JAA Test Prep 050 - Meteorology Edition 2008 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 1 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8808 (A) 8814 (B) 8817 (A) 8876 (D) 8889 (C) 10028 (D) 10050 (A) 10055 (A) 10061 (A) 10102 (B) 10753 (D) 10804 (A) 10846 (C) 10851 (A) 10855 (D) 10896 (D) 050-01-01 Composition, extent, vertical division 8808. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause? A) It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions. B) It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions. C) It is highest in middle latitudes. D) There is no significant difference with change of latitude. 8814. (all) The troposphere is the: A) part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere. B) part of the atmosphere below the tropopause. C) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere. D) boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere. 8817. (all) What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called? A) Tropopause B) Ionosphere C) Stratosphere D) Atmosphere 8876. (all) The tropopause is a level at which: A) vertical currents are strongest. B) water vapour content is greatest. C) pressure remains constant. D) temperature ceases to fall with increasing height. 8889. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The tropopause is lower: A) south of the equator than north of it. B) in summer than winter in moderate latitudes. C) over the North Pole than over the equator. D) over the equator than over the South Pole. 10028. (all) Advection is: A) the same as convection. B) vertical motion of air. C) the same as subsidence. D) horizontal motion of air. 10050. (all) What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere? A) 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses. B) 10% oxygen, 89% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses. C) 88% oxygen, 9% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses. D) 50% oxygen, 40% nitrogen, and the rest other gasses. 10055. (all) In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated? A) Troposphere
B) Tropopause C) Stratosphere D) Stratopause 10061. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The thickness of the troposphere varies with: A) latitude. B) longitude. C) rotation of the earth. D) the wind. 10102. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause: A) increases and its temperature increases. B) decreases and its temperature increases. C) increases and its temperature decreases. D) decreases and its temperature decreases. 10753. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from: A) 85 to more than 200 km. B) 0 to 11 km. C) 50 to 85 km. D) 11 to 50 km. 10804. (all) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour? A) Troposphere. B) Lower stratosphere. C) Upper stratosphere. D) Ionosphere. 10846. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about: A) 14 km B) 8 km C) 11 km D) 16 km 10851. (all) The troposphere: A) has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles. B) contains all oxygen of the stratosphere. C) is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere. D) reaches the same height at all latitudes. 10855. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere? A) It remains constant throughout the year. B) It remains constant from north to south. C) It increases from south to north. D) It decreases from south to north. 10896. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator? A) 40 km B) 8 km C) 11 km D) 16 km 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 2
© 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15783 (A) 15790 (B) 15820 (A) 15849 (B) 15850 (B) 16572 (A) 24289 (C) 24425 (D) 24440 (D) 27119 (B) 27159 (C) 27177 (B) 27390 (A) 27396 (A) 15783. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight documentation in the tropics? A) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown. B) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart. C) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not important. D) Tropopause informations are of no value. 15790. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause? A) -25 °C B) -75 °C C) -55 °C D) -35 °C 15820. (all) Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first: A) 5 km B) 3 km C) 8 km D) 11 km 15849. (all) What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a weather standpoint? A) Hydrogen. B) Water vapour. C) Nitrogen. D) Oxygen. 15850. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of: A) 16 km and -40 °C over the poles. B) 16 km and -75 °C over the equator. C) 8 km and -40 °C over the equator. D) 8 km and - 75 °C over the poles. 16572. (all) The troposphere is: A) deepest (thickest) over the equator. B) deepest (thickest) over the poles. C) the same depth all over the earth. D) shallowest over the poles in summer. 24289. (all) In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere between mean sea level and a height of 5.500 m is: A) 25% B) 1% C) 50% D) 99% 24425. (all) Which of the following statements concerning the tropopause is correct? A) The temperature of the tropopause at the equator and at the poles is equal. B) The temperature remains constant above and below the
tropopause. C) The temperature of the tropopause at the equator is higher than at the poles. D) The temperature lapse rate changes abruptly at the tropopause. 24440. (all) Which statement concerning the tropopause is correct? A) The temperature at the tropopause is approximately -80 °C over the Poles and approximately -40 °C over the equator. B) Above the tropopause no clear air turbulence occurs. C) In the ICAO standard atmosphere the tropopause lies higher over the Poles than over the equator. D) The layer just above the tropopause is absolutely stable. 27119. (all) A temperature increase with altitude through a layer is called: A) heating aloft. B) an inversion. C) an extension. D) unstable air. 27159. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The region of the atmosphere which is normally stable and has few clouds is known as the: A) tropopause B) troposphere C) stratosphere D) jetstream 27177. (all) The lowest layer in the atmosphere is: A) the stratosphere. B) the troposphere. C) the mesosphere. D) the Heaviside layer. 27390. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the average temperature of the tropical tropopause? A) -75 °C B) -65 °C C) -56,5 °C D) -40 °C 27396. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which statement is true concerning the tropopause from the equator to the poles? A) The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature increases. B) The tropopause decreases, the tropopause temperature decreases. C) The tropopause increases, the tropopause temperature increases. D) The tropopause increases, the tropopause teniperature decreases. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 3 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27422 (B) 28393 (C) 28398 (D) 8810 (D) 8824 (B) 8833 (D) 8858 (C) 8887 (B) 8890 (B) 8898 (A) 10024 (A) 10038 (D) 10066 (C) 10068 (D) 10074 (D) 27422. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What can be said about the temperature in the lower stratosphere? A) The temperature is constant.
B) The temperature is increasing. C) The temperature is decreasing. D) The temperature is first increasing and then decreasing. 28393. (all) The layer of the Earth s atmosphere which most concerns aviators is called the: A) stratosphere. B) tropopause. C) troposphere. D) equatorial zone. 28398. (all) The percentage concentration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from the surface of the earth to a certain altitude with the exception of: A) oxygen B) nitrogen C) hydrogen D) water vapour 050-01-02 Temperature 8810. (all) Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the following contribute the most? A) Absorption and evaporation. B) Solar radiation and conduction. C) Absorption and vaporization. D) Convection and condensation. 8824. (all) The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on: A) relative humidity. B) air temperature. C) stability of air. D) dew point. 8833. (all) An outside air temperature of -35 °C is measured while cruising at FL200. What is the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level? A) 5 °C colder than ISA. B) 10 °C warmer than ISA. C) 5 °C warmer than ISA. D) 10 °C colder than ISA. 8858. (all) At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48 °C; according to the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL330. What is the most likely temperature at FL350? A) -56,5 °C B) -50 °C C) -54 °C D) -58 °C 8887. (all) A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of: A) the passage of cold front. B) nocturnal radiation. C) advection fog. D) cumulus clouds. 8890. (all) An inversion is a layer of air which is: A) absolutely unstable. B) absolutely stable. C) conditionally unstable.
D) conditionally stable. 8898. (all) An inversion is: A) an increase of temperature with height. B) an increase of pressure with height. C) a decrease of pressure with height. D) a decrease of temperature with height. 10024. (all) When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the: A) stability increases in the layer. B) stability decreases in the layer. C) wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere. D) wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere. 10038. (all) The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere: A) has a fixed value of 2 °C/1000 ft. B) has a fixed value of 1 °C/100 m. C) has a fixed value of 0,65 °C/100 m. D) varies with time. 10066. (all) In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature: A) decreases with altitude. B) is almost constant. C) increases with altitude. D) increases at first and decreases afterward. 10068. (all) An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature: A) increases with height at a constant rate. B) increases with height. C) decreases with height at a constant rate. D) remains constant with height. 10074. (all) Which of the following is a common result of subsidence? A) Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes . B) CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area. C) Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation. D) An inversion over a large area with haze, mist. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 4 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10095 (B) 10122 (C) 10130 (A) 10145 (D) 10754 10839 (B) 10861 (C) 10862 (D) 10877 (D) 10879 10095. (all) What is the technical term for an increase in with altitude? A) Subsidence B) Inversion C) Adiabatic D) Advection 10122. (all) How would you characterise an air temperature the 700 hPa level over western Europe? A) Within +/-5 °C of ISA. B) High. C) Low. D) 20 °C below standard. 10130. (all)
(A) 10802 (B) 10812 (C) 10820 (D) (B) 10894 (C) 15782 (A) temperature
of -15 °C at
The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International Standard Atmosphere is: A) 0,65 °C B) 1 °C C) 0,5 °C D) variable 10145. (all) The radiation of the Sun heats: A) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present. B) the air in the troposphere directly. C) the water vapour in the air of the troposphere. D) the surface of the Earth, which heats the air in the troposphere. 10754. (all) What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion? A) Stability. B) Instability. C) Clear ice. D) Area of active storms. 10802. (all) The temperature at FL160 is -22 °C. What will the temperature be at FL90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied? A) -4 °C B) -8 °C C) 0 °C D) +4 °C 10812. (all) The temperature at FL140 is -12 °C. What will the temperature be at FL110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied: A) -9 °C B) -18 °C C) -6 °C D) -15 °C 10820. (all) The temperature at FL80 is +6 °C. What will the temperature be at FL130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied? A) +2 °C B) -6 °C C) 0 °C D) -4 °C 10839. (all) The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is: A) clear and winds are strong. B) clear and winds are weak. C) overcast and winds are weak. D) overcast and winds are strong. 10861. (all) On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature is reached approximately: A) at the moment the sun rises. B) half an hour before sunrise. C) half an hour after sunrise. D) one hour before sunrise. 10862. (all) The temperature at FL110 is -5 °C. What will the temperature be at FL50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate is applied? A) -3 °C B) +3 °C C) 0 °C
D) +7 °C 10877. (all) The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL50. At what FLwould you expect a temperature of -6 °C? A) FL110 B) FL20 C) FL100 D) FL80 10879. (all) A temperature of 15 °C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level? A) +4 °C B) +2 °C C) 0 °C D) -2 °C 10894. (all) Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter, is 3 °C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1.033 hPa. If the sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January 4th should be: A) slightly above +3 °C. B) significantly below 0 °C. C) slightly below +3 °C. D) significantly above +3 °C. 15782. (all) Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion? A) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds. B) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air. D) Heating of the air by subsidence. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 5 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15810 (D) 15822 (A) 15823 (D) 15851 (C) 15858 (B) 15876 (A) 16348 (C) 16555 (A) 16556 (B) 16571 (A) 24216 (C) 24222 (C) 24353 (D) 24386 (C) 27349 (A) 27385 (B) 15810. (all) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause? A) Increases. B) At first it increases and higher up it decreases. C) Remains constant. D) Decreases. 15822. (all) How would you characterize an air temperature of -30°c at the 300 hPa level over western Europe? A) High. B) Within +/-5 °C of ISA. C) Low. D) Very low. 15823. (all) How would you characterise an air temperature of -55 °C at
the 200 hPa level over western Europe? A) High. B) Low. C) Very high. D) Within +/-5 °C of ISA. 15851. (all) An Inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature: A) increases with height more than 1 °C/100 m. B) decreases with height more than 1 °C/100 m. C) increases with height. D) remains constant with height. 15858. (all) A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after takeoff the aircrafts rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to: A) low relative humidity. B) a very strong temperature inversion. C) sand/dust in the engines. D) very pronounced downdrafts. 15876. (all) In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1,2 °C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature change is called: A) environmental lapse rate. B) saturated adiabatic lapse rate. C) dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) normal lapse rate. 16348. (all) Horizontal differences in the mean temperature of a layer near the earth surface are caused by: A) insolation. B) advection. C) differential heating of the earths surface. D) change of air mass. 16555. (all) Which one of the following describes normal conditions? A) Temperature decreases with height in the troposphere. B) Temperature increases with height in the troposphere. C) Temperature decreases with height in the stratosphere. D) Temperature decreases at a similar rate in the troposphere as in the stratosphere. 16556. (all) For international aviation meteorological purposes, temperature is measured in degrees: A) Fahrenheit B) Celsius C) Absolute D) Kelvin 16571. (all) If the depth of the troposphere increases, the temperature at the tropopause must: A) decrease. B) stay the same. C) increase. D) impossible to say. 24216. (all) A parcel of unsaturated air is forced to rise through an isothermal layer. So long as it remains unsaturated, the temperature of the parcel: A) decreases 0,65 °C per 100 m.
B) remains constant. C) decreases 1 °C per 100 m. D) becomes equal to the temperature of the isothermal layer. 24222. (all) According to ISA the temperature in the lower part of the stratosphere: A) decreases with altitude. B) is almost constant. C) increases with altitude. D) increases at first and decreases afterward. 24353. (all) The temperature lapse rate of the standard atmosphere in the troposphere is: A) -2,5 °C/1.000 ft. B) -3 °C/1.000 ft. C) -6,5 °C/1.000 ft. D) -2 °C/1.000 ft. 24386. (all) What is, approximately, the temperature at 20.000 ft in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere? A) -20 °C B) -15 °C C) -25 °C D) -30 °C 27349. (all) What feature is associated with a temperature inversion? A) A stable layer of air. B) An unstable layer of air. C) Air man thunderstorms. D) Cold front. 27385. (all) A temperature increase with increasing altitude is called: A) subsidence B) inversion C) adiabate D) advection 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 6 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27389 (A) 27744 (D) 28390 (B) 28391 (C) 28402 (A) 28418 (B) 28469 (D) 10035 (A) 10059 (C) 10085 (D) 10137 (D) 10807 (B) 10822 (B) 15780 (A) 15809 (C) 27389. (all) While flying at FL120, you notice an OAT of -2 °C. At which altitude do you expect the freezing level to be? A) FL110 B) FL130 C) FL150 D) FL90 27744. (all) What is the cause for a surface temperature inversion? A) The presence of a high pressure area. B) The presence of a polar front depression. C) Moist, unstable air, and a lifting action. D) By heavy radiational cooling at night of the lowest layer of air, or if warm air moves in over a colder surface. 28390. (all) The majority of troposphere heating is the result of: A) radiation of the sun.
B) heating from the ground below. C) re-radiation of the sun s rays from the surface of the earth. D) re-radiation from the clouds. 28391. (all) Why is a calm and clear-sky night cooler than a cloudy night? A) The clouds prevent radiation from the atmosphere. B) There is radiation from the clouds. C) The radiation from the earth s surface slips into space. D) Due to contents of carbon dioxide. 28402. (all) Temperature variation during 24 hours is least over: A) sea B) grass C) mountain D) forest 28418. (all) When temperature drops without changes of dew point temperature: A) the amount of water vapor will increase. B) relative humidity will increase. C) the amount of water vapor will decrease. D) relative humidity will decrease. 28469. (all) An inversion is characterized by: A) constant temperature with increasing altitude. B) parts of the air mass at each level is warmer than surrounding air. C) the tendency to increase relative humidity with increasing altitude. D) increasing temperature with increasing altitude. 050-01-03 Atmospheric pressure 10035. (all) What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart? A) Positions with the same air pressure at a given level. B) Positions with the same temperature at a given level. C) Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level. D) Positions with the same relative pressure heights. 10059. (all) In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height: A) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels. B) remains constant at all levels. C) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels. D) is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL. 10085. (all) An isohypse (contour): A) indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm. B) is the longest slope line of a frontal surface. C) is the limit between two air masses of different temperature. D) indicates the true altitude of a pressure level. 10137. (all) The station pressure used in surface weather charts is: A) QNE B) QFE C) QNH D) QFF 10807. (all)
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure? A) It is higher in winter than in summer. B) It decreases with height. C) It is higher at night than during the da. D) It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8 m. 10822. (all) Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal: A) QFE B) QFF C) QNE D) QNH 15780. (all) What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5.500 m? A) 15 m (50 ft). B) 8 m (27 ft). C) 32 m (105 ft). D) 64 m (210 ft). 15809. (all) The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure: A) at height of observatory. B) at a determined density altitude. C) reduced to sea level. D) at flight level. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 7 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15837 (C) 15877 (A) 16349 (B) 16357 (A) 16363 (B) 16364 (D) 16436 (B) 16438 (C) 16439 (B) 16511 (A) 16517 (B) 16534 (C) 16544 (C) 15837. (all) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems in summer? A) 25° - 35° B) 10° - 15° C) 55° - 75° D) 35° - 55° 15877. (all) Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a heading of 270°. Which of the following statements is correct? A) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360°, then true altitude is increasing. B) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180°, then true altitude is increasing. C) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270°, then true altitude is increasing. D) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090°, then true altitude is increasing. 16349. (all) At altitude, the atmospheric pressure in a column of warm air is likely to be: A) lower than at the same height in a column of cold air. B) higher than at the same height in a column of cold air. C) the same irrespective of the temperature. D) depends on the relative humidity.
16357. (all) Which of the following statements is true? A) High contour values are equivalent to high pressure. B) Low contour values are equivalent to high pressures. C) High contour values are equivalent to low pressure. D) There is not direct relationship between contour values and pressure. 16363. (all) Contour heights are: A) true heights AGL. B) true heights AMSL. C) indicated heights above 1.013,25 mb. D) do not indicate heights at all. 16364. (all) When flying from high to low contour values, which of the following is incorrect? A) The true height of the aircraft will be falling. B) The pressure altimeter will indicate a constant value. C) The indicated height of the aircraft will be constant. D) The indicated height of the aircraft will only be true if 1.013,25 mb is set. 16436. (all) You are making a long-distance flight and have chosen a suitable cruising altitude for the whole flight. Towards the end of your flight, you have descended. What may be to reason for this? A) You are approaching a region of high pressure. B) You are approaching a region of low pressure. C) Standard pressure has dropped. D) Temperature has increased. 16438. (all) Select the correct statement regarding the wind directions in connection with the high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere: A) the winds blow counter-clockwise around a high a clockwise in a low. B) the winds blow clockwise in both highs and lows. C) the winds blow clockwise in a high and counterclockwise in a low. D) the winds blow counter-clockwise in both highs and lows. 16439. (all) If you fly across the isobars towards a region of high pressure in the northern hemisphere, you will: A) drift to the right. B) drift to the left. C) experience no drift but experience a headwind. D) experience no drift but experience a tailwind. 16511. (all) According to definition, flight levels are surfaces with constant air pressure determined from a certain pressure value. Which is this value? A) 1.013,25 hPa. B) 1.025,13 hPa. C) Actual QFE. D) Actual QNH. 16517. (all) If you have a column of air limited by two isobaric surfaces at a pressure difference of 100 hPa, the distance between the pressure surfaces will change if mean temperature and mean pressure of the column of air change. In which of
the following alternatives will the change of temperature and pressure interact to shorten the distance as much as possible? A) The temperature increases and pressure increases. B) The temperature decreases and pressure increases. C) The temperature increases and pressure decreases. D) The temperature decreases and pressure decreases. 16534. (all) Lines joining points of equal pressure are known as: A) isotherms B) isopleths C) isobars D) isotachs 16544. (all) A pressure difference of 10 hPa close to the ground corresponds to a height difference of: A) about 50 m. B) about 150 m. C) about 300 ft. D) about 30 ft. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 8 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16587 (D) 24345 (B) 24431 (C) 27179 (A) 27189 (C) 27354 (B) 27355 (A) 27356 (D) 27357 (C) 27358 (A) 27359 (B) 27360 (A) 27361 (B) 27362 (D) 27363 (C) 16587. (all) A rising parcel of air which has no heat entering or leaving it, will: A) reduce in pressure, rise in temperature, decrease in density. B) maintain volume, decrease in density, reduce in pressure. C) maintain pressure, reduce in density, increase in volume. D) reduce in pressure, decrease in density, increase in volume. 24345. (all) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1.016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 °C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? A) 1.016 hPa. B) More than 1.016 hPa. C) Less than 1.016 hPa. D) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. 24431. (all) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in winter. B) Cumulus clouds and a good visibility are normally observed in a warm sector in autumn. C) Normally atmospheric pressure stops falling rapidly behind a warm front, the air temperature rises. D) At warm fronts thunderstorms are often observed. 27179. (all) The average change of pressure with height in the lower atmosphere is: A) 1hPa/27 ft. B) 1hPa/20 ft. C) 1hPa/50 ft. D) 1hPa/56 ft. 27189. (all) A line on a chart joining places of equal sea level pressure
is called an: A) isogonal. B) agonic line. C) isobar. D) isotherm. 27354. (all) The isohypse 2.960 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following pressure level: A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 27355. (all) The isohypse 1.620 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following pressure level: A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 27356. (all) The isohypse 11.880 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for following pressure level: A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 27357. (all) The isohypse 5.700 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for the following pressure level: A) 300 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 27358. (all) The isohypse 8.760 m can be expected at the constant pressure chart for following pressure level: A) 300 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 27359. (all) What is the pressure in sutface weather charts called? A) QFE B) QFF C) QNH D) QNE 27360. (all) At which average height can the 700 hPa pressure level in moderate latitude be expected? A) 3,0 km AMSL. B) 5,5 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL. 27361. (all) At which average height can the 500 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes be expected? A) 3,0 km AMSL. B) 5,5 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL.
27362. (all) Atwhich average height can the 200 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes be expected? A) 3,0 km AMSL. B) 5,5 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL. 27363. (all) At which average height can the 300 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes be expected? A) 1,5 km AMSL. B) 3,0 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 9 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27364 (A) 27365 (A) 27367 (A) 27368 (D) 27369 (C) 27370 (A) 27371 (A) 27372 (B) 27373 (B) 27374 (C) 27375 (A) 27376 (B) 27398 (A) 27399 (C) 27400 (A) 27364. (all) At which average height can the 850 hPa pressure level in moderate latitudes be expected? A) 1,5 km AMSL. B) 3,0 km AMSL. C) 9,0 km AMSL. D) 12,0 km AMSL. 27365. (all) At an airport (400 m AMSL), a QFF of 1.016 hPa and a temperature 10 °C higher than ISA is observed: A) the QNH is higher than 1.016 hPa. B) the QNH is lower than 1.016 hPa. C) the QNH equals 1.016 hPa. D) the QNH cannot be determined. 27367. (all) At an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1.009 hPa and a temperature 10 °C lower than ISA is observed: A) the QFF is higher than 1.016 hPa. B) the QFF is lower than 1.016 hPa. C) the QFF equals 1.009 hPa. D) the QFF cannot be determined. 27368. (all) At an airport (200 m AMSL), a QNH of 1.022 hPa is observed and the temperature is unknown. A) The QFF is higher than 1.022 hPa. B) The QFF is lower than 1.022 hPa. C) The QFF equals 1.022 hPa. D) The QFF cannot be determined. 27369. (all) At an airport (0 m AMSL), a QNH of 1.022 hPa is observed and the temperature is unknown: A) the QFF is higher than 1.022 hPa. B) the QFF is lower than 1.022 hPa. C) the QFF equals 1.022 hPa. D) the QFF cannot be determined. 27370. (all) At an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a QNH of 1.018 hPa and a temperature 10 °C higher than standard is observed: A) the QFF is higher than 1.018 hPa.
B) the QFF is lower than 1.018 hPa. C) the QFF equals 1.018 hPa. D) the QFF cannot be determined. 27371. (all) At an airport in California (69 m below MSL), a QFF of 1.030 hPa and a termperature is 10 °C lower than standard is observed: A) the QNH is higher than 1.030 hPa. B) the QNH is lower than 1.030 hPa. C) the QNH equals 1.030 hPa. D) the QNH cannot be determined. 27372. (all) What is the value for a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5.500 m? A) Approx. 8 m (27 ft). B) Approx. 16 m (50 ft). C) Approx. 32 m (105 ft). D) Approx. 64 m (210 ft). 27373. (all) QFE 980 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL. What will the approximate QNH be? A) 1.000 hPa B) 1.005 hPa C) 1.010 hPa D) 1.015 hPa 27374. (all) QFE 1.000 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL. What will the approximate QNH be? A) 985 hPa B) 990 hPa C) 1.025 hPa D) 1.035 hPa 27375. (all) QNH 1015 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL: What will the approximate QFE be? A) 990 hPa B) 995 hPa C) 1.000 hPa D) 1.005 hPa. 27376. (all) QNH 1.025 hPa at an altitude of 200 m AMSL. What will the approximate QFE be? A) 995 hPa B) 1.000 hPa C) 1.005 hPa D) 1.025 hPa 27398. (all) State the definition for QNH: A) QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. B) OFF reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. C) QFE reduced to MSL, using actual temperature gradient. D) QNE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. 27399. (all) State the definition for QFF: A) QFE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. B) QNH reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. C) QFE reduced to MSL, using actual temperature gradient. D) QNE reduced to MSL, using standard temperature gradient. 27400. (all) Which value has to be known to calculate the QNH out of the QFE?
A) B) C) D)
Field elevation. Actual temperature. The relative humidity of the air. The density altitude of the field.
050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 10 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27465 (A) 27492 (A) 28387 (D) 28388 (B) 28389 (A) 28394 (C) 15779 (B) 24454 (B) 27120 (B) 28396 (B) 28470 (B) 28471 (D) 8840 (C) 8850 (A) 27465. (all) What can be said about isobars? A) Isobars appear on meteorological surface charts. B) Isobars are lines of equal temperature. C) Certain information can be depicted with the isobars on upper level char. D) Isobars show wind speeds around a jet stream area. 27492. (all) Which statement is true? A) QNH can be equal to QFE. B) QNH is always lower than QFE. C) QFE is always lower than QNH. D) QFE can be equal to QFF only. 28387. (all) At sea level, the pressure of the atmosphere on a standard day will cause the mercury in the column to rise to: A) 92,29 inches. B) 19,19 inches. C) 29,29 inches. D) 29,92 inches. 28388. (all) What is dynamic pressure? A) Turbulence. B) Pressure caused by movement. C) Acceleration force. D) Centrifugal force. 28389. (all) As altitude increases, the weight of the atmosphere above you will: A) decrease. B) remain the same. C) increase. D) increase with 1,5 kg/m2 per 1.000 ft. 28394. (all) The unit of pressure most commonly used in meteorology is: A) kg/cm2 B) lbs/in2 C) hPa D) tons/m2 050-01-04 Atmospheric density 15779. (all) At FL180, the air temperature is -35 °C. The air density at this level is: A) unable to be determined without knowing the QNH. B) greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180. C) less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180. D) equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL180. 24454. (all)
With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere increases with increasing: A) relative humidity. B) air pressure. C) stability. D) temperature. 27120. (all) Stratiform clouds indicate stable air. Flight generally will be: A) rough with good visibility. B) smooth with low ceiling and visibility. C) smooth with good visibility. D) smooth with moderate turbulence and good vkibility. 28396. (all) In relation to air density which of the following responses are correct: A) cold air is less dense than warm air. B) dry warm air is less dense than cold air. C) if the temperature is decreasing the air density will decrease. D) air density is not influenced of air humidity. 28470. (all) Which of the following combinations contain the greatest air density? A) High pressure and high temperature. B) High pressure and low temperature. C) Low pressure and high temperature. D) Low pressure and low temperature. 28471. (all) Air density is mass of air per unity of volume, and is influenced by: A) pressure, latitude and season. B) pressure, temperature and the amount of water vapour. C) altitude. D) altitude, pressure, temperature and the amount of water vapour. 050-01-05 International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) 8840. (all) The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is: A) -44,7 °C B) -273 °C C) -56,5 °C D) -100 °C 8850. (all) A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable? A) FL180 B) FL160 C) FL100 D) FL390 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 11 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8869 (A) 8882 (C) 8884 (A) 10073 (C) 10120 (A) 10125 (B) 10127 (D) 10136 (D) 10736 (C) 10763 (B) 10888 (A) 24253 (C) 24336 (C) 8869. (all) A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable?
A) FL100 B) FL180 C) FL300 D) FL390 8882. (all) The temperature at 10.000 ft in the International Standard Atmosphere is: A) -20 °C B) 0 °C C) -5 °C D) -35 °C 8884. (all) If you are flying at FL120 and the outside temperature is -2 °C, at what altitude will the freezing level be? A) FL110 B) FL130 C) FL150 D) FL90 10073. (all) A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable? A) FL300 B) FL100 C) FL50 D) FL390 10120. (all) If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15 °C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? A) -30 °C B) -45 °C C) -60 °C D) -15 °C 10125. (all) In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height below 11 km is: A) 1 °C per 100 m. B) 0,65 °C per 100 m. C) 0,5 °C per 100 m. D) 0,6 °C per 100 m. 10127. (all) What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere? A) 2 °C per 1.000 m. B) 4,5 °C per 1.000 m. C) 3 °C per 1.000 m. D) 6,5 °C per 1.000 m. 10136. (all) A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable? A) FL50 B) FL300 C) FL100 D) FL390 10736. (all) A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following average heights is applicable? A) FL100 B) FL390
C) FL300 D) FL50 10763. (all) If you are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 10 °C warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be? A) +15 °C B) +5 °C C) -10 °C D) -15 °C 10888. (all) Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere? A) At MSL temperature is 15 °C and pressure is 1.013,25 hPa. B) At MSL temperature is 15 °C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 °C per 100 m. C) At MSL temperature is 10 °C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 °C per 100 m. D) At MSL pressure is 1.013,25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1 °C per 100 m. 24253. (all) Between mean sea level and a height of 20 km, the lowest temperature in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is: A) -44,7 °C B) -273 °C C) -56,5 °C D) -100 °C 24336. (all) The ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA) assumes that temperature will reduce at the rate of: A) 2 °C per 1.000 ft up to 65.617 ft after which it will remain constant to 104.987 ft. B) 1,98 °C per 1.000 ft up to 36.090 ft and will then rise at 0,3 °C per 1.000 ft up to 65.617 ft when it will remain constant. C) 1,98 °C per 1.000 ft up to 36.090 ft after which it remains constant to 65.617 ft. D) 2 °C per 1.000 ft up to 36.090 ft and will then increase at 0,3 °C per 1.000 ft up to 65.617 ft. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 12 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24447 (A) 27044 (D) 27193 (C) 27210 (C) 27377 (B) 27378 (A) 27379 (D) 27380 (C) 27381 (A) 27382 (C) 27383 (B) 27386 (B) 27387 (C) 27388 (C) 27395 (A) 24447. (all) Which statement is correct regarding the ICAO Standard Atmosphere? A) At MSL temperature is 15 °C and pressure is 1.013,25 hPa. B) At MSL temperature is 15 °C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 °C per 100 m. C) At MSL temperature is 10 °C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1 °C per 100 m. D) At MSL pressure is 1.013,25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1 °C per 100 m. 27044. (all) You are departing an aerodrome (600 RAMSL, QNH 1.012 hPa) and proceed to another airfield (195 RAMSL) with the
same QNH. After landing, which barometric setting on the altimeter makes it again indicate 600 ft? A) 997 B) 1.032 C) 992 D) 1.027 27193. (all) The temperature at sea level in the ISA is: A) +12,5 °C B) +25 °C C) +15 °C D) 0 °C 27210. (all) The pressure at sea level in the ISA is: A) 1.012,35 hPa B) 1.025,13 hPa C) 1.013,25 hPa D) 29,95 inHg 27377. (all) At an altitude of 500 m AMSL, a temperature of +15 °C is measured. What will the temperatire be at an altitude of 2.500 m, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) +4 °C B) +2 °C C) 0 °C D) 2 °C 27378. (all) FL80, an OAT +6 °C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL130, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -4 °C B) +2 °C C) 0 °C D) 6 °C 27379. (all) FL110, an OAT -5 °C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL50, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -3 °C B) +3 °C C) 0 °C D) +7 °C 27380. (all) FL140, an OAT -12 °C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL110, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) +2 °C B) 0 °C C) -6 °C D) -18 °C 27381. (all) FL160, an OAT -22 °C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL90, if you consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere? A) -8 °C B) -4 °C C) +4 °C D) 0 °C 27382. (all)
An OAT of -15 °C at the 700 hPa pressure level: A) equals approximately (45 °C) ISA. B) is high. C) is low. D) is almost impossible. 27383. (all) An OAT of -30 °C at the 300 hPa pressure level: A) equals approximately (±5 °C) ISA. B) is high. C) is low. D) is almost impossible. 27386. (all) An aircraft cruises at FL300 in an air mass, which is 15 °C warmer than the Standard Atmosphere. The OAT is therefore: A) -60 °C B) -30 °C C) -45 °C D) -15 °C 27387. (all) An aircraft cruises at FL100 in an air mass, which is 10 °C warmer than the Standart Atmosphere. The OAT is therefore: A) -10 °C B) -15 °C C) +5 °C D) +15 °C 27388. (all) You cruise at FL200 and notice an OAT of 35 °C. The air mass has therefore an average temperature which is: A) 5 °C warmer than ISA. B) 20 °C colder than ISA. C) 10 °C colder than ISA. D) 5 °C colder than ISA. 27395. (all) What is the ISA temperature at FL110? A) -7 °C B) +7 °C C) 0 °C D) 5 °C 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 13 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27397 (A) 27505 (A) 28395 (D) 28401 (C) 8807 (A) 8811 (B) 8815 (C) 8818 (A) 8829 (D) 8834 (B) 8836 (D) 8842 (A) 8843 (D) 27397. (all) What is the temperature decrease in the ISA? A) 0,65 °C/100 m. B) 0,65 °C/1.000 ft. C) 2 °C/100 m. D) 1 °C/100 m. 27505. (all) A temperature of 10 °C above ISA is observed at FL180. What is the vertical distance between FL60 and FL120? A) 6.240 ft B) 6.000 ft C) 5.760 ft D) 3.000 ft 28395. (all) The international standard atmosphere (ISA) is defined for
mean sea level as: A) 1015,25 hPa, 15 °C, and a density of 1.225 kg/m3. B) 1015,25 hPa, 15 °C, with a lapse rate of 2 °C per 1.000 ft. C) 1013,25 hPa, 15 °C, a temperature lapse rate of 2 °C per 1.000 ft. and a humidity of 5%. D) 1013,25 hPa, 15 °C, a temperature lapse rate of 2 °C per 1.000 ft. and a density of 1,225 kg/m3. 28401. (all) The temperature gradient in the international standard atmosphere (ISA) is: A) 1 °C/100 m B) 0,5 °C/100 m C) 0,65 °C/100 m D) 0,6 °C/100 m 050-01-06 Altimetry 8807. (all) In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1.411 ft. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is: A) 942 hPa B) 967 hPa C) 961 hPa D) 948 hPa 8811. (all) An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1.009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level? A) It will increase. B) It will decrease. C) It will remain the same. D) It will not be affected. 8815. (all) The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1.009 hPa. The air temperature is 10 °C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? A) Less than 1.009 hPa. B) 1.009 hPa. C) More than 1.009 hPa. D) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. 8818. (all) An aircraft is flying at FL80. The local QNH is 1.000 hPa. After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately: A) 7.650 ft B) 8.600 ft C) 8.350 ft D) 8.000 ft 8829. (all) The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1.030 hPa. The air temperature is 10 °C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? A) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. B) Less than 1.030 hPa. C) 1.030 hPa. D) More than 1.030 hPa. 8834. (all) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1.240 ft, QNH 1.008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1.013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate: A) 1.200 ft B) 1.375 ft
C) 1.105 ft D) 1.280 ft 8836. (all) The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20.000 -12; 18.000 -11; 16.000 -10; 14.000 -10; 12.000 -6; 10.000 -2; 8.000 +2; 6.000 +6; 4.000 +12; 2.000 +15; surface +15. A) The layer between 16.000 and 18.000 ft is absolutely unstable. B) The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12.000 ft. C) The temperature at 10.000 ft is in agreement with the temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere. D) Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1.013,25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the indicated altitude. 8842. (all) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1.013 hPa. What will it indicate? A) 1.080 ft B) 700 ft C) 380 ft D) 0 ft 8843. (all) You are flying at FL130, and your true altitude is 12.000 ft. What is the temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL130 (QNH 1.013,2 hPa)? A) ISA +12 °C. B) ISA ±0 °C. C) ISA +20 °C. D) ISA -20 °C. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 14 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8845 (B) 8861 (C) 8863 (C) 8867 (D) 8870 (C) 8875 (D) 8879 (C) 10030 (B) 10046 (D) 10049 (C) 10052 (D) 10079 (B) 10087 (C) 10090 (A) 8845. (all) The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if: A) the outside air temperature is standard for that height. B) standard atmospheric conditions occur. C) the air pressure is 1.013,25 hPa at the surface. D) the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude. 8861. (all) Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually flown? A) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude. B) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard. C) Air temperature higher than standard. D) Air temperature lower than standard. 8863. (all) What pressure is defined as QFE? A) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures. B) The pressure of the altimeter. C) The pressure at field elevation. D) The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures. 8867. (all)
During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 1.023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure? A) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. B) It will increase. C) It will remain the same. D) It will decrease. 8870. (all) An aircraft is flying at FL180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude? A) It remains constant. B) It increases. C) It decreases. D) Without knowing temperatures at FL180 this question can not be answered. 8875. (all) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known? A) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield. B) Temperature at the airfield. C) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL. D) Elevation of the airfield. 8879. (all) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1.025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? A) 1.005 hPa B) 995 hPa C) 1.000 hPa D) 1.025 hPa 10030. (all) You are flying at FL200. Outside air temperature is -40 °C, and the pressure at sea level is 1.033 hPa. What is the true altitude? A) 20.660 feet. B) 19.340 feet. C) 21.740 feet. D) 18.260 feet. 10046. (all) The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1.022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF? A) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. B) Less than 1.022 hPa. C) More than 1.022 hPa. D) 1.022 hPa. 10049. (all) Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH? A) QFE = 1.003 hPa, elevation = 1.200 ft (366m). B) QFE = 1.000 hPa, elevation = 1.200 ft (366m). C) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1.600 ft (488m). D) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1.200 ft (366m). 10052. (all) Which statement is true? A) QNH can be 1.013,25 only for a station at MSL. B) QNH can not be 1.013,25 hPa. C) QNH is lower than 1.013,25 hPa at any time. D) QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1.013,25 hPa.
10079. (all) When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates: A) zero while landing. B) elevation while landing. C) elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere. D) zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere. 10087. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) A vertical spacing of 1.000 ft, is the standard required separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15 °C), what would the true vertical separation be? A) More than 1.000 ft. B) It remains 1.000 ft. C) Less than 1.000 ft. D) Without QNH information, it can not be determined. 10090. (all) The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1.018 hPa. The air temperature is 10 °C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? A) More than 1.018 hPa. B) Less than 1.018 hPa. C) 1.018 hPa. D) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 15 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10091 (B) 10101 (D) 10113 (D) 10124 (B) 10140 (D) 10147 (C) 10162 (A) 10165 (B) 10735 (C) 10740 (D) 10798 (D) 10799 (D) 10091. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12.000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10 °C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1.023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude? A) 12.210 feet. B) 11.520 feet. C) 11.250 feet. D) 11.790 feet. 10101. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to the aviation chart, 15.000 ft/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15 °C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1.023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude? A) 15.900 ft B) 13.830 ft C) 14.370 ft D) 14.100 ft 10113. (all) QNH is defined as: A) the pressure at MSL obtained using the standard atmosphere.
B) the pressure at MSL obtained using the actual conditions. C) QFE reduced to MSL using the actual conditions. D) QFE reduced to MSL using the standard atmosphere. 10124. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe altitude? A) In a cold low pressure region. B) At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1.013 hPa. C) At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1.013 hPa. D) In a warm high pressure region. 10140. (all) The QNH is equal to the QFE if: A) T actual < T standard. B) T actual = T standard. C) T actual > T standard. D) the elevation = 0. 10147. (all) The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from ISA is -15 °C below FL100. What is the true altitude of FL100? A) 9.740 ft B) 10.160 ft C) 8.640 ft D) 11.460 ft 10162. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1.013,2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1.023 hPa. Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 ft, the reading on the altimeter on the ground will be: A) 20 ft B) 11 ft C) -10 ft D) 560 ft 10165. (all) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL90; the true altitude is 9.100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? A) It is colder than ISA. B) There is insufficient information to make any assumption. C) It is warmer than ISA. D) Its average temperature is the same as ISA. 10735. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winters day. The regional QNH is 1.013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of the summit? A) The same altitude as the elevation of the summit. B) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit. C) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit. D) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion. 10740. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summers day. The weather is fine, and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is passed at
an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the summits elevation? A) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion. B) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit. C) The same altitude as the elevation of the summit. D) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit. 10798. (all) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1.016 hPa. The air temperature is 10 °C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? A) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. B) More than 1.016 hPa. C) 1.016 hPa. D) Less than 1.016 hPa. 10799. (all) In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known? A) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield. B) Temperature at the airfield. C) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL. D) Elevation of the airfield. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 16 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10803 (B) 10808 (A) 10813 (D) 10816 (C) 10830 (C) 10835 (B) 10836 (A) 10853 (D) 10858 (C) 10859 (B) 10864 (B) 10865 (B) 10868 (A) 10803. (all) After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1.715 ft), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1.310 ft. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1.013 hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome? A) 1.015 hPa B) 1.028 hPa C) 1.013 hPa D) 998 hPa 10808. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest usable flight level? A) Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA. B) Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA. C) Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA. D) Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA. 10813. (all) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL100, with a true altitude of 10.000 feet; local QNH is 1.003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? A) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion. B) Its average temperature is about ISA. C) It is colder than ISA. D) It is warmer than ISA. 10816. (all) Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared
to pressure altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be dangerous? A) Cold high. B) Warm depression. C) Cold low. D) Warm high. 10830. (all) An aircraft flying at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that: A) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested. B) the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille. C) the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille. D) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect. 10835. (all) During a flight over the sea at FL135, the true altitude is 13.500 feet; local QNH is 1.019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? A) Its average temperature is the same as ISA. B) It is colder than ISA. C) It is warmer than ISA. D) There is insufficient information to make any assumption. 10836. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10 °C in the lower troposphere up to 18.000 ft, what is the actual layer thickness between FL60 and FL120? A) 6.240 ft B) 6.000 ft C) 5.900 ft D) 5.760 ft 10853. (all) For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1.000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is: A) 120 metres. B) 600 metres. C) 540 metres. D) 160 metres. 10858. (all) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? A) 1.015 hPa B) 1.000 hPa C) 1.005 hPa D) 1.010 hPa 10859. (all) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1.000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? A) 985 hPa B) 1.025 hPa C) 990 hPa D) 1.035 hPa 10864. (all) An altimeter adjusted to 1.013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3.600 ft. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be: A) 2.922 ft B) 3.006 ft C) 4.278 ft
D) 4.194 ft 10865. (all) You are flying at FL160. Outside air temperature is -27 °C, and the pressure at sea level is 1.003 hPa. What is the true altitude? A) 15.630 feet. B) 15.090 feet. C) 16.370 feet. D) 16.910 feet. 10868. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) During a flight over the sea at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if any, should be taken? A) None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the air around Marseille. B) Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong. C) Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong. D) Compensate by heading further to the left. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 17 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10873 (C) 10876 (B) 10881 (B) 15812 (C) 15824 (B) 15825 (B) 15826 (C) 15827 (D) 15828 (B) 15836 (B) 15852 (D) 15857 (C) 15889 (B) 10873. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) During a flight at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is that: A) the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca. B) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested. C) the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca. D) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect. 10876. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) During a flight over the sea at FL100 from Marseille (QNH 1.016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1.016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the probable reason for this? A) One of the QNH values must be wrong. B) The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca. C) The altimeter is faulty. D) The aircraft is being blown off track to the left. 10881. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15.000 ft/AMSL. The air is on an average 15 °C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1.003 hPa. What indication must the altimeter (setting 1.013,2 hPa) read? A) 15.690 ft B) 16.170 ft C) 14.370 ft D) 13.830 ft 15812. (all) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 ft below sea level? A) QFE equals QNH. B) No clear relationship exists. C) QFE is greater than QNH.
D) QFE is smaller than QNH. 15824. (all) The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1.022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is the QFF? A) Less than 1.022 hPa. B) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. C) More than 1.022 hPa. D) 1.022 hPa. 15825. (all) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1.015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8 m) A) 1.005 hPa B) 990 hPa C) 995 hPa D) 1.000 hPa 15826. (all) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL120, with a true altitude of 12.000 feet, local QNH is 1.013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying? A) It is warmer than ISA. B) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion. C) Its average temperature is the same as ISA. D) It is colder than ISA. 15827. (all) During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure? A) It will decrease. B) It will remain the same. C) It is not possible to give a definitive answer. D) It will increase. 15828. (all) (Refer to figure 050-14) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1.013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? A) Wind speed at A and at B is the same. B) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B. C) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A. D) Wind speed at A is higher than at B. 15836. (all) After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1.013,2 hPa and that it reads 1.200 feet. What is the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level? A) 2.280 feet. B) 660 feet. C) 1.200 feet. D) 1.740 feet. 15852. (all) Which of the following statements is true? A) QNH is always lower than QFE. B) QNH is always higher than QFE. C) QNH is always equal to QFE. D) QNH can be equal to QFE. 15857. (all) You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a
field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4.000 ft is 1.025 hPa and the temperature is -20 °C. What is your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1.025 hPa is set in the subscale? A) 4.000 ft. B) Less than 0 ft. C) 0 ft. D) More than 0 ft, but less than 4.000 ft. 15889. (all) Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates: A) the height of the aircraft s wheels above the runway. B) in standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport elevation. C) the flight level. D) the aircraft s altitude above the mean sea level. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 18 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16504 (A) 16505 (C) 16510 (A) 16512 (B) 16514 (C) 16515 (B) 16516 (D) 16520 (D) 16521 (D) 16522 (C) 16524 (B) 16527 (B) 16535 (D) 16504. (all) Suppose that you are flying at FL40 and that you reset the altimeter to reference pressure 993 hPa. The altimeter then indicates: A) about 3.400 ft. B) about 3.700 ft. C) about 4.300 ft. D) about 4.600 ft. 16505. (all) In which of the following cases will the altimeter always indicate the airport elevation when landing? A) If QFF on the airport is set as reference. B) If QFE of the airport is set as reference. C) If QNH of the airport is set as reference. D) At standard setting. 16510. (all) At an airport 1.700 ft above sea level the temperature reading is +10 °C . from the barometer readings made at the same time QFE, QFF nad QNH are computed. Which of the following statements concerning air pressure in correct? A) QFF is higher than QNH. B) QFF is equal to QNH. C) QFF is equal to QFE. D) QNH is equal to QFE. 16512. (all) When landing at an airport you have correctly set QNH = 1.023 hPa as reference pressure on your altimeter. The altimeter indicates 1.200 ft after landing. Suppose that you change the pressure reference to standard setting (1.013 hPa). What will your altimeter indicate? A) 0 ft B) 900 ft C) 1.200 ft D) 1.500 ft 16514. (all) What will the altimeter indicate if the actual altitude is to be 10.000 ft when the pressure altitude is 10.000 ft at OAT -30 °C?
A) 9.000 ft B) 10.000 ft C) 11.000 ft D) 12.000 ft 16515. (all) A barometric altimeter always indicates: A) correct altitude to the terrain below. B) altitude to the set altitude reference. C) standard altitude. D) the dynamic pressure. 16516. (all) Suppose that you want your altimeter on landing to indicate airport elevation. Which of the following pressures will you use as reference? A) Standard (1.013,25). B) QFE. C) QFF. D) QNH. 16520. (all) A pressure altimeter indicates: A) actual altitude above MSL. B) actual altitude above the terrain below. C) the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the actual atmoshpere. D) the distance between two isobaric surfaces in the standard atmosphere. 16521. (all) You are flying at a constant altitude according to your altimeter. Your altimeter setting is unchanged. Which of the following interact to give a minimum a true altitude? 1) Flying from an area of low pressure to that an area of high pressure. 2) Flying from an area of high pressure to that an area of low pressure. 3) Flyin from a warm air mass to a cold air mass. 4) Flying from a cold air mass to a warm air mass. A) 1, 3 B) 2, 4 C) 1, 4 D) 2, 3 16522. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You are fying over an airport at an indicated altitude of 5.600 ft. Airport elevation = 2.785 ft. The altimeter is set at the correct aerodrome QNH value of 993 hPa and the instrument error is zero, you are crossing the airport at a hight above ground of: (standard pressure setting = 1.013 hPa, 1 hPa = 27 ft) A) 5.000 ft B) 5.600 ft C) 2.815 ft D) 2.215 ft 16524. (all) At the official measuring level for a specific airport, an aircraft altimeter, set at QNH for the airport, should read: A) the elevation of the airport, but only at standard ISA temperature. B) the elevation of the airport, regardless of temperature. C) zero, regardless of temperature. D) zero, only at standard ISA temperature. 16527. (all) Which one of the following conditions gives the shortest
takeoff run, if the airports have the same QNH? A) High temperature and low airport elevation. B) Low temperature and low airport elevation. C) High temperature and high airport elevation. D) Low temperature and high airport elevation. 16535. (all) On the ground, an altimeter will read ___ if QFE is set and ___ if QNH is set. A) airfield elevation; airfield altitude B) zero ft; airfield altitude C) zero ft; airfield height D) zero ft; airfield elevation 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 19 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16541 (C) 16543 (B) 16568 (D) 24011 (D) 24189 (D) 24190 (D) 24229 (A) 24236 (D) 24237 (C) 24238 (C) 24239 (A) 24240 (B) 16541. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is flying at FL75 over point A where the QNH is 1.013 hPa, enroute to B where the QNH is 979 hPa. Assuming that 1hPa equals 27 ft and that point B is 823 metres amsl the terrain clearance over B is: A) 6.480 ft B) 4.280 ft C) 4.072 ft D) 5.680 ft 16543. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is to fly at an indicated altitude of 5.000 ft from X (elevation 850 ft, QNH 984 hPa) to Y (elevation 2.300 ft QNH 1.024 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter sub-scale is set to 984 mbs and 1 hPa = 27 ft, the height of the aircraft over X and Y will be: A) 5.000 ft; 3.900 ft. B) 4.150 ft; 3.780 ft. C) 4.150 ft; 1.500 ft. D) 5.000 ft; 1.500 ft. 16568. (all) The altimeter reading of pressure must be corrected for the following errors: A) temperature, index, instrument. B) index, temperature, pressure. C) instrument, gravity, temperature. D) instrument, temperature, pressure. 24011. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft is flying at FL150, with an outside air temperature of -30°, above an airport where the elevation is 1.660 ft and the QNH is 993 hPa. Calculate the true altitude. (Assume 27 ft = 1 hPa) A) 15.210 ft B) 14.120 ft C) 17.160 ft D) 13.660 ft 24189. (all) (Refer to figure 050-15) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1.013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? A) Wind speed at B is higher than at A.
B) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B. C) Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A. D) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A. 24190. (all) (Refer to figure 050-16) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1.013,2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct? A) Wind speed at B is higher than at A. B) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B. C) Wind speed at A and at B is the same. D) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A. 24229. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aeroplane flies at FL40. Elevation of the aerodrome is 990 ft QNH 976 hPa. The tower clears the pilot to fly at 3.000 ft QNH. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Only a small change of altitude is necessary. B) The aeroplane has to climb about 1.000 ft. C) The aeroplane has to descend about 1.000 ft. D) The aeroplane has to descend about 2.000 ft. 24236. (all) An aircraft flying at FL45 (OAT 6 °C) obtains a reading of 1.860 ft on its radio altimeter (ground elevation 3.090 ft). What is the value of the QNH, to the nearest hPa, at that point? A) 1.042 B) 996 C) 1.013 D) 1.030 24237. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 4.500 ft from A (360 ft/AMSL - QNH 986 hPa) to B (690 ft/ AMSL - QNH 1.011 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 986 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B are: A) 4.815 ft B) 3.135 ft C) 4.485 ft D) 5.175 ft 24238. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 5.500 ft from A (1.050 ft/AMSL - QNH 968 hPa) to B (650 ft/ AMSL - QNH 1.016 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 968 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B are: A) 4.854 ft B) 6.796 ft C) 6.146 ft D) 7.446 ft 24239. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 6.500 ft from A (600 ft/AMSL - QNH 1012 hPa) to B (930 ft/ AMSL - QNH 977 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 1.012 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B are: A) 4.625 ft B) 6.515 ft C) 5.555 ft
D) 5.225 ft 24240. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) An aircraft maintains a constant indicated altitude of 7.500 ft from A (270 ft/AMSL - QNH 1021 hPa) to B (1.650 ft/AMSL - QNH 983 hPa). Assuming that the altimeter subscale setting remains unchanged at 1.021 hPa, the height of the aircraft above the surface at B are: A) 6.204 ft B) 4.824 ft C) 6.876 ft D) 6.474 ft 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 20 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24273 (C) 24280 (D) 24313 (D) 24408 (B) 24409 (B) 24410 (C) 24411 (C) 24412 (B) 24456 (D) 24458 (A) 27043 (A) 27045 (A) 27046 (D) 27047 (B) 24273. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Given: Altimeter setting: 1.013,2 hPa Altimeter reading: 5.000 ft Outside air temperature at 5.000 ft: +5 °C QFE: 958 hPa QNH: 983 hPa What is the true height of the aeroplane above the aerodrome? A) 4.325 ft B) 4.190 ft C) 3.515 ft D) 4.865 ft 24280. (all) If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value: A) the 1.013,25 hPa level must be at MSL. B) the conditions must be as in the ISA. C) the airport must be at MSL and the conditions must be as in the ISA. D) the airport must be at MSL. 24313. (all) Pressure altitude is obtained by: A) setting the altimeter to QFF pressure. B) correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA. C) setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea level. D) setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure. 24408. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 200 hPa pressure level? A) FL300 B) FL390 C) FL100 D) FL50 24409. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 300 hPa pressure level? A) FL390 B) FL300 C) FL100 D) FL50 24410. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 500 hPa pressure level? A) FL100
B) FL160 C) FL180 D) FL390 24411. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 700 hPa pressure level? A) FL300 B) FL180 C) FL100 D) FL390 24412. (all) Which FL corresponds with the 850 hPa pressure level? A) FL100 B) FL50 C) FL300 D) FL390 24456. (all) You are flying at FL340 (250 hPa) on the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic and there is a cross wind from the right all the time. Your true altitude will: A) increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route. B) decrease. C) decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route. D) increase. 24458. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) You are flying over the sea at FL250 and measure an outside temperature of -50 °C. The pressure at sea level is 1.023 hPa. What is your approximate true altitude calculated using normal vertical change in temperature with increase in height? A) 23.770 ft AMSL. B) 26.230 ft AMSL. C) 26.770 ft AMSL. D) 23.230 ft AMSL. 27043. (all) When the barometric subscale of the altimeter is adjusted to 1.013,2 hPa, what type of altitude is being measured? A) Preaure altitude. B) Indicated altitude. C) True altitude. D) Relative height. 27045. (all) When the altimeter indicated 0 (zero) ft when the aircraft was parked for the night, and 1.000 ft the following morning, this shows that: A) the barometric pressure has decreasedby approx. 37 hPa. B) the barometric pressure is constant, but the temperature has fallen during the night. C) a formation of fog has most probably taken place. D) the barometric prenure has increased by approx. 37 hPa. 27046. (all) Without readjusting the barometric setting of the altimeter, it will under-read when: A) flying from a high pressure area into a low pressure area. B) flying in headwind with constant barometric pressure. C) flying in tailwind with constant barometric pressure. D) flying from a low prenure area into a high pressure area. 27047. (all)
An aircraft is in level flight at FL100 over a mountain range, which extends up to 2.400 metres AMSL. If the regional QNH is 998 hPa, what is the approximate terrain clearance? A) 2.536 feet. B) 1.700 feet. C) 7.821 feet. D) 405 feet. 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 21 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27191 (B) 27401 (A) 27402 (A) 27424 (A) 27426 (A) 27433 (A) 27441 (A) 27598 (A) 27599 (A) 27600 (C) 27601 (D) 27602 (D) 27603 (C) 27191. (all) An aircraft, flying so that the altimeter indicates 2.500 ft with the current regional QNH set in the subscale, is flying towards an area of lower pressure. If the pilot fails to revise the subscale setting as the QNH changes, then the aircraft will: A) gradually climb. B) gradually descend. C) maintain 2.500 ft AMSL. D) no anumption is possible. 27401. (all) While passing the Transition Level, you set the subscale on your altimeter to the local QNH of 1.009 hPa: A) your indicated altitude decreases. B) your indicated altitude increases. C) a statement is not possible without the knowledge of the exact OAT. D) your setting is wrong, the subscale must be set to 1.013,2 hPa. 27402. (all) On takeoff, your altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1.023 hPa. While passing the Transition Altitude, you adjust the subscale accordingly: A) your indicated altitude decreases. B) your indicated altitude increases. C) a statement is not poseible without the knowledge of the exad OAT. D) the altimeter setting must remain at 1.023 hPa. 27424. (all) What condition would cause that your altimeter is indicating lower than actually flown? A) Temperature higher than standard. B) Temperature lower than standard. C) Standard temperature. D) Pressure lower than standard. 27426. (all) You fly over the sea at FL90, TA 9.100R, QNH unknown. What can be assumpted? A) No assumption is possible, because the information is not sufficient. B) It is warmer than ISA. C) It is colder than ISA. D) The QNH is lower than 1.013 hPa. 27433. (all) Your altimeter is blocked at 1.000 hPa. You have to overfly a mountain (8.000 ft) with a terrain clearance of at least
1.500 ft. What will be your indicated altitude when the QNH of a nearby airport is 990 hPa and the temperature is 10 °C colder than ISA? A) 10.150 ft B) 10.501 ft C) 8.850 ft D) 9.500 ft 27441. (all) You are flying at FL100 in an air mass which is 15 °C colder than ISA, local QNH 983. True altitude? A) 8.590 ft B) 11.410 ft C) 10.000 ft D) 10.210 ft 27598. (all) While mountain flying on a cold winter day, under fair weather conditions (QNH 1.013 hPa) you circle a mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the elevation of the mountain, the aneroid altimeter of your aircraft will therefore indicate: A) a higher altitude. B) a lower altitude. C) peak elevation. D) cannot be determined. 27599. (all) While mountain flying on a warm summer day under high pressure conditions, you circle a mountain of known height at peak elevation. Comparing to the indication of your altimeter, the peak elevation will therefore be: A) higher. B) lower. C) equal. D) cannot be determined. 27600. (all) You have landed on an airport (elevation 1.240 ft, QNH 1.008 hPa). Your altimeter subscale is erroneously set to 1.013 hPa. Therefore, the indication will be: A) 1.105 ft B) 1.200 ft C) 1.375 ft D) 1.280 ft 27601. (all) You are cruising at FL200, OAT -40 °C, sea level pressure 1.033 hPa. Calculate the true altitude: A) 20.660 ft B) 21.740 ft C) 18.260 ft D) 19.340 ft 27602. (all) You intend to ovefly a mountain ridge at an altitude of 15.000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature is 15 °C lower than ISA, the sea level pressure 1.003 hPa. Which altimeter indication (standard setting) is needed? A) 15.630 ft B) 14.370 ft C) 13.830 ft D) 16.170 ft 27603. (all) You have landed on an airport (elevation 540 ft, QNH 993 hPa). Your altimeter subscale is erroneously set to
1.013 hPa. Therefore, the indication will be: A) 0 ft B) 380 ft C) 1.080 ft D) 700 ft 050-01 THE ATMOSPHERE 22 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27604 (C) 27607 (A) 27609 (D) 27626 (A) 28392 (C) 28397 (B) 28399 (D) 28400 (A) 28403 (A) 27604. (all) You intend to ovefly a mountain ridge. The recommended minimum altitude for overflight according to your ICAO chart is 12.000 ft AMSL. The average air temperature is 10 °C higher than ISA, your altimeter is set to the local QNH of 1023 hPa. Which altimeter indication is needed to maintain the recomended minimum altitude? A) 11.205 ft B) 12.210 ft C) 11.250 ft D) 11.790 ft 27607. (all) You have landed at an airport, local QNH 993 hPa. After landing, you notice, that your altimeter subscale is still set to 1.013,2 hPa. Your altimeter indicates 1.200 ft. What is the airport elevation? A) 660 ft AMSL. B) 40 ft AMSL. C) 2.280 ft AMSL. D) 1.200 ft AMSL. 27609. (all) You are cruising at FL160 at an OAT of -27 °C. The sea level pressure is 1.003 hPa. Your true altitude therefore is: A) 15.630 ft B) 16.370 ft C) 16.910 ft D) 15.090 ft 27626. (all) Your altimeter indicates 3.600 ft, while set to standard pressure. You now adjust the subscale to the local QNH of 991 hPa. What will the indication be? A) 3.006 ft B) 4.194 ft C) 3.600 ft D) 3.320 ft 28392. (all) The altimeter is connected to: A) the pitot tube. B) the dynamic system. C) the static system. D) the elevator. 28397. (all) In spite of a constant altimeter reading your aircraft is loosing altitude. This could be caused by: A) flying towards high pressure. B) flying towards low pressure. C) the standard air pressure has fallen. D) increased temperature.
28399. (all) What altimeter reading would you expect when landing at an airfield 3.000 ft above MSL, altimeter setting is QFE for the field and local temperature is +25 °C? A) 3.300 ft B) 3.000 ft C) 2.700 ft D) 0 ft 28400. (all) The temperature is -15 °C on an airport 3.000 ft above mean sea level. Which of the following statements is correct? A) QFF > QNH B) QFF = QFE C) QFF = QNH D) QNH = QFE 28403. (all) Which of altimeter settings is used when flying in flight levels? A) 1013,25 hPa B) 1025,13 hPa C) QFF D) QFE 050-02 WIND 23 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8940 (C) 8944 (A) 8947 (D) 8952 (A) 8953 (A) 8963 (B) 8988 (A) 8994 (B) 10561 (A) 10562 (B) 10600 (D) 10632 (D) 10648 (D) 10687 (B) 050-02-01 Definition and measurement 8940. (all) What is the approximate speed of a 40 kts wind, expressed in m/sec? A) 25 m/sec. B) 15 m/sec. C) 20 m/sec. D) 30 m/sec. 8944. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) What does zone A depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm sector. D) The cold front. 8947. (all) What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels? A) Direction relative to grid north and speed in km/h. B) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots. C) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in km/h. D) Direction relative to true north and speed in knots. 8952. (all) The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer because: A) the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force. B) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same windspeed in the upper air. C) the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system. D) the friction of the air with the Earth s surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to the gradient force.
8953. (all) During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the: A) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon. B) surface wind speed tends to be highest at night. C) angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early afternoon. D) wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon. 8963. (all) (Refer to figure 050-08) Which air mass and cloud depiction matches the routing A-B? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1 8988. (all) (Refer to figure 050-90) On which route do you expect moderate to severe CAT at FL300? A) Zurich-Rome. B) London-Zurich. C) Zurich-Copenhagen. D) Paris-Bordeaux. 8994. (all) Wind is caused by? A) Mixing of fronts. B) Horizontal pressure difference. C) Earth rotation. D) Surface friction. 10561. (all) (Refer to figure 050-92) What wind speed do you expect over Rome at FL340? A) 145 kts B) 340 kts C) 95 kts D) 140 km/h 10562. (all) What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars? A) Coriolis force. B) Surface friction. C) The greater density of the air at the surface. D) The greater atmospheric pressure at the surface. 10600. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) What are the weather conditions for a flight Zurich-Stockholm at FL240? A) Your flight will be mainly in clouds, outside of CAT areas. B) Your flight will be mainly clear of clouds, intermittently in icing conditions. C) You may encounter thunderstorms intermittently. D) Your flight will be permanently clear of clouds. 10632. (all) What is the approximate speed of a 25 kts wind, expressed in kilometres per hour? A) 60 km/h B) 35 km/h C) 55 km/h
D) 45 km/h 10648. (all) What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas? A) The pressure gradient force. B) Surface friction. C) Katabatic force. D) Coriolis force. 10687. (all) What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots: A) 55 kts B) 50 kts C) 60 kts D) 70 kts 050-02 WIND 24 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10702 (A) 10783 (D) 15860 (D) 15862 (A) 16600 (C) 16609 (D) 24219 (A) 24294 (D) 27037 (A) 27038 (A) 27114 (A) 27115 (B) 27131 (B) 27134 (C) 10702. (all) The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by: A) curvature of isohypses. B) friction. C) horizontal temperature gradients. D) slope of pressure surfaces. 10783. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) What does zone B depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm sector. D) The cold front. 15860. (all) In an area of converging air in low level: A) convective clouds can be dissolved. B) stratified clouds can be dissolved. C) clouds can not be formed. D) clouds can be formed. 15862. (all) What relationship exists between the wind at 3.000 feet and the surface wind? A) The wind at 3.000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker. B) They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction. C) They are practically the same except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles. D) The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3.000 feet and is usually weaker. 16600. (all) Buys Ballots law implies that: A) the wind blows anti-clockwise round depressions in both hemispheres. B) the wind blows clockwise round an anticyclone in the southern hemisphere.
C) the wind blows clockwise round a depression in the southern hemisphere only. D) the wind blows anti-clockwise round anti-cyclones in the northern hemisphere. 16609. (all) Which of the following statements is true? A) A gale has an average speed of 33 kts or more. B) A gust is a squall which lasts for several minutes. C) The more stable the atmosphere, the more turbulence. D) The more stable the atmosphere, the less turbulence. 24219. (all) A wind of 20 knots corresponds to an approximate speed of: A) 10 m/sec B) 40 m/sec C) 10 km/h D) 50 km/h 24294. (all) In the mid-latitudes of the northern hemisphere the wind blows: A) direct from high to low pressure areas. B) clockwise around anticyclones and cyclones. C) clockwise around cyclones and anti-clockwise around anticyclones. D) clockwise around anticyclones and anti-clockwise around cyclones. 27037. (all) What is drizzle? A) Small water droplets of 0,2 to 0,5 mm in diameter. B) Water droplets of more than 0,5 mm in diameter. C) Precipitation which forms mostly in CB and CU clouds. D) Typical precipitation, when NS clouds are present. 27038. (all) What (amongst other) is the purpose for consulting an SWC chart prior to flight? A) To avoid areas with turbulence. B) To obtain exact weather information for the destination airport. C) To obtain complete weather forecastsfor the entire route of flight. D) To obtain weather information for a VFR flight only. 27114. (all) Evaporation is the change of: A) liquid water to water vapour. B) water vapour to ice. C) invisible water vapour to liquid water. D) ice diredly to water vapour. 27115. (all) Water droplets often condense or persist at temperature colder than 0 °C. What are the droplets called which are colder than 0 °C? A) Super-heated water droplets. B) Supercooled water droplets. C) Ice. D) None of the above. 27131. (all) The direction of the pressure gradient force is? A) Towards high pressure. B) Towards low pressure. C) Parallel to the isobars. D) Same direction as the friction force. 27134. (all)
Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at some altitude above the ground? A) Snow. B) Hail. C) Ice pellets. D) Ice crystals. 050-02 WIND 25 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27141 (B) 27143 (C) 27144 (B) 27147 (C) 27151 (A) 27162 (A) 27194 (C) 27208 (A) 27245 (C) 27250 (A) 27252 (B) 27314 (A) 27315 (A) 27410 (A) 27141. (all) Thermal turbulence is caused by: A) wing-tip vortexes. B) vertical movements due convection flow in unstable air. C) deviations due to mountain terrain. D) smooth air movements upon smooth subdratum. 27143. (all) What relationship exists between the winds at 2.000 ft above the surface and the surface winds? A) The winds at 2.000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction. B) The winds at 2.000 ft and the surface winds are approximately the same except when eddies form due to obstructions. C) The winds at 2.000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker. D) The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2.000 ft and are visually weaker. 27144. (all) Possible mountain wave turbulence should be anticipated in cases where windspeeds of: A) 20 kts or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is unstable. B) 25 kts or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable. C) 25 kts or greater blow down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable. D) 25 kts or greater blow parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable. 27147. (all) Which force, in the northern hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars? A) Centrifugal. B) Pressure gradient. C) Coriolis. D) Advection. 27151. (all) A trough is a: A) kind of low pressure. B) high pressure ridge. C) tropical thunderstorm. D) tropical wind. 27162. (all) If you are flying into an area of low pressure, what drift would you expect to be experience in the northern hemisphere?
A) Right drift. B) None C) Left drift. D) Ice directly to water vapor. 27194. (all) A wind that has changed clockwise in direction can be said to have: A) reduced B) backed C) veered D) advanced 27208. (all) There is a natural tendency for air to flow from areas of: A) high pressure to low pressure. B) low pressure to high pressure. C) mountainous areas to flat areas. D) flat terrain towards the sea. 27245. (all) A V-shaped extension of a low pressure area is called a: A) ridge B) col C) trough D) occlusion 27250. (all) If you stand with your back to the wind in the northern hemisphere, the low pressure will be: A) on your left. B) on your right. C) behind you. D) ahead of you. 27252. (all) The wind at the surface is 240/15 kts. What is it most likely to be at 2.000 ft? A) 210/30 kts B) 270/30 kts C) 280/15 kts D) 210/15 kts 27314. (all) What prevents air from flowing directly from high to low pressure areas over western Europe? A) Coriolis force. B) Surface friction. C) Pressure gradient force. D) The presence of occlusions. 27315. (all) The general circulation of air associated with a low pressure area in there is: A) inward, upward and counter clockwise. B) inward, upward and clockwise. C) outward, downward and clockwise. D) inward, downward and counter clockwise. 27410. (all) How is wind measured? A) 8-10 m above the ground on a mastwith an anemometer. B) 2 m above the ground in a weather shelter. C) 2 m above the ground on a mast with an anemomenter. D) 8-10 m above the ground on a mast with a pluiriometet. 050-02 WIND 26
© 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27419 (B) 27423 (C) 27432 (C) 27439 (A) 27440 (A) 27445 (A) 27446 (A) 27447 (A) 27461 (A) 27477 (A) 27485 (A) 27491 (A) 27495 (A) 27499 (A) 27502 (A) 27506 (A) 27419. (all) What is the name of the low level winds between the subtropical high pressure belt and the TCZ? A) Monsoon. B) Trade winds. C) Easterly wave. D) Low level jetstream. 27423. (all) What is the most frequent wind in valleys, caused by thermal effects? A) Mountain wind by day. B) Mountain wind by night. C) Valley wind by day. D) Valley wind by night. 27432. (all) What can you expect at FL180, when the wind is geostrophic and your true altitude is 18.000 ft? A) Crosswind from the right. B) Crosswind from the left. C) No crosswind. D) None of the above. 27439. (all) Where can ajetstream be observed? A) On a Significant Weather Chart (SWC). B) On a high level pressure chart. C) On a surface chart. D) All of the above. 27440. (all) What can on a Significant Weather Chart be depicted? A) The speed and direction of a surface front. B) The speed and direction of an upper front. C) The amount of rain in a certain area. D) The actual weather situation. 27445. (all) What cloud type is prone to +RA? A) NS B) AS C) CC D) ST 27446. (all) When is heavy precipitation unlikely? A) In summer, with SC and AC clouds. B) In summer, with CB and CU clouds. C) In spring and autumn, with NS and CB clouds. D) In winter, with CB clouds. 27447. (all) The precipitation form +TSRA is most probably related to the following cloud type: A) CB B) CU C) NS D) CC 27461. (all) What happens when you descend from 2.000 ft to the surface, when no fronts are present? A) The wind backs and decreases.
B) The wind veers and decreases. C) The wind veers and increases. D) The wind backs and the wind speed remains more or less constant. 27477. (all) A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart: A) is an area of convergence and widespread ascent. B) is an area of divergence and widespread ascent. C) leads to descending air masses. D) is a narrow band of ascent. 27485. (all) Name the conditions for the formation of radiation fog: A) flat landscape, a clear night, no wind conditions. B) over the sea with a 20 kts wind. C) mountainous terrain with winds of approx. 10 kts, overcast skies. D) flat landscape, a clear night, winds of 10-20 kts. 27491. (all) You fly from east to west at the 500 hPa level in the northern hemisphere: A) if the wind is from the north, there is a gain in altitude. B) if the wind is from the south, there is a gain in altitude. C) if you encounter a northerly drift, there is a gain in altitude. D) you fly towards an area of low pressure, and, therefore, experience a less in altitude. 27495. (all) Wind at 2.000 ft 200/40 kts. What would you expect at the surface over the sea approximately? A) 190/30 kts B) 185/40 kts C) 210/30 kts D) 220/40 kts 27499. (all) Which statement is true for condensation? A) Latent heat is released to the atmosphere. B) Latent heat is transformed into pure energy. C) Latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding air by the water droplet. D) Precipitation forms. 27502. (all) Of which air mass does the warm sector of a polar front depression consist? A) Maritime tropical air. B) Maritime polar air. C) Continental arctic air. D) Continental equatorial air. 27506. (all) Which statement is true, when isobars stand close together on a surface chart? A) Strong winds are present. B) Lights winds prevail. C) A high presure area is approaching. D) Westerly winds prevail. 050-02 WIND 27 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27643 (A) 27652 (D) 27653 (B) 27655 (C) 27656 (D) 27660 (D) 27745 (A) 2849 (B) 8918 (B) 8965 (C) 8993 (B) 10606 (A) 10631 (A) 10644 (A)
27643. (all) The vertical extension of radiation fog during the winter over flat land is approximately: A) 500 ft. B) 1.000 ft. C) 2.000 ft. D) more than 2.000 ft. 27652. (all) What is sublimation? A) The change of state from ice to water. B) The change of state from water to water vapour. C) The change of state from water vapour to water. D) The change of state from ice to water vapour or from water vapour to ice. 27653. (all) What is evaporation? A) The change of state from ice to water. B) The change of state from water to water vapour. C) The change of state from water vapour to water. D) The change of state from ice to water vapour or from water vapour to ice. 27655. (all) What is condensation? A) The change of state from ice to water. B) The change of state from water to water vapour. C) The change of state from water vapour to water. D) The change of state from ice to water vapour or from water vapour to ice. 27656. (all) What is freezing? A) The change of state from ice to water. B) The change of state from water to water vapour. C) The change of state from water vapour to water. D) The change of state from water to ice. 27660. (all) In an anticyclone in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars, the speed of the gradient wind: A) is lower than the geostrophic wind. B) equals the cyclostrophic wind. C) depends on Coriolis force only. D) is greater than the geostrophic wind. 27745. (all) Why are there no or very few clouds, when a high pressure area is present? A) Because of subsiding air, subject to adiabatic heating. B) Because of rising air, cooling adiabatically at the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. C) The air is warmed from below. D) Warm air moves over a cold surface, thus, generating stability. 050-02-02 Primary cause of wind 2849. (all) For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be? A) Greater at 60°N than at 30°N. B) Greater at 30°N than at 60°N. C) Equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component. D) The same at all latitudes north or south of 15°. 8918. (all) The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is (other conditions being
the same): A) always higher. B) higher if curvature is anticyclonic. C) always lower. D) higher if curvature is cyclonic. 8965. (all) What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather map are very close together? A) Strong and parallel to the isobars. B) Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars. C) Strong and flowing across the isobars. D) Moderate and parallel to the isobars. 8993. (all) In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL100? A) Wind from the left. B) Wind from the right. C) Tailwind with no drift. D) Headwind with no drift. 10606. (all) Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are: A) straight lines and no friction is involved. B) curved lines and no friction is involved. C) straight lines and friction is involved. D) curved lines and friction is involved. 10631. (all) The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because the: A) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient. B) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient. C) coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient. D) coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force. 10644. (all) For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will be: A) greatest at 40°N. B) the same at all latitudes. C) greatest at 60°N. D) least at 50°N. 050-02 WIND 28 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10645 (D) 10649 (B) 10656 (B) 10692 (D) 10697 (A) 10698 (A) 10701 (A) 10719 (C) 10777 (C) 15863 (A) 15865 (B) 15866 (C) 16595 (C) 16596 (C) 10645. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in: A) falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds. B) rising pressure and likely formation of clouds. C) rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds. D) falling pressure and likely formation of clouds. 10649. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is: A) less than the geostrophic wind. B) greater than the geostrophic wind. C) the same as the thermal component. D) proportional only to the Coriolis force.
10656. (all) The greater the pressure gradient the: A) further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind. B) closer the isobars and the stronger the wind. C) closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures. D) further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature. 10692. (all) Whilst flying at FL180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircrafts true altitude? A) Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered. B) It increases. C) It remains constant. D) It decreases. 10697. (all) When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely to be: A) strong. B) blowing perpendicular to the isobars. C) changing direction rapidly. D) light. 10698. (all) Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart. A) When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. B) Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars. C) Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature. D) When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds. 10701. (all) Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds? A) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force. B) Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force. C) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force. D) Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force. 10719. (all) An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2.000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the center of low pressure? A) To the left. B) Behind. C) In front. D) To the right. 10777. (all) Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground? A) At the center of a high-pressure system. B) At the center of a low-pressure system. C) In the transition zone between two air masses. D) Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months. 15863. (all) The geostrophic wind depends on: A) density, earths rotation, geographic latitude. B) earths rotation, geographic latitude, centrifugal force. C) geographic latitude, centrifugal force, height. D) centrifugal force, height, pressure gradient.
15865. (all) The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the: A) density of the air. B) horizontal pressure gradient. C) curvature of isobars. D) sine of latitude. 15866. (all) Geostrophic wind: A) always increases with increasing height. B) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere. C) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force. D) is directly proportional to the density of the air. 16595. (all) A pressure gradient is said to exist when: A) two columns of air have different temperatures. B) surface pressure is compared at two different points on the earths surface. C) two points at the same level have a different atmospheric pressure. D) two points on the earth s surface have the same isobar passing through them. 16596. (all) The pressure gradient force acts: A) parallel to the isobars with low pressure on its left (in the northern hemisphere). B) perpendicular to the isobars with low pressure behind it. C) perpendicular to the isobars and away from the high pressure. D) parallel to the isobars and towards the low pressure. 050-02 WIND 29 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16598 (C) 16599 (A) 16601 (C) 16602 (A) 16603 (D) 16604 (C) 16605 (A) 16606 (A) 16607 (B) 24270 (D) 24398 (B) 26324 (D) 27041 (A) 27042 (C) 16598. (all) The wind, which blows when the gradient and geostrophic forces are in balance, is: A) the gradient wind. B) the Coriolis wind. C) the geostrophic wind. D) the surface. 16599. (all) A geostrophic wind is a true wind only under the following conditions: A) straight and parallel isobars, unchanging pressure field, no friction. B) uniformly curved isobars, constant pressure field, 2.000 ft wind. C) circular isobars, slack pressure gradient, no friction. D) parallel isobars, constant pressure field, no friction. 16601. (all) For a given latitude, which of the following statements is true: A) Coriolis force acts at right angels to the wind and affects its speed and direction. B) Coriolis force acts at right angels to the wind and affects speed but not direction.
C) Coriolis force acts at right angels to the wind and affects direction but not speed. D) none of the above since the geostrophic force is only an apparent force. 16602. (all) With balanced flow, which of the following statements is untrue? A) The Coriolis force decreases near the poles. B) The Coriolis force is non-existent at the equator. C) The Coriolis force varies in direct proportion to the wind speed. D) The pressure gradient force is a maximum at the poles. 16603. (all) The gradient wind: A) blows across the isobars when there is a surface pressure gradient. B) is the 2.000 ft geostrophic wind. C) is the surface wind affected by friction. D) blows parallel to curved isobars due to a combination of the pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, and centrifugal force. 16604. (all) The effect of curved isobars on gradient wind speed correction is: A) greater at high latitudes. B) low latitudes. C) less at high latitudes. D) no effect. 16605. (all) The gradient wind is: A) less than the geostrophic wind around a low. B) more than the goeostrophic wind around a low. C) less than the geostrophic wind around a high. D) none of the above. 16606. (all) In the northern hemisphere, surface friction causes the geostrophic wind to: A) back and decrease. B) veer and decrease. C) back and increase. D) veer and increase. 16607. (all) Which of the following statements is untrue? A) At night the surface wind is lighter in speed and more inclined towards low pressure. B) Over land, the surface wind is backed by 15° to the isobars and and is 2/3 geostrophic speed. C) The steeper the pressure gradient, the less marked the noctumal effect. D) At night, the wind can be geostrophic down to 1.000 ft or less. 24270. (all) For the same horizontal distance between adjacent isobars at latitudes 50°N and 30°N the gradient wind speed will be least at latitude: A) 30°N in an anticyclone. B) 50°N in an anticyclone. C) 30°N with a cyclonic circulation. D) 50°N with a cyclonic circulation. 24398. (all)
When compared to the geostrophic wind in the northern hemisphere, surface friction will cause the surface wind to: A) back and increase. B) back and decrease. C) veer and decrease. D) veer and increase. 26324. (all) The flow of air parallel to the isobars at a speed which is proportional to the pressure gradient, is known as the: A) equivalent wind. B) thermal wind. C) isallobaric wind. D) geostrophic wind. 27041. (all) State the altitude at which the core of the Arctic Jet Stream can be found: A) 20.000 ft B) 30.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 50.000 ft 27042. (all) State the altitude at which the core of the Subtropical Jet Stream can be found: A) 20.000 ft B) 30.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 50.000 ft 050-02 WIND 30 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27140 (B) 27214 (C) 27407 (A) 27408 (B) 27453 (A) 27455 (A) 27484 (A) 27494 (A) 27503 (A) 27612 (A) 27658 (D) 28383 (A) 28439 (C) 28456 (A) 27140. (all) Which is a characteristic of low level windshear as it relates to f rontal activity? A) The amount of windshear in cold fronts is insignificant and does not have to be considered. B) With a warm front, the most critical period is just before the front has passed the airport. C) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport. D) Turbulence will always exist in windshear conditions. 27214. (all) Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high and low pressure systems that are shown on a pressure chart: A) surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars. B) when the isobars are far apart, crests of standing waves may be marked by lenticular clouds. C) when the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is stronger, and velocities are higher. D) when the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is weaker, and wind velocities are lower. 27407. (all) When flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere you experience a right drift: A) your TA decreases.
B) your TA increases. C) your TA remains unchanged. D) not enough information is provided to determine the TA. 27408. (all) When flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere you experience a left drift: A) your TA decreases. B) your TA increases. C) your TA remains unchanged. D) not enough information is provided to determine the TA. 27453. (all) What can be said about a wind speed of 350 kts in a jetstream? A) It is possible, but rare. B) It is impossible. C) A wind speed of 350 kts is common. D) It is only possible in a subtropical jetstream. 27455. (all) A warm front is approaching an airport: A) QFE and QNH decrease. B) QFE increases and QNH decreases. C) QFE decreases and QNH increases. D) QNH decreases, while QFE remains unchanged. 27484. (all) Where do you encounter the strongest winds close to the ground? A) In the transition zone between air masses. B) In a cold air mass. C) At a point distant from the center of the occlusion. D) When a ridge is present. 27494. (all) How is the weather in Bombay in early July influenced? A) By SW monsoon. B) By NE monsoon. C) By the Harmattan. D) By the trade winds. 27503. (all) What clouds do you expect approximately 800 km ahead of a warm front? A) CS B) AC C) NS D) CU 27612. (all) The average slope of a warm front is approximately: A) 1:150 B) 1:250 C) 1:500 D) 1:80 27658. (all) What is the geostrophic wind? A) It blows along curved isobars, and is affected by Coriolis force and centrifugal force. B) It blows parallel to straight isobars when there are no gradient forces present. C) It blows along curved isobars when frictional forces are present. D) It blows parallel to straight isobars, when no friction is present. 28383. (all) Due to the diurnal variations of temperature the following
types of wind arise: A) sea and land breeze. B) trade-winds. C) monsoon winds. D) anabatic winds. 28439. (all) List the two forces in balance in a geostrophic wind: A) pressure force and friction force. B) centrifugal force and friction force. C) gradient force and Coriolis force. D) coriolis force and centrifugal force. 28456. (all) The wind speed at an isobaric surface in the northern hemisphere: A) increases with increased inclination of the isobaric surface. B) is greatest when the isobaric surface is horizontal. C) is not influenced by inclination of the isobaric surface. D) decreases with increased inclination of the isobaric surface. 050-02 WIND 31 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28464 (B) 8968 (C) 8976 (B) 8998 (D) 10566 (B) 10576 (D) 10650 (C) 10670 (A) 10781 (D) 10790 (D) 15861 (A) 16437 (C) 24262 (D) 28464. (all) When the inclination of isobar surfaces are equal, the geostrophic wind velocity depends upon A) Air density. B) Latitude. C) Temperature. D) Centrifugal force. 050-02-03 General circulation 8968. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone U is in area of: A) SW trade winds. B) travelling depressions. C) NE trade winds. D) subtropical high pressure. 8976. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL170: A) 200/50 kts. B) 230/35 kts. C) 060/50 kts. D) 030/35 kts. 8998. (all) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure belt? A) 55° - 75°. B) 10° - 15°. C) 35° - 55°. D) 25° - 35°. 10566. (all) In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds are: A) NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer.
B) NE trade winds. C) SE trade winds. D) SW winds throughout the whole year. 10576. (all) The average slope of a cold front is in the order of: A) 1:150 B) 1:250 C) 1:500 D) 1:80 10650. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone Y is an area of: A) SE trade winds. B) NE trade winds. C) travelling low pressure systems. D) subtropical high pressure systems. 10670. (all) (Refer to figure 050-91) What is the average wind for the route Shannon-Lisbon, FL290: A) 360/80 kts. B) 030/70 kts. C) 190/75 kts. D) 340/90 kts. 10781. (all) (Refer to figure 050-91) What is the average temperature for the route GenevaStockholm, FL260? A) -55 °C B) -51 °C C) -63 °C D) -47 °C 10790. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone T is an area of: A) NE trade winds. B) SE trade winds. C) travelling low pressure systems. D) subtropical high pressure systems. 15861. (all) You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct? A) If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude. B) If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude. C) If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude. D) If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude. 16437. (all) Which of the following alternatives is the correct one, regarding the surface wind in relation to the air pressure in the northern hemisphere? A) The wind over land blows parallel to the isobars. B) The wind around a high pressure blows clockwise and slants across the isobars towards higher pressure. C) The wind blows counter-clockwise around a low and slants across the isobars towards lower pressure. D) The wind blows counter-clockwise around a high and clockwise around a low.
24262. (all) During periods of undisturbed radiation weather, overland, the: A) wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon. B) surface wind speed tends to be highest at night. C) angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be lowest in the mid afternoon. D) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the mid afternoon. 050-02 WIND 32 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 26321 (B) 28381 (A) 28460 (C) 28482 (A) 8933 (A) 8981 (C) 8983 (B) 10676 (B) 10728 (D) 16329 (A) 26321. (all) After a sunny day, followed by a long clear night, you takeoff from an airfield at mid-latitudes an hour before sunrise. The field is not situated close to the coast. Though the pressure gradient is rather large, the easterly surface wind is weak and makes: A) large but gradual increase in wind speed and large but gradual veering of the wind up to a height of 5.000 ft. B) a sudden strong increase in wind speed and strong veering of the wind a short time after takeoff. C) little increase in wind speed and little veering of the wind up to an height of 5.000 ft. D) a squally wind up to great heights. 28381. (all) In the northern hemisphere the surface wind is blowing around a low pressure: A) anticlockwise, oblique to the isobars towards the low pressure center. B) parallel to the isobars. C) across the isobars. D) opposite the situation described in A. 28460. (all) How does the geostrophic wind speed change with latitude? A) Increase with increasing latitude to a certain latitude. B) Decrease with increasing latitude to a certain latitude. C) Increase with decreasing latitude. D) Latitude does not affect wind force. 28482. (all) Buys Ballots law of winds states that in the northern hemisphere standing with your back to the wind, you have: A) a low pressure ahead at an angle to your left, and a high pressure behind you at an angle to the right. B) a low pressure ahead at an angle to your right, and a high pressure behind you at an angle to the left. C) a high pressure ahead at an angle to your right, and a low pressure behind you at an angle to the left. D) a high pressure ahead at an angle to your left, and a low pressure behind you at an angle to the right. 050-02-04 Turbulence 8933. (all) Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence? A) Altocumulus lenticularis. B) Stratocumulus.
C) Cirrocumulus. D) Nimbostratus. 8981. (all) Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description? There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/ or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0,5 to 1,0 g at the aircrafts center of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking are difficult. A) Severe B) Light C) Moderate D) Violent 8983. (all) What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL100? A) Moderate turbulence in NS cloud. B) Severe turbulence in CB cloud. C) Light turbulence in CB cloud. D) Light turbulence in ST cloud. 10676. (all) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced: A) immediately after sunset. B) during the early afternoon. C) during early morning hours before sunrise. D) about midmorning. 10728. (all) Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of: A) a high risk of thunderstorms. B) poor visibility at surface. C) smooth flying conditions below the cloud level. D) turbulence at and below the cloud level. 16329. (all) If a strong wind perpendicular to a mountains decreases or reverses in direction at medium and high levels the likely result is: A) traveling rotors with very severe turbulence. B) stationary rotors with very severe turbulence. C) stationary rotors with light turbulence. D) traveling rotors with light turbulence. 050-02 WIND 33 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8913 (A) 8955 (D) 8962 (D) 8996 (B) 10647 (C) 10660 (B) 10671 (C) 10693 (A) 10725 (B) 10794 (C) 10797 (C) 15789 (D) 8913. (all) If Paris reports a wind of 080/10 kts on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2.000 feet above the ground? A) 110/20 kts B) 080/15 kts C) 050/20 kts D) 080/05 kts 8955. (all)
You are flying at 2.500 ft AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)? A) South. B) South-southwest. C) Southwest. D) South-southeast. 8962. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction towards the low pressure area because: A) turbulence is formed and pressure decreases. B) the pressure gradient increases. C) turbulence is formed and pressure increases. D) wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases. 8996. (all) In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows: A) from a low pressure area to a high pressure area. B) counter-clockwise around, and toward the center of, a low pressure area. C) clockwise around, and away from the center of, a low pressure area. D) counter-clockwise around, and away from the center of, a high pressure area. 10647. (all) In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by: A) the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force. B) centrifugal force. C) frictional forces. D) the curvature of the isobars. 10660. (all) If Paris reports a wind of 190/15 kts on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2.000 feet above the ground? A) 160/20 kts B) 220/30 kts C) 250/25 kts D) 220/10 kts 10671. (all) At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind: A) veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer. B) backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer. C) veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer. D) backs in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer. 10693. (all) In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate: A) 340/20 B) 030/20 C) 340/28 D) 030/28 10725. (all)
The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because the: A) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient. B) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient. C) effect of Coriolis is added to friction. D) Coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force. 10794. (all) If Paris reports a wind of 300/12 kts on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2.000 feet above the ground? A) 300/25 kts B) 230/30 kts C) 330/25 kts D) 270/20 kts 10797. (all) If Paris reports a wind of 160/20 kts on the METAR, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height of 2.000 feet above the ground: A) 140/20 kts B) 160/30 kts C) 190/40 kts D) 170/15 kts 15789. (all) Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5.000 ft AGL are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference between these two wind directions? A) A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes. B) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface. C) The influence of warm air at the lower altitude. D) Friction between the wind and the surface. 050-02-05 Variation of wind with height 050-02 WIND 34 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15838 (C) 15859 (B) 15864 (D) 28453 (B) 8905 (C) 8927 (C) 8942 (D) 10577 (B) 10590 (A) 10599 (C) 10621 (D) 10641 (C) 10658 (C) 15838. (all) An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon? A) Tailwind. B) Headwind. C) Crosswind from the left. D) Crosswind from the right. 15859. (all) During a descent from 2.000 ft above the surface to the surface (no frontal passage) the wind normally: A) veers and decreases. B) backs and decreases. C) veers and increases. D) backs and increases. 15864. (all) The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on: A) wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature.
B) roughness of surface, temperature, local time. C) temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate. D) stability, wind speed, roughness of surface. 28453. (all) Describe the change of wind through the friction layer from the ground and up: A) decreased force and veering. B) lncreased force and veering. C) increased force and backing. D) increased force and turning 180°. 050-02-06 Local winds 8905. (all) Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains constant? A) There is a cross wind from the right. B) There is a cross wind from the left. C) There is no cross wind. D) Without knowing temperature at FL180 this question can not be answered. 8927. (all) An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2.000 feet) and going directly towards the center of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from? A) From the left and slightly on the tail. B) From the right and slightly on the nose. C) From the right and slightly on the tail. D) From the left and slightly on the nose. 8942. (all) In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows: A) during the day up from the valley. B) at night up from the valley. C) during the day down from the mountains. D) at night down from the mountains. 10577. (all) In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows: A) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze. B) during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze. C) during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze. D) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze. 10590. (all) Which of the following is true of a land breeze? A) It blows from land to water. B) It blows from water to land. C) It blows by day. D) It blows only at noon. 10599. (all) Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in: A) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface. B) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface. C) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface. D) veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface. 10621. (all)
A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny afternoon? A) Parallel to the coastline. B) Land to sea. C) Variable. D) Sea to land. 10641. (all) In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1.000 ft AGL directly towards the center of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from: A) about 45° to the right of directly ahead. B) right and behind. C) left and behind. D) directly ahead. 10658. (all) The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward the: A) valley during daylight hours. B) mountain at night. C) mountain during daylight hours. D) valley during daylight as much as at night. 050-02 WIND 35 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10662 (C) 10681 (B) 10684 (B) 10726 (A) 15883 (D) 16611 (C) 24211 (B) 24317 (A) 27345 (C) 28449 (A) 8906 (C) 8930 (C) 8931 (D) 8956 (B) 10662. (all) The sea breeze is a wind from the sea: A) blowing at night in mid-latitudes. B) that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime. C) occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime. D) occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime. 10681. (all) When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large body of water will experience wind: A) continually from land to water. B) from the water in daytime and from the land at night. C) continually from water to the land. D) from the land in daytime and from the water at night. 10684. (all) An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny afternoon? A) Crosswind from the left. B) Crosswind from the right. C) Tailwind. D) Headwind. 10726. (all) A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows: A) down the slope during the night. B) up the slope during the day. C) down the slope during the day. D) up the slope during the night.
15883. (all) In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2.000 ft over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be: A) 075/12 B) 060/18 C) 060/12 D) 030/08 16611. (all) The normal maximum height of the sea breeze in mid-altitudes is approximately: A) 5.000 ft B) 200 ft C) 500 - 1.000 ft D) 50 ft 24211. (all) A high pressure area (slack pressure gradient) covers part of the Mediterranean Sea and coastal region during the summer. What surface wind direction is likely at an airport at the coast on a sunny afternoon? A) Land to sea. B) Sea to land. C) Variable. D) Parallel to the coastline. 24317. (all) Sea breezes are most likely to occur when: A) slack pressure gradient and clear skies result in relatively high land temperatures. B) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist. C) a strong pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and clear skies at night exist. D) a slack pressure gradient, relatively high sea temperatures and overcast conditions persist. 27345. (all) Which type wind flows downslope becoming warmer and dryer? A) Land breeze. B) Valley wind. C) Foehn wind. D) Anabatic wind. 28449. (AIR: atpl) What are trade winds? A) The wind zones towards the Intertropical Convergence Zone. B) The westerly wind zones. C) The polar easterly winds. D) Foehn winds in alpine valleys. 050-02-07 Jet streams 8906. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL350 in July? A) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar front jet stream. B) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream. C) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams. D) One subtropical jet stream.
8930. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream? A) 70 kts B) 50 kts C) 60 kts D) 100 kts 8931. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected? A) About 12.000 ft above the core. B) The warm air side of the core. C) Exactly in the center of the core. D) The cold air side of the core. 8956. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL370) from Bombay (19°N 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect? A) Light winds diagonal to the route. B) Headwinds. C) Tailwinds. D) Strong northerly winds. 050-02 WIND 36 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 8987 (C) 10565 (D) 10568 (D) 10569 (B) 10592 (D) 10605 (D) 10609 (C) 10619 (D) 10626 (A) 10633 (C) 10640 (C) 10643 (B) 10667 (B) 8987. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) While crossing a jet stream at right angles in western Europe (3.000 ft below its core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind? A) A headwind. B) Crosswind from the right. C) Crosswind from the left. D) A tailwind. 10565. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found? A) Just below the cold-air tropopause. B) In the cold air mass. C) Just above the warm-air tropopause. D) In the warm air mass. 10568. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round? A) Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream. B) Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream. C) Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream. D) Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream. 10569. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced? A) A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms. B) A curved jet stream near a deep trough. C) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer. D) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area. 10592. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream
gives the following windprofile (northern hemisphere). 900 hPa 220/20 kts 800 hPa 220/25 kts 700 hPa 230/35 kts 500 hPa 260/60 kts 400 hPa 280/85 kts 300 hPa 300/100 kts 250 hPa 310/120 kts 200 hPa 310/80 kts Which system is the jet stream associated with: A) with an easterly wave. B) with a cold front. C) with a ITCZ. D) with a warm front. 10605. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe? A) FL500 B) FL200 C) FL300 D) FL400 10609. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream? A) The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region. B) The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low over Iceland. C) The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front. D) Strong winds in the upper atmosphere. 10619. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream? A) 50.000 ft B) 20.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 30.000 ft 10626. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? A) Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core. B) Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core. C) In the core of the jet stream. D) Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air. 10633. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream is correct? A) It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core. B) It and its surface projection lie in the warm air. C) It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient; the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum. D) It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core. 10640. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams?
A) Horizontal dimension. B) Vertical dimension. C) Wind direction. D) Windspeed. 10643. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core? A) 30.000 ft B) 20.000 ft C) 40.000 ft D) 50.000 ft 10667. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kts, you notice the temperature barely changes. A) You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no temperature difference between the two airmasses. B) This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core. C) Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the instruments tested. D) This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature differences are possible at these heights. 050-02 WIND 37 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10672 (D) 10690 (B) 10709 (D) 10717 (C) 10720 (B) 10727 (B) 10786 (C) 10792 (C) 10795 (D) 15813 (D) 15815 (A) 15878 (B) 16335 (B) 16355 (D) 10672. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere? A) The arctic jet stream. B) The polar night jet stream. C) The equatorial jet stream. D) The subtropical jet stream. 10690. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to be encountered? A) In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean. B) In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa. C) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain. D) Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high. 10709. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This means that: A) above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south. B) the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet. C) below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south. D) the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet. 10717. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl)
(Refer to figure 050-25) What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B)? A) Polar front jet stream. B) Equatorial jet stream. C) Sub-tropical jet stream. D) Arctic jet stream. 10720. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found? A) At about 5.500 metres altitude. B) Just below the tropopause. C) Close to the ground. D) In the stratosphere. 10727. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system? A) The easterly jet stream. B) The polar front jet stream. C) The subtropical jet stream. D) The equatorial jet stream. 10786. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the flight? A) It first increases, then decreases. B) It increases. C) It decreases. D) It remains constant. 10792. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar front jetstream moves toward the: A) south and speed decreases. B) north and speed decreases. C) south and speed increases. D) north and speed increases. 10795. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) An aircraft over western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2.500 ft below its core at right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is: A) headwind. B) from the left. C) tailwind. D) from the right. 15813. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section? A) 1/1 B) 1/10 C) 1/1000 D) 1/100 15815. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) A wind speed of 350 kts within a jet stream core should be worldwide regarded as: A) possible but a very rare phenomenon. B) not possible. C) a common occurence. D) not unusual in polar regions. 15878. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which of the following statements concerning jet streams
is correct? A) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur. B) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur. C) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur. D) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur. 16335. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) In January, a mean sub-tropical jet appears at: A) 30°S B) 30°N C) 60°S D) 50°N 16355. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) A jet stream is: A) a band of strong winds only found near thunderstorms. B) a broad band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross-section. C) a narrow band of strong winds only found near fronts. D) a narrow band of strong winds flattened and tubular in cross-section. 050-02 WIND © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16365 (A) 24251 (D) 24302 (D) 24304 (C) 24328 (D) 24371 (D) 25626 (A) 25630 (A) 25636 (C) 27454 (A) 27483 (A) 27809 (A) 28455 (A) 28457 (B) 28458 (A) 28459 (A) 38 16365. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The normal maximum speeds of the polar front jet are in the region of: A) 150 kts in January / 135 kts in July. B) 150 kts in July / 135 kts in January. C) 150 kts in July / 50 kts in January. D) 135 kts in July / 135 kts in January. 24251. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) At which time, if any, are polar front jet streams over the south pacific usually strongest? A) October. B) January. C) There is no annual variation. D) July. 24302. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Isotachs are lines joining equal: A) wind speed lapse rates. B) sea-level pressures. C) horizontal wind speed gradients. D) wind speeds. 24304. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Maximum wind speeds associated with subtropical jet streams are usually located in the: A) polar air above the tropopause. B) tropical air above the tropopause. C) tropical air below the tropopause. D) polar air below the tropopause. 24328. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the: A) tropical air above the tropical tropopause. B) polar air above the tropopause. C) polar air below the tropopause.
D) tropical air below the tropical tropopause. 24371. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is necessary for the development of a polar front jet stream? A) An unstable atmosphere up to great heights. B) Strong vertical temperature gradients. C) A uniform pressure pattern. D) Strong horizontal temperature gradients. 25626. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) (Refer to figure 050-25) What name is given to the jet stream lying across India (A)? A) Tropical jet stream. B) Polar front jet stream. C) Arctic jet stream. D) Sub-tropical jet stream. 25630. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL400 in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced? A) It decreases. B) It increases. C) It stays the same. D) It decreases and then increases. 25636. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found: A) just above the warm-air tropopause. B) in the polar air mass. C) in the tropical air mass. D) just below the cold-air tropopause. 27454. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Name the jetstream(s) which appear all year round: A) subtropical and polar front jetstream. B) subtropical jetstream only. C) polar front jetstream only. D) arctical jetstream. 27483. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) You cross a jet stream 2.500 ft below the core at a right angle over western Europe. While crossing, the temperature is increasing. What wind direction do you encounter? A) Wind from the right. B) Wind from the left. C) Information insufficient to determine wind direction. D) Calm winds. 27809. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The equatorial easterly jet is a jetstream that occurs: A) only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45.000 ft. B) only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30.000 ft. C) during the whole year in the southern hemisphere. D) during the whole year in the northern hemisphere. 28455. (all) How would you describe a jetstream? A) A zone of wind in the upper troposphere or lower stratosphere with wind forces at 60 knots minimum. B) The outflow airstream from a turbine engine. C) Any wind force above 64 knots. D) A zone of winds in connection with a squall line.
28457. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which phenomenon is often associated with a jetstream? A) Icing. B) Clear Air Turbulence (CAT). C) Windshear. D) Both icing and Clear Air Turbulence (CAT). 28458. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Severe turbulence is associated with a jetstream: A) at the low pressure side. B) at the high pressure side. C) in the core of the jetstream. D) underneath the core of the jetstream. 28459. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The approximate position of the polar front jet stream is: A) approx. 60°N. B) approx. 30°N. C) approx. 80°N. D) over the north polar area. 050-02 WIND 39 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28465 (C) 8909 (C) 10675 (A) 16613 (D) 26323 (B) 26325 (D) 28465. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which jetstream is more or less found continuously around the Earth? A) The polar front jetstream. B) The artic front jetstream. C) The subtropical jetstream. D) The equatorial jetstream. 050-02-08 Standing waves 8909. (all) (Refer to figure 050-11) In which direction does the polar front move in this picture? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 10675. (all) At the top of standing waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered is: A) altocumulus lenticularis. B) cirrostratus. C) cirrus. D) cumulus mediocris. 16613. (all) Standing waves are likely when: A) wind speeds are uniform with height. B) the atmosphere is uniformly stable. C) the wind direction is at 45° to the ridge of the hills. D) none of the above. 26323. (all) In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated with standing waves are likely to be experienced: A) on the windward side of the mountain just above the cap cloud. B) in the vicinity of the roll cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the leeward side. C) just above the lenticular cloud on the windward side.
D) between the troughs of the waves particularly 30 NM to 50 NM downwind and close to the tropopause. 26325. (all) In addition to a stable layer of air over a substantial mountain range, the conditions most favourable to the development of standing waves are A) significant moisture loss due to precipitation, rapid lowering of the tropopause in the area of the mountain range. B) steep dry adiabatic lapse rate, wind speed increasing and changing direction rapidly with increase in height. C) conditional instability, wind speed constant from a direction parallel to the mountain range. D) wind speed excess of 20 kts at the surface and increasing with height, wind direction perpendicular to the general direction of the range. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 40 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9004 (C) 9012 (D) 9018 (C) 9019 (D) 9022 (D) 9027 (C) 9040 (A) 9047 (D) 9049 (D) 9051 (D) 9064 (B) 9066 (A) 9074 (D) 050-03-01 Humidity 9004. (all) Relative humidity: A) is not affected by temperature changes of the air. B) is not affected when air is ascending or descending. C) changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains constant. D) does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains constant. 9012. (all) The dewpoint temperature: A) can not be equal to the air temperature. B) is always lower than the air temperature. C) is always higher than the air temperature. D) can be equal to the air temperature. 9018. (all) Relative humidity: A) is higher in cool air than in warm air. B) is higher in warm air than in cool air. C) increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant. D) decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant. 9019. (all) Relative humidity depends on: A) temperature of the air only. B) pressure of the air only. C) moisture content of the air only. D) moisture content and temperature of the air. 9022. (all) Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass? A) It can be used to estimate the air mass s relative humidity even if the air temperature is unknown. B) It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass. C) It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass s relative humidity. D) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of
the air mass. 9027. (all) During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12 °C and a dew point of +5 °C were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation? A) It must decrease to +6 °C. B) It must decrease by 5 °C. C) It must decrease to +5 °C. D) It must decrease to +7 °C. 9040. (all) (Refer to figure 050-54) Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture? A) In central Europe. B) Over the North sea. C) In the Mediterranean sea. D) Over the Baltics. 9047. (all) Dew point is defined as: A) the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat. B) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure. C) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity. D) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a given pressure. 9049. (all) Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between: A) dew point and air temperature. B) water vapour weight and dry air weight. C) water vapour weight and humid air volume. D) actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content. 9051. (all) When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity? A) It increases up to 100%, then remains stable. B) It increases. C) It remains constant. D) It decreases. 9064. (all) The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it? A) It is not influenced by changing water vapour. B) It increases with increasing water vapour. C) It decreases with increasing water vapour. D) It is only influenced by temperature. 9066. (all) Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity? A) Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100. B) Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100. C) Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100. D) Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100. 9074. (all) How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature?
A) When temperature decreases, the the dewpoint remain constant. B) When temperature increases, the and the dewpoint decreases. C) When temperature decreases, the and the dewpoint increases. D) When temperature increases, the and the dewpoint remains constant.
relative humidity and relative humidity increases, relative humidity decreases, relative humidity decreases,
050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 41 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9077 (B) 9083 (D) 9093 (D) 9094 (A) 9100 (B) 10174 (C) 10192 (B) 10193 (C) 16563 (D) 26317 (C) 27112 (D) 27113 (B) 27116 (D) 27118 (A) 9077. (all) The dewpoint temperature: A) can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant. B) can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant. C) can not be equal to the air temperature. D) can not be lower than the air temperature. 9083. (all) The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the: A) dewpoint. B) relative humidity. C) stability of the air. D) air temperature. 9093. (all) The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in: A) air with low temperature. B) moist air. C) air with high temperature. D) dry air. 9094. (all) (Refer to figure 050-54) What does this picture depict? A) A westerly wave over central Europe. B) A high pressure area over central Europe. C) South foehn. D) North foehn. 9100. (all) What does dewpoint mean? A) The temperature at which ice melts. B) The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach saturation. C) The freezing level (danger of icing). D) The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the same. 10174. (all) (Refer to figure 050-55) Which weather situation can be expected during the day at Zurich airport? A) TAF LSZH 1601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002= B) TAF LSZH 1601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003
OVC015 = C) TAF LSZH 1601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = D) TAF LSZH 1601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 10192. (all) (Refer to figure 050-52) Where do the westerly waves occur in this picture? A) In central Europe. B) Over Scandinavia. C) In the Mediterranean Sea. D) Over the Baltics. 10193. (all) How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature changes? A) It increases with increasing temperature. B) It is not influenced by temperature changes. C) It decreases with increasing temperature. D) It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour. 16563. (all) In a high relative humidity condition, which of the following sets of conditions is true? A) High evaporation rate; reduced latent heat absorption; small wet/dry bulb difference. B) Increased latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate; large wet/dry bulb difference. C) Small wet/dry bulb difference; high evaporation rate; increased latent heat absorption. D) Small wet/dry bulb difference; reduced latent heat absorption; low evaporation rate. 26317. (all) The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour pressure is: A) equal over both surfaces. B) smaller over the water surface. C) greater over the water surface. D) the same over both surfaces, air pressure is the same. 27112. (all) Relative humidity relates to: A) the amount of water vapour present in warm air compared to cold air. B) actual water vapour present to what could be present. C) the degree of saturation. D) the degree of saturation and actual water vapour present to what could be present. 27113. (all) The difference between air temperature and dew point temperature is popularly called the spread. As spread increases, relative humidity: A) increases. B) decreases. C) stays the same. D) first decreases and then increases. 27116. (all) If the dew point stays the same, but the air temperature decreases, then: A) the relative humidity will decrease.
B) water vapor will decrease. C) water vapor will increase. D) the relative humidity will increase. 27118. (all) Unsaturated air moving downwards is heated at a certain rate of: A) dry adiabatic. B) chinook wind. C) saturated adiabatic. D) ambient lapse rate. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 42 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27142 (C) 27198 (A) 27200 (B) 27235 (C) 27248 (B) 27307 (A) 27448 (A) 27507 (A) 27648 (C) 27650 (D) 28474 (D) 9038 (B) 9042 (D) 27142. (all) Hazardous windshear is encountered near the ground: A) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. B) during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys. C) during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms. D) near mountain valleys and on the windward side of hillsdr mountains. 27198. (all) As a parcel of air cools, its ability to hold water vapour: A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains unaltered. D) depends, whether the parcel is rising or no. 27200. (all) As a parcel of air warms, its ability to hold water vapour: A) decreases. B) increases. C) remains unaltered. D) depends, whether the parcel is rising or not. 27235. (all) Moist air is: A) denser than dry air. B) warmer than dry air. C) less dense than dry air. D) colder than dry air. 27248. (all) A parcel of air is said to be saturated if it has a relative humidity of: A) 50%. B) 100%. C) greater than 90%. D) greater than 80%. 27307. (all) The temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated if it cools is called: A) dew point temperature. B) saturation temperature. C) condensation temperature. D) freezing temperature. 27448. (all)
The maximum water in the air depends on the following: A) temperature. B) density. C) cloud type. D) none of the above. 27507. (all) Which statement is true for the lifting of an air parcel? A) Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated. B) Saturated parcels cool more rapidly than unsaturated. C) An air parcel always cools at the dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) A stable air mas must be present. 27648. (all) In which of the following METARs is the probability the biggest for the formation of fog the following night? A) 18502 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12lM08 Q1028 NOSlG = B) 18502 06018G30KT5000 OV0010 04/01 Q1024 NOSlG = C) 18502 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 81032 BECMG 1600 = D) 18502 25010KT 4000 FIA BKN012 080030 12/10 81006 TEMP.0 1500 = 27650. (all) What is relative humidity? A) The actual water vapour content in the air given in per cent. B) The possible saturated water vapour content at a given temperature, given in per cent. C) A term used to indicate the presence of water vapour, or moisture, in the air. D) The ratio of the actual water vapour content in the air to the saturated water vapour content of the air at a given temperature. 28474. (all) With decreasing temperature and unchanged dew point: A) the relative humidity will decrease. B) water vapor will decrease. C) water vapor will increase. D) the relative humidity will increase. 050-03-02 Change of state of aggregation 9038. (all) The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as: A) supercooling. B) sublimation. C) supersaturation. D) radiation cooling. 9042. (all) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released? A) Liquid to gas. B) Solid to liquid. C) Solid to gas. D) Gas to liquid. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 43 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9043 (D) 9048 (B) 9057 (D) 9072 (C) 9073 (D) 9081 (C) 10186 (C) 10189 (B) 27160 (C) 27394 (A) 27405 (D) 8856 (D) 8864 (B) 9003 (C) 9005 (C) 9043. (all)
When water evaporates into unsaturated air: A) relative humidity is decreased. B) heat is released. C) relative humidity is not changed. D) heat is absorbed. 9048. (all) A super cooled droplet is: A) a water droplet that is mainly frozen. B) a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing. C) a small particle of water at a temperature below -50 °C. D) a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent. 9057. (all) Supercooled droplets can be encountered: A) only in winter at high altitude. B) in winter only in high clouds. C) only in winter above 10.000 ft. D) at any time of the year. 9072. (all) Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when: A) relative humidity reaches 98%. B) water vapour is present. C) water vapour condenses. D) temperature and dew point are nearly equal. 9073. (all) A super cooled droplet is one that: A) is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air. B) has frozen to become an ice pellet. C) has a shell of ice with water inside it. D) remains liquid at a below freezing temperature. 9081. (all) How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally behind jet aircraft? A) Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases. B) Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air. C) Through water vapour released during fuel combustion. D) In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases. 10186. (all) Supercooled droplets are always: A) large and at a temperature below freezing. B) small and at a temperature below freezing. C) at a temperature below freezing. D) at a temperature below -60 °C. 10189. (all) Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation? A) Solid direct to liquid. B) Solid direct to vapour. C) Liquid direct to solid. D) Liquid direct to vapour. 27160. (all) When water vapour condenses into water droplets, there is a: A) release of heat energy that increases density of the surrounding air. B) sublimation. C) release of heat energy that makes the surrounding air warmer. D) none of the above.
27394. (all) What kind of weather conditions are most common in a stationary high pressure area? A) Calm winds and haze. B) Thunderstorm and showers in the summer. C) Light rain. D) Gusty winds and clear skies. 27405. (all) The stable layer at some height in the lower troposphere of an old high pressure area in the moderate latitudes is called: A) friction inversion. B) radiation inversion. C) trade wind. D) subsidence inversion. 050-03-03 Adiabatic processes 8856. (all) A layer can be: A) unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable. B) stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air. C) unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air. D) stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air. 8864. (all) Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate: A) exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. B) exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate. C) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. D) is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. 9003. (all) What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1.000 ft? A) 1,5 °C B) 2,0 °C C) 3,0 °C D) 3,5 °C 9005. (all) If the surface temperature is 15 °C , then the temperature at 10.000 ft in a current of ascending unsaturated air is: A) 5 °C B) 0 °C C) -15 °C D) -5 °C 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 44 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9016 (C) 9035 (A) 9046 (C) 9058 (D) 9062 (B) 9076 (B) 9079 (B) 9084 (A) 9085 (C) 9089 (D) 9095 (D) 9099 (C) 9101 (A) 9141 (C) 9016. (all) A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air? A) Lower than the starting temperature. B) Higher than the starting temperature. C) The same as the starting temperature. D) It depends upon the QFE. 9035. (all) A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by:
A) expanding it adiabatically. B) raising the temperature. C) lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant. D) compressing it adiabatically. 9046. (all) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is: A) 0,65 °C B) 2 °C C) 1 °C D) 0,5 °C 9058. (all) The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air because: A) water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun. B) moist air is heavier than dry air. C) water vapour doesn t cool as rapidly as dry air. D) heat is released during the condensation process. 9062. (all) If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at: A) the same rate as if the air mass were dry. B) a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat. C) a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat. D) a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat. 9076. (all) Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct? A) Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels. B) Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels. C) Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0,65 °C/100 m. D) Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0,65 °C/100 m. 9079. (all) The stability in a layer is increasing if: A) warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part. B) warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part. C) warm and moist air is advected in the lower part. D) cold and dry air is advected in the upper part. 9084. (all) (Refer to figure 050-53) What can be said about this weather situation? A) Air mass thunderstorms may develop during summertime. B) Strong gradient winds may occur over central Europe. C) Foehn conditions lead to severe weather south of the Alps. D) No ground fog will be present in Paris and Zurich during the winter. 9085. (all) A layer in which the temperature increases with height is: A) conditionally unstable. B) absolutely unstable. C) absolutely stable. D) neutral. 9089. (all) Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer? A) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0,65 °C/100 m.
B) The environmental lapse rate is less than 0,65 °C/100 m. C) The layer is unstable for unsaturated air. D) The environmental lapse rate is less than 1 °C/100 m. 9095. (all) In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than 1 °C. This layer can be described as being: A) conditionally stable. B) absolutely stable. C) conditionally unstable. D) absolutely unstable. 9099. (all) (Refer to figure 050-53) What does this picture depict? A) A westerly wave over central Europe. B) A high pressure area over central Europe. C) Flat pressure pattern. D) North foehn. 9101. (all) An inversion is: A) an absolutely stable layer. B) a conditionally unstable layer. C) an unstable layer. D) a layer that can be either stable or unstable. 9141. (all) Rising air cools because: A) it becomes more moist. B) surrounding air is cooler at higher levels. C) it expands. D) it contracts. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 45 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10083 (A) 10111 (D) 10128 (B) 10175 (A) 10177 (B) 10180 (C) 10181 (A) 10183 (B) 10184 (A) 10187 (C) 10202 (C) 10742 (B) 10760 (D) 10761 (A) 10887 (D) 10083. (all) An air mass is called stable when: A) the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears. B) the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height. C) the pressure in a given area is constant. D) the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents. 10111. (all) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of: A) 0,5 °C/100 m. B) 2 °C/1.000 ft. C) 0,65 °C/100 m. D) 1 °C/100 m. 10128. (all) In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15 °C and the temperature at 1.000 m AGL is 13 °C. This layer of air is: A) unstable. B) stable. C) a layer of heavy turbulence. D) conditionally unstable.
10175. (all) If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10 °C and at the top of the layer is 8 °C then this layer is: A) absolutely unstable. B) absolutely stable. C) conditionally unstable. D) neutral. 10177. (all) A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by: A) lowering the parcel to a lower level. B) lifting the parcel to a higher level. C) moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature. D) moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature. 10180. (all) A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is: A) neutral. B) unstable. C) absolutely stable. D) conditionally unstable. 10181. (all) During an adiabatic process heat is: A) neither added nor lost. B) added. C) lost. D) added but the result is an overall loss. 10183. (all) A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is: A) between 1 °C/100 m and 0,65 °C/100 m. B) more than 1 °C/100 m. C) 0,65 °C/100 m. D) less than 0,65 °C/100 m. 10184. (all) The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by: A) temperature and dewpoint at the surface. B) temperature at surface and air pressure. C) wind and dewpoint at the surface. D) wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface. 10187. (all) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the atmosphere is approximately: A) 1,5 °C B) 1 °C C) 0,6 °C D) 0,35 °C 10202. (all) A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1 °C per 100 m is: A) absolutely unstable. B) absolutely stable. C) neutral for dry air. D) conditionally unstable. 10742. (all) From which of the following pieces of information can the
stability of the atmosphere be derived? A) Surface temperature. B) Environmental lapse rate. C) Dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) Pressure at the surface. 10760. (all) Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in: A) winter in the afternoon. B) winter during the night and early morning. C) summer during the night and early morning. D) summer in the afternoon. 10761. (all) The dry adiabatic lapse rate: A) has a constant fixed value. B) is greater in summer than in winter. C) is greater during the night than during the day. D) has a variable value. 10887. (all) The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in: A) cumulus. B) freezing fog. C) stratus. D) cirrus. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 46 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16588 (D) 16592 (B) 16593 (D) 24221 (A) 24269 (A) 24291 (A) 26309 (A) 26313 (A) 26316 (A) 27117 (D) 27121 (B) 27343 (C) 27403 (D) 27421 (A) 16588. (all) What is the final temperature of unsaturated surface air at 12 °C, which rises to 6.000 ft? A) +30 °C B) +18 °C C) -30 °C D) -06 °C 16592. (all) The average value of the ELR is: A) 1,5 °C / 1.000 ft. B) 2,0 °C / 1.000 ft. C) 3,0 °C / 1.000 ft. D) it varies daily. 16593. (all) An ELR of 2,9 °C per 1.000 ft, is by definition: A) stable. B) conditionally stable. C) unstable. D) conditionally unstable. 24221. (all) Absolute instability in the atmosphere will occur when the environmental lapse rate is: A) greater than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate. C) less than both saturated adiabatic lapse rate and dry adiabatic lapse rate. D) greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than
dry adiabatic lapse rate. 24269. (all) For both saturated and unsaturated air instability will occur when the: A) environmental lapse rate is greater than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. B) environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate. C) environmental lapse rate is less than both dry adiabatic lapse rate and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. D) dry adiabatic lapse rate is less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but greater than environmental lapse rate. 24291. (all) In the lower levels of the atmosphere when the environmental lapse rate is greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate but less than dry adiabatic lapse rate, the air mass is described as being: A) conditionally unstable. B) stable. C) unstable. D) absolutely unstable. 26309. (all) What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate? A) 3,0 °C/1.000 ft. B) 2,0 °C/1.000 ft. C) 1,5 °C/1.000 ft. D) 3,5 °C/1.000 ft. 26313. (all) The stability in a layer increases by advection of: A) cold air in the lower part. B) warm air in the lower part. C) dry air in the upper part. D) moist air in the lower part. 26316. (all) Which statement is correct for an absolutely unstable atmosphere? A) Visibility is good between showers. B) The environmental lapse rate is less than 1 °C / 100 m. C) Clouds are mainly of the stratiform type. D) The dry adiabatic lapse rate is more than 1 °C / 100 m. 27117. (all) The rate at which descending unsaturated air is heated is about: A) 1,5 °C per 100 m. B) 1,5 °C per 1.000 ft. C) 3 °C per 100 m. D) 3 °C per 1.000 ft. 27121. (all) The weather is clear and the temperature decreases uniformly and rapidly as you climb (approaching 3,2 °C per 1.000 ft), you have an indication of: A) stable air. B) unstable air. C) saturation. D) sublimation. 27343. (all) Which term applies when the temperature of the air changes by compression or expansion with no heat added or removed? A) Katabatic B) Advection C) Adiabatic
D) Atmospheric 27403. (all) From which ofthe following pieces of information can stability of the atmosphere be derived? A) Dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) Pressure at the surface. C) Surface temperature. D) Environmental lapse rate. 27421. (all) State the preference of a layer of air with no clouds, surface temperature 15 °C, and 13 °C at 1.000 metres: A) stable layer. B) unstable layer. C) the preference cannot be determined. D) none of the above. 050-03 THERMODYNAMICS 47 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27452 (A) 27566 (A) 27452. (all) What can be said about the altimeter indication during a period of 10 minutes, when a flat pressure pattern prevails? A) There will be no visible change in the indication. B) The indication decreases. C) The indication increases. D) The altimeter indicates lower when set to 1.013,2 hPa. 27566. (all) What is the preference of a layer with constant temperature? A) Absolutely stable. B) Unstable. C) Relatively stable. D) An example of an inversion. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 48 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9104 (A) 9105 (C) 9108 (A) 9109 (C) 9110 (B) 9111 (D) 9139 (D) 9142 (C) 9143 (B) 9146 (B) 9151 (A) 9154 (C) 9159 (D) 9166 (C) 050-04-01 Cloud formation and description 9104. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land? A) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind. B) Unstable air. C) Convection during the day. D) The release of latent heat. 9105. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage? A) Convection process. B) Sinking. C) Lifting. D) Radiation. 9108. (all) What type of cloud is being described? A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance,
which may give drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches. A) Stratus B) Altostratus C) Nimbostratus D) Cirrostratus 9109. (all) Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions? A) CI, CC. B) SC, NS. C) AS, AC. D) CS, ST. 9110. (all) Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions? A) ST, CS. B) CU, CB. C) SC, NS. D) CI, SC. 9111. (all) (Refer to figure 050-07) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus? A) B B) D C) A D) C 9139. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds? A) Frontal lifting within stable layers. B) Radiation. C) Subsidence. D) Convection. 9142. (all) Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud? A) ST B) CS C) AS D) SC 9143. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitudes in summer contains: A) only water droplets. B) ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets. C) only ice crystals. D) ice crystals and water droplets but never supercooled water droplets. 9146. (all) Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels? A) SC B) CI C) AS D) CU 9151. (all) Which of the following are medium level clouds? A) Altostratus and altocumulus. B) Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus.
C) Cumulonimbus. D) All convective clouds. 9154. (all) A plain in western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1.600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? A) 6.500 - 16.500 ft above ground. B) 100 - 1.500 ft above ground. C) 1.500 - 6.500 ft above ground. D) 16.500 - 23.000 ft above ground. 9159. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds? A) Average horizontal visibility more than 1.000 m; light to moderate rime ice. B) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing. C) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing. D) Average horizontal visibility more than 1.000 m; nil icing. 9166. (all) Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from: A) 500 to 1.000 ft. B) 1000 to 2.000 ft. C) the surface to 6.500 ft. D) 100 to 200 ft. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 49 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9169 (A) 9171 (D) 9185 (B) 9186 (A) 9189 (A) 9191 (A) 9193 (B) 9194 (A) 9196 (B) 10213 (A) 10223 (C) 10231 (A) 10235 (B) 10237 (C) 9169. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels? A) CB B) AC C) ST D) CI 9171. (all) Altostratus clouds are classified as: A) convective clouds. B) low level clouds. C) high level clouds. D) medium level clouds. 9185. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer? A) Stratus B) Nimbostratus C) Altocumulus D) Cirrus 9186. (all) Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud? A) ST B) CS C) AS
D) CC 9189. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions? A) ST, AS. B) CU, CB. C) NS, CU. D) CB, CC. 9191. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Fallstreaks or virga are: A) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the ground. B) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks. C) gusts associated with a well developed Bora. D) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation. 9193. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Convective clouds are formed: A) in stable atmosphere. B) in unstable atmosphere. C) in summer during the day only. D) in mid-latitudes only. 9194. (all) (Refer to figure 050-07) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus? A) D B) A C) B D) C 9196. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of: A) the presence of a low level inversion. B) instability in the atmosphere. C) the presence of warm air aloft. D) poor surface visibility. 10213. (all) (Refer to figure 050-07) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis? A) B B) A C) D D) C 10223. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends on the: A) air pressure at the surface. B) wind direction. C) thickness of the unstable layer. D) pressure at different levels. 10231. (all) A plain in western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1.600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? A) 16.500 - 45.000 ft above the terrain. B) 6.500 - 16.500 ft above the terrain. C) 1.500 - 6.500 ft above the terrain.
D) 100 - 1.500 ft above the terrain. 10235. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What is the main composition of clouds classified as high level clouds? A) Supercooled water droplets. B) Ice crystals. C) Water droplets. D) Water vapour. 10237. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds? A) Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice. B) Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain. C) Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice. D) Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 50 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10243 (C) 10244 (D) 10246 (D) 10247 (B) 10248 (C) 15793 (A) 16552 (D) 16553 (A) 16554 (B) 16612 (D) 24114 (B) 24115 (A) 24116 (A) 24118 (C) 24121 (A) 10243. (all) A plain in western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1.600 ft) above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected? A) 1.500 - 6.500 ft above the terrain. B) 100 - 1.500 ft above the terrain. C) 7.000 - 16.500 ft above the terrain. D) 16.500 - 23.000 ft above the terrain. 10244. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the: A) presence of valley winds. B) risk of orographic thunderstorms. C) development of thermal lows. D) presence of mountain waves. 10246. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered? A) Within cloud of any type. B) Below the freezing level in clear air. C) In clear air above the freezing level. D) In Nimbostratus cloud. 10247. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Cumulus clouds are an indication for: A) stability. B) up and downdrafts. C) the approach of a cold front. D) the approach of a warm front. 10248. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates: A) stability in the higher troposphere. B) strong convection at low height. C) instability in the middle troposphere. D) subsidence in a large part of the troposphere.
15793. (all) Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere? A) Cumulonimbus B) Cirrostratus C) Altocumulus D) Altostratus 16552. (all) Which of the following is most correct regarding the cloud types stratus and nimbostratus? A) Neither cloud type may give precipitation. B) Stratus may give drizzle or snow grains and nimbostratus may give rain showers. C) Stratus may give rain showers and nimbostratus may give drizzle or snow grains. D) Stratus may give drizzle or snow grains and nimbostratus may give continuously falling rain or snow. 16553. (all) Altostratus (AS) and nimbostratus (NS) are easily confused. How do you distinguish between them? A) The precipitation from AS, if any, is light and the cloud is thinner than for NS. B) Precipitation falls from AS but not from NS. C) Steady precipitation from AS. D) The sun can be seen through NS. 16554. (all) Which one of the following cloud types gives steady rain or snowfall? A) Altostratus B) Nimbostratus C) Cirrostratus D) Cumulonimbus 16612. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is a sign of: A) severe instability. B) anabatic winds. C) katabatic winds. D) lee waves. 24114. (all) (Refer to figure 050-21) The cloud most likely to be experienced in square 1E is: A) CS B) CI C) AS D) CB 24115. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) The cloud type most applicable to square 2D is: A) AS B) CU C) CB D) CS 24116. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) The cloud type most applicable to square 3C is: A) NS B) AC C) AS D) CB 24118. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-23) During summer, the cloud type most applicable to square 2A is: A) ST B) AC C) CB D) CS 24121. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) The cloud type most applicable to most of square 3B is: A) SC B) CS C) AS D) NS 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 51 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24129 (A) 24130 (B) 24131 (C) 24209 (B) 24213 (D) 24220 (C) 24225 (D) 24254 (C) 24255 (B) 24303 (B) 24306 (B) 27122 (D) 27126 (D) 27129 (A) 27230 (A) 24129. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The cloud type most applicable to square 1E is: A) CS B) CB C) NS D) SC 24130. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The cloud type most applicable to square 2C is: A) CS B) AS C) CB D) CU 24131. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The cloud type most applicable to square 2B is: A) ST B) CS C) CB D) SC 24209. (all) A cumulus congestus is: A) a remnant of a CB. B) a cumulus that is of great vertical extent. C) a cumulus with little vertical development. D) a cumulus that only occurs in association with the ITCZ. 24213. (all) A layer of stratus is most likely to be dispersed by: A) adiabatic cooling due to subsidence. B) absorption of longwaved solar radiation in the stratus layer. C) the release of latent heat due to precipitation. D) insolation resulting in the lifting of the condensation level. 24220. (all) About ten identical clouds are in the sky, well isolated from one another, dense, with well defined contours, developing vertically in a cauliflower shape. The side of these clouds lit by the sun is bright white. Their base, relatively dark, is
essentially horizontal and at FL30, and their tops at FL150. These clouds are: A) altocumulus castellanus. B) broken cumulus humilis. C) towering cumulus. D) stratocumulus. 24225. (all) After a clear night cumuliform clouds are formed in the morning. Why can the base of these clouds become higher during the day? A) Because the difference between the temperature and the dewpoint temperature at the initial condensation level becomes smaller. B) The wind speed is increasing, because the cold air mass changes into a warm air mass. C) Because the stability increases. D) Because the surface temperature increases. 24254. (all) Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers, together or not, and always clear of the ground are: A) altostratus. B) stratus. C) stratocumulus. D) nimbostratus. 24255. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Clouds will mainly consist of supercooled water droplets when the temperature is: A) between -5 °C and -30 °C. B) between 0 °C and -15 °C. C) between -30 °C and -40 °C. D) below -40 °C. 24303. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Lenticular clouds in mountainous areas indicate: A) unstable air. B) turbulence. C) an inversion. D) light variable winds. 24306. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: atpl, ir) Of what does lenticular cloud provide evidence? A) Jet streams. B) Mountain waves. C) Stratospheric inversions. D) Areas of high level clear air turbulence. 27122. (all) The family of medium clouds include altostratus, altocumulus and nimbostratus. In moderate latitudes their height of base ranges from: A) 3.000 to 5.000 feet. B) 2.000 to 10.000 feet. C) 2.000 to 12.000 feet. D) 6.500 to 23.000 feet. 27126. (all) High clouds are normally composed of: A) hail. B) water droplets. C) condensation nuclei. D) ice crystals. 27129. (all) Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:
A) turbulence at and below the cloud level. B) smooth flying conditions. C) rain and strong winds. D) fog. 27230. (all) Given a surface temperature of +10 °C, and a dew point of +5 °C, at what height might you expect cumulus clouds to form? A) 2.000 ft B) 4.000 ft C) 1.000 ft D) 3.000 ft 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 52 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27247 (B) 27306 (C) 27308 (A) 27317 (A) 27412 (A) 27449 (A) 27460 (A) 27466 (A) 27486 (A) 27487 (B) 27488 (C) 27489 (B) 27490 (A) 27743 (A) 28405 (D) 28406 (A) 27247. (all) If a stable air mass is forced to rise, what type of cloud is most likely: A) CU B) NS C) TCU D) CB 27306. (all) What wil be the classification of high level clouds and where will the base be? A) Above 14.000 ft, nimbus. B) Above 16.500 ft, cumuliform. C) Above 16.500 ft, cirriform. D) Above 7.000 ft, cumuliform. 27308. (all) Which of the following types of cloud is most likely to be associated with prolonged and continuous moderate rain? A) NS B) CU C) ST D) CI 27317. (all) The presence of standing lenticular AC clouds is a good indication of: A) updrafts and downdrafts. B) an approaching thunderstorm. C) an unstable air mass. D) a stable air mass. 27412. (all) Which clouds, normally found in the medium level, can extend to the other levels? A) NS B) AS C) CU D) ST 27449. (all) What can be said about the formation of haze? A) Dust particles are trapped below an inversion. B) The air is very cold and thus the relative humidity increases. C) A strong lifting action in the atmosphere is necessary.
D) A frontal system is the cause. 27460. (all) What does a CB contain at moderate latitudes in summer? A) A combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets. B) A combination of ice crystals and water droplets. C) Ice crystals, snow, and water droplets. D) Ice crystals only. 27466. (all) What do you expect with fair weather cumulus clouds? A) Turbulence at and below the cloud level. B) Smooth flight below the cloud level. C) Continuous rain. D) Turbulence in and above the clouds up to approximately FL250. 27486. (all) Which of the following are medium level clouds? State the most complete answer: A) AS, AC. B) ST, CU. C) CI, ST. D) NS, CI. 27487. (all) Which of the following are low level clouds? State the most complete answer: A) AS, AC. B) ST, NS. C) CI, ST. D) NS, CI. 27488. (all) Which of the following are high level clouds? State the most complete answer: A) AS, AC. B) ST, NS. C) CI, CC. D) NS, CI. 27489. (all) Which cloud, normally found in the medium level, may extend to the low and high levels? A) AC B) NS C) CI D) CU 27490. (all) Which cloud type may extend from low to high level (vertical development)? A) CB B) NS C) CI D) AC 27743. (all) Which process in an air mass lead to NSAS-ST clouds? A) Lifting. B) Sublimation. C) Evaporation. D) The presence of a high pressure area. 28405. (all) Regarding stratus (ST) and nimbostratus (NS): A) neither does cause precipitation. B) ST does cause drizzle and NS rain showers.
C) ST does cause rain showers and NS drizzle. D) ST does cause drizzle and NS rain. 28406. (all) Fog and cloud formation takes place by: A) condensation. B) evaporation. C) sublimation. D) none of the above. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 53 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28407 (D) 28408 (B) 28472 (D) 28473 (D) 9107 (B) 9112 (B) 9113 (B) 9114 (B) 9116 (D) 9118 (B) 9119 (B) 9123 (D) 9124 (B) 9130 (B) 28407. (all) Flying conditions associated with cumulonimbus (CB) at summertime are: A) hazy weather combined with drizzle and turbulence. B) good visibility, intervals of fine weather and little turbulence. C) bad visibility, continuous rain and little turbulence. D) bad visibility in showers and pronounced turbulence. 28408. (all) The type of cloud formed when warm, light air rises rapidly into cooler air is a: A) stratus type. B) cumulus type. C) stratocumulus type. D) nimbostratus type. 28472. (all) The formation of a cumulonimbus (CB) depends on: A) warm and humid air. B) instability of thick layers of air. C) some sort of lifting of the air. D) all answers are correct. 28473. (all) Formation of an orographic cloud takes place when sufficient wind forces the air over obstacles like a mountain, and further: A) with sufficient height of the mountain the air temperature reaches the dew point thus creating a cloud. B) it is true that the necessary amount of lifting of the air depends on the air humidity. C) the air is supercooled and unstable. D) it is true that the necessary amount of lifting of the air depends on the air humidity; and with sufficient height of the mountain the air temperature reaches the dew point thus creating a cloud. 050-04-02 Fog, mist, haze 9107. (all) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog? A) Moist cold air moving over a warm surface. B) Moist warm air moving over a cold surface. C) Dry warm air moving over a cold surface. D) Dry cold air moving over a warm surface. 9112. (all) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog? A) Dry, warm air passing over warm ground.
B) Heat loss from the ground on clear nights. C) The passage of fronts. D) Cold air passing over warm ground. 9113. (all) Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog? A) Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain. B) Moist air over land during clear night with little wind. C) Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea. D) Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea. 9114. (all) What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog? A) 2.000 ft B) 500 ft C) 5.000 ft D) 10.000 ft 9116. (all) Frontal fog is most likely to occur: A) in winter in the early morning. B) in rear of a warm front. C) in summer in the early morning. D) in advance of a warm front. 9118. (all) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)? A) Warm air moving over cold water. B) Cold air moving over warm water. C) The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun. D) The coastal region of the sea cools at night. 9119. (all) At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur? A) At sunset. B) Shortly after sunrise. C) Late evening. D) Shortly after midnight. 9123. (all) The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is: A) above 15 kts. B) between 10 and 15 kts. C) between 5 and 10 kts. D) below 5 kts. 9124. (all) When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur? A) When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air. B) When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air. C) When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air. D) When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air. 9130. (all) Freezing fog consists of: A) frozen water droplets. B) supercooled water droplets. C) frozen minute snow flakes. D) ice crystals. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 54 © 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 9132 (D) 9133 (A) 9155 (B) 9179 (D) 9183 (C) 9188 (A) 9198 (D) 10209 (D) 10212 (B) 10218 (A) 10241 (D) 10242 (B) 10245 (A) 15786 (B) 16579 (C) 9132. (all) Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog? A) It forms slowly and disappears rapidly. B) It forms at night or the early morning. C) It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically. D) It can be formed suddenly by day or night. 9133. (all) What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog? A) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills. B) High relative humidity and an unstable air mass. C) Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity. D) Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range. 9155. (all) The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to produce: A) a cold front. B) radiation fog. C) advection fog. D) good clear weather. 9179. (all) When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be: A) unlimited visibility. B) clear and cool. C) high scattered clouds. D) fog or low cloud. 9183. (all) What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature is 15 °C and the dew point is 14 °C? A) Westerly, 10 kts variable. B) Northerly, 10 kts. C) Calm. D) Easterly, 10 kts. 9188. (all) The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is: A) increasing surface wind speed. B) an increasingly stable atmosphere. C) surface cooling. D) a low level temperature inversion. 9198. (all) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog? A) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking air mass. B) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground. C) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night. D) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground. 10209. (all) Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air: A) that is stable. B) with warm mass properties.
C) that is absolutely stable. D) with cold mass properties. 10212. (all) Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15 °C and dew point of 12 °C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5 °C? A) Radiation fog. B) Advection fog. C) Steam fog. D) Frontal fog. 10218. (all) Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog? A) Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air. B) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air. C) Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air. D) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air. 10241. (all) Advection fog can be formed when: A) cold moist air flows over warmer water. B) cold moist air flows over a warmer surface. C) warm moist air flows over a warmer surface. D) warm moist air flows over a colder surface. 10242. (all) Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form? A) Very dry air. B) Little or no cloud. C) Strong surface winds. D) Very low temperatures. 10245. (all) What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions? A) Radiation B) Advection C) Steam D) Orographic 15786. (all) (Refer to figure 050-02) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates ground fog: A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 16579. (all) Fog (FG) is defined as being a: A) visibility of < 1.000 m due to any precipitation in the atmosphere. B) visibility of . 1.000 m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. C) visibility of < 1.000 m due to liquid particles or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere. D) visibility of < 1.000 m due to solid or liquid particles suspended in the atmosphere. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 55 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16580 (D) 16581 (B) 16582 (D) 16583 (D) 16584 (D) 16586 (D) 24223 (C) 24224 (D)
24245 (C) 24272 (C) 24279 (D) 24300 (C) 24314 (B) 24335 (A) 16580. (all) Mist (BR) is defined as being: A) reduced visibility > 1.000 m but not more than 5.000 m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphere. B) reduced visibility > 1.000 m but not more than 5.000 m due to solid or liquid particles in the atmosphere. C) reduced visibility . 1.000 m but not more than 5.000 m due to solid or liquid particles in the atmosphere. D) reduced visibility . 1.000 m but not more than 5.000 m due to the presence of water droplets in the atmosphere. 16581. (all) According to ICAO, haze (HZ) or smoke (FU), is reduced visibility due to the presence of solid particles (lithometeors) in the atmosphere to a value of: A) < 5.000 m B) . 5.000 m C) > 5.000 m D) . 5.000 m 16582. (all) Conditions favourable for the development of radiation fog (FG) are: A) high relative humidity, no cloud. B) high relative humidity, little or no cloud. C) high relative humidity, little or no cloud, a strong sea breeze. D) high relative humidity, little or no cloud, little wind. 16583. (all) Which of the following statements is true? A) Radiation fog only forms on a clear night with no wind. B) Radiation fog only forms in valleys (the katabatic effect). C) Radiation fog only forms when the air is very dry and there is an inversion. D) Radiation fog cannot form over the sea. 16584. (all) Radiation fog can be dispersed by: A) insolation. B) strong winds. C) replacement of moist air by drier air. D) all of the above. 16586. (all) Advection fog: A) is formed by advection. B) can form a persist with moderate or even strong wind. C) is cleared by change of air mass or less commonly by an increase in wind strength. D) all of the above. 24223. (all) Advection fog is most likely to form when: A) cold maritime air flows over a warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kts. B) cold air is forced over higher ground and further adiabatic cooling occurs. C) a mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is more than 8 kts. D) warm maritime air flows over a relatively warmer surface and the wind speed is greater than 15 kts. 24224. (all) Advection of very cold air over a warm sea current can cause:
A) frontal fog. B) advection fog. C) no fog at all. D) steaming fog. 24245. (all) As a result of diurnal variation radiation fog is lifted and a cloud cover is formed. Which statement is true? A) Layers of altocumulus will develop caused by increasing wind speed. B) Low stratus will develop caused by radiation in combination with low geostrophic wind speed. C) Low stratus will develop caused by increasing wind speed. D) Stratus will develop caused by insolation. 24272. (all) Frontal fog can be formed by: A) cooling at night. B) condensation of air saturated by adiabatic cooling. C) condensation of air saturated by evaporation of precipitation. D) evaporation of moisture at the surface. 24279. (all) If radiation fog forms on a clear night with light winds, the increase in wind speed from 5 kts to 13 kts will most likely: A) disperse the fog immediately. B) change the radiation fog to advection fog. C) have no effect. D) cause the fog to lift and become low stratus. 24300. (all) In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? A) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea. B) A warm moist air mass on the windward side of the mountains. C) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. D) Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under nowind conditions. 24314. (all) Radiation fog most frequently occurs in: A) low pressure systems over sea. B) high pressure systems over land. C) high pressure systems over sea. D) low pressure systems over land. 24335. (all) The formation of morning fog before sunrise is possible if A) air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another. B) the wind is strong. C) the sky is overcast. D) the turbulence in the lower layers is moderate. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 56 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24375 (D) 24387 (C) 24415 (A) 24418 (B) 24422 (D) 24448 (A) 24451 (B) 24498 (A) 27069 (A) 27444 (A) 27493 (A) 28409 (B) 28410 (C) 24375. (all) What is the difference between radiation fog and advection fog? A) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea. B) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only
on the sea. C) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling. D) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface. 24387. (all) What kind of fog is often observed in the coastal region of Newfoundland in spring time? A) Radiation fog. B) Frontal fog. C) Advection fog. D) Steaming fog. 24415. (all) Which of the following layers of fog above land is coded as MIFG? A) A layer of 5 feet deep. B) A layer of 10 feet deep. C) A layer of 15 feet deep. D) A layer of 20 feet deep. 24418. (all) Which of the following phenomena is least likely to lead to the formation of a Cumulonimbus with thunderstorm? A) Convection. B) Ground radiation. C) Convergence. D) Orographic lift. 24422. (all) Which of the following sets of conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog? A) Cold maritime air flowing over a warmer land surface at a speed greater than 15 kts. B) Clear skies at night over an inland marshy area. C) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with a wind in excess of 30 kts. D) A mild moist airstream flowing over colder surfaces with the wind speed less than 15 kts. 24448. (all) Which statement is correct? A) Fog can be supercooled and can also contain ice crystals. B) Mist and haze consist of water droplets. C) Fog and haze do not occur in the tropics. D) Mist and haze only differ by different values of visibility. 24451. (all) Which type of fog can not be formed over water? A) Advection fog. B) Radiation fog. C) Arctic smoke. D) Frontal fog. 24498. (all) Which is true of advection fog? A) It can appear suddenly by day or by night. B) It develops slowly and clears fast. C) It forms when unstable air is adiabatically cooled. D) It usually forms by night and clears by day. 27069. (all) What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog? A) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows
over a cold surface. B) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea. C) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling. D) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calmwind. Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea. 27444. (all) Which type of fog do you expect over flat landscape on a clear night, under no wind conditions? A) Radiation fog. B) Advection fog. C) Orographic fog. D) Steam fog. 27493. (all) Name the difference between radiation and advection fog: A) vertical movement (radiation fog) versus horizontal movement (advection fog). B) advedion fog occurs under no wind conditions in a clear night, while radiation fog formsover the sea in a 20 kts wind. C) flat landscape, a clear night, winds of 10 kts, for the formation of radiation fog, and. mountainous terrain and no wind conditions for advedion fog. D) orographic lining for radiation fog, and horizontal movement with a 21 kts wind for advection fog. 28409. (all) An autumn day with rain showers and terminated by evening clear sky will be followed in the next morning by: A) advection fog. B) radiation fog. C) orografic fog. D) frontal fog. 28410. (all) Concerning advection fog, a possible extent and duration is: A) tens of meters and many days. B) tens of meters and some hours. C) hundreds of meters and many days. D) hundreds of meters and some hours. 050-04 CLOUDS AND FOG 57 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28414 (B) 28416 (C) 28475 (D) 28414. (all) Fog formation by warm and humid air flowing over cold areas is often extensive and of long duration. Such fog is called: A) radiation fog. B) advection fog. C) orografic fog. D) frontal fog. 28416. (all) The danger of experiencing fog is greatest when: A) dew point temperature is high. B) dew point temperature is low. C) there is little dew point spread. D) there is great dew point spread.
28475. (all) Fog which reaches only 2 metres above ground or 10 metres above the sea is called: A) smog. B) mist. C) drifting fog. D) shallow fog. 050-05 PRECIPITATION 58 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9203 (A) 9205 (D) 9227 (B) 24357 (A) 26319 (A) 27133 (B) 9202 (C) 9204 (C) 9206 (D) 9207 (A) 9215 (D) 9216 (A) 9218 (A) 9219 (C) 9221 (D) 050-05-01 Development of precipitation 9203. (all) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that: A) freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude. B) a cold front has passed. C) there are thunderstorms in the area. D) a warm front has passed. 9205. (all) Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes? A) Hail. B) Moderate rain with large drops. C) Heavy rain with large drops. D) Drizzle. 9227. (all) How does freezing rain develop? A) Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes. B) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0 °C. C) Through melting of sleet grains. D) Through melting of ice crystals. 24357. (all) The widest precipitation zone occurs usually: A) ahead of a warm front. B) ahead of a cold front. C) in rear of a cold front. D) in rear of a warm front. 26319. (all) Which of the following statements is correct? A) The Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference of maximum vapour pressure over water and over ice of the same temperature. B) The principle of the Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference in size of the cloud elements. C) At mid-latitudes the coalescense process is usually the initial process in the formation of precipitation. D) In the tropics stratiform precipitation does not occur. 27133. (all) What enhances the growth rate of precipitation? A) Advective action. B) Upward currents. C) Cyclonic movement. D) Temperature inversions. 050-05-02 Types of precipitation 9202. (all) Freezing precipitation occurs:
A) only in the precipitation of a warm front. B) only in the precipitation of a cold front. C) mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle. D) mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow. 9204. (all) What type of cloud can produce hail showers? A) CS B) NS C) CB D) AC 9206. (all) With what type of cloud is GR precipitation most commonly associated? A) CC B) AS C) ST D) CB 9207. (all) From what type of cloud does drizzle fall? A) Stratus B) Altostratus C) Cumulus D) Cirrostratus 9215. (all) Freezing rain occurs when: A) snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air. B) ice pellets melt. C) water vapour first turns into water droplets. D) rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0 °C. 9216. (all) With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated? A) CB B) AS C) SC D) NS 9218. (all) Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain? A) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0 °C. B) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0 °C. C) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm. D) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0 °C through which rain is falling. 9219. (all) With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer months? A) NS, CC. B) CB, ST. C) SC, AS. D) AS, NS. 9221. (all) What type of clouds are associated with snow showers? A) Nimbostratus. B) Cumulus and altostratus. C) Altostratus and stratus. D) Cumulus and cumulonimbus.
050-05 PRECIPITATION 59 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9222 (B) 9223 (D) 9224 (D) 9228 (C) 9229 (B) 9230 (B) 9231 (A) 9232 (A) 9233 (C) 9235 (A) 16578 (D) 24275 (D) 24319 (A) 27146 (D) 27409 (A) 9222. (all) Large hail stones: A) only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes. B) are typically associated with severe thunderstorms. C) are entirely composed of clear ice. D) only occur in frontal thunderstorms. 9223. (all) Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from: A) clouds containing only ice crystals. B) stratified clouds. C) cirro-type clouds. D) convective clouds. 9224. (all) What type of clouds are associated with rain showers? A) Nimbostratus. B) Towering cumulus and altostratus. C) Altostratus and stratus. D) Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus. 9228. (all) Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy precipitation? A) SC B) CS C) NS D) ST 9229. (all) With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated? A) Stratocumulus B) Cumulonimbus C) Nimbostratus D) Stratus 9230. (all) With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation most commonly associated? A) CB B) ST C) CC D) CU 9231. (all) With which of the following types of cloud is +RA precipitation most commonly associated? A) NS B) AC C) SC D) ST 9232. (all) The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud: A) precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate. B) precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence
are frequently severe. C) precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe. D) precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate. 9233. (all) Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from: A) stratiform clouds with severe turbulence. B) convective clouds with little or no turbulence. C) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. D) convective clouds with moderate turbulence. 9235. (all) Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation? A) CI B) AS C) CB D) NS 16578. (all) Which precipitation type generally has the greatest impact on visibility? A) Heavy rain. B) Drizzle. C) Hail. D) Snow. 24275. (all) Hazardous hailstones, reaching the ground, are most likely to be experienced below CB clouds situated: A) over the sea in middle latitudes. B) over the sea near the equator. C) in continental interiors near the equator. D) in continental interiors in middle latitudes. 24319. (all) Supercooled droplets can occur in: A) clouds, fog and precipitation. B) clouds but not in precipitation. C) precipitation but not in clouds. D) clouds but not in fog. 27146. (all) Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceeding a front is an indication of: A) cumuliform clouds with moderate turbulence. B) stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence. C) cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence. D) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. 27409. (all) What type of cloud is pertinent for showers? A) CB B) NS C) CI D) AS 050-05 PRECIPITATION 60 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28415 (A) 28415. (all) When a rain shower approaches and passes an airfield, the
following will happen: A) the temperature drops and dew point rises. B) the temperature remains unchanged and dew point drops. C) the temperature rises and dew point remains unchanged. D) the temperature rises and dew point drops. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 61 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9236 (C) 9282 (D) 9285 (A) 9304 (D) 9310 (C) 9324 (D) 10264 (C) 16429 (C) 16431 (C) 24217 (D) 24228 (A) 24230 (C) 24231 (A) 24232 (C) 050-06-01 Types of airmasses 9236. (all) Where does polar continental air originate? A) The region of the Baltic sea. B) Areas of arctic water. C) Siberian landmass. D) The region of Greenland. 9282. (all) An air mass is unstable when: A) temperature increases with height. B) temperature and humidity are not constant. C) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area. D) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height. 9285. (all) What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia? A) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the north Russian air. B) The north Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores. C) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the north Russian air. D) The north Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores. 9304. (all) In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered? A) Arctic maritime air. B) Polar maritime air. C) Tropical continental air. D) Polar continental air. 9310. (all) An air mass is stable when: A) pressure is constant. B) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height. C) the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and disappears. D) the lapse rate is 1 °C per 100 m. 9324. (all) Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer? A) The Azores region. B) Southern Italy. C) Southern France.
D) The southern Balkan region and the Near East. 10264. (all) In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate? A) Baltic sea. B) Region of British Isles. C) East of Greenland. D) Black sea. 16429. (all) A stable humid warm air mass slowly overrides a cold one. Which one of the following weather types may originate from this condition? A) The formation of thunder storms. B) Warm front dissipation. C) The forming of a warm front. D) The forming of a cold front. 16431. (all) Which of these phenomena usually forms in the transition zone between two air masses? A) An unstable low pressure. B) Radiation fog. C) A frontal low pressure. D) A ridge of high pressure. 24217. (all) A stationary front is a front in which: A) there are never frontal clouds. B) there is no difference in temperature between the two air masses. C) there is no wind on both sides of the front. D) there is no horizontal motion perpendicular to the front. 24228. (all) Air masses which are being cooled from below are often characterized by: A) fog, poor visibility and layered clouds. B) strong winds, cumulus clouds, good visibility. C) uniform temperature, good visibility. D) continuous rain and freezing temperatures. 24230. (all) An air mass acquires its basic properties: A) by widespread thunderstorms. B) by the influence of jet streams. C) by stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristics. D) in the westerlies of the mid-latitudes. 24231. (all) An air mass is stable when: A) lifted air returns to its original level. B) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height. C) pressure is constant. D) the lapse rate is 1 °C per 100 m. 24232. (all) An air mass is unstable when: A) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area. B) temperature and humidity are not constant. C) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height. D) temperature increases with height.
050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 62 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24233 (A) 24243 (D) 24244 (B) 24419 (B) 26337 (C) 27132 (C) 27138 (B) 27219 (A) 27221 (C) 27392 (A) 27628 (A) 28379 (A) 28382 (C) 28384 (B) 28417 (A) 24233. (all) An air mass is: A) an extensive body of air within which the temperature and humidity in horizontal planes are practically uniform. B) a large body of air with temperature and humidity constant in the vertical. C) a body of air with a volume of not more than thousand cubic kilometres. D) a large body of air within which the temperature and humidity is uniform in horizontal and vertical planes. 24243. (all) An unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope. What type of clouds can be expected? A) Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion. B) Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulence. C) Layer-like clouds with little vertical development. D) Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence. 24244. (all) An unstable air mass will normally be characterised by: A) stratiform cloud. B) cumuliform cloud and good visibility except in precipitation. C) continuous light rain from medium level layer cloud. D) poor visibility due to haze at the lower levels. 24419. (all) Which of the following processes will increase the stability of an air mass? A) Addition of water vapour in the lower layer. B) Cooling by the underlying surface. C) Warming of the air mass from below. D) Advection of colder air aloft. 26337. (all) An air mass acquires its characteristics by: A) rising of the warm air above the underlying cold air. B) convection. C) stagnation of the air for a long period of time over areas having particular characteristics. D) air circulation around centers of permanent action. 27132. (all) An air mass is a body of air that: A) has similar cloud formations associated with it. B) creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth s surface. C) covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture. D) has extensive turbulence associated with it. 27138. (all) Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface? A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility. D) Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. 27219. (all) What are the most common characteristics of a cold air
mass moving over a warm surface? A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibilty. D) Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. 27221. (all) What are the most common characteristics of a warm air mass, moving over a cold surface? A) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. B) Comuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. C) Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibilily. D) Stratiform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. 27392. (all) Where does a polar continental air mass has its origin? A) Over the Siberian landmass. B) Over the Baltic sea. C) Over the Atlantic ocean. D) Over the North Pole. 27628. (all) Which air masses do most often contribute to the weather situation in western Europe? A) Maritime tropical air, maritime polar air. B) Maritime tropical air, continental polar air. C) Continental tropical air, continental arctic air. D) Maritime equatorial air, maritime polar air. 28379. (all) A warm air mass: A) is cooled from below by the base layer. B) is warmed from below by the base layer. C) originates at the equator. D) is characterized by sea breeze. 28382. (all) Characteristic of a cold air mass is: A) precipitation (drizzle). B) extensive fog. C) showers and gusty winds. D) strong and smooth winds. 28384. (all) What is meant by an area of divergence? A) An area where air masses are moving in. B) An area where air masses are moving out. C) A frontal zone. D) A high pressure area. 28417. (all) Absolute instability in a layer of air is characterized by the vertical temperature gradient in the layer being: A) greater than 1°/100 m. B) greater than 0,5°/100 m. C) less than 0,65°/100 m. D) less than 0,6°/100 m. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 63 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28462 (A) 9238 (A) 9240 (A) 9241 (B) 9247 (D) 9251 (A) 9252 (B) 9253 (A) 9254 (C) 9255 (B) 9258 (B) 28462. (all) The stability of an air mass increases by: A) cooling of the lower and heating of the upper layers.
B) heating of the lower and cooling of the upper layers. C) supply of humidity. D) decreasing dispersion. occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level. C) The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion; the less cold air is above ground level. D) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level. 9254. (all) Which of the following describes a warm occlusion? A) The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front. B) The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front. C) The coldest air mass is ahead of the occlusion. D) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front. 9255. (all) In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken: 160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = 160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG = 160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG = 161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG = 161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = 161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS = 161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG = 161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG = What do you conclude based on these observations? A) A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon. B) A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late afternoon. C) A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon. D) Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station. 9258. (all) Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active warm front at medium to low level? A) Severe thunderstorms at low altitude. B) Low cloud base and poor visibility. C) Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground. D) High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms. 050-06-02 Fronts 9238. (all) What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North sea, approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front? A) Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers. B) Showers and thunderstorms. C) Rain covering a large area, 8 oktas NS.
D) 8 oktas CS, AS without precipitation. 9240. (all) In a warm occlusion: A) the warm front becomes a front aloft. B) the warm front overtakes the cold front. C) the warm air is lifted. D) the cold air is lifted. 9241. (all) Over central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a depression during winter? A) CI, CS. B) ST with drizzle. C) Fair weather CU. D) CU, CB. 9247. (all) Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer? A) Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed. B) Mainly layered clouds. C) Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed. D) Mainly towering clouds. 9251. (all) Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2.000 feet wind: A) in the warm sector. B) in front of the warm front. C) behind the cold front. D) at the apex of the wave. 9252. (all) If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10.000 feet in the warm air and at 2.000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of freezing rain the lowest? A) 9.000 feet. B) 12.000 feet. C) 5.000 feet. D) 3.000 feet. 9253. (all) How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion? A) The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level. B) The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 64 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9261 (B) 9262 (B) 9265 (B) 9266 (B) 9268 (A) 9272 (B) 9274 (B) 9275 (A) 9287 (B) 9291 (A) 9298 (A) 9303 (B) 9261. (all) Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics? A) Ahead of the front. B) Behind the front. C) At the surface position of the front. D) At the junction of the occlusion. 9262. (all) What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front? A) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS
begin. B) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front. C) At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB. D) At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS. 9265. (all) What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in central Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0 °C, and freezing rain starts to fall? A) Cold occlusions. B) Warm fronts, occlusions. C) High level cold fronts. D) Cold fronts. 9266. (all) (Refer to figure 050-10) Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected? A) Track B-C. B) Track B-D. C) Track A-D. D) Track A-E. 9268. (all) What type of front usually moves the fastest? A) Cold front. B) Warm front. C) Cold occlusion. D) Warm occlusion. 9272. (all) (Refer to figure 050-34) This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? A) TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 = B) TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 = C) TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 = D) TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 9274. (all) During a cross-country flight at FL50, you observe the following sequence of clouds: nimbostratus, altostratus, cirrostratus, cirrus. Which of the following are you most likely to encounter? A) Strong, gusty winds. B) Decreasing temperatures. C) A strong downdraught. D) Increasing temperatures. 9275. (all) In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air: A) behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm
air at a high altitude. B) in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude. C) behind is colder than the cold air in front. D) behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude. 9287. (all) An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a depression, which is moving from west to east. The center of the depression passes to the south of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is: A) continuously veering. B) continuously backing. C) initially backing, then veering. D) initially veering, then backing. 9291. (all) (Refer to figure 050-18) Where might we find the warmest air? A) B B) C C) A D) D 9298. (all) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front is passing? A) It will first increase then decrease. B) It will remain unchanged. C) It will first decrease then increase. D) It will fluctuate up and down by about ± 50 feet. 9303. (all) What characterizes a stationary front? A) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front. B) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front. C) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air. D) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm and very active front. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 65 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9306 (C) 9307 (A) 9309 (D) 9312 (B) 9314 (C) 9319 (C) 9320 (D) 9322 (D) 9328 (C) 9330 (A) 9332 (B) 9333 (B) 9334 (B) 10250 (C) 10258 (A) 9306. (all) (Refer to figure 050-09) Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by the cross-section shown on the left? A) Track B-A. B) Track C-A. C) Track D-A. D) Track B-C. 9307. (all) When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe? A) Summer.
B) Winter. C) Autumn and winter. D) Winter and spring. 9309. (all) (Refer to figure 050-24) What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour? A) Approximately constant pressure. B) A drop in pressure. C) Irregular fluctuations. D) A rise in pressure. 9312. (all) The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is: A) 1/50 B) 1/150 C) 1/300 D) 1/500 9314. (all) What is the relative movement of the two airmasses along a cold front? A) Cold air slides over a warm air mass. B) Warm air pushes over a cold air mass. C) Cold air pushes under a warm air mass. D) Warm air pushes under a cold air mass. 9319. (all) What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front? A) A low on lee side of a mountain. B) A cold air pool. C) Polar front low. D) Heat low. 9320. (all) At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to east generally, at their most southerly position? A) Autumn B) Summer C) Spring D) Winter 9322. (all) What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer? A) Very good (greater than 50 km). B) Very poor (less than 1 km). C) Good (greater than 10 km). D) Moderate (several km). 9328. (all) On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching: A) QFE increases and QNH decreases. B) QFE and QNH increase. C) QFE and QNH decrease. D) QFE decreases and QNH increases. 9330. (all) In which approximate direction does the center of a frontal depression move? A) In the direction of the warm sector isobars. B) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front. C) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase. D) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front. 9332. (all)
How do air masses move at a warm front? A) Cold air overrides a warm air mass. B) Warm air overrides a cold air mass. C) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass. D) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass. 9333. (all) (Refer to figure 050-11) Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have moved? A) Position 4. B) Position 3. C) Position 1. D) Position 2. 9334. (all) What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over central Europe in the summer? A) BKN CU and CB. B) Fair weather CU. C) Sky clear. D) ST with drizzle. 10250. (all) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front? A) It will have increased. B) It will remain unchanged. C) It will have decreased. D) It will show a small increase or decrease. 10258. (all) In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered? A) Ahead of a warm front in the winter. B) Ahead of a cold front in the winter. C) Behind a warm front in the summer. D) Ahead of a cold front in the summer. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 66 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10270 (D) 10271 (B) 10274 (C) 10277 (B) 10278 (C) 10279 (A) 10281 (D) 10282 (D) 10284 (B) 10286 (A) 15867 (C) 16354 (B) 16366 (D) 16427 (A) 10270. (all) The polar front is the boundary between: A) maritime polar air and continental polar air. B) arctic air and polar air. C) arctic air and tropical air. D) polar air and tropical air. 10271. (all) What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass? A) Cumulus B) Stratus C) Altostratus D) Cumulonimbus 10274. (all) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active cold front passes? A) It will be decreasing. B) It will remain unchanged.
C) It will be increasing. D) It will fluctuate up and down by about ± 50 feet. 10277. (all) (Refer to figure 050-08) Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B? A) 1 B) 3 C) 2 D) 4 10278. (all) Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if: A) the cold air is conditionally stable. B) the cold air is conditionally unstable. C) the warm air is conditionally unstable. D) the warm air is conditionally stable. 10279. (all) Read this description: After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little bit warmer. Which of these weather phenomena is being described? A) A warm front. B) A blizzard. C) Weather at the back of a cold front. D) A cold front. 10281. (all) A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you expect? A) Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front. B) Continous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours. C) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front. D) Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within a couple of hours. 10282. (all) After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a marked change in temperature? A) A decrease in headwind. B) A backing in the wind direction. C) An increase in tailwind. D) A veering in the wind direction. 10284. (all) The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the: A) saturation of the warm air by rain falling into the cold air and evaporating. B) saturation of the cold air by rain falling into the warm air and evaporating. C) reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds.
D) warm air moving over a cold surface. 10286. (all) What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front? A) Showers associated with thunderstorms. B) Freezing rain. C) Light to moderate continuous rain. D) Drizzle. 15867. (all) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered: A) in an air mass with cold mass properties. B) behind of a stationary front. C) ahead of a cold front. D) at an occluded front. 16354. (all) Ahead of a warm front: A) winds back and increase with height. B) wind back slightly but veer on passage and increase with height. C) winds veer and decrease with height. D) winds back and decrease with height. 16366. (all) The boundary between polar and tropical air is known as: A) tropical front. B) cold front. C) warm front. D) polar front. 16427. (all) If cold air is being replaced by warm air, the boundary between the air masses is called: A) a warm front. B) a cold front. C) a polar front. D) an arctic front. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 67 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16430 (C) 16432 (A) 16434 (B) 16435 (C) 24171 (B) 24184 (B) 24210 (B) 24218 (A) 24241 (B) 24242 (D) 24247 (A) 24266 (D) 24295 (A) 24324 (C) 24326 (D) 16430. (all) Which one of the following alternatives indicates how an occludet front is generated? A) Warm air supersedes cold air. B) Cold air wedges under warm air. C) A cold front overtakes a warm front and the warm air between the fronts is lifted. D) A cold front is halted and becomes almost stationary. 16432. (all) When flying through a cold front from the warm air side in the summer, the following flying weather may be expected: A) towering clouds with showery precipitation. B) horizontally extended clouds with drizzle. C) horizontally extended clouds with even tops and bases. D) towering clouds without turbulence. 16434. (all) When a cold front has passed over a meteorological station it will result in: A) a steady fall in pressure and a backing of the surface
wind. B) a steady rise in pressure and a veering of the surface wind. C) a steady fall in pressure and a veering of the surface wind. D) a steady rise in pressure and a backing of the surface wind. 16435. (all) The mean position of the polar front in the N Atlantic is: A) from Florida to SW UK in July. B) from Florida to North of the UK in January. C) from north of UK to Newfoundland in July. D) from SW UK to Newfoundland in January. 24171. (all) (Refer to figure 050-05) The diagram of the system in annex represents a: A) cold occlusion. B) warm occlusion. C) warm front. D) cold front. 24184. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) The front labelled F is a: A) cold front. B) warm front. C) warm occlusion. D) cold occlusion. 24210. (all) A gust front is: A) normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm. B) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm. C) characterized by heavy lightning. D) another name for a cold front. 24218. (all) A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The center of the depression passes from west to east and south of the observer. For this observer the wind: A) backs. B) veers. C) initially veers, then backs. D) initially backs, then veers. 24241. (all) An occlusion has the characteristics of a warm front when: A) the cold air behind is colder than the cold air ahead. B) the cold air behind is warmer than the cold air ahead. C) the cold air behind is lifted by the warm air. D) the cold air ahead is lifted. 24242. (all) An occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air: A) at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude. B) ahead of the surface position of the occlusion is only at a higher altitude. C) at the rear of the occlusion is colder than the cold air ahead. D) at the rear of the occlusion is less cold than the cold air ahead, with the warm air at a higher altitude.
24247. (all) At a cold front: A) warm air is lifted as cooler air pushes under it. B) warm air is compressed as cold air rises over it. C) temperature rises owing to increased pressure. D) fog will form from the interaction of cold and warm air. 24266. (all) During the passage of a front in the northern hemisphere the wind veers. This statement is: A) not true. B) only true for the passage of a cold front. C) only true for the passage of a warm front. D) true. 24295. (all) In the northern hemisphere advection of warm air aloft indicates: A) the approach of a warm occlusion. B) backing winds with increasing heights. C) increasing probability for showers. D) the formation of advection fog. 24324. (all) The air mass in the warm sector of a polar front is: A) arctic air. B) polar air. C) tropical air. D) equatorial air. 24326. (all) The arctic front is the boundary between: A) arctic air and tropical air. B) polar air and tropical air. C) cold polar air and less cold polar air. D) polar air and arctic air. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 68 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24330 (A) 24332 (D) 24338 (B) 24342 (C) 24347 (D) 24348 (A) 24396 (A) 24406 (D) 24438 (B) 26312 (D) 27149 (B) 27150 (C) 24330. (all) The first clouds are thin, wispy cirrus, followed by sheets of cirrus and cirrostratus, and altostratus. The sun is obscured as the altostratus thickens and drizzle or rain begins to fall. The cloud base is lowering as Nimbostratus arrives. These phenomenon is due to a: A) warm front. B) cold front. C) trade wind front. D) sea-breeze front. 24332. (all) The following sequence of clouds is observed at an airport: cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus. This is typical for: A) a squall line. B) a cold front. C) anticyclonic weather. D) a warm front. 24338. (all) The lowest cloud type observed is Stratus fractus, and there is moderate continuous rain. The area of the system in which you are at this moment is:
A) behind the cold front. B) the main body of the warm or cold front, or of the occlusion. C) the warm sector. D) the high pressure area. 24342. (all) The passage of a warm front can be associated with areas of fog. The types of fog just in advance and just after the passage are respectively A) arctic smoke and frontal fog. B) advection fog and radiation fog. C) frontal fog and advection fog. D) advection fog and steaming fog. 24347. (all) The reason for the fact, that the atmospheric pressure of a polar front depression is normally lower in winter than in summer is that A) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter. B) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter. C) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows. D) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter. 24348. (all) The slope and speed of a warm front compared to the slope and speed of a cold front is in general: A) smaller and slower. B) greater and faster. C) greater and slower. D) smaller and faster. 24396. (all) When a cold front has to cross a chain of mountains, its activity: A) strengthens upwind of the mountains. B) decreases when it reaches the mountains. C) is not disturbed by the mountains. D) ceases immediately. 24406. (all) Where is the projection of the polar front jet stream on the surface most likely to be found in relation to the cold and warm fronts of a depression? A) 300 to 450 NM behind the cold front and 50 to 200 NM ahead of the warm front. B) Up to 100 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front. C) Up to 200 NM either side of the cold front and up to 200 NM either side of the warm front. D) 50 to 200 NM behind the cold front and 300 to 450 NM ahead of the warm front. 24438. (all) Which statement concerning the cold front and warm front of a frontal depression in the northern hemisphere is correct? A) The precipitation zone of the cold front is in general wider than the precipitation zone of the warm front. B) The risk of fog is greater ahead of and behind the warm front than ahead of and behind the cold front. C) While occluding the warm front never becomes a front aloft. D) The wind veers more at the warm front than at the cold front.
26312. (all) What is signified if an occlusion is described as cold? A) On meeting the warm front, the cold front moves up the warm frontal surface. B) It derives from a polar depression. C) The air ahead of the associated warm front is colder than the air behind the associated cold front. D) The air ahead of the associated warm front is less cold than the air behind the associated cold front. 27149. (all) When a cold front has passed over an airfield, the wind will: A) reverse. B) veer. C) not change. D) become laminar. 27150. (all) Bad weather usually follows a low pressure because there will be: A) convergence. B) divergence. C) convergence with lifting of air masses in a deeper layer. D) a sinking of the air masses. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 69 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27429 (A) 27430 (B) 27431 (B) 27457 (A) 27458 (C) 27482 (A) 27613 (D) 27615 (A) 27621 (B) 27429. (all) You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly before an active cold front passes. What does the altimeter indicate? A) It increases. B) It decreases. C) It is not affected by a pressure change. D) The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. 27430. (all) You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shorty after an active cold front has passed. What does the altimeter indicate? A) It increases. B) It decreases. C) It is not affeded by a pressure change. D) The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. 27431. (all) You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft while a cold front passes the airport. What does the altimeter indicate? A) It first decreases and then increases. B) It first increases and then decreases. C) It is not affected by a pressure change. D) The pressure changes are very small and therefore, there is no visible change of the indication. 27457. (all) Describe a warm occlusion at a polar front depression: A) the air behind the cold front is lea cold than the air ahead of the warm front.
B) the air behind the cold front is colder than the air ahead of the warm front. C) the air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the cold front. D) both, the air ahead of the warm front and the air behind the cold front are of approximately the same temperature. 27458. (all) Describe a cold occlusion at a polar front depression: A) the air behind the cold front is lea cold than the air ahead of the warm front. B) the air ahead of the warm front is colder than the air behind the cold front. C) the air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the cold front. D) both, the air ahead of the warm front and the air behind the cold front are of approximately the same temperature. 27482. (all) What can be said about showers at a cold front? A) Unstable air is present. B) They occur mostly in stable air. C) It is a sign for a cold occlusion. D) NS clouds are present. 27613. (all) The average slope of a cold front is approximately: A) 1:150 B) 1:250 C) 1:500 D) 1:80 27615. (all) On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450223015KT 3000 +RA SCTOO8 SCT020 OVC030 13112 Q1010 NOSIG= 0650225008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 QlOlO RERA NOSIG= 0850225006KT 8000 SCT040 SCTIOO 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG= 1050224008KT 9999 SCT040 SCTIOO 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG= 1250223012KT CAVOK 23116 Q1005 NOSIG= 1450223016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 81003 BECMG 25020 G40KT TS= 1650224018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCTOO6 BKN015CB 18H6 Q NOSIG= 1850228012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG= You conclude, that: A) a warm front early in the morning and a cold front late in the afternoon have paned the station. B) a trough line early in the morning and a warm front late in the afternoon have paned the station. C) an air mass thunderstorm only has passed during the entire day. D) a cold front early in the morning and a warm front late in the afternoon have passed the station. 27621. (all) On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 06502 19002 kts 3000 SCT280 08/07 Q1019 BECMG 5000 = 08502 21004KT 8000 BKN280 10107 Q1019 NOSlG = 10502 22007KT CAVOK 14/06 81017 NOSlG = 12502 22012KT 9999 SCT040 SCTIOO BKN250 16/07 Q1016 NOSlG =
14502 22015KT 9999 SCT040 OVC080 17/08 Q1014 NOSlG = 16502 23014KT 8000 -RA SCT030 OVC070 16110 Q1013 TEMPO 3000 = 18502 24018KT 4000 +RA SCTOIO BKN020 OVC040 16/12 Q1011 NOSIG= 20502 26009KT 8000 SCT030 BKN080 19/13 81012 RERA NOS10 = You conclude, that: A) a cold front in the morning, and a second cold front in the afternoon have passed the station. B) a warm front has passed the station during the day. C) a warm front early in the morning, and a cold front in the evening have passed the station. D) a north foehn weather pattern prevailed the entire day. 050-06 AIRMASSES AND FRONTS 70 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27623 (C) 27742 (A) 28428 (D) 28434 (C) 28437 (A) 28476 (B) 28477 (C) 28479 (B) 27623. (all) On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich: 0450224009 kts 7000 SCT040 SCT120 15112 81014 NOSlG= 0650224010KT 6000 SCT040 SCT120 17/13 Q1012 NOSlG= 0850223014KT 8000 BKNIOO 19/13 PI009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS= 10502 28022G33KT 4000 TSRA SCT015 SCT050CB OVC080 16114 Q1006 BECMG NSW= 1250231016KT 9999 SCT025TCU BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSlG= 1450230012KT 9999 SHRA BKN020TCU 14110 QlOll NOSlG = 1650230009KT SCT025 BKN035 13110 Q1013 RESHRA NOSIG= 1850228006KT 9999 SCT040 11/09 Q1014 NOSlG= 2050226004KT CAVOK 10108 PI015 NOSIG= You conclude, that: A) a warm front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have paned the station. B) a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather prevailed in the afternoon. C) a cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather prevailed in the afternoon. D) a cold front in the morning, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the station. 27742. (all) Where does the frontal depression move in the direction of the 2.000 ft wind? A) In the warm sector. B) At the rear side. C) Ahead of the warm front. D) In the center of an occlusion. 28428. (all) In a frontal low: A) the isobars are found in closed and more or less oval circles around the lowest pressure. B) the isobars are often closer to each other than around a high pressure.
C) the wind will tend to be stronger with increasing altitude and also blow more parallel to the isobars. D) all answers are correct. 28434. (all) Define a warm front: A) the front side of a heat wave. B) the situation when cold air displaces warm air. C) the situation when warm air displaces cold air. D) the same as an occlusion. 28437. (all) An occlusion takes place when: A) a cold front catches up with a warm front. B) warm air displaces cold air. C) cold air displaces warm air. D) the front no longer moves. 28476. (all) The following is true concerning a warm front: A) the associated type of weather is mostly uniform and offers only small variations. B) when the air is stable, the clouds are stratiform with uniform precipitation. C) when the air is unstable, the clouds form vertically and showers will develop in the precipitation area. D) both B) and C) are corred. 28477. (all) The following is true concerning a cold front: A) a cold front is normally less steep than a warm front. B) a cold front is normally moving with less speed than a warm front. C) a cold front is normally steeper than a warm front. D) both B) and C) are correct. 28479. (all) In connection with the passage of a front: A) the pressure will increase before it passes. B) the pressure will decrease before it passes. C) after frontal passage, the wind will veer. D) the pressure will decrease before it passes, and after frontal passage, the wind will veer. 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 71 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9353 (D) 9367 (B) 9391 (A) 9405 (C) 27404 (D) 27470 (A) 28435 (A) 28436 (A) 28454 (C) 28467 (A) 9344 (D) 9348 (B) 050-07-01 Location of the principal pressure areas 9353. (all) In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land areas during the northern summer? A) Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada. B) Greenland, Azores, NE Canada. C) Iceland, SW USA, Azores. D) Azores, SE USA, SW Europe. 9367. (all) Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low
pressure system at the surface is usually centered over: A) USA. B) Iceland / Greenland. C) Siberia. D) Azores. 9391. (all) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is: A) Azores, Siberia. B) Siberia, Iceland, Canaries. C) NE Canada, Iceland. D) Greenland, Iberian peninsula. 9405. (all) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are: A) weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high. B) Scandinavian high and Azores high. C) Azores high and weak low over NE Canada. D) Azores low and Icelandic high. 27404. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Select the answer in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30 N and 65N: During winter the predominant low pressure system at the surface is usually centered over: A) USA. B) Siberia. C) Azores. D) Iceland and Greenland. 27470. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is the easterly wave? A) A wave in the trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in the rear of its trough. B) A wave in the moderate latitudes, moving from east to west, with mostly stable air in the rear of its trough. C) An orographic-induced wave, moving to the east, in moderate latitudes. D) A wave in the trade wind belt, moving to the east, with severe convective action in the rear of its trouhg. 28435. (all) Define low pressure: A) an area with lower pressure than that of the horizontal environments. B) an area of convergence. C) a trough. D) none of the above. 28436. (all) Define high pressure: A) an area with higher pressure than that of the horizontal environments. B) a high pressure ridge. C) an area of divergence. D) non of the above. 28454. (all) Describe how a cold high pressure changes at altitude: A) strengthens. B) no change. C) weakens and may transfer into a low pressure. D) impossible to predict.
28467. (all) The formation of high and low pressure areas is normally caused by: A) temperature differences. B) humidity. C) mechanical turbulence. D) storms. 050-07-02 Anticyclone 9344. (all) In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer in the center of a stationary high pressure zone? A) NS. B) TS, SH. C) CB, TS. D) Calm winds, haze. 9348. (all) If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a: A) cold low. B) warm high. C) cold high. D) warm low. 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 72 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9358 (B) 9362 (C) 9390 (A) 9399 (A) 9410 (B) 9415 (C) 9416 (B) 9420 (D) 16433 (B) 24263 (B) 24399 (C) 24457 (A) 28424 (B) 9358. (all) The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by: A) convection. B) subsidence. C) a decrease in temperature. D) a decrease in pressure. 9362. (all) Subsidence is: A) vertically upwards motion of air. B) horizontal motion of air. C) vertically downwards motion of air. D) the same as convection. 9390. (all) The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is called: A) subsidence inversion. B) friction inversion. C) radiation inversion. D) trade wind inversion. 9399. (all) A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is: A) a warm anticyclone (quasi stationary) situated between 30°N and 65°N. B) quasi stationary (situated between 30°N and 65°N) a cold anticyclone. C) situated between 30° and 65°N (a cold anticyclone) steering depressions. D) a cold anticyclone (steering depressions) situated over Scandinavia. 9410. (all)
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the winter? A) Thunderstorms. B) A tendency for fog and low ST. C) NS with continuous rain. D) The possibility of snow showers. 9415. (all) What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at upper levels in a stationary high? A) Instability. B) Rising air. C) Sinking air. D) Divergence at higher levels. 9416. (all) Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it: A) reaches warmer layers. B) is heated by compression. C) is heated by expansion. D) loses water vapour. 9420. (all) What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area? A) Convection B) Convergence C) Advection D) Subsidence 16433. (all) Polar air moving south will become: A) increasingly stable. B) it depends on the pressure. C) conditionally unstable. D) it depends on the humidity. 24263. (all) During summer an anticyclone covers the British Isles giving mainly clear skies. At 0600 UTC a south coast airfield in Southern England reports a surface wind of 350/06. The coastline at the airfield perimeter is aligned in an east/west direction. During the day: A) back to NW and strengthen by mid-afternoon. B) become southerly to south-westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon. C) increase from the north by mid-morning becoming calm towards evening. D) veer to easterly before becoming calm by the afternoon. 24399. (all) When flying at 5.000 feet in the northern hemisphere over plains (flat country) with an anticyclone on the left and a depression on the right, the wind will be: A) from the right. B) from the left. C) a head wind. D) a tail wind. 24457. (all) You are flying in the northern hemisphere at 2.000 ft over a flat country area. An anticyclone is ahead of you and a depression is behind you. The wind affecting you, will be: A) from your right. B) from your left. C) from ahead.
D) from behind. 28424. (all) A high pressure (or anticyclone) is characterized by: A) the wind is blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure on the northern hemisphere. B) the wind is blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure on the southern hemisphere. C) the wind in the friction layer is blowing at an oblique angle and out from the high pressure in relation to the isobars. D) both B) and C) are correct. 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 73 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9349 (A) 9352 (C) 9366 (A) 9392 (C) 9395 (D) 9407 (B) 9408 (C) 9412 (B) 24208 (D) 24256 (D) 26318 (C) 27393 (A) 28433 (D) 28440 (D) 9349. (all) Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere? A) It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense. B) It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense. C) It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary. D) It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary. 9352. (all) What type of air movement is associated with the center line of a trough? A) Divergence with lifting. B) Divergence with descending air. C) Convergence with lifting. D) Convergence with descending air. 9366. (all) With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is: A) strong windshear, convection and snow showers. B) light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling. C) strong wind with subsidence at low levels. D) strong wind associated with an almost clear sky. 9392. (all) How do you recognize a cold air pool? A) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area. B) As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart). C) As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart). D) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area. 9395. (all) What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the center of a cold air pool? A) Nothing (CAVOK). B) Strong westerly winds. C) Fine weather CU. D) Showers and thunderstorms. 9407. (all) A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of: A) divergence and subsidence. B) convergence and widespread ascent. C) divergence and widespread ascent.
D) convergence and subsidence. 9408. (all) Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal depression because of: A) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression. B) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the depression. C) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression. D) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the depression. 9412. (all) Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression? A) It forms over the ocean in summer. B) It forms over land in summer. C) It forms both over the ocean and land in winter. D) It forms over land in winter. 24208. (all) A cold air pool: A) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream. B) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems. C) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer. D) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart. 24256. (all) Cold air pools: A) only occur in winter. B) can easily be recognized on synoptic surface charts. C) only occur at mid-latitudes. D) are most evident in the temperature and wind fields of the upper levels. 26318. (all) A stationary observer in the northern hemisphere is situated in front of a depression. The center of the depression passes from west to east and north of the observer. For this observer the wind: A) initially veers, then backs. B) backs. C) veers. D) initially backs, then veers. 27393. (all) What kind of weather conditions do you encounter in a cold air pool center? A) Showers and thunderstorm. B) Light drizzle. C) Light rain. D) Mostly clear skies. 28433. (all) The formation of a thermal low pressure is by: A) advection of warm air. B) advection of cold air. C) a dynamic effect.
D) a temperature rise in an area in relation to the environment. 28440. (all) Instability low pressure means: A) a lee low. B) orographic low pressure containing condensation heat. C) cold low pressure. D) a low pressure receiving energy from released condensation heat. 050-07-03 Non frontal depressions 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 74 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9339 (D) 9345 (A) 9354 (D) 9355 (C) 9363 (D) 9364 (A) 9369 (D) 9376 (B) 9379 (C) 9380 (D) 9388 (D) 9400 (B) 9402 (A) 9403 (C) 9339. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving storm? A) NS spread over a large area. B) Frequent SC. C) Excessive accumulation of CU. D) Dense CI. 9345. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area? A) West in the earlier stages and later turning north east. B) East then south. C) West deep into the USA. D) West in the earlier stages and later turning south east. 9354. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm? A) The equatorial jet stream. B) Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high pressure belt. C) Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes. D) Latent heat released from condensing water vapour. 9355. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean? A) January until April. B) October until January. C) July until November. D) April until July. 9363. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest? A) NE coast. B) W coast. C) N coast. D) SE coast. 9364. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia? A) December to April. B) May to July. C) August to October. D) Not experienced at Darwin. 9369. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear
in the northern hemisphere? A) All seasons. B) Winter. C) Winter and spring. D) Summer and autumn. 9376. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south Atlantic because: A) there is no Coriolis force present. B) of the low water temperature. C) of the strong southeast wind. D) the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere. 9379. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans? A) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea. B) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase of height. C) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds along sea passage. D) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation. 9380. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area? A) West in the earlier stages and later south east. B) East. C) West deep into the USA. D) West in the earlier stages and later north east. 9388. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is: A) the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh. B) the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the USA. C) the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Reunion. D) the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Taiwan, Korea and the Chinese coastline. 9400. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled U represent the tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A) January to March and are called willy-willies. B) July to October and are called typhoons. C) May to July and are called cyclones. D) December to April and are called tornadoes. 9402. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic? A) From the earths surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings. B) They intensify rapidly after landfall. C) The diameter is 50-500 m. D) Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter. 9403. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?
A) January to May. B) September to January. C) July to November. D) May to July. 050-07-04 Tropical revolving storms 050-07 PRESSURE SYSTEMS 75 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9409 (B) 9411 (C) 9419 (B) 27459 (A) 28451 (A) 9409. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled S represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A) December to April and are called cyclones. B) May to November and are called cyclones. C) May to November and are called hurricanes. D) December to April and are called typhoons. 9411. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled R represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A) June to October and are called typhoons. B) December to April and are called tornadoes. C) December to April and are called cyclones. D) June to October and are called hurricanes. 9419. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm? A) Anywhere in the eye. B) In the wall of clouds around the eye. C) In the center of the eye. D) About 600 km away from the eye. 27459. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Which is the greatest region of tropical revolving storms? A) The northwest Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline. B) The Bermuda Triangle. C) The Carribean Sea, affecting Florida and the Bahamas. D) The Gulf of Mexico, affecting Texas, Louisiana and Florida. 28451. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) To build a hurricane, the following conditions, among others, must be fulfilled: A) the surface temperature at least +27 °C, and the building area 5 - 15° away from the equator. B) building area 5 - 6° away from the equator. C) building area in the equatorial area. D) the hurricane must be in the western areas of the ocean. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 76 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9468 (C) 9473 (C) 10312 (A) 24257 (C) 24258 (B) 24260 (B) 9435 (A) 9456 (D) 9457 (B) 9463 (A) 9470 (B) 9475 (B) 050-08-01 Climatic zones 9468. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in summer is that:
A) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows. B) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter. C) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater in winter. D) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter. 9473. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial region? A) Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July. B) Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the year. C) Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November. D) Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January. 10312. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies? A) 50° N B) 10° N C) 30° N D) 80° N 24257. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Considering the North Atlantic area north of 60°N during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately: A) 37.000 ft B) 56.000 ft C) 29.000 ft D) 20.000 ft 24258. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Considering the North Atlantic at latitude 50°N during winter, the mean height of the tropopause is approximately: A) 23.000 ft B) 31.000 ft C) 43.000 ft D) 54.000 ft 24260. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of the polar front during summer extends from: A) Florida to SW England. B) Newfoundland to N Scotland. C) NE Canada to Iceland. D) Greenland to Spain. 050-08-02 Tropical climatology 9435. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-continent? A) Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air. B) Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air. C) Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air. D) Southeasterly winds carrying warm and humid air. 9456. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct? A) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course
of the year. B) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ. C) The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream. D) Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ. 9457. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects: A) western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July. B) western Africa between 10° and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian sea in July. C) the atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year. D) western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on the time of the year. 9463. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator? A) SE trade winds and NE trade winds. B) SW monsoon and NW monsoon. C) SW monsoon and NW trade winds. D) NW monsoon and SW trade winds. 9470. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct? A) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents. B) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over the oceans. C) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans. D) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the continents. 9475. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Weather conditions at Bombay during January are mainly influenced by the: A) SW monsoon. B) NE monsoon. C) NW monsoon. D) SE monsoon. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 77 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9479 (B) 9481 (A) 9484 (D) 9486 (B) 9490 (D) 9519 (B) 9523 (A) 10297 (D) 10299 (C) 10300 (D) 10302 (D) 10307 (A) 10316 (A) 9479. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In which month does the humid monsoon in India start? A) In October. B) In June. C) In December. D) In March. 9481. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) An easterly wave is a: A) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough. B) wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough. C) small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from
east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its trough. D) disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough. 9484. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-30) What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar during July? A) Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan. B) Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system. C) Generally clear skies - NW trade winds. D) Wet and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). 9486. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of West Africa? A) It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in January. B) It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in July. C) It oscillates during the year between 10° N and 10° S. D) It oscillates during the year between the equator and 10° N. 9490. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)? A) Doldrums. B) Westerly winds. C) Monsoon. D) Trade winds. 9519. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are mainly influenced by the A) NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ. B) SW monsoon. C) passage of frontal system generated in the south indian ocean. D) high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf. 9523. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves? A) Thunderstorms and rain. B) Continuous rain. C) Clear skies. D) Frontal weather. 10297. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During July flights from Bangkok (13°N 100°E) to Karachi (25°N 67°E) experience an average tailwind component of 22 kts. In January the same flights, also operating at FL370, have an average headwind of 50 kts. What is the reason for this difference? A) The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream. B) The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favorable conditions. C) The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions.
D) The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind system. 10299. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the: A) NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January. B) SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January. C) SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January. D) SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January. 10300. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be encountered? A) At the latitudes of Algeria. B) Near the Canary Islands. C) At the latitudes of Gibraltar. D) In the vicinity of Dakar. 10302. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere? A) N B) NE C) SW D) SE 10307. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa? A) March to May and October to November. B) December to February and July to October. C) March to May and August to October. D) April to July and December to February. 10316. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in: A) September, October, November. B) July, August, September. C) December, January, February. D) February, March, April. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 78 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10328 (D) 10333 (C) 10334 (B) 10337 (C) 10563 (A) 16333 (B) 16334 (D) 16336 (C) 24106 (C) 24133 (A) 24134 (A) 24135 (A) 24150 (B) 10328. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India? A) Fog. B) Stratus clouds and drizzle. C) Sandstorms. D) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain. 10333. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro? A) 8° - 12°S. B) 3° - 8°S. C) 0° - 7°N. D) 7° - 12°N. 10334. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone? A) The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly
trade winds over Africa. B) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern hemisphere. C) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics. D) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt. 10337. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest proportion of precipitation? A) Indian, maritime tropical air mass. B) South-east trade wind. C) South-west monsoon. D) Winter monsoon. 10563. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zonal system of world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone: A) U B) T C) V D) W 16333. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In January, mean high pressure areas are usually present over: A) the Aleutians, Australia, South America. B) the Azores, Siberia, the South Pacific. C) the South Pacific, the Azores, Australia. D) Greenland, Siberia, northwest Australia. 16334. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements concerning the ITCZ is correct? A) In the southern summer it is normally positioned entired south of the equator. B) Its furthest displacement from the equator is normally about 45°S. C) It is normally fed with converging northern and southern trad winds. D) Its assocated weather is invariably strong convergence and heavy cumuliform cloud. 16336. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The Doldrums: A) is another name for the sub-tropical anticyclones. B) are cols between weak fronts encountered in low latitudes. C) are weak inter-tropical convergence zones. D) are associated with light and variable monsoon winds. 24106. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering the sector from 10°N to Nairobi of the route indicated, during January the upper winds at the 300 hPa level are most likely to be: A) westerlies in excess of 60 kts. B) easterly jet streams in excess of 70 kts. C) light easterlies. D) westerlies at 40 kts. 24133. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-32) The arrows labelled T represents the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from: A) June to October and are called cyclones. B) December to April and are called hurricanes.
C) June to October and are called tornadoes. D) June to October and are called hurricanes. 24134. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-30) Considering that portion of the route indicated from 30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL300 are most likely to be: A) a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kts. B) a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kts. C) variable in direction and less than 30 kts. D) light easterlies. 24135. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-33) Which is true of Nairobi (Kenya)? A) There are two wet seasons. B) Apart from the wet season(s) it is cloud and rain free. C) There is one wet season. D) In July it is frequently affected by clear skies and northerly winds from North Africa. 24150. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-31) The typical weather conditions affecting the Darwin area during July are: A) NE monsoon - continuous heavy rain but little thunderstorm activity. B) dry season - mainly SE winds - visibility reduced by dust and haze. C) NW monsoon - very wet - proximity of the intertropical convergence zone causes widespread thunderstorm activity. D) mainly clear skies - advection fog drifting inland with the typical NE wind. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 79 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24265 (A) 24310 (C) 24312 (C) 24404 (D) 27456 (A) 28452 (B) 9446 (C) 9458 (A) 9461 (A) 10289 (C) 10304 (A) 10319 (A) 24265. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) During the approach to Bombay (19°N 73°E ) on the west coast of India, you are listening to the ATIS on 15 July at 0700 LT. Which of the following reports is most likely? A) 25014KT 4500 SHRA SCT015 BKN025CB 25/24 Q1006 NOSIG= B) 05013KT 3500 MIFG SCT003 BKN005 19/14 Q1012 BECMG 8000= C) 02005KT CAVOK 24/09 Q1030 NOSIG= D) 30012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT200 20/16 Q1025 BECMG 4000 BR= 24310. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On the west coast of India it can be said in general that the wind blows: A) the whole year from the northeast. B) for six month from the northwest and for six month from the southeast. C) for six month from the northeast and for six month from the southwest. D) the whole year from the southeast.
24312. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Over which areas can tropical cyclones occur? A) Australia, Gulf of Bengal, Atlantic ocean at 20°S. B) India, Arabic sea, Atlantic ocean at 2°S. C) Caribbean sea, Gulf of Bengal, Indian ocean east of Madagascar. D) Caribbean sea, Indian ocean at 20°S, Pacific ocean at 2°N. 24404. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Where do the trade winds blow? A) At the equator. B) Between the horse latitudes and the mid latitudes. C) Between the horse latitudes and the equatorial highs. D) Between the horse latitudes and the doldrums. 27456. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) The ITCZ affects: A) west Africa between 10° and 30° N, and the north coasts of the Arabian Sea. B) east Africa between 10° and 20° N. C) west Africa between 10° and 30° N only. D) the entire African continent. 28452. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) Mention one of the characteristics of the Monsoons: A) daily change of wind direction. B) yearly change of wind direction. C) the wind blowing from one direction all the year. D) the wind blowing along the 40° south, from the west towards the east. 050-08-03 Typical weather situations in mid-latitudes 9446. (all) A cold pool: A) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer. B) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in association with occluded systems. C) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart. D) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream. 9458. (all) Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone is true? A) There are frequent occurrences of CB. B) It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in January. C) It does not change its position over the oceans during the year. D) It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity. 9461. (all) (Refer to figure 050-29) Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? (spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa) A) Flat pressure pattern. B) Cutting wind. C) West wind condition. D) Warm south wind condition (Foehn). 10289. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-52) Which typical weather situation is shown by the design for northern Italy? A) Westerly wind. B) Warm southerly wind. C) High pressure. D) Easterly wind. 10304. (all) With a flat pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes? A) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small. B) Increase rapidly. C) Show strong fluctuations. D) Decrease rapidly. 10319. (all) (Refer to figure 050-54) Which typical weather situation is shown by the design for the area of central Europe? A) Westerly waves. B) Uniform pressure pattern. C) Cutting wind. D) Easterly waves. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 80 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16339 (C) 24102 (C) 24287 (C) 24337 (B) 24437 (A) 26320 (A) 28450 (B) 9429 (A) 9430 (C) 9441 (A) 9449 (B) 9451 (C) 9466 (C) 16339. (all) Which of the following statements is correct? A) In winter the Savannah climatic region is governed by the equatorial rains. B) Trade wind seldom extend much above 5.000 feet. C) The outflow of air from the Siberian high over northern China an Japan is initally north-westerly. D) The easterly jet stream normally appears at the 200 mb level. 24102. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone X is an area of: A) NE trade winds. B) travelling low pressure systems. C) subtropical high pressure systems. D) the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). 24287. (all) In mid-latitudes, the tops of cumulus are often limited by: A) a radiation inversion. B) a layer of unstable air. C) a temperature inversion. D) the tropopause. 24337. (all) The length, width and height of a typical mid-latitude jet stream are respectively: A) 1.000 NM, 150 NM, 30.000 ft. B) 1.000 NM, 150 NM, 18.000 ft.
C) 1.000 NM, 5.000 to 8.000 ft, 30.000 ft. D) 200 NM, 5 NM, 18.000 ft. 24437. (all) Which statement about hurricanes in the North Atlantic is correct? A) Their eye can be well observed by weather satellites. B) They intensify after landfall. C) They move towards the equator. D) They move with a speed of at least 60 kts. 26320. (all) The pressure system indicated when, in a vertical cross section, the lower situated pressure surfaces bulge upward and the higher situated pressure surfaces bulge downward is a: A) cold high pressure area. B) cold low pressure area. C) warm low pressure area. D) warm high pressure area. 28450. (all) List the characteristics of a typical coastal climate: A) warm summer and cold winter. B) chilly summer and mild winter. C) small amounts of precipitation. D) stable weather. 050-08-04 Local seasonal weather and wind 9429. (all) The Chinook is a: A) warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains. B) very cold wind with blowing snow. C) downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes. D) warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers. 9430. (all) What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe? A) Bora B) Foehn C) Mistral D) Typhoon 9441. (all) Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south (Foehn)? A) Good visibility, turbulence. B) Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence. C) Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing. D) Icing, huge mass of clouds. 9449. (all) A dry, sand- and dust-laden northeasterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of northwest Africa is known as a: A) Scirocco B) Harmattan C) Pampero D) Khamsin 9451. (all) For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan wind? A) Sand up to FL150. B) Thunderstorms.
C) Dust and poor visibility. D) Hail. 9466. (all) What are the characteristics of the Bora? A) It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation. B) It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in the Mediterranean. C) It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland downwards to the Adriatic. D) It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 81 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9474 (B) 9488 (A) 9495 (D) 9507 (C) 9524 (D) 9527 (C) 9747 (A) 9808 (A) 10301 (D) 10326 (C) 10329 (D) 10330 (A) 10331 (C) 9474. (all) (Refer to figure 050-53) Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the following statements is likely to apply? A) Severe gradient wind likely over central Europe. B) Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over central Europe. C) Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps. D) Radiation fog is unlikely in central Europe in the winter. 9488. (all) Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation? A) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south. B) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north. C) Frontal zones. D) Occlusions. 9495. (all) What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn from south? A) Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps. B) Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps. C) Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps. D) Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps. 9507. (all) The Foehn wind is a: A) warm anabatic wind. B) cold fall wind. C) warm fall wind. D) cold anabatic wind. 9524. (all) What is characteristic of the pamperos? A) Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees. B) Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains. C) A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America. D) A marked advance of cold air in South America. 9527. (all) What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing
down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called? A) Mistral B) Ghibli C) Bora D) Scirocco 9747. (all) What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate? A) Because the Earths spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun. B) Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year. C) Because the Earth s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year. D) Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year. 9808. (all) At what times of the year does the length of the hours of daylight change most rapidly? A) Spring Equinox and Autumn Equinox. B) Summer Solstice and Winter Solstice. C) Spring Equinox and Summer Solstice. D) Autumn Equinox and Winter Solstice. 10301. (all) A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is known as a: A) Bora B) Harmattan C) Mistral D) Foehn 10326. (all) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a: A) warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa. B) SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the west African coast south of 15°N. C) NE wind affecting northwest Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising dust. D) localised depression giving squally winds. 10329. (all) A Foehn wind occurs on the: A) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the windward side. B) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating. C) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow. D) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud. 10330. (all) What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather situation. A) Foehn B) Mistral
C) Bora D) Scirocco 10331. (all) The Bora is a: A) cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass. B) squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer. C) cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts. D) cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 82 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10336 (C) 15829 (B) 24101 (A) 24103 (B) 24104 (A) 24250 (A) 24259 (A) 24268 (B) 24271 (A) 24290 (C) 24311 (D) 24325 (C) 24327 (B) 10336. (all) Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? A) Harmattan B) Scirocco C) Chinook D) Bora 15829. (all) 8/8 stratus base 200 ft AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1.028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kts. What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter? A) Winter: SCT base 3.000 ft AGL; summer OVC base 500 ft AGL. B) Winter: OVC base 500 ft AGL; summer SCT base 3.000 ft AGL. C) Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1.500 ft AGL. D) Winter: BKN base 2.500 ft AGL; summer BKN base 3.500 ft AGL. 24101. (all) (Refer to figure 050-30) Considering the route indicated from Recife to Dakar the mean height of the tropopause during January is approximately: A) 56.000 ft B) 43.000 ft C) 36.000 ft D) 29.000 ft 24103. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone: A) T B) W C) U D) V 24104. (all) (Refer to figure 050-26) Assuming a generalized zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zone: A) S and Y. B) T only. C) T and X. D) U and W.
24250. (all) At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by the equatorial jet stream? A) FL500 from June to August. B) FL500 from November to February. C) FL400 during the winter in the northern hemisphere. D) FL400 during the winter in the southern hemisphere. 24259. (all) Considering the North Atlantic between 30°N and 65°N, the mean position of the polar front during winter extends from: A) Florida to SW England. B) Newfoundland to Iceland. C) Iceland to Norway. D) NE Canada to Portugal. 24268. (all) For an airfield located in the British Isles, the passage of a warm front from the cold air side will usually be indicated by: A) a fall in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind backing and decreasing. B) rise in temperature, rise in dew point temperature, wind veers and decreases. C) rapid improvement in visibility, pressure falling rapidly, wind veering and increasing. D) rise in temperature, rapid rise in pressure, wind backs and becomes gusty. 24271. (all) From summer to winter the polar front jet stream over the North Atlantic moves: A) towards the south and the speed increases. B) towards the north and the speed increases. C) towards the south and the speed decreases. D) towards the north and the speed decreases. 24290. (all) In summer in the northern hemisphere the maximum wind speeds associated with sub-tropical jet streams are usually located A) below the tropopause at about 300 hPa. B) above the tropopause at about 100 hPa. C) below the tropopause at about 200 hPa. D) above the tropopause at about 250 hPa. 24311. (all) Over the Indian ocean and the Bay of Bengal tropical cyclones are: A) frequently observed, in the average 15 per year over the Indian Ocean, but never over the Bay of Bengal. B) rare, in the average one every two years. C) never observed. D) occasionally observed, in the average 12 per year. 24325. (all) The air masses that are observed most frequently over western Europe are: A) polar air and equatorial air. B) arctic air and polar air. C) polar air and tropical air. D) arctic air and tropical air. 24327. (all) The average position of the polar front in the northern hemisphere is:
A) B) C) D)
more southerly during the summer than during the winter. more southerly during the winter than during the summer. located near 55°N during the whole year. located near 65°N during the whole year.
050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 83 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24329 (B) 24331 (B) 24344 (B) 24350 (C) 24359 (D) 24368 (C) 24393 (D) 24397 (D) 24426 (A) 24439 (B) 24446 (B) 24449 (B) 24450 (D) 24329. (all) The easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs: A) only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30.000 ft. B) only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45.000 ft. C) during the whole year in the southern hemisphere. D) during the whole year in the northern hemisphere. 24331. (all) The Foehn wind is a: A) cold katabatic wind. B) warm katabatic wind. C) warm anabatic wind. D) cold anabatic wind. 24344. (all) The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a: A) SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer. B) SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter. C) NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter. D) NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer. 24350. (all) The SW monsoon starts in the month of: A) december in southern India to reach Pakistan in May. B) september in Pakistan to reach southern India in November. C) june in southern India to reach Pakistan in July. D) march in southern India to reach Pakistan end of April. 24359. (all) Tropical revolving storms are not formed in: A) south Indian ocean. B) gulf of Bengal. C) waters around the Philippines. D) south Atlantic ocean. 24368. (all) What is a favourable synoptic situation for the development of a Scirocco? A) Extension of the Azores high pressure area over the Alps. B) High pressure area over Italy. C) Low pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea. D) High pressure area in the western part of the Mediterranean sea. 24393. (all) What type of weather can usually be expected in a polar maritime air mass over central Europe in the daytime during summer? A) Sky clear. B) Continuous rain and poor visibility.
C) Drizzle and low stratus. D) Showers and good visibility. 24397. (all) When and where is an easterly jet stream likely to be encountered? A) Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high. B) In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean. C) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain. D) In summer from southeast Asia extending over southern India to central Africa. 24426. (all) Which of the following statements concerning the variation in wind speed between summer and winter on the North Atlantic between FL300 and FL400 is most correct? A) The average westerly component is greater in the winter than in the summer. The latitude of the axis of greatest seasonal wind speed is further south in winter than in summer. B) The average westerly component remains the same but the axis of greatest speeds moves south in winter. C) The average westerly component remains the same but the altitude of greatest wind speed reduces in winter. D) The average westerly component is greater in the summer than in the winter. The latitude of the axis of greatest wind speed is also further north in summer than in winter. 24439. (all) Which statement concerning the Sirocco is correct? A) It is a northeasterly wind over the western part of North Africa with much dust and sand. B) It blows from southerly directions and can carry dust and sand which may reach Europe. C) The carried dust and sand does not reach great heights. This is caused by the presence of a trade wind inversion. D) It is formed by a strong increase of air pressure over North Africa. 24446. (all) Which statement is correct for the southern hemisphere? A) The jet streams are easterly. B) In the friction layer the wind backs with increasing height. C) The wind veers at the passage of a cold front. D) If the wind veers with increasing height then warm air is advected. 24449. (all) Which two air masses are most likely to govern weather in western Europe? A) Continental tropical warm and continental polar cold. B) Maritime tropical warm and maritime polar cold. C) Maritime tropical warm and continental polar cold. D) Maritime polar warm and continental tropical warm. 24450. (all) Which type of air mass never occurs over central Europe? A) Tropical air. B) Arctic air. C) Polar air. D) Equatorial air. 050-08 CLIMATOLOGY 84 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com
25621 (A) 25631 (A) 25635 (B) 26322 (D) 27406 (A) 27414 (B) 27467 (A) 27468 (A) 27469 (A) 25621. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 050-31) Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of: A) subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in the adjacent zone of westerly waves. B) antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south Australia and Antarctica. C) disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain. D) equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over central Australia. 25631. (all) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems during summer? A) 45° - 70°. B) 25° - 45°. C) 15° - 25°. D) 10° - 15°. 25635. (all) What is the surface visibility most likely to be in a warm sector of maritime tropical air during a summer afternoon in western Europe? A) Very poor (less than 1 km). B) Moderate (several km). C) Very good (greater than 50 km). D) Good (greater than 10 km). 26322. (all) During summer, a weak pressure gradient covers a coastal airfield in eastern England resulting in mainly clear skies. The surface wind at dawn was calm. If the alignment of the coastline in the vicinity of the airfield is predominantly north/south, the surface wind direction is likely to become: A) westerly and then southerly by evening. B) easterly and then westerly by afternoon. C) westerly and increase in velocity by afternoon. D) easterly to southeasterly and increase in velocitiy by afternoon. 27406. (all) Which of the following is a cold katabatic wind flowing towards the Adriatic sea? A) Bora B) Scirocco C) Ghibli D) Mistral 27414. (all) What typical weather do you encounter during foehn conditions north of the Alps? A) Good weather. B) Turbulence during south foehn. C) Heavy rain and NS clouds. D) Icing. 27467. (all) Define the Chinook: A) warm and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains. B) cold and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Appalachian Mountains.
C) a dust and sand laden northeasterly wind in Northwest Africa. D) warm and dry air ascending on the West Side of the-Rocky Mountains. 27468. (all) Define the Foehn: A) warm and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Alp. B) cold and dry air descending at the leeward side of the Appalachian Mountains. C) strong, cold wind, mostly obsenred in the Rhone valley, blowing towards Southern France. D) warm and dry air ascending on the west side of the Alps. 27469. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl) What is a dry, sand and dust-laden northeasterly wind in the winter in northwest Africa? A) Harmattan B) Khamsin C) Scirocco D) Pampero 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 85 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9536 (B) 9537 (D) 9541 (C) 9548 (C) 9568 (D) 9570 (A) 9581 (D) 9595 (A) 9604 (B) 9608 (A) 9612 (C) 9615 (B) 9616 (D) 050-09-01 Icing 9536. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an airplane, form: A) rime ice. B) clear ice. C) hoar frost. D) cloudy ice. 9537. (all) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? A) CU B) SC C) NS D) CI 9541. (all) You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air temperature is -25 °C. Which of the following statements is true? A) If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloud. B) Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions. C) Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions. D) In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5 °C. 9548. (all) In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircrafts surface? A) -20 °C to -35 °C. B) +10 °C to 0 °C. C) 0 °C to -10 °C. D) -35 °C to -50 °C. 9568. (all)
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out? A) NS B) AS C) SC D) CS 9570. (all) On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5 °C. The freezing level is at 3.000 ft AGL. At 4.000 ft AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is falling. According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing? A) Yes, between ground level and 3.000 ft AGL. B) Yes, but only between 3.000 and 4.000 ft AGL. C) No, flights clear of cloud experience no icing. D) No, absolutely no icing will occur. 9581. (all) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing? A) PE B) GR C) SHSN D) +FZRA 9595. (all) A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely: A) freeze immediately and create rime ice. B) freeze immediately and create clear ice. C) travel back over the wing, creating rime ice. D) travel back over the wing, creating clear ice. 9604. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white and rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This contamination is called: A) clear ice. B) rime ice. C) mixed ice. D) frost. 9608. (all) In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing? A) Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C. B) Flying in dense cirrus clouds. C) Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer. D) Flying in heavy drizzle. 9612. (all) Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is most correct? A) Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 °C. B) Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds. C) A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces aircraft icing. D) Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud. 9615. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all)
Hoar frost is most likely to form when: A) flying inside convective clouds. B) taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion. C) flying inside stratiform clouds. D) flying in supercooled drizzle. 9616. (all) Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft? A) Relative humidity inside the cloud. B) Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets. C) Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil. D) Cloud temperature and droplet size. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 86 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9618 (B) 9621 (B) 9624 (C) 9626 (B) 10341 (B) 10345 (B) 10353 (D) 10358 (D) 10368 (B) 10373 (B) 10376 (B) 10377 (A) 10378 (C) 10379 (A) 9618. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Freezing fog exists if fog droplets: A) are frozen. B) are supercooled. C) are freezing very rapidly. D) freeze when temperature falls below zero. 9621. (all) Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion? A) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S. B) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T. C) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing. D) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets. 9624. (all) A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to 0 °C at ground level, you can expect: A) reduced visibility and light icing in clouds. B) decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds. C) a high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to accumulation of large droplets. D) turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals. 9626. (all) Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled cloud droplets? A) Stratocumulus and cirrostratus. B) Altocumulus and altostratus. C) Stratus and cumulonimbus. D) Altostratus and cirrocumulus. 10341. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) At what degree of icing should ICAOs change course and/ or altitude immediately instruction be followed? A) Light. B) Severe.
C) Moderate. D) Extreme. 10345. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of: A) water vapour. B) large supercooled water drops. C) small supercooled water drops. D) snow. 10353. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Clear ice is dangerous because it: A) spreads out and contains many air particles. B) is translucent and only forms at the leading edges. C) is not translucent and forms at the leading edges. D) is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces. 10358. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) The most dangerous form of airframe icing is: A) rime ice. B) hoar frost. C) dry ice. D) clear ice. 10368. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation? A) Cirrus clouds. B) Freezing rain. C) Stratus clouds. D) Snow. 10373. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) At what degree of icing should ICAOs change of course and/or altitude desirable recommendation be followed? A) Light. B) Moderate. C) Severe. D) Extreme. 10376. (all) Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile: 3.000 ft +15 °C 6.000 ft +8 °C 10.000 ft +1 °C 14.000 ft -6 °C 18.000 ft -14 °C 24.000 ft -26 °C At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest? A) FL80 B) FL150 C) FL180 D) FL220 10377. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Clear ice forms as a result of: A) supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process. B) water vapour freezing to the aircraft. C) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft. D) supercooled droplets freezing on impact. 10378. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of: A) water vapour.
B) large supercooled water drops. C) small supercooled water drops. D) snow. 10379. (all) How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2.000 ft AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land? A) He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability. B) He descends to the warm air layer below. C) He ascends to the cold air layer above. D) He continues to fly at the same altitude. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 87 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10386 (C) 10391 (B) 10392 (A) 10430 (B) 10435 (A) 10442 (D) 15839 (C) 15873 (A) 15875 (D) 16327 (C) 16441 (C) 16442 (D) 16443 (A) 16444 (B) 10386. (all) Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB? A) Close to the freezing level. B) Between -20 °C and -30 °C. C) Between -2 °C and -15 °C. D) Between -30 °C and -40 °C. 10391. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are: A) small and at a temperature just below freezing. B) large and at a temperature just below freezing. C) small and freeze rapidly. D) of any size at temperatures below -35 °C. 10392. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5 °C is most likely to be: A) clear ice. B) hoar frost. C) rime ice. D) cloudy ice. 10430. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) At what degree of icing can ICAOs No change of course and altitude necessary recommendation be followed? A) Moderate B) Light C) Severe D) Extreme 10435. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of: A) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface. B) freezing rain striking the aircraft. C) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing. D) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft. 10442. (all) Which of the following statements is true regarding moderateto-severe airframe icing? A) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation. B) It always occurs in altostratus cloud. C) It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud.
D) It will not occur in clear-sky conditions. 15839. (all) Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing? A) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation. B) It always occurs in altostratus cloud. C) It may occur in nimbostratus cloud. D) It will occur in clear-sky conditions. 15873. (all) During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze: A) rapidly and do not spread out. B) slowly and do not spread out. C) slowly and spread out. D) rapidly and spread out. 15875. (all) A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the temperature profile: A) coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) indicates temperatures below -40 °C. C) indicates temperatures above 3 °C. D) intersects the 0 °C isotherm twice. 16327. (all) The icing in cloud which forms over hills is likely to be more severe than in the same type of cloud over level terrain because: A) orographic lifting causes the freezing level to rise and increases the free water content of the cloud. B) increases the temperature inside the cloud by forcing the release of latent heat so caousing the air to hold more water vapour. C) enforced ascent of air releases more water, which is retained in the cloud by the increased upward components. D) adiablatic cooling lowers the freezing level and the water content of the cloud. 16441. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which one of the following statements concerning icing in freezing rain is correct? A) A coating of clear ice forms when water vapour sublimates. B) Rime ice forms when large water drops freeze. C) Clear ice forms when large water drops freeze. D) Hoar frost form when small water droplets freeze. 16442. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) One of the most serious consequences of icing on the wings of an aircraft is? A) The wing construction being unable to bear the increased load. B) Lift becoming too great as the aircraft becomes heavier. C) The lift coefficient increasing as the aircraft becomes heavier. D) The stalling speed increasing substantially. 16443. (AIR: atpl, ir) Icing on the wings of an aircraft normally causes: A) the stalling speed to increase. B) the stalling speed to decrease. C) the interference drag to increase. D) the interference drag to decrease. 16444. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) A thin coating of hoar frost on the airfoil surface:
A) B) C) D)
does not affect takeoff performance. has deleterious effects on the lift of the wing. affects the aspect ratio of the wing. only affects stability.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 88 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16445 (C) 24226 (A) 24234 (A) 24235 (D) 24267 (C) 24278 (C) 24286 (C) 24298 (C) 24334 (D) 24340 (B) 24360 (A) 24364 (A) 16445. (all) Which one of the wollowing precipitation types gives the most severe icing? A) Snowfall. B) Mixed rain and snow. C) Freezing rain. D) Ice pellets. 24226. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) After a prolonged VMC descent in very cold air, you penetrate a humid air mass. What type of icing will you encounter? A) Hoar frost. B) Rime ice. C) Clear ice. D) Smooth icing. 24234. (all) An aircraft descents in layered clouds; the freezing level is situated at FL60. At what levels is the probability for airframe icing the highest? A) Between FL120 and FL60. B) Between FL120 and FL180. C) Between FL60 and FL20. D) At FL140. 24235. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) An aircraft flies into supercooled rain in an area with a temperature below 0 °C. The type of icing it will most likely encounter is: A) granular frost. B) hoar frost. C) rime ice. D) clear ice. 24267. (all) For a VFR aircraft, the conditions in which it could encounter severe airframe icing are: A) flight into an area outside of clouds where the temperature is below 0 °C, resulting in rime ice formation. B) flight into supercooled rain, resulting in rime ice formation. C) flight into freezing rain, resulting in clear ice formation. D) flight between two cloud layers, without precipitation, resulting in clear ice formation. 24278. (all) Ice accretion to the airframe is likely to be most hazardous at temperatures: A) between 0 °C and -17 °C in ST. B) between 0 °C and -17 °C in AS. C) between 0 °C and -23 °C in large CU. D) below -40 °C in CB. 24286. (all) In mature Cb s the probability of severe icing, according to meteorological rules, is greatest in the following temperature
range: A) -23 °C to -40 °C. B) +5 °C to 0 °C. C) 0 °C to -23 °C. D) -40 °C to -60 °C. 24298. (all) In which conditions would you most likely encounter clear icing, and how would it normally appear? A) Cumuliform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -20 °C and 25 °C. Appears transparent and tends to take the shape of the surface on which it freezes. B) Stratiform clouds, small water droplets, temperatures between -10 °C and -20 °C. Appears granular and tends to accumulate forward into the air stream. C) Cumuliform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures between 0 °C and -15 °C. Appears smooth and tends to spread back over an aircraft wing. D) Stratiform clouds, large water droplets, temperatures well below freezing. Appears opaque and builds forward from leading surface into a sharp edge. 24334. (all) The formation of clear ice on the leading edges of an aircraft is most likely to be caused by the: A) relatively slow freezing of small supercooled water droplets and ice crystals. B) instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water droplets. C) instantaneous freezing of large supercooled water droplets and snow crystals. D) relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets. 24340. (all) The most dangerous icing conditions are encountered in: A) icy clouds at high levels. B) supercooled precipitation. C) unstable clouds at medium levels. D) zones where the air temperature is below -15 °C. 24360. (all) What are the characteristics of rime ice, and what conditions are most favourable for its formation? A) Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and accumulating forward into the air stream. Stratiform clouds at temperatures of -0 °C to -15 °C are most conducive to its formation. B) Opaque rough appearance, tending to spread back over an aircraft surface. Most frequently encountered in cumuliform clouds at temperatures slightly below freezing. C) Smooth appearance and builds forward from leading surfaces into a sharp edge. Most common in cumuliform clouds at temperatures of -20 °C to -25 °C. D) Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface on which it freezes. Stratiform clouds and temperatures only slightly below freezing promote its formation. 24364. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What intensity and type of aircraft icing is likely to occur at FL100 in a thunderstorm, with the freezing level at 7.000 ft? A) Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice. B) Light icing due to rime ice. C) Moderate to severe icing due to rime ice. D) Light icing due to clear ice.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 89 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24365 (A) 24366 (C) 24428 (A) 24433 (A) 25633 (A) 26315 (A) 27310 (B) 27451 (A) 27472 (A) 27473 (B) 27474 (A) 27475 (A) 27476 (A) 27478 (A) 27479 (A) 24365. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when aircraft descend rapidly from FL320 (temp. -45 °C) to FL60 in warm, moist clear air? A) Light or moderate hoar frost. B) Moderate opaque rime. C) Nil ice. D) Light opaque rime and light clear ice. 24366. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) What intensity and type of airframe icing is most likely to occur when flying at FL170 in AS with the outside air temperature at -20 °C? A) Moderate - hoar frost. B) Severe - clear. C) Light - rime. D) Moderate - clear. 24428. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) Which of the following statements is correct? A) Airframe icing can occur in clear air. B) Haze is a reduction of visibility due to the presence of water vapour. C) Mountain waves are always accompanied by rotor clouds. D) Above the tropopause no turbulence occurs. 24433. (all) Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing? A) It will not occur in clear-sky conditions. B) It always occurs in altostratus cloud. C) It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud. D) It will occur in the anvil part of the cumulonimbus cloud. 25633. (all) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is the evidence that: A) temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitudes. B) a cold front has passed. C) there are thunderstorms in the area. D) after takeoffyou can climb to a higher altitude without encountering more than light icing conditions. 26315. (AIR: atpl, ir; HELI: all) An aircraft is parked overnight prior to an early morning departure. The crew notice a slight glistening on top of the wings. The wings look clear though. The pilot should, under these conditions, appreciate that: A) the aircraft should be sprayed with de-icing with fluid of the correct type. B) there is a slight risk of ice accretion. C) the aircraft will takeoff within the normal runway length. D) nothing particular will happen during takeoff. 27310. (all) Airframe icing: A) cannot occur outside cloud or precipitation. B) can occur outside cloud or precipitation. C) can only occur if the Outside Air Temperature (OAT) is bellow zero.
D) occurs only, when the temperature is below -15C. 27451. (all) In which cloud type does moderate to severe airframe icing most probably occur? A) NS B) ST C) CS D) AC 27472. (all) While forming rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze: A) rapidly and do not spread out. B) rapidly and spread out extensively. C) slowly and do not spread out. D) on impact, at temperatures near the freezing level. 27473. (all) While forming clear ice in flight, water droplets freeze: A) rapidly and do not spread out. B) and spread out extensively. C) slowly and do not spread out. D) on impact, at temperatures lower than -10 °C. 27474. (all) When is clear ice formed? A) When supercooled droplets are large and at a temperature just below freezing. B) When supercooled droplets freeze rapidly and do not spread out. C) When supercooled droplets are small and at a temperature just below freezing. D) When supercooled droplets impact the structure and at a temperature well below -10 °C. 27475. (all) What can be said about supercooled water droplets? A) They remain liquid at a below-freezing temperature. B) They don t contribute to clear ice. C) They only occur in CB clouds. D) They cool to a below-freezing temperature on impact. 27476. (all) Which aiframe icing is the most dangerous? A) Clear ice. B) Rime ice. C) Hoar frost. D) Mixed ice. 27478. (all) Which cloud type of the following is most prone to airframe icing? A) NS B) AC C) SC D) ST 27479. (all) In which cloud type of the following does no airframe icing occur? A) CI B) NS C) CB D) AS 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 90 © 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 27480 (A) 27662 (D) 27663 (B) 27665 (A) 28422 (C) 28425 (D) 28426 (B) 28427 (D) 28429 (A) 28438 (A) 9603 (D) 9625 (D) 10360 (A) 27480. (all) What can be said if you encounter +FZRA during flight? A) Icing will most probably occur. B) There is no significant icing to expect. C) Freezing rain consists of water droplets which supercool to below-freezing temperatures on impact. D) Only light rime ice has to be expected. 27662. (all) In which temperature range does clear ice most commonly occur? A) 5 °C to -10 °C. B) -10 °C to -15 °C. C) -15 °C. D) 0 °C. 27663. (all) In which temperature range does rime ice most commonly occur? A) -5 °C to -10 °C. B) 0 °C. C) -15 °C. D) 0 °C to 6 °C. 27665. (all) In which temperature range does mixed ice most commonly occur? A) 0 °C. B) -10 °C to -15 °C. C) -15 °C. D) 0 °C to 6 °C. 28422. (all) Which conditions result in the formation of hoar frost? A) The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. B) When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing. C) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of surrounding air and the dew point is colder than freezing. D) None of the above is correct. 28425. (all) Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is: A) 0 °C to minus 20 °C. B) minus 5 °C to minus 10 °C. C) minus 5 °C to plus 5 °C. D) 0 °C to minus 5 °C. 28426. (all) If you fly into rain which freezes on impact. A) You have flown into an area of thunderstorms. B) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude. C) You have flown through a cold front. D) If you descend, you will fly out of the icing condition. 28427. (all) Why is frost considered hazardous to flight? A) The increased weight requires a greater takeoff distance. B) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift. C) Frost decreases control effectiveness. D) All of the above.
28429. (all) The possibility of significant icing at altitude, should be expected when on ground you observe: A) ice pellets. B) hail. C) snow. D) corn-snow. 28438. (all) State in which type of front supercooled raindrops most frequently occur? A) Warm front. B) Cold front. C) Occlusion. D) Stationary front. 050-09-02 Turbulence 9603. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects? A) Decrease of speed. B) Change of course. C) Increase of speed. D) Change of flight level. 9625. (all) A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary measures? A) Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents. B) Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents, if aircraft performance parameters allow. C) Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents. D) Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow. 10360. (all) The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe clear air turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers? A) The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers the flight will be unpleasant. B) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort. C) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence. D) The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasent for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not be affected essentially. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 91 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10369 (C) 10384 (D) 10420 (B) 15795 (B) 15848 (C) 16324 (D) 16608 (A) 24177 (D)
24204 (A) 24212 (C) 24301 (C) 24318 (C) 24341 (B) 10369. (all) How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft? A) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of control momentarily. B) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude. C) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. D) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage. 10384. (all) The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the: A) intensity of the solar radiation. B) height of the aircraft. C) stability of the air. D) intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear. 10420. (all) An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL270 and experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by: A) Climbing. B) Descending. C) turn right. D) maintain FL270. 15795. (all) The Jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by: A) a high-pressure center at high level. B) long streaks of cirrus clouds. C) dust or haze at high level. D) a constant outside air temperature. 15848. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as: A) severe B) extreme C) moderate D) light 16324. (all) Maximum turbulence associated with the standing waves is likely to be: A) two wavelengths down wind and just above the surface. B) approximately one wavelength down wind of, and approsimately level with, the top of the ridge. C) just below the tropopause above the ridge. D) down the lee side of the ride and along the surface. 16608. (all) Conditions favourable for low-level frictional turbulence are: A) strong wind, rough terrain, steep lapse rate. B) strong wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate. C) light wind, rough terrain, stable lapse rate. D) strong wind, smooth terrain, stable lapse rate.
24177. (all) (Refer to figure 050-62) Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich? A) FL140 B) FL160 C) FL320 D) FL220 24204. (all) (Refer to figure 050-64) On which of the following routes would you not have to worry about moderate and/or severe turbulence on the cruising level? A) Keflavik to Oslo at FL220. B) Lisbon-Paris at FL320. C) Beirut to Athens at FL310. D) Madrid to Zurich at FL280. 24212. (all) A layer is conditionally unstable if the air: A) becomes stable by lifting it. B) is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air. C) is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air. D) is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air. 24301. (AIR: atpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In which zone of a polar front jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected? A) Exactly in the center of the core. B) On the tropical air side of the core. C) On the polar air side of the core. D) About 12.000 ft above the core. 24318. (all) Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when: A) the wind speed is greater than 10 kts and the condensation level is situated just above the turbulent layer. B) the wind speed is less than 10 kts and the air is heated by the earths surface. C) in the friction layer mixing occurs by turbulence and the condensation level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer. D) absolute instability exists at low level. 24341. (all) The most likely place to encounter clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is: A) well below the core. B) close below the core on the side facing the polar air. C) on the tropical side of the core. D) 5.000 feet or more above the core. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 92 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24441 (D) 27153 (D) 28423 (C) 28430 (B) 28442 (B) 28444 (D) 28480 (C) 9594 (D) 9605 (C) 10342 (A) 10356 (D) 10417 (D) 10431 (D) 24441. (all) Which statement does correspond to the definition of severe turbulence? A) Aircraft will be damaged and an emergency landing will be absolutely necessary.
B) Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose objects move around. C) Aircraft gets out of control and crashes. D) Aircraft may be out of control for short periods, occupants are forced violently against seat belts, loose objects are tossed around. 27153. (all) Wake turbulence is created by: A) cumulonimbus clouds. B) behind high buildings less than 300 m from the runway. C) wind forces greater than 50 kts. D) the wingtips of heavy aircraft during takeoff and landing. 28423. (all) When CAT (clear air turbulence) conditions are anticipated, the following procedure should be used as soon as turbulent air penetration speed is established: A) the airspeed indicator should be used as primary flight instrument. B) the attitude indicator should be used as secondary flight instrument. C) maintain wings level and control pitch attitude smoothly. D) prepare the use of large control inputs to fight the excessive G-forces that may occur. 28430. (all) Which clouds have the greatest turbulence? A) Towering cumulus. B) Cumulonimbus. C) Nimbostratus. D) Altocumulus castellanus. 28442. (all) The expression mechanical turbulence means: A) wake turbulence . B) that the terrain or other obstructions interfering with the airflow. C) vertical movements in unstable air. D) that you experience finger trouble. 28444. (all) The mechanical turbulence will increase when: A) flying from land to sea. B) temperature falls. C) pressure rises. D) the wind increases. 28480. (all) Clear air turbulence (CAT) should be anticipated when: A) immediately after the passage of a thunderstorm. B) a sharp trough area aloft is present with wind speed considerably higher than that of jetstream winds. C) a sharp trough area aloft is present, even though the wind speeds may be considerably less than that of jetstream winds. D) whenever a high pressure is present close to a thunderstorm area. 050-09-03 Windshear 9594. (all) Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to: A) experience little or no change in speed and direction. B) change in speed but not in direction. C) change in direction but not in speed. D) change significantly in speed and direction. 9605. (all)
Vertical windshear is: A) horizontal variation in the horizontal wind. B) vertical variation in the vertical wind. C) vertical variation in the horizontal wind. D) horizontal variation in the vertical wind. 10342. (all) The most dangerous low level windshears are encountered: A) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms. B) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts. C) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kts and near valleys. D) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains. 10356. (all) Low level windshear is likely to be greatest: A) at the condensation level when there is a strong surface friction. B) at the condensation level when there is no night radiation. C) at the top of the friction layer. D) at the top of a marked surface-based inversion. 10417. (all) Low level vertical windshear can be expected during the night: A) and early morning only in summer. B) in unstable atmospheres. C) and early morning only in winter. D) in association with radiation inversions. 10431. (all) What is the effect of a strong low level inversion? A) It results in good visual conditions. B) It promotes extensive vertical movement of air. C) It prevents vertical windshear. D) It promotes vertical windshear. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 93 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16326 (D) 16386 (B) 24139 (C) 24288 (C) 24405 (A) 24489 (A) 28441 (A) 28443 (C) 28446 (A) 28461 (A) 9531 (B) 9538 (D) 9539 (A) 16326. (all) An important characteristic of windshear is that: A) it is encountered most grequently near mountain waves during winter months. B) it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence. C) it only occurs with jet streams. D) it is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream or a frontal zone. 16386. (all) An additional hazard to aircraft taking-off or landing in or near a thunderstorm is: A) extra turbulence. B) windshear. C) compass error. D) pilot disorientation. 24139. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) In which squares are conditions most likely to cause the
occurrence of low level windshear? A) 3 B and 3 C. B) 3 A and 3 B. C) 3 A and 3 C. D) 3 B and 3 D. 24288. (all) In relation to the polar front jet stream, the greatest rate of windshear is most likely to occur: A) on the tropical side of the core. B) well below the core. C) close below the core on the polar side. D) 5.000 ft or more above the core. 24405. (all) Where does windshear occur? A) At any level in the atmosphere if associated with either a change of wind direction and/or wind speed. B) windshear of any significance occurs only in connection with jetstreams. C) windshear occurs primarily at lower altitudes in the vicinity of mountain waves. D) windshear occurs only when there is a strong temperature inversion, or when the jetstream is associated with a strong depression. 24489. (all) Vertical windshear is: A) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with height. B) a change of vertical wind speed with horizontal distance. C) a change of horizontal wind direction and/or speed with horizontal distance. D) a horizontal shear of vertical wind. 28441. (all) What is meant by the expression low level windshear ? A) A change of wind direction and force during a limited period of time within a small area. B) Turbulence containing whirling dust. C) The effect of friction. D) The wind when blowing across the isobars. 28443. (all) Windshear is experienced when: A) the wind has been forecasted to be light and variable. B) neither wind direction nor force changes at altitude. C) there is a ground inversion and strong winds above the inversion layer. D) rain have been forecasted or reported. 28446. (all) In a microburst you may experience strong windshear, the horizontal extension of this area being: A) 4 km B) 8 km C) 10 km D) 15 km 28461. (all) What is meant by the expression windshear? A) A change of wind direction and/or speed in horizontal and/ or vertical direction. B) Whirlwind. C) The retardation of wind at the friction layer. D) Interference when to wind streams meet. 050-09-04 Thunderstorms
9531. (all) Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? A) Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes. B) Frontal thunderstorms. C) Thermal thunderstorms. D) Orographic thunderstorms. 9538. (all) Where is a squall line to be expected? A) At the surface position of a warm front. B) Behind a cold front. C) Ahead of a cold occlusion at higher levels. D) In front of an active cold front. 9539. (all) A microburst phenomenon can arise in the: A) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage. B) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage. C) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the initial stage. D) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 94 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9547 (A) 9554 (D) 9555 (B) 9574 (C) 9575 (A) 9577 (B) 9583 (C) 9596 (C) 9607 (C) 9622 (B) 10343 (B) 10359 (D) 10366 (D) 10381 (A) 9547. (all) Which of the following statements describes a microburst? A) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundings. B) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings. C) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm. D) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed. 9554. (all) What is a microburst? A) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds. B) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air. C) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm. D) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air. 9555. (all) A gust front is: A) normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm. B) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm. C) characterized by heavy lightning. D) another name for a cold front. 9574. (all) Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the: A) dissipating stage. B) mature stage. C) cumulus stage. D) period in which precipitation is falling. 9575. (all) At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected
in connection with a CB? A) From the ground up to a maximum of FL450. B) From the ground up to about FL200. C) From the ground up to about FL100. D) From the base of the clouds up to FL200. 9577. (all) What are squall lines? A) Unusual intensive cold fronts. B) Bands of intensive thunderstorms. C) The surface weather associated with upper air troughs. D) The paths of tropical revolving storms. 9583. (all) The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of: A) 8 km and 5-15 minutes. B) 4 km and 30-40 minutes. C) 4 km and 1-5 minutes. D) 12 km and 5-10 minutes. 9596. (all) During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur? A) Dissipating stage. B) Cumulus stage. C) Mature stage. D) Cumulus stage and mature stage. 9607. (all) What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over land? A) Low temperatures, low humidity. B) High air pressure (> 1.013 hPa), high temperatures. C) High temperatures, high humidity. D) Subsidence, inversion. 9622. (all) What weather condition would you expect at a squall line? A) Strong steady rain. B) Thunderstorms. C) Fog. D) Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels. 10343. (all) In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation? A) Stable conditions and high moisture content. B) Unstable conditions and high moisture content. C) Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure. D) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure. 10359. (all) How long does a typical microburst last? A) About 30 minutes. B) Less than 1 minute. C) 1 to 2 hours. D) 1 to 5 minutes. 10366. (all) Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate latitudes? A) Occlusion thunderstorms. B) Warm front thunderstorms. C) Cold mass thunderstorms. D) Air mass thunderstorms. 10381. (all) In central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms
due to warm updrafts? A) Mid - afternoon. B) Around midnight. C) Early morning. D) Late morning. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 95 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10383 (C) 10385 (A) 10394 (C) 10400 (C) 10402 (C) 10409 (C) 10410 (D) 10421 (D) 10425 (D) 10438 (B) 15817 (B) 15869 (B) 15870 (C) 15871 (D) 10383. (all) Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one of the following statements is correct? A) An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a Faradays cage, which means that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock. B) An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused. C) Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the hearing. D) Aircraft made by composite material can t conduct a lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck. 10385. (all) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominantly by downdrafts? A) Dissipating stage. B) Initial stage. C) Mature stage. D) Anvil stage. 10394. (all) What feature is normally associated with the initial stage of a thunderstorm? A) Frequent lightning. B) Roll cloud. C) Continuous updraft. D) Rain or hail at the surface. 10400. (all) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the: A) dissipating stage. B) the initial stage. C) mature stage. D) period in which precipitation is not falling. 10402. (all) In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up and downdrafts simultaneously? A) Dissipating stage. B) Initial stage. C) Mature stage. D) In all stages. 10409. (all) A microburst: A) is always associated with thunderstorms. B) has a life time of more than 30 minutes.
C) has a diameter up to 4 km. D) occurs only in tropical areas. 10410. (all) The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by: A) rain starting at surface. B) continuous downdraughts. C) frequent lightning. D) continuous updraughts. 10421. (all) The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is: A) cirrus B) stratocumulus C) cumulus D) cumulonimbus 10425. (all) Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may lead to thunderstorm development? A) Red cirrus. B) AC lenticularis. C) Halo. D) AC castellanus. 10438. (all) Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds? A) Warm front thunderstorms. B) Squall line thunderstorms. C) Nocturnal air mass thunderstorms. D) Daytime air mass thunderstorms. 15817. (all) Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by: A) frontal occlusion. B) thermal triggering. C) frontal lifting (warm front). D) frontal lifting (cold front). 15869. (all) What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? A) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion. B) An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action. C) Water vapour and high pressure. D) A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. 15870. (all) In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered? A) Subtropical B) Temperate C) Tropical D) Polar 15871. (all) Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the: A) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. C) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
D) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 96 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16359 (C) 16367 (C) 16368 (B) 16369 (A) 16372 (D) 16373 (A) 16374 (D) 16375 (A) 16376 (A) 16377 (C) 16378 (A) 16379 (C) 16381 (D) 16383 (B) 16384 (B) 16359. (all) In general terms, an intense convective low will indicate: A) quiet settled weather. B) changeable weather but getting better. C) heavy rain, hail and thunderstorm. D) no change to the weather. 16367. (all) Which of the following is considered to be one of the conditions necessary for thunderstorm develpomnet? A) A marked temperature inversion extending well above the 0° isotherm. B) ELR less than the DALR extending well above the 0° isotherm. C) Instability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0° isotherm. D) Stability throughout a deep layer extending well above the 0° isotherm. 16368. (all) Which of the following conditions are necessary for thunderstorms? A) Low surface temperatures and high moisture content. B) High moisture content and a trigger action. C) Instability at night. D) Low upper temperatures and a high 0° isotherm. 16369. (all) There are two principal types of origin of thunderstorm. A) Air mass thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms. B) Air mass thunderstorms and heat thunderstorms. C) Convection thunderstorms and frontal thunderstorms. D) Convection thunderstorms and orographic uplift thunderstorms. 16372. (all) Air mass thunderstroms are triggered off by: A) fronts and/or orographic uplift. B) convection at air mass boundaries. C) standing waves in the lee of hills. D) convection and/or orographic uplift. 16373. (all) Frontal thunderstorms are triggered off by: A) rising air due to falling pressure at air mass boundaries. B) convection by intense daytime heating or cold air moving over a warm surface. C) rising air due to falling pressure or due to orographic uplift. D) mass ascent over large areas or cold air moving over a Warm surface. 16374. (all) A thunderstrom has the following stages in its life cycle: A) initial, mature or building and declining. B) building, mature, declining and dissipating. C) initial, declining and dissipating. D) initial, mature and dissipating. 16375. (all) The initial stage of a thunderstorm last for approximately: A) 20 min.
B) 30 min. C) 20/30 min. D) 40 min. 16376. (all) In the initial stage of a thunderstorm, which of the following is true? A) Only up-currents are present. B) Only down-currents are present. C) Both up-currents and down-currents are present. D) Up-currents and side-currents are present. 16377. (all) The mature stage of a thunderstorm lasts for approximately: A) 15 min B) 30 min C) 20/30 min D) 40 min 16378. (all) Which of the following statements is true with regard to a mature thunderstorm: A) both up-currents and down-currents appear concurrently. B) the cloud top assumes and anvil shape. C) water droplets, hail and snow are all present. D) the top of the cloud is negatively charged and the base is positively charged. 16379. (all) The final stage of a thunderstorm is reached when: A) no further electrical charge is developed. B) the lower portion of the cloud dissipates. C) a well developed anvil can be seen. D) all of the above. 16381. (all) The most common hazards of thunderstorms to aircraft on or near the ground are: A) lighting and hail. B) heavy precipitation and surfaces squalls. C) turbulence and static. D) all of the above. 16383. (all) Which types of thunderstorm can be the most difficult to avoid? A) Mature thunderstorms because they spread over such a wide area. B) Frontal thunderstorms. C) Air mass thunderstorms. D) Low-level thunderstorms. 16384. (all) Which thunderstorms are the more difficult to forecast and detect? A) Cumulus thunderstorms. B) Air mass thunderstorms. C) Frontal thunderstorms. D) Umulus thunderstorms because they are smaller. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 97 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16385 (D) 24180 (C) 24207 (B) 24215 (A) 24246 (B) 24249 (A) 24261 (C) 24299 (C) 24358 (C) 24367 (A) 24373 (C) 24421 (B) 24423 (A) 16385. (all)
If you cannot avoid penetrating a thunderstorm, which is the best area to penetrate? A) The top. B) The middle. C) The bottom. D) The sides. 24180. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) At which position is the development of thunderstorms most likely, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds at 00 UTC? A) Position C, FL200. B) Position A, FL200. C) Position B, FL270. D) Position D, FL290. 24207. (all) A CB with thunderstorm has reached the mature stage. Which statement is correct? A) The freezing level in the whole cloud lies lower than outside the cloud. B) In temperatures lower than -23 °C icing is still possible. C) If hail occurs, it only occurs in downdrafts. D) Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud. 24215. (all) A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface: A) has a diameter up to 4 km. B) has a life time of more than 30 minutes. C) is always associated with thunderstorms. D) occurs only in tropical areas. 24246. (all) Assuming that an initial trigger force is present, the conditions most likely to result in the formation of thunderstorms are: A) high surface temperature, low dew point and high dry adiabatic lapse rate. B) high relative humidity and instability throughout a deep layer. C) rapid orographic cooling of cloud containing ice crystals. D) intense surface heating, anticyclonic pressure system and relatively high freezing level. 24249. (all) At the surface the lifetime of a typical microburst and the diameter of the area affected by damaging winds are in the order of: A) 1-5 minutes and 4 km. B) 30-40 minutes and 4 km. C) 5-15 minutes and 8 km. D) 5-10 minutes and 12 km. 24261. (all) Convective weather phenomena include: A) heavy showers, lightning strikes, hail, mist, squalls, light rain over a large area. B) thunderstorms, tornadoes, hail, haze, wind gusts, advection fog. C) thunderstorms, hail, tornadoes, wind gusts, heavy showers, lightning strikes. D) hail, lightning strikes, wind lulls, squalls, stratocumulus, low level wind maximum. 24299. (all)
In which of the following situations is the probability for severe thunderstorms the highest? A) Advection of continental cold air over a warm land surface. B) Advection of warm air over a cold land surface. C) Advection of maritime cold air over a warm sea surface. D) Advection of maritime warm air over a cold sea surface. 24358. (all) Thunderstorms are often preceded by: A) altostratus. B) nimbostratus. C) altocumulus castellanus. D) altocumulus lenticularis. 24367. (all) What is a downburst? A) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the surrounding air. B) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding air. C) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm. D) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds. 24373. (all) What is the approximate maximum diameter of a the area affected by damaging winds at the surface caused by a microburst? A) 20 km B) 400 m C) 4 km D) 50 km 24421. (all) Which of the following sets of conditions are most favourable to the development of thunderstorms? A) Extensive isothermal layer, ice particles and water droplets must exist just below the freezing level and orographic lifting. B) Environmental lapse rate greater than saturated adiabatic lapse rate through a great vertical extent, high relative humidity and an initial lifting process. C) Environmental lapse rate less than saturated adiabatic lapse rate with dew point below 0 °C and considerable surface heating. D) Environmental lapse rate less than dry adiabatic lapse rate with freezing level below the cloud base, high relative humidity and strong surface winds. 24423. (all) Which of the following situations favours the formation of heavy thunderstorms? A) A cold front approaching a mountain range in the evening. B) The passage of a warm front in the morning. C) A cold front on the leeward side of a mountain range. D) A warm sector moving over a snow-covered ground. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 98 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24424 (A) 24436 (A) 24445 (B) 24455 (C) 27039 (C) 27040 (A) 27135 (D) 27136 (B) 27139 (D) 27411 (A) 27413 (A) 27442 (A) 27471 (A) 27498 (A) 27500 (A) 24424. (all) Which of the following statements about lightnings and
lightning strikes is correct? A) The aircraft is temporarily part of the lightning trajectory. B) Spherical lightnings often penetrate into aircraft. C) Lightning strikes always cause heavy damage. D) Compasses and electronics are always affected. 24436. (all) Which one of the following can provide the initial lifting leading to air mass thunderstorms? A) Advection of cold air over a warm sea. B) Mountain waves. C) Advection of warm air over a cold sea. D) Low level windshear. 24445. (all) Which statement is correct for microbursts? A) They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain. B) The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed 4 km. C) They occur in the tropics only. D) Their downdraft is warmer than the surroundings. 24455. (all) With the development of a thunderstorm, at what stage will there be only updraughts of air? A) Anvil stage. B) Mature stage. C) Initial stage. D) Dissipating stage. 27039. (all) What is true about thunderstorms? A) They occur at cold fronts only. B) They only occur, when a cold front occlusion is present. C) They can exceptionally occur at a warm front, when the warm air is conditional unstable. D) They occur only in the summertime. 27040. (all) What conditions (amongst others) have to be met for the development of CBs and thunderstorms? A) Moist air must be present. B) Warm air has to move over a cold surface. C) There have to be significant pressure differences over a small area. D) A front has to be present. 27135. (all) What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? A) Sufficient water vapor and a lifting action. B) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture. C) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate. D) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action. 27136. (all) Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds? A) Warm front. B) Squall line. C) Air mass. D) Cold front. 27139. (all) Where can windshear associated with a thunderstorm be found? (Choose the most complete answer.)
A) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side). B) Ahead of the roll clouds or gust front. C) In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell. D) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell. 27411. (all) In which stage do roll clouds occur in a strong thunderstorm? A) Mature stage. B) Dissipating stage. C) Cumulus stage. D) Rain stage. 27413. (all) What is a squall line? A) A band of intense thunderstorms. B) A band of cumulus clouds. C) Extended areas of nimbostratus clouds. D) Fog patches ahead of a warm front. 27442. (all) What is the location of a squall line? A) Ahead of a cold front. B) Ahead of a warm front. C) Between cold and warm front. D) On the rear side of a frontal system. 27471. (all) What type of thunderstorms develop in the afternoon in summer over Iand in moderate latitudes? A) Air mass thunderstorms. B) Cold mass thunderstorms. C) Warm front thunderstorms. D) Occlusion thunderstorms. 27498. (all) Which air mass can be related to thunderstorms during summer in central Europe? A) Maritime tropical air. B) Maritime polar air. C) Continental tropical air. D) Continental equatorial air. 27500. (all) What is a microburst? A) A downdraught of a CB in the mature stage. B) A downdraught, occurring when a warm front passes by. C) Severe windshear, caused by a low level jet stream. D) Up- and downdraughls during a thunderstorm. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 99 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27501 (A) 27508 (A) 28419 (D) 28420 (B) 28445 (C) 28466 (D) 28478 (D) 9544 (B) 9606 (A) 10413 (A) 24320 (A) 24321 (A) 27501. (all) What is the size of a microburst? A) Approximately 4 km in diameter. B) Approximately 200 m in diameter. C) A widespread area of approximately 10 km. D) A small, clearly defined area of about 50 m in diameter. 27508. (all) Describe the microburst: A) a high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature
than its surrounding. B) sinking air of higher temperature than its surroundings. C) precipitation at the base of a cumulonimbus doud. D) horizontal movement of air, generally colder than its surroundings. 28419. (all) Concerning the radar reflectivity in relation to a thunderstorm, the following is true: A) reflectivity decreases with severity and frequency of turbulence. B) reflectivity increases with severity and frequency of turbulence. C) reflectivity is a function of the number and size of water droplets in a given unit of volume. D) both B) and C) are correct. 28420. (all) In a thunderstorm pilots should be on alert for hail when radar echoes: A) show turbulence. B) are well defined. C) are ill-defined. D) none of the above is correct. 28445. (all) Which type of clouds are associated with Microburst? A) Stratus (st). B) Altocumulus (ac). C) Cumulonimbus (cb). D) Cumulus (cu). 28466. (all) Which of the following weather factors will not cause the formation of thunderstorms? A) An occlusion. B) A warm front. C) A cold front. D) Advection fog. 28478. (all) The weather associated with a cold front may vary from a minor change of wind to a serious thunderstorm with low cloud base, bad visibility and strong, gusty winds. The type of weather depends on: A) the amount of humidity in the warm air. B) the stability of the warm air. C) the speed and slope of the cold front. D) all answers are correct. 050-09-05 Tornadoes 9544. (all) The diameter of a typical tornado is: A) only a few metres. B) 100 to 150 metres. C) about 2 to 6 km. D) in the order of 10 km. 9606. (all) At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America? A) Spring, summer. B) Summer, autumn. C) Autumn, winter. D) Winter. 10413. (all) With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated? A) Cumulonimbus B) Cumulus C) Stratus
D) Nimbostratus 050-09-06 Low and high level inversions 24320. (all) Surface temperature inversions are frequently generated by: A) terrestrial radiation on a calm clear night. B) an unstable air mass causing convection currents and mixing of the atmosphere at lower levels. C) gusting winds increasing surface friction during the day with consequent mixing at the lower levels. D) compression causing the release of latent heat in a layer of stratiform cloud. 24321. (all) Surface-based temperature inversions are common during: A) cloud-free nights in winter when the ground is dry. B) cloud-free days in summer when the ground is dry. C) cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet. D) cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 100 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10352 (A) 10380 (B) 10398 (B) 15811 (D) 16325 (C) 16337 (B) 24305 (B) 24401 (D) 24434 (C) 24442 (C) 25632 (C) No Questions in this sub-chapter. No Questions in this sub-chapter. 050-09-08 Hazards in mountainous areas 050-09-07 Stratospheric conditions 10352. (all) You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight? A) Morning. B) Mid-day. C) Afternoon. D) Early evening. 10380. (all) Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a mountain range? A) Inversions. B) Stratified clouds. C) Showers and thunderstorms. D) Areas of severe turbulence. 10398. (all) You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12 °C and a TAS of 250 kts at FL150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable? A) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice. B) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice. C) Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice. D) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost. 15811. (all) Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain waves? A) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
B) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge. C) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the mountain ridge. D) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the mountain ridge. 16325. (all) For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should: A) decrease or even reverse direction. B) increase initally, then decrease. C) increase with little change in direction. D) increase and then reverse in direction. 16337. (all) With reference to rotor circulation: A) it can occur at levels up to 80.000 ft. B) it is a low level phenomenon. C) it is found at approximately the tropopause level. D) it is another name for the rotor zones assocated with mountain waves. 24305. (all) Mountain waves should be expected: A) when instability is high. B) on the downwind side of the mountain chain. C) directly over the mountain chain. D) on the upwind side of the mountain chain. 24401. (all) When severe mountain waves are present, where would the area of most severe turbulence be located? A) Just below the tropopause. B) Just above the cap cloud. C) On the windward side of the mountain range. D) In the rotor zone. 24434. (all) Which of the following statements is true with regard to mountain waves? A) The absence of cloud over high ground indicates the absence of mountain waves. B) Mountain waves are not experienced beyond 100 miles downwind from initiating high ground, regardless of the height of the ground. C) Flight with headwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with tailwind toward high ground. D) Flight with tailwind toward high ground is likely to be more hazardous than flight with headwind toward high ground. 24442. (all) Which statement is correct concerning a mountain ridge where a marked mountain wave has been reported? A) The atmosphere is unstable at the level of the mountain tops. B) There are always rotor clouds. C) Ragged altocumulus lenticularis is an indication for the presence of moderate/severe turbulence at the level of these clouds. D) The axis of a rotor is horizontal and perpendicular to the mountains. 25632. (all) The conditions most favourable to the formation of mountain waves are: A) wind direction parallel to the mountain range - wind speed
increasing with height - extensive isothermal layer between mountain crests and the tropopause. B) wind direction parallel to the general alignment of the mountain range - wind speed increasing with height - intense surface heating. C) wind speed above 20 kts and wind direction at right angles to mountains - wind speed increasing with height. D) wind direction approximately at right angles to the mountain range - wind speed 30 kts and steadily increasing with height - an inversion just above the crest level with less stable air above and below. 050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 101 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 27148 (D) 27437 (A) 28447 (A) 28448 (C) 28483 (D) 28484 (A) 9558 (C) 9572 (C) 9600 (B) 10390 (D) 10405 (C) 10422 (D) 16575 (D) 16576 (D) 16577 (D) 27148. (all) CAP clouds are one three groups of mountain wave clouds. A) They appear to be harmless. B) Downdrafts as great as 5.000 feet per minute can be expected on the leeward side. C) They cool adiabatically and therefore evaporate. D) Both A) and B) are correct. 27437. (all) Which would be the best time for nice weather conditions when flying in the Alps during summertime? A) In the morning. B) In the afternoon. C) In the evening. D) Anytime during the day. 28447. (all) Mention 3 types of weather phenomena associated with mountain waves: A) rotor, cap and lenticular clouds. B) fog, lenticular and medium height clouds. C) low clouds, downdrafts and thunderstorms. D) turbulence, advection and convection clouds. 28448. (all) Should a mountain wave situation occur without creating mountain wave clouds, this would indicate: A) stable air mass. B) too strong winds. C) too dry air. D) too strong turbulence. 28483. (all) The meteorological conditions required to form mountain waves are among others: A) the height of the mountain must be at least 3.000 ft. B) the air must be unstable. C) wind velocity on top of the mountain must be 50 kts or more. D) a wind profile whereby the wind velocity increases with increasing altitude and a strong, steady wind flow at higher levels often extending to the tropopause. 28484. (all) What is likely when mountain waves are observed? A) Strong wind and turbulence in the mountains.
B) Unstable air. C) Rain on the leeward side of the mountain. D) Convection clouds. 050-09-09 Visibility reducing phenomena 9558. (all) In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle is: A) less. B) the same. C) greater. D) in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km. 9572. (all) Visibility is reduced by haze when: A) a cold front just passed. B) a light drizzle falls. C) dust particles are trapped below an inversion. D) small waterdroplets are present. 9600. (all) In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when: A) the surface wind is strong and gusty. B) there is a low level inversion. C) cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon. D) a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area. 10390. (all) Below a low level inversion visibility is often: A) moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers. B) very good at night. C) very good in the early morning. D) moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange. 10405. (all) Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal: A) about 500 metres. B) about 200 metres. C) tens of metres. D) about 1.000 metres. 10422. (all) In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by: A) low stratus. B) haze. C) drizzle. D) showers of rain or snow. 16575. (all) The solid particles which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are: A) atmospheric pollution, dust, ozone and moisture. B) atmospheric pollution, volcanic fumes, dust and sand. C) atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and spray. D) atmospheric pollution, dust, sand and volcanic ash. 16576. (all) The forms of visible water which reduce visibility in the atmosphere are: A) fog, spray, cloud and hail (but only for short periods). B) cloud, fog, smog, spray or precipitation. C) cloud, fog, mist, spray or smog. D) cloud, fog, mist, spray or precipitation. 16577. (all) Reduction in visibility due to precipitation depends on:
A) B) C) D)
precipitation precipitation precipitation precipitation
type and duration. duration and droplet size. intensity and duration. intensity and type.
050-09 FLIGHT HAZARDS 102 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24296 (C) 24361 (B) 24400 (B) 24402 (A) 27418 (A) 27438 (D) 24296. (all) In the weather pattern behind a cold front, the visibility outside precipitation is: A) low and the precipitation is showers. B) good and the precipitation is steady rain. C) good and the precipitation is showers. D) low and the precipitation is steady rain. 24361. (all) What conditions are necessary for vertical visibility to be reported? A) It is always reported. B) Whenever the sky is obscured by fog or heavy precipitation and the height of the cloud base cannot be measured. C) Whenever the lowest ceiling is below 1.500 ft above ground. D) Whenever the lowest cloud base is below 1.500 ft above ground. 24400. (all) When fog is reported, the visibility is below: A) 0,8 km B) 1 km C) 1,5 km D) 3 km 24402. (all) When visibility is reduced by water droplets to less than 1.000 metres it is classified as: A) fog B) dust fog C) haze D) mist 27418. (all) Compare meteorological visibility: A) visibility is greater in RA than in DZ. B) visibility is lower in RA than in DZ. C) visibility is equal in RA and in DZ. D) visibility is greater in FG than in DZ. 27438. (all) The flight visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in a tropical downpour can decrease to minimal: A) about 500 metres. B) about 1.000 metres. C) about 200 metres. D) tens of metres. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 103 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9660 (A) 9663 (D) 9685 (C) 9710 (C) 9715 (A) 10464 (D) 10493 (C) 10558 (D) 15796 (D) 15818 (B) 15847 (D) 16548 (B) 16561 (A)
050-10-01 Observation 9660. (all) What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for? A) To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations. B) To measure wind currents on the ground. C) To help provide 14-day forecasts. D) To locate precipitation zones. 9663. (all) The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this instrument placed? A) On the roof of the weather station. B) 1 m above the runway. C) Close to the station about 2 m above the ground. D) On a mast 6-10 m above flat terrain. 9685. (all) While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message: RVR runway 23: 400 m This information indicates the: A) portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with runway 23 in service. B) meteorological visibility on runway 23. C) length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of runway 23. D) minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service. 9710. (all) What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog? A) The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR. B) The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR. C) The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR. D) There is no specific relationship between the two. 9715. (all) Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens? A) Hail. B) Water vapour. C) Fog. D) Any cloud. 10464. (all) When is the RVR reported at most airports? A) When the RVR decreases below 2.000 m. B) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m. C) When the RVR decreases below 800 m. D) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1.500 m. 10493. (all) An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of: A) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail. B) all clouds. C) zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their intensity. D) stratocumulus and its vertical development. 10558. (all)
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is: A) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway. B) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2.000 m. C) reported in TAF and METAR. D) usually better than meteorological visibility. 15796. (all) Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a runway? A) MIFG B) FG C) HZ D) +FZRA 15818. (all) What is a SPECI? A) An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours. B) A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather conditions have been observed. C) A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours. D) A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required. 15847. (all) (Refer to figure 050-73) Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Shannon be found? A) FL20 B) FL140 C) FL120 D) FL60 16548. (all) The meaning of RVR is: A) cross-wind component. B) runway visual range. C) meteorological visibility. D) braking action. 16561. (all) Normally, temperature readings are taken at a height of ___ in a Stevenson screen. A) 2 m B) 4 m C) 10 m D) 40 cm 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 104 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 16562 (C) 16564 (C) 16565 (D) 16569 (A) 16570 (B) 24159 (A) 24183 (A) 24192 (A) 24214 (A) 24277 (D) 24281 (D) 24282 (D) 24292 (C) 16562. (all) A cup ___ and remote transmitting vane form the transmitting head of the electrical ___ which enables a continuous record of wind direction and speed to be made on a moving chart. A) anemograph; anemometer B) anemometer; barograph C) anemometer; anemograph
D) barograph; anemometer 16564. (all) The three elements in a cloud report are: A) amount, cover, height of base. B) type, cover, amount. C) amount, type, height of base. D) type, amount, cloud species. 16565. (all) Barometric pressure is measured on ___ and recorded on ___. A) an anemometer; an aneroid barometer B) an anemograph; an anemometer C) barograph; aneroid barometer D) aneroid barometer; barograph 16569. (all) LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 1500 + RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 kts 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB What is the most likely visibility for landing at 1345Z? A) 4.500 m B) 1.500 m C) 6.000 m D) 12.000 m 16570. (all) LFCG 221100Z 1219 22010KT 4500 RA BKN010 OVC015 TEMPO 1200 + RA OVC005 FM1430 29020G35KT 6000 SHRA BKN008TCU OVC015 TEMPO 1619 25010 kts 9999 NSW BKN020 PROB30 TEMPO 1619 1500 TSGR BKN007CB What is the lowest cloud base you may encounter at 1345Z? A) 1.000 ft B) 500 ft C) 700 ft D) 12.000 ft 24159. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) For 1300 UTC select a METAR which you consider to be most appropriate to position E: A) 19010KT 6000 RA BKN016 OVC090 08/06 Q1004= B) 24020KT 5000 RA BKN100 11/10 Q1002= C) 18015KT 9999 SCT020 03/01 Q1000= D) 27030KT 8000 SCT020 07/03 Q1004= 24183. (all) (Refer to figure 050-96) Which of the following METARs reflect the weather conditions expected at Brussels airport (EBBR) at 1200 UTC? A) 21014KT 5000 RA BKN015 OVC030 15/12 Q1011 NOSIG= B) 28010KT 9999 BKN030 22/11 Q1016 NOSIG= C) VRB03KT 8000 BKN280 19/12 Q1012 BECMG 3000 BR= D) 19022G46KT 1200 +TSGR BKN003 BKN015 17/14 Q1014 BECMG NSW= 24192. (all) (Refer to figure 050-02) Of the four radio soundings, select the one that indicates low stratus: A) 3 B) 1 C) 2
D) 4 24214. (all) A METAR message is valid: A) at the time of observation. B) for 2 hours. C) for the hour following the observation. D) for 9 hours. 24277. (all) How is a ceiling defined? A) Height above ground or water of the highest layer of cloud or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers 4 oktas or more of the sky. B) Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud independent on the amount of clouds. C) Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud that contributes to the overall overcast. D) Height above ground or water of the lowest layer of cloud below 20000 ft covering more than half of the sky. 24281. (all) In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively: A) BR = mist HZ = widespread dust. B) BR = fog HZ = haze. C) BR = mist HZ = smoke. D) BR = mist HZ = haze. 24282. (all) In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means: A) wind from 230° magnetic at 10 miles per hour. B) wind from 230° true at 10 miles per hour. C) wind from 230° magnetic at 20 knots. D) wind from 230° true at 20 knots. 24292. (all) In the METAR code the abbreviation VC indicates: A) volcanic ash. B) present weather within the approach area. C) present weather within a range of 8 km, but not at the airport. D) present weather at the airport. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 105 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24293 (B) 24352 (C) 24356 (C) 24362 (C) 24374 (B) 24378 (B) 24379 (A) 24381 (D) 24394 (D) 24413 (B) 24293. (all) In the METAR code the abbreviation VCBLDU means: A) an active duststorm. B) blowing dust in the vicinity. C) an active sandstorm. D) an active dust- and sandstorm. 24352. (all) The temperature at the surface is given as +15 °C and at 4.000 ft it is +9 °C, the state of this layer is said to be: A) absolutely unstable. B) conditionally unstable. C) stable. D) unstable. 24356. (all) The horizontal visibility transmitted in a METAR report is:
A) given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1.500 metres. B) the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360° scan at the horizon. C) the lowest observed in a 360° scan from the meteorological station. D) measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the runway. 24362. (all) What does the code R24R/P1500 mean? A) Snow clearance in progress on RWY 24 right, usable runway length 1.500 metres. B) RVR RWY 24 right below 1.500 metres. C) RVR RWY 24 right above 1.500 metres. D) RVR RWY 24 right 1.500 metres. 24374. (all) What is the best approximation for the wind speed at flight level 250? A) By simple interpolation of wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts. B) By interpolation of the wind information available from the 500 and 300 hPa charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart. C) By reading wind direction and speed from the 500 hPa chart. D) By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart. 24378. (all) What is the lowest cloud base that can be expected from the forecast for 1500 UTC? KCHS 280430Z 280606 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG A) 3.000 feet. B) 1.000 feet. C) 1.300 feet. D) 1.500 feet. 24379. (all) What is the lowest possible cloud base forecast for 2300 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK A) 5.000 feet. B) 3.000 feet. C) 500 feet. D) 1.500 feet. 24381. (all) What is the lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC? LSZH 260900Z 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= A) 10 km B) 6 NM C) 4 km D) 6 km
24394. (all) What visibility is most likely to be experienced at 1400 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK A) 1.600 metres. B) 4.000 metres. C) 1.000 metres. D) 9.000 metres. 24413. (all) Which of the following extracts of weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK? MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10.000 ft LSZH 8.000 ft LSGG 12.000 ft LFSB 6.000 ft A) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA = B) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 BR = C) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG = D) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG = 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 106 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24427 (A) 24435 (A) 24453 (A) 26310 (D) 26329 (A) 27123 (C) 27124 (C) 27125 (B) 27127 (B) 27443 (A) 28468 (D) 24427. (all) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? LSAS SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSZHSWITZERLAND FIR/UIR MOD TO SEV CAT FCST N OF ALPS BTN FL260/380 STNR INTSF A) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL260 and FL380. B) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL260. C) Severe turbulence observed below FL260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL380. D) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the Alps. 24435. (all) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK? A) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG = B) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 = C) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 = D) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG = 24453. (all) Why can the following METAR not be abbreviated to CAVOK? DLLO 121550Z 31018G30KT 9999 FEW060TCU BKN070 14/08 Q1016 TEMPO 4000 TS=
(Aerodrome elevation 1.000 ft, MSA for sector 000-190° 5.800 ft, for sector 190-360° 7.300 ft.) A) Because the cloud base is below the highest minimum sector altitude. B) Because there are gusts reported. C) Because towering cumulus are observed. D) Because thunderstorms are forecast temporary for the next 2 hours. 26310. (all) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK? MSA above ground: LSZB 10.000 ft LSZH 8.000 ft LSGG 12.000 ft LFSB 6.000 ft A) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG = B) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA = C) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG = D) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 = 26329. (all) (Refer to figure 050-94) Considering the route from Valencia to Charleston, what is the highest flight level that is forecast to be affected by cloud or clear air turbulence? A) FL430 B) FL350 C) FL380 D) FL400 27123. (all) What does a transmissiometer measure? A) Wind speed. B) Cloud base. C) Visibility. D) Breaking action. 27124. (all) What does RVR stand for? A) Reduced visibility range. B) Reduced vertical range. C) Runway visual range. D) Radio UHF and range. 27125. (all) RVR is measured when meteorological visibility falls below: A) 500 m B) 1.500 m C) 2.000 m D) 2.500 m 27127. (all) The average visibility as seen from the cockpit in flight is called: A) cockpit visibility. B) flight visibility. C) RVR. D) slant visibility. 27443. (all) Under what conditions is RVR measured? A) When the meteorological visibility is lower than 1.500 metres. B) When the meteorological visibility is lower than 1.000 metres.
C) When fog is present. D) When the technical equipment for the measurement at an airport is avaitable. 28468. (all) A METAR from an airfield reporting visibility 8 km. Added to the report is a BECMG 4000. From this you will expect the visibility to: A) Decrease to 4 km within 1 hour. B) Improve from 4 km to 8 km in the next 2 hours. C) Be variable between 4 and 8 km. D) Decrease to 4 km within the next 2 hours. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 107 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 2847 (C) 8989 (C) 9640 (B) 9644 (D) 9649 (C) 9658 (A) 9680 (D) 9703 (C) 9713 (A) 9723 (A) 10449 (D) 10456 (B) 10472 (D) 10476 (A) 2847. (all) In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL340 situated? A) 500 - 400 hPa. B) 600 - 500 hPa. C) 300 - 200 hPa. D) 400 - 300 hPa. 8989. (all) (Refer to figure 050-82) On which route of flight would you expect no icing at FL180? A) Zurich-Hamburg B) Zurich-Madrid C) Hamburg-Stockholm D) Zurich-Athens 9640. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) The cold front is indicated at position: A) A B) B C) C D) D 9644. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) The warm sector is indicated by letter: A) A B) B C) D D) C 9649. (all) When planning a flight at FL110, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level? A) 300 hPa B) 850 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 500 hPa 9658. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Which of the following best describes Zone B? A) Col. B) Ridge of high pressure. C) Depression. D) Trough of low pressure.
9680. (all) If you are planning a flight at FL290, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level? A) 850 hPa B) 500 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 300 hPa 9703. (all) What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart? A) Positions with the same air density. B) Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels. C) Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure. D) Positions with the same wind velocity. 9713. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing? A) 9 B) 7 C) 1 D) 13 9723. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Which of the following best describes Zone C? A) Ridge of high pressure. B) Col. C) Trough of low pressure. D) Depression. 10449. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL300? A) 500 hPa B) 200 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 300 hPa 10456. (all) If you are planning a flight at FL170, which of these upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest your flight level? A) 300 hPa B) 500 hPa C) 850 hPa D) 700 hPa 10472. (all) On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jetstream? A) Upper air chart. B) Wind / temperature chart. C) Surface chart. D) Significant weather chart. 10476. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) What does the symbol 15 indicate on a significant weather chart? A) The center of a tropopause high, where the tropopause is at FL400. B) The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa. C) The upper limit of significant weather at FL400.
D) The lower limit of the tropopause. 050-10-02 Weather charts 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 108 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10498 (A) 10503 (C) 10504 (C) 10514 (D) 10524 (D) 10532 (B) 10535 (D) 10538 (D) 10543 (C) 10544 (C) 15788 (A) 15799 (B) 15802 (C) 10498. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical cyclone? A) 4 B) 2 C) 12 D) 13 10503. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Which of the following best describes Zone D? A) Anticyclone. B) Ridge of high pressure. C) Depression. D) Trough of low pressure. 10504. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL180? A) 200 hPa B) 300 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 700 hPa 10514. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL390? A) 700 hPa B) 300 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 200 hPa 10524. (all) Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing level? A) Surface chart. B) 500 hPa chart. C) 700 hPa chart. D) Significant weather chart. 10532. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL100? A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 10535. (all) How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart? A) ISOL CB. B) EMBD CB. C) FREQ CB. D) OCNL CB. 10538. (all) In which meteorological forecast chart is information about
CAT regions found? A) 300 hPa chart. B) 24 hour surface forecast. C) 500 hPa chart. D) Significant Weather Chart. 10543. (all) What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart? A) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the chart. B) The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart. C) The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart. D) The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart. 10544. (all) How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts? A) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour. B) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots. C) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots. D) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour. 15788. (all) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a FL50? A) 850 hPa B) 700 hPa C) 500 hPa D) 300 hPa 15799. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing? A) FL140 B) FL260 C) FL320 D) FL300 15802. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) What is the average wind at FL160 between Zurich and Rome? A) 020/50 B) 050/40 C) 200/45 D) 200/40 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 109 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 15834 (D) 15835 (D) 15842 (C) 15846 (A) 16356 (D) 16362 (C) 24100 (C) 24105 (D) 24107 (B) 24108 (B) 24109 (B) 24110 (D) 24111 (D) 24112 (D) 15834. (all) (Refer to figure 050-55) The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the
ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport? A) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = B) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 = C) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 = D) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = 15835. (all) The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about: A) 39.000 ft B) 30.000 ft C) 32.000 ft D) 34.000 ft 15842. (all) When planning a flight at FL60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be nearest your flight level? A) 500 hPa B) 300 hPa C) 850 hPa D) 700 hPa 15846. (all) (Refer to figure 050-73) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110: A) 230/10 B) 200/30 C) 040/10 D) 250/20 16356. (all) The 500 hPa countour chart is equivalent to: A) FL300 B) FL90 C) FL50 D) FL180 16362. (all) The lines on a contour chart join points of: A) equal pressure. B) equal temperature. C) equal height. D) equal humidity. 24100. (all) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering the North Atlantic route from the Azores to Bermuda, the mean height of the tropical tropopause during summer is approximately: A) 33.000 ft B) 39.000 ft C) 51.000 ft D) 60.000 ft 24105. (all) (Refer to figure 050-33) Considering the sector Rome to 25°N on the route indicated, what mean upper winds may be expected at FL300 during winter?
A) Easterlies at 40 kts. B) Variable easterlies. C) Light westerlies. D) Westerly jet streams in excess of 70 kts. 24107. (all) (Refer to figure 050-50) The air mass affecting position A is most likely to A) continental tropical. B) maritime polar. C) continental polar. D) maritime tropical. 24108. (all) (Refer to figure 050-48) The air mass affecting position C is most likely to A) continental tropical. B) maritime tropical. C) maritime polar. D) continental polar. 24109. (all) (Refer to figure 050-49) The air mass affecting position S is most likely to A) maritime polar and unstable. B) maritime tropical and stable. C) maritime polar and stable. D) continental tropical and unstable. 24110. (all) (Refer to figure 050-44) The air mass affecting position P is most likely to A) maritime tropical. B) maritime polar. C) continental tropical. D) continental polar. 24111. (all) (Refer to figure 050-45) The air mass affecting position R is most likely to A) maritime tropical. B) maritime polar. C) continental polar. D) continental tropical. 24112. (all) (Refer to figure 050-58) The weather most likely to be experienced at position is: A) little or no cloud - hazy. B) morning fog lifting to low stratus. C) OVC SC. D) frequent heavy showers of rain or snow.
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050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 110 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24113 (C) 24117 (D) 24119 (C) 24120 (C) 24122 (D) 24123 (C) 24124 (C) 24125 (C) 24126 (D) 24127 (C) 24128 (D) 24132 (B) 24136 (A) 24113. (all) (Refer to figure 050-57) The weather most likely to be experienced at position A is: A) advection fog. B) clear skies - radiation fog forming overnight.
C) snow showers - gale force wind. D) continuous drizzle and hill fog. 24117. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) The occurrence of freezing rain at FL60 is most likely in square: A) 2D B) 2A C) 3B D) 3C 24119. (all) (Refer to figure 050-43) The weather most likely to be experienced at position A is: A) cumulus, cumulonimbus clouds, heavy rain or snow showers, medium to strong winds. B) clear skies, good visibility in light winds. C) mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus and drizzle, medium to strong winds. D) radiation fog, low stratus, drizzle, no medium or upper cloud, light wind. 24120. (all) (Refer to figure 050-49) The weather most likely to be experienced at position S is: A) increasing AS and NS with moderate to heavy rain. B) scattered thunderstorms and good visibility. C) overcast with drizzle and orographic fog. D) small amounts of CU with generally good visibility. 24122. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) What flight conditions are most likely to be experienced in square 2B by an aircraft at FL120? A) IMC in NS with risk of light icing. B) VMC below an overcast of AS and CS, generally smooth air. C) IMC in layers of AS and isolated CB risk of severe turbulence and icing. D) VMC above layers of ST and SC, generally stable conditions. 24123. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, the most likely weather conditions are: A) showers of rain and hail. B) moderate continuous rain. C) low cloud, mist. D) scattered AC base 2000 ft, good visibility. 24124. (all) (Refer to figure 050-23) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield located in square 3B, away from the vicinity of the fronts, the most likely weather conditions in winter are: A) generally overcast, moderate continuous rain and risk of low level windshear. B) scattered SC and CU, good visibility. C) poor visibility in mist and drizzle. D) prolonged periods of heavy rain and hail. 24125. (all) (Refer to figure 050-50) The weather most likely to be experienced near to position
A is:
A) overcast layer cloud - rain later. B) advection fog and drizzle. C) frequent showers of rain and snow, good visibility outside precipitation. D) clear skies - radiation fog at night. 24126. (all) (Refer to figure 050-39) The weather most likely to be experienced at position B is: A) early morning fog lifting to low stratus later. B) advection fog and drizzle. C) poor visibility in anticyclonic circulation. D) frequent showers of rain or snow. 24127. (all) (Refer to figure 050-40) The weather most likely to be experienced at position B is: A) mainly overcast with stratus or stratocumulus, drizzle. B) scattered stratocumulus with good visibility. C) frequent showers of rain or snow, good visibility outside showers. D) clear skies, moderate wind, good visibility. 24128. (all) (Refer to figure 050-41) The weather most likely to be experienced on the coast near position Q is: A) mainly clear skies with fog developing overnight. B) mainly overcast with poor visibility. C) thundery showers particularly at night. D) showery with generally good visibility. 24132. (all) (Refer to figure 050-42) The pressure system at position D is a: A) secondary low. B) col. C) trough of low pressure. D) ridge of high pressure. 24136. (all) (Refer to figure 050-32) The dotted line designated Z represents the: A) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July. B) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January. C) northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during July. D) northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 111 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24137 (B) 24138 (D) 24140 (B) 24141 (A) 24142 (B) 24143 (B) 24144 (D) 24145 (C) 24146 (A) 24147 (C) 24148 (B) 24149 (C) 24151 (D) 24137. (all) (Refer to figure 050-32) The dotted line labelled Y represents the: A) axis of the subtropical jet stream during January. B) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January.
C) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July. D) axis of the equatorial jet stream during July. 24138. (all) (Refer to figure 050-46) The weather most likely to be experienced at position R is: A) overcast with drizzle and hill fog. B) early morning fog lifting to low stratus. C) increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain. D) fine and warm at first - AC castellanus and CB in late afternoon with thunderstorms. 24140. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) For an aircraft making an approach to an airfield which is not situated near high ground, in the vicinity of the active front in square 3B, a potential hazard exists in the form of: A) radiation fog. B) low level windshear. C) rotor clouds. D) clear air turbulence (CAT). 24141. (all) (Refer to figure 050-47) The front at the bottom of the diagram, south of position C, is: A) an occlusion on the surface. B) a warm front. C) an occlusion above the surface. D) a cold front. 24142. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) The air mass at position A is most likely to be: A) maritime polar. B) maritime tropical. C) continental polar. D) continental tropical. 24143. (all) (Refer to figure 050-17) The air mass type indicated by arrow number 4 is designated: A) continental polar. B) maritime tropical. C) maritime polar. D) continental tropical. 24144. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) The air mass affecting position B is most likely to be: A) maritime tropical. B) continental polar. C) continental tropical. D) maritime polar. 24145. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) For an aircraft at FL80, ahead of the front in square 2D, the expected flight conditions are: A) IMC in cumuliform cloud, moderate turbulence with a risk of rime icing. B) overcast skies, moderate to heavy turbulence with the possibility of thunderstorms. C) below AS type cloud, generally smooth air with light precipitation. D) high CI and CS type cloud, light turbulence and poor visibility.
24146. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) For an aircraft at FL40, approaching the front (square 3C) from the direction of square 3D a potential hazard exists before reaching the front in the form of: A) clear ice accretion to the airframe. B) severe turbulence associated with CB. C) severe turbulence and windshear. D) severe downdrafts from subsiding air. 24147. (all) (Refer to figure 050-22) What conditions are most likely to prevail at an aerodrome located in square 3B? A) Mainly overcast at 8.000 ft, visibility less than 5 km in continuous moderate rain. B) Broken CU base 2.000 ft, visibility more than 5 km, occasional showers of rain or snow. C) 6 - 8 oktas SC and ST, visibility moderate to poor in drizzle. D) Intermittent thunderstorms otherwise generally clear skies with good visibility. 24148. (all) (Refer to figure 050-37) When front G passes position T the surface wind should: A) veer and decrease. B) veer and increase. C) back and increase. D) back and decrease. 24149. (all) (Refer to figure 050-20) The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is a: A) trough of low pressure. B) col. C) ridge of high pressure. D) depression. 24151. (all) (Refer to figure 050-38) From indications shown on the chart, when front S passes position V the surface wind should: A) back and decrease. B) veer and increase. C) back and remain more or less at the same speed. D) veer and remain more or less at the same speed. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 112 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24152 (A) 24153 (B) 24154 (A) 24155 (A) 24156 (A) 24157 (A) 24158 (B) 24160 (D) 24161 (C) 24162 (A) 24163 (A) 24164 (A) 24165 (B) 24166 (D) 24152. (all) (Refer to figure 050-36) By the time the front C has passed point D the surface wind will have: A) veered and increased. B) veered and decreased. C) backed and increased. D) backed and decreased. 24153. (all) (Refer to figure 050-84)
The temperature deviation from ISA (to the nearest °C) overhead Charleston at FL340 is: A) +3 B) +5 C) -5 D) -7 24154. (all) (Refer to figure 050-84) At 40°N 70°W, the forecast wind is: A) 270°/95 kts. B) 320°/40 kts. C) 240°/90 kts. D) 280°/70 kts. 24155. (all) (Refer to figure 050-86) On the track shown at 20° W, the forecast wind at FL390 is: A) 090°/45 kts. B) 060°/45 kts. C) 070°/30 kts. D) 270°/45 kts. 24156. (all) (Refer to figure 050-45) The front located from 10°W to 10°E is most likely to be: A) a quasi-stationary front. B) an active warm front moving north. C) an active occlusion moving south. D) a cold front moving south. 24157. (all) (Refer to figure 050-37) The front labelled E is a: A) cold front. B) warm front. C) warm occlusion. D) cold occlusion. 24158. (all) (Refer to figure 050-84) Considering the route between Valencia and Charleston at FL340, the forecast mean temperature is: A) -45 °C B) -50 °C C) -55 °C D) -40 °C 24160. (all) (Refer to figure 050-83) What is the average wind forecast for FL300 between Edinburgh and Madrid? A) 180/20 B) 300/45 C) 240/25 D) 280/30 24161. (all) (Refer to figure 050-83) What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL300 between Edinburgh and Madrid? A) +2 °C B) +12 °C C) -2 °C D) -12 °C 24162. (all)
(Refer to figure 050-85) The average forecast wind for the leg from Madrid to Dhahran at FL390 is: A) 270/50 B) 270/30 C) 320/70 D) 310/50 24163. (all) (Refer to figure 050-85) What is the average temperature difference from ISA at FL390 between Madrid and Dhahran? A) -1 °C B) +5 °C C) -5 °C D) +2 °C 24164. (all) (Refer to figure 050-86) Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). On the track shown at 20° W, the forecast wind at FL390 is: A) 0 °C B) +6 °C C) +2 °C D) -2 °C 24165. (all) (Refer to figure 050-86) Flight from Lisbon (LPPT) to Kingston (MKJP). Considering the route segment between 60°W and 70°W, at FL390 the forecast mean temperature is: A) -52 °C B) -55 °C C) -58 °C D) -61 °C 24166. (all) (Refer to figure 050-87) The mean wind that may be expected to affect the route segment from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL270 is: A) 245/55 B) 240/90 C) 270/70 D) 220/70 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 113 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24167 (B) 24168 (A) 24169 (B) 24170 (A) 24172 (B) 24174 (D) 24178 (D) 24179 (B) 24181 (C) 24182 (D) 24185 (D) 24186 (A) 24191 (B) 24193 (C) 24167. (all) (Refer to figure 050-87) The mean temperature that may be expected to affect that segment of the route from the coast of SE England to Geneva at FL270 is: A) -34 °C B) -38 °C C) -30 °C D) -42 °C 24168. (all) (Refer to figure 050-87) At FL300 between Geneva and Tunis, what mean wind
would be most likely? A) 245/50 B) 225/25 C) 265/40 D) 265/25 24169. (all) (Refer to figure 050-04) In appendix are shown four sections of the 700 hPa wind chart. The diagram representing most accurately the wind direction and speed is: A) 210°/30 kts (diagram B). B) 030°/30 kts (diagram A). C) 030°/30 kts (diagram C). D) 210°/30 kts (diagram D). 24170. (all) (Refer to figure 050-19) According to the extract of the surface isobar map, the surface wind direction over the sea is approximately: A) 140° B) 110° C) 310° D) 220° 24172. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) On a Significant Weather Chart, hail is represented by symbol: A) 1 B) 11 C) 2 D) 10 24174. (all) (Refer to figure 050-38) What is the classification of the air mass affecting position Q? A) Continental tropical. B) Maritime polar. C) Continental polar. D) Maritime tropical. 24178. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik and Helsinki? A) FL360 B) FL350 C) FL300 D) FL320 24179. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern Scandinavia? A) FL330 B) FL280 C) FL360 D) FL300 24181. (all) (Refer to figure 050-64) At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt? A) FL350 B) FL300 C) FL330
D) FL240 24182. (all) (Refer to figure 050-61) The temperature at FL330 overhead London will be: A) -57 °C B) -30 °C C) -33 °C D) -42 °C 24185. (all) (Refer to figure 050-67) What is the average temperature at FL160 between Oslo and Paris? A) -25 °C B) -23 °C C) -15 °C D) -19 °C 24186. (all) (Refer to figure 050-69) What is the speed of the front located over France? A) 15 kts B) 25 kts C) 10 kts D) 30 kts 24191. (all) (Refer to figure 050-03) Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above the airfield concerned? A) Diagram 3. B) Diagram 4. C) Diagram 2. D) Diagram 1. 24193. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) A convergence line is indicated by: A) C B) B C) A D) D 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 114 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24194 (C) 24195 (C) 24197 (A) 24198 (B) 24199 (A) 24200 (D) 24201 (C) 24202 (A) 24203 (B) 24205 (D) 24308 (D) 25579 (A) 24194. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 12 B) 14 C) 8 D) 16 24195. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 13 B) 10
C) 3 D) 2 24197. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL170: A) 230/35 B) 200/50 C) 050/40 D) 030/35 24198. (all) (Refer to figure 050-77) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? A) Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence. B) Moderate or severe turbulence and icing. C) Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight. D) CAT for the first half of the flight. 24199. (all) (Refer to figure 050-78) Judging by the chart, what wind speeds can you expect at FL310 above London? A) 90 kts B) 300 kts C) 140 kts D) 110 km/h 24200. (all) (Refer to figure 050-81) Which of these statements is true? A) Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL400 over Malaga (LEMG). B) Freezing level above London (EGLL) is higher than FL065. C) The front to the east of Paris (LFPO) is moving south. D) Local snow and severe aircraft icing can be expected over Germany. 24201. (all) (Refer to figure 050-82) On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL170? A) Paris - Lisbon. B) Madrid - Vienna. C) London - Stockholm. D) Zurich - Athens. 24202. (all) (Refer to figure 050-34) This chart shows the weather situation at 0600 UTC on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? A) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 1012 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000 SCT030 BKN090 = B) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 05014KT 5000 BR OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 = C) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG
SCT100 = D) TAF LSGG 230600Z 230716 VRB03KT 6000 SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 24203. (all) (Refer to figure 050-78) Which of the following statements is true? A) The moderate icing conditions overhead Zurich are forecast in a layer between FL140 and above the limit of the chart. B) The wind speed in the core of the jet stream near Bordeaux (B) is about 80 kts. C) The west part of the front system over Spain moves to the south with 10 kts and the eastern part of that front over Spain moves to the north. D) On a flight from Copenhagen to Amsterdam you have not to worry about moderate and/or severe turbulence at FL110. 24205. (all) (Refer to figure 050-76) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL130 between 0600 and 0900 UTC, what can you expect at cruising level? A) You will be out of clouds more of three quarters of your flight. B) A strong wind from the right with 90 kts at the crossing of the core of the jet stream. C) You will arrive at your destination before you have to cross the warm front. D) Moderate icing about half way along the route. 24308. (all) On an upper wind and temperature chart: A) the wind increases from south to north. B) the temperature is constant all over the chart. C) the height is constant all over the chart. D) the pressure is constant all over the chart. 25579. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) A convergence line is indicated by: A) sector A. B) sector B. C) sector C. D) sector D. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 115 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25580 (C) 25581 (A) 25582 (B) 25584 (D) 25585 (A) 25586 (C) 25588 (B) 25589 (C) 25595 (C) 25597 (B) 25601 (A) 25602 (D) 25603 (A) 25604 (A) 25605 (A) 25580. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) The warm sector is indicated by: A) sector A. B) sector B. C) sector C. D) sector D. 25581. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) Which of the following best describes Zone A? A) Trough of low pressure.
B) Cold front. C) Ridge of high pressure. D) Depression. 25582. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) Which of the following best describes Zone B? A) Ridge of high pressure. B) Cold front. C) Depression. D) Trough of low pressure. 25584. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) Which of the following best describes Zone D? A) Ridge of high pressure. B) Trough of low pressure. C) Anticyclone. D) Depression. 25585. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) What does zone A depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm sector. D) The Cold front. 25586. (all) (Refer to figure 050-28) What does zone C depict? A) A trough. B) A ridge. C) The warm sector. D) The Cold front. 25588. (all) (Refer to figure 050-12) In which direction does the polar front move in this picture? A) D B) C C) B D) A 25589. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) Which airport has the biggest probability for rain at 1200 UTC? A) LIRF B) LEMD C) LFPO D) LOWW 25595. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which airport has the biggest probability for the formation of fog the following night? A) ENGM B) EKCH C) LFPO D) EINN 25597. (all) (Refer to figure 050-54) What does this picture depict? A) A high pressure area over France. B) A westerly wave over central Europe. C) South foehn.
D) North foehn. 25601. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL180? A) 4 °C colder than ISA. B) 4 °C warmer than ISA. C) 10 °C colder than ISA. D) 10 °C warmer than ISA. 25602. (all) (Refer to figure 050-91) What is the average temperature for the route GenevaStockholm, FL260? A) -55 °C B) -51 °C C) -63 °C D) -47 °C 25603. (all) (Refer to figure 050-61) Over Paris at what flight level would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map? A) FL300 B) FL330 C) FL150 D) FL280 25604. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75) On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart? A) Hamburg - Oslo. B) Rome - Frankfurt. C) Tunis - Rome. D) Copenhagen - Helsinki. 25605. (all) (Refer to figure 050-76) Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located? A) FL350 B) FL310 C) FL250 D) FL280 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 116 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25606 (D) 25608 (A) 25609 (A) 25610 (D) 25611 (A) 25612 (B) 25614 (A) 25616 (B) 25617 (B) 25618 (A) 25619 (B) 25620 (B) 25623 (C) 25624 (A) 25606. (all) (Refer to figure 050-92) On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL340? A) Rome - Berlin. B) Zurich - Rome. C) Zurich - Athens. D) Shannon - Hamburg. 25608. (all) (Refer to figure 050-68) What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the ICAO Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt?
A) ISA -13 °C B) ISA -2 °C C) ISA +13 °C D) ISA +2 °C 25609. (all) (Refer to figure 050-93) State the temperature deviation to ISA over Copenhagen at FL140: A) 8 °C colder than ISA. B) 4 °C warmer than ISA. C) 8 °C warmer than ISA. D) 12 °C colder than ISA. 25610. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 8 B) 1 C) 12 D) 3 25611. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) Which of the following symbols represents a thunderstorm? A) 3 B) 7 C) 10 D) 9 25612. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an aircraft flying according to instrument flight rules (IFR)? A) 2 B) 9 C) 16 D) 10 25614. (all) (Refer to figure 050-66) What wind is forecast at FL390 over Paris? A) 210/40 B) 240/20 C) 030/40 D) 190/40 25616. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) To what extent is Zurich covered by clouds? A) 3 to 5 oktas. B) 5 to 8 oktas. C) 1 to 4 oktas. D) 5 to 7 oktas. 25617. (all) (Refer to figure 050-27) Which of the following best describes Zone A? A) Ridge of high pressure. B) Trough of low pressure. C) Depression D) Cold front. 25618. (all) (Refer to figure 050-24) What pressure does an observer at point A encounter in the next hour?
A) Rising pressure. B) Falling pressure. C) A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop. D) No substantial pressure change. 25619. (all) (Refer to figure 050-24) What pressure does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour? A) Rising pressure. B) Falling pressure. C) A pressure rise first, then an immediate pressure drop. D) No substantial pressure change. 25620. (all) (Refer to figure 050-24) What temperature does an observer at point C encounter in the next hour? A) The temperature decreases. B) The temperature increases. C) The temperature first increases and then decreases. D) No substantial temperature change. 25623. (all) (Refer to figure 050-01) Which of the following symbols represents a severe squall line? A) 18 B) 17 C) 5 D) 4 25624. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL220? A) Individual cumulonimbus. B) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus. C) Scattered towering cumulus. D) Scattered castellanus. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 117 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25625 (A) 25627 (C) 25628 (D) 25629 (B) 26335 28411 (A) 9628 (B) 25625. (all) (Refer to figure 050-71) To what extent is Munich covered by clouds? A) 5 to 8 oktas. B) 1 to 4 oktas. C) 5 to 7 oktas. D) 3 to 5 oktas. 25627. (all) (Refer to figure 050-13) An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B level contour chart. The altimeter setting is Which of these statements is correct? A) Wind speed at A is higher than at B. B) The true altitude will be higher at B than C) The true altitude will be higher at A than D) Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B.
(B) 27130 (C) 27573 (A) 28385 (A)
on the upper 1.013,2 hPa. at A. at B.
25628. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which airport is most likely to have radiation fog in the coming night? A) ESSA B) ENGM C) EKCH D) LSZH 25629. (all) (Refer to figure 050-80) If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL340, where will your cruising altitude be? A) Constantly in the troposphere. B) Constantly in the stratosphere. C) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere. D) In the stratosphere for part of time. 26335. (all) On a Low level Significant Weather Chart, we see the following for the area where a VFR-flight will take place: BKN CU SC If the flight is planned at FL85, we can estimate that: A) we will be in solid clouds and consequently a VFR flight is not possible. B) we will probably have to divert around some cumulus tops, the cloud cover being between 5 and 7 oktas with most of the clouds below our cruising FL. C) we will fly above a solid cloud cover. D) we will fly just below the cloud base where the cloud cover is between 5 and 7 oktas. 27130. (all) What units of measurement are used in forecasts for winds aloft? A) Magnetic direction and knots. B) Magnetic direction and MPH. C) True direction and knots. D) True direction and MPH. 27573. (all) Which upper level chart do you use when preparing a flight at a cruising altitude of FL170? A) 500 hPa B) 850 hPa C) 700 hPa D) 300 hPa 28385. (all) On a weather chart an occlusion is indicated by a coloured line of: A) Violet B) Yellow C) Black D) Green 28411. (all) On a weather chart fog is indicated by: A) three horizontal lines. B) a dot sign. C) two horizontal lines. D) a comma sign. 050-10-03 Information for flight planning 9628. (all) Runway visual range can be reported in: A) a TAF.
B) a METAR. C) a SIGMET. D) both a TAF and a METAR. 100 023 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 118 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9632 (B) 9633 (A) 9637 (C) 9639 (D) 9642 (A) 9643 (C) 9646 (B) 9647 (A) 9651 (A) 9652 (D) 9657 (C) 9661 (C) 9632. (all) You receive the following METAR: LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG = What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC? A) 300 m. B) The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR. C) 700 m. D) 900 m. 9633. (all) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor? A) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed. B) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed. C) With gusts of at least 25 knots. D) With gusts of at least 35 knots. 9637. (all) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK? A) 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG = B) 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 = C) 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG = D) 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG = 9639. (all) The following weather report is a: EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 A) METAR. B) 24 hour TAF. C) SPECI. D) 9 hour TAF. 9642. (all) (Refer to figure 050-59) Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL200? A) Moderate turbulence, moderate icing. B) Moderate turbulence, light icing. C) Severe turbulence, moderate icing. D) Severe turbulence, severe icing. 9643. (all) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? A) TS B) SA
C) DZ D) SQ 9646. (all) What is the meaning of the expression FEW? A) 3-4 oktas cloud cover. B) 1-2 oktas cloud cover. C) 5-7 oktas cloud cover. D) 1-2 oktas of cloud cover. 9647. (all) In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the coming night the highest? A) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR = B) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG = C) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG = D) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 = 9651. (all) (Refer to figure 050-74) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL200: A) -33 °C B) -30 °C C) -41 °C D) -49 °C 9652. (all) Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for 16:00 UTC: Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kts, visibility 2.000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1.000 ft, OVC altostratus at 8.000 ft, QNH 1.023 hPa. Calvi: wind 040°/2 kts, visibility 3.000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT stratocumulus at 2.000 ft, OVC altostratus at 9.000 ft, QNH 1.023 hPa. The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore: A) 1.000 ft at Ajaccio and 2.000 ft at Calvi. B) 1.000 ft at Ajaccio and 500 ft at Calvi. C) 8.000 ft at Ajaccio and 9.000 ft at Calvi. D) 1.000 ft at Ajaccio and 9.000 ft at Calvi. 9657. (all) What is the meaning of the abbreviation BKN? A) 6 - 8 oktas.. B) 3 - 4 oktas. C) 5 - 7 oktas. D) 8 oktas. 9661. (all) Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice: TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK = 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS = What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports? A) That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF. B) That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF. C) That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted earlier in the morning. D) That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the latest VOLMET report could
be so different from the TAF. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 119 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9662 (B) 9665 (A) 9666 (A) 9667 (D) 9668 (B) 9673 (C) 9674 (B) 9675 (A) 9676 (B) 9678 (C) 9681 (C) 9683 (B) 9687 (C) 9662. (all) What units are used to report vertical windshear? A) kt B) kt/100 ft C) m/100 ft D) m/sec 9665. (all) (Refer to figure 050-62) In what height range and at what intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2? A) From FL220 to FL400, moderate. B) From FL240 to FL370, light. C) From below FL130 to FL270, light. D) From FL250 to FL320, moderate. 9666. (all) What does the abbreviation NOSIG mean? A) No significant changes. B) No report received. C) No weather related problems. D) Not signed by the meteorologist. 9667. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75) On which of these routes would you have to worry about turbulence at FL340? A) Rome - Berlin. B) Zurich - Rome. C) Zurich - Athens. D) Shannon - Hamburg. 9668. (all) A SPECI is: A) an aviation routine weather report. B) an aviation selected special weather report. C) a warning for special weather phenomena. D) a forecast for special weather phenomena. 9673. (all) What does the term METAR signify? A) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily. B) A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR. C) A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals. D) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic report. 9674. (all) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport: FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA Amsterdam?
A) 5 km B) 3 km C) 5 NM D) 6 km 9675. (all) How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind at FL250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are available). A) By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather Chart. B) By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts. C) By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart. D) By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart. 9676. (all) (Refer to figure 050-77) If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL220, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? A) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus. B) Individual cumulonimbus. C) Scattered towering cumulus. D) Scattered castellanus. 9678. (all) (Refer to figure 050-65) Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - London at FL280: A) 040/60 B) 250/80 C) 220/50 D) 160/90 9681. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which of the following weather conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC? A) 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 = B) 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 RA = C) 21002KT 5000 HZ SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG = D) 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG = 9683. (all) What is the meaning of the abbreviation SCT? A) 1 - 2 oktas. B) 3 - 4 oktas. C) 5 - 7 oktas. D) 1 - 4 oktas. 9687. (all) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 EMBD TS OBS AND FCST IN W PART OF ATHINAI FIR / MOVE / INTST NC = A) Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC. B) Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving west. C) Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant.
D) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the Athens FIR. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 120 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9688 (A) 9691 (B) 9692 (C) 9693 (C) 9694 (B) 9696 (A) 9699 (C) 9704 (D) 9705 (B) 9706 (A) 9709 (A) 9712 (A) 9688. (all) Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 1400 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG A) Visibility is reduced by water droplets. B) There is a distinct change in RVR observed. C) Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR. D) RVR on runway 26R is increasing. 9691. (all) (Refer to figure 050-88) What is the deviation of the temperature at FL140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA? A) 4 °C warmer than ISA. B) 9 °C colder than ISA. C) 9 °C warmer than ISA. D) 12 °C colder than ISA. 9692. (all) ATIS information contains: A) operational information and if necessary meteorological information. B) only meteorological information. C) meteorological and operational information. D) only operational information. 9693. (all) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? A) FZFG B) BCFG C) SN D) HZ 9694. (all) Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to CAVOK? MSA minus airport elevation equals: LSZB 10.000 ft LSZH 8.000 ft LSGG 12.000 ft LFSB 6.000 ft A) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG = B) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 -RA = C) LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG = D) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG = 9696. (all) What does the expression Broken (BKN) mean? A) 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered. B) 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered. C) 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered.
D) Nil significant cloud cover. 9699. (all) In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued? A) Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome. B) Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome. C) Severe mountain waves. D) A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR. 9704. (all) Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR? LSZH 050820Z 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 = A) Meteorological visibility 1.000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2 °C. B) RVR for runway 16 1.000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2.000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2 °C. C) RVR for runway 14 1.500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1.026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kts. D) Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1.000 m, dew point -2 °C, freezing fog. 9705. (all) What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on? A) The average speed of the previous 30 minutes. B) The average speed of the previous 10 minutes. C) The strongest gust in the previous hour. D) The actual speed at the time of recording. 9706. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC? A) 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG = B) 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA = C) 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW = D) 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG = 9709. (all) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours? A) 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS = B) 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG = C) 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG = D) 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 = 9712. (all) (Refer to figure 050-70) Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of cloud is most likely at FL160? A) Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers. B) 4 oktas broken cumulus. C) Isolated cumulonimbus only. D) 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence.
050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 121 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 9714 (B) 9716 (A) 9717 (B) 9719 (B) 9721 (A) 9722 (B) 10445 (B) 10446 (A) 10447 (A) 10453 (A) 10454 (A) 9714. (all) (Refer to figure 050-52) Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation? A) ESSA B) LSZH C) ENFB D) EFHK 9716. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London? A) 230°/120 kts. B) 220°/120 km/h. C) 050°/120 kts. D) 230°/120 m/sec. 9717. (all) What is a trend forecast? A) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours. B) A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours. C) A route forecast valid for 24 hours. D) A routine report. 9719. (all) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich. LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is: A) 1.000 ft B) 1.500 ft C) 1.500 m D) 5.000 ft 9721. (all) If CAVOK is reported then: A) no low drifting snow is present. B) FEW SC at 3.000 ft are present. C) low level windshear has not been reported. D) any CUs have a base above 5.000 ft. 9722. (all) How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid? A) 9 hours B) 2 hours C) 1 hour D) 30 minutes 10445. (all) In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 SIGMET 2 VALID 0800/1100 LOC SEV TURB FCST EINN FIR BLW FL050 SOUTH OF 53N WKN = LIMM MILANO 2809 SIGMET 2 VALID 0900/1500 MOD SEV CAT BTN FL250 AND FL430 FCST LIMM FIR STNR NC = EGLL LONDON 2808 SIGMET NR01 VALID 0800/1200 FOR LONDON FIR ISOL CB EMBD IN LYR CLOUD FCST TOPS FL300 BTN 52N AND 54N EAST OF 002E SEV ICE SEV TURB TS ALSO FCST MOVE WKN = Which decision is correct? A) You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be flown. B) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL250. C) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL310 you select a higher flight level (FL370). D) You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route would demand too much of the passengers. 10446. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found? A) FL100 B) FL20 C) FL180 D) FL260 10447. (all) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport: FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast? A) 120°/15 kts gusts 25 kts. B) 140°/10 kts. C) 300°/15 kts maximum wind 25 kts. D) 250°/20 kts. 10453. (all) Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are observed? A) +SHSN B) VA C) BR D) MIFG 10454. (all) (Refer to figure 050-74) Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL240: A) 230/15 B) 020/20 C) 200/20 D) 260/25 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 122 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10459 (C) 10460 (B) 10461 (B) 10463 (D) 10470 (D) 10471 (D) 10473 (C) 10479 (B)
10480 (B) 10481 (A) 10483 (D) 10485 (D) 10459. (all) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport: FCNL31 281500 EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 = Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at Amsterdam? A) 500 m B) 250 ft C) 500 ft D) 800 ft 10460. (all) In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in anyone instance? A) 120 minutes. B) 60 minutes. C) 10 minutes. D) 20 minutes. 10461. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75) On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart? A) Rome - Frankfurt. B) Hamburg - Oslo. C) Tunis - Rome. D) Copenhagen - Helsinki. 10463. (all) A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in: A) TAF and SIGMET. B) TAF and METAR. C) METAR and SIGMET. D) SWC and SIGMET. 10470. (all) Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport: TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC? A) Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots. B) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet. C) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm. D) Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots. 10471. (all) Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning? A) SA B) FG C) BCFG D) +RA 10473. (all) Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation VV001 mean? A) RVR greater than 100 m. B) RVR less than 100 m. C) Vertical visibility 100 ft. D) Vertical visibility 100 m. 10479. (all) (Refer to figure 050-68) What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt? A) ISA -2 °C. B) ISA -13 °C. C) ISA +13 °C. D) ISA +2 °C. 10480. (all) (Refer to figure 050-92) Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect at FL340 above Rome? A) 340 kts B) 145 kts C) 95 kts D) 140 km/h 10481. (all) (Refer to figure 050-72) What OAT would you expect at FL200 over Geneva? A) -24 °C B) -20 °C C) -16 °C D) -28 °C 10483. (all) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport: FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast? A) 10 or more km. B) 8 NM. C) 10 NM. D) 8 km. 10485. (all) SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to: A) heavy aircraft only. B) light aircraft only. C) VFR operations only. D) all aircraft. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 123 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10488 (C) 10490 (D) 10491 (D) 10492 (B) 10494 (D) 10495 (A) 10499 (A) 10500 (A) 10501 (C) 10507 (A) 10510 (C) 10511 (D) 10512 (C) 10488. (all) Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports? A) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI.
B) The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed. C) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET. D) The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning. 10490. (all) In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the runway? A) TAF B) SIGMET C) GAFOR D) METAR 10491. (all) What does the term TREND signify? A) It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily. B) It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals. C) It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions. D) It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report. 10492. (all) (Refer to figure 050-93) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL150: A) -21 °C B) -14 °C C) -11 °C D) -27 °C 10494. (all) The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above: A) the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station. B) mean sea level. C) the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation. D) airfield level. 10495. (all) (Refer to figure 050-81) Which of these statements is true? A) Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL310 west of Madrid. B) Freezing level above Madrid is higher than FL120. C) The front to the north of London is moving south. D) Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France. 10499. (all) Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation PROB30 mean? A) Probability of 30%. B) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes. C) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3.000 ft. D) Change expected in less than 30 minutes. 10500. (all) Refer to TAF below: EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010 KT From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at 2055Z
in Birmingham (EGBB) will be: A) not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km. B) a maximum 5 km. C) a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km. D) more than 10 km. 10501. (all) On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with intervals of: A) 2 hours. B) 1 hour. C) 0,5 hour. D) 3 hours. 10507. (all) (Refer to figure 050-79) Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate CAT at FL300? A) Zurich - Athens. B) London - Zurich. C) Zurich - Stockholm. D) Madrid - Bordeaux. 10510. (all) Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight? A) SPECI B) ATIS C) SIGMET D) TAF 10511. (all) (Refer to figure 050-63) If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL280, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? A) Out of cloud throughout the flight. B) Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT. C) Scattered thunderstorms. D) Largely free of cloud; moderate turbulence half way along the route. 10512. (all) (Refer to figure 050-73) Select from the map the average temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL110: A) -6 °C B) -12 °C C) -9 °C D) +5 °C 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 124 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10513 (B) 10515 (C) 10517 (A) 10521 (D) 10525 (A) 10529 (B) 10534 (A) 10536 (C) 10537 (A) 10539 (B) 10545 (D) 10513. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming night? A) ENFB to ENGM B) LSZH C) EKCH D) ESSA
10515. (all) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the highest? A) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG = B) 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG = C) VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 BR = D) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG = 10517. (all) What does the term SIGMET signify? A) A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions. B) A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily. C) A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report. D) A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly intervals. 10521. (all) Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines? A) Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast. B) Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics. C) For severe squall lines a TAF is issued. D) For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued. 10525. (all) (Refer to figure 050-93) Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens - Geneva at FL160: A) 240/40 B) 210/25 C) 260/45 D) 050/35 10529. (all) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich: LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 1215 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010= The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is: A) 6 NM B) 6 km C) 4 km D) 10 km 10534. (all) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few hours? A) 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 = B) 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG = C) 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 D) 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG = 10536. (all) Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? TAF LSZH 211200Z 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TX18/15Z TN14/21Z = A) Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 1.200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
B) Visibility 4.000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18 °C. C) Visibility 10 kilometres or more, ceiling 3.000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18 °C. D) Severe rainshowers, visibility 4.000 metres, temperature 15 °C, gusts up to 35 knots. 10537. (all) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW = A) Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18 °C. B) Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1.200 metres, temperature 23 °C. C) Broken, cloudbase 600 feet and 1.500 feet, temperature 18 °C. D) Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1.016 hPa. 10539. (all) (Refer to figure 050-60) What is the optimum flight level between Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart? A) FL340 B) FL200 C) FL160 D) FL180 10545. (all) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR? 00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 M03/ M03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = A) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1.500 metres. B) Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1.500 metres, temperature -3 °C, vertical visibility 100 metres. C) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1.500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost. D) RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 125 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 10546 (C) 10547 (C) 10551 (C) 10552 (C) 10557 (A) 10578 (B) 15804 (C) 15819 (C) 15855 (C) 15856 (A) 15880 (C) 16529 (C) 10546. (all) Does the following report make sense? LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG A) The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported. B) The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km. C) The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye level.
D) The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2 °C and a dew point of 2 °C there must be uniform fog. 10547. (all) The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to: A) the 0-meridian. B) magnetic north. C) true north. D) grid north. 10551. (all) In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the: A) QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa. B) QFE rounded to the nearest hPa. C) QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa. D) QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa. 10552. (all) (Refer to figure 050-89) What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt - Roma route? A) 10 °C colder than ISA. B) 4 °C warmer than ISA. C) 4 °C colder than ISA. D) 10 °C warmer than ISA. 10557. (all) Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame? A) The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC. B) A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC. C) Many short term changes in the original weather. D) Many long term changes in the original weather. 10578. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) On which airport do you expect the development of the following weather situation? Using the weather chart in appendix, valid at 1500 UTC in JUNE. TAF 1322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 = A) ESSA B) EINN C) LSZH D) EKCH 15804. (all) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport. FCFR31 281400 LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA = Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux? A) Light drizzle and fog. B) Moderate snow showers. C) Heavy rain showers. D) Continuous moderate rain. 15819. (all) Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What does the abbreviation BKN004 mean? A) 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m. B) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m. C) 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft. D) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft. 15855. (all) The validity of a TAF is: A) between 6 and 9 hours. B) 9 hours from the time of issue. C) statead in the TAF. D) 2 hours. 15856. (all) The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the: A) value representative of the touchdown zone. B) average value of the A-, B- and C-position. C) highest value of the A-, B- and C-position. D) lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position. 15880. (all) A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and windshear. The wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure? A) Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible. B) Takeoff is not possible under these conditions. C) Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind. D) Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle, during the passage through the inversion. 16529. (all) The heights of cloud bases in TAFs are reported as being: A) AGL. B) AMSL. C) AAL. D) pressure atlitude. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 126 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24176 (B) 24187 (D) 24315 (A) 24316 (B) 24322 (D) 24323 (C) 24333 (D) 24351 (A) 24354 (D) 24355 (C) 24363 (A) 24176. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) At which airport, is the following weather development taking place? TAF 060600Z 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 = A) LFPO B) EDDL C) LOWW D) LEMD 24187. (all) (Refer to figure 050-56) To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable? TAF 230900Z 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1517 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030
A) EKCH B) LFPG C) LEMD D) LOWW 24315. (all) Refer to the following TAF extract: BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001 What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC? A) 500 m. B) 2.000 m. C) Between 500 m and 2.000 m. D) Between 0 m and 1.000 m. 24316. (all) Refer to the following TAF message. LFxx 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214 24025KT 2000 RA BKN009 OVC070= At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be: A) between 900 and 1.500 feet AMSL. B) at 900 feet AGL. C) between 900 and 1.500 feet AGL. D) at 1.500 feet AGL. 24322. (all) TAF EHAM 142300Z 150009 33005KT 9999 SCT025 BKN100 BECMG 0002 27015KT 4500 -SN SCT008 OVC015 TEMPO 0206 0400 +SN VV002 BECMG 0406 01008KT 9999 NSW SCT030 TEMPO 0709 03015G25KT 1200 SNSH SCT006 SCT015CB= What is the expected visibility at 0300 UTC? A) 4.500 m. B) Between 400 m and 10 km or more. C) Between 4.500 m and 10 km or more. D) Between 400 m and 4.500 m. 24323. (all) TAF LSZH 250600Z 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BR BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 = Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC? A) Visibility 800 metres, fog, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm. B) Visibility 800 metres, fog, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 feet. C) Visibility 2,5 kilometres, mist, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots. D) Visibility 6 kilometres, cloud base 500 feet, wind speed 5 knots. 24333. (all) The following weather message is a: EDDM 241200Z 241322 VRB03KT 1500 BR OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001 A) METAR. B) 24 hour TAF. C) SPECI. D) 9 hour TAF. 24351. (all) The TAF weather messages are: A) airport forecasts. B) hourly or semi-hourly weather observations. C) special weather observations. D) landing forecasts of the trend type.
24354. (all) The term CAVOK is used when weather conditions are: A) 9999, NSC, NOSIG. B) 9000, SKC, NOSIG. C) 8000, HAZARDOUS WX NIL, NOSIG. D) 9999, NSC, NSW. 24355. (all) The term PROB as used in a TAF message, indicates the probability in percentage, of phenomena described during a specific period. The numerical values immediately following the term PROB, are: A) 25 or 35. B) 20 or 30. C) 30 or 40. D) 35 or 50. 24363. (all) What does the code TAF AMD mean? A) Revised TAF. B) No change compared with the previous TAF. C) Weather conditions expected to affect the safety of normal operations. D) Delayed issue of a TAF. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 127 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24376 (D) 24377 (A) 24380 (D) 24382 (B) 24383 (B) 24384 (D) 24388 (B) 24389 (A) 24390 (B) 24391 (D) 24376. (all) What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC? TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000= A) 1.800 feet. B) 1.200 feet. C) 1.400 feet. D) 900 feet. 24377. (all) What is the lowest cloud base forecast for arrival at Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= A) 500 ft B) 500 m C) 1.000 ft D) 1.000 m 24380. (all) What is the lowest probable cloud base forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston? TAF MKJP 160000Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1520 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025= A) 1.500 m B) 1.000 m
C) 1.500 ft D) 1.000 ft 24382. (all) What is the lowest visibility forecast for approach into Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA SCT005 BKN015CB= A) 8 NM B) 8 km C) 6 NM D) 10 km 24383. (all) What is the lowest visibility forecast for Bangkok at ETA 1400 UTC? TAF VTBD 271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200 BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100 TEMPO 1118 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BKN018CB BECMG 2024 6000= A) 1.200 m B) 5 km C) 6 km D) 10 km or more 24384. (all) What is the lowest visibility that may be expected during an approach into Dhahran at ETA 0600 UTC? TAF OEDR 280000Z 280110 VRB08KT CAVOK BECMG 0103 7000 TEMPO 0410 28014G24KT 4000 SA= A) 4.000 yards B) 10 km or more C) 7 km D) 4 km 24388. (all) What lowest cloud base is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008 A) 2.000 ft B) 1.500 ft C) 3.000 ft D) 800 ft 24389. (all) What surface wind is forecast for 2200 UTC? EDDF 272200Z 280624 VRB05KT 4000 BR SCT005 OVC013 BECMG 1314 9000 SHRA OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 1416 VRB15G25KT 1600 TSRA OVC010CB BECMG 1618 26010KT BKN030 BECMG 2122 CAVOK A) 260°/10 kts. B) Variable/05 kts. C) Variable/15 to 25 kts. D) Calm. 24390. (all) What surface wind is forecast for ETA 1700 UTC at Kingston? MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025CB BECMG1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2301 34010KT FEW025= A) 360°/10 kts. B) 140°/20 kts gusts 34 kts.
C) 340°/10 kts. D) 140°/27 kts. 24391. (all) What type of meteorological hazard to safe flight is most likely to be experienced during the final approach to Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC)? TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 RA SCT010 OVC020 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA A) Anabatic winds. B) Roll cloud associated with standing waves. C) Radiation fog. D) Low level windshear. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 128 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 24392 (A) 24395 (C) 24416 (A) 24417 (B) 25577 (A) 25590 (D) 25591 (B) 25592 (C) 25593 (A) 25594 (D) 24392. (all) What type of precipitation might occur at 1700 UTC? MKJP 160430Z 160606 36010KT 9999 FEW025 BECMG 1315 14020G34KT FEW015CB SCT025 PROB30 TEMPO 1720 6000 +SHRA SCT010 BKN015CB BECMG 2224 34010KT FEW025= A) Heavy rain showers. B) Light drizzle. C) Continuous moderate rain. D) Intermittent light rain. 24395. (all) What visibility is most likely to be experienced during an approach into Madrid at 2300 UTC? TAF LEMD 281200Z 281812 13005KT CAVOK TEMPO 1821 8000 SCT020 SCT030 BECMG 2123 21005KT 9999 SCT015 BKN080 PROB40 TEMPO 2306 6000 SCT008 A) 6.000 metres. B) 8.000 metres. C) 10 kilometres or more. D) Greater than 10 kilometres. 24416. (all) Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET? A) Heavy duststorm. B) Strong inversion. C) Thick fog. D) Snow and ice on the runway. 24417. (all) Which of the following phenomena has to be mentioned in a SIGMET? A) Strong inversion. B) Heavy duststorm. C) Thick fog. D) Snow and ice on the runway. 25577. (all) (Refer to figure 050-96) The following TAF applies best to which aerodrome? 19010KT 8000 RA BKN014 TEMPO 1518 4000 RADZ BKN010 A) EBBR
B) LOWW C) LEMD D) LFPG 25590. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) Which weather situation do you expect for EGLL at 1150 UTC? A) 23015KT 8000 SCT100 BKN200 21/07 Q1002 NOSIG= B) 32002KT 3000 OBC006 16/12 Q1024 TEMPO 8000 = C) 28006KT 4000 -TSRA SCT012 BKN030CB 19/14 Q1022 BECMG NSW = D) 17016G28KT 2500 +RA BKN009 OVC 018 12/10 Q0994 BECMG 8000 = 25591. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) At which airport is the following weather development most likely to be taking place? TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 = A) LFPO B) EDDL C) LEMD D) EPWA 25592. (all) (Refer to figure 050-51) On which airport do you expect the development of the following most likely weather situation? TAF 1019 21010KT 8000 SCT120 OVC180 BECMG 1013 OVC090 TEMPO -RA BECMG 1417 22016KT 5000 RA BKN020 OVC030 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN012 OVC020 = A) LFPO B) EGLL C) EDDL D) LOWW 25593. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) At which airport is the following weather development taking place? TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 TSRA SCT005 BKN015 BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220= A) EINN B) LFPO C) LFML D) EKCH 25594. (all) (Refer to figure 050-35) The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on May 23. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport? A) TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 = B) TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 = C) TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = D) TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618
00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 129 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 25599 (A) 26311 (A) 27072 (C) 27111 (A) 27462 (A) 27593 (A) 27594 (B) 27595 (C) 27667 (A) 27757 (A) 28380 (C) 25599. (all) (Refer to figure 050-55) The attached chart shows isobars and fronts at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport (LSZH)? A) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 = B) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 = C) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 = D) TAF LSZH 101500Z 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = 26311. (all) (Refer to figure 050-75) On which of the following routes can you expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart? A) Hamburg - Oslo. B) Rome - Frankfurt. C) Tunis - Rome. D) Copenhagen - Helsinki. 27072. (all) Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport: TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT TI8152 TI6182 = Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC? A) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1.200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots. B) Meteorological visibility 4.000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18 °C. C) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3.000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18T. D) Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4.000 metres, temperature 15 °C, gusts up to 35 knots. 27111. (all) At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are respectively: T=0,5 °C, Td=-1,5 °C In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the temperature group will be: A) 01/M01 B) M01/M02 C) 00/M01 D) M01/M01 27462. (all) A pilot observes thunderstorm activity and severe icing along his flight path. Therefore he files a pilot report. What does it lead to?
A) It leads to a SIGMET. B) It leads to a METAR. C) An amended General Aviation Forecast will be issued. D) No action will be taken. 27593. (all) A SIGMET: A) is a warning of meteorological hazards in the FIR for all aircraft. B) is a route forecast, issued several times during the day by the Met Ofices. C) is added as a short-term forecast to the actual weather report of an airport. D) reports the actual weather of an airport every 30 minutes. 27594. (all) TAF LSZH 1322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT BECMG 1820 4000 RA BKN025 BECMG 2022 25015KT TI8152 TI6182 = Which statement is true at 15 UTC? A) Met. vis. 4.000 metres, gusts of 25 kts, temperature 18 °C. B) Met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling 3.000 ft, wind from 250°, temperature 18 °C. C) Met. vis. 10 km or more, ceiling 1.200 ft, gusts of 45 kts. D) Strong rain showers, met. vis. 4.000 metres, temperature 15 °C, gusts of 35 kts. 27595. (all) Refer to the TAF below: What are the weather conditions vou have to expect at 1200UTC on Zurich airport? TAF LSZH 0716 00000KT 0100FG VV001 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN 005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT 007= A) Met. vis. 800 metres, vertical vis. 200 ft, calm. B) Met. vis. 6 km, ceiling 500 ft, wind from 230 degrees. C) Met. vis. 2,5 km, ceiling 500 ft, wind speed 5 kts. D) Met. vis. 800 m, wind direction 230°, ceiling 500 ft. 27667. (all) For your flight from Zurich to Rome you consult, amongst other information, the following SIGMET: SIGMET VAL1D1214201121820 MOD TO SEV CAT OBS AND FCST S OF ALPS BTN FL260 AND FL380 / STNR / INTSF = A) You select a flight level below FL260 due to turbulence. B) You select a flight level between FL260 and FL380 due to turbulence. C) You delay your departure until 1820 LT to avoid the icing. conditions betweenFL260 and FL380. D) You disregard this SIGMET, because it does not affect on your flight. 27757. (all) (Refer to figure 050-62) Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at FL300? A) Zurich - Rome. B) London - Zurich. C) Zurich - Copenhagen. D) Paris - Bordeaux. 28380. (all) The TAF validity in terms of time is usually: A) 3 hours. B) 6 hours. C) 9 hours.
D) 12 hours. 050-10 METEOROLOGICAL INFORMATION 130 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 28386 (C) 28404 (D) 28412 (C) 28413 (B) 28431 (B) 28432 (C) 28481 (C) 28386. (all) A SIGMET is: A) a significant weather chart. B) a special METAR. C) a message about observed or forecasted weather phenomena of special importance to aviation. D) the same as a TAF-forecast. 28404. (all) Which of the following is a landing forecast? A) METAR. B) TAF. C) SPECI. D) METAR with TREND. 28412. (all) The horizontal visibility given for VFR flight planning by a MET Office is: A) the average flight visibility for the planned flight. B) meteorological visibility at an average altitude of 500 meters. C) meteorological visibility on ground. D) vertical visibility. 28413. (all) The information about visibility to be used planning a VFR flight is: A) observed horizontal visibility on ground. B) forecasted horizontal visibility on ground. C) observed vertical visibility. D) RVR. 28431. (all) SlGMETs are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous: A) particularly to light aircraft. B) to all aircraft. C) only to light aircraft operations. D) particularly to heavy aircraft. 28432. (all) The function of a TAF is to be a/an: A) area forecast. B) local forecast. C) forecast for an airfield. D) wind forecast. 28481. (all) Among the ten groups of clouds, the following two are mentioned specifically in MET reports and forecasts intended for aviation: A) altocumulus and stratus. B) cirrostratus and cumulonimbus. C) cumulonimbus and towering cumulus. D) cumulonimbus and nimbostratus. PICTURE SUPLEMENTS 132 © 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 133 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 1 2 10 11 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 H 400 2 km H T DP T 2 km H T DP T 2 km H T DP T 2 km H T DP T T = Temperature DP = Dewpoint 1 2 3 4 -10° C +10° C 0° C 1 km 2 km 0° C H T 1 -10° C +10° C 0° C 1 km 2 km 0° C H T 2 -10° C +10° C 0° C 1 km 2 km 0° C H T 3 -10° C +10° C 0° C 1 km 2 km 0° C H T 4 45° S 45° S 2880 2920 2880 2920
2880 2920 2880 2920 N N isohypses A B D C FIGURE 050-01 A B C D FIGURE 050-02 FIGURE 050-03 FIGURE 050-07 FIGURE 050-04 FIGURE 050-05 FIGURE 050-06 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 134 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com A B A B A B A B A B 1 3 2 4 W E D A C B 50° N 20° W 10° W W E E A C B 50° N 20° W 10° W D 50°N 10°E 20°W 10°W 0° 1 2 4 3 FIGURE 050-08 FIGURE 050-09 FIGURE 050-10 FIGURE 050-11 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 135 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 50°N 10°E 20°W 10°W 0° A B
C D A Paris B A London B FIGURE 050-12 FIGURE 050-13 FIGURE 050-14 A B Melbourne FIGURE 050-16 A B Madrid FIGURE 050-15 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 136 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 6 5 4 3 2 1 A B C D 45° SOUTH 45° SUD 1000 hPa 995 hPa Tropopause 30.000 ft 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0° C 0° C FIGURE 050-17 FIGURE 050-18 FIGURE 050-19 FIGURE 050-20 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 137 © 2008
AVIATIONEXAM.com Tropopause 30.000 ft 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0° C 0° C Tropopause 27.000 ft 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0° C 0° C 0° C FIGURE 050-21 FIGURE 050-22 Tropopause 35.000 ft 18.000 ft 7.000 ft Surface A B C D E A B C D E 1 2 3 1 2 3 0° C 0° C 0° C FIGURE 050-23 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 138 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com B C A C A B R S
T U V W X Y Z NP SP 70S 40S 20S 0° 20N 40N 70N D A A A A A B C C C C Zurich L A B C D FIGURE FIGURE FIGURE FIGURE L H H FIGURE FIGURE
050-24 050-26 050-25 050-27 050-29 050-28
050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 139 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 40 20 0 20 40 60
80 60 RECIFE DAKAR Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Equator Arctic Circle FIGURE 050-30 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 60 BOMBAY MELBOURNE A B C 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 140 160 180 Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Equator Arctic Circle 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 60 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 140 160 180 60 FIGURE 050-31 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 140 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 140 160 180 40 20 0 20 40 60 Z Y R S T U V 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 40 20 0 80 100 120 20 40 60 40 20 0 20
40 60 80 40 20 0 20 40 60 80 Tropic of Capricorn Tropic of Cancer Equator BERMUDA AZORES ROME NAIROBI FREETOWN LISBON Arctic Circle FIGURE 050-32 FIGURE 050-33 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 141 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com LSGG H FIGURE 050-34 L L L H H H LFML LFRO LSZH LGAT ESSA ENGM EKCH EINN FIGURE 050-35 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 142 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H H L A L B C D E F H H L
L G T E FIGURE 050-36 FIGURE 050-37 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 143 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com L H L H V S Q 1024 1008 1016 1000 962 L H 50°N 60°N 30°W 20°W 10°W 0° 10°E MARCH B FIGURE 050-38 FIGURE 050-39 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 144 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com H L 1000 1008 1016 1024 1024 1016 50°N 60°N 30°W 20°W 10°W 0° 10°E APRIL B 1032 1016 1000 L H Q L 50°N 60°N 30°W 20°W 10°W 0° 10°E MAY
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050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 155 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-61 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 156 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-62 FIGURE 050-63 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 157 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-64 FIGURE 050-65 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 158 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-66 FIGURE 050-67 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 159 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-68 FIGURE 050-69 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 160 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-70 FIGURE 050-71 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 161 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-72 FIGURE 050-73 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 162 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-74 FIGURE 050-75 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 163 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-76
FIGURE 050-77 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 164 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-78 FIGURE 050-79 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 165 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-80 FIGURE 050-81 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 166 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-82 FIGURE 050-83 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 167 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-84 FIGURE 050-85 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 168 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-86 FIGURE 050-87 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 169 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-88 FIGURE 050-89 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 170 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-90 FIGURE 050-91 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 171 © 2008 AVIATIONEXAM.com FIGURE 050-92 FIGURE 050-93 050 PICTURE SUPPLEMENTS 172
