223341862-Civil-Engineering-Technical-Questions.pdf

Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode.

Civil Engineering Technical Questions CONTENTS P.No. Strength of Materials and Structural Design

2

Structural Analysis

17

Concrete Structures

21

Hydraulics

30

Water Resources Engineering

43

Building Materials

46

Building Construction

54

Surveying

59

Fluid Mechanics

67

Engineering Geology

84

Construction Management

90

Architecture and Town Planning

100

Transportation Engineering

103

Environmental Engineering

132

Building Science

136

Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K

Department of Civil Engineering K.S.Rangasamy college of Technology,Tiruchengode. STRENGTH OF MATERIALS & STRUCTURAL DESIGN – I

1. The property by which a body returns to its original shape after removal of the load is called, a. Plasticity

b. Elasticity

c.Ductility

d. Malleability

2. The property of a material which allows of its being drawn out of tension to a smaller section, is called a.Plasticity

b. Elasticity

c.Ductility

d. Malleability

3. The property of a material by which it can be beaten or rolled into plates, is called a. Malleability

b. Ductility

c.Plasticity

d.Elasticity

4. As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain a. increases more quickly

b. decreases more quickly

c. incrases in proportion to the stress

d. decreases in proportion to the stress

5. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is considerably a. more than that necessary to continue it

b. less than that necessary to

continue it c. more than that necessary to stop it

d. less than necessary to stop it

6. The phenomenon of slow extension of materials i.e, increasing with the time having constant load, is called a. creeping c.breaking

b.yielding d.none of the above

7.the stress at which extension of a material takes place more quickly as compared to the increase in load, is called a.elastic point of the material

b. plastic point of the material

c. breaking point of the material

d.yielding point of the material

8. Every material obeys the Hooke’s law within its a. elastic limit

b.plastic limit

c. limit of proportionality

d.none of the above

9. Material which have the same elastic properties in all directions, are called a.isotropic material

b.brittle materials

c. homogenous materials

d. hard material



10. The law which states that within elastic limits strain produced is proportional to stress producing it, is known is a.Bernoulli’s law

b.stress law

c. Hooke’s law

d.Poisson’s law

d.none of the above

11. When equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it so produced in it is called, a.shear stress

b.compressive stress

c. tensile stress

e. transverse stress

12. Which one of the following statements is false. The under mentined type is simple strain. a. tensile strain

b. compressive strain

c. shear strain

d.tensile stress e. volumetric strain

13. For a solid cube, subjected to equal normal forces of the same type on all its faces, the volumetric strain will be x-times the linear strain in any of the three axes when a. x=1

b. x=2

c. x=3

d.x=4

14. If the length of a bar held vertically and subjected to a load at its lower end is large, its own weight produces additional stress and the resultant maximum stress will be a. at the lower section

b. at the built in upper cross-section

c. at the central cross-section

d. at every point of the bar

15. If the stess produced by a prismatic bar is equal to the working stress, the area of the cross-sectin of the prismatic bar becomes a. zero

b. infininte

c. maximum

d. minimum

16. The ratio o f the elongations of a conical bar under the action of its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the same length, is a. ½

b.1/3

c.1/4

d.1/5 e.1/6

17.If all the dimensions of a bar are incresed in the proportion n:1, the proportion with which the maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratip a.1:n

b. n:1

c.1:1/n

d.1/n:1

e.1:n1/2



18. If the stress in each cross-section of a pillar is just equal to its working stress, its form called a. form of equal stress

b. form of equal section

c. form of equal strength

d. none of these

19. For a given material, if E,C,K and m are Young’s modulus, shearing modulus, bulk modulus and Poisson, ratio, the following relation does not hold good a. E = 9KC/(3K+C)

b. E = 2K(1-2/m)

c.E= 2C(1+1/m)

d. 1/m = (3K-2N)/(6K+2N) e.E = 3C(-1/m) 20. a steel rod of 2cm diameter and 5m long is subjected to an axial pull of 3000kg. If E = 2.1x106 kg/cm2 , the elongation of the rod will be a.2.275cm

b.0.2275cm

c. 0.02275cm d. 2.02275cm 21. If a steel rod of 20mm dia and 5m long elongates by 2.275mm when subjected to an axial pull of 3000kg , the stress developed is a. 9.5541kg/cm2

b. 95.541kg/cm2

c.955.41kg/cm2

d.9554.1kg/cm2

22.When two plates butt together and are riveted with cover plates with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as a.lap joint

b. butt joint

c. single riveted single cover butt joint

d.double riveted double cover butt joint 23. If the rivets in djacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the rivets, is called a. chain riveting

b. zig-zig riveting

c. diamond riveting

d. none of the above

24. The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called a. pitch

b. lap

c. gauge

d. staggered pitch

25. which one of the following statements is more appropriate to justify the failure of riveted joints a. tearing of the plates between the rivet hole and the edgeof the plate b. tearing of plates between rivets c. shearing of rivets d. crushing of rivets e. all the above



26. The diameter d of a rivet to suit the thickness(t) of a plate may be determined by Unwin’s formula a.d=6.05(t)1/2

b. d= 1.5t+4

1/2

d.d=t1/2 +1.5

c. d=(5t)

27. The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate,is a. 1

b.2

c.3

d.4

28. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through a. the first row

b.the second row

c. the central row

d. one rivet hole of the end row

29. If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by a. (b+d)/b

b. (b-d)/b

c. (d-b)/d

d. (b-d)/d

30. In case of an eccentric loading on a bracket subjected to moment(M), the tangential force developed in any rivet, at right angles to its radius vector(r) is Mr/ r2 31. which one of the following statements is incorrect. a. the cross-sectional area of the welded member is effective b. a welded joint has the strength of the parent metal itself c. welded joints provide rigidity d. welded joints have better finish e. the process of welding takes more time than riveting 32. The type of butt joints is common use is a. single inverted v-butt joint b. double v-butt joint c. double u-butt joint d. single v-butt joint 33. The maximum load to which a fillet joint of lengthL can be subjected to equals a. 0.7 x S x fillet size x L b. 2 x S x fillet size x L c. permissible shear stress x fillet size x L d. S x fillet size x L/3 34. The maximum resistance against rotation is offered by the weld at a point a. most distant b. least distant

c. at either end

d.centrally located



35.A long one principal plane subjected to maximum principal stress a. the maximum shear stress acts b. the minimum shear stress acts c. no shear stress acts d. none of the above 36.If the normal cross-section (A) of a member is subjected to a tensile forceP, the resulting normal stress in an oblique plane inclined at angle θ to transverse plane will be a.Psin2 θ/A

b.Pcos2 θ /A

c. Psin2θ/2A

d. Pcos2θ/2A 37. If a member is subjected to tensile force P, having its normall cross-section(A) the resulting shear stress in an oblique plane inclined at an angle θ to its transverse plane, will be a. Psin2θθ/A

b.Psin2θ/2A

d.Pcos2θ/A

e. Asin2θ/P

c.Pcos2θ/2A

38. The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to the tensile stress in the axial direction is equal to a.4

b.3

c.2

d.1

39. If tow tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelopiped bar are equal, the resultilng elongtion of the pipe,is 40. A bending moment may be defined as a. the arithimetic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section b. the rithmetical sum of the forces on either side of the section c. the algebraic sum of the moments of all the forces on either side of the section d. none of the above 41. The shear for(F) and th ebending moment M at a section are related by a.F=My/I

b. F = M/Z

c. F = dM/dx

d. F = MIx

Where Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section 42.at either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces are a. one

b.two

c. three

d. four

e.zero

43. At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments are a. one

b.two

c. three

d. four

e.zero



44. a simply supported beam of a span L carries a udlW . the maximum bending moment M is equal to A.WL/2

B.WL/4

C.WL/8

D.WL/12

E.WL/16 45. A simply supported beam carries tow equal concentrated loads(W) at distances L/3 from either support. The maximum bending moment(M) introduced will be a. WL/3

b. WL/4

d.3WL/10

e.3WL/5

c. 5WL/8

46. A simply suppported beam of spanL carries a concentrated load W at it s midspan. The maximum bending moment(M) is equal to a. WL/2

B. WL /4

c. WL/8

d.WL/12

e. WL/16 47. The shape of the bending moment ove r the length of a beam having no external load , is always a. linear

b. parabolic

c. cubical

d. circular

48. The shape of the bending moment over the length of a beam, carrying a udl is always a. linear

b. parabolic

c. cubical

d. circular

49. The shape of the bending moment over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly varying load , is always a. linear

b. parabolic

c. cubical

d. circular

50. The maximum bending moment due to moving load on a simply supported beam, occurs a. at the mid span b. at the supports c. under the load d. every where along the beam e. none of the above 51. For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment will be a. lest at the centre

b. lest at the supports

c.maximum at the supports

d.maximum at the centre

52. for a cantilever with udl (W) over its entire length(L) , the maximum bending moment will be a. WL

b. WL/2

c.WL/3

d. W2L/2

e.WL2/3



53. For a simply supported beam carrying udl W on its entire lengthL, the maximum bending moment will be a.WL/4

b.WL/8

c.WL/2

D.WL/3

e.WL/6 54. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shearing force a. is maximum

b. minimum

c. is equal

d. changes sign

55. For a beam of uniform strength, keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to a. bending momentM

b.M1/2

c. M2

d.None of the above

56. A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if a. B.M. is same throughout the section b. Shear stress is same throught the section]\ c. Deflection is same throught the beam d. Bending stress is same at every section along its longitudinal axis 57. In a continous curve of bending moment, the point of zero B.M. , where it changes sign, is called\ a. the point of inflexion

b. the point of contraflexure

c. the point of virtual hinge

d. all the above

58.In a simply supported beam(L) with triangular load(W) varying from zero at one end to the maximum value at the other end, maximum bending moment will be a. WL/3

b.WL/(9√3)

d.WL3/(9√3)

e. WL/8

c.WL/4

59.The following assumption relates to the theory of simple bending a. the value of the Young’s modulus is the same in tension as well as compression b. transverse section of the beam remains plane before and after bending c. the material of the beam is homogeneous and isotropic d. the resultant pull or thrust ana transverse section of the beam is zero e. all the above 60. A long the neutral axis of a simply supported beam a. the fibres do not undergo strain b. the fibres undergo minimum strain c. the fibres undergo maximum strain d. none of the bove



61.Pick up the incorrect statement from the following The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is proportional to a. square of the depth of the section b. square root of the inverse of the are c. square root of the moment of inertia d. square root of the area of the section e. none of the above 62. The ratio of th emoment of invertia of a circular plate to that of a square plate for equal depth,is a. less than one

b.equal to one c. more than one

d.equal to 6π

e. none of the above

63. ‘the section modulus of a section is proportional to a. area of the section b. square of the area of the section c. product of the area and depth d. product of the are and width e. half moment of inertia of the section 64. The shear force on a simply supported beam is proportional to a. displacement of the neutral axis b. sum of the forces c. sum of the transverse forces d. alglebraic sum of the transverse foces e. curvature of the neutral axis 65. Pick up the correct statement from the following a. the point through which the resultant of the shear stresses passes is known as shear centre b. instandard rolled channels, the shear centre is on the horizontal line passing through and away from the c.g. beyond web c. in equal angles, the shear centre is on the horizontal plane and away from the c.g.outside of the leg

projection

d. in T-sections, the shear centre is at the c.g. of the section e. all the above



66. Bending equation is a. M/I = R/E = F/Y

b.I/M = E/R = Y/F

c.M/I = E/R = F/Y

d. M/I = R/E = Y/F

67. the intensity of direct longitudingal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the neutral axis is proportional to a. r

b.1/r

c.r2

d.1/r2

e.r3

68. The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam was 1600kg/cm2 and the corresponding tensile stress at its bottom was 400kg/cm2 . If the depth of the beam was10cm, the neutral axis from the top will be a.2cm

b.4cm

c.6cm

d.8cm

e.10cm

69. a reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of a. homogeneous material b. heterogeneous material c. isotropic material d. none of the above 70. If the beam of constant section is subjected throughout its length to a uniform bending moment, it will bend to a. a circular arc b. a parabolic arc c. a catenary d. none of the above 71. The maximum deflection of a beam of lengthL simply supported at its ends with a central load W will be a. WL2/48EI b. W2L/24EI c. WL3/48EI d. WL2/8EI e. WL2/36EI 72. The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its end with an isolated centralload and that with udl over its entire length,is a.1

b.15/24

c.24/15

d.2/3

e.3/2



73.The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and with a udl over its entire length ,is a. 1

b.24/15

c.3/8

d.8/3

e.5/8

74. In a cantilever maximum deflection due to pure bending moment(M) at its free end,is a.ML2/3EI

b.ML2/4EI

c. ML2/6EI

d. ML2/2EI

e.ML2/5EI

75. A cantilever carries a udl (W) over its whole length and a force(W) acts at its free end upward. The net deflection of the free end will be a. 5WL3/24EI upward b. zero c. 5WL3/24EI downward d. none of the above 76.A cantilever carrying udl (W) over its full length is propped at its free end such that it is at the level of the fixed end. The bending moment will be zero at its free end and also at a. the mid point of the cantilever b. the fixed point of the cantilever c. the 1/4th length from free end d. the 3/4th length from free end e. the 1/2th length from free end 77. A simply supported beam which carries a udl over the whole span is propped at the cente of the span so tha the beam is heldto the level of the end supports, the reactionof the rop will be equal to a. half the distributed load b. ‘3/8th the distributed load c. distributed load d. none of the above 78. A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a udl over its entire length, and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M . at the centre will be equal to a. WL b. WL/8 c. WL/24 d. WL/32 e. WL/64



79. The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a a. triangle

b. rectangle

c.parabola

e. cubic parabola 80. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and maximum at the fixed end will be a a. triangle

b. rectangle

c. parabola

d. cubic parabola

81. The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to udl will be a a. triangle

b. rectangle

c. parabola

d. cubic parabola

82. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying concentrated load at its free end, will be a. triangle

b. rectangle

c. parabola

d.cubic parabola

83. shear force diagram for a cantilever carrying a udl over its whole length,is a. rectangle

b. triangle

c. parabola

d. cubic parabola

84.When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, shear develops on a.bottom fibre

b. top fibre

c. midddle fibre

d. every horizontal plane

85. when a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive stress develops on a. bottom fibre

b. top fibre

c. neutral axis

d. every cross section

86. If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero then there B.M. is a. zero b. maximum c. minimum d. between maximum and minimum value e. none of the above 87. Hooke’s law states that stress and strain are a. directly proportional

b.inversely proportional

c. curvilinerly related.




88. a cantilever beam rectangular in cross section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the width of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of a. 8 b. 1/8 c. ½ d. 2 e. 3 89. A cantilever beam rectangular in cross-section is subjected to an isolated load at its free end. If the depth of the beam is doubled, the deflection of the free end will be changed in the ratio of a. 8

b. 1/8

c. ½

d. 2

e. 3

90. If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is douled, the defelection of the free end will increase by a.2times b.4times c. 8times b. ½ times c. 3times 91. If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by a.1/2 b.1/8 c. 2 d.8 e.4 92. If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre will change by a factor of a. 2 b. ½ c. 8 d. 1/8 e. 4



93. If the width(b) and depth (d) of a beam simply supported with a central load are interchanged, the deflection at t he centre of the beam will be changed in the ratio of a. b/d b. d/b c. (d/b)2 d. (b/d)2 e. (b/d)3 94. The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported is a. directly proportional to its weight b. inversely proportional to its width c. directly proportional to the cube of its depth d. directly proportional to the cube of its length e. none of the above 95. Stress ina beam due to simple bending is a. directly proportional b. inversely prooportional c. curvilinearly related d. none of the above 96. For a beam, if fundamental equations of statistics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive forces at the supports, structure is said to be a. determinate b. statically determinate c. statically indetermiate



97. If a beam is supported so that there are only three unknown reactive elements at the supports. These can be determined by using the following fundamental equation of statistics a. ΣH = 0 b. ΣV = 0 c. ΣH = 0,ΣV = 0 d. ΣH = 0.,ΣV=0,ΣM=0 e. ΣM=0,ΣH=0 98. For a beam having fixed end, the following unknown elements of the corresponding reactions are involved a. horizontal component at either end b. ‘vertical component at either end c. horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other d. horizontal and vertical components at both the ends 99. a long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load is called a. a column b. a strut c. a tie d. a stanchion e. all the above 100. the ratio of the effective length of a column and the minimum radius of gyration of its cross sectional area, is known a. buckling factor b. slenderness ratio c. crippling factor



Strength of Materials & Structural Design – I Answers 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. d 13. c 14. b 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. c 19. d 20. b 21. c 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. e 26. a 27. b 28. d 29. b 30. Mr/ r2 31. e 32. a 33. a 34. a

35. c 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. P/E (1-m) 40. c 41. c 42. a 43. e 44. c 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. b 49. c 50. c 51. d 52. b 53. a 54. d 55. a 56. d 57. d 58. b 59. e 60. a 61. d 62. d 63. c 64. c 65. e 66. c 67. a 68. d

69. b 70. a 71. c 72. c 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. d 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. c 82. a 83. b 84. d 85. b 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. c 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. a 100.b



STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS 1.

What are the methods available for analyzing the frames?

2. Which is the most important tool in obtaining influence line? 3. What type of structures can be analyzed by using Plastic analysis? 4. Write the Shape factor for rectangular & circular sections. 5. Which arch is statically determinate arch? 6. When the plastic hinge is form at a structure? 7. Where the maximum Bending moment due to wheel load on simply supported girder will occur? 8. Write the equation of parabolic arch of span l and rise h? 9. What is the horizontal deflection of a parabolic curved beam of span 10m and rise 3m when loaded with a udl 1t/m? 10. Which is the third support of a three hinged arch apart from its supports? 11. What is the horizontal reaction at the support of a three hinged arch of span 2l and rise h is hinged at the crown subjected to a central point load W? 12. What is the Verticall reaction at the support of a three hinged arch of span 2l and rise h is hinged at the crown subjected to a central point load W? 13. Where the shear centre will occur for a half circular section if radius r and constant thickness lies at x from centre? 14. What theorem is used in Mechanism method in Plastic Analysis? 15. How will you define the Upper Bound theorem 16. What is meant by influence line? 17. Write the column factor for a column fixed at base? 18. Write the expression to find column factor for each joint? 19. Name the nature of moving load. 20. What is the strain due to bending in the cantilever beam subjected to a point load of P? 21. What is the maximum bending moment at 0.4l from the left support of a simple beam of span l subjected to a moving load W? 22. What is the absolute bending moment of a simple beam of span l subjected to an moving couple M



23. What is the slope at a left support A of a single side ( right side ) overhanging beam ABC carries point load W at C, where AB=L AND BC=L/4? 24. Write the expression to find Plastic section modulus for a solid circular section. 25. List the basic methods of Plastic analysis. 26. What are Static Equillibrium equations? 27. How will you classify the methods of Analysis? 28. What is the necessity condition for a pin jointed structure to be a statically determinate? 29. When a rigid space frame is to be a statically determinate? 30. What is the degree of kinematic indeterminancy of a pin jointed frame? 31. What is a discrete structure? 32. Which is a linear element ia structure? 33. How will you classify the structures based on their redundancy? 34. Write the expression given by Castingliano' s first theorem to determine the deflection component? 35. What is the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting at any joint in moment distribution method 36. Write the carry over factor for a prismatic member with a fixed end? 37. What are the methods coming under the catagories of stiffness method? 38. What is the moment induced at the other end of a fixed beam oflength l and one end is sunk by amount ? 39. Write the stiffness factor for prismatic member. 40. What is meant by degree of freedom? 41. What is meant by flexibility of a member? 42. What is meant by Stiffness of a member? 43. When Degree of kinematic indeterminancy of the structure is high 44. Zero 45. Three moment theorem, method of consistant deformation etc., 46. 3m+r = 3j 47. Unit load apporach, strain energu approach, etc., 48. Stiffness matrix x flexibility matrix = unit matrix 49. 4EI/L 50. Axial shear, bending, torsion



Structural Analysis Answers 1.

Portal method, Cantilever method

8. y=4hx/l2(l-+)

2. Muller Breslau Principle

9. 200/EI

3. Structures made of Ductile material

10. anywhere in the rib

4. 1.5, 1.69

11. Wa/2h

5. Three hinged arch

12. Wa/2l

6. under yield stress

13. 4r /

7. always under wheel load

14. upper bound theorem

15. A load on the basis of an assumed mechanism will always be greater than equal totrue ultimate load 16. It is acurve whose ordinates represent to scale the variations of function such as shear force, bending moment, deflection etc., 17. ONE

26. H = 0, V = 0, M = =0

18. c=1-g

27. Force method & nDisplacement

19. it is a dynamic load

method

20. P²L³/6EI

28. m = 2j-3

21. 0.24Wl

29. m+r=3j

22. M

30. 3j-2r

23. Wl²/24EI

31. it is made of slendre members only

24. d³/6

32. column element

25. Mechanism and Equilibrium methods 33. Statically determinate, indeterminate and kinematically determinate ,indeterminate 34. M( M/ P)dx/EI 35. greater than one 36. 5 37. Slope deflection method., moment distribution method etc,., 38. 6EI /L2 39. I / L 40. Number of possible movements (translations & rotations) 41. Displacement produced due to applied unit force 42. Force required to produce unit displacement Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


43. When Degree of kinematic indeterminancy of the structure is high 44. Zero 45. Three moment theorem, method of consistant deformation etc., 46. 3m+r = 3j 47. Unit load apporach, strain energu approach, etc., 48. Stiffness matrix x flexibility matrix = unit matrix 49. 4EI/L 50. Axial shear, bending, torsion



CONCRETE STRUCTURES 1.

The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends ti rise to the surface

while placing and compaction, is known as a) Bleeding

b) creep

c) segregation

d) shrinkage

2. The split strength of concrete is determined by a) Brazilion test

b) vicats apparatus

c) cube test

d) briquettes test

c) 5000Fck

d) 1000 Fck

c) 0.25 and 0.30

d) 0.30 and 0.35

3. The young’s modulus of concrete Ec is a) 1000Fck

b) 5000 Fck

4. Poisson’s ratio of concrete ranges from a) 0.10 and 0.15

b) 0.15 and 0.25

5. The grade of concrete not recommended by IS 456 is a) M15

b) M20

c) M25

d) M50

6. Slump test is a measure of a) Tensile strength

b) compressive strength c) impact value

d) consistency

7. Light weight concrete is used in a) heat resistance

b) Airconditioning of buildings

c) reducing thickness

d) non load bearing wall

8. Minimum number of test specimens required for finding the compressive strength of concrete are a) 3

b) 5

c) 6

d) 9

9. If sea water is used for preparing concrete a) it will cause efflorescence

b) it may corrode the reinforcement

c) it will cause dampness

d) all of the above

10. Steam curing is used in a) Columns only

b) long slabs and column

c) mass production of precast concrete

d) all of the above

11. The two main basic materials are a) lime stone and silica

b) lime and alumina

c) lime and clay

d) lime and chalk

12) Gypsum is added in cement for a) Setting

b) cementing

c) retarding the setting

d) heat of hydration

13. Early strength of cement is caused by a) tricalcium silicate b) dicalcium silicate c) tricalcium aluminate d) gypsum aluminate



14. The ratio of youngs modulus of steel to that of concretre is a) Poisons ratio

b) modular ratio

c) bulk modulus

d) elasticity

c) dams

d) foundations

15. Low heat cement is preferred for a) slabs

b) columns

16. The ratio of 28 day strength of cube to that of a standard cylinder is a) 0.8

b) 1.25

c) 0.67

d) 1.00

17. According to IS code 2000, the modulus of elasticity of concrete mix M25 will be a) 25000N/mm2

b) 28500 N/mm2

c) 25500 N/mm2

d) 28000 N/mm2

18. Minimum clear cover to the main steel bars in slab, beam, column and footing respectively are a) 10,15,20,25

b) 15,25,40,75

c) 20,35,30,40

d) 20,35,40,75

19. In the limit state design of concrete structures the strain distribution is assumed to be a) linear

b) nonlinear

c) parabolic

d) parabolic and rectangular

20. Loss of stress with time at constant strain in steel is called a) relaxation

b) creep

c) shrinkage

d) ductility

21. A higher modular ratio shows a) higher compressive strength of concrete b) lower compressive strength of concrete c) higher tensile strength of concrete d) lower tensile strength of concrete 22. For a continousd slab if size 3m x 8.5m size,the minimum overall depth of slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is a)5cm

b)7.5cm

c)10cm

d)12cm

23. The neutral depth factor for M15 and mild steel reinforcement is a) 0.45

b) 0.43

c) 0.44

d) 0.4

24. In case of plain concrete in sea water grade of concrete should be atleast a) M 30

b) M15

c) M10

d) M20

25. The area of steel for B.M. = 75.77 x 10 6 N/mm, Depth = 545mm, σst = 230 N/mm2; grade of concrete M15, is a)1050 mm2

b) 1150 mm2

c)1200 mm2

d)1000 mm2

26. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by a) slump test b) tensile strength test

c) compaction factor test

d) flexural strength test



27. The modulus of rupture is a measure of a) Direct tensile strength

b) Split tensile strength

c) Direct compressive strength

d) flexural tensile strength

28. Segregation is responsible for a) honey comb concrete

b) porous layers in concrete

c) Sand streaks in concrete

d) all of the above

29. M10 grade of concrete approximates a) 1:2:4

b) 1:3:4

c) 1:3:6

d) both (a) and (b)

30. Expansion joints are provided if the length of the concrete exceeds a) 20m

b)45m

c)60m

d)75m

31. Which of the following stress must be limited to allowable stress in reinforced concrete? a) Principal stress

b) combined bending and shear stress

c) Normal stress

d) torsional shear stress

32. The main reinforcement in RCC steel fibre is placed in ___________ 33. The set of load combinations used in uktimate strength design of RCC beams is 34. The minimum strength of concrete that can be used in water tanks is ____ 35. Grade of RCC in sea water shall not be less than _____ 36. The cube strength of concrete used for prestressing should not be less than _________ 37. Approximate ratio the strength of the cement concrete of 7dats to that of 28 days ____ 38. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete is ________ 39. Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a temperature of ______ 40. Modulus of elasticity for concrete improves by a) Shorter curing period

b) age

c) higher w/c ratio

d) all of the above

41. The main component of pozzolona is ____________ 42. In a load balanced prestressed concrete beam under self load the cross section is subjected to ____________________ 43. The loss of prestress due to shrinkage is the product of ___________ 44. For a pretensioned rectangular plank the uplift at centre on release of wires from anchors due to pretensioning only(force P,eccentricity e) will be __________ 45. In prestressed concrete structures , the prestressing of concrete is done to compensate the stresses caused by ______________ 46. A curved profile tendon in a prestressed concrete beam introduces _________



47. Prestressed concrete is more desirable in case of ____________ 48. The deflection of simply supported beam in the roof over a class room is largest due to the effect of a) Creep

b) dead load

c) live load

d) shrinkage

49. The stage at which the tendon force is released permanently on the concrete is called _____________ 50. Prestressing is most efficient when applied to ______ 51. The collapse of RCC section is normally due to _______ ____ 52. The transverse torsional reinforcement in RCC beams can be provided as a) like ties

b) closed loops only c) open or closed loops

d) helical loops only

53.The approximate average bond stress in RCC with plain bars is _______ 54. The magnitude of loss of prestress due to relaxation of steel is in the range of a) 0 to 1%

b) 2 to 8%

c) 8 to 12%

d) 12 to 14 %

55. For a prestressed structural elements, high strength concrete is used primarily because ___________ 56. Limit state for serviceability for deflection including the effects due to creep, shrinkage and temperature occurring after erection of partitions and applications of finishes as applicable to floors and roofs is restricted to __________ 57. The most significant change that occurs in concrete after initial set, is that a) It starts handling

b) it starts gaining strength

c) it cannot be rehandled

58. The bulk density of aggregates depends _______ 59. The presence of entrained air results in a) Reduced bleeding

b) lower density

c) decreased strength at all ages

60. The behavior of concrete under instantaneous loads is a) Elastic

b) plastic

c) brittle

d) visco-elastic

61. What are the factors influencing the strength of concrete? 62. What are the objectives of structural design? 63. What are the 3 methods available for the design of RC members? 64. Which concept leads the principle of equivalent area? 65. What is factor of safety? 66. What is the concept of ultimate load method? 67. What is characteristic compressive strength of concrete? 68. Why members are designed as under reinforced section?



69. What are the main components of flanged beam? 70. Which is the fundamental assumption of the flexural theory? 71. What is meant by bond? 72. Name the factors influence bond strength 73. What is column? 74. What is slenderness ratio? 75. What are factors influencing the behaviour and strength of slender column? 76. What are the design methods of slender column? 77. What are the purposes of footing? 78. What are the instability problems in footing? 79. Name the three modes of failure in eccentric compression members 80. What is meant by Fe 415 grade steel? 81. What are the types of steel available as reinforcement? 82. What is M20? 83. How many bars have to be provided in minimum for columns? 84. What is the advantage of prestressed concrete 85.What are the losses in post tensioned concrete 86.What is the minimum compressive strength required formpretensionede members? 87.What is the minimum compressi ve strength required for post tensioned members? 88.What should be the minimum cement content in pretensioned members? 89.What should be the minimum cement content in post tensioned members? 90.what is the ultimate tensile stength of high tensioned wires? 91.What is the total losses allowed in pretensioned members? 92.What is the total losses allowed in post tensioned members? 93.Which loads influence the deflections of prestressed concrete members? 94.What is Hoyer effect? 95.What is transmission length? 96.What are the factors influence the transmission length? 97.Where the bond stress is zero in pretensioned beams? 98.Why high strength steel wires are used in prestressed concrete? 99.What is the aim of stress analysis in the end block? 100.What is the size of the end block? 101.What is a propped composite construction?



102.What is the use of shear connectors in composite construction? 103.What is the general value of shrinkage strain adopted as per BIS 8110? 104.What is primary moment? 105.What is secondary moment? 106.What is a concordant cable? 107.Which prestressing system is widely used in pressure vessels? 108.When the prestressed concrete bridges are preferred?



Concrete Structures Answers 1. a

31.normal stress

2. a

32. bottom fibre

3. b

33. DL+LL, DL+WL or DL+EL, and

4. d

DL+PLL+WL or EL

5. d

34. M20

6. c

35. M20

7. b

36. 25 N/mm2

8. c

37. 0.56

9. c

38. 0.00003

10. d

39. 32C

11. b

40. a

12. c

41. Calcium chloride

13. b

42. axial and shear

14. b

43. modulus of elasticity of steel and

15. c

shrinkage of concrete

16. b

44. PeL2 / 8EI

17. a

45. working load

18. b

46. compression, bending and shear

19. a

47. cylindrical pipe subjected to internal

20. a

fluid pressure

21. b

48. b

22. b

49. transfer

23. d

50. strut

24. d

51. crushing of concrete

25. b

52. b

26. b

53. fck/15

27. c

54. b

28. c

55. both shrinkage and creep are more

29. d

56. span/350

30.



57. c

59. b

58. shape

60. b

61. Mix ratio, w/c ratio, size and grading of aggregate, temperature and humidity at the time of mixing, moulding and curing etc. 62. Stability, Strength, and Serviceability 63. Working stress method, Ultimate load method and Limit state method 64. Strain

in steel = Strain in concrete

65. It is the ratio of ultimate stress or yield strength to allowable or safe stress 66. In the ultimate load method , the structural element is proportioned to withstand the ultimate load which is obtained by enhancing the service load by some factor referred to as load factor for giving a desired margin of safety 67. It is defined as the values of it strength below which it is not more than 5% of the test results are expected to fall 68. An under reinforced section is designed as the stress in steel reaches the maximum value first. So failure will take place after yielding of steel, with enough warning signal like excessive cracking and deflection taking place before ultimate failure 69. Compression flange, Tension steel, transverse steel in slab for integral action and stirrups for shear 70. Plane cross section remain plane before and after bending 71. In RC design, bond refers to the adhesion or the shear stress that occurs between concrete and steel in a loaded member 72. It is the bond between steel and concrete that enables the two materials to act together without slip 73. Local or flexural bond and anchorage bond 74. Types of steel, Diameter of bar, grade of concrete, cover to reinforcement 75. It is structural member provide to carry compressive load and whose effective length exceeds three times its lateral dimension 76. Slenderness ratio, degree of rotational and lateral restraints, eccentricity, grade of concrete and amount of reinforcement 77. Moment magnification method, Additional moment method and reduction factor method 78. To transmit the applied load effect and to ensure that the settlement is within the tolerable limit



79. Due to lateral loads on a structure, the following are the instability problems 1. Overturning and 2. Sliding 80. Fe 415 is a HYSD bar. Fe refers to steel and 415 representing the yield strength of the steel bar 81. Mild steel (Fe250), Medium tensile steel, High yield strength deformed steel (HYSD) (Fe 415), and HYSD (Fe 500) 82. M refers mix 20 refers characteristics compressive strength of concrete of 150mm size cube at 28 days 83. For square/rectangular column - minimum 4 bars, for circular column - minimum 6 bars 84.No tension 85.Loss due to friction and wobble, Anchorage slip 86. 42Mpa

92.15%

87. 30MPa

93.Imposed loads and self weight

88. 350 kg/cm2 89. 400kg/cm2

94.Swelling of wires for a particular distance 95.Length needed for achieving uniform stress

90.1600 Mpa 91.18% 96. diameter and

surface characteristics of the wire, elastic properties of steel and concrete

and the co eficient of friction between steel and concrete 97.At a distance equal to transmission length 98.To take up initial losses 99.To obtain the transverse tensile stress distribution. 100.Sqare shape of side equal to the width of the beam 101.The self weight of RCC slab in fresh stage is not transferred to prestressed beam 102.To overcome the differenshial shrinkage stresses 103.100 micro strains 104.Bending moment due to actual eccentricity of the tendons 105.Additional moments produced due to prestressing 106.Cable with zero eccentricity at the ends. 107.Freyssinet system 108.For spans exceeding 50m



HYDRAULICS AND FLUID MECHANICS 1. The mass pre unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called a. Specific weight

b. mass density

c. Specific gravity


2. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature and pressure is called a. Specific weight

b. mass density

c. Specific gravity


3. The specific weight of water in M.K.S. units is taken as a.1 gm/cm3

b.0.001kg/cm3

c.1000 kg/m3

d.1000 litres/m3

e. any one of the above

4. The specific weight of water is S.I units is taken as a.9.81 kN/m3 b.9.81x 103 N/m3

c.9.81x10-6 N/mm3

d.any one of the above

e.none of the above

5. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of pure water at a standard temperature is called a. density of liquid

b. specific gravity of liquid

c. compressibility of liquid

d. surface tension of liquid

6. The specific gravity of water is taken as a.0.001

b.0.01

c.0.1

d.1

7. The specific weight of sea water is ______ that of pure water. a. same as

b. less than

c. more than

8. The density of liquid in gm/cm3 is numerically equal to its specific gravity. a. True

b. False

9. The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of pressure is called its a. surface tension

b. compressibility

c. capillary

d. viscosity

10. The property of a liquid which enables it to resist tensile stress is called its surface tension. a. Agree

b. Disagree

11. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube due to viscosity of water. a. True

b. False



12. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the tube with an upward______ surface. a. Concave

b.Convex

13. A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an experiment for the capillary rise of water because a. It is easier to see through the glass tube b. Glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube c. It is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube 14.

The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of the liquid known as

15.

a. Cohesion

b. adhesion

c. viscosity

d. Surface tension

e. compressibility

With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in the tube due to surface tension will a. decrease

b. increase

c. remain unchanged

d. Depend upon the characteristics of liquid 16.

A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in fluid. The height of rise or fall in the tube is given by a. iwd / σcosα

b. σcosα / 4wd

c.4σcosα /wd

d.wd/4σcosα

where w=Specific weight of liquid, α = Angle of contact of the liquid surface, and σ = Surface tension 17. In the manufacturing of lead shots, the property of surface tension is utilised a. Agree

b. Disagree

18. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is that of water. a. same as

b. lower than

c. higher than

19. The unit of surface tension is a. kg/m3

b.kg/cm3.

c.kg/m

d.kgm

20. The viscosity of a liquid is due to cohesion of its particles. a. Correct

b. Incorrect

21. The viscosity of a liquid________.its rate of flow through a hole in a vessel. a. effects

b. does not effect

22. The viscosity of water is ______ Than that mercury. a. Higher

b. lower



23. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of a. Surface tension of water

b. Compressibility of water

c. Capillary of water

d. Viscosity of water

24. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is a. Directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid. b. Directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface c. Directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid d. Inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface e. None of the above 25. The pressure intensity in kg/cm at any poin in a liquid is a. w where

b.wh

c.w/h

d.h/w

w = Specific weight of liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from the surface.

26. According to Pascal’s law, the intensity of pressure at any point in a fluid at rest is the same in all direction. a. Agree

b. disagree

27. Water is ________ liquid. a. a compressible

b. an incompressible

28. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called a. Atmospheric pressure

b. gauge pressure

c. Absolute pressure

d. mean pressure

29. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is a. 1.03kg/cm2 b. 10.3 m of water

c. 760 mm of mercury

d. all of the above

30. The density of air is as me at different heights. a. Correct

b. Incorrect

31. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local atmospheric pressure, then the different of these two pressure is called a. Gauge pressure

b. absolute pressure

c. Positive gauge pressure

d. vacuum pressure

32. When the pressure intensity at a point is less than the local atmospheric pressure, then the difference of these two pressures is called vacuum pressure. a. Agree

b. Disagree



33. The vacuum pressure is always the negative gauge pressure a. Yes

b. No

34. The absolute pressure is equal to a. gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure b. gauge pressure -- atmospheric pressure c. atmospheric pressure __ gauge pressure d. gauge pressure __ vacuum pressure 35. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a piezometer tube is a. Atmospheric pressure

b. gauge pressure

c. Absolute pressure

d. vacuum pressure

36. The vacuum pressure can be measured with the help of a piezometer tube. a. True

b. False

37. The pressure measured with the help of a piezometer tube is in a.kg/cm2.

B.kg/m2

c.N/mm2

d.N/m2

e. head of liquid

38. A piezometer tube is used only for measuring a. low pressure

b. high pressure

c.moderate pressure

d.vacuum

pressure 39. The liquid used in manometers should have a. low density

b. high density

d. high surface tension

c.low surface tension

e. none of the above.

40. Manometer is used to measure a. velocity of liquid

b. atmospheric pressure

c. pressure in pipes and channels

d. pressure in Venturimeter

e. difference of pressure between two points in a pipe. 41. A manometer is used to measure a. low pressure

b. moderate pressure

c. high pressure

d. atmospheric pressure

42. A manometer can be used to measure vacuum pressures a.Agree

b.Disagree

43. A differential manometer is used to measure a. velocity of liquid

b. atmospheric pressure

c. pressure in pipes and channels

d. Pressure in Venturimeter

e. difference of pressure between two points in a pipe.



44. The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface is a.w.A

b.w x

c.wAx

d.wA / x

e. w x / A

Where w= Specific weight of the liquid A = Area of the immersed surface, and x = Depth of the centre of gravity of the immersed surface from the liquid surface. 45. The total pressure on an immersed surface inclined at an angle φ with the liquid surface is a.w.A

b.w x

d.wAx / sin φ e. wAx / cos φ

c.wAx

46. The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface _______with the increase in depth a. Does not change

b.increases

c. decreases

47. The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface acts, is knows as a.centre of gravity

b. centre of depth

c.centre of pressure

d. centre of immersed surface.

48. The centre of pressure acts…_________ the centre of gravity of immersed surface. a.at

b.above

c. below

49. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is a.wH

c.wH2/2

b.wH/2

d.wH2/3

Where w= Specific weight of liquid and H = Height of liquid. 50. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall acts at a distance________ from the liquid surface. a.H/3

b.H/2

c.2H/3

d.3H/4

51. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of its sides. Which of the following statement is correct? a. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum. b. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum. c. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero,and on the bottom of the wall is maximum. d. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero. e. None of the above. 52. When a vertical wall is subjected to a pressures due to liquid on both sides, the resultant pressure is the__________.of the two pressures.



a. sum

b.differences

d. geometric mean

e.none of the above

c. arithmetic mean

53. The water pressure per meter length on a vertical masonry wall of dam is a.wH/2

c.wH2/2.

b.wH

d.wH2/4.

Where w= Specific weight of the liquid and H = Height of the liquid 54. The stability of a dam is checked for a.tension at the base

b.overturning of the wall or dam

c. sliding of the wall or dam d.all of the above

e.none of the above.

55. When a body is placed over a liquid, it is subjected to gravitational force and upthrust of the liquid. a.True

b.False

56. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if a. Gravitational force is equal to the upthrust of the liquid. b. Gravitational force is less than the upthrust of the liquid. c. Gravitational force is more than the upthrust of the liquid. d. None of the above. 57. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a force equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called, a. Pascal’s Law

b.Archimede’s principle

c. Principle of floatation

d. Bernoulli’s theorem.

58. The tendency of a liquid to uplift a submerged body, because of the upward thrust of the liquid, is known as buoyancy. a. Agree

b.Disagree

59. The force of buoyancy is_______.the weight of the liquid displaced by the body. a. equal to

b.less than

c. more than

60. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is________the weight of liquid displaced a. equal to

b.less than

c. more than

61. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is _________.the weight of the liquid displaced. a equal to

b.less than

c. more than

62. The centre of the gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is called a.centre of pressure

b. centre of buoyancy

c.metacentre

d. none of the

above



63. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the immersed body. a.Correct

b.Incorrect

64. The buoyancy depends upon the a. pressure with which the liquid is displaced b. weight of the liquid displaced c. viscosity of the liquid d. compressibility of the liquid 65. When a body, floating in a liquid, is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating about a point known as a.centre of pressure

b. centre of gravity

d.metacentre


c.centre of buoyancy

66. The line of action of the force of buoyancy acts through the centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced. a.True

b.False

67. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position, when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in a. neutral equilibrium

b. stable equilibrium

c. unstange equilibrium


68. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in stable equilibrium, if its metacentre coincides with its centre of gravity a.True

b.False

69. A body floating in a liquid is said to be not in equilibrium if its metacentre lies below its centre of gravity. a. Agree

b.Disagree

70. A submerged body is said to be not in equilibrium if its metacentre lies below its centre of gravity a. coincides With best regards

b. lies below

c. lies above.

71. A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position, by applying an imaginary inertia force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite direction. This statement is called, a. Pascal’s law

b. Achimede’s Principle

c. D-Alembert’s principle

d. none of the above.



72. The quantity of a liquid flowing per second through a section of a pipe or a channel is called discharge and is measured in cumecs (m3/sec). a. True

b. False.

73. One cubic meter of water weights a. 100 litres

b. 250 litres

c. 500 litres

d. 1000 litres e. 1500 litres

74. One litre of water occupies a volume of a. 100cm2

b.250cm3

c.500 cm3

d.1000 cm3

e. 1500 cm3

75. When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid is a. maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls b. minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls c. zero at the centre and maximum near the walls d. maximum at the centre and zero near the walls e. none of the above 76. If an incompressible liquid is continuously flowing through a pipe, the quantity of liquid passing per second is different at different sections. a. True

b.False

77. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the paths of individual particles do not cross each other, is called a. Steady flow

b. uniform flow

d. Turbulent flow

e. none of the above.

c. streamline flow

78. A flow in which each liquid particle do not have a definite path and the paths of individual particles also cross each other, is called unsteady flow. a. Agree

b. Disagree

79. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant, is called…… flow.

a. Steady

b. stream line

c. turbulent

80. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is not constant, is called, a. Stream line flow

b. turbulent flow

c. Steady flow


81. A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called a. Steady uniform flow

b. steady non-uniform flow

c. Unsteady uniform flow

d. unsteady non-uniform flow

82. A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called_______ uniform flow. a. Steady

b.unsteady



83. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called a. Steady uniform flow

b. steady non-uniform flow

c. Unsteady uniform flow

d. unsteady non-uniform flow

84. A flow through an expanding tube at increasing rate is called unsteady non-uniform flow a. Yes

b. No

85. A flow whose stream line is represented by a curve, is called a. One-dimensional flow

b. two-dimensional flow

c. Three-dimensional flow

d. four-dimensional flow

86. A flow whose stream line is represented by a straight line, is called______dimensional flow.

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. four

87. In one dimensional flow , the flow a. Is uniform

b.is steady and uniform

d. Takes place in curve

c. takes place in straight line

e.takes place in one direction

88. In two-dimensional flow, the flow does not take place in a curve, a. True

b.False

89. Bernoulli’s equation is applied to a. Venturimeter

b.orifice meter

d. all of the above


c. pitot tube

90. Barometer is used to measure a. velocity of liquid b. atmospheric pressure c. pressure in pipes and channels d. difference of pressure between two points in a pipe 91. Venturimeter is used to a. measure the velocity of a flowing liquid b. measure the pressure of a flowing liquid c. measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe d. measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line 92. The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is_____.__that of the convergent cone a. equal to

b. double

c.three to four times d.five to six times



93. In a Venturimeter the velocity of liquid at throat is_________.than at inlet a. higher

b. lower

94. The pressure of liquid at throat in a Venturimeter is________.than that at inlet a. higher

b.lower

95. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter a. remains constant

b.increases

c. decreases

d. depends upon mass of

liquid e. none of the above. 96. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion a. remains constant

b.increases

c. decreases

d. depends upon mass of

liquid e. none of the above. 97. In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed in a a. horizontal line

b. vertical line c. inclined line with flow upwards

d. inclined line with flow downwards e. in any direction and in any location 98. A Pitot tube is used to measure the a. velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe b. pressure difference between two points in a pipe c. total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe d. discharge through a pipe 99. When the Venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will show_______.reading a. same 100.

b. more

c. less

If a Pitot tube is placed with its nose upstream, downstream or sideways, the

reading will be the same in every case. a. True

b. False

101. Newton' s law of viscosity relates a. intensity of pressure and rate of angular documentation 102. The condition of "No slip" at rigid boundaries is applicable to a. flow of Newtonian fluids only b. flow of ideal fluids only c. flow of all real fluids d. flow of non-Newtonian fluids



103.

For a fluid, the shear stress was found to be directly proportional to the rate of

angular deformation. The fluid is classified is a. Newtonian b. non-Newtonian

c. Dilatant fluid

d. thixotropic

104. The shear stress in a fluid flowing between two fixed parallel plates : a. is constant over the cross section b. is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the mid point c. is zero at the mid plane and varies linearly with distance from the mid plane. d. varies parabolically across the section 105.

The piezometric head in a static liqui 1. remains constant in the horizontal direction 2. remains constant through out the fluid 3. varies only in vertical direction Out of above statement

106.

a. 1 & 2 are correct

b.1 & 3 are correct

c. Only 3 is correct

d. Only 2 is correct

The pressure, in meters of oil of specific gravity 0.8, equivalent to 80m of water is a. 64

b.80

c.100

d.88

107. When a static liquid is subjected to uniform rotation in a container the free-surface assumes a shape of a. cone b. circular cylinder

c. paraboloid of revolution

d.

ellipsoid

of

revolution 108.

Flow at constant rate through a tapering pipe is 1. steady flow 2. uniform flow

3. unsteady flow

4. non-uniform flow

Of the above statements a. 1 & 2 are correct

b. 1 & 4 are correct

c. 2 & 3 are correct

d. 2 & 4 are correct

109. The existence of velocity potential in fluid flow indicates that a. the flow must be irrotational b. the flow is rotational and satisfies the continuity equation c. the velocity must be zero d. the circulation around any closed curve must have a finite value



111. Which of the following two dimensional incompressible velocity fields satisfies the conservation of mass? a. u = x,

v = y b. u = -2x, v =2y

c. u =xy, v =xy

d. u= x2 – y2, v=0 112.

Identify the statement which is not correct a. the hydraulic grade line and the energy line are coincident for a body of fluid at rest b. whenever the hydraulic grade line falls below the center line of a conduit

carrying liquid the local pressures are less than the reference atmospheric pressure c. the hydraulic grade line in a flow of real fluid with addition of energy will have an upward slope in the direction of flow d. the energy line in a flow of an ideal fluid with no addition of energy will always be horizontal 113. The co-efficient of discharge depends upon 1. reynolds number of flow

2. roughness of the surface

3. viscous resistance of fluid From the above statements a. 1 & 2 are correct c. 1 & 3 are correct

b.2 & 3 are correct d. 1,2 & 3 are correct



Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics Answers 1.

b

29.

d

57.

b

85.

B

2.

a

30.

Incorrect

58.

Agree

86.

A

3.

e

31.

c

59.

a

87.

C

4.

d

32.

Agree

60.

c

88.

False

5.

b

33.

Yes

61.

b

89.

d

6.

d

34.

a

62.

b

90.

b

7.

c

35.

b

63.

Correct

91.

c

8.

True

36.

False

64.

b

92.

c

9.

B

37.

e

65.

d

93.

a

10.

Agree

38.

c

66.

True

94.

b

11.

False

39.

d

67.

b

95.

c

12.

a

40.

c

68.

False

96.

c

13.

a

41.

c

69.

Agree

97.

e

14.

d

42.

Agree

70.

b

98.

e

15.

a

43.

e

71.

c

99.

a

16.

c

44.

c

72.

True

100.

False

17.

Agree

45.

c

73.

d

101.

b

18.

c

46.

b

74.

d

102.

c

19.

c

47.

c

75.

a

103.

a

20.

Correct

48.

c

76.

False

104.

c

21.

a

49.

c

77.

c

105.

b

22.

a

50.

c

78.

Disagree

106.

c

23.

b

51.

c

79.

a

107.

c

24.

b

52.

b

80.

d

108.

c

25.

b

53.

c

81.

a

109.

b

26.

Agree

54.

d

82.

b

110.

c

27.

b

55.

True

83.

b

111.

d

28.

b

56.

c

84.

Yes

112.

b

113.

c



WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING 1. A plot between rainfall intensity versus time is called as a. hydrograph

b. mass curve

c. hyetograph

d. isohyet.

2. A hyetograph is a plot of a. cumulative rainfall Vs time

b. rainfall intensity Vs time

c. rainfall depth Vs duration

d. discharge Vs time.

3. The Thiessen polygon is a. a polygon obtained by joining adjoining raingaguge stations b. a representative area used for, weighing the observed stations precipitations. c. an area used in the construction of depth – area curves. d. the descriptive term for the shape of a hydrograph. 4. An isohyet is a line joining points having a. equal evaporation value

b. equal barometric pressure

c. equal height above the MSL.

d. equal rainfall depth in a given duration

5. Wind speed is measure with a. a wind vane b. a heliometer c. stevenson box

d. anemometer.

6. Evapotranspiration is confined a. to daylight hours

b. night-time only

c. land surfaces only

d. none of these. 7. Lysimeter is used to measure a. infiltration

b. evaporation

c. evapotranspiration

d. vapor pressure

8. Interception losses a. include evaporation through flow and stemflow b. consists of only evaporation loss c. includes evaporation and transpiration losses d. consists of only stemflow 9. The infiltration capacity of a soil was measure under fairly identical general conditions by a flooding type infiltrometer as ff and by a rainfall simulator as fr, one can expect a. ff = fr, b.ff > fr, c. ff < fr, d. no fixed pattern Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


10. The rainfall on three successive 6-h periods are 1.3, 4.6 and 3.1 cm. If the initial loss is 0.7 cm and the surface runoff resulting from the storm is 3.0 cm, the a. 0.450 cm/h

b. 0.333 cm/h

index for the storm is

c. 0.392 cm/h d. 0.167cm/h.

11. A 6-h storm had 6 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 3 cm. If the

index

remains at the same value the runoff due to 12 cm of rainfall in 9h in the catchment is a. 8.0 cm

b.4.5 cm

c. 6 cm d. 7.5 cm

12. Direct runoff is made up of a. surface runoff, prompt inter flow and channel precipitation b. surface runoff, infiltration and evapotranspiration c. Overload flow only d. rainfall and evaporation. 13. A hydrograph is a plot of a. rainfall intensity against time. b. stream discharge against time c. cumulative rainfall against time d. cumulative runoff against time 14. The term base flow denotes a. delayed groundwater flow reaching a stream b. delayed groundwater and snow melt reaching a stream c. delayed groundwater and interflow a. the annual minimum flow in a stream



Water Resources Engineering Answers 1) c 2) b 3) b 4) d 5) d 6) d 7) c 8) b 9) b 10) c 11) d 12) a 13) b 14) a



CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS 1. The rocks which are formed from molten magma are called a. sedimentary rocks b. igneous rock c. metamorphic rock d. none of the above 2. Therocks which are formed by gradual deposition are called a. sedimentary rocks

b.igneous rock

c. metamorphic rocks

d. intrusive rocks

3. The rocks formed due to consolidation of weathered particles of the existing rocks are called a. sedimentary rocks

b.igneous rock


d. intrusive rocks

4. The rocks in which layers are visible are called a. stratified rocks

b. foliated rocks

c. instrusive rocks

5. The rocks having clay as their major constitutent are known as a. igneous rocks

b. argillaceous rocks

c. siliceours rocks

d. calcareous rocks

6. A natural material of construction obtained from rocks by any suitable method is called a. brick

b. stone

c. timber

d. iron

7. The color of a mineral in its powdered form is known as a. streak

b. lustrue

c.texture

d. structure

8. Basic rocks are a. igneous rocks

b. sedimentary rocks

c. rocks containing salt and other minerals 9. Granite stone is a. igneous rocks

b. sedimentary rocks



10. Rocks formed by gradual deposition are a. sedimentary rocks b. metamorphic rocks

c. igneous rocks

11. Marble contains a. lime

b. lime and silica

c. silica Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


12. Marble is a. igneous rock b. metamorphic rock

c. stratified rock

d. sedimentary rock

13. Chemically marble is a a. calcareous rock

b. silicious rock

c. argillaceous rock

d. none of the above.

14. Basalt is classified as a. extrusive igneous rock

b.sedimenary rock

c. metamorphic rock

d. intrusive igneous rock

15. Quartzite is

a. silicious rock

b.argillaceous rock

c. metamorphic rock d.calcarious rock 16. Sandstone is a.volcanic rock

b.igneous rock

c.metamorphic rock

d.sedimentary rock

17. Sandstone mostly contains a. quartz

b, lime and silica

c. silica, alumina and lime

18. Most weather resisting metamorphic rock is a. lime stone

b. slate

c.marble

d. quartzite

19. Which of the following is a mineral a. Quartizite

b. Laterite

c. Granite

d. Calcite

20. Slate is formed from the metamorphic action on a. shale

b.lime stone

c. sand stone

d. granite

21. Rocks having alunia as main constituent are called a. Calcareous rocks

b. argillaceous rocks

c. silicious rocks


22. The hardest rock is a. marble

b. diamond

c. talc

d. quartz

c. talc

d. quartz

d. 2.66

d. 2.72

23. The softest rock is a. marble

b. diamond

24. The specific gravity of marble is a. 2.5

b.2.6

25. Shingle is Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


a. decomposed laterite

b. crushed granite

c. water bound pebbles

d. air weathered rock

26. Laterite is found in a. U.P

b. Punjab

c. West Bengal

d. Kerala

27. Good quality stones must a. be durable

b. be free from clay

c. resist action of acids d. all the

above 28. The size of modular bricks is a. 10X10X9 cm

b. 19X19X9 cm c. 22,5X10X8.5 cm d. 22.5X8.0X9 cm

29. The frog of a brick is normally made on its a. top face

b. bottom face

c. longer side d. shorter side

30.Jhumb bricks are: a. under burnt

b. over burnt c. kutcha


31. Clay and silt content in a good brick earth must be at least a.50% 32.

b. 40%

c. 30%

d.25%

The fire clay contains pure a. lime

b. oxide of iron

c. hydrated aluminum silicate

d. magnesium 33.

Sewer pipes are made of a. earthen ware

34.

35.

b. stone ware c. refractory ware

A pug mill is used for a. softening brick earth

b. moulding brick earth

c. tempering brick earth

d. providing brick earth

Lime mortar is generally made with a. quick lime b. fat lime

36.

c. hydraulic lime

d. plain lime

The initial setting time of hydraulic lime is a. 30 mins

37.

d. terracotta

b. 60 mins

c. 90 mins

d. 120 mins

Good quality of cement contains higher percentage of a. tri-calcium silicate

b. di-calcium silicate Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


c. tri-calcium aluminate 38.

d. tetra calcium alumino ferrite

.Portland pozzolana cement possesses a. higher resistant to chemical attack b. lower heat of hydration c. lower shrinkage on drying d. water tightness e. all the above

39.

The commonly used raw material in the manufacture of cement is a. slate

40.

b. sand stone c. lime stone d. basalt

Soundness of cement is caused by a. Vicat apparatus

b. Le-chatelier apparatus

c. compressive strength testing apparatus 41.

d. none of the these

Soundnass test of cement determines a. quality of free lime b. ultimate strength

c. durability

d. initial

strength 42.

In mortar, the binding material is a. cement

43.

b. sand

c. surkhi

d. cinder

Good quality of sand is never obtained from a.river

b. nala

c. sea

d. gravel powder

44. Bulking of sand is caused due to a. surface moisture

b. air voids

c. viscosity

d. clay contends

45. Strength of cement concrete primarily depends upon a. quality of water

b. quantity of aggregate

c. quantity of cement d. water-cement ratio 46. Slump test for concrete is carried out, to determine a. strength 47.

c. workability d. water content

A badly mixed cement concrete results in a. segregation

48.

b. durability

b. bleeding c. honey combing

d. none of these

Seasoning of the timber is essential to remove a. knots from timber b. sap from timber Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


c. twisted fibre from d. roughness of timber 49.

A piece of timber whose thickness and width are respectively 5 cm and 10 cm is called

50.

b. 6 to 8%

53.

c. board

d. strip

c. 8 to 10%

d. 10 to 12%

The valuable timber is obtained from a. chair

52.

b. plank

A well seasoned timber may contain moisture up to a. 4 to 6%

51.

a. slate

b. shisham

c. sal

d. teak

Teak wood is suitable for a. sports article

b. furniture

c. railway sleepers

d. all the above

. Veneering means a. carving out designs on timber planks b. chemically treating timber planks c. thick layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood d. thin layer of superior wood glued to inferior wood.

54.

Knots in timber are a. defects caused by crushing fibers b. splits radiating from the centre c. speckled strains d. signs of branches cutoff

55.

Ply wood is made from a. common timber

56.

b. zinc white c. white lead d. titanium white b. spirit

c. coal-tar

d. turpentine

Turpentine oil is used in paints as a. thinner

59.

d. asbestos sheets

Most commonly used solvent in oil paint is a. petroleum

58.

c. teak wood

The most commonly used base for iron and steel work is a. red lead

57.

b. bamboo fibre

b. vehicle

c. base

d. drier

The base material for distember is Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


a. chalk 60.

63.

b. distember c. spirit varnish

d. none of these

In paints, the pigment is responsible for a. durability

62.

c. lime putty d. cement wash

French polish is a. oil paint

61.

b. lime

b. colour

c. smoothness

d. glassy face

Bitumen paints offer a. pleasing surface

b. hard surface

c. smooth surface

d. protective surface

The most durable varnish is a. water varnish b. sprite varnish c. turpentine varnish d. oil varnish

64.

. According to ISI, bitumen is classified into a. 2 grades

65.

b. 4 grades

c. 6 grades

d. 10 grades

Mastic asphalt is a. acid resisting material

b. non-corrosive material

c. corrosive material

d. heating materials.

66. teel used in RCC work is a. stainless steel

b. mild steel

c. high carbon steel

d. compressed steel

67. Stainless steel resists corrosion due to a. carbon

b. sulphur

c. vanadium

d. chromium



CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS ANSWERS 1. b

29. a

2. a

30. b

3. c

31. a

4. a

32. c

5. b

33. b

6. b

34. c

7. 1

35. c

8. 1

36. d

9. a

37. a

10. a

38. e

11. a

39. c

12. b

40. b

13. a

41. a

14. a

42. a

15. c

43. c

16. d

44. a

17. a

45. d

18. d

46. c

19. d

47. c

20. a

48. b

21. b

49. d

22. b

50. d

23. c

51. d

24. d

52. b

25. a

53. c

26. a

54. d

27. d

55. c

28. a

56. a Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


57. a

63. d

58. a

64. d

59. a

65. b

60. c

66. b

61. b

67. d

62. d



BUILDING CONSTRUCTION 1.

In open test pit method of soil investigation a. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 10m b. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 15m c. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 20m d. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 25m e. The samples are never collected below ground water table

2.

In open test pit method of soil investigation at least one test pit should be excavated for a. 1 sq.m area

d. 15x15m area

b. 10 sq.m area

e. 100x100 m area

c. 10x10m area 3.

In standard penetration test method a. The outer diameter of the tube is 5cm b. The inner diameter of the is 3.5cm c. The length of tube is about 60cm d. The tube is driven into the ground with the help of a 63 kg weight falling through a distance of 175cm e. All the above

4.

Which one of the following will have lowest bearing capacity? a. Hard rock

d. Coarse sand, compact and dry

b. Soft rock

e. Laminated rocks

c. Moist clay 5.

The bearing capacity of hard rock without lamination and defects, for example granite trap and diorite may be expected to be a. 1.0kg/cm2

d. 10-20kg/cm2

b. 2-5kg/cm2

e. 30-35kg/cm2

c. 5-10kg/cm2

6.

The bearing capacity of a soil can not be increased by Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


a. Chemical treatment

d. Moistening the soil

b. Grouting

e. Drawing the moisture of soil.

c. Compacting 7.

In case of group of piles, for uniform distribution of load from walls to piles. a. The piles are connected at the bottom by iron rods b. The piles are connected at the top by wire ropes c. The piles are isolated so that load form one pile is not transferred to another pile d. The piles are connected at the top by a layer of concrete e. The depth of all piles is maintained constant.

8.

The depth of lean concrete bed placed at the bottom of wall footing is kept. a. Equal to half the projection beyond the wall base b. Equal to the projection beyond the wall base c. Equal to double the projection beyond the wall base. d. 15cm e. 25cm

9.

The maximum differential settlement, in case of foundation on sandy soils is generally limited to a. 1 mm

d. 20 mm

b. 5 mm

e. 25mm

c. 10 mm 10.

In case of raft foundations on clayey soils, the maximum total settlement is usually limited to a. 400mm

d. 100mm

b. 200mm

e. 50mm

c. 150mm 11.

A pile driven at an inclination to resist the inclined forces, is known as a. Angular friction pile

d. Sheet pile

b. Angular bearing pile

e. Battered pile

c. Friction and bearing pile 12.

Piles are usually not made of Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


a. Timber

d. Reinforced cement concrete

b. Steel

e. Battered pile

c. Stainless steel 13.

14.

For have load, the mix used in case of pre cast concrete pile is a. 1 : 4 : 6

d. 1 : 2 : 4

b. 1 : 3 : 6

e. 1 : 3 : 6

c. 1 : 3 : 4

f. 1 : 1½ : 6

In the case of rectangular foundation (width =B). the maximum permissible eccentricity of load is limited to a. B/12 b. B/8 c. B/6 d. B/4 e. B/3



15.

The black cotton soil a. Has high bearing capacity b. Gives bad appearance to building due to clack colors c. Has negligible permeability d. Undergoes large volumetric change with moisture e. Is considered good soil for foundations.

16.

If a foundation has failed, the probable cause could be a. Unequal settlement of subsoil b. Unequal distribution of weight of the structure c. Horizontal movement of earth adjoining the structure d. Transpiration of trees and shrubs e. Any of the above.

17.

Quick sand a. Is the sand that immediately accepts moisture b. Is the sand that expands when moisture is added c. Condition is created in saturated thick layers of loose fine sand soils when distributed either due to vibrations or pressure of flowing d. Is pure silica and used un glass industry



BUILDING CONSTRUCTION Answers 1. e 2. d 3. e 4. c 5. e 6. d 7. d 8. b 9. e 10. d 11. e 12. c 13. e 14. c 15. d 16. e 17. c



SURVEYING 1.

If the equatorial distance between two meridians is 100 km, their distance at 60° latitude will be (a) 1000 km

(b) 800 km

(c) 600 km

(d) 500 km

(e) 400 km

2. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. In a spherical triangle (a) Every angle is less than two right angles (b) Sum of the three angles is equal to two right angles (c) sum of the three angles is less than six right angles and greater than two right angles. (d) If the sum any two sides is pi, the sum of the angles opposite them is also pi (e) Sum of any two sides is greater than the third 3. According to Napier' s Rules of circular parts for a right angled triangle, sine of middle part equals the product of (a) Tangents of the two adjacent parts

(b) sines of the two adjacent parts

(c) Cosines of the two adjacent parts

(d) cosines of the two opposite parts

(e) Both (a) and (b) above 4. In a spherical triangle ABC, right angled at C, sin b equals (a) sincsinB

(b) cosccosB

(c) tan a cotA

(d )sin c cosB

5. In a spherical triangle ABC right angled at C. equals to (a)sincsinB

(b) cosccosB

(c)tan c tanB

(d)sin c cosB

6. If S is the sum of three angles of a spherical triangle, the Spherical excess equals (a)S-90

(b)S-180

(c)S-270

(d)S-360

7. The great circle whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of Rotation of the earth, is called (a) equator

(b) terrestrialequator (c) 0 degree latitude

(d) al1 the above

8. The meridian of a place is (a) a great circle passing through the place and the poles (b) a great circle whose plane is perpendicular to the axis of rotation and also passes through the place (c) a semi circle which passes through the place and is terminated at the poles. (d) none of the above 9. Latitude of a place is the angular distance from, (a) Greenwich to the place (b) equator to the poles

(c) equator to the nearer pole Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


(d) equator to the nearer pole along the meridian of the place

(e) none of these.

10. Longitude of a place is the angular distance between the meridian, of the place and (a) the standard meridian

(b) the international date line

(c) that of Greenwich

(d) both (a) and (c) of above

11. Longitudes are measured from O" to (a) 180" eastward

(b)1800 westward

(d) 360" eastward

(c)180° east or west

(e) 3600westward.

12. International date line is located along (a) standard meridian

(b) Greenwich meridian

(d) 180 degree 1ongitude

(e) none of these

(c) equator

13. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following (a) Latitudes north of the equator are ,taken as positive (b) Latitudes south of the equator are taken ,as negative (c) Longitude east of Greenwich are taken as negative (d) Longitudes west of Greenwich are taken as positive (e) Both (c) and (d) of the above 14. The length of a paraIlel of A latitude between two meridians is equal to difference in longitudes multiplied by (a) sin

(b) cos

(c) tan

(d) cot

15. Pickup the correct statement from the following. (a) One degree of longitude has greatest value at the equator (b) One degree of longitude has greatest value at the pole (c) One degree of longitude has the same value every where (d) One degree of latitude decreases from the equator to the poles (e) One degree cf latitude has greatest value at the poles 16.Pick up the correct statement from the following. (a) one degree of longitude has greatest yalue at the equator (b) One degree of longitude has greatest valueat the equator (c) One degree of longitude is about 111 km at equator (d) One degree of latitude is about 111 km everywhere. (e) all the above 17. A nautical mile is (a) one minute arc of the great circle joining two points (b) one minute arc of the longitude Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


(c) 6080 ft

(d) 1855.109 m

(e) all the above.

18. The longitudes of two places at latitude 60° N are 93° E and 97° W. Their departure is (a) 5100 nautical

(b) 5700 nautical miles

(d) 500 nautical miles

(e) none of these

( c) 120 nautical miles

19. Pick up tile correct statement from the following. The difference between the longitude of the places is obtained, . (a) by subtracting their longitudes if places are in the same hemisphere i. (b) by adding their longitudes if places are in the different hemispheres (c) by subtracting thesum' of their longitudes exceeding 180 from 360 if the places are in different hemisphere. (d) all the above .

20. The shortest distance between two places measured along the surface of the earth, is (a) length of the equator between their longitudes (b) length of the parallel between their longitudes (c) length of the arc of the great circle passing through them (d) none of these 21. Pick up the correct statement from the following. . (a) Centre of the celestial sphere is taken as the position of the observer (b) Centre of the celestial sphere is taken as t.he centre of the earth . . (c) Stars move and maintain their relative positions (d) Celestial bodies though fixed, appear to revolve from .east to west round the celestial pole (e) All the above 22. The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere (a) east of observer (d) south of observer

(b) west of observer

(c) north of observer

(e) above the observer

23. The point on the celestial sphere' verticallly below the observer' s position, is called . (a) zenith

(b) celestial point

(c) nadir

(d) pole

24. The plane at right angle to the zenith-nadir line and passing through the centre-of the earth, is called (a) rational horizon

(b) true horizon (c) celestial horizon (d) all the above

25. The circle in which a plane tangent to the earth' s surface at the point of Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


observation,intersects the celestial sphere, is called (a) visible horizon

(b) sensible horizon

(c)celestial orizon (d) true horizon

(e) none of the above

26. Pick up the correct statement from the following. (a) North end of the polar axis is known as north poly' (b) South end of the polar axis is known as south pole (c) Point where polar axis when produced northward intersects the celestial sphere, is known as north celestial pole (d) Point where polar axis when produced southward intersects. the celestial sphere, is known as south celestial pole (e) all the above 27. The great circle along which the Sun appears to trace on the celestial sphere with earth as centre during the year, is called (a) equator

(b) celestial equator

(c) ecliptic

(d) none of these

28. The angle between, the plane of the equator and the plane of the ecliptic, is known as obliquity of the ecliptic and its value is (a) 22° 30'

(b) 23° 27'

(c) 23° 30'

(d) 24° 0'

29. At the first point of Aeries, the sun moves (a) northward

(b) southward

(c) from south to north of the equator

(d) from north to south of the equator 30. The point at which sun' s declination changes from north to south, is known as (a) first point of Aeries (d) autumnal Equinox

(b) first point of Libra

(c) vernal Equinox

(e) both (b) and (d) of the above

31 The position of the sun when its north declination is maximum is known as (a) vernal equinox (b) Autumnal equinox (c) summer solstice (d) winter solstice 32. Thedeclination and right ascension of the sun are each equal to zero on (a) March 21 (b) June 21 (c) September 21 (d) December 22 33. The declination and right ascension of the sun

becomes 23° 27' N and 909 Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


respectively on (a) March 21 (b) June 21 (c) September 21

(d) December 22

34 The declination and right ascension of the sun becomes 23° 27'S and 270° respectively on (a) March 21

(b)June 21 (c) September 21

(d) December 22

35 The sun' s declination remains north in the period between (a) March 21 to June 21

:

(b) June 21 to September 21 (c) September 21 to December 21 (d) December 21to March 21 (e) both (a) and (b) of above 36. The great circle which passes through the zenith, nadir and the poles is known as (a) meridian. (b) vertical circ1e (c) prime veriical (d) none of these 37 The latitude of the observer' s position, is (a) elevation of the elevated pole (b) declination of the observer' s zenith (c) angular distance along the observer' s meridian between equator and the observer (d) north or south according as the observer is north of equator or south of equator . (e) all the above 38 The altitude of a heavenly body is its angular distance, measured on the vertical circle passing through the body, above (a) equator

(b) horizon

(c) pole

(d) none of these

39. The angular distance of a heavenly body from the equator, measured along its meridian, is called , (a) declination (b) altitude (c) zenith distance

(d) co-latitude

40 The angle between the observer' s meridian and declination circle of a heavenly body, is known as (a) hour angle (b) azimuth

(c) right ascension

(d) declination

41 . Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The angular distance of heavenly Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


bodies on observer' s meridian measured from the pole, is (a) co-declination

(b) co-Iatitude

(c) none of these

42 Right ascension of a heavenly body is its equatorial angular distance measured (a) westward from the rust point of Libra, (b) eastward from the first point of Aeries . (c) westward from the flrst' point of Aeries (d) eastward ,from the rust point of Libra 43. Latitude of the observer' s position is equal to altitude of (a) north pole (b) pole star

(c) celestial pole

(d) all the above

44 The position of a heavenly body on the celestial sphere can be completely specified by (a) its altitude and azimuth (b) its declination and hour angle (c) its declination and right ascension (d) all the the above 45. The most convenient co-ordinate system for specifying the relative positions of heavenly bodies on celestial sphere is (a) altitude and azimuth system. (b) declination and hour angle system. (c) declination and right ascension system (d) declination and altitude system (e) azimuth and declination system 46 Circum Polar stars . (a) rotate round the north pole (b) rotate round the celestial pole (c) remain always above the horizon (d) are seldom seen near the pole star (e) none of these 47. For any star to be a circumpolar star, its (a) declination must be 0" (b) declination must be 90" (c) distance from the pole must be less than the latitude of the observer (d) no angle must be 180 degree

.

48. The altitude of a circumpolar star is maximum (a) at east elongation

(b) at upper culmination Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


(c) at west elongation

(d) at lower culmination.

49 A star may culminate at zenith if its declination is (a)greater than the longitude of the place, (b) less than the latitude of the place (c) equal to the latitude of the place (d) none of these 50 If a star whose declination is 600 N culminates at zenith, its altitude at the lower culmination, is (a) 10° (b) 20°

(c) 30°

(d).40°

(e) 60°



Surveying

29. c

Answers

30. e

1. d 2. b 3. e 4. c 5. a 6. b 7. 8. c 9. e 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. e 14. b 15. a 16. e 17. e 18. b 19. c

31. c 32. a 33. b 34. d 35. d 36. a 37. e 38. b 39. a 40. a 41. a 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. c 48. b 49. 50.c

20. c 21. e 22. d 23. c 24. d 25. b 26. e 27. c 28. b Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


FLUID MECHANICS 1. Define Kinematics 2. Define path line 3. Define streak line 4. Define stream line 5. Define Steady Flow 6. Define Unsteady Flow. 7. Define Uniform Flow 8. Define Non Uniform flow 9. Define Laminar flow 10. Define Turbulent Flow 11. Define Compressible flow 12. Define Incompressible flow 13. Define Rotational flow 14. Define Irrotational flow 15. Define one dimensional flow 16. Define two dimensional flow 17. Define three dimensional flow 18. Define continuity equation 19. Define Velocity Potential Function. 20. Define Laplace equation 21. Define Stream Function. 22. Define Equipotential line. 23. Define Vortex flow. 24. Define fluid. 25. Define Specific Mass. 26. Define Specific Weight 27. Define Specific volume. 28. Define specific gravity. 29. Define model analysis. 30. Define model and prototype. 31. Define viscosity.



32. Define Newtonian fluid 33. Define Non-Newtonian fluid 34. Define Ideal Plastic fluid 35. Define Compressibility. 36. Define Surface Tension 37. Define Control volume. 38. Define Fluid dynamics 39. Define Reynold’s number 40. Define Froude’s number. 41. Define Euler number. 42. Define Weber’s number 43. Define Mach’s number. 44. Define Total pressure 45. Define Mechanical gauges 46. Define Centre of pressure 47. Define the term dimensional analysis 48. Define Buoyancy 49. Define Centre of Buoyancy 50. Define Meta-centre. 51. Define Absolute Pressure 52. Define Gauge Pressure 53. Define Vacuum pressure 54. Define Manometer. 55. Define pressure 56. Define Hydraulic gradient 57. Define Hydrostatic law 58. Define equivalent pipe 59. Define Boundary layer 60. Define Boundary layer thickness 61. Define Total Energy Line. 62. Define Energy thickness 63. What are all the different forces present in a fluid flow. 64. What is Euler’s equation of motion?



65. What is Pitot-tube? 66. What is a Venturimeter? 67. What is Bernoulli’s equation for real fluid. 68. What are the methods of dimensional analysis? 69. What is similitude? 70. What are the types of similitude? 71. What is scale ratio? 72. What are the non dimensional numbers used in model analysis? 73. What are the different laws on which models are designed for dynamic similarity? 74. What is meant by Meta-centric height? 75. What are the classifications of losses? 76. What are the types of fluids? 77. State Bernoulli’s Theorem. 78. State Buckingham’s

Theorem.

79. State Pascal’s law 80. State the momentum equation. 81. State Newton’s law of viscosity 82. Where Euler’s model law is applied? 83. Where do you apply Reynold’s model law? 84. Where do you apply Froude’s model law? 85. Distinguish between real fluids and ideal fluids. 86. How are the repeating variables selected for dimensional analysis? 87. Differentiate Dynamic viscosity and Kinematic Viscosity 88. Discuss the relative merits and demerits of venturimeter with respect to orifice meter. 89. Explain the phenomenon of Capillarity. 90. Explain the different types of hydraulic similarities that must exist between the model and the prototype. 91. Why Buckingham’s

Theorem is considered superior over the Rayleigh’s

methods? 92. How are the repeating variables selected for dimensional analysis? 93. Give examples for repeating variables.



94. Write down the equation for capillary tube rise. 95. What is the equation of state for perfect gas? 96.What is the value of weight density for water? 97. A vessel of 5m3 volume contains oil, which weights 33.5 k N. Determine the specific gravity of the oil 98. What are the magnitudes of the following? (i)

Specific weight of water (ii) Specific weight of mercury

99. What is meant by datum head? 100.What is meant by velocity head?



Fluid Mechanics Answers 1.

Kinematics is defined as that branch of science that deals with motion of particles without considering the forces causing the motion.

2.

Path Line: A Path Line in a fluid flow is a trajectory of a fluid particle. Path lines are history lines of individual fluid particles over a period of time.

3.

Streak Line: A Streak line is the locus of locations, at an instant of time, of all the

fluid particles that have passed through a fixed point. 4.

A Stream line in a fluid flow is a line tangent to which at any point in the direction

of velocity at that point at that instant. 5.

Steady Flow is defined as that type of flow in which the fluid characteristics like

velocity, pressure , density etc. at a point do not change with time. (ðv/ ðt ) x0,y0,z0 =0,

(ðp/ ðt ) x0,y0,z0 =0, (ð / ðt ) x0,y0,z0 =0,

(ð / ðt ) x0,y0,z0 =0, 6.

Unsteady Flow is that type of flow, in which the velocity, pressure or density at a

point changes with respect to time. (ðv/ ðt ) x0,y0,z0 7.

0,

(ðp/ ðt ) x0,y0,z0

0, (ð / ðt ) x0,y0,z0

0,

Uniform Flow is defined as that type of flow in which the velocity at any give time

does not change with respect to space. (ðv/ ðs )t=constant =0 8.

Non Uniform flow is that type of flow in which the velocity at any given time

change with respect to space (ðv/ ðs )t=constant 9.

0

Laminar Flow is defined as that type of flow in which the fluid particles move

along well-defined paths or stream line and all the stream lines are straight and parallel.



10.

Turbulent Flow is that type of flow in which the fluid particles move in a zigzag

way. In this flow, the eddies formation takes place which re responsible for high energy loss. 11.

Compressible flow is a type of flow in which the density of the fluid changes from

point or in other words the density ( ) is not constant for a fluid. 12. Incompressible flow is the type of flow in which the density is constant for a fluid flow. 13.

Rotational flow is a type of flow in which the fluid particles while flowing along

the stream lines also rotate about their own axis. 14.

Irrotational flow is the type of flow in which the fluid particles while flowing along

stream lines do not rotate about their own axis. 15.

One dimensional flow is the type of flow in which the flow parameter such as

velocity is a function of time and one space co-ordinate only. 16.

Two dimensional flow is the type of flow in which the velocity is a function of

time and two rectangular space co-ordinates say x and y. 17.

Three dimensional flow is the type of flow in which the velocity is the function of

time and three mutually perpendicular directions. 18.

The equation based on the principle of conservation of mass is called continuity

equation For compressible flow A1V1=A2V2 For incompressible flow 1,

2

1A1V1= 2A2V2

= Density at inlet and outlet

A1, A2 = Area at inlet and outlet V1, V2 = Velocity at inlet and outlet



19.

It is defined as a scalar function of space and time such that its negative derivate

with respect to any direction gives the fluid velocity in that direction. It is specified by (Phi) u = -ð / ðx ; v = -ð / ðy ; w = -ð / ðz Where u, v, w are the components of velocity in x, y, z direction respectively. 20.

Laplace equation is continuity equation for incompressible fluid in terms of

velocity potential function. ð2 / ðx2 + ð2 / ðy2 + ð2 / ðz2 = 0 21.

It is defined as the scalar function of space and time, such that its partial derivative

with respective to any direction gives the velocity component at right angles to that direction. It is denoted by (psi) and defined only for two-dimensional flow. v = ð / ðx; u = -ð / ðy 22.

A line along which the velocity potential function (

) is constant is called

Equipotential line. 23.

Vortex flow is defined as the flow of a fluid along a curved path or the flow of a

rotating mass of fluid. 24. A fluid is a substance, which deforms continuously when subjected to shear forces, however small the shear force may be. 25.

Specific mass or density or mass density of a fluid is defined, as the ratio of the

mass of a fluid to its volume. Specific mass (density) = Mass of fluid / Volume of fluid. (Kg/m3)

26.

.

Specific weight or weight density of a fluid is the ratio between weight of a fluid

to its volume. = Weight of fluid / Volume of fluid N/m3 27.

Specific volume is the ratio between the volume of a fluid to its mass.



Specific volume = Volume of the fluid / mass of the fluid (m3/kg) Specific volume is the reciprocal of density 28.

Specific gravity is defined as the ratio of the weight density (or density) of a fluid

to the weight density (or density) of a standard fluid. 29.

Model analysis is an experimental method of finding solution of complex flow

problems by studying the models of actual machines. 30.

The model is the small scale replica of the actual structure of machine. The actual

structure or machine is called prototype. 31.

Viscosity is defined as the property of a fluid which offers resistance to the

movement of one layer of fluid over another adjacent layer of the fluid. 32.

A real fluid in which the shear stress is directly proportional to the rate of shear

strain is known as Newtonian fluid. 33.

A real fluid in which the shear stress is not proportional to the rate of shear strain is

known as Non-Newtonian fluid. 34.

A fluid, in which the shear stress is more than the yield value and the shear stress,

is directly proportional to the rate of shear strain( or velocity gradient) is known as ideal plastic fluid.

35.

The compressibility of a liquid may be defined as the variation in its volume, with

the variation of pressure. Compressibility is the reciprocal of the bulk modulus of elasticity. K which is defined as the ratio of compressive stress to volumetric strain Compressibility = 1/K Where K=Increase of Pressure / Volumetric strain



36.

Surface Tension is defined as the tensile force acting on the surface of a liquid in

contact with a gas or on the surface between two immiscible liquids such that the contact surface behaves like a membrane under tension. Its unit is N/m. 37.

Control volume is defined as a fixed region in space upon which attention is

focused to analyse the fluid flow. 38.

Dynamics of fluid flow is the study of fluid motion with the forces causing the

flow. 39.

It is defined as the ratio of inertia force of a flowing fluid and the viscous force of

the fluid. Re = Inertia force/ Viscous force = Fi /Fv 40.

It is defined as the square root of the inertia force of a flowing fluid to the gravity

force. Fe = ( Fi/Fg )½ 41. It is defined as the square root of the inertia force of a flowing fluid to the pressure force. Eu = ( Fi/Fp )½ 42.

It is defined as the square root of the inertial force of a flowing fluid to the surface

tension force.

43.

We = ( Fi/Fs )½

It is defined as the square root of the inertia force of a flowing fluid to the elastic

force. M = ( Fi/Fe )½ 44.

Total pressure is defined as the force exerted by the static fluid on the surface

either plane or curved when the fluid comes in contact with the surfaces 45.

Mechanical gauges are defined as the devices used for measuring the pressure by balancing the fluid column by the spring or dead weight.



46.

Centre of pressure is defined as the point of application of the total pressure on the surface.

47.

Dimensional analysis is a method of dimension. It is a mathematical technique

used to simplify the analysis in research work for design and for conducting model tests. It deals with the dimensions of the physical quantities involved in the phenomenon. 48.

When a body is immersed in a fluid, an upward force is exerted by the fluid on the

body. This upward force is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body and is called the force of Buoyancy or simply Buoyancy. 49.

It is defined as a point through which the force of Buoyancy is supposed to act. As

the force of Buoyancy is a vertical force and is equal to weight of the fluid displaced by the body, the centre of Buoyancy will be the centre of gravity of the fluid displaced. 50.

It is defined as a point through which the body starts oscillating when the body is

tilted by a small angle. The Meta-centre may also be defined as the point at which the line of action of the force of the force of buoyancy will meet the normal axis of the body when the body is given a small angular displacement 51.

Absolute pressure is defined as the pressure which is measured with reference to

absolute vacuum pressure. 52.

Gauge pressure is defined as the pressure, which is measured with the help of a

pressure measuring instrument in which the atmospheric pressure is taken as a datum. The atmospheric pressure on the scale is marked as zero. 53.

Vacuum pressure is defined as the pressure below the atmospheric pressure.

54.

Manometer is defined as the device used for measuring the pressure at the pont in a

fluid by balancing the column of fluid by the same or another column of fluid. 55.

The pressure at any point is defined as the force per unit area.



56.

It is defined as the line which gives the sum of pressure head and datum head of a

flowing fluid in a pipe with respect to some reference line. 57.

Hydrostatic law states the rate of increase of pressure in a vertical downward

direction must be equal to the specific weight of fluid at the point 58.

It is defined as the pipe of uniform diameter having loss of head and discharge

equal to the loss of head and discharge of a compound pipe consisting of several pipes of different lengths and diameters. 59.

When a body is immersed in a flowing fluid, there is a narrow region of the fluid in

the neighbourhood of the solid body, where the velocity of fluid varies from zero to free stream velocity. This narrow region of fluid is called boundary layer. 60.

It is defined as the distance from the boundary of the solid body measured in the y

direction to the point where the velocity of the fluid is approximately equal to 99 times the free stream velocity of fluid. 61.

It is defined as line which gives the sum of pressure head, datum head and Kinetic

head of a flowing fluid in a pipe with respect to some reference line. 62.

It is defined as the distance measured perpendicular to the boundary of the solid

body, by which the boundary should be displaced to compensate for the reduction in kinetic energy of a flowing fluid on account of boundary layer formation 63.

i) Gravity Force ii) Pressure Force iii) Force due to viscosity iv) Force due to turbulence v) Force due to compressibility

64.

ðp/ + gdz +vdv =0



65.

It is a device used for measuring the velocity of flow at any point in a pipe or a

channel. 66.

A Venturimeter is a device used for measuring the rate of a flow of a fluid flowing

through a pipe. It consists of three parts. a) A short converging part b)Throat and C) Diverging part. 67.

P1/ g +V12/2g +Z1 = P2/ g +V22/2g +Z2 +h1 Where hL is the loss of energy between inlet and outlet

68.

1) Rayleigh’s method and 2) Buckingham’s

69.

theorem

Similitude is defined as the similarity between model and its prototype in every respect, which means that the model and prototype have similar properties or model and prototype are completely similar.

70.

1) Geometric similitude 2) Kinematic similitude 3) Dynamic similitude

71

For Geometric similarity between the model and the prototype Lp/Lm =bp/bm =Dp/Dm =Lr Where L,b,D are the length,breadth and diameter Suffixes p and m are for prototype and model respectively. Lr is called scale ratio.

72.

Reynold’s Number Froude’s number Euler’s number



Weber’s number Mach’s number 73.

1.Reynold’s model law 2.Froude’s model law 3.Euler’s model law 4.Weber’s model law 5.Mach’s model law

74.

The distance between the Meta-centre of a floating body and the centre of a floating body and the centre of gravity of a body is called meta-centric height.

75.

Energy losses are classified into two types Minor energy losses and Major energy

losses. Major energy losses are due to friction and it is calculated by the following formulae (i) Darcy –Weisbach formula (ii) Chezy’s formula Minor losses in a pipe is due to sudden contraction or expansion of a pipe, Bend in a pipe, and an obstruction in a pipe etc 76.

1. Ideal fluid 2. Real fluid 3. Newtonian fluid 4. Non-Newtonian fluid and 5. Ideal plastic fluid

77.

Bernoulli’s equation is applied in all problem of compressible fluid flow where

energy considerations are involved. It is applied in the following measuring devices 1) Venturimeter 2) Orifice meter 3) Pitot – tube



78.

If there are n variables (independent and dependent variables) in a physical phenomenon and if these variables contain m fundamental dimension (M, L, T) then the variables are arranged into (n-m) dimensionless terms. Each term is called term.

79.

It states that the pressure or the intensity of the pressure at a point in a static fluid is

equal in all directions 80. It is stated as the net force acting on a fluid mass is equal to the change in momentum of flow per unit time in that direction. 81. The shear stress on a fluid element layer is directly proportional to the rate of shear strain, the constant of proportionality being called Coefficient of viscosity. = du / dy 82.

Reynold’s model law is applied where viscous forces along are predominant. Reynold’s model law is used in a) pipe flow b) Resistance experienced by sub-marines, air planes, fully immersed bodies.

83.

Froude’s model law is applied where the gravity force is predominant. It is applied in following fluid flow problems 1) Free surface flow such as flow over spillways, weirs, sluices, channels etc. 2) Flow of jet from an orifice or nozzle.

84.

Euler’s model law is applied where the pressure forces are alone

predominant. This is law is applicable to i)

Closed pipe flows in which turbulence is fully developed

Cavitation phenomenon.



85.

Real fluids: A fluid, which possesses viscosity, is known as Real fluid. Ideal fluids: A fluid, which is in compressible and is having no viscosity, is known

as Ideal fluid. 86.

1) As far as possible, the dependent variable should not be selected as repeating

variables. 2) The repeating variables should be chosen in such a way that one variable contains geometric property, other variable contains flow property and third variable contains fluid property. 3) The repeating variables selected should not form a non dimensional group. 4) The repeating variables together must have the same number of fundamental dimensions 3) No two repeating variables should have the same dimension. 87.

The dynamic or absolute viscosity is defined as the ratio of the shear stress on a

fluid layer to the rate of shear strain. = / (du / dy) Where,

–shear force du / dy - Rate of shear strain The ratio of the dynamic viscosity to the fluid density is called as the kinematic

viscosity. kinematic viscosity = 88.

/

Venturimeter

Orifice meter

1. Head loss across it is low

Head loss across it is high

2. Longer

Shorter

3.High cost

Low cost

4. Accuracy-very good

comparatively less but good

5. It is installed in a pipe of small

a pipe of large diameter

diameter 89. Capillarity is defined as a phenomenon of rise or fall of a fluid surface in a small tube relative to the adjacent general level of liquid when the tube is held vertically in the



liquid. Its value depends upon the specific weight of the liquid, diameter of the tube and surface tension of the liquid. 90.

a) Geometric similarity: For this similarity, the ratio of all corresponding linear

dimensions in the model and prototype are equal. b) Kinematic similarity: For this similarity, the ratio of the velocity and acceleration at the corresponding points in the model and prototype are same. c) Dynamic similarity : For this similarity, the ratios of corresponding forces acting at the corresponding points in the model and prototype are same. 91.

The Rayleigh’s method becomes more laborious if the variables are more than the number of fundamental dimension. Buckingham’s --- theorem is used in these cases.

92.

Variables with geometric property i) Length (l)

ii) diameter (d)

iii) height (h), etc

Variables with flow property i) velocity

ii)Acceleration(a)

Variables with fluid property i) Kinematics viscosity 93.

ii )density

In liquids, the cohesive forces predominant, the molecular momentum transfer, due to closely packed molecules and with the increase in temperature, the cohesive forces decrease with the result of decreasing viscosity. But incase of gases the cohesive forces are small and molecular momentum transfer predominates. With the increase in temperature, molecular momentum transfer increases and hence viscosity increases.

94.

h = 4 cos /

d

Where H -height of the liquid - Surface tension of the liquid - Specific weight of the liquid



–Angle of contact between liquid and glass tube 95.

pv=RT or p/

= RT

Where p-Absolute pressure of a gas in N/m2 V-Specific volume (m3/Kg) R-gas constant = 287 J/Kg K for air T-Absolute temperature in K - Density of a gas (Kg/m3) 96.

Weight density (Specific weight) = mass density x g = g =1000 x 9.81 = 9810 N/m3

97.

V=5m3

W=33.5 KN

Specific weight of the oil = Weight / volume = 33.5/5 = 6.7 KN/m3 Specific gravity of oil = 6.7/9.81 = 0.68 98. (i) 9810 N/m3

(ii) 13.6x 9810 N/m3

99. It is the potential energy per unit weight of fluid. 100. It is the kinetic energy for unit weight of fluid.



ENGINEERING GEOLOGY 1.Himalayas rose from primeval sea of a).Atlantic b) Indian ocean c) Tethys d) Caspian 2.The Richter scale is used for measuring the a).Relative humidity of atmosphere b) Intensity of earth’s tremor c).Speed of wind d) Electric conductivity of water 3. What is potamollogy? a)Study of potato shaped polymetallic moduled found on oceanic bed b) Study of modern sediments

c) Study of flow of river

4. The weathering called exfoliation occurs due to the process of a) Running water b) Glaciers c) Fluctuation in temperature d) Prevailing wind 5. The maximum depth of origin in earthquake so far recorded in the range of a) 300 to 400 Kms b) 400 to 500 Kms c) 500 to 600 Kms d) 700 to 800 Kms 6. The lowest point in which a stream can erode its channel is known as a) Base level b) Water level c) Sea level d) Ero level 7. Conrad discontinuity lies between a) Sial and Sima b) U. Mantle and L. Mantle c) Upper and inner core d) Crust and Mantle 8. The average surface of the Earth, which is roughly equal to Sea level is known as a) Sea level b) Geoid c) Isofloor d) Isoheigh 9. When two continental plate collides a).oceanic volcanoes forms b) Island Arc forms c) Great mountain chains forms d) Both (a) and (b) 10. In chevron fold a) Crest is broad and flat

b)Hinges are sharp and angular

c) Axes plunge directly down the dip of axial surface d) Limbs are nearly horizontal having angle less than 5. 11. Impermeable formation which may contain water but incapable to transmit it, is known as a). Aquiclude b). Aquifer

c). Aquifuge

d). Aquitard



12. Imaginary surface which coincides with the hydrostatic pressure level of the water in the aquifer is known as a). Water table b). Phereatic surface c). Free surface d). Piezometric surface 13. Ground water held above an impervious stratum and not connected with main water table is a).Connate water b). Perched water c). Juvenile water d). Leaky aquifer 14. The sedimentary rock without stratification is a). Sandstone b). Limestone c) Tillite

d) Shale

15. A line joining the points where rocks have the same grade of metamorphism is called a). Isogyre b). Isograde c). Isopoch d). Isochore 16. A placer deposit in which the weathered and disintegrated material has shifted down hill is known as a). Alluvial b). Colluvial c). Proluvial d). Deluvial 17. Tunnel constructed for the purpose of water supply is known as a). Aquiclude b). Aquiducts c). Aquifer d). None of the above 18.The slow downward movement of soil caused by gravity is known as a). An Aavalanche b). A landslide c). Hill slide creep d). Physical weathering 19. In a hilly region stability of hill slope depends upon a). Angle of slope b). Ground water condition c). Geological condition d). All of the above 20. Terrestrial photographs are taken by a). Stereo-slope comparator b). Stereometer c). Phototheodolites d). Theophenses 21. In India photo interpretation institute is located at a). Lucknow b). Mumbai c). Newdelhi d). Dehradun 22. Assembly of individual aerial photographs fitted together systematically to form a composite view of an area is known as a). Polygons b). Mosaics c). Pediments d). Promotaries 23. The science of the measurement of ground and elevation on aerial photographs is known as a). Remote Sensngin b). Stereoscopy c). Photogrammetry d). Photogeometry 24. Deposits of weathered matereial found at or near its source are termed as a). Collovial deposits b). Eluvial deposits c). Alluvial deposits d). Residual deposits



25. Orgogenic force are generally found to be responsible for the formation of a). Block mountain b). Fold mountain c). Volcanic mountain d). Plateau 26. Drifting of continental started during a) Carboniferous b). Devonian c). Cambrian d). Triassic 27. When two continental plate colloides a). Oceanic volcanoes forms b). Island Arc forms c). A great mountain chain forms d). Both oceanic volcanoes and Island arc forms 28. Collision of India with Eurasia took place about -------- age. a). 17 million years b). 90 million years c). 50 million years 40 million years 29. Circulation of water through hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere continuously is known as a). Evapo transformation b). Water circulation c). Hydro equilibrium cycle d). Hydrological cycle 30. The orthorhombic system is referred to three crystallographic axes mutually at right angels and having a). Equal parameters b). Unequal parameters c). Different lengths d). None of the above 31. The Miller’s symbol for parameters ½ a : ½ b : C will be a). 201 b). 112 c). 012 d). 221 32.The only element of symmetry is the centre of symmetry in the a). Pinacoidal class b). Scalenohedral class c). Trapezohedral class d) Non of the above 33.The region in the earth at which elastic waves are produced by an earthquake is termed a). Epicenter b). Hypocentre c). Mesocentre d). Syncentre 34. The phenomenon in which an active stream after having cut back a water divide merges with another stream flowing at a relatively high level is called a). Meandering b). River capture c). Rejuvenation d). Diastrophism 35. The radius of the earth is about a). 6000 km b) 6471 km c). 6371 km

d) 12800 km.

36. Zone between Mohorovicic discontinuity and Guternberg discontinuity is a). Core b). Lower Mantle c). Upper Mantle d). Mantle



37.Conard discontinuity lies between a). Sial and Sima b). U.Mantle and L.Mantle c). Uppeer and Inner core d). Crust and Mantle 38. The plates covering both continental and oceans moved in a a). Curved manner b). Straight line c). Circular manner d). None of the above 39. India began to separate from Africa about a). 170 to 190 m. years ago b). 110 to 130 m.yrs ago c). 80 to 100 m. yrs ago d). 120 to 125 m. yrs ago. 40. In which of the following folds, there are two hings a).Fan fold b). Chevron fold c). Kink fold d). None of the above 41 Which of the following forces are responsible for the generation of fault a). Compression b). Tensional c). Gravitational d). Coriolis 42. In soft formations the method most suitable for ground water prospecting is a) Self potential method

b) Resistivity method

c) Inductive method

d) Telluric current method

43. Water saturated unconsolidated sediments shows a) Increase in seismic velocity b) Decrease in seismic velocity c) No effect on velocity

d) Sometimes increases and sometimes decreases

44. The density of sea water is highest as a) Depth increases and salinity increases

b) Depth increases salinity decreases

c) Depth decreases salinity increases

d) Depth decreases salinity decreases

45.The statement “ the flow rate through porous media is proportional to the head loss and inversely proportional to the length of the flow path” stands for a) Poisenille’s law

b) Darcy’s law

c) Dwight’s law

d) Newtonian flow

law 46. Fluorides are added to water in order to a) Increase metabolism

b) Prevent typhoid fever

d) Reduce caries

e) All of the above

c) Improve fertility

47. Which of the soil retains maximum water a) Clayey soil

b) Loamy soil

c) Sandy soil

d) Laterite soil



48. The clay soil is called cold soil , because it a) Dries slowly

b) Dries rapidly

c) Contains fine particles

d) Cakes

readily 49.Himalaya possibly originated some a). 600 m. years ago b). 500 m.years ago c). 400 m. years ago d). 450 m. years ago 50. Optical instruments are made of a) Soft glass b). Hard glass c). Pyrex glass d). Flint glass



Engineering Geology Answers 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. c 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. b

26. a 27. c 28. c 29. d 30. b 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. c 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. b 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. a 50. d



CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT 1. A project is a) Dam across a river with a single purpose of multi-purpose b) Any job that involves many people and excess money c) Work of major intensity involving men and material d) an organized team work aimed at results within the time limit. 2. Technology is a)

Study of techniques

b) Study of machines and their operation c)

Study of behavior of men and machines

d) Study of industrial relations 3. Policy is a) A rule or set up of rules never to be violated b) Principles guiding men c) A definite route along which one has to proceed d) Broad guide lines set by the management.. 4. An event is a) A definite job b) A definite time interval c) The terminals of an activity d) A definite position of an activity 5. An activity requires a)

events

c)

time and resources

b)

resources

d)

energy and vigour

6. Gantt chart is drawn for? a) time versus activity

c) resources versus progress

b) activity versus resources

d) progress versus time



7. What is draw back of Bar chart ? a) it is difficult to judge whether an activity is completed or not b) all the activities represented are independent of each other c) sequence of activities is not clearly defined d) it is not possible to judge whether the activity is ahead or behind the schedule 8. Milestones are? a) bar charts

d) Beginning

b) activities

and

end

of

various activities.

c) activity versus 9. PERT means a) programme evaluation and review techniques b) pertinent programming related to a project c) performance evaluation , rating and timing d) forward, smart, stylish 10. CPM means a) computer programming mode b) critical path method c) controlling planning and maintenance d) crucial project management 11.PERT is a) activity oriented

c) time oriented

b) event oriented

d) resources oriented

12. CPM net work is a) event oriented

c) slack oriented

b) activity oriented

d) resources oriented

13. A dual event? a) is the head event as well as tail event b) consumes no time c) is the beginning of one event and end of another d) is any event other then the first and last events



14. An example for a parallel activity is a) completing ground floor and starting first floor construction b) wall construction and carpentry work of doors and windows c) completion of flooring and initiating white washing d) Digging of a well and construction of septic thank. 15. A dummy activity a) had no tail event but had only a head event b) had only a head event but no tail event c) does not require any resources nor any time d) had no sequence and can be fitted anywhere 16. One of the rules of a net work is a) before an activity begins, all the activities preceding it must be completed b) parallel activities should begin end at the same time c) between two events there should not be more than two activities d) the number of dummy activities in a net work should be a bare minimum 17. Critical path is a) shortest path for the earliest completion of the project b) longest path of the network form the first event to the last event c) ideal path by proceeding along which the project can be completed as per the schedule d) the path which takes into account the completion of all the parallel activities 18. The pessimistic time estimate represents a) the shortest possible time for the job under ideal circumstances b) The max. time required for the completion of the job under normal prevailing circumstances c) the probable usual time taken for the completion of the completion of the activity under the normal prevailing circumstances d) The max. Permissible time required for the job under any set of usual or unusual circumstances.



19. variance is a) Sum of time duration’s for various jobs Number of jobs b) difference between time under consideration and mean time c) mean of squared deviations d) Square root of mean of squared deviations. 20. If for an activity optimistic time is 1 day pessimistic time is 8 days and most likely time is 3 days then the expected time is a) 3.5 Days b) 3.6 Days c) 3.75 Days d) 4 days 21. If the value of variance is more, then a) certainty is more b) probability of certainty is more c) uncertainty is more d) probability distribution curve shall be having symmetric shape 22. Standard deviation when optimistic time is 1 day, pessimistic time is 8 days and most likely time is 3 days is a) 1.167 days b) 2.5 days c) 3.5 days d) 4 days 23. Slack is a) difference of latest allowable time and earliest expected time b) latest allowable time – earliest expected time c) earliest expected time – latest allowable time d) time gained by an activity



24. Negative slack occurs a) when latest allowable time is greater than earliest expected time b) when events stick to their schedule c) when deficiency of resources exist d) never 25. Critical path a) is the shortest path

c) had the maximum slack

b) had “null” slack

d) had the minimum slack

26. If the probability factor is zero then it means that the chances for the completion of the project are a) 0%

c) >0%but<50%

b) 50%

d) 100%

27. Total project cost a) increases with time b) reduces with increase in time c) initially reduces with time and then increases with further d) Initially increases with time and then reduces with further increase. 28. Crashing is a) reduction in duration

c) reduction of cost

b) reduction of resources

d) reduction in project size

29. Resource smoothening means a) gradual increase in resources b) adjustment of resources to have the latest variations c) optimization and economical utilization of resources d) complete revamping of resources to suit the requirement 30. Works costing less than Rs. 20,000 are treated as a) projects

c) minor projects

b) major projects

d) all the above



31. Railway projects are treated as a) light construction b) heavy construction c) industrial construction d) none of these 32. Critical Path moves along the activities having total float a) Positive

c) Zero

b) Negative

d) same

33. Residential buildings are treated as a) light construction

c) industrial construction

b) heavy construction

d) private construction

34. Power stations are generally treated as a) light construction

c) industrial construction

b) heavy construction

d) electrical construction

35. The first stage of a construction, is a) preparation of estimate

d) preparation of tender

b) survey of the site

e) allotment of funds

c) initiation of proposal 36. Pre- tender stage requires a) acquisition of land b) selection of site c) finalisation of alignment of work d) finalisation of designs and preparation of estimate e) all the above 37. The final selection of a construction site, is done by a) department representative or user b) local civil authority representative c) representative of engineer authority d) representative of administration e) all the above



38. Construction team means a) an engineer

d) a contractor

b) an architect

e) all the above

c) an owner 39. For the execution of a project, a contractor is a) a person

c) an agency

b) a firm

d) all the above

40. Modular co-ordination of construction means proper a) planning

c) execution

b) designing

d) all the above

41. Time and

progress chart of a construction is also known as

a) Bar chart b) Gantt chart c) Modified stone chart d) Critical path method chart e) All the above 42. A construction schedule is prepared after collecting a) number of operations b) output of labour c) output of machinery d) quantity of various items e) all the above 43.Military organization is known as a) line organization b) line and staff organization c) functional organization d) non of these



44. The main advantage of line organization is: a) Effective command and control b) Defined responsibilities in the organization c) Rigid discipline in the organization d) All the above 45. The main disadvantage of line organization is: a) Rigid structure b) Extraordinary delay in communications c) Top level executions work d) All the above 46. Frederick W.Taylot introduced a system of working known as a) line organization b) line and staff organization c) functional organization d) effective organization 47. Final technical authority of a project lies with a) Assistant engineer b) Executive engineer c) Superintending engineer d) Chief engineer 48. An executive engineer may have powers upto a) Rs. 25,000 b)Rs. 50,000 c) Rs.100, 000 d) Rs.200, 000 e) Rs.500, 000 49. Henry Gantt developed bar charts for planning and scheduling of project in a) 1880 b) 1900 c) 1920 d) 1940 e) 1950



50. Various activities of a project, are shown on bar chart by a) Vertical line b) Horizontal lines c) Dots d) Crosses



Construction Management Answers 1. d

32. c

2. b

33. a

3. b

34. c

4. d

35. c

5.

36. e

6. a

37. e

7. c

38. e

8. d

39. d

9. a

40. d

10. a

41. e

11. b

42. e

12. b

43. a

13. d

44. d

14. b

45. d

15. c

46. c

16. a

47. d

17. b

48. c

18. b

49. b

19. c

50. b

20. a 21. c 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. d 26. b 27. c 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. b Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


ARCHITECTURE AND TOWN PLANNING 1. Define Architecture? 2. What are the types of architecture? 3. Give examples for trabated architecture 4. Give examples of arcuated architecture 5. What are the basic elements of design? 6. What are the principles of Design? 7. What are factors that determine climate? 8. List various climatic zones? 9. What are the requirements of residential building? 10. What is anthropometry? 11. What is meant by town planning? 12. What are the objects of town planning? 13. Define the term building bye law? 14. What is meant by setback distance? 15. What are the important services to be provided in a building? 16. What is meant by zoning? 17. Define Slum? 18. What is FSI? 19. What is meant by landscaping? 20. Name the factors which affect landscaping? 21. What is meant by the term Rhythm in Architecture? 22. What are the primary Colours? 23.Name the warm and cool colours 24.What are the planning parameters in DCR? 25.What are the categories of residential building?



Architecture And Town Planning Answers 1. Art of organizing space aesthetically and functionally. 2. Traditional and Modern 3. Egyptian and Greek 4. Roman 5. Line, Point, Colour, materials, Light and Shadow and Form 6. Balance, Rhythm, Unity, Emphasis Character, Scale and Proportion 7. Variable factors – rainfall, wind direction and velocity, vegetation etc. Invariable factors – latitude, longitude etc 8. Hot and Dry, Hot and wet, hot and dry alternating with warm and wet, cold and dry and cold and wet. 9. Height, location, orientation, parks, privacy, space, utility services and ventilation. 10. Study about the measurement of human dimensions 11.Used to indicate the arrangement of various components or units of town in such a way that the town as such attains the significance of a living organism 12. Beauty, health, convenience and environment 13. It is local law framed by a subordinate authority. It is defined as the standards and specifications designed to grant minimum safeguards to the workers during construction, to the health and comfort of users and to provide enough safety to the public in general. 14. Frontage margin and open space in front of the road. 15. Plumbing, airconditioning, lifts and escalators, and electricity. 16. It is defined as the regulation of land use or buildings by law. 17. It is an overcrowded poverty stricken area having lack of open spaces and presence of unhealthy residential structures. 18. Floor space index is the ratio of total built up area to the total area of the land 19. It is an art of planning the drives, walkways, lawns, gardens, shrubs, flower beds, trees, etc. so as to form a beautiful setting for a movement or building. 20. Sun, Wind, and Rain 21.The design principle of rhythm is based on the repetition of elements, in space and time 22. Red, blue and green colour are primary colours Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


23. Red and yellow are warm colours ; Blue and green are in cool colours 24. Maximum plot extent, minimum plot frontage, FSI, setback, maximum height etc. 25. Detached, semidetached, row of houses, flat or apartments and skyscrapers



TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING 1.Expand

the term CRRI and indicate where it is located, and briefly Explain.

2.What is meant by master plan? 3. List the four ideal requirements of highway alignment. 4.Briefly explain the various factors controlling the alignment of road 5.Briefly explain the engineering surveys needed for locating a new highway? 6.Define kerbs, shoulders and footpath? 7. What are the important surface characteristics of highway parameter? 8. Define camber , width of carriage way? 9 .Write short notes on (a) Central road fund

(b) Nagpur plan (c) Indian road congress (d)

Jayakar committee 10. Briefly explain the components of design of horizontal alingnment. 11.Briefly explain the sight distance and the factors causing restriction to sight distance 12. Define PIEV theory 13.Briefly explain the stopping sight distance 14.state factors on which the overtaking sight distance depends.Explain briefly. 15.Briefly explain about intermediate sight distance . 16.Discuss the requirements of summit curves 17 .Briefly explain the term gradient and it’s types 18 .Define compensation of gradient on horizontal curves . 19.Differentiate between flexible and rigid pavement? 20.What are the factors affecting the design of pavement stability? 21. Define equivalent single wheel load ? 22. Briefly explain about climatic,sub-grade soil & traffic factors 23 What are the assumptions in multilayered system of flexible pavement. state any four assumptions? 24.What are the methods available for design of flexible pavement. Give briefy description about CBR method. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


25. Briefly explain the basic concepts involving design of rigid pavement ? 26.What are the methods adopted for design of rigid pavement? 27. Briefly give step by step procedure of IRC method. 28.What are the desirable properties of sub grade soil? 29.Enumerate identification and classification of soil?

30.What are the factors, which affect the sub grade, soil strength and explain briefly the test used to evaluate the soil strength? 31.Briefly describe about the CBR test: 32. What are the desirable properties of road aggregates and test to be conducted on the road aggregates? 33. Briefly describe about any three tests for road aggregates.

34. What are the general requirements of bitumen and state its properties? 35. what are the test to be conducted on the bitumen materials 36. briefly describe the constructions procedure for bituminous concrete/asphar concrete surface and cc pavement slab? 37.What are the importance and requirements of high way drainage system?

Importance of

highway drainage 38. How the defects in flexible pavement can be grouped?

39 Briefly describe any three types of distress cause of these defects and indicate the posible type of treatment. 40.Briefly explain distress in rigid pavement. 41.Briefly explain any three types of distress of rigid pavement which may causes, symptom and treatment. 42 How the pave ment can be evolved? 43. Define road roughness?how it important and state the measure of road roughness? 44.Briefly describe about present serviceebility index (PSI) and Its uses ? 45. write short notes on

benkel beam deflection method

46. Briefly describe about overlay or strengthening of pavements.



Transportation Engineering Answers 1. The term CRRI- Central Road research Institute .It is one of the National laboratories of the council of Scientific and Industrial research .The institute mainly engaged in applied research and offers technical advice to state Governments and the industries on various problem concerning roads .In the year 1950 the CRRI was started at New Delhi for research in various aspects of highway Engineering. 2.

Master plan is the final road development plan for the area under study, which may be a

block,taluk ,district, state or the whole country. Based as the above plans, different possible networks of new roads and improvement of some of the existing roads are proposed. In each proposal the population and productivity (industrial & agricultural) of each locality ,the traffic flow, topography,and all other details,both existing & possible changes in future are kept in view. 3.

a) Road project may straight b) Good sight distance c) Alignment must be consistent. Sudden changes from flat to sharp curves and long tangents followed by sharp curves must be avoided. d) Good drainage e) Short route f) Economical 4

a.

Obligatory points: -

These are control points governing the alignment of the highways.the control points may be

-

Points through which the alignment is to pass

-

Points through which the alignment should not pass.



b. Traffic: Origin and destination study should be carried out in the area and the desire lines be drawn showing the trend of traffic flow c. Geometric design: Geometric design factors such as gradient, radius of curve and sight distance also would govern the final alignment of the highway. d. Economy: To calculate the economical point of view, the initial cost, the cost of maintenance and vehicle operation should be taken into account. 5 The engineering surveys may have four stages,the first three stages viz. a. Map study b. Reconnaissance c. Preliminary survey, Consider all possible alternative alignment keeping in view the various requirements and fourth stage is final location and detailed survey is carried out for selected alignment. 6. Kerbs:This indicates the boundary between the pavement and shoulder. Kerbs may be of, i) Low or mountable type kerbs, ii) Semi-barrier type, and iii) Barrier type. Shoulders: Shoulders are provided along the road edge to serve as an emergency lane for vehicle compelled to be taken out of roadway 7. i)FRICTION: The friction between vehicle tyre and parameter surface is one of the factors determining the operating speed and distance requirements in stopping and accelerating the vehicles. ii) UNEVENNESS:



High operating speeds are possible on even pavement surfaces with less undulation then on even and poor surfaces. Hence the pavement surfaces must be maintained with minimum possible unevenness so that the desired speed can be maintained in conformity with other geometric standards. iii) LIGHT REFLECTING CHARACTERISTICS: Night visibility very much depends upon the light reflecting characteristics of pavement surface. The glare caused by the reflection of headlight is considerably high on wet pavement surfaces than on dry pavements. Light colored or white pavement surface give good visibility at nights particularly during rains, and they produce glare and eye strain during brighter sunlight. 8. “Cross slope or camber” is the slope provided to the road surface to the road surface in the transverse direction to drain off the rain water from road surface. Recommended value of camber for different types of roads are, CC and high type bituminous surface, 2% to 1.7% ie., 1in 50 to 1 in 60 High bitumen surface, 2.5% to 2% ie., 1 in 40 to 1in 50. WBM and gravel parameter, 3% to 2.5% ie., 1 in 33 to 1 in 40. Earth roads, 4% to 3% ie., 1 in 25 to 1 in 33. “Carriage way or width of parameter” depends on the width of the traffic lane and number of lanes. The lane width is determined on the basis of the width of the vehicle and the minimum side clearance width may be provided for the safety. The maximum width of vehicle as per IRC specifications is 2.44m

S.NO

CLASS OF ROAD

WIDTH OF CARRIAGE WAY

1

Single lane

3.75m

2

Two lanes, without raised kerbs

7.0m

3

Two lanes, with raised kerbs

7.5m

4

Intermediate carriageway

5.5m

5

Multi-lane pavements

3.5m per lane



9. Central Road Fund : An extra tax should be levied as penal from the road users to develop. A road development fund called Central road fund. This was formed in 1st march 1929. Nagpur plan A conference of the chief engineers of the all states and provinces was invented in 1943 by govt. or India @ nagpur initiative of the IRC to finalize the first road development plan for the country as whole .This plan is called nagpur plan or the 1st 20th year plan. Indian road congress : At the instance of central government a semi official technical body known as I RC was formed in 1934 . The IRC has played important role in the formulation of the three 20 year road development plan in India. Jayakar committee: After the first world war a resolution was passed by chambers of the Indian legislature in 1927 for the appointment of a committee to examine and report on the question of road development in India. In the response to the resolution, the government with M.R.Jayakar appointed Indian road development committee a chairman in 1927. The following recommendation of Jayakar Committee: The road development in the country should be considered as a national interest at this has beyond the capacity of provincial government and local bodies. 10. a)design speed :the overall design of geometric of any highway is a function of the design speed . the design speed is the main factor on which geometric design element depends .the design speed of roads depends on -

class of the road and terrain Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


the recommended design speeds for different classes of urban roads are •

for arterial roads 80 km/hr

•

Sub arterial roads 60 km/hr

•

collector streets 50 km/hr

•

local streets 30 km/hr

b)Horizontal curves:A horizontal curve is a curve in plan to provide change in direction to the central line of a road . When a vehicle travels a horizontal curve ,the centrifugal force acts horizontally outwards through the centre of gravity of the vehicle. 11. Sight distance available from a point is the actual distance along the road surface which a driver from a specified height above the carriage way has visibility of stationary or moving objects. In other words ,sight distance is the length of the road visible ahead to the driver at any instance . Restriction to sight distance may be caused at horizontal curves ,by objects obstructing vision at the inner side road or at vertical summit curves or at inner sections . The standards for sight distance should satisfy the following conditions :a).Driver travelling at the design speed has sufficient sight distance or length of road visible ahead to stop the vehicle ,incase of any obtructions on the road ahead ,without collisions b).Driver travelling at the design speed should be able to satisfy the safety overtake, at reasonable intervals ,the slower vehicle without causing obstruction or hazard to traffic of opposite direction . c).Driver entering an uncontrolled intersections has sufficient visibilty to enable him to take control of his vehicle and to avoid collision with another vehicle . The sight distance may be intermediate sight distance and headlight sight distance . 12. According to this theory total reaction time of the driver is split in to four parts VIZ. Time taken by the driver for



a). Perception time: It is the time required for the sensation recived by the eyes or ears to be transmitted to the brain through the nervous system and spinal chord . b).Intellection: It is the time required for understanding the situation. It is also the time required for comparing the different thoughts ,regrouping and registering new sensation . c) .Emotion time : It is the time elapsed during emotional sensation and disturbances such as fear ,anger or any other emotional fealings such as superstition etc with reference to the situation .

d):Volition: It is the time taken for final action . I

E

P-perception I-intellection E-emotion V-volition P

V Reflex action

13. The mininum sight distance available on a highway at any stop should be of sufficient length to stop a vehicle travelling at design speed ,safety without collision with any other obstruction.The absolute miminum sight distance is therefore equal to the stopping sight distance which is also some times called non passing sight distance. The factors contolling the stopping sight distance are Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


•

total reaction time of a driver

•

speed of vehicle

•

efficency of brakes

•

frictional resistance between the road and the tyres

•

gradient of the road

14. The minimum distance open to the vision of the driver of a vahicle intending to overtake slow vehicle ahaed with safety against the traffic of opposite direction is known as the minimum overtaking sight distance (OSD) or the safety passing sight distance . Factors on which the minimum overtaking sight distance required for the safe overtaking manovering depends , a). speeds of

- Overtaking vehicle - Overtaken vehicles - the vehicle coming from opposite correction .

b). distance between the overtaking and overtaken vehicles c). still and reaction time of the driver . d).rate of acceleration of overtaking vehicle e).gradient of the road. 15.

Sufficient overtaking sight should be available on most of the road stretches.On

horizontal curves theovertaking sight distance requirements can not always be fulfilled espacially as sharp curves ,if the safe overtaking should sight distance requirements are high .In such cases overtaking should be prohibited by regulatory signs. 16. Summit curves with convexity upwards are formed in any one of the vertical gradient

Length of summit curves generally adopted The equation is given by y=ax^2 . Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


With value a= N/2L While designing the length of the parabolic summit curve ,it is necessary to consider the stopping sight distance and overtaking sight distance seperately Length of summit curve for SSD When length of summit curves >SSD L=NS2 /√(2H+(√2h)^2) L= NS2 /4.4 When L
L =2s-4.4/N

Length of summit curve for safe overtaking sight distance or intermediate sight distance . When L>S

L = NS2 / 8H

When L< S

L = 2S –8H/N

Maximum length of vertical curves

Design speed KMPH

Minimum length of vertical curve m

35

15

40

20

50

30

65

40

80

50

100

60

17. Gradient is the rate of rise or fall along the length of the road with respect to the horizontal. It is expressed as a ratio of 1 in x . Sometimes the gradient is expressed in terms of percentage. Gradient are divided in to following catogories . •

Ruling gradient

•

Limiting gradient

•

Exceptional gradient

•

Minimum gradient



As per IRC recommendation 1 in 30 for plain and rolling terrain 1 in 20 mountaneous 1 in 16.7 for steep terrian 18. At horizontal curves, due to the turning angle α of vehicle ,the curve resistance developed is equal to T(1-cosα) .when there is horizontal curves in addition to the gradient ,this will be increased resistance to friction due to both gradient and curve. It is necessary that in such cases the total resistance due to grade and curve should not normally exceed the resistance due to the maximum value of the gradient specified .The reduction

in gradient at the

horizontal curve is called grade compensation which is intended to offset the extra tractive effort involved at the curve . Grade compensation % = (30+R)/R

Subjected to maximum value of 75/R

Where R= radius of circular curve. 19. Flexible Pavement: •

The load of any magnitude may be dissipated by carrying it deep into the ground through successive layers of granular materials.

•

Strength of sub grade primarily influences the thickness design of the flexible pavement.

•

Strength of each layer can be reduced with increased depth with the highest quality materials at or near surface.

Rigid Pavement: •

Sufficient strength in a structure slab composed of Portland cement concrete to resist the destructive action of traffic.

•

The rigid pavement possess high rigidity & high modulus of elasticity, which tends to distribute the load over a relatively wide area of soil.

20. •

Vehicle and traffic factors:



These are represented by the vehicle type, volume and character of the traffic & mode of operations of the vehicle, which will use the proposed road. •

Moisture factor: These represent factors resulting from changes in moisture content of the sub grade from

any condition of precipitation, capillarity & irrigation etc. •

Climatic factors: These represent factors resulting by extremes of temperature with resultant frost

penetration & reaction. •

Soil factors: These represent the condition of the natural foundation soil in cuts, or under swallow

embankments or the soil, which is used to construct the embankment immediately underlying the sub grade surfaces. They deals with the measurement of sub grade supporting power. •

Stress distribution factors: These represent function of pavement & base in transmitting load to the sub grade.

21

ESWL is defined as the load on a single tyre that will cause an equal magnitude of a

preselected parameter( ie, stress,strain,deflection or distress) at a given location within a specific pavement system to that resulting from a multiple wheel load or tandem axle at the same location. 22 a) Climatic factors:

This factor affect the performance of pavement which includes

temperature differential & frost action, both frost heave & loss of sub-grade support during the thaw period. The term frost heave refers to rise of a portion of the road as a direct result of the formation of ice crystal in a frost susceptible sub-grade or base course. Frost heave to occure, for the soil which possess, = a frost susceptible soil. = slow temperature decreases below the freezing point. = free supply of water. For WBM road, mixking of or placing of layer of silt & clay on top of base course should be completely avoided. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


b) Soil factors:The strength of different types of soil has a tendency to decrease with decrease in particle size. For any one soil, strength usually increases with increasing density & decreasing moisture content. The permeability of soil determines the degree of drainage attained during a test on a saturated soil. Regarding structure of soil, the strength of clay remoulded at natural moisture content may be considerably less than strength of undisturbed soil which is due to destruction during the moulding of the natural structure formed by soil particles.The loss of strength depends on degree of sensitivity of clay. c) Traffic factors: Traffic intensity is a growing phenomenon, heaviest intensity will occur at the end of the design life of pavement.It is essential to predict traffic growth. However it is generally considered adequate if the traffic is projected to a period of 20 years after construction. T= p(1+r)n+20 T = design traffic intensity in terms of number of commercial vehicles. ( ladden weight > 3 tonne per day) p = traffic intensity at last traffic count. r = arrival rate of increase of traffic intensity n = number of years since last traffic count & commissioning of the new pavement. Traffic classification

Design traffic intensity

A

0-15

B

15-45

C

45-150

D

150-450

E

450-1500

F

1500-4500

G

Above 4500

23a) The properties of the materials of each layer are homogenous. b) Each layer, except the bottom layer has a finite thickness. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


c) Each layer is isotrophic,is the properity at every point is the same in all directions. d) Full friction is developed between layers at each interface. e) Surface shearing forces are not present at the surface. f) The stress solution are characterised by two materials properties are -Poisson' s ratio & -Modulus of elasticity E. 24

a) Group Index method. b) Federal aviation apency method. c) California Bearing Ratio test method. d) Wyoming CBR method. e) North Dokote curve method. f) Haveem stabilometer method. g) Plate bearing test method. h) AASHO method. i) The Asphalt Institute method. j) Kanson triaxial method.

CBR method: It is the most popular method. In this CBR design curves evolved by the Road Research Laboratory U.K. which owing to their simplicity & experience with their use have been found reasonbly well suited for Indian conditions are recommended for design. Traffic (Heavy vehicles/ day of ladden wt >3 ton)

CBR design curves

0-15

A

15-45

B

45-150

C

150-450

D

450-1500

E

1500-4500

F

>4500

G



25 Rigid pavements are designed primarily on the bases of their resistance to bending. Road slabs generally fails in direct tension. Strength of concrete for design of rigid pavements is usually measured as modulus of rupture which is the maximum tensile bending stress at the instance of failure. MR=M/Z M= bending moment. Z=section modulus. Modulus of rupture is influenced by many variables, such as quality of aggregate, surface characteristics of aggregates, curing of concrete, strength of cement, handling of specimens, moisture conditions of specimen at the time of testing & temperature of specimen. 26 a) Portland cement Association b) U.S. Corps of engineers. c) U.S. Navy method. d) Federal aviation agency method. 27

The IRC (IRC 58-1984) has recommended the following procedure.

STEP-1: Stipulate design value for the various parameter viz. Poisson' s ratio,Young' s modulus E, stresses at different locations. STEP-2: Decide the joint spacing and lane width. Slab thickness

max contraction

Unreinforced

joint spacing (m)

weight of reinforcement in welded fabric(kg/cm2)

slab 10

4.5

-

15

4.5

-

20

4.5

-

10

7.5

2.2

15

13.0

2.7

20

14

2.8

Reinforced Slab



STEP-3: Take tentative thickness STEP-4 Ascertain maximum temperature stresses for critical edge region from 3 conditions viz. -Central loading -Corner loading -Edge loading STEP-5: Calculate the residual available strength of concrete for supporting traffic loads. STEP-6: Calculate factor of safety for edge load stress. Se = 0.529(p/h2)(1+.54µ)(4 log10(l/b)+log10 b-0.4048) L = radius of relative stiffness. = √ (Eh3/12(1-µ2)k) µ = Poisson' s ratio. b = radius of equivalent distribution of pressure. a for a/h > 1.724 & √ (1.6 a^2+ h2) - 0.675h for a/h<=1.724 STEP-7 In case of available FOS is less than or fair in excess of one, adjust the tentative slab thickness & repeat step 3 to 6 till the FOS is one or slightly more. Take thickness of slab hs. STEP-8 Check for adequacy of thickness in the corner region by ascertaining corner load stress & readjust the thickness hs if inadequate. SC= 3p/h2(1-(a1/l)1.2)- Kelly STEP-9: Adjust hs for traffic intensity, the adjusted design thickness h may be obtained from h= hs+ht.



28. •

Stability

•

Incompressibility

•

Permanency of strength

•

Minimum changes in volume and stability under adverse condition of weather and ground water.

•

Good drainage.

•

Ease of compaction.

29.The soil properties on which their identification and classifications are based are known as Index properties. The index properties usually used are grain size distribution, liquid limit and plasticity index. Also other properties like shrinkage limit, moisture content and compacted dry density. Grain size analysis:- The coarse grained soil can be determined by sieve analysis and fines can be determined by sedimentation analysis. Consistency limits and Indices:- The physical properties of fine grained soils, especially of clays differ very much at different water contents. Clay may be almost in a liquid state or it may show plastic behavior or may be stiff depending on the moisture content. The Atterberg proposed a series of tests, most empirical, for the determination of the consistency and plastic properties of fine-grained soils. These limits are liquid limit, plastic limit and shrinkage limit. The soil classification systems in use in the field of highway engineering are Burmister descriptive classification Casagarande soil classification Unified soil classification of revised Casagarande soil classification and IS soil classification system. US Public Road Administrative Classification (PRA) Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


Highway Research Board (HRB) or American Association of state Highway Official (AASHO)Classification or Revised PRA Classification. Federal Aviation Agency (FAA) Civil Aeronautic Administration Classification (CAA) Compaction Classification 30. Factor affecting the sub grade soil strength are a) Soil type b) Moisture content c) Dry density d) Internal structure of soil e) Type & mode of stress application Tests used to evaluate the strength properties of soil a) Shear test b) Bearing test c) Penetration test Shear test are usually carried out as relatively small soil samples in the laboratory.

Common types of shear test are a) Direct shear test b) Tri axial compression test c) Unconfined compression test d) Vane shear test Bearing test are loading test carried our on sub grade insitu with a load bearing area. Penetration test: It may be considered as small scale bearing tests in which the size of the loaded area is relatively much smaller and ratio of the penetrating to size of the loaded area is much greater than the ratio in bearing tests. The penetration tests are carried out in the field or in the laboratory. The Califormic ratio test and cone penetration tests are commonly known as penetration tests.



31. The CBR test may be considered in the laboratory as a prepared specimen in a mould or inside in the field. The lab CBR apparatus consists of a mould 150mm dia. In a base plate and a collar, a loading frame in the cylindrical plunger of 50mm dia. And gauges for measuring the expansion on soaking and the penetration values. The test consists of causing cylindrical plunger of 50mm dia. To penetrate a pavement material at 1.25mm/min. The load values to cause 2.5 mm and 5.0mm penetration are recorded. These loads are expressed as percentages of standard load values at respective deformation levels to obtain CBR. The standard load values obtained from the average of large numbers of tests as crushed stones are 1370kg and 2055 kg(70 & 105 kg/cm2) respectively at 2.5 mm and 5.0 penetration . Test load (or pressure) sustained by Specimen at 2.5 or 5mm Penetration CBR

=

* 100 Standard load (or pressure) sustained by aggregate at the corresponding penetration

32. Desirable properties of road aggregates are a)Hardness: They should be hard enough to resist the wear due to abrasive action of traffic. Abrasive action may be increased due to the presence the abrasive materials like sand between the tyres of moving vehicles and the aggregates expose at the top surface.

The

natural rubbing of stones is called attrition, which also make a little wear in the aggregates, however attrition will be negligible or absent in most of the pavement layers. b) Toughness: Aggregates in the pavement are also subjected to impact due to moving wheel load. The magnitude of the impact would increase with the roughness of the road surface, speed of the vehicle and other vehicular characteristics. c)Durability: The stone used in pavement construction should be durable and should resist disintegration due the action of weather. The property of the stones to withstand the adverse action of weather may be called as soundness.



d)Shape of Aggregates: The size of the aggregates is first qualified by the size of sieve opening through which an aggregate may pass, and not by the shape. Aggregates, which happen to fall in a particular size range, may have rounded, cubical, angular, flaky or elongated shape of particles. It is evident that the flaky or elongated particles will have less strength and durability when compared to cubical, angular or rounded particles of the same stone. Hence too flaky and too much elongated aggregate should be avoided as far as possible. e)Adhesion with bitumen: The aggregates used in bituminous pavements should have less affinity with water when compared with bituminous materials, otherwise the bituminous coating on the aggregates will be stripped of in presence of water. Tests for road aggregates: a) Crushing test b) Abrasion test c) Impact test d) Soundness test e) Shape test f) Specific gravity and water absorption test g) Bitumen adhesive test 33 1) Aggregate crushing test: The aggregate crushing value provides a relative measure of resistance to crushing under gradually applied compressive load. To achieve a high quality of pavement aggregates possessing high resistance to crushing or low aggregate crushing value are preferred. Aggregate crushing value = (100w2)/w1 % Where, W2= weight of the crushed material passing through 2.36mm IS sieve (after crushing). W1= weight of sample taken. For good aggregate used in base course = less than 45% Surface course = less than 30% Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


2) Abrasion tests: Abrasion tests are carried out to test the hardness of property of a stone and to decide whether they are suitable for the road construction works. The abrasion test on aggregate may be carried out using any one of the following tests. a) Los Angles abrasion test b) Deval abrasion test c) Dorry abrasion test The result of the abrasion test expressed as the percentage wear or the percentage passing 1.7mm sieve expressed in terms of original weight of sample. 3) Impact tests: A test designed to evaluate the toughness of stone or their resistance of the aggregate to fracture under repeated impacts is called impact test. The aggregate impact value is expressed as the percentage of the fine formed by sieving through 2.36mm sieve, in terms of total weight of the sample. 34 a) ease to mixing b) attainment of desired stability of the mix. c) to maintain the stability under adverse weather condition. d) to maintain sufficient flexibility and thus avoid cracking bituminous surface. e) to have sufficient adhesion with the aggregates in the mix in presence of water. Desirable properties a. the viscosity of the bitumen at the time of mixing &compaction should be adequate .this is achieved by heating the bitumen &aggregate prior to mixing or by use of cut back or emulsion of suitable grade . b. the bituminous material should not be highly temperature susceptible . during the hottest weather of the region the bituminous mix should not become to soft or unstable. During cold weather the mix should not become too hot and brittle causing cracking of surface. c. I presence of water the bitumen should not strip off from the aggregate



35 a) penetration test b) ductility test c) viscosity test d) float test e) specific gravity test f) softening point test g) flash and free point test h) solubility test i) spot test j) loss or heating test k) water content test

36 Steps for the bituminous concrete i. preparation of the existing base course layer ii. application of tack coat iii. preparation and placing of premix iv. rolling v. quality control of bituminous concrete construction vi. finished surface Steps for cement concrete pavement slab a) preparation of subgrade and subbase b) placing of forms c) batching of materials and mixing d) transporting and placing of concrete e) compaction of finishing f) curing of cement concrete 37



a)

Excess moisture in soil subgrade cause considerable lowering of its stability. The pavement is likely to fail due to sub grade failure. b) Increase in moisture cause reduction in strength of many pavement materials like stabilized soil and water bond macadam . c) In some clayey soil variation in moisture content causes considerable variation in volume of sub grade. This some times contributes to pavement failure. d) One of the most important causes of pavement failure by the formation of waves and corrugation in flexible pavement is due to poor drainage. e) The prime cause of failure in rigid pavement by mud pumping is due to presence of water in fine sub grade soil. f) Excess water on shoulders and pavement edge causes considerable damage. g) Erosion of soil from top of unsurfaced roads and slopes of embankment, cut and hill side is also due to surface water. Requirements of highway drainage. a) The surface water from carriage way and shoulder should efficiently be drained off without allowing it to percolate to subgrade. b) The surface water from the adjoining land should be prevented from entering the road way. c) The side drain should have sufficient capacity and longitudinal slope to carry away all the surface water collected. d) Flow of surface water across the road and shoulders and along the slopes should not cause formation of cross ruts erosion. e) Seepage and other sources under ground water should be drained off by the subsurface drainage system. f) Highest level of ground water table should be kept well bellow the level of subgrade, preferably by at least 1.2m. g) In water logged areas special precautions should be taken especially if detrimental salts are present or if flooding is likely to occur.

38. The types of defects in flexible pavement can be grouped under four distinct categories Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


•

surface defects: It includes fatty surface, smooth surface, streaking and hungry surface

•

Cracks:Under which hair-line cracks, alligator cracks,longituidinal cracks, edge cracks ,shrinkage cracks, reflection cracks are dealt with.

•

Deformation: It includes slippage, rutting corrugation, shoving, shallow depression, settlements and upheavals.

•

Disintegration: Covering stripping, loss of aggregate reveling, pot holes and edge breaking.

39 Types of distress : Fatty surfaces :Symptoms : collection of binders as a film on the surface. This become soft in hot weather and may be picked up and spread by traffic. Causes : - Exessive binder in a premix surfacing over filling the voids. -

Loss of cover aggregate in surface dressing.

-

Poor quality of aggregate leading to their fracture, breakdown and eventual loss.

Treatment : An open graded premix surfacing with a low bitumen content can absorb the exess binder. If large areas of fatty surfaces having irregularities removal of the affected layer in the area and replacing it with a layer having properly designed mix may be necessary. a)Smooth surface:Symptoms: Slippery when wet and has vey low skid resistance value. Such a condition is hazardous especially an gradients,bends and intersections. Causes: -Polishing of aggregates under traffic -Excessive binders . Treatments:Resurfacing with a surface dressing course are a premix carpet.Selecting hard and angular aggregates. Carpet can be open graded mix. Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


b)Hungry surfaces:Symptoms: -Loss of aggregates from the surface. -Appearance of fine cracks. Causes: -Use of less bituminous in the surfacing. -Use of Absorptive aggregate in the surfacing. Treatment: -Apply slurry seal in thickness of 2 to 5mm -As an emergency repair, a for seal may be used. 40. Failure noticeable on rigid pavement may be due to two basic causes a) Due to over load or fatique b) Due to deterioration or deficiency of pavement itself. Rigid pavement will crack if stresses in the slab exceed the modulus of rupture these may take the form of corner breaks, longitudinal cracks or transverse cracks, such cracks usually developed closed to a joint. Distress can also result from warping and curling, stress due to contraction and expansion of concrete and from inproper dowel alignment. If cracking in rigid pavement is not progressive and if it merely provides relief from high restrain stress, cracking may not be determinantal. Transverse cracks are determintal only when load transfer through grain interlock is lost. 41. Distress:- a) Edge failure Symptoms: Semicircular hair line cracks closely spaced and typically increasing from the joints and pavement edges.This is a progressive distress until nearly complete distoration may result. Causes:

Low durability of concrete due to use of non durable materials and climatic

condition.



Treatment: -

Provide adiquate drainage of the pavements.

-

Maintanance of joints.

Distress:-

b)Continuous cracks

Symptoms: Wide cracks, Generally 6.3 to 12.5mm wide Causes: - Long length of slab - Transver cracks from warping - Exessive contraction of the slab - Non-existance of temprature steel Treatment: -

seal the crack immediately to prevent infiltration of water and other forign materials.

-

Provide temprature steel at the joints.

Distress:-

c)Scalling

Symptoms: -

General detorioration of concrete

Causes: -

Use of mixes which are too wet

-

Use of dirty aggregates which causes silt and clay to flow to the surface during the finishing process.

-

Use of salt for ice control.

-

Over finishing at the edges.

-

Abration action of traffic.

Treatment: - Provide skid resistance sand-seal coat. 42The evoluation is needed to check the quality of new construction. To evolve the existing pavement two types of surveys are conducted , namely 1. condition surveys 2. Evaluation surveys Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


Condtion surveys : These surveys are made to determine the condition of the pavement at any given time. If does not evoluate the structural strength of pavement and also no attempt is made to find out the reason for the pavement condition. Thus it is only qualitative in nature and subjective rating by individual is made. These surveys are used for maintanance programmes . However it does not indicate the type of maintanance to be carried out. Evolution surveys are carried out to determine the structural adequacy of a pavement and to find out the reason for the condition of the pavement. Condition survey normally form an integral part of evolution surveys , but they consider many other factors like pavement type, pavement thickness ,quality of paving materials ,traffic etc. 43.Road roughness can be classified as -

longitudinal roughness

-

transverse roughness

Measurement of road roughness is imporant for following aspects - To determine whether pavement in acceptabily smooth to carry the intended traffic. - As a correlation factor ,which indicates the failure of one or more layers with in the pavement structure. 44. PSI which correlates users opinions with measures of road roughness, cracking, patching and ruffing. A group of individuals drive over the pavement and rate the pavement on a scale. The raters mark on the scale, which varies from 0 to 5. A rating of “0” indicates an exceedingly poorly pavement and a rating of “5” a perfect smooth pavement. The raters are also asked to give their opinion about the objective features of the pavaement that influenced their rating and to indicate whether the road is acceptable for the intended traffic or not. The average of the rating numbers is designated as present serviceability rating(PSR). Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


PSR was correlated in the AASHO road test with measurements of roughness,patching and cracking. The regression analysis equations took the general form as PSI = A0 +A1 (R) + A2 (F1) + A3 (F2) A= Regressive analysis constants R =Measure of roughness F= physical measurements of patching, cracking etc. The PSI only indicates the condition of the pavement at an instant of time ,without being influenced by factors such as pavement width, shoulders,width&condition,grade,alignment,structural,adequacy, traffic& climate. A serviceability rating of 2.5 is considered an acceptable pavement for the primary system and a rating of 2.0 for the secondary system. USES OF PSI: - It permits rating of pavements are common basis. - It permits making priority and maintainence programmes in a logical manner. - It helps to establish relationship between objective pavement measurements & subjective rating of the road users. - It permits obtaining measurements at various times &the establishment of parameter that defines pavement condition in design equations. - It permits to estimate the life trends of an in service pavements. - Histories of pavement performance can be related to changes in servicability with time.

45. The deflection method is based on the concept that pavement section which have been conditioned by traffic,deform elastically under load.The deformation or elastic deflection under a given depends upon sub-grade soil type,its moisture content & compaction, thickness



& quality of pavement course,drainage conditions, pavement surface temperatures etc. pavement deflection is measured by the benkelman beam which consist of slender beam 3.66 m long piovted at a distance of 2.44 m from its tip. By suitably placing the probe between the oval wheels of the loaded truck,it is possible to measure the rebound and residual deflection of the pavement structure.while the rebound deflection in the one related pavement performances,the

residual

deflection

may

be

due

to

non

recoverable deflection of the pavement of the influence of the deflection bowl on the front legs of the beam.Rebound deflection is used for overlay design.

46The overlay are - Flexible overlay over flexible pavement - Flexible overlay over composite pavement - Flexible overlay over rigid pavement - Rigid overlay over flexible pavement - Rigid overlay over composite pavement - Rigid overlay over rigid pavement

Design methods for overlay - Flexible overlay over flexible pavement - Benkelman beam method - California method - Asphalt institute method



ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

1.Which one of the following practices, causes reduction in the per capita water consumption? (a) good quality water

(b) hotter climate

(c) modern living

(d) metering system.

2. The multiplying _actor, as applied to obtain the peak hourly demand, in relation to the maximum daily demand (per hour of course) is : (a) 1.5

(b) 1.8

(c) 2.0

(d) 2.7.

3. If the average daily water consumption of a city is 24000 cum, the peak hourly demand (of the maximum day of course) willbe : (a) 1000 cu m/hr (c) 1800 cu m/hr

(b) 1500 cu m/hr (d) 2700 cu m/hr:

4. The total water requirement of a city is generally assessed on the basis of: (a) maximum hourly demand (b) maximum daily demand + fire demand (c) average daily deman_ + fire demand (d) greater of (a) and (b). 5. The water treatment units may ' be designed, including 100% reserves, for water demand equal to : (a) average daily

(b) twice of (a)

_(c) maximum daily

(d) twice of (c).

6. Coincident draft in relation to water demand, is based on : (a) peak hourly demand

(b},maximum daily demand

(c) maximum daily + fire demand

(d) greater of (a) and (c).

7. The distribution system in water supplies, is designed on the basis of: (a) average daily demand (b) peak hourly demand (c) coincident draft

(d) greater of (b) and (c).



8. The suitable method for forecastingpopulation-for a young and a rapidly developing city is (a) arithmetic mean method (b) geometric mean method (c) comparative graphical method' (d) none of these. 9. The suitable method for forecasting population for an old developed large city, is : (a) arithmetic mean method (b) geometric mean method (c) comparative graphical method (d) none of these. 10. The average domestic water consumption per capita per day for an Indian city, as per IS 1172-1963, may be taken as : (a)135 I/c/d, (c) 240 I/c/d

(b) 210 I/c/d (d) 270 I/e/d.

11. Which source of water,among the following, is not a surface source? a. river b. well c. lake d. ocean 12 The earth' s water circulatory system is known. as ___________ 13. Most of the ' Weather phenomena take place ,in the.: (a) mesopher

(b) stratosppere

(c.)ionosphere

d) troposphere.

14. The major quantity of raincomes to India ,as (a) convective precipitation

(b) cyclonic precipitation

(c). orographic pr:ecipitation (d)none of,these. 15. Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir indicates ,the: (a) sediment volume' trapped in the reservoir (b) sediment v0lume let out from the reservoir (c) sediment volume trapped inrelation to the sedimentvolume entering the reservoir (d) none of these. 16 Rate of flow from ' a well per unit of drawdown known as its: (a) specific yield . (c) field capacity

.'

' (b) specific capacity" (d) none of these.

17 .An aquifer, sandwiched between_the top and the bottom aquicludes, Will supply water to a well, called as _________________ Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


18. A ranney well, largely used for tapping ground water for public supplies, receives groundwater, from: (a) its bottom (b) its vertical permeable sides (c) . radial horizontal collectors (d) none of these. 19. The most widely used type of a tube well in India is : (a) a cavity well

(c) a strainer well

(c) a dug well

(d) a ranney well.

20. Groundwater is usually free from: (a) suspended impurities (b) dissolved impurities (c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of the above.

21. The normal maximum discharge of a tubewell is of the order of: (a) 5 litres/sec (c) 500 litres/sec

(b)50 litres/sec (d) 5000 litres/sec.

22. The quantity of water available from an infiltration gallery, depends upon the: (a) size of the gallery

(b)efficiency of the drain pipes

(c) yield of the aquifer source (d) all of these. 23. The types of pumps used in tubewellsare : (a) Submergible pumps (c).turbine type pumps

(b) centrifugal pumps (d) all of these

24. The efficiency of the pump used for lifting water from a tube well may be assumed to be (a) 30%

(b) 65%

(c)80%

(d) 90%

25. The devices that are installed for drawing water from different water sources, are called __________



Environmental Engineering Answers 1. d 2. a 3. d 4. d 5. b 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a 11. b 12. hydrological cycle 13. d 14. c 15. c 16. b 17. cartesan well 18. c 19. c 20. a 21. b 22. b 23. d 24. b 25. intakes



BUILDING SCIENCE 1.

In open test pit method of soil investigation f. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 10m g. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 15m h. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 20m i. The samples of soil are collected up to depth of 25m j. The samples are never collected below ground water table

3.

In open test pit method of soil investigation at least one test pit should be excavated for f. 1 sq.m area

i. 15x15m area

g. 10 sq.m area

j. 100x100 m area

h. 10x10m area 3.

In standard penetration test method f. The outer diameter of the tube is 5cm g. The inner diameter of the is 3.5cm h. The length of tube is about 60cm i. The tube is driven into the ground with the help of a 63 kg weight falling through a distance of 175cm j. All the above

4.

Which one of the following will have lowest bearing capacity? f. Hard rock

i. Coarse sand, compact and dry

g. Soft rock

j. Laminated rocks

h. Moist clay 5.

The bearing capacity of hard rock without lamination and defects, for example granite trap and diorite may be expected to be f. 1.0kg/cm2

i. 10-20kg/cm2

g. 2-5kg/cm2

j. 30-35kg/cm2

h. 5-10kg/cm2



6.

The bearing capacity of a soil can not be increased by f. Chemical treatment

i. Moistening the soil

g. Grouting

j. Drawing the moisture of soil.

h. Compacting 7.

In case of group of piles, for uniform distribution of load from walls to piles. f. The piles are connected at the bottom by iron rods g. The piles are connected at the top by wire ropes h. The piles are isolated so that load form one pile is not transferred to another pile i. The piles are connected at the top by a layer of concrete j. The depth of all piles is maintained constant.

8.

The depth of lean concrete bed placed at the bottom of wall footing is kept. f. Equal to half the projection beyond the wall base g. Equal to the projection beyond the wall base h. Equal to double the projection beyond the wall base. i. 15cm j. 25cm

9.

The maximum differential settlement, in case of foundation on sandy soils is generally limited to f. 1 mm

i. 20 mm

g. 5 mm

j. 25mm

h. 10 mm 10.

In case of raft foundations on clayey soils, the maximum total settlement is usually limited to f. 400mm

i. 100mm

g. 200mm

j. 50mm

h. 150mm 11.

A pile driven at an inclination to resist the inclined forces, is known as f. Angular friction pile

i. Sheet pile

g. Angular bearing pile

j. Battered pile

h. Friction and bearing pile Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


12.

Piles are usually not made of f. Timber

i. Reinforced cement concrete

g. Steel

j. Battered pile

h. Stainless steel 13.

14.

For have load, the mix used in case of pre cast concrete pile is g. 1 : 4 : 6

j. 1 : 2 : 4

h. 1 : 3 : 6

k. 1 : 3 : 6

i. 1 : 3 : 4

l. 1 : 1½ : 6

In the case of rectangular foundation (width =B). the maximum permissible eccentricity of load is limited to f. B/12

i. B/4

g. B/8

j. B/3

h. B/6 15.

The black cotton soil f. Has high bearing capacity g. Gives bad appearance to building due to clack colors h. Has negligible permeability i. Undergoes large volumetric change with moisture j. Is considered good soil for foundations.

16.

If a foundation has failed, the probable cause could be f. Unequal settlement of subsoil g. Unequal distribution of weight of the structure h. Horizontal movement of earth adjoining the structure i. Transpiration of trees and shrubs j. Any of the above.

17.

Quick sand e. Is the sand that immediately accepts moisture f. Is the sand that expands when moisture is added g. Condition is created in saturated thick layers of loose fine sand soils when distributed either due to vibrations or pressure of flowing h. Is pure silica and used un glass industry Prepared by Jayachandran.K.K


Building Science Answers 1.

e

2.

d

3.

e

4.

c

5.

e

6.

d

7.

d

8.

b

9.

e

10. d 11. e 12. c 13. e 14. c 15. d 16. e 17. c




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