A+ Guide to Managing and Maintaining your PC, 6e (Comprehensive)
CHAPTER 1
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Why is all data stored in a computer in binary form? Binary is the format that the computer “understands,” not a programming language or a human language. All instructions between hardware and software in a computer are reduced to a simple yes or no, a state of on or off. 2. What are the four primary functions of hardware? Input, processing, output, and storage 3. What are the two main input devices and two main output devices? The two main input devices are the keyboard and the mouse. The two main output devices are the monitor and the printer. 4. What three things do electronic hardware devices need in order to function? A method for the CPU to communicate with the device, software to instruct and control the device, and electricity to power the device 5. How many bits are in a byte? Eight 6. What is the purpose of an expansion slot on a motherboard? An expansion slot on a motherboard is used for an expansion card, which enables a device that is not on the motherboard to communicate with the CPU. 7. Which component on the motherboard is used primarily for processing?
The CPU (central processing unit), also called the processor 8. Name three CPU manufacturers. Possible answers: Intel, AMD, Cyrix, IBM 9. What technology is most often used today to manufacture microchips? CMOS (complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) 10. What are two other names for the system bus? Possible answers: memory bus, host bus, front side bus, external bus 11. What are two other names for the motherboard? Main board, system board 12. What are the two basic types of cables found inside a computer case and what are their basic functions? A data cable used for passing data between devices and a power cable used to supply power to a device. 13. List three types of ports that are often found coming directly off the motherboard to be used by external devices. Possible answers: serial port, parallel port, USB port, network port, FireWire or 1394 port, mouse port, keyboard port, S/PDIF port, sound port, wireless LAN antenna port 14. What is the purpose of the S/PDIF port? The S/PDIF port connects to an external home theater audio system, providing digital output and the best signal quality. 15. List three kinds of memory modules. SIMMs (single inline memory modules), DIMMs (dual inline memory modules), RIMMs 16. What is the difference between volatile and nonvolatile memory?
The CPU (central processing unit), also called the processor 8. Name three CPU manufacturers. Possible answers: Intel, AMD, Cyrix, IBM 9. What technology is most often used today to manufacture microchips? CMOS (complementary metal-oxide semiconductor) 10. What are two other names for the system bus? Possible answers: memory bus, host bus, front side bus, external bus 11. What are two other names for the motherboard? Main board, system board 12. What are the two basic types of cables found inside a computer case and what are their basic functions? A data cable used for passing data between devices and a power cable used to supply power to a device. 13. List three types of ports that are often found coming directly off the motherboard to be used by external devices. Possible answers: serial port, parallel port, USB port, network port, FireWire or 1394 port, mouse port, keyboard port, S/PDIF port, sound port, wireless LAN antenna port 14. What is the purpose of the S/PDIF port? The S/PDIF port connects to an external home theater audio system, providing digital output and the best signal quality. 15. List three kinds of memory modules. SIMMs (single inline memory modules), DIMMs (dual inline memory modules), RIMMs 16. What is the difference between volatile and nonvolatile memory?
Volatile memory is temporary and needs a constant electrical charge to hold data. Nonvolatile memory is permanent and holds memory even when electricity is turned off.
17. Of the two types of storage in a system, which type is generally faster and holds data and instructions while while the data is being processed? Which type of storage is generally slower, but more permanent? Primary storage, secondary storage 18. What technology standard provides for up to four devices on a system, including the hard drive as one of those devices? What are two common industry names loosely used to describe this standard? ATA (AT attachment), also called EIDE (enhanced integrated drive electronics) or IDE 19. What is the size of the data path on most system buses today? 64 bits 20. What is the measurement of frequency of a system bus and CPU? Which is faster, the system bus or the CPU? Frequency is generally measured in Hz, MHz, or GHz. The CPU is faster than the system bus. 21. Name four types of buses that are likely to be on a motherboard today. Possible answers: PCI (Peripheral Component Interconnect), AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port), ISA (Industry Standard Architecture), system bus, PCI Express 22. A power supply receives 120 volts of ___ power from a wall outlet and converts it to 3.3, 5, and 12 volts of ____ power. AC, DC
23. ROM BIOS or firmware chips that can be upgraded without replacing the chips are called ________. Flash ROM 24. CMOS setup allows a technician to change configuration settings on a motherboard stored in ______. CMOS RAM
25. Name three examples of secondary storage devices. Some possible answers: CD drive, hard drive, floppy drive, DVD drive, Zip drive
26. A hertz is ________ cycle per second; a megahertz is ________ cycles per second, and a gigahertz is ________ cycles per second. One, one million, and one billion
27. An AGP slot is normally used for a(n) _______ expansion card. Video
28. How many sizes of PCI Express slots are currently manufactured for personal computers?
Four
29. Name the three purposes the motherboard ROM BIOS serves. The BIOS is used to manage simple devices (system BIOS), to start the computer (startup BIOS), and to change settings on the motherboard (CMOS setup).
30. From where does CMOS RAM receive its power? CMOS RAM is powered by a trickle of electricity from a small battery located on the motherboard or computer case.
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. When selecting secondary storage devices for a new desktop PC, which is more important, a CD-ROM drive or a floppy drive? Why? A CD-ROM drive is more important, because most software today is distributed on CD. 2. Based on what you have learned in this chapter, when working on a Word document, why is it important to save your work often? Explain your answer using the two terms, primary storage and secondary storage. It is important because data is temporarily stored in RAM or primary storage, which is volatile. If the power is lost, all data in primary storage is lost. In order to secure the data, it must be copied from primary storage to secondary storage, such as a hard drive or floppy disk, which is nonvolatile or permanent storage. 3. Most buses are 16, 32, 64, or 128 bits wide. Why do you think these bus widths are multiples of eight? Because everything in a computer is stored and processed in binary, and 1 byte equals 8 bits 4. Why would it be difficult to install four hard drives, one CD-ROM drive, and one DVD drive in a single low-end system? These types of drives are normally EIDE devices, and most low-end systems can only hold four EIDE devices. Also, most computer cases do not have enough bays to hold this many drives. 5. In this chapter, a light bulb is used to demonstrate the binary concept used for computer storage and communication. Give another example in everyday life to explain this binary concept.
Get creative.
Possible answer: A water hydrant is either on or off. It is difficult to measure the amount of water coming out of the hydrant, but not difficult to decide if the water is off or on.
6. If the CMOS battery inside your computer system died, when you first turn on your system, will you expect the system to boot up normally to the operating system level? What information do you think the system would not have available for a successful boot? No, the system will not boot normally because the configuration information would not be available. This information includes the type of hard drive and floppy drive installed and the boot sequence.
7. Why is it more accurate to describe the CPU and motherboard bus using the term frequency rather than speed? Explain your answer. It is more accurate to describe the CPU and motherboard with the term frequency than speed because the term speed implies there is a continuous motion or flow of data, whereas frequency suggests a digital or binary flow of data. Frequency is more accurate because computer technology is built using the binary on/off system.
Chapter 2 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. List four major functions of an OS. It manages hardware; runs applications; provides an interface for users; and stores, retrieves, and manipulates files. 2. Which operating system is only used on Apple Macintosh computers? Mac OS
3. Which operating system was developed by Microsoft using core components of OS/2 and was meant to replace OS/2? Windows NT 4. What is the next Microsoft operating system for desktop computers to be released in 2007? Windows Vista 5. Which operating system often used for server applications is a scaled-down version of Unix? Linux 6. Why did many users choose not to upgrade to Windows Me? Users did not feel it was a significant upgrade from Windows 98. 7. What Microsoft OS is an upgrade of Windows 2000? Windows XP 8. What are three possible interfaces an OS provides to the user? Briefly explain the functions of each.
Command-Driven – The user types in commands to tell the OS what operations to perform. This type of interface is like that of DOS commands and is often preferred by computer techs who know this DOS-like command.
Menu-Driven – The OS allows the user to choose from a list of options in order to perform any given operation.
Icon-Driven – Also known as GUI, the OS allows a user to choose from icons or pictures on the screen in order to perform any given operation. Most operating systems today offer both a menudriven as well as an icon-driven interface.
9. Which file system is used by floppy disks? FAT 10. What are two file systems used by hard drives? FAT and NTFS 11. Real mode operates using a(n) ___-bit data path, and protected mode uses a(n) ____-bit data path. 16, 32 12. Which Microsoft operating system(s) support 16-bit device drivers or 32-bit device drivers? Windows 95 or Windows 98 (DOS, Windows Me, and Windows NT/2000/XP do not.) 13. Real mode allows programs direct access to ____, but protected mode does not. hardware devices including memory 14. List three types of information that are kept in the Windows registry. OS configuration data, user settings, application settings 15. List four ways to launch an application from the Windows desktop. •
By double-clicking a shortcut icon on the desktop
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By clicking Start, pointing to Programs, and selecting the program from a list of installed software
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By using the Run command from the Start menu
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By double-clicking a filename in My Computer or Windows Explorer 16. Give two situations in which Windows keystroke shortcuts might be useful.
Keyboard shortcuts are sometimes faster for experienced typists, and they are useful when the mouse is not usable during some troubleshooting situations. 17. How do you access the Display Properties window? What are two settings you can change from this window?
Right-click anywhere on the desktop and select Properties from the shortcut menu or use the Display applet in Control Panel to access Display Properties. From this window, you can change the background, screen saver, color scheme, icon settings, color range, screen resolution, screen refresh rate, and drivers.
18. What Windows 2000/XP and Windows 9x utility allows you to update the device driver for a device? Device Manager 19. Users and applications depend on what to relate to all hardware components? Users and applications depend on the OS to relate to all hardware components. 20. Every operating system has two main internal components. The ________ relates to the user and to applications and provides a command, menu, or icon interface, whereas, the ________ is responsible for interfacing with the hardware. Shell, kernel 21. What command can you enter in the Run dialog box to launch Device Manager? Devmgmt.msc 22. Applets in the Control Panel are stored as program files with what file extension? .cpl 23. What Windows 2000/XP tool can you use to view the number of partitions used by a hard drive? Disk Management 24. What command can you enter in the Run dialog box to launch the Windows 2000/XP System Information utility? Msinfo32.exe 25. Which Windows operating system(s) allow more than one user to be logged on simultaneously, each having his own open applications?
Windows XP 26. When using Linux, what is the purpose of an X Windows application? To provide a GUI shell for Linux 27. What command can you enter in the Run dialog box of Windows 2000/XP to launch the Disk Management utility? Diskmgmt.msc 28. A floppy drive is divided into tracks, which are divided into sectors. How large is each sector? 512 bytes 29. What is the name of the file used by Windows 2000/XP to hold data and instructions in virtual memory? Pagefile.sys 30. Which of the two OS core components includes the Windows desktop? Which of the two OS core components includes the Windows memory manager? Shell, kernel 31. What is the purpose of the Boot Camp software on a Mac? To allow Windows to be installed as a dual boot alone with the Mac OS 32. What type of data is contained in files that have an .ini or .inf file extension? These file extensions generally relate to initialization files. This file, along with a registry, maintains information necessary for hardware/software configuration, user preferences, and application settings. 33. In Windows XP Device Manager, how do you uninstall a device? Right-click on the device and select Uninstall from the shortcut menu. 34. What is the Windows keyboard shortcut to move from one loaded application to another? To display the Start menu from the Windows desktop? To close the active application
window? To shutdown Windows when no applications are loaded? Alt + Tab, Win or Ctrl+Esc, Alt+F4, Alt+F4 THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Is a mouse more likely to be controlled by a device driver or by system BIOS? By a device driver 2.Name one device that is likely to be controlled by system BIOS. Possible answers: floppy disk drive, hard drive, keyboard, video 3. If your printer is giving you trouble, what is the best way to obtain an update for the device driver? Download the latest driver from the device manufacturer’s Web site. 4. What Windows tool can you use to know how much RAM is installed on your system? Possible answers: System Properties, System Information 5. Why is 16-bit Windows software considered to be legacy software? 16-bit Windows software is considered to be legacy software because it is software written for Windows 3.x and data is accessed at 16 bits at a time; whereas computers running Windows 95 or later OSs use 32-bit or 64-bit programs written to be able to access 32 or 64 bits of data at a time.
Chapter 3 Reviewing the Basics
1. What is the difference between a hard boot and a soft boot? A hard boot usually involves restarting the computer by pressing the on/off switch. A soft boot is performed from the operating system, such as by pressing the key combination Ctrl+Alt+Del or by choosing a Restart option from the Shut Down dialog box. 2. What are the four main parts of the boot process? •
BIOS checks hardware through POST.
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The ROM BIOS program searches for and loads an OS.
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The OS configures the system and completes its own loading.
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The user executes application software. 3. What memory address is always assigned to the first instruction in the ROM BIOS startup program?
FFFF0h 4. How does startup BIOS communicate errors during POST if video is not yet available? Beep codes 5. Name the program that is needed to locate the beginning of the OS on a drive. The MBR (master boot record) 6. List three types of information contained in a hard drive’s partition table. •
How many partitions are present
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Where each partition begins and ends
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Which partition is the active partition 7. What is the name of the Windows NT/2000/XP boot loader program?
Ntldr 8. How many startup disks are needed to boot Windows 2000 from a floppy disk? Four 9. When troubleshooting a failed boot, if you don’t see any lights or hear any noises, what hardware system do you first assume is at fault? The electrical system 10. When booting your computer and you see a blank screen, but hear a single beep, what can you assume worked with no errors? POST 11. When booting your computer and you see a blank screen, but hear a single beep, what component should you check first?
The monitor or monitor cable 12. Using the rule “trade good for suspected bad,” describe how to easily troubleshoot a video problem. Exchange the suspected bad monitor for one you know is good. If that does not help, try exchanging the video card. 13. Give five possible questions that should be asked of a user who is experiencing computer problems. •
Possible answers:
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What procedure was taking place at the time?
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What had just happened?
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What recent changes did the user make?
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When did the computer last work?
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What has happened in the meantime?
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What error messages did the user see? 14. What is the best way to document intermittent problems?
Keep a log of when the problems appear and exactly what error messages occur. 15. Using Windows, list the steps to print a screen that shows an error message. •
In Windows, the Print Screen key copies the displayed screen to the Clipboard.
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Launch the Paint software accessory program and paste the contents of the Clipboard into the document. You might need to use the Zoom Out command on the document first. You can then print the document with the displayed screen, using Paint. You can also paste the contents of the Clipboard into a document created by a word-processing application such as Word. 16. What preventive maintenance measures need to be done inside the case at least once a year?
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Make sure air vents are clear.
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Use compressed air to blow the dust out of the case, or use a vacuum to clean vents, power supply, and fan.
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Ensure that chips and expansion cards are firmly seated. 17. List at least three tasks you should complete before moving or shipping a computer.
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Back up the hard drive.
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Remove any floppy disks, tape cartridges, or CDs from the drives.
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Turn off power to the PC and all other devices.
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Disconnect all power cords and external devices.
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Label cables and cable connections.
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Coil all external cords and secure them with twist ties or rubber bands.
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Pack all components in their original boxes or in similar boxes with sufficient packing material. 18. How do you properly dispose of a battery pack from a notebook computer? A broken monitor? A toner cartridge from a laser printer?
Battery pack from notebook computer: Return to original dealer or take to a recycling center. Broken monitor: Check with local county or environmental officials for laws about disposal. Take to recycling center if available. In all cases, discharge monitor before disposing of it. Laser toner cartridge: Return to dealer or manufacturer to be recycled. 19. If you are unsure how to properly dispose of a can of contact cleaner, how can you find out the acceptable method of disposal? Check the MSDS of the cleaner. 20. What two tools can be used to remove dust from inside a computer case? Compressed air or anti-static vacuum cleaner 21. What are three types of ribbon cables you might find inside a PC? 40-conductor IDE cable, 80-conductor IDE cable, 34-pin floppy drive cable
22. Why is it important to not rock an expansion card from side to side as you remove it from its slot? You can widen the slot and weaken the connection. 23. What type of expansion card can have a retention mechanism at the bottom of the card to help stabilize it in the slot? A video card 24. Name three tools that you can use to protect a system against ESD as you work on it. Ground bracelet, ground mat, antistatic gloves 25. If you suspect that a USB port is faulty, what tool can you use to test the port? Loop-back plug
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. As a help-desk technician, list some good detective questions to ask if the user calls to say, “My PC won’t boot.” What is the nature of the problem? Does the problem occur before or after the boot? Does an error message display? Does the system hang at certain times? Start from a cold boot and do whatever you must do to cause the problem to occur. What are the specific steps you took to duplicate the problem? 2. Starting with the easiest procedures, list five things to check if your PC does not boot. •
Make sure everything is plugged in and all cable connections are solid.
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Boot into Safe Mode and eliminate customized configuration in the OS.
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Boot from the recovery CD.
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Eliminate any unnecessary hardware devices.
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Disconnect the network card, CD-ROM drive, mouse, and maybe even the hard drive. 3. Someone calls saying he has attempted to install a modem, but the modem does not work. List the first four questions you ask.
Answers will vary. Here are some possible ones: •
What operating system are you using?
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Can you see the modem listed in Device Manager with no errors?
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Is the modem an internal or external device?
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Have you ever installed a modem before this one?
4. If a PC boots first to the hard drive before checking the floppy disk for an OS, how do you change this boot sequence so that it first looks on the floppy disk for an OS? Make the change in CMOS setup. Chapter 4 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Volts are a measure of what characteristic of electricity? The potential difference in a circuit 2. What is the normal voltage of house electricity in the U.S.? 110 volts to 120 volts 3. Hot wires in home wiring are normally colored ____ and ground wires in computers are normally colored _____. Black, black 4. What is the difference between a transformer and a rectifier? Which are found in a PC power supply? A rectifier is a device that converts alternating current to direct current. A transformer is a device that changes the ratio of current to voltage. A computer power supply functions as both. 5. What are the five voltages produced by an ATX or BTX power supply? +5, -5, +12, -12, and +3.3 6. What is the purpose of the 4-pin auxiliary connector on a motherboard? To provide extra voltage for a processor
7. How many pins does the main power connector on a BTX board have? 24 pins 8. When taking a computer apart, why is it important to not stack boards on top of each other? You could accidentally dislodge a chip. 9. Describe the purpose of the ground line in a house circuit. What is the electrical symbol for ground? The electricity on the hot line is seeking the path of least resistance, which is usually through some device that controls its current flow as it moves to the neutral line that goes back to the power source. Sometimes there is an easier path than through any controlling device, and the electricity follows that path, causing a short. This sudden increase in the flow of electricity can harm a person or a piece of equipment. The ground line keeps the uncontrolled flow of electricity from continuing indefinitely. The symbol for ground is a vertical line with three horizontal lines underneath it, as shown in Figure 4-5. 10. What is the basic electronic building block of an integrated circuit? The transistor 11. Why is a power supply dangerous even after the power is disconnected? Capacitors inside a PC power supply create the even flow of current needed by the PC. Capacitors maintain their charge long after current is no longer present, which is why the inside of a power supply can be dangerous even when power is disconnected. 12. What is the symbol for a diode? The symbol for a diode is a vertical and horizontal line with an arrow head at the point of intersection of the two lines. See Figure 4-16. 13. What is a simple way to detect EMI?
On an inexpensive AM radio, turn the tuning dial away from a station into a low-frequency range. With the radio on, you can hear the static produced by EMI. Try putting the radio next to several electronic devices to detect the EMI they emit. 14. What is an unintended, high-current, closed connection between two points in a circuit called? A short, or short circuit 15. Which form factor uses a riser card on the edge of the motherboard? NLX 16. List four types of computer case form factors. What is the most popular type of form factor for PCs today? Possible answers: AT, ATX, BTX, LPX, NLX, and backplane form factors. The most popular is ATX. 17. List three advantages an ATX system has over a Baby AT system. It makes it easier to add and remove components, provides greater support for I/O devices, and lowers costs. 18. List four computer symptoms that indicate a faulty power supply. •
The PC sometimes halts during booting. After several tries, it boots successfully.
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Error codes or beep codes occur during booting, but the errors come and go.
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The computer stops or hangs for no reason. Sometimes it might even reboot itself.
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Memory errors appear intermittently.
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Data is written incorrectly to the hard drive.
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The keyboard stops working at odd times.
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The motherboard fails or is damaged.
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The power supply overheats and becomes hot to the touch. 19. According to ACPI standards, the S1 mode causes what two devices to stop using power?
Hard drive and monitor 20. What is another name for the ACPI standard S4 mode? Hibernation 21. What power management standard is older than ACPI and has mostly been replaced by ACPI? APM 22. How can you easily tell if a computer is designed to comply with Green Standards? See whether it displays the green Energy Star logo onscreen when the PC is booting. 23. What unit of measure is used to describe the amount of work a surge suppressor can do before it stops protecting the circuit from an electrical surge? Joule 24. Why is it important to have an indicator light on a surge suppressor? It is important so you can tell when the surge suppressor is no longer providing protection against a power surge. 25. What are the two main types of uninterruptible power supplies? Standby and inline 26. How does a smart UPS differ from one that is not smart? A smart UPS can be controlled by software from a computer to allow additional functionality. 27. If you are asked to identify the form factor of a motherboard, what are two criteria you can use to help you identify the board? Look for how the expansion slots are oriented in reference to the CPU and look for the type of power connector the board is using. 28. What are three motherboard form factors that can be used with a compact case? NLX, LPX, or mini-LPX 29. What is one thing you can regularly do to prevent a computer system from overheating? Remove the dust from the inside of the case.
30. Which type of case form factor is best designed to keep a system cool? BTX THINKING CRITICALLY
1. How much power is consumed by a load drawing 5 A with 120 V across it? 600 watts 2. You suspect that a power supply is faulty, but you use a multimeter to measure its voltage output and find it to be acceptable. Why is it still possible that the power supply may be faulty? IT is because problems with power supplies are intermittent (they can come and go). 3.
Someone asks you for help with a computer that hangs at odd times. You turn it on and work for about 15 minutes, and then the computer freezes and powers down. What do you do first?
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Replace the surge protector.
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Replace the power supply.
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Turn the PC back on, go into CMOS setup, and check the temperature reading.
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Install an additional fan.
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Turn the PC back on, go into CMOS setup, and check the temperature reading. 4. When working on a computer, which of the following best protects against ESD? Why?
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Always touch the computer case before touching a circuit board inside the case.
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Always wear an antistatic bracelet clipped to the side of the case.
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Always sit a computer on an antistatic mat when working on it.
Chapter 5 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. If a motherboard has a slot 1, what processor(s) is it designed to support? Pentium II or Pentium III 2. What was the first Intel processor to contain external cache?
Pentium Pro 3. When is it appropriate to use a Celeron rather than a Pentium 4 in a computer system? The Celeron is appropriate for use in low-end multimedia PCs to reduce total cost. 4. Which is more powerful, the current Celeron or the current Xeon processor? Xeon 5. Who is the major competitor of Intel in the processor market? AMD 6. Why did the competitors of the Intel Pentium II choose to stay with Socket 7 rather than use slot 1 for their competing processors? Because Intel patented slot 1 7. What components inside a computer case keep a processor cool? Fans, heat sinks, coolers 8. Describe the difference between a PGA socket and an SPGA socket. In a PGA (pin grid array) socket, pins are aligned in uniform rows around the socket. In an SPGA (staggered pin grid array) socket, the pins are staggered over the socket to squeeze more pins into a smaller space. 9. Name a processor that requires dual voltage. How are the two voltages used? Pentium MMX, Cyrix M2, and AMD K6 processors all use dual voltage. These processors use one voltage for external operations and another for internal operations. 10. Name a processor that uses Socket A.. AMD Athlon and AMD Duron 11. What are the four speeds of the most popular motherboards currently available on the market that support Intel processors? 1066 MHz, 800 MHz, 533 MHz, and 400 MHz 12. Name three manufacturers of motherboard chip sets.
Intel, SiS, ALi Inc., Standard Microsystems Corp., United Microelectronics Corp., VIA Technologies Inc. combined with AMD Inc. 13. Beginning with the Intel i800 chip sets, what are the two main chips of the chip set called? North Bridge and South Bridge 14. What is the name for the bus that connects L2 cache to the processor inside the Pentium II processor housing? back-side bus, or cache bus 15. What is the word size of the Pentium family of processors? 32 16. What is the data path size of the Front Side Bus of the Pentium family of processors? 64 17. If a Pentium 4 Extreme Edition uses two ALU units inside the processor housing, how many ALU units does the Pentium D have? 4 18. Why is a land socket preferred to a pin socket? Because the pins in a pin socket can be bent during installation 19. Explain the difference between the locations of discrete L2 cache and Advanced Transfer Cache. Discrete L2 cache is stored on a separate die inside the processor housing. Advanced Transfer Cache is stored on the same die as the processor core. 20. Which instruction set is used by the Itanium processors? EPIC 21. Which group of Intel processors uses a 32-bit word size and a 64-bit word size? Xeon
22. Which Windows personal computing operating system(s) support Intel Hyper-Threading Technology? Windows XP 23. Name an AMD processor that uses dual-core processing. Athlon 64 X2 Dual-Core processor or the Opteron 24. What processor manufacturer once targeted the desktop processor market, but is now more focused on processors used for personal electronics? VIA 25. What is the latest socket used by Intel desktop processors? LGA775 land socket THINKING CRITICALLY
1. When overclocking a system, what two problems are most likely to occur? a. b. c. d.
“Low memory” errors An unstable system that causes intermittent errors Loss of hard drive space used by the overclocking virtual memory file Overheating
(b) An unstable system that causes intermittent errors, and (d) Overheating 2. What must software developers do to take advantage of a 64-bit processor such as the Itanium? The software does not need to be rewritten, but it does need to be recompiled by the software compiler (such as the COBOL or Visual Basic compiler) so that the software relates to the OS using 64-bit access rather than the older 32-bit access. 3. You upgrade a Windows 98 system by upgrading a Pentium 4 processor to a Pentium4 Extreme Edition with HT. Now users complain to you that Windows hangs a lot and gives errors. What do you do first? a.
Reinstall Windows 98.
b. Upgrade Windows 98 to Windows XP.
c.
Check CMOS setup to verify that hyper-threading is disabled.
d. Check CMOS setup to verify that hyper-threading is enabled. The first thing you do is (c) Check CMOS setup to verify that hyper-threading is disabled. It’s important to check the simple things first. Chapter 6 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What are three main categories of form factors used for motherboards? AT, ATX, BTX 2. How many power cords connect to a Baby AT motherboard? Two 3. On the Enhanced ATX motherboard that supports PCI Express, how many pins does the P1 power connector have? 24 4. What are the names of the two power connectors used on the AT motherboard form factors? P8 and P9
5. What is the name of the one power connector on the ATX motherboard form factor? P1 6. How many pins does the regular ATX power connector to the motherboard have? How many pins does the Enhanced ATX power connector to the motherboard have? 20, 24 7. What are the three versions of the BTX form factor for motherboards? BTX, Micro BTX, Pico BTX 8. Name 10 components that are contained on a motherboard.
Processor, chip set, system clock, ROM BIOS, CMOS configuration chip, CMOS battery, RAM, RAM cache, system bus with expansion slots, jumpers and DIP switches, ports that are directly on the board, power supply connections 9. What are two data bus widths used by the conventional PCI bus? 32 bits, 64 bits 10. When people speak of bus size, to what are they specifically referring? The width of the data path on the bus, which can be 8, 16, 32, 64, or more bits. 11. What are the four speeds of the most popular motherboards currently available on the market that support Intel processors? 1066 MHz, 800 MHz, 533 MHz, and 400 MHz 12. Name the three most popular manufacturers of system BIOS programs. AMI BIOS, Award BIOS, Compaq, Dell, IBM, Micro Firmware (BIOS upgrades), Phoenix BIOS, Unicore (BIOS upgrades) 13. Which is faster, a PCI Express x16 bus or the latest AGP bus? PCI Express x16 is about 4 times faster than the latest AGP bus 14. What is one reason to flash BIOS? To add new features made available by the BIOS manufacturer or to attempt to solve problems with the motherboard 15. What is the easiest way to obtain the latest software to upgrade BIOS? Go to the Web site of the BIOS or motherboard manufacturer. 16. When examining a PCI expansion card, how can you tell what voltage(s) the card can use? The notches on the card connector are keyed to voltage requirements. A single notch near the back plate of the card is keyed to 3.3V. A notch near the end of the card indicates a 5V card and notches in both positions indicate a universal card that can use either a 5V or 3.3V PCI slot. 17. What are the four categories of cargo that are carried over a bus?
Electrical power, control signals, memory addresses, and data 18. What bus is expected to replace AGP to support the video card in a system? PCI Express 19. What is the name of the BIOS program that edits the values in CMOS RAM? CMOS setup 20. Describe how you can access the CMOS setup program. By pressing certain keys (depending on the specific computer and CMOS program) during the boot process
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Why does a motherboard sometimes support more than one system bus speed? So that it can support different processors running at different speeds 2. Why don’t all buses on a motherboard operate at the same speed? It is because not all devices to which the buses are connected transmit data at the same speed. The speeds of different hardware components are evolving at different rates. 3. When you turn off a computer at night, it loses the date, and you must reenter it each morning. What is the problem and how do you solve it? The CMOS battery is dead and needs replacing. 4. Why do you think the trend is to store configuration information on a motherboard in CMOS setup rather than by using jumpers or switches? Possible answers: •
Because changing setup using jumpers or switches requires opening the computer case, and CMOS setup is easier to change
•
Because there are many more settings on today’s newer motherboards that would require too many jumpers and switches
5. When troubleshooting a motherboard, you discover the modem port no longer works. What is the best and least expensive solution to this problem? a.
Replace the motherboard
b. Disable the modem port and install a modem card in an expansion slot. c.
Use an external modem that connects to the serial or USB port.
d. Return the motherboard to the factory for repair. All the above solutions might be possible. The least expensive and simplest solution is b. Disable the modem port and install a modem card in an expansion slot. 6. A computer freezes at odd times. At first you suspect the power supply or overheating, but you have eliminated overheating and replaced the power supply without solving the problem. What do you do next? a. Replace the processor. b. Replace the motherboard. c. Reinstall Windows. d.Replace the memory modules. e.Flash BIOS Try the simple things first: Flash BIOS
Chapter 7 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name two ways that a SIMM and a DIMM are alike. Name two ways they are different. Both are rated by their speed and the amount of memory they hold, both store DRAM, and both have used EDO and FPM in the past. SIMMs hold smaller amounts of memory (from 256K to 16 MB) than DIMMs (8 MB to 1 GB). SIMMs have a single connected pin on the edge connector and DIMMs have individual pins or connectors on each side of the edge connector. SIMMs must be installed in pairs and DIMMs can be installed individually. individually.
2. How many pins are on a SDRAM DIMM? On a DDR DIMM? On a SIMM? On a RIMM? For DIMM, 168, 184, or 240; for SIMM, 30 or 72; for RIMM, 184 or 232 3. Which is likely to be more expensive, a 512-MB DIMM or a 512-MB RIMM? Why? A RIMM is more expensive, because Rambus holds the patent on the RIMM technology and royalties must be paid by the module manufacturer. 4. How many notches are on a DDR SDRAM module? One 5. What prevents a DDR DIMM from being installed in a DDR2 DIMM slot on a motherboard? The position of the one notch on the DIMM module 6. What component must be installed in every empty memory slot on a motherboard using Rambus technology? C-RIMM 7. What types of memory can be used on a 100-MHz motherboard? SDRAM and DDR SDRAM 8. Looking at an SDRAM DIMM, how can you know for certain the voltage needed by the module? Look at the notch on the right side of the module. 9. How many 30-pin SIMMs are installed in one bank? Four 10. How many 72-pin SIMMs are installed in one bank? Two 11. What are two speeds of RIMMs? 800 MHz, 1066 MHz, 1200 MHz
12. List at least four things you can do if you receive memory errors during a memory upgrade. Possible answers are: •
Check that you have the right memory modules supported by your motherboard.
•
Check that you have installed the right module size, as stated in the motherboard documentation. Verify each module that was already installed or newly installed.
•
Remove and reinstall the module. Make sure it is seated in the socket at the same height as other modules.
•
Remove the newly installed memory and check whether the error message disappears. Try the memory in different sockets. Try installing the new memory without the old installed. If the new memory works without the old, then the problem is that the modules are not compatible.
•
Clean the module edge connectors with a soft cloth or contact cleaner. Blow B low or vacuum dust from the memory sockets.
•
Try flashing your BIOS. Perhaps BIOS is having problems with the new memory, which can be solved by a BIOS upgrade.
13. What might be a symptom in Windows of unreliable memory on a motherboard? A general protection fault or other memory error or the system freezes or hangs. 14. List at least four things you can do if you receive memory errors during normal operation when you have not recently upgraded memory. Possible answers: 1. Run a current version of antivirus software to check for viruses. 2. Run diagnostic software such as PC Technician or Memtest86 test memory. 3. Are the memory modules properly seated? Remove and reinstall each one. For a DIMM module, try a different memory slot.
4. Look for bent pins or chips installed the wrong way on cache memory. 5. Replace memory modules one at a time. For example, if the system only recognizes six out of eight megabytes of RAM, swap the last two SIMM modules. Did the amount of recognized RAM change? You might be able to solve the problem just by reseating the modules. 6. Sometimes a problem can result from a bad socket or a broken trace (a fine-printed wire or circuit) on the motherboard. If so, you might have to replace the entire motherboard. 7. The problem might be with the OS or applications. Download the latest patch for the software from the manufacturer’s Web site. 8. If you have just installed new hardware, the hardware device might be giving an error, which is interpreted by the OS as a memory error. Try uninstalling the new hardware. 9. A Windows error that occurs randomly and contains “exception fault 0E at >>0137:BFF9z5d0” or similar text probably indicates a memory error. Test, reseat, or replace RAM.
15. If your motherboard calls for 60-ns memory, can you substitute 70-ns memory? Why or why not? The smaller the number, the faster the memory. You should not use memory slower than the recommended memory speed. 16. When buying memory, what can you look for that might indicate that the memory is remanufactured? If the date stamps on the chip are more than one year old, the memory is probably used. 17. Which memory module standard (RIMM or DIMM) is an open standard? Which standard is a copyrighted standard? DIMM, RIMM 18. What is the data path size of a SIMM? A current DIMM? 32, 64
19. What are the two current data path sizes of RIMMs? 16, 32 20. What improvements did DDR make over regular SDRAM? Data is processed twice in one clock beat, doubling the speed of regular SDRAM 21. When a DIMM has chips on both sides of the module, do the pins on one side of the module work independently or dependent to pins on the other side of the module? Pins on each side work independently. 22. Which is faster, CL3 memory or CL5 memory? CL3 is faster than CL5 memory. 23. You are looking to purchase two DIMMs running at 400 MHz. You find DIMMs advertised at PC4000 and PC3200. Which do you purchase? PC3200 24. You need to find out how much RAM is installed in a system. What command do you enter in the Run dialog box to launch the System Information utility? Msinfo32 25. Although ECC memory costs more than non-ECC memory, why would you choose to use it? ECC memory is more reliable than non-ECC memory. THINKING CRITICALLY
1. If your motherboard supports DIMM memory, will RIMM memory still work on the board? No, you can only use the type of memory module the board is designed to support. 2. If your motherboard supports ECC SDRAM memory, can you substitute SDRAM memory that does not support ECC? If your motherboard supports buffered SDRAM memory, can you substitute unbuffered SDRAM modules?
You can substitute non-ECC memory on an ECC board, and the error-checking feature will be shown disabled in CMOS. You cannot use unbuffered SDRAM on a motherboard that supports buffered memory, because the notches on buffered DIMMs are in different positions than for unbuffered DIMMs. 3. You have just upgraded memory on a computer from 64 MB to 128 MB by adding one DIMM. When you first turn on the PC, the memory count shows only 64 MB. Which of the following is most likely the source of the problem? What can you do to fix it? a. Windows is giving an error because it likely became corrupted while the PC was disassembled. b. The new DIMM you installed is faulty. c. The new DIMM is not properly seated. d. The DIMM is installed in the wrong slot. The new DIMM is not properly seated. Turn off the PC and reseat the DIMM. Check that the DIMM is standing in the slot at the same height of the other DIMMs installed. 4. Your motherboard supports dual channeling and you currently have two slots used in Channel A on the board. You want to install an additional 512MB of RAM. Will your system run faster if you install two 256 MB DIMMs or one 512 MB DIMM? Explain your answer. The system will run faster if you install two DIMMs because dual channeling can be used if both Channel B slots are filled. Dual channeling is faster than single channeling. Chapter 8 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name four ATA standards for interfacing with hard drives. Possible answers: IDE/ATA, ATA-2, Fast ATA, Parallel ATA, EIDE, ATA-3, ATA/ATAPI-4, Ultra ATA, Fast ATA-2, Ultra DMA, DMA/33, ATA/ATAPI-5, Ultra ATA/66, Ultra DMA/66, ATA/ATAPI-6, Ultra ATA/100, Ultra DMA/100, ATA/ATAPI-7, Ultra ATA/133, Serial ATA
2. What are the two data transfer modes used by hard drives? PIO and DMA 3. What are the two types of parallel ATA data cables used with hard drives? 80-conductor cable and 40-conductor cable 4. What is the name of the ATA standard that uses a serial data cable? Serial ATA 5. What are the two most popular spindle speeds measured in RPMs currently used for hard drives? 5400 and 7200 6. How does serial ATA help keep a computer case cool better than parallel ATA? Because serial ATA cables are thinner, they do not hinder air flow as much as wider parallel ATA cables. 7. If a hard drive has three platters, how many heads does it have? Six 8. Given that there are 512 bytes per sector, calculate the hard drive storage for the following: heads = 32, tracks (cylinders) = 1,024, sectors/track = 63. 1,056,964,608 bytes 9. What are three modes that system BIOS can use to relate to hard drives? CHS mode, ECHS mode (large mode), or LBA mode 10. Which mode must be used for a 10-GB hard drive? LBA mode 11. What is the ATA standard that changed the number of bits used to address data on a hard drive? ATA/ATAPI-6 12. How does block mode give faster access to a hard drive? How can you disable block mode?
Block mode enables multiple transfers of data on a single software interrupt. You can disable block mode in CMOS setup. 13. When installing a hard drive and a CD-ROM drive on the same IDE channel, which do you configure as the master and which as the slave? The hard drive is the master and the CD-ROM is the slave. 14. What are three ATA hard drive interface standards that do not use a 40-conductor hard drive cable? ATA/ATAPI-4, ATA/ATAPI-5, ATA/ATAPI-6, ATA/ATAPI-7 15. Generally, which transfer mode is faster, DMA or PIO? DMA 16. When two drives are connected to the same data cable connected to an IDE channel, how does BIOS know which drive controls the channel? One drive is marked as master either by a jumper or DIP switch settings on the devices or by using a special cable-select data cable. 17. If a motherboard has two parallel ATA connections, how many EIDE devices can the system support? Four 18. If a hard drive is too small to physically fit snugly into the drive bay, what can you do? Use a universal bay kit to fit the drive securely into the bay. 19. How can you tell which side of a hard drive’s data cable connects to pin 1 on the drive? You can tell by looking at the edge color on the data cable. Pin 1 should be closest to the power connection. 20. If your BIOS does not support a large-capacity drive that you want to install, what five choices do you have? Let the BIOS see the drive as a smaller drive. Upgrade the BIOS.
Upgrade the entire motherboard. Use software that interfaces between the older BIOS and the large-capacity drive. Use a controller card that provides the BIOS to substitute for system BIOS. 21. Which ATA standard allows for serial ATA and Serial Attached SCSI to coexist in the same system? AATA/ATAPI-7 22. What is the name of the power connector used with floppy drives? A Berg connector 23. How many pins does a floppy drive cable have? 34 24. What was the underlying cause that prevented hard drives from breaking the 137-GB size barrier until the ATA/ATAPI-6 standard was released? The number of bits the OS and hard drive controller used to pass addresses to data on the drive 25. Why does a serial ATA drive sometimes have two power connectors on the drive? It sometimes has two power connectors to accommodate two different types of power connectors from the power supply. Only use one connector. 26. What is the name of the expansion card in a SCSI system that controls the SCSI bus? The host adapter 27. Why is it not necessary to inform CMOS setup about the installation of a new hard drive? Because setup automatically detects installed hard drives 28. Which has a faster interface to the system, an external serial ATA hard drive or an external FireWire hard drive? External serial ATA hard drive 29. On a floppy disk, how many bits are used for each entry in the FAT? 12 30. How can you tell if your motherboard chip set supports Ultra DMA mode?
By looking in CMOS setup or the motherboard documentation THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You install a hard drive and then turn on the PC for the first time. You access CMOS setup and see that the drive is not recognized. Which of the following do you do next? a.
Turn off the PC, open the case, and verify that memory modules on the motherboard have not become loose.
b.
Turn off the PC, open the case, and verify that the data cable and power cable are connected correctly and jumpers on the drive are set correctly.
c.
Verify that BIOS autodetection is enabled.
d.
Reboot the PC and enter CMOS setup again to see if it now recognizes the drive.
c. Verify that BIOS autodetection is enabled. 2. Every motherboard built today that includes serial ATA connectors has at least one parallel ATA connector on the board. What is the most important reason this parallel ATA is present? a. The hard drive used for booting the OS must use a parallel ATA connector. b. The IDE controller will not work without at least one parallel ATA connector. c. It is so the board can accommodate older hard drives using the parallel ATA connector. d. The parallel ATA connector is needed for EIDE drives such as a CD or DVD drive c. It is so the board can accommodate older hard drives using the parallel ATA connector. d. The parallel ATA connector is needed for EIDE drives such as a CD or DVD drive.
3. You want to set up your desktop system to have a total hard drive space of 150 GB, but your system does not support drives larger than 120 GB. Which of the following do you do? a. Buy a new motherboard that will support drives larger than 120 GB.
b. Use two hard drives in your system that together total 150 GB. c. Flash BIOS so that your system will support a 150-GB drive. d. Use a special IDE controller card that will support a 150-GB drive. Use two hard drives in your system that together total 150 GB. It would be an unnecessarily expensive solution to purchase the hardware to support drives larger than 137 GB. Chapter 9 Reviewing the Basics
1. Identify three things that may cause monitor flicker. Poor cable connections, accumulated magnetic fields, electrical noise, vertical scan frequency below 60 Hz, screen resolution set too high 2. Describe what to do if you have just spilled soda pop on your keyboard. Replace the keyboard. You might be able to salvage the keyboard by thoroughly rinsing it in running water. 3. Explain how to check that chips on a video card are properly seated in their sockets. Remove the card from the expansion slot and then use a screwdriver to press down firmly on each corner of each socketed chip on the card. 4. When troubleshooting problems with a monitor in Windows XP, why would you enter Safe Mode? To allow the OS to select a generic display driver and low resolution 5. Describe how to boot Windows XP into Safe Mode. Press F8 during startup to display the startup menu. Then use the arrow keys to select Safe Mode from the startup menu. 6. Why would an external modem cost more than an internal modem? Because an external modem has the added cost of an external case, power source, and data cable 7. Name three possible ways a scanner might interface with a motherboard.
Through a SCSI port, a USB port, or through FireWire 8. By definition, what system resources does COM1 use? COM2? COM3? COM4? COM1—IRQ 4, memory addresses 03F8-3FF COM2—IRQ 3, memory addresses 02F8-2FF COM3—IRQ 4, memory addresses 03E8-3EF COM4—IRQ 3, memory addresses 02E8-2EF 9. What is the display resolution for standard VGA settings? 640 x 480 10. What is the maximum length of a serial cable? 50 feet 11. To what does RS-232 refer? It refers to Reference Standard 232 revision c. This is the standard for the serial port, which is sometimes called the RS-232 port. 12. How many pins are on a typical serial port? 9 13. What is the name of a barcode reader that is a gun-type reader that can be handheld and is often used at a checkout counter? CCD scanner 14. What is the purpose of a keyboard wedge? A keyboard wedge is used so that a keyboard and barcode reader can share a keyboard port. 15. What is the name of the technology within the chipset that controls the speed of serial ports? UART 16. Why might you choose to use ECP mode for your parallel port rather than EPP mode? If you need greater speed 17. When might you need to disable ECP mode for a parallel port?
If you are having problems with resource conflicts 18. How would you disable a serial port on a motherboard? Use CMOS setup 19. What Windows OSs support USB? Include the OS version numbers where that information is important. Windows 95 OSR 2.1 was the first Microsoft OS to support USB, although Windows 98 offers much improved USB support. In addition to Windows 95 with the USB update and Windows 98, Windows 2000 and Windows XP support USB, but Windows NT does not. 20. What is the maximum speed of Original USB? Of Hi-Speed USB? 12 Mbps, 480 Mbps 21. What is the maximum length of a USB Hi-Speed cable? Five meters 22. What are two other names for FireWire? What is the highest data throughput approved for FireWire? i.Link and IEEE 1394; data throughput is 3.2 Gbps 23. When selecting a motherboard, why would you prefer to use PCI Express for the video card rather than AGP? Because PCI Express x1 is faster than AGP 24. What is the most important disadvantage of using biometric devices to authenticate a person to have access to a system? The danger of false negatives or false positives 25. What criteria affect how much video RAM is needed for a video card to hold one frame buffer? Screen resolution, color depth, and enhancements to color information (alpha blending) 26. Give three examples of monitor screen sizes. How are monitor screen sizes measured?
There are 14-, 15-, 17-, and 21-inch screen sizes. Screen size describes the diagonal length of the screen surface. 27. What are two advantages of setting an LCD monitor to run in its native resolution? Faster response time and sharper display 28. What type of CRT monitor can offer a variety of refresh rates? Multiscan 29. How many pins are used in the IEEE 1394 connector that supports the IEEE 1394b standard? Nine 30. How many keyed notches does an AGP universal slot have? None 31. What makes a device an ergonomic device? If it is designed for safe and comfortable interaction between human beings and machines 32. How many pins are there on a DIN connector and a PS/2 connector for a keyboard? Five pins on a DIN connector; six pins on the smaller PS/2 connector 33. What three colors are used to build all colors on a color monitor screen? Red, green, and blue 34. Which gives better image quality, a .25-mm dot pitch monitor or a .28-mm dot pitch monitor? Why? A .25 does because the smaller the pitch, the sharper the image. 35. If a mouse begins to be difficult to operate, what simple thing can you do to help? Remove the cover to the mouse ball and the mouse ball itself, and clean the rollers with a cotton swab dipped in a very small amount of liquid soap. Thinking Critically
1.
You plug a new scanner into a USB port on your Windows XP system. When you first turn on the scanner, what should you expect to see?
a.
You see a message displayed by the scanner software telling you to reboot your system.
b.
You see the Found New Hardware Wizard launch.
c.
Your system automatically reboots.
d.
You see an error message from the USB controller.
The Found New Hardware Wizard launches. 2.
You install the software bundled with your digital camera to download pictures from your camera to your system using a serial port. Next you plug up the camera to the port using a serial cable and turn on your camera. You attempt to use the software to download pictures, but the software does not recognize the camera is present. What do you do next?
a.
Return the camera and purchase one that uses a USB port for downloading.
b.
Reinstall the bundled software.
c.
Access CMOS setup and verify that the serial port is enabled.
d.
Use Device Manager to verify that the OS recognizes the serial port.
e.
Replace the serial cable.
Follow the troubleshooting rule: Do the simple things first. Therefore, the first thing to do is to use Device Manager to verify that the OS recognizes the serial port. 3.
You turn on your Windows 2000 computer and see the system display POST messages. Then the screen turns blue with no text. Which of the following items could be the source of the problem? a. The video card b. The monitor c. Windows d. WordPerfect software installed on the system
Windows could be the problem, but not the other three items.
Chapter 10 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What must be true before MMX, SSE, SSE2, and 3DNow! technology can improve multimedia performance on a PC? The applications and hardware devices must be designed to use the technology. 2. What is the significance of the multi-session feature on a CD drive? The drive can read a disc that has been created in multiple sessions rather than having been written all at once. 3. Name three ways a CD drive can interface with a motherboard. With an EIDE interface, sharing an IDE connection, a cable, or both with a hard drive. These drives use the ATAPI standard. Using a SCSI interface with a SCSI host adapter For portable drives, with an external port (such as a USB, FireWire, or SCSI port) on your PC 4. Which side of a CD contains data? The bright, bottom side (not the side with the label) 5. If a CD drive and a hard drive are sharing the same data cable in a computer system, what type of connection is the CD drive using? Which of the two drives should be set to master? Which to slave? The CD drive is using an EIDE connection. The hard drive should be set to master and the CD drive to slave. 6. What unit of measure is used to express the sampling rate of a sound card? Hertz (Hz) 7. Why must sound and video input into a PC be converted from analog to digital?
Analog data is smooth and continuous, whereas digital data, such as the binary data used in computers, has distinct gradations. The process of producing digital data by measuring data at a series of representative points is called sampling. 8. What is the sampling rate (in Hz) of music CDs? 44,100 Hz 9. How many samples can be stored in 8 bits? 256 10. What would be a quick, short test to see if a sound card was successfully installed? Play a music CD. 11. In a system that uses a CD drive, the audio wire connects the _____ to the _____. CD drive, sound card 12. Why would you want to re-tension a backup tape? Re-tensioning fast-forwards and rewinds the tape to eliminate any loose spots. Some backup software requires this. 13. Which holds more data, a Microdrive or a Zip drive? A Microdrive 14. How is the direction of data flow different for data transfers for MP3 players and digital cameras? MP3 files are downloaded from the PC to the MP3 player, in contrast to a digital camera, for which data is transferred or uploaded from the camera to the PC. 15. What is the significance of Sound Blaster compatibility for a sound card? A Sound Blaster-compatible card can understand the commands sent to it that have been written for Sound Blaster. 16. When using a single speaker, which port on a sound card is used to send sound out? The front speaker port, which is generally the center port and is often green
17. What is the difference between MPEG, JPEG, and MP3? Explain for what each one is used. MPEG (Moving Pictures Experts Group) is a standard for data compression for motion pictures, video, and audio. JPEG is a standard for data compression for photographs and graphics. MP3 is a popular version of MPEG that is used for data compression for audio. 18. Name at least four features you should look for when buying a video capture card. •
A FireWire interface
•
Data transfer rates
•
Capture resolution and color-depth capabilities
•
Ability to transfer data back to the digital camcorder or VCR
•
Stereo audio jacks
•
Video-editing software bundled with the card 19. When connecting cords to the rear of a sound card and the card has a blue, red, yellow, and black port, which port is most likely to be used for the microphone?
Red port 20. In the question above, which port is likely to be used for sound input from a DVD player sitting beside the computer? Blue port 21. What are the three ways that data on a DVD can be decoded? •
Decoder software is installed on the hard drive.
•
A decoder card is installed in an expansion slot.
•
A decoder is part of the firmware on a video capture card. 22. What is the most popular way an internal DVD drive interfaces with a motherboard?
EIDE connection 23. What is the difference between CD, CD-R, and CD-RW drives?
A CD-ROM is read-only. A CD-R is recordable once. A CD-RW is rewriteable, meaning that you can write new data over old data. 24. Rank these storage methods in order of their storage capacity: DVD, floppy disk, CD, tape. From least to greatest: floppy disk, CD-ROM, DVD, tape 25. How many unique speakers can Surround Sound 7.1 support? Up to 8 speakers 26. Which type of flash memory device is typically used on a Sony digital camera? Memory Stick 27. What is currently the most popular memory device used in digital camera? Secure Digital (SD) cards 28. Of the flash memory device used in digital cameras, which uses the latest technology and holds the most data? xD-Picture Card 29. Current DVD recordable drives for personal computers can write only 8.5 GB of data on a DVD. How many layers and how many sides or surfaces of the disc are used for the data? Data is written in two layers to one side or surface of the disc. 30. Which version of RAID is supported by Windows XP? Does this RAID version provide fault tolerance? RAID 0 (striped), No THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You have just installed a new sound card and its drivers and connected the speakers and amplifier. You insert a music CD into the drive to test the drive. Windows Media Player launches and says it is playing the CD, but you don’t hear music. What do you do first? a. Check the volume controls on the speaker amplifier.
b. Check the connections of the amplifier and speakers to the card. c. Check Device Manager for errors with the sound card. d. Verify that the amplifier has power. Do the simple thing first: Check the volume controls on the speaker amplifier. 2. You have just upgraded your computer from Windows 98 to Windows XP. Now your system has no sound. What are the first two things you do? a.
Check Device Manager to see if the sound card is recognized and has no errors.
b. Reinstall Windows 98. c.
Use Device Manager to uninstall the sound card.
d. Identify your sound card by opening the case and looking on the card for manufacturer and model. e.
Identify your sound card by finding the documentation and driver CD that came with the card.
f.
Download Windows XP drivers for the sound card from the sound card manufacturer’s Web site.
Check Device Manager to see if the sound card is recognized and has no errors. Then identify your sound card by finding the documentation and driver CD that came with the card. 3. You have just installed a new DVD drive and its drivers, but the drive does not work. You check the power and data cables and feel comfortable that the hardware installation is correct. You then decide to reload the device drivers. What is the first thing you do? a. Open the Control Panel and launch the Add New Hardware Wizard. b. Open Device Manager and choose Update Driver. c. Remove the data cable from the DVD drive so Windows will no longer recognize the drive and allow you to reinstall the drivers. d. Open Device Manager and uninstall the drive. Open Device Manager and uninstall the drive.
4. Which method of fault tolerance is the least expensive per MB of storage, disk duplexing or disk striping with parity? Explain your answer. Disk duplexing requires writing the same data twice and requires an extra controller. Disk striping with parity only writes the data once and r equires only one controller. Although the parity information in disk striping with parity does take up some space, it does not take up as much space as the duplicate data in disk duplexing. Therefore, disk duplexing is more expensive. 5. Does RAID 0 provide fault tolerance? Explain your answer. RAID 0 does not provide fault tolerance because a single logical drive is spread over two or more physical hard drives. If one fails, the data cannot be recovered from the others. RAID 0 is designed to increase performance, not provide fault tolerance. Chapter 11 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name the five versions of Windows XP. Windows XP Home Edition Windows XP Professional Windows XP Media Center Edition Windows XP Tablet PC Edition Windows XP Professional x64 Edition 2. When installing Windows XP Service Pack 2 on a notebook computer, why is it important to use an AC adapter rather than a battery during the installation? So that the notebook doesn’t power down part way through the installation due to a low battery 3. When you are trying to determine if your Windows 2000 computer can support Windows XP, list the steps to know how much RAM is currently installed. Right-click the My Computer icon and select Properties from the menu. Click the General tab. RAM is displayed on this tab.
4. Which version of Windows XP must be installed on a system that is using the Intel Itanium processor? Why? Windows XP Professional 64x Edition, because the Itanium is a 64-bit processor. 5. How many processors in a system can Windows XP support? Two 6. How much free space on a partition does Windows XP require for installation? How much does it require for acceptable operation? 1.5 GB, 2 GB 7. How much memory is required to install Windows XP? How much is recommended to run applications under Windows XP? 64 MB, at least 128 MB
8. How long do you have to activate Windows XP? What happens if you don’t? You have up to 30 days after installation to activate Windows XP, after which the system will refuse to boot. 9. What is the first Microsoft product to use product activation? Microsoft Office XP 10. What is the path for the report file created when you run the Windows XP Readiness Analyzer? C:\Windows\compat.txt 11. What is the difference between joining a workgroup and joining a domain? In a workgroup, each user account is set up on the local computer independent of other accounts on other PCs, and there is no centralized control of resources. In a domain, user accounts and system resources are controlled by a centralized domain controller. 12. What layer of Windows 2000/XP is most responsible for interacting with hardware? The HAL (hardware abstraction layer)
13. What is one reason that interaction with hardware is limited to only one or two components of Windows 2000/XP? Limiting hardware interaction with OS components enables Windows NT/2000/XP to be ported easily to different hardware platforms and increases OS integrity by providing more control over resources and better performance. 14. What are the two modes of the Windows 2000/XP architecture? User mode and kernel mode 15. Which of these two modes contains the NTVDM? User mode 16. What is the name of the folder on the Windows 2000/XP CD where the installation files are stored? \i386 17. Before you install Windows 2000/XP, how can you determine if the OS supports all the hardware on your PC? The best way is to search the Microsoft Web site. Or check manufacturer web sites for Windows 2000/XP drivers. 18. What is one reason to use a clean install rather than an upgrade when migrating from Windows 98 to Windows 2000? Their registries are not compatible. You do not get the benefit of a fresh start. 19. What file systems does Windows 98 support? Windows XP? FAT16, FAT32 FAT16, FAT32, and NTFS 20. What is the file system that is common to DOS, Windows 9x, Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows XP? FAT16
21. Windows 2000 assumes a BIOS manufactured after what date is a good BIOS? January 1, 1999 22. Which of the two Windows 2000 setup programs is a 32-bit program? A 16-bit program? Winnt32.exe, Winnt.exe
23. Windows XP is installed using a system partition and a boot partition. Which of these partitions must be the active partition of the hard drive? The system partition 24. In a Windows 2000/XP workgroup, where is access to an individual workstation on the network controlled? In a workgroup, access to an individual workstation is controlled from that workstation. 25. In a Windows 2000/XP domain, where is access to an individual workstation on the network controlled? In a domain, access to an individual workstation can be controlled from the centralized domain server. 26. What is required before Windows 2000/XP can provide full power management functionality? The system BIOS must be ACPI-compliant. 27. Name three manufacturers responsible for the initial development of ACPI. Intel, Microsoft, and Toshiba 28. If you are installing Windows 2000 on a new hard drive and your system cannot boot from a CD, how do you begin the installation? Create a set of Windows 2000 setup disks on another computer to boot the PC and begin the installation.
29. If you install Windows 2000 on an 8-GB hard drive, use a single partition for the drive, and choose not to use the NTFS file system, what file system will Windows 2000 automatically use? FAT32 30. What is the command to create a set of Windows 2000 boot disks? Makeboot 31. If your BIOS is not ACPI-compliant, what should you do before you install Windows 2000? Flash your BIOS to make it ACPI-compliant. 32. If an administrator is concerned about security on a system, which file system is appropriate? NTFS 33. Can you perform an upgrade of Windows 2000 from a remote computer on the network? Explain your answer. You cannot perform an upgrade of Windows 2000 from a remote computer, because to perform an upgrade, you must begin the installation while you are in the current OS. THINKING CRITICALLY 1.
You are planning an upgrade from Windows 98 to Windows XP. Your system uses a modem card that you don’t find listed on the Microsoft Windows XP list of compatible devices. What do you do next?
a. Abandon the upgrade and continue to use Windows 98.
b. Check the Web site of the modem manufacturer for a Windows XP driver.
c. Buy a new modem card.
d. Install a dual boot for Windows 98 and Windows XP and only use the modem when you have Windows 98 loaded.
Although any of the listed options will work, the best next step is to check the Web site of the modem manufacturer for a Windows XP driver. 2.
You have just installed Windows XP and now attempt to install your favorite game that worked fine under Windows 98. When you attempt the installation, you get an error. What is your best next step?
a. Purchase a new version of your game, one that is compatible with Windows XP.
b. Download any service packs or patches to Windows XP.
c. Reinstall Windows 98.
The best choice is to download any service packs or patches to Windows XP. These fixes might solve your problem. 3.
If you find out that one of your applications is not supported by Windows XP and you still want to use XP, what can you do to solve this incompatibility problem?
Upgrade the application or install XP as a dual boot so the application can still work under the old OS. 4.
Is it possible to install Windows XP on a system that does not have a CD-ROM drive or other optical drive? Explain your answer.
Yes, it is possible to install Windows XP on a system that already has an OS installed and is connected to a network. You can copy files on the Windows CD to the PC’s hard drive from across the network and then run the Setup program from the hard drive. Chapter 12 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What does %SystemRoot% mean? Indicates the Windows 2000/XP folder on the boot partition, usually C:\Windows or C:\Winnt 2. What is the normal path and the filename of the Windows 2000/XP virtual memory file? C:\pagefile.sys 3. In what folder does Windows 2000 store a backup of the registry when backing up the system state? The %SystemRoot%\ repair\RegBack folder 4. What is the command to install the Windows 2000/XP Support Tools? D:\Support\Tools\Setup.exe (substituting the drive letter of the CD-ROM drive for D in the command line, if necessary) 5. What type of user account must you be using to install a hardware device that is using drivers that are not digitally signed by Microsoft? An account with administrative privileges 6. What Windows utility can you use to help you decide if the system needs more RAM? Task Manager 7. What tool can you use to create a console containing Device Manager and Event Viewer? MMC (Microsoft Management Console) 8. What is the file extension assigned to a console file? .msc 9. Name one snap-in contained in a Computer Management console. Event Viewer, System Information, Device Manager, Disk Management, Disk Defragmenter, Services Console 10. What is the program filename for System File Checker? Sfc.exe 11. List three ways to access the Task Manager. •
Press the Ctrl, Alt, and Delete keys simultaneously. If the Windows Security window opens,
click the Task Manager button. •
Right-click a blank area on the taskbar and select Task Manager from the shortcut menu.
•
Press the Ctrl, Shift, and Esc keys simultaneously. 12. List the steps used to end an application when it refuses to respond to keystrokes or the mouse action.
Open Task Manager, select the application, and click the End Task button at the bottom of the Task Manager window. 13. What are the three logs kept by Event Viewer? Application, security, and system 14. In what folder do you put a console file that you want displayed when you are logged on as an administrator and then click Start, Programs, and Administrative Tools? C:\Documents and Settings\ username \Start Menu\Programs\Administrative Tools 15. Before clearing the Event Viewer log, explain how you can save the log for later viewing. In Event Viewer, execute one of the two commands to clear the log. Before clearing the log, Event Viewer gives you a chance to save it. 16. By default, Windows 2000/XP makes the paging file how large compared to the amount of RAM installed? 1.5 times the amount of RAM 17. What Windows utility lists all the applications set to load at Windows startup? Msconfig or the System Configuration Utility 18. What Windows utility can you use to list all the currently running applications? Task Manager 19. In what folder does Windows File Protection store an extra copy of system files? C:\Windows\System32\Dllcache 20. What SFC command sets the system to scan system files at the next reboot? sfc /scanonce
21. What SFC command sets the system to scan system files at every reboot? sfc /scanboot 22. What two files are used to build the HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT key of the registry? Software hive and the Usrclass.dat file 23. What two files are used to build the HKEY_USERS key of the registry? Ntuser.dat and Usrclass.dat 24. What Windows XP program file is used to edit the registry? Regedit.exe 25. What registry key is used to record installed software? HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Uninstall 26. In what folder do you install a program so that it starts up each time any user logs onto the system? C:\Documents and Settings\All Users\Start Menu\Programs\Startup 27. Looking at a program filename and file extension, how can you tell if the program is a MMC snap-in or a command-line program? The file extension .msc indicates a snap-in and the file extension .exe indicates a command-line program. 28. Which Windows registry subtree gets its information from the four registry files, Sam, Security, Software, and System? HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE 29. In Windows 2000/XP, a file that contains part of the Windows registry is called a(n) ______. Hive 30. To which registry key does the HKEY_CURRENT_USER key point for information? HKEY_USERS
31. What two components are created when you back up a system using the Automated System Recovery process? A backup of the entire volume on which Windows is installed and an ASR floppy disk THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You installed a hardware device that does not work. Then you updated the device drivers. Now Windows gives an error when it first starts up. What do you do first?
a.
Use System Restore to undo the installation.
b. Use Automated System Recovery to undo the installation. c.
Use Driver Rollback to undo the driver update.
d. Use Device Manager to uninstall the device.
Try the least drastic task first: Use Driver Rollback to undo the driver update. 2. You need to install a customized console on 10 computers. What is the best way to do that?
a. When installing the console on the first computer, write down each step to make it easier to do the same chore on the other nine.
b. Create the console on one computer and copy the .mmc file to the other nine.
c. Create the console on one computer and copy the .msc file to the other nine.
d. Create the console on one computer and copy the .msc file to the other nine.
d. Create the console on one computer and copy the .msc file to the other nine. 3. Can an application or device driver specify if it will use physical memory or the swap file for its data? Why or why not?
Windows 2000/XP does not allow installed software to specify physical memory or virtual memory, but instead uses the VMM to interface between the application or driver and the physical or virtual memory that it controls. This enables the OS to exercise more control over memory resources and prevent conflicts. 4. You are attempting to upload images from your digital camera to your Windows XP system using a USB connection, but you get errors. Select the appropriate task or tasks to solve the problem.
a.
Update Windows XP with service packs or patches
b. Reinstall the digital camera software c.
Reboot your system
d. Verify the camera is turned on
All the items listed are valid tasks. Chapter 13 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What are the two basic differences between the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard and the USMT utility? The User State Migration Tool (USMT) tool is a command-line tool and the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is a GUI tool. The USMT is designed to be used on a domain and the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is designed to be used in a workgroup. 2. What are the two commands in the USMT? Scanstate and Loadstate 3. When is the local user profile created? When the user first logs onto the system. 4. How are a roaming profile and a mandatory profile the same? How are they different?
A roaming profile and a mandatory profile are the same in that they follow users from one computer to another in a workgroup. They are different in that a user can change a roaming profile that applies only to this one user, but a mandatory profile is the same for a group of users and cannot be changed by the user. 5. What are two important criteria that make for a good password? The password is not easy to guess and it contains numbers, letters, and non-alphanumeric characters. 6. What can a user do to keep from having the administrator reset a forgotten password? Create a forgotten password floppy disk that can be used if the password is forgotten. 7. Which user group has more rights, Power Users or Administrators? Administrator 8. When using Group Policy on a computer in a workgroup, which type of configuration do you use? Computer configuration 9. What do you implement to control how much disk space a user can take up? Disk quotas 10. What is the difference between a cross-linked cluster and a lost cluster? What can cause them? More than one file points to a cross-linked cluster, and no file in the FAT or MFT points to lost clusters. Both can occur when the mapping in the FAT or MFT becomes corrupted. 11. What Windows 2000/XP utility program checks for cross-linked and lost clusters? Chkdsk.exe 12. What file system is necessary to use if a volume is to be compressed under Windows 2000? NTFS 13. What is the difference between an incremental backup and a differential backup?
An incremental backup backs up only files that have changed or have been created since the last backup, whether that backup was full or incremental. A differential backup backs up all files since the last full backup, regardless of whether other differential backups have been made since. Another difference is that incremental backups mark files as having been backed up, and differential backups do not. 14. What must you do before you can use the Windows Backup utility on a Windows XP Home Edition PC? Install the utility from the Windows XP setup CD. 15. Why should you create a disaster recovery plan? What type of information would you include in it? A disaster recovery plan can help you determine the impact of a disaster, when the last backup was made, and how to recover from the disaster. Include information on backup schedules, how to perform recovery procedures, and the name, type, date, time, and contents of the last backup. 16. List three third-party utility programs used to support hard drives. Norton Utilities, SpinRite, PartitionMagic, GetDataBack, PowerMax 17. When Windows XP is first installed, what two built-in user accounts are also installed? The administrator account and the guest account 18. If you want to log onto a Windows XP system using the administrator account, what keys do you first press? Ctrl-Alt-Del 19. How do you change the way a user can log onto Windows XP? From Control Panel, open the User Accounts applet. Click Change the way users log on or off. Make your selections and then click Apply Options to close the dialog box. 20. The _______ command erases files or groups of files. Del or Erase
21. What command is used to create a subdirectory? To change the current directory? To remove a subdirectory? MD, CD, RD 22. The ______ command displays or changes the read-only, archive, system, and hidden characteristics of files. Attrib 23. What is the command to check drive C for errors, repair these file system errors, and recover data from bad sectors? Chkdsk C: /R 24. What is the command to move data on drive C so that all clusters of a file are in contiguous locations on the drive? Defrag C: 25. What is the command to format drive D, using the NTFS file system? Format D: /FS:NTFS THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Your Windows XP system locks up occasionally. What are some probable causes and solutions? Note: This question combines skills learned in this and other chapters. a.
The hard drive has errors. Run ____ to correct file system errors.
b. An application might not be compatible with Windows XP. To find out if you have applications installed that are not certified by Microsoft for Windows XP, run the ____ utility. c.
The hard drive might be full. To find out, use _______ .
d. The system might have a virus. To eliminate that possibility, use __________. Chkdsk
Sigverig Windows Explorer, disk Properties window Anti-virus software 2.
You have an important FoxPro database stored on your hard drive. The drive has been giving bad sector errors for several weeks. You kept meaning to back up the data, but have not gotten around to it. Now you attempt to access the database and FoxPro tells you it cannot open the file. What do you try first? Second? Third? a. Reenter all the data and promise yourself you’ll be more faithful about backups. b. Use SpinRite software to attempt to recover the file. c. Use Chkdsk to recover data from bad sectors. d. Change the file extension of the database file to .txt and tell FoxPro to attempt to open
the file as an ASCII text file. Use Chkdsk to repair the drive. If this does not work, change the file extension of the database file to .txt and tell FoxPro to attempt to open the file as an ASCII text file. If this does not work, then try to use SpinRite software to recover the file. If that does not work, then reenter the data. 3. A virus has attacked your hard drive and now when you start up Windows, instead of seeing a Windows desktop, the system freezes and you see a blue screen of death (an error message on a blue background). You have extremely important document files on the drive that you cannot afford to loose. What do you do first? a. Try a data recovery service even though it is very expensive.b. Remove the hard drive from the computer case and install it in another computer. c. Try GetDataBack to recover the data d. Use Windows utilities to attempt to fix the Windows boot problem. Since recovering the data is certainly the top priority, you do not want to do anything to risk doing further damage to this data. The choice that is least likely to affect the data is to remove the
hard drive from this computer case and install it in another computer. Then boot into Windows and try copying the data from the bad hard drive to the good drive. Chapter 14 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. In the Windows 2000/XP boot process, what file reads and loads the boot menu? Ntldr 2. Where is the Boot.ini file stored? Root directory of the system partition (usually C:\) 3. What does %SystemRoot% mean? Indicates the Windows 2000/XP folder on the boot partition, usually C:\Windows 4. Under what circumstances would you use the Enable VGA Mode option on the Advanced Options menu? When the video setting has problems that prevent you from seeing well enough to fix it 5. What key do you press to display the Advanced Options menu during startup? F8 6. When you look at a Windows desktop, how can you tell if the system has been booted into Safe Mode? “Safe Mode” is displayed in all four corners of the screen. 7. What is the purpose of Safe Mode with networking under the Advanced Options menu? This mode is used when there is a problem with the boot process that requires access to the network to solve, or when the Windows 2000/XP installation files are loaded from the network and access to those files is required. 8. What is the name of the log file that Windows 2000/XP uses when booting in Safe Mode? Ntbtlog.txt
9. List the steps to load the Recovery Console when using the four Windows 2000 rescue disks. Insert the first of the four setup disks and restart the PC. You are directed to insert each of the four disks in turn, and then the Setup screen appears. Type R to select the “To repair a Windows 2000 installation” option. The Windows 2000 Repair Options window opens. Type C to select the Recovery Console. The Windows 2000 Recovery Console window opens. The Recovery Console looked at the hard drive and determined that only a single Windows 2000 installation was on the drive installed in the C:\Winnt folder. (The Winnt folder might be on a different drive on your machine.) Press 1 and then press Enter to select that installation. Enter the Administrator password and press Enter. If you do not know the password, you cannot use the console. You now have a command prompt. You can use a limited group of DOS-like commands at this point to recover a failed system. 10. Which Windows 2000/XP folder contains one subfolder for every user account? C:\Documents and Settings 11. What two subfolders in the C:\Windows\system32 folder contain files needed for Windows startup? \config and \drivers 12. What Recovery Console command is used to extract a file from a .cab file? Expand 13. Which option on the Windows XP Advanced Options menu is not available on the Windows 2000 menu? Disable automatic restart on system failure 14. Which Recovery Console command can be used to examine the partitions on a hard drive for errors?
Diskpart 15. On the Windows setup CD, what type of file uses an underscore as the last character in the file extension? A compressed file 16. Under what circumstances is the Administrator password not required when launching the Recovery Console? If the registry is so corrupted that it cannot read the Administrator password in order to validate it, you are not asked for the password, but you are limited as to what you can do in the Recovery Console. 17. What is the purpose of the Systemroot command under the Recovery Console? Sets the current directory to the directory where Windows 2000/XP is installed 18. Under the Recovery Console, what is the command to rewrite the Master Boot Program? Fixmbr 19. What is the command to install the Recovery Console on the boot loader menu? winnt32 /cmdcons 20. Before you can perform the Windows 2000 Emergency Repair Process, what disk must you have? What is contained on the disk? The ERD (Emergency Repair Disk), which contains enough data to restore the system to the state in which it was in immediately after the Windows 2000 installation 21. When would you use System File Checker? What is the command to execute it? The SFC is used to verify that the system is using correct versions of all protected system files. The command to execute it is Sfc or Sfc.exe. Use it when you suspect the system has corrupted system files. 22. What is the program filename for System File Checker? Sfc.exe
23. What is the name of two utility programs that allows you to view the contents of the Boot.ini file? Bootcfg and Msconfig 24. What is the Windows XP recovery tool that is similar to the Windows 2000 Emergency Repair Process? Automated System Recovery 25. Place these tools in the order in which you should try them when troubleshooting the boot process: Recovery Console, Advanced Options Menu, and System Restore. Advanced Options Menu, System Restore, Recovery Console
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Your Windows XP system boots to a blue screen and no desktop. What do you do first?
a.
Reinstall Windows XP.
b.
Attempt to boot into the Advanced Options menu.
c.
Attempt to boot into the Recovery Console.
d. Attempt to use the Automated System Recovery.
b.
Attempt to boot into the Advanced Options menu.
2. You tried to use the Automated System Recovery to restore a failed Windows XP system. The process failed with errors, but there is a very important data file on the hard drive that you need to recover. The hard drive is using the NTFS file system. What do you do?
a. Most likely the file is toast. The ASR process probably destroyed the file if it was not already destroyed.
b. Boot to the Recovery Console using the Windows XP setup CD and attempt to recover the file.
c. Reinstall Windows XP and then recover the file.
d. Boot to the Advanced Options menu and use Safe Mode to recover the file.
a. Most likely the file is toast. The ASR process probably destroyed the file if it were not already destroyed. The ASR process completely erases everything on drive C. Always recover data first before using ASR.
3. When you start Windows XP, you see an error message about a service that has failed to start and then the system locks up. You think this service is related to a critical Windows process. What do you try first? Second?
a. Boot into Safe Mode and run System Restore. b. Select the Last Known Good Configuration on the Advanced Options menu. c. Perform an in-place upgrade of Windows XP. d. Use the Recovery Console to restore the system file.
b. Select the Last Known Good Configuration on the Advanced Options menu. a. Boot into Safe Mode and run System Restore.
4. While cleaning up the Windows XP startup process, you discover a program in this folder: C:\WINDOWS\System32\GroupPolicy\Machine\Scripts\Startup. You know that this program is not one that an administrator or other user placed there. What is your next step? a. Delete the program file and move on to the next step in cleaning up startup. b. Assume the file is malicious and run antivirus software.
c. Assume the file is malicious, delete the file, and run antivirus software. d. Move the file to another folder. c. Assume the file is malicious, delete the file, and run antivirus software. 5. Which statement(s) are true about the Windows 2000/XP boot disk? a. The boot disk can be used to boot the system to the Windows 2000/XP desktop when Ntldr is missing from the hard drive. b. The boot disk can be used to boot to the desktop even when the C:\Windows folder is corrupted. c. The boot disk can be used in place of the boot files in the root directory of the active partition. d. The boot disk can be used to boot to the desktop even when the partition table is corrupted. a, c
Chapter 15 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What three OS files are necessary to boot to MS-DOS mode? What is the function of each? What additional two files are not required but are used if they are present? Io.sys (contains the basic I/O software for real mode), Msdos.sys (contains parameters and switches that affect the way the OS boots), and Command.com (contains more code to manage I/O, programs for internal OS commands such as Copy and Dir, and a short program that looks for the Autoexec.bat file). Autoexec.bat and Config.sys are not required but are used if they are present. 2. Why is it important not to edit Autoexec.bat with word-processing software such as Microsoft Word or WordPerfect?
Because word-processing programs place control characters in their documents that prevent the OS from interpreting the Autoexec.bat file correctly 3. What is the purpose of the command Device=himem.sys in the Config.sys file? To give a real-mode OS access to memory above 1 MB 4. Give two ways to access a command prompt from Windows 9x. By clicking Start, then Run, and entering command.com at the prompt, or by clicking Start, Programs, and MS-DOS prompt 5. What Windows 9x/Me program file provides a Command Prompt window? Command.com 6. What are the two wildcard characters that can be used in command lines? * and ? 7. What is the /S switch used for with the Format command? The /V switch? The /S switch is used to include the Io.sys, Msdos.sys, and Command.com files on a disk to make it bootable. The /V switch allows you to enter a volume label only once when formatting several disks. 8. What is the name of the single directory created when a floppy disk or logical drive is first formatted? The root directory 9. Name the Windows 98 command that is used to partition a hard drive. The Fdisk command is used to partition a hard drive. 10. The _______ command erases files or groups of files. Del or Erase 11. What command is used to create a subdirectory? To change the current directory? To remove a subdirectory? Mkdir, Chdir, Rmdir
12. The ______ command displays or changes the read-only, archive, system, and hidden characteristics of files. Attrib 13. What is a hidden file? Name a Windows 9x file that is hidden. A hidden file is a file not displayed in the directory list. Io.sys is an example of a hidden file. 14. What is the command to copy Myfile.dat from the root directory of drive A to the \Data folder on drive C? Copy A:\Myfile.dat C:\data or Copy A:Myfile.txt C:\data 15. What is the command to delete all files in the A:\data folder that begin with the letter A and have the .txt file extension? Del A:\data\A*.txt 16. What is the command to make the file Myfile.txt a hidden system file? Attrib +h +S Myfile.txt 17. What is the command to copy all data and subfolders from the A:\data folder to the C:\data folder? Xcopy A:\data\*.* C:\data /S 18. What is the purpose of the Ebd.cab file on the Windows 98 startup disk? The Ebd.cab file contains compressed utility programs such as Chkdsk.exe, Debug.exe, and Edit.com for use on the system. 19. What applet in the Windows 98 Control Panel is used to create a startup disk? Add/Remove Programs 20. List the steps to add a shortcut to your Windows desktop to access a command prompt window. Locate the program file (Command.com ) in Windows Explorer and, while holding down the Ctrl key, drag the icon to your desktop. Another way to create the shortcut is to click Start, point to
Programs, Accessories, and Command Prompt. Right-click Command Prompt and select Create Shortcut on the shortcut menu. 21. At a command prompt, how must you type long filenames that contain spaces? Enclose the filename in double quotes. 22. When using a real-mode command prompt, how will DOS display the filename Mydocument.doc? Mydocum~.doc 23. What is the batch file used by Windows 98 to control the boot process? Autoexec.bat 24. What command used on a startup disk can you use to demonstrate the master boot record is healthy but does not validate the file system on the drive? Fdisk/status 25. If you suspect Io.sys or Msdos.sys is missing on the hard drive, what command can you use to refresh these files? Sys C:
THINKING CRITICALLY
1. If a PC boots first to the hard drive before checking the floppy disk for an OS, how do you change this boot sequence so that it first looks on the floppy disk for an OS? Make the change in CMOS setup 2. A PC continues to reboot. You try to solve the problem by booting from a Windows 98 startup disk. You boot to the A prompt and look on the hard drive. You discover an unwanted command in the Autoexec.bat file on the hard drive. Explain the source of the problem and describe how to fix it. The Restart command causes the system to reboot. Use the Edit command to remove the Restart command from Autoexec.bat.
3. Explain the difference between the Copy command and the Xcopy command. The Copy command copies a single file or group of files. The Xcopy command also copies files or groups of files but is more powerful than the Copy command and offers more parameters, such as the parameter to copy an entire directory (/D), to overwrite existing files without prompting (/Y), or to continue copying even when there is an error (/C). 4. Explain the difference between the Chkdsk and Scandisk commands. The Chkdsk and Scandisk commands both find and repair file errors, but the Chkdsk command is mostly outdated by the Scandisk command, which is more thorough and provides more options. Unlike Chkdsk, Scandisk does a surface scan and checks for potentially bad sectors. 5. You need to make 10 duplicates of one floppy disk. Describe how to do this using two different methods. Which method is better and why? Possible answers: a.
You can use Windows Explorer to copy the files on the floppy disk to a folder on the hard drive, and then copy contents of this folder to 10 floppy disks.
b. Using a command prompt window, use the Copy command to copy files on the floppy disk to a folder on the hard drive, and then use the Copy command to copy the contents of this folder to 10 floppy disks. The best solution is to use method a. Chapter 16 REVIEWING THE BASICS
4. What are the three core components of Windows 9x/Me? GDI, user, and kernel 2. Which are preferable to use: 32-bit drivers or 16-bit drivers? 32-bit drivers 3. What is the function of the Autorun.inf file included on the Windows 9x/Me installation CD? The Setup.exe file? The Readme.txt file?
Autorun.inf launches the interactive interface for the CD. Readme.txt explains the layout of the CD and gives locations for other readme files. Setup.exe begins installation of the OS. 4. List at least five things you need to do to prepare your hard drive for an upgrade installation of Windows 9x/Me. •
Delete all folders on the hard drive used for the OS or applications.
•
Verify that you have enough space on the hard drive.
•
Run ScanDisk.
•
Run a current version of antivirus software to check for viruses.
•
If you are upgrading from Windows 3.x, save configuration files so that you can backtrack to it if necessary.
•
Check Config.sys and Autoexec.bat for potential problems.
•
Convert TSRs that might give problems to remarks by typing REM at the beginning of the appropriate command line in Config.sys or Autoexec.bat.
•
If you are connected to a network, verify that the connection is working.
•
If you are upgrading from Windows 95 to Windows 98, create a Windows 95 rescue disk for use in the event the installation fails.
•
Decide if you want to use FAT16 or FAT32 for your file system.
•
If you are installing Windows on a compressed drive, be aware that the registry can reside on any compressed drive, but the swap file can reside on a compressed drive only if it is compressed using protected-mode software such as DriveSpace. The best practice is to back up the data and then uncompress the drive. You can later compress it using Windows 98 DriveSpace. 5. What are the four types of installations that you can choose during setup of Windows 9x/Me?
Typical, portable, compact, and custom
6. For what are the log files Setuplog.txt, Detlog.txt, and Detcrash.log used? Setuplog.txt is used by Windows to determine how far it got into the installation when it is recovering from a crash. Detlog.txt keeps a record of hardware detected. Detcrash.log is a binary file used by Windows to help recover from a crash caused by a hardware problem. 7. What type of disk should you always create when prompted to do so during Windows 9x/Me setup? Why is this such an important step? Always create the emergency startup disk when prompted to do so because it can help you recover from a failed boot later. 8. What is the Windows keyboard shortcut to display the startup menu while Windows is loading? To go through step-by-step confirmation of startup? F8 or Ctrl, Shift + F8 9. When installing hardware under Windows 9x/Me, how do you indicate that you want to use a Windows driver? A manufacturer-provided or downloaded driver? To use a Windows driver, select hardware from a list of devices. To use a manufacturer-provided or downloaded driver, click Have Disk. 10. Use the _____ applet in the Control Panel when installing 32-bit software designed for Windows 9x/Me. Use the _____ option on the Start menu when installing older 16-bit software. Add/Remove Programs, Run 11. What is a comment line? How is a comment line noted within a file? A line in an initialization file that is ignored by an application, noted by putting REM or a semicolon at the beginning of the line. 12. Explain the purpose of the System Configuration Utility. How would you use it in troubleshooting? The System Configuration Utility is used to limit what components load during the boot process. It can be used during troubleshooting to reduce the system to its essentials.
13. Name four configuration files that Windows 9x/Me includes for backward compatibility with legacy software and hardware. Autoexec.bat, Config.sys, System.ini, Win.ini 14. The Windows 98/95 registry is contained in two files, _____ and _____. The Windows 95 backups of these files are called _____ and _____. System.dat and User.dat, System.da0 and User.da0 15. Which version of Windows includes the Registry Checker? How often does this utility back up the registry? Windows 98/Me includes the Registry Checker, which backs up the registry each day. 16. Explain the difference between the Regedit and Scanreg utilities. The Regedit utility is used to edit the registry, and the Scanreg utility backs up, verifies, and recovers the registry. 17. Name the files that Sysedit automatically displays for editing. Give a short description of each. •
Protocol.ini—Contains information about the configuration of the network
•
System.ini—Contains hardware settings and multitasking options for Windows
•
Win.ini—Contains information about user settings
•
Config.sys and Autoexec.bat—Text files that can contain settings for environmental commands and variables to load drivers and TSRs. Windows 9x does not need these two files but supports them for backward compatibility. 18. List the five phases of the Windows 9x/Me boot process and give a short description of each.
•
BIOS POST and bootstrap, in which BIOS boots the PC
•
Loading of the OS, in which BIOS turns control over to Io.sys, which checks configuration files
•
Loading of static, real-mode VxDs, in which Io.sys relinquishes control to the VMM
•
Switchover to protected mode and configuration of PnP, in which Vmm.vxd loads the Configuration Manager, which is responsible for configuring legacy and PnP devices
•
Loading of remaining components, in which Vmm.vxd loads the kernel, GUI, and user components as well as fonts and other resources 19. Explain how the program Setver.exe is used in Windows 9x/Me.
Windows 9x includes Setver.exe for backward compatibility. This program “asks” a DOS application what version of DOS it expects to use and presents DOS components to that application as if they were all from the same version of DOS, as the DOS application expects. 20. What Msdos.sys entry can be used to backtrack from a Windows 9x/Me installation to the underlying version of DOS? What happens when this entry is set to =0? To =1? The BootGUI=0 entry in Msdos.sys boots the system to a command prompt, and BootGUI=1 enables automatic GUI startup into Windows 9x. 21. What command do you enter in the Run dialog box to load Registry Checker under Windows? Scanregw.exe or Scanregw 22. List the options on the Windows 9x/Me startup menu and give a short description of each. Which option appears for Windows 95 but not for Windows 98, and why? Which option appears for Windows 95/98, but not for Windows Me? •
Normal—It starts Windows 9x when BootGUI=1 in Msdos.sys, or boots to a DOS prompt if BootGUI=0. Either way, the commands in Autoexec.bat and Config.sys will be executed.
•
Logged (Bootlog.txt)—It is the same as the Normal option except that Windows 9x tracks the load and startup activities and logs them to the Bootlog.txt file.
•
Safe Mode—It starts Windows 9x with a minimum default configuration to give you an opportunity to correct an error in configuration.
•
Safe Mode with network support—It allows access to the network when booting into Safe Mode. This option is available with Windows 95 but not with Windows 98/Me, which automatically includes support for networks when you boot into Safe Mode.
•
Step-by-step confirmation—It asks for confirmation before executing each command in Io.sys, Autoexec.bat, and Config.sys.
•
Command prompt only—It executes the contents of Autoexec.bat and Config.sys but does not start Windows 9x.
•
Safe Mode command prompt only—It boots to a command prompt, but does not execute the contents of Autoexec.bat and Config.sys.
•
Previous version of MS-DOS—It loads a previous version of DOS if one is present. This option is not available with Windows 98 SE or Windows Me. 23. Which startup menu options execute Autoexec.bat and Config.sys? Which do not?
Safe Mode, Safe Mode with network support, and Safe Mode command prompt only do not execute Autoexec.bat and Config.sys. All the other options do execute the commands in these files. 24. What Windows utility allows you to control what drivers are loaded during Windows startup? Automatic Skip Driver Agent 25. _____ is a Windows utility that can record detailed information about the system, errors that occur, and the programs that caused them in a log file. Dr. Watson 26. What parts of the Windows load does Safe Mode not execute? Safe Mode does not execute entries in the registry, Config.sys, Autoexec.bat, and the [boot] and [386Enh] sections of System.ini. 27. Name two ways to end an application that is hung without rebooting the PC.
One way is to press Ctrl+Alt+Del, select the program in the Close Program dialog box, and click End Task. You can also end an application from Task Manager, which you access by typing taskman in the Run dialog box. 28. After using the Windows 98 startup menu to boot the system to a command prompt, what command can you use to load the Windows desktop? Win 29. What is the name of the third file Windows Me added to store the registry that was not used with Windows 95/98? Classes.dat 30. What function key do you press during bootup to start Windows 98 in Safe Mode? F5 THINKING CRITICALLY
1. An application loads at startup. List the steps you would take to stop an application from loading at this time. •
Do the following things:
•
Look for and delete a shortcut in the C:\Windows\All Users\Startup Menu\Programs\StartUp folder.
•
Look for and delete an entry in the Load= or Run= line in Win.ini. Use Sysedit to edit the file.
•
Manually edit the registry key HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run. Delete any references to the program filename. 2. Place these tools in the order you would use them when troubleshooting the Windows 9x/Me boot process: emergency startup disk, Safe Mode, error messages, and the command prompt.
Error messages, Safe Mode, command prompt, ESD
3. You attempt to install a new hardware device, but Windows 98 locks up during the boot. You remove the device and try to reboot, but Windows 98 still locks up. Which tools do you use to solve the problem and what do you do with them? (Note: You might use more than one of these tools.) •
Device Manager
•
System Information utility
•
Windows 98 startup disk
•
Scanreg
•
Registry Checker
Because you cannot get to the Windows desktop, you cannot use Device Manager to uninstall the device. Therefore, you must return the registry to its condition before the installation attempt. For Windows 98, use the startup disk to boot the system and then use Scanreg to restore the registry. Chapter 17 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name three types of Ethernet. What transmission speed does each support? 10-Mbps Ethernet (10 Mbps), Fast Ethernet (100 Mbps), and Gigabit Ethernet (1000 Mbps) 2. What is the maximum length of a cable on a 100BaseT network? 100 meters (328 feet) 3. What does the 100 in the name 100BaseT indicate? The transmission speed (100 Mbps) 4. What is broadcasting? Name a network connection device that uses it and one that does not. Broadcasting occurs when a device sends packets to every device to which it is connected, regardless of the packet’s destination. Hubs use broadcasting, and switches do not. 5. What IEEE standards describe Ethernet? What IEEE standards describe wireless LAN?
Ethernet: 802.3 Wireless LAN: 802.11, 802.11b, 802.11a, 802.11g, 802.11d 6. What are three ways a wireless network can be secured? Filter MAC addresses, use WEP encryption, and use a VPN. 7. What connecting device do you use for a small LAN? Two or more connected networks? For a small network, a switch is best. To connect two or more networks, a router is required. 8. Describe the structure of an IP address. How is it different from a MAC address? An IP address is a series of four numbers, each no larger than 255, separated by periods. A MAC address is expressed as six pairs of hex numbers separated by dashes. A MAC address cannot change, but an IP address can change on a computer; a MAC address is like a local address; and an IP address is like a long-distance address. 9. How many potential IP addresses are there? 4.3 billion 10. How many networks and addresses are available for Class A IP addresses? Class B? Class C? Class A: 127 networks; 16 million addresses Class B: 16,000 networks; 65,000 addresses Class C: 2 million networks; 254 addresses 11. Why are Class D and E addresses not available to individuals and companies? Class D addresses are used for multicasting, and Class E addresses are reserved for research. 12. Which octets are used for the network address and for host addresses in Class A? Class B? Class C? Class A: N.H.H.H Class B: N.N.H.H Class C: N.N.N.H 13. In what class is the IP address 185.75.255.10?
Class B 14. In what class is the IP address 193.200.30.5? Class C 15. Describe the difference between public and private IP addresses. If a network is using private IP addresses, how can the computers on that network access the Internet? Public IP addresses are available for use on the Internet. Private IP addresses are used on private intranets that are isolated from the Internet. Networks that use private IP addresses can access the Internet through a proxy server, which substitutes its IP address for the address of the device trying to access the Internet. 16. Why is it unlikely that you will find the IP address 192.168.250.10 on the Internet? Because this address is in one of the IP address ranges that RFC 1918 recommends be reserved for private networks. 17. Which Windows operating system does not automatically include the NetBEUI protocol? Windows XP 18. What are the two ways an IP address can be assigned to a PC? What is one advantage of each? IP addresses can be assigned through static addressing (in which IP addresses are permanently assigned to workstations) or dynamic addressing (in which IP addresses are assigned for the current session only). An advantage of static IP addressing is that it does not require a DHCP server. An advantage of dynamic IP addressing is that fewer IP addresses than the total number of workstations can satisfy the needs of a network. 19. For what are the Ping, Ipconfig, and Winipcfg utilities used? The Ipconfig (on Windows 2000/XP) and Winipcfg (on Windows 9x) commands are used to display a machine’s IP address and the MAC address of its NIC. The Ping command is used to send a signal to a remote computer and test connectivity. 20. Of IPX/SPX, TCP/IP, and NetBEUI, which is routable and which is not?
IPX/SPX and TCP/IP are routable, and NetBEUI is not. 21. Place the following bandwidth technologies in the order of their highest speed, from slowest to fastest: SDSL, ISDN, regular telephone lines, cable modem, Gigabit Ethernet, ATM. Regular telephone lines, ISDN, SDSL, cable modem, ATM, Gigabit Ethernet 22. When using DSL to connect to the Internet, the data transmission shares the cabling with what other technology? Telephone 23. Give two examples of broadband technology. Possible answers: cable modem and DSL 24. Which is more expensive, UTP CAT5e cabling or STP CAT5e cabling? STP CAT5e 25. What is the most common type connector used with coaxial cable on a ThinNet Ethernet network? BNC 26. If you wanted to upgrade your 100BaseT Ethernet network so that it will run about 10 times the current speed, what technology would you use? Gigabit Ethernet 27. A network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 and has a computer on the network with the IP address of 120.12.12.3. Will the IP address 120.12.10.3 be on the network? Explain your answer. No, the first three octets must match and they do not. 28. What networking protocol was first used by Novell NetWare and is not supported on the Internet? IPX/SPX
29. If you were going to connect two PCs together in a simple network using the network ports on each PC, what type cable would you use? A crossover cable 30. When using a cable modem to connect to the Internet, the data transmission shares the cabling with what other technology? Television THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You have just installed a network adapter and have booted up the system, installing the drivers. You open My Network Places on a remote computer and don’t see the computer on which you just installed the NIC. What is the first thing you check? a.
Is File and Printer Sharing installed?
b. Is the NetBEUI protocol installed? c.
Are the lights on the adapter functioning correctly?
d. Has the computer been assigned a computer name? c. Are the lights on the adapter functioning correctly? 2. You work in the Accounting Department and have been using a network drive to post Excel spreadsheets to your workgroup as you complete them. When you attempt to save a spreadsheet to the drive, you see the error message, “You do not have access to the folder ‘J:\’. See your administrator for access to this folder.” What should you do first? Second? a.
Ask your network administrator to give you permission to access the folder.
b. Check My Network Places to verify that you can connect to the network. c.
Save the spreadsheet to your hard drive.
d. Using Windows Explorer, remap the network drive.
e.
Reboot your PC.
c. Save the spreadsheet to your hard drive. b. Check My Network Places to verify that you can connect to the network.
3. Your job is to support the desktop computers in a small company of 32 employees. A consulting firm is setting up a private Web server to be used internally by company employees. The static IP address of the server is 192.168.45.200. Employees will open their Web browser and enter personnel.mycompany.com in the URL address box to browse this Web site. What steps do you take so that each computer in the company can browse the site using this URL? Make this entry in the Hosts file on each computer: 192.168.45.200 personnel.mycompany.com 4. Linda has been assigned the job of connecting five computers to a network. The room holding the five computers has three network ports that connect to a switch in an electrical closet down the hallway. Linda decides to install a second switch in the room. The new switch has four network ports. She uses a crossover cable to connect one of the four ports on the switch to a wall jack. Now she has five ports available (two wall jacks and three switch ports). While installing and configuring the NICs in the five computers, she discovers that the PCs connected to the two wall jacks work fine, but the three connected to the switch refuse to communicate with the network. What could be wrong and what should she try next? Try connecting one of the non-working computers to a wall jack. If that works, then the problem is the switch or the cable connecting the switch to the wall jack. Try using a patch cable for the connection.
Chapter 18 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Explain how a single physical computer can be a Web server and an email server at the same time. Server functions can be controlled by software, and a single physical computer can be running more than one type of server software simultaneously. Programs on client PCs access the different servers running on the same machine through the use of port numbers assigned to the different server types. 2. What Windows XP component can be used to share an Internet connection with other computers on the LAN? Internet Connection Sharing 3. What protocol is commonly used to manage the connection between a broadband modem and a PC when the connection requires a username and password and is not always up? PPPoE 4. Give the service and protocol for the following ports: port 21, port 25, port 80, and port 110. Port 21 is used for FTP (using FTP); port 25 is used for sending e-mail (using SMTP); port 80 is used for Web browsers and the World Wide Web (using HTTP); and port 110 is used for receiving e-mail (using POP3). 5. Which protocol used by Web browsers and Web servers is responsible for guaranteeing delivery? For breaking data into packets? For decrypting and decompressing data as necessary? TCP, IP, HTTP
6. Explain the difference between a connection-oriented protocol and a connectionless protocol, and give an example of each. A connection-oriented protocol such as TCP establishes a session before sending data. A connectionless protocol such as UDP sends data without establishing a session first, and without being concerned with whether the data is received. 7. What TCP/IP utility would you use to display the route taken over the Internet by a communication between a Web browser and Web server? Tracert 8. What utility would you use to display information about the name space kept by a DNS server for a particular domain name? NSLookup 9. Explain the functions of the following TCP/IP utilities: NSLookup, Winipcfg, Ipconfig, and Microsoft SNMP Agent. NSLookup—Requests information about domain name resolutions from the DNS server’s zone data Winipcfg—Displays IP address and other configuration information in a user-friendly window (not available under Windows NT/2000/XP) Ipconfig—Displays the IP address of the host and other configuration information Microsoft SNMP Agent—Provides system management for networks; allows a system manager to monitor connections to computers running Windows 98 with SNMP Agent 10. What is the full command line to use Ipconfig to release the current IP address? IPconfig /release 11. What utility new to Windows XP can be used to display a NIC’s MAC address?
Getmac 12. Place these stages of creating a dial-up networking connection in Windows 9x/Me in the correct order: creating a connection, verifying installation of the dial-up adapter, installing the Dial-up Networking feature, and entering configuration information for your ISP. Install the Dial-up Networking feature, verify installation of the dial-up adapter, create a connection, and enter configuration information for your ISP. 13. Explain at least four things you can try if you cannot make a connection to the Internet using a dial-up networking connection. Check the user ID, password, and dial-up networking icon for errors. Try dialing the number manually from a phone, or try another number. Check Device Manager for reported errors about the modem. Print out and compare the Modemlog or PPPlog text files for the unsuccessful connection attempt with a successful connection on another computer. Verify that all components are installed, and try removing and then reinstalling them. Reboot the PC and try again. 14. Label the component parts of this URL: http://www.companyabc.com/Reports/december2004.doc
HTTP is the protocol, www is the host name, companyabc.com is the name of the network, www.companyabc.com is the fully qualified domain name, Reports is the folder where the
requested file is located, and december2001.doc is the name of the requested file. 15. Give the type of organization that would use the following top-level domains: .mil, .net, .air, .com, .org, .gov. .mil—Military
.net—Internet provider or network .air—Aviation industry .com—Commercial institution .org—Nonprofit organization .gov—Government institution 16. What are three things you can do to improve slow browser performance? Delete temporary Internet files, clear the history of recently visited Web sites, and reduce the number of days that IE keeps pages in history. You can also suppress downloading images, and close unwanted applications and services. 17. What protocol is used for sending email? For receiving it? SMTP or SMTP AUTH is used for sending e-mail. POP or IMAP is used for receiving it. 18. Explain for what FTP is used. FTP (file transfer protocol) is used to transfer files over a network. The two computers involved in the transfer do not have to be using the same operating system. FTP can be initiated from a command prompt or from FTP software. 19. What is the listening port for Windows XP Remote Desktop? 3389 20. Explain the difference when a user sees http:// in a browser address box and when the user sees https:// in the address box. Https indicates the data passed from the user to the Web site will be encrypted. Http data is not encrypted. 21. Internet Explorer is the most popular browser. What is one security reason a user might choose to use a different browser such as Firefox by Mozilla?
Writers of malicious software can target Windows through Internet Explorer. Using Firefox or another browser might help evade an attack. 22. When an ISP gives a user the two mail server addresses, smtp.myISP.net and pop.myISP.net, which address should be used for incoming mail and which should be used for outgoing mail? For incoming mail, use smtp.myISP.net. For outgoing mail, use pop.myISP.net. 23. When using a cable modem to connect to the Internet, the data transmission shares the cabling with what other technology? Television 24. What is the FTP command to close an FTP session? BYE 25. Does it matter which TV jack in your house should be used by your cable modem? Why or why not? Yes. Use the TV jack that comes directly from the street service so no splitter inside your house can degrade the signal. 26. What two methods can an ISP use to assign your computer or router an IP address? Dynamic or static IP addressing 27. When is it appropriate to delete the C:\Documents and Settings\ user name \Local Settings\Temporary Internet Files folder? To delete a corrupted IE cache so that IE can build a new cache 28. What device is required so that you can connect a regular telephone to a VoIP network? An ATA (analog telephone adapter) 29. Why is it necessary for your home or office computer to have a static IP address if it is to be set up for Remote Desktop? Remote Desktop needs the IP address to locate your computer.
30. Give two examples of broadband technology. Possible answers: cable modem and DSL THINKING CRITICALLY
1. You are trying to connect to the Internet using a Windows XP dial-up connection. You installed a modem card and tested it, so you know it works. Next you create a dial-up connection icon in the Network Connections window. Then you double-click the icon and the Connect dialog box opens. You click Dial to make the connection. An error message displays saying, “There was no dial tone.” What is the first thing you do? a.
Check Device Manager for errors with the modem.
b. Check with the ISP to verify that you have the correct phone number, user name, and password. c.
Check the phone line to see if it is connected.
d. Check the properties of the dial-up connection icon for errors. c.
Check the phone line to see if it is connected. 2. You connect to the Internet using a cable modem. When you open your browser and try to access a Web site, you get the error, “The Web page you requested is not available offline. To view this page, click Connect.” What might be the problem(s) and what do you do?
a.
The browser has been set to work offline. On the File menu, verify that Work Offline is not checked.
b. The cable modem service is down. In the Network Connections window, right-click the LAN connection and select Repair on the shortcut menu. c.
Internet Connection Firewall is enabled on your PC. Disable it.
d. The cable modem is down. Go to Device Manager and check for errors with the cable modem. Correct answers are a or b. Internet Connection Firewall does not interfere with your using a browser on your PC, and the cable modem is not an installed device on a PC. 3. This question combines skills learned in this and previous chapters. You have set up a small LAN in your home with two Windows XP PCs connected to the Internet using a DSL connection. You have a DSL router box connected to the DSL line and to a small hub. Your two PCs connect to the hub. You have enabled Internet Connection Firewall on the LAN connection on both PCs, and you can browse the Internet from either PC. However, you discover that each PC cannot use the resources on the other PC. What is the problem and what do you do? a.
The network hub is not working. Try replacing the hub.
b. The NICs in each PC are not working. Try replacing one NIC and then the next. c.
The LAN connections in the Network Connections window are not working. Delete the connections and recreate them.
d. Internet Connection Firewall on each PC is preventing the PC from providing resources to others on the LAN. Disable Internet Connection Firewall. The correct answer is d. The first three answers imply the network is down, but the network is working because you can browse the Internet from both PCs. If Internet Connection Firewall is used on computers connected to a LAN, others on the LAN cannot access resources on this PC. Check the DSL router software for a firewall that can be enabled there. Most routers have an embedded firewall, and this is the best way to protect a LAN.
Chapter 19
REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. What encryption protocol does Windows XP use when sending an account name and password to a domain controller for validation? Kerberos 2. Which policy in Group Policy must be enabled before you can monitor failed attempts at logging onto a Windows 2000/XP system? Audit policy 3. Define and explain the differences between viruses, worms, logic bombs, and Trojans. A virus is a program that can replicate by attaching itself to another program. A worm can spread copies of itself throughout a network without a host program. A Trojan horse, like a worm, does not need a host program to work; it substitutes itself for, and pretends to be, a legitimate program. A logic bomb is dormant code added to software and triggered by a predetermined event. 4. Where can viruses hide? Viruses can hide in the boot sector, in a file, in a macro within a file, or in a combination of the boot sector and a file (for a multipartite virus). 5. What is the best way to protect a computer or network against worms? Use a firewall. 6. What is the best way to determine if an e-mail message warning about a virus is a hoax? Check Web sites on the Internet that track virus hoaxes. 7. Are boot sector viruses limited to hard drives? Explain. No. On a floppy disk, a boot sector virus hides in the boot program of the boot sector. 8. Which feature must you disable in the Folders Options applet of Control Panel before you can control which user group or user has access to a shared file or folder? Simple file sharing 9. What is the most likely way that a virus will get access to your computer? From an e-mail message
10. List three products to remove malicious software that can deal with adware and spyware. Ad-Aware, Spybot Search and Destroy, Windows Defender 11. Why is it best to run AV software in Safe Mode? Because malware is less likely to be running in the background to prevent AV software from detecting it 12. Which Windows tool do you use to view a recorded log of network activity? Event Viewer 13. What registry key keeps information about services that run when a computer is booted into Safe Mode? HKLM\System\CurrentControlSet\Control\SafeBoot 14. What does AV software look for to determine that a program or a process is a virus? A virus signature 15. What Windows tool can you use to solve a problem of an error message displayed at startup just after your AV software has removed malware? Msconfig 16. What folder is used by Windows to hold System Restore restore points? \System Volume Information 17. How can you delete all restore points and clean up the restore points data storage area? Turn off System Restore and reboot the system. 18. What two methods does anti-rootkit software use to detect a rootkit? •
The software looks for running processes that do not match up with the underlying program filename.
•
The software compares files, registry entries, and processes provided by the OS to the lists it generates from the raw data. If the two lists differ, a rootkit is suspected. 19. Name two anti-rootkit products.
Rootkit Revealer by Sysinternals (www.sysinternals.com)
BackLight by F-Secure (www.f-secure.com) 20. What is the major disadvantage of using an AV software installation CD to install the AV software to rid a system of viruses? The software on the CD will not contain the latest virus signatures and other software updates; therefore, the AV software will not catch new viruses. For best results, after the AV software is installed, you must download the latest updates to the software. 21. Why does having Windows display known file extensions help prevent a system from being infected with malware? It helps prevent a system from being infected because users are less likely to be deceived that a file is actually a program or script, rather than a graphics file, some other innocent file type, or URL. 22. How does a rootkit running in user mode normally hide? By intercepting API calls 23. What is the difference between spyware and adware? Spyware looks for information about you to pass to a Web site. Adware is displaying annoying ads on your PC. One is stealing information; the other is giving information. 24. For what is the Windows Scripting Host utility used, and what is the command line to execute it? The Windows Scripting Host utility uses Windows commands to execute scripts that programmers have written using a scripting language such as VBScript or Jscript. To run the script, type wscript.exe filename in the Run dialog box. 25. Why is using an ActiveX control considered a security risk? It is considered a security risk because it allows a Web page to execute code (which may be malicious) on a user's computer. 26. What must you do before you can use the Windows Backup utility on a Windows XP Home Edition PC?
Install the utility from the Windows XP setup CD. 27. Name one browser other than Internet Explorer by Microsoft. Firefox by Mozilla 28. Name two e-mail clients other than Outlook or Outlook Express by Microsoft. Eudora by Qualcomm and Thunderbird by Mozilla 29. What are five file extensions that might be used for scripts? .js, .jse, .vbe, .vbs, and .wsf 30. Why might someone see better security when using a browser other than Internet Explorer? It is because authors of malware attack IE more than other products, IE allows Web pages to run ActiveX code, and IE is closely integrated with—and may provide access to—core components of the Windows operating system. THINKING CRITICALLY
1. A virus has attacked your hard drive and now when you start up Windows, instead of seeing a Windows desktop, the system freezes and you see a "blue screen of death" (an error message on a blue background). You have extremely important document files on the drive that you cannot afford to lose. What do you do first? a.
Try a data recovery service even though it is very expensive.
b. Remove the hard drive from the computer case and install it in another computer. c. Try GetDataBack by Runtime Software (www.runtime.org) to recover the data. d. Use Windows utilities to attempt to fix the Windows boot problem. e. Run antivirus software to remove the virus. Because recovering the data is certainly the top priority, you do not want to do anything to risk doing further damage to this data. The choice that is least likely to affect the data is to remove the hard drive from this computer case and install it in another computer. Then boot into Windows and try copying the data from the bad hard drive to the good drive.
2. Just after you reboot after running AV software, an error message is displayed that contains a reference to a strange DLL file that is missing. What do you do first? a. Run the AV software again. b. Run Msconfig and look for startup entries that are launching the DLL. c. Run Regedit and look for keys that refer to the DLL. d. Search the Internet for information about the DLL. Either run Msconfig and look for startup entries that are launching the DLL or search the Internet for information about the DLL. Both are good choices. 3. Suppose a user has encrypted important data files and now is no longer working for your company. How do you decrypt these files so they can be read? Log on as an administrator and decrypt the files, either by changing the properties of the folder the files are in or by using the Cipher command. Chapter 20 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Why are notebooks usually more expensive than PCs with comparable power and features? Notebooks cost more than desktop PCs with similar features. They use thin LCD panels instead of CRT monitors for display, compact hard drives that can withstand movement even during operation, and small memory modules and CPUs that require less voltage than regular components. In general, it costs more to make similar components that take up less space and require less power. 2. What are four types of SO-DIMMs used in a notebook? 72-pin SO-DIMMs, 144-pin SO-DIMMs, 200-pin DDR SO-DIMMs, 200-pin DDR2 SO-DIMMs
3. List three types of batteries that might be used on notebooks. Ni-Cad, NiMH, Lithium Ion, fuel cell 4. What are three ways a notebook can receive its power? AC adapter, DC adapter, battery 5. What component that is part of the LCD panel assembly might be responsible for the LCD panel showing dim screens? Video inverter card. 6. What is the thickness of a Type I PC Card? Of a Type III PC Card? Type I cards can be up to 3.3-mm thick and are primarily used for adding RAM to a notebook PC. Type III cards can be up to 10.5-mm thick, which is large enough to accommodate a portable disk drive. 7. What term refers to a PC card you can remove and replace without powering off? Hot-swappable 8. What two services must an OS provide for a PC card to work? A socket service and a card service 9. What is the small cord sometimes found on the end of a PC card called? A dongle or a pigtail 10. What applet in the Windows 2000 Control Panel do you use to stop a PC card before removing it? In Windows 98? Add/Remove Hardware applet, PC card applet 11. How do you solve the problem when a Windows XP notebook hangs after a PC card has been removed while the notebook was in sleep mode?
Update the notebook with the latest Windows XP service pack. 12. What type of memory module used in notebooks has 160 pins? SO-RIMM 13. List 10 devices that a notebook manufacturer might consider to be field replaceable units. Possible answers: memory, hard drive, LCD panel, CPU, motherboard, keyboard, PC card socket assembly, CD-ROM drive, floppy drive, sound card, pointing devices, AC adapter, battery pack, and DC controller 14. Why is understanding the warranty on notebooks so important? It is because some warranties are void if you make certain changes to the system, such as upgrading or replacing a hard drive. 15. What is the purpose of a DC controller on a notebook? It converts voltage to the CPU core voltage. 16. What happens if the battery on your PDA discharges? You lose all the data and applications on the PDA. 17. What are the two most popular operating systems currently used by PDAs? Windows Mobile and Blackberry 18. What is the difference between a port replicator and a docking station? A port replicator only provides ports for convenience when a notebook is sitting on a desk. A docking station provides the same function as a port replication plus some secondary storage devices such as an extra hard drive or floppy drive. 19. Which notebook component is most likely to be the easiest to replace, the hard drive or the LCD panel?
Hard drive 20. What are the three types of Mini PCI cards? How many pins does each type card have? They are Type I, II, and III. Type I and II cards have a 100-pin connector and Type III cards have a 124-pin connector. 21. What is the purpose of the Multilink Channel Aggregation feature of Windows? To allow you to use two modems and two phone lines to effectively double the data throughput rate 22. If you need to replace a hard drive in a notebook, why is it best not to use a
standard Windows XP setup CD to install the OS on the new drive? It is because the notebook needs a customized installation of Windows. Use the Windows Recovery CD that comes with the notebook to install the OS. 23. How is the best way to identify a notebook so that you can find the right documentation for the notebook on the manufacturer’s Web site? Look for the model and serial number of the notebook stamped on the bottom. 24. If you need to install an external peripheral to take the place of a failed internal component in a notebook, what do you first do to disable the internal component? Use CMOS setup to disable the component. 25. List the ways that a PDA can connect to a PC to synchronize with it. A PDA can synchronize with a PC through the USB or serial port or using a wireless connection. THINKING CRITICALLY
1. Your friend has a Windows 98 notebook computer and has purchased Windows XP and installed it as an upgrade on his notebook. He calls to tell you about the upgrade and says
that he cannot connect to the Internet. His notebook has an embedded modem that he uses for communication. What do you tell him to do? a.
Reinstall Windows 98.
b. Using another computer, download and install the Windows XP modem drivers from the notebook manufacturer’s Web site. c.
Search the CDs that come with the notebook for Windows XP modem drivers and install them.
d. Perform a clean install of Windows XP. The problem is that he has not installed Windows XP drivers for the on-board modem. Locating the right drivers on the notebook manufacturer’s Web site might be a chore if he has problems identifying the modem. The notebook’s drivers CD for Windows 98 is unlikely to contain XP drivers. The best choice is to attempt to use the Web site of the notebook manufacturer to identify the modem and locate the XP drivers for the modem. 2. A friend asks you for help in determining the best product to buy: a notebook, tablet PC, or PDA. She is a paralegal and spends a lot of time at the courthouse researching real estate titles. She wants a device to take notes with as she works. List three questions you would ask her to help her make her decision. Possible answers: •
How extensive are the notes you want to take?
•
What type of notes do you take (text, drawings, or both)?
•
How much money do you want to spend?
•
Do you type faster than you write?
Chapter 21 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. List the six steps used by a laser printer to print a page. 1.
Cleaning. The drum is cleaned of any residual toner and electrical charge.
2.
Conditioning. The drum is conditioned to contain a high electrical charge.
3.
Writing. A laser beam discharges the high charge down to a lower charge, but only in
places where toner should go. 4.
Developing. Toner is placed onto the drum where the charge has been reduced.
5.
Transferring. A strong electrical charge draws the toner off the drum onto the paper. This
is the first step that takes place outside the cartridge. Fusing. Heat and pressure fuse the toner to the paper.
6.
2. Which document exhibits better quality, one printed with 600 dpi or one printed with 1200 dpi? Why? 1200 dpi exhibits better quality. The more dots there are per inch there, the more detail you can print and the finer the resolution. 3. What type port will a desktop scanner most likely use? USB 4. What two types of scanning technologies does a scanner use? CCD (higher quality) and CIS (lower quality) 5. What are two possible settings in CMOS for parallel port mode? ECP or bidirectional 6. During the laser printing process, what determines when the toner sticks to the drum and when it does not stick to the drum? During the writing phase, the uniform high charge is discharged only in the places where toner is meant to stick to the drum.
7. Why is it less expensive to maintain an inkjet printer that has a black ink cartridge than one that does not? If an inkjet printer does not have a black ink cartridge, then it combines all colors of ink to produce a dull black. Having a separate cartridge for black ink means that it prints a true black and, more importantly, does not use the more expensive colored ink. You can replace the black cartridge without also replacing the colored ink cartridge. 8. What technology makes an inkjet printer a photo-quality printer? It is the ability to mix different colors of ink to create a new color that then makes a single dot. HP calls this PhotoREt II color technology. 9. What should you do if an inkjet printer prints with missing dots or lines on the page? Clean the inkjet nozzles (manually for older inkjet printers or automatically for newer ones). 10. What can you do to help a dot-matrix printer last longer? Keep the print head cool. 11. List two possible ways to improve printing speed. Lower the printer resolution and the print quality, add more memory to the printer, add more memory to the PC, or upgrade the PC’s CPU. 12. When a laser printer is short on memory, what is a possible symptom of this problem? Printing is slow, an error occurs, or a portion of the page does not print. 13. What two Windows components are used to share resources on a network and access those shared resources? Client for Microsoft Networks and File and Printer Sharing 14. How do you share a local printer with others in the workgroup?
Open the Printers window. Right-click the printer you want to share and select Sharing from the shortcut menu. 15. What are two ways to install a printer that is being shared by another computer on the network? You can perform the installation using the Printers window and the Add Printer Wizard, or you can locate the printer in My Network Places or Network Neighborhood, right-click the printer, and select Connect or Install from the shortcut menu. 16. What company developed PostScript? PCL? Adobe Systems, Hewlett-Packard 17. When you are isolating a printer problem, what are the four major possible sources of the problem? •
The application attempting to use the printer
•
The OS and printer drivers
•
Connectivity between the PC and the printer
•
The printer itself 18. How can you eliminate the printer as the source of a printing problem?
Check the following: •
Is the printer turned on and online?
•
Is the correct printer selected as the default printer?
•
Can an application other than the current program use the printer?
•
Is the printer using the correct driver? Does the driver need updating? Is the driver correctly installed?
Can you move the printer to another computer and print from it? Will another printer work
•
on this computer? 19. How can you be sure that a printer cable is not the source of a printer problem? •
Check that the cable is firmly connected at both ends.
•
Remove the switch box in older systems that use one to share a printer.
•
Try a different cable.
•
Try printing using the same printer and printer cable, but a different PC.
•
Enter CMOS setup of the PC and check how the parallel port is configured. Try setting the port to bidirectional. 20. Why is it important not to remove ink cartridges from an inkjet printer and leave the cartridges outside the printer for an extended period of time?
The cartridges will dry out. THINKING CRITICALLY
1. A Windows XP computer has a locally installed printer that you must make available to eight other Windows XP computers on the network. What is the best way to do this? a.
Use the Add Printer icon in the Printers window for each of the eight PCs.
b. Use My Network Places to install the printer on each of the eight PCs. c.
Use the printer manufacturer’s setup program from the printer’s CD on each of the eight PCs.
d. Install the printer on each of the eight PCs while sitting at the host PC. Use My Network Places on the host PC. b. Use My Network Places to install the printer on each of the eight PCs.
2. You are not able to print a Word document on a Windows XP computer to a network printer. The network printer is connected directly to the network, but when you look at the Printers and Faxes window, you see the name of the printer as \\SMITHWIN2K\HP \\SMITHWIN2K\HP LaserJet 8100. In the following list, select the possible sources of the problem. a.
The SMITHWIN2K computer is not turned on.
b. The HP LaserJet 8100 printer is not online. c.
The SMITHWIN2K printer is not online.
d. The Windows XP computer has a stalled printer spool. e.
The HP LaserJet 8100 computer is not logged on to the workgroup.
Possible answers: a, b, and d 3. You are not able to print a test page from your Windows 2000 PC to your local HP DeskJet printer. Which of the following are possible causes of the problem? a.
The network is down.
b. The printer cable is not connected properly. c.
The Windows print spool is stalled.
d. You have the wrong printer drivers installed. e.
File and Printer Sharing is not enabled.
Possible answers: b, c, and d Chapter 22 REVIEWING THE BASICS
1. Name four job roles that can all be categorized as a PC technician. PC support technician, PC service technician, bench technician, help-desk technician
2. Of the four jobs in Question 1, which one job might never include interacting with the PC’s primary user? Bench technician 3. Assume that you are a customer who wants to have a PC repaired. List five main characteristics that you would want to see in y our PC repair person. Possible answers: Positive and helpful attitude, own the problem, be dependable, be customer-focused, be credible, maintain integrity and honesty, know the law with respect to your work, act professionally, perform your work in a professional manner 4. What is one thing you should do when you receive a phone call requesting on-site support, before you make an appointment? Ask questions to identify the problem and ask the caller to check and try some simple things while on the phone with you. 5. You make an appointment to do an on-site repair, but you are detained and find out that you will be late. What is the best thing to do? Call the customer and explain the situation. Agree on a new time of arrival. 6. When you arrive for an on-site service call, how important is your greeting? What would be a good greeting to start off a good business relationship? The first impression is very important as it sets the tone for the entire visit. Possible first greeting: “Good morning, my my name is xxx. Are you Mr. Xxxx?” Xxxx?” 7. When making an on-site service call, what should you do before making any changes to software or before taking the case cover off a computer? Ask the user to describe the problem in detail. Then ask permission to service the computer.
8. What should you do after finishing your PC repair? Verify everything is working. Then ask the customer to do the same. Fill out the paperwork. 9. What is a good strategy to follow if a conflict arises between you and your customer? Stay professional. Allow the customer to vent. Listen carefully. Do what you can to solve the problem. Escalate if necessary. 10. If you are about to make an on-site service call to a large financial organization, is it appropriate to show up in shorts and a T-shirt? Why or why not? No, you are expected to dress professionally and appropriately for the environment. 11. You have exhausted your knowledge of a problem and it still is not solved. Before you escalate it, what else can you do? Ask a knowledgeable coworker for help. 12. If you need to make a phone call while on a customer’s site and your cell phone is not working, what do you do? Ask permission to use the phone. 13. When someone calls your help desk, what is the first thing you should do? Identify the person and determine they are authorized to receive your help. 14. List the items of information you would want to record at the beginning of a help-desk call. Customer’s name and company Contact information Type of computer or software Warranty or contract information that authorizes your services
15. What is one thing you can do to help a caller who needs phone support and is not a competent computer user? Allow the customer to ask questions. Be patient and take the customer through each step slowly. 16. Describe what you should do when a customer complains to you about a product or service that your company provides. Allow the customer to speak and do not get defensive. Take notes and send the information to the right person in your organization. Be an active listener. Show you care. 17. What are some things you can do to make your work at a help desk easier? Use a telephone headset. Have all available resources handy. Keep notes as you work. Follow along with the user on your own computer screen. 18. Why is it important to be a certified technician? It shows your employer and your customers that you are qualified for the job. It opens up new training opportunities. It helps assure you of the best pay. 19. Examine the EULA of some software installed on your PC. Is it legal for you to have it installed on your PC at work and also installed on your PC at home? Answers will vary. 20. What organization offers A+ certification? Computing Technology Industry Association or CompTIA THINKING CRITICALLY
