}, after the oxygen mask has been used, cuts off the oxygen, and the mask microphone.

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LIGHTS

LIGHTS

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LIGHTS

Q.1

What happens, when ANN LT switch is held at TEST position?    

Q.2

Illuminates all flight deck annunciators lights Puts 8’s up in all LCDs The transfers of data between ECAM & ND are not allowed Switching between electronic instrument system and display management computers are not allowed.{in case of any failure}

When does a LOGO light turn on automatically and when does a LOGO light turn OFF automatically? LOGO lights come on when you select Config 2 during approach, they remain ON on ground and go off after T/O, {with airborne if TO in Config 1+F }or with retraction from Config 2 after TO. Logo lights are installed in the upper surface of each horizontal stabilizer to illuminate the company logo on the vertical stabilizer provided the main gear struts are compressed or the flaps are extended at least 15 °. 



Provided the main gear struts are compressed or The flaps are extended at least 15 °.

Q.3

Are there any speed limitations, if LAND lights are not retracted? No

Q.4

When does RWY TURN OFF lights go off automatically? These lights go off automatically when landing gear is retracted.

Q.5

When does a STROBE light turn on automatically? The strobe lights come on automatically when the main gear strut is not Compressed and the STROBE sw is in Auto.

Q.6

Which lights will come ON automatically if cabin altitude goes above 11300 feet? EXIT signs come on, If the cabin altitude goes above 11 300 ft (± 350 ft), the cabin illuminates (depending on the CIDS/CAM programming) and the NO PORTABLE/ELEC DEVICE, FASTEN SEAT BELT, EXIT signs come on, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO PORTABLE/ELEC DEVICE selector switches.

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LIGHTS

Q.7

For which of the lights/signs, you get ECAM memo? ‐ Displays “LDG LT” in green, if one landing light is extended. ‐ ‐ Displays “SEAT BELTS” and “NO PED” messages in green, when the corresponding sign is on.

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LIGHTS


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OXYGEN SYS.

OXYGEN SYSTEM

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OXYGEN SYS.

Q.1

How many types of oxygen systems are there on A320 a/c? Three types. The oxygen system consists of: ‐ A cockpit-fixed oxygen system, which supplies adequate breathing oxygen to the cockpit occupants in case of depressurization, or emission of smoke and noxious gases. ‐ A cabin-fixed oxygen system, which supplies oxygen for cabin occupants (passengers and cabin crew) in case of depressurization. ‐ A portable oxygen system, which is provided in both the cockpit and cabin and is to be used: • As PROTECTION for the crew during on board emergencies. • For FIRST AID purposes.

Q.2

What is the main difference between the crew and the passenger oxygen system? For cockpit crew, there is a gas cylinder whereas for PAX, it is a chemical generator.

Q.3

What are the components of the crew oxygen system? ‐ A high-pressure cylinder, in the left-hand lower fuselage. ‐ A pressure regulator, connected directly to the cylinder that delivers oxygen, at a pressure suitable for users. ‐ Two overpressure safety systems to vent oxygen overboard, through a safety port, if the pressure gets too high. ‐ A supply solenoid valve that allows the crew to shut off the distribution system. ‐ Four full-face quick-donning masks, stowed in readily-accessible boxes adjacent to the crewmembers’ seats (one at each seat).

Stowage box for cockpit-crew O2 System: Q.4 Yellow Blinker Flow meter is seen during cockpit preparation on the crew oxygen stowage box. What does yellow blinker indicate? That means that oxygen is flowing through the mask.

Q.5

What is tested, when you press RESET / TEST control slide to TEST position? When you press the slide, and push it in the direction of the arrow, you test:  The operation of the blinker;  The regulator supply;  Various sealing system sealing downstream of the valve; and the regulator sealing.

Q.6

What is reset, when you press RESET / TEST control slide? Cuts off the oxygen to the mask and the mask microphone is cut off.

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OXYGEN SYS.

Q.7

What does “OXY ON” Flag indicate? As soon as the left flap door opens, the mask is supplied with oxygen and, once it closes (mask still supplied with oxygen), the “OXY ON” flag appears.

Q.8

What is the meaning of N if N/100% selector is at “N” position? N : The mask delivers a mixture of air and oxygen, the content of which varies with cabin altitude. When cabin altitude goes above 35 000 ft, the air inlet closes and the wearer breathes 100 % oxygen.

Q.9

What happens when the mask is used with the N/100% selection at 100% position? 100 %: The mask delivers 100 % oxygen irrespective of altitude. Note: Overpressure supply is automatically started, when cabin altitude exceeds 30 000 ft. and Overpressure supply is available only when the N/100% selector is set on the on the 100 % position.

Q.10 What is the function of EMERGENCY pressure selector? Use of this selector creates on overpressure which eliminates condensation or fogging of the mask, and prevents smoke, smell or ashes from entering the mask. ‐ Pressing this knob generates an overpressure for a few seconds. ‐ Turning the knob, in the direction of the arrow, generates a permanent overpressure.

Q.11

What will happen when Emergency pressure selector is rotated in the direction of arrow? Turning the knob, in the direction of the arrow, generates a permanent overpressure.

Q.12

What is the purpose of the CREW SUPPLY push button? This pushbutton controls the solenoid valve. On : The valve is open, and supplies low pressure oxygen to the masks (normal position in flight). OFF: The valve is closed, and the white light comes on.

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OXYGEN SYS.

Q.13

If “CREW SUPPLY” p/b is OFF, what will be indicated on ECAM? Amber REGUL LO PR indication will appear on the DOOR /OXY page. {It appears in in amber, if oxygen pressure on the low-pressure circuit is low (50 PSI).} and CKPT OXY indication turns amber when the overhead panel’s OXYGEN CREW SUPPLY pb is OFF.

Q.14 On which ECAM page could the flight crew check the exact pressure of the

oxygen cylinder? DOOR / OXY page

Q.15 When will OXY pressure indication pulse in green? When will it turn Amber? It is in green, when the pressure is ≥ 800 PSI. It pulses in green, when the pressure is < 800 PSI (the DOOR/OXY SD page is automatically displayed). It is in amber, when the pressure is < 400 PSI. An amber half frame appears, when oxygen pressure is < 1 500 PSI. In this case, the flight crew must check that the remaining quantity is not below the minimum It pulses in green, when the pressure is < 800 PSI (the DOOR/OXY SD page is automatically displayed).

Q.16 When will REGUL LO PR indication appear on ECAM DOOR / OXY Page, in amber color? Amber REGUL LO PR indication will appear on the DOOR /OXY page when:  “CREW SUPPLY” p/b is OFF or  Oxygen pressure on the low-pressure circuit is low (50 PSI). CHAPTER 35

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OXYGEN SYS.

Q.17 In one of the flight, CKPT OXY indication on the ECAM Door/Oxy page has turned amber. What can be the reason? That means the overhead panel’s OXYGEN CREW SUPPLY pb is OFF.

Q.18 What has happened if SYS ON light on OXY panel is illuminated? PASSENGER SYS ON light This light comes on in white, when the control for the oxygen mask doors is activated, and it remains on until the TMR RESET pushbutton is pressed.

Q.19 What will happen if the guarded MASK MAN ON p/b is depressed? This is a guarded p/b and is in the AUTO position. AUTO: The mask doors open automatically, when the cabin altitude exceeds 14 000 ft. Pressed: The mask doors open.

Q.20 At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop? Cab Alt > 14000

Q.21 When does passenger oxygen flow start? When the mask is pulled

Q.22 How long the passenger oxygen will flow? 15 minutes

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OXYGEN SYS.

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APU

APU Q.1

What happens when you select APU MASTER SW to ON? The blue ON light comes on. Electric power goes to the APU system; the ECB performs a power-up test. The APU air intake flap opens. The APU fuel isolation valve opens. If no fuel tank pump is running, the APU fuel pump operates. If the aircraft has ground power or main generator power, the APU page appears on the ECAM display.

Q.2

After pressing the APU MASTER p/b, the START p/b is pressed. At this time the START p/b illuminates Blue. What does that mean? APU is in the starting phase.

Q.3

When does the START switch ON light extinguish? 2 s after N reached 95 %, or when N is above 99.5 %: The ON light on the START p/b goes out and simultaneously AVAIL light comes on.

Q.4

What is the meaning of the green AVAIL light in APU START p/b? This green light comes on when N is above 99.5 % or 2 s after N reaches 95 %. It means that APU is available for use now. The APU may now supply bleed air and electrical power to the aircraft systems.

Q.5

What are the APU parameters that are shown on APU ECAM page? EGT / N APU GEN parameters APU BLEED Parameters

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APU

Q.6

The APU shuts down almost immediately after coming up to speed and the shutdown is accompanied by a FAULT light in the Master switch P/B, an ECAM, and a single chime. What are possible causes for such shutdown? Air inlet flap not open Over speed No acceleration Slow start EGT over temperature No flame Under speed Reverse flow Low oil pressure High oil temperature DC power loss. (BAT OFF when aircraft on batteries only) ECB failure Loss of over speed protection

Q.7

When an APU auto shut down has occurred, what other indications are received in addition to the ECAM procedure? Amber FAULT light comes on in Master Switch.

Q.8

There are two types of ECAMS for APU shut down. One is APU AUTOSHUTDOWN and other is APU EMER SHUT DOWN. What are the differences? AUTO SHUT DOWN Automatic shut down of APU for a reason other than a fire.

EMER SHUT DOWN Use of APU shut off pushbutton on external power panel or APU FIRE pushbutton pushed. In case of APU fire on ground, the APU FIRE warning is triggered.

Q.9

Will the APU Auto Shutdown for Low Oil pressure? Yes

Q.10 Can the APU be started and operated even if LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed? The APU may be started and operated even if the LOW OIL LEVEL ECAM advisory is displayed. Maintenance action is required within next 10 h of APU operation.

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APU

Q.11 What are the conditions in which you get LOW OIL LEVEL advisory? This advisory is displayed if the ECB detects a low APU oil level when the aircraft is on the ground, and the APU is not running.

Q.12 What is the significance of an illuminated FAULT on the APU MASTER SW? APU has auto shut down or APU has EMER SHUT DOWN.

Q.13 What is the max altitude to start the APU on batteries? FL250 & below

Q.14 What are the altitude limits for APU generator? 39 000

Q.15 You arrive to parking stand after landing and start APU but it gets auto shutdown and you need to start it again. What is the APU Starter limit? How many start attempts can be made? After 3 starter motor duty cycles, wait 60 min before attempting 3 more cycles. A red disk, which is outside at the rear of the fuselage, signals that the agent is not discharged overboard due to bottle overpressure.

Q.16 What happens when you select the APU MASTER SW to OFF? Manual shutdown sequence. ‐ The ON light on the MASTER SW pb-sw, and the AVAIL light on the START p/b, go out. ‐ The APU keeps running for a cooling period of 120 s at N 100 % speed. ‐ At 7 % the air inlet flap closes.

Q.17 After landing, during “Securing the Aircraft” Checklist, the APU is shutdown and SOP asks you to wait until APU flap is fully closed before switching BAT 1& 2 to OFF. Why? Wait until the APU flap is fully closed (about 2 min after the APU AVAIL light goes out), before switching off the batteries. Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.

Q.18 If batteries are off while APU is running, what happens to APU FIRE protection system? If the batteries are off while the APU is running, APU fire extinguishing is not available.

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APU

Q.19 What are the differences between “APU fire on ground” and “APU fire in AIR”?  APU fire on ground: If the system detects an APU fire while the aircraft is on the ground, it shuts down the APU automatically and discharges extinguishing agent.



APU fire in air: Crew has to shut down the APU and follow ECAM to extinguish the fire.

Q.20 How many APU fire extinguisher bottles are installed? One

Q.21 In flight, a dual bleed fault occurs. The QRH procedure directs use of the APU for a bleed source. What is the maximum altitude for APU bleed operations? Two Packs Up To 15 000 Ft One Pack Up To 20 000 Ft Eng Start Up To20 000 Ft If Speed Above 150 Kt Eng Start Up To 15 000 Ft If Speed Below 150 Kt

Q.22 Can you use Wing Anti-ice with the APU? No

Q.23 With battery power only, if you do APU fire test, what are the indications? ‐ Only on the APU FIRE panel : • The APU FIRE pushbutton lights up red. • The SQUIB light comes on white. • The DISCH light comes on amber.

Q.24 If EXTERNAL POWER were powering the aircraft, what indications would be seen during an APU fire test? ‐ A continuous repetitive chime sounds. ‐ The MASTER WARN lights flash. ‐ APU FIRE warning appears on ECAM. ‐ On the APU FIRE panel : • The APU FIRE pushbutton lights up red. • The SQUIB light comes on white. • The DISCH light comes on amber.

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DOORS

DOORS

Q.1

On ECAM DOOR / OXY page, what does the SLIDE label indicate? This appears in white, when the slide is armed.

Q.2

What are the indications, if a slide is disarmed on any cabin door? The Slide Indication will not be shown on ECAM page.

Q.3

How an open door is indicated on the DOOR / OXY page? Door Symbol ■ is shown in Amber on the ECAM page.

Q.4

How many single-lane slide-rafts on each IndiGo aircraft? Four

Q.5

How many Dual-Lane Slide-rafts on each IndiGo aircraft? Two

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DOORS

Q.6

Can cargo doors be still operated if Yellow Hydraulic electric pump has failed? How? Yes with help of hand pump.

Q.7

If a cabin door is closed & armed, can it be opened from outside? In that case, will slide deploy? Yes and slide will not deploy. Opening the door from the outside disarms the door and the escape slide.

Q.8

When will CABIN PRESSURE warning light on passenger door illuminate? Cabin Pressure Warning light flashes when  One or both engines stopped  Slides are disarmed and  The Cabin Diff Pressure is above 2.5 hPa.

Q.9

When will SLIDE ARMED warning light on passenger door, get illuminated? This white light illuminates if Control Handle is operated when Slide is armed.

Q.10 Where will you check the crew oxygen cylinder pressure? On DOOR / OXY ECAM Page

The slides of the over wing emergency exits are always in armed configuration. CHAPTER 52

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DOORS


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A320 Tech Questions (1) (1)

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