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Andrew Betsis & Lawrence Mamas

CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 5 - Speaking

TEST 1 n Paper 5: SPEAKING o Time: 15 minutes per pair of candidates i t c Students take the Speaking test in pairs (occasionally, where there is an uneven number of candidates, three students may e be required to take the test together). There are two examiners (an assessor and an interlocutor) and one of them (the asdoes not take part in the interaction but assesses your performance according to four analytical scales. The other S sessor) examiner (the interlocutor) conducts the test and tells you what you have to do. The interlocutor also gives you a global g mark for your performance in the test as a whole. n i 3 minutes (5 minutes for groups of three) k a In Part 1 of the Speaking test, you may be asked to talk about your interests, general experiences, studies or career, and e plans for the future. The examiner will first ask you for some general information about yourself, and then widen the scope p of the conversation to include subjects like leisure activities, studies, travel, holiday experiences and daily life. Respond directly to the examiner’s questions, avoid very short answers, and listen when your partner is speaking. You are not re S quired to interact with your partner in this part, but you may do so if you wish. Interlocutor: Good morning/afternoon/evening. My name is ……….. and this is my colleague ………. And your names are? Can I have your mark sheets, please? Thank you. First of all, we'd like to know something about you. Select one or two questions and ask candidates in turn, as appropriate.  Where are you from?  What do you do?  How long have you been studying English?  What do you enjoy most about learning English? Select one or more questions from any of the following categories, as appropriate. Family and Friends  How important do you think family is? …(Why?)  How much time do you spend with your family and what do you enjoy doing with them?  What qualities does a close friend need to possess?  With whom would you discuss a difficult personal situation, a family member or a close friend? …(Why?) Art  What would you say is your relationship with the arts?  Which kind of art are you most interested in? …(Why?)  When was the last time you visited a museum, gallery or an exhibition? What were your impressions on this visit?  Who is your favourite artist? …(Why?) Travel  With whom do you prefer to travel? …(Why?)  Are you more fond of long or short distance travel?  What has been your most exciting travel experience thus far?  Name some things that you would never leave behind you when you travel. Sports  Do you prefer team sports or individual sports?  What qualities do you need to possess in order to do well in a team sport?  What do you think about extreme sports?  What are the most popular sports in your country?

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Celebrities  What are some of the advantages and disadvantages of being famous?  Who is your favourite celebrity? …(Why?)  What would you be willing to sacrifice in order to be famous?  Why do you think more and more young people nowadays long for fame and money?

CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 5 - Speaking

4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three) In this part of the test you each have to speak for 1 minute without interruption. The examiner will give you a set of pictures and ask you to talk about them. You may be asked to describe, compare or contrast the pictures, and to make a further comment on them. Your partner will get a different set of pictures, but you should pay attention during your partner’s turn because the examiner will ask you to comment for about 30 seconds after your partner has finished speaking.

Isolated Places Interlocutor: In this part of the test, I' m going to give each of you three pictures. I'd like you to talk about them on your own for about a minute, and also to answer a question briefly about your partner's pictures. (Candidate A), it's your turn first. Here are your pictures. They show people in isolated places. I'd like you to compare two of the pictures, and say how the people might be feeling and why they might be in these situations. All right? (Candidate A - 1 minute) Thank you. (Candidate B), which of these places looks the most isolated? …(Why?) (Candidate B - approx. 30 seconds) Thank you.

2: People taking a break

S p e a k i n g S e c t i o n

Now, (Candidate B), here are your pictures. They show people taking a break from their activities. I'd like you to compare two of the pictures, and say how the people might be feeling and how demanding their activities might be. All right? (Candidate B - 1 minute) Thank you. (Candidate A), who needs a break most? …(Why?) (Candidate A - approx. 30 seconds) Thank you.

8 minutes (12 minutes for groups of three)

This part tests your ability to take part in a discussion with the other candidate and reach a decision. You have to work with the other candidate to carry out a task based on some pictures which the examiner will give you. Training Course Interlocutor: Now, I’d like you to talk about something together for about three minutes. (5 minutes for groups of three) Here are some pictures showing a series of skills to be included in a new short training course to prepare students for the world of work. First, talk to each other about how important each of these skills is. Then decide which three would be the most useful to include in the course. All right? (Candidates A & B - 3 minutes) Thank you.

5

CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 5 - Speaking

Isolated Places How might the people be feeling? Why might they be in these situations?



n o i t c e S g n i k a e p S



2: People taking a break How might the people be feeling?  How demanding might their activities be? 

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CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 5 - Speaking

How important is each of these skills?  Which three would be the most useful to include in the course? 

Team Work

Time Management

Customer Care

Money Management

S p e a k i n g S e c t i o n

Presentation Skills Information Technology

Language learning

Organisation

Interlocutor:  In what ways can training change people's attitudes in the workplace?  Some people think that school does not train young people adequately for the world of work today. Do you agree?  Which is more important to teach people - a sense of team spirit or individual initiative? Why?  How difficult is it for young people to find jobs nowadays in your country? Why?  What do you think?  What can be done to create jobs for young people?  Do you agree? What about you?



Thank you. That is the end of the test.

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CAE Practice Test 2

Paper 5 - Speaking

TEST 2 n 4 minutes (6 minutes for groups of three) o i In this part of the test you each have to speak for 1 minute without interruption. The examiner will give you a set of pictures t and ask you to talk about them. You may be asked to describe, compare or contrast the pictures, and to make a further com c ment on them. Your partner will get a different set of pictures, but you should pay attention during your partner’s turn e because the examiner will ask you to comment for about 30 seconds after your partner has finished speaking. S People and Personalities g n Interlocutor: In this part of the test, I' m going to give each of you three pictures. I'd like you to talk about them on your i own for about a minute, and also to answer a question briefly about your partner's pictures. k (Candidate A), it's your turn first. Here are your pictures. They show different people at work. a e I'd like you to compare two of the pictures, saying what sort of personalities the people in them might have and what they might p do for a living. S All right? (Candidate A - 1 minute) Thank you. (Candidate B), which of these people is the most interesting to you? …(Why?) (Candidate B - approx. 30 seconds) Thank you.

2: Water Now, (Candidate B), here are your pictures.They show different ways in which people use water. I'd like you to compare two of the pictures and describe the different ways in which water is being used, saying why it might be important in the lives of these people. All right? (Candidate B - 1 minute) Thank you. (Candidate A), in which picture do you think the water is most important? …(Why?) (Candidate A - approx. 30 seconds) Thank you.

8 minutes (12 minutes for groups of three)

This part tests your ability to take part in a discussion with the other candidate and reach a decision. You have to work with the other candidate to carry out a task based on some pictures which the examiner will give you. Promotional Gifts Interlocutor: Now, I’d like you to talk about something together for about three minutes. (5 minutes for groups of three) A computer company is giving its regular customers a free gift. Here are some pictures of products which it is considering. First, talk to each other about these products, saying who they might appeal to and how effective this free publicity might be for the company, and then decide which three products it should give its customers. All right? (Candidates A & B - 3 minutes) Thank you.

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CAE PRACTICE TEST 1

Test 1 1 t s e T e c i t c a r P

You are going to read three extracts which are all concerned in some way with health issues. For Questions , choose the answer ( , , or ) which you think fits best according to the text.

Emotional wellbeing in the workplace Stress is the result of a struggle or battle that you don’t have the resources to cope with. Some stress at work is inevitable - it’s an inherent part of getting things done, of moving projects on. And, of course, some jobs are much more stressful than others, especially if you have to manage staff (getting a nationwide team of salespeople to meet targets, for example) or deal with difficult situations (nurses and doctors must cope with all sorts of stress when human life is at stake). But this sort of stress is usually short-lived and well rewarded emotionally, if not financially. In most cases, the more stressful the job, the greater the pay. Most importantly, this is stress the person can anticipate and choose to take on when they agree to do the job, so they can go prepared with tactics to minimise the effects. More damaging is stress that relates to the way you’re expected to do the job, or to demands being made on you that exceed your expectations of the job. This sort of stress is most likely to lead to illness. Recognising that you are experiencing stress - and why - is the first step to dealing effectively with it. You need to know what’s causing it and why, before you can start to work out good strategies for reducing stress. So what should you look out for? Physical symptoms may alert you to the fact that you’re under stress, but we each express stress in different ways and sometimes symptoms are difficult to spot or blamed on other causes.

1

According to the writer A Stress is more often than not good for your health. B All good jobs are highly stressful. C Sometimes people need stress in order to function efficiently. D Jobs involving sales are the most stressful.

2

The writer warns that A unpredicted stress is the hardest to cope with. B once you are ill it is too late to deal with stress. C people usually need a professional to tell them they are stressed. D as soon as you know the cause of stress it will disappear .

JUSTIFICATION OF THE ANSWERS - Part 1

The correct answer is C. Paragraph 1. “Some stress is inevitable – it’s an inherent part of getting things done, of moving things on”. There is no reference to stress being good for your health so A is wrong. B is wrong because although “ the more stressful the job, the greater the pay”, a well-paid job does not necessarily mean a ‘good job’. D is wrong because the writer refers to “managing others” (a nationwide team of salespeople) as stressful. 1.

2. The correct answer is A. Paragraph 3. “More damaging is st ress that relates to...demands being made on you that exceed your expec tations of the job” so it’s unpredicted. It’s not B because “physical symptoms” (illness) warn you you’re under stress b ut it’s not too late to deal with it. C is wrong because ‘you’ need to realise you’re under stress and D is wrong because you need to know the cause and then “work out good strategies “ to reduce stress.

34

CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 1 - Reading EXTRACT FROM A PUBLICITY LEAFLET

For 15 years, the poverty-stricken people of Somalia have had no effective central authority to aid them in their desperate battle against chronic malnutrition and disease. Ever since the East African country was left without a functioning government in 1991, Medecins Sans Frontieres (MSF) has been working to meet the enormous medical needs of this stricken country. But as you will see from the true testimonies that follow, this is just one part of the world in which MSF operates where the challenges are huge and the needs of vulnerable people are critical. To get to and stay in the world’s crisis situations, we depend on one thing more than anything else: your support. Regular donations from people like you are what enable us to act swiftly in extreme conditions to help save lives. It is only with your help that we don’t have to wait for funding to cross a border, set up a field hospital or start a vaccination campaign. We can act immediately. That is why we make no apologies for asking for your committed support now. Your contribution is as vital as that of our field staff who cannot stand by as others suffer the injustices of a world that still says its OK for people to die horrible deaths from diseases we can treat and wounds we can heal. The correct answer is D. Paragraph 1. Somalia “was left without a functioning government in 1991”. This means A and C can’t What do we learn about Somalia from the text? be right because there was no government. A The government started a new health programme in 1991. It’s not D because these diseases are not new; it’s just there is “no effective central authority” B New diseases hit the country in 1991. to help the p eople fight against disease. 3.

3

C D

4

MSF advised the new government on health issues in 1991. The political climate changed in 1991.

In this piece, the writer is generally A pessimistic B apologetic C persuasive D intimidating

EXTRACT FROM A HEALTH PAMPHLET Do I need to diet? That’s the most important question you need to ask yourself and the one that most women in Britain (and quite a few men) would immediately answer in the affirmative. But it isn’t necessarily the case. Most of us accept that the media has a huge effect on our self-image and what size and shape we deem it acceptable to be. On the other hand, more than half the adults in the UK are currently heavier than the recommended weight. About two in five adults are classified as being overweight and about a further one in five is obese.

P r a c t i c e T e s t 1

The correct answer is C. The writer uses persuasive language to encourage people to contribute “It is only with your help that we don’t have to wait for funding”...”your contribution is as vital as that of our field staff”, persuasion means D. is not right. It’s not B. “That’s why we make no apologies” and not A. because the writer talks about treating diseases and healing wounds. 4.

In fact, in the past 20 years the number of obese adults in the UK has nearly tripled, and the effects are devastating. The National Audit Office says that if we had one million fewer obese people in this country, there would be 15,000 fewer cases of coronary heart disease, 34,000 fewer cases of type 2 diabetes, and 99,000 fewer cases of high blood pressure. Worryingly, young people and teenagers are particularly vulnerable to peer and media pressure with regard to their weight. This can sometimes lead to extreme body image issues, which may be just as damaging as obesity. The correct answer is A. Paragraph 2. “the media has a huge effect on our self image and what size and shape we deem it acceptable to be”. The media “has an effect” on people’s image but doesn’t ‘discourage’ unhealthy behaviour so B. is not right. C. is wrong because TV is not mentioned and D. is wrong because “quite a few men”, which is more than ‘relatively few’, feel they need to diet. 5.

5

The writer infers that A popular image can have a negative influence on people. B the media discourages people from being healthy. C people are overweight because they watch too much TV. D relatively few men consider themselves to be overweight.

6

According to the National Audit Office A obesity is connected to class. B obesity has a knock-on effect on other health issues. C disease is causing obesity levels to rise. D teenagers tend to be more overweight than older people.

6. The correct answer is B. Paragraph 2. “ if we

had one million fewer obese people” there would be fewer cases of heart disease, diabetes and high blood pressure. Class is not mentioned so A. is wrong. C is wrong because obesity causes disease to rise. The fact that teenagers are vulnerable to “peer and media pressure” which can lead to issues “just as damaging as obesity”, for example, anorexia, rules out D.

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CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 1 - Reading

You are going to read an extract from a magazine article. Choose from the paragraphs the one which fits each gap ( ). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.

1 t s e T e c i t c a r P

Sitting at the crossroads of Europe and Asia, the ancient city of Istanbul has seen thousands of years of trade, battles and invasions. Now it is the scene of one of the most audacious engineering projects in the world.

7

F

Istanbul is divided by the Bosporus strait that connects the Black Sea to the north of the city with the Sea of Marmara to the south. Part of the city lies in Europe, on the western side of the strait, while the rest is in Asia.

8

B

Last year, a mix of technical expertise, foreign investment and national pride finally came together to make the sultan’s dream a reality. This time the plan is not so much to unite an empire as to deliver modern Turks from traffic hell.

9

D

The plan is first to improve the existing railways on both sides of the strait and then extend them to the coast via tunnels bored through the bedrock. The centre section, under the Bosporus, will be a 1.4-kilometre tube made up of several shorter sections that will be built on land, floated into position and sunk into place. End to end, the tunnel will be 12 kilometres long.

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10

G

The result is what geologists refer to as a right-lateral strike-slip fault, similar in size and type to the San Andreas fault in California. The NAF runs for 1600 kilometres across northern Turkey, and the abutting plates move about 2 to 3 centimetres relative to each other every year.

11

A

Almost every quake along the NAF in the past 100 years seems to have set up a larger one, to the west. The process appears cyclic: quakes march along the fault in sequence until stress falls below a certain threshold, and then start again after a period of quiet. In 1997, geologists studying the most recent cycle predicted that the next shock would hit near the port city of Izmit, 80 kilometres east of Istanbul. Sure enough, a major quake of magnitude 7.4 struck close to Izmit in August 1999, followed by another in Duzce in December, together killing over 18,000 people and causing $10 to $25 billion of damage.

12

C

Recent estimates by the US Geological Survey, the University of Tokyo and Istanbul Technical University estimate that the probability of a strong quake hitting Istanbul is up to 44 per cent in the next decade and as much as 77 per cent in the next 30 years. A major earthquake and accompanying tsunami are considered inevitable within a generation.

CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 1 - Reading

A

Earthquakes along the NAF are common. In the past seven decades, Turkey has endured seven earthquakes of magnitude 7.0 or greater. While some earthquakes release the stress that has built up on a fault, seismologists have come to realise that others simply shift it along the fault, leaving it even more prone to slip.

E

The crucial factor that lets the tunnels withstand quakes of this magnitude is the fact that both are “immersed tubes”. In this design, engineers dig a channel into the seabed and float the fabricated sections into position above it before sinking them and covering them over. The Marmaray tunnel will use a similar approach.

B

Two road bridges cross the strait and there are plans for a third, but ever since the Ottoman sultan Abdul Mecit suggested it in 1860, city leaders have dreamed of building a tunnel to link the two halves of the city.

F

C

Seismologists agree that the most recent quakes on the NAF have shifted the stress steadily closer to Istanbul. Now the question isn’t if a major earthquake will strike the city, but when.

The Marmaray Rail Tube Tunnel, due to open in 2010, will not only be the deepest underwater tunnel ever constructed. It will also pass within 16 kilometres of one of the most active geological faults in the world. A major earthquake is not only expected, but also imminent. No wonder the Turkish government is calling it the project of the century.

G

It might sound straightforward, but the project engineers face a major geological hurdle. Twenty kilometres south of Istanbul lies the North Anatolian fault (NAF), where the Anatolian plate that underlies Turkey, Greece and the north Aegean is being squeezed to the south and south-west by the surrounding Arabian, Eurasia and African plates.

D

Today, crossing the Bosporus means either a 3-hour trip by rail and ferry, or braving grid lock in narrow, 2000-year-old streets and the two overcrowded road bridges. The Marmaray project, which takes its name from the Sea of Marmara and “ray”, the Turkish word for rail, aims to ease the strain by replacing car traffic with an upgraded rail service that will whisk commuters between Europe and Asia.


JUSTIFICATION OF THE ANSWERS - Part 2

The correct choice is F, a general paragraph, which introduces the Marmaray Rail Tunnel Project, the ‘audacious engineering project’ referred to in the last sentence of the previous paragraph. Paragraph F. also discusses the associated potential earthquake problem and, as the following paragraph does not refer to geological problems, this rules out paragraphs A, C, E, and G. 7.

The correct choice is B. Istanbul is divided between Europe and Asia by the Bosphorus Strait and Paragraph B. refers to two road bridges crossing the strait. Paragraph B. also refers to the Sultan’s suggestion, and in the following paragraph the dream is becoming a reality. 8.

The correct answer is D. as the last sentence in the previous paragraph refers to ‘traffic hell’ and in paragraph D we read about “braving gridlock’ and ‘two overcrowded road bridges’. The last sentence of paragraph D. talks about an ‘upgraded rail service’ and the first sentence of the next paragraph con tinues this theme, also ruling out para graphs A, C, E and G. 9.

10. The correct choice is G, as the previous paragraph describes the process of building the tunnel and paragraph G explains that although it (building the tunnel) ‘might sound straightforward’, there is a problem with a geological fault line known as the NAF . The following paragraph describes the NAF so this rules out E , which talks about designing tunnels to withstand earthquakes.

The correct answer is A. because we read that “earthquakes along the NAF are common” and the next paragraph continues the theme, referring to earthquakes ‘along the NAF’ as setting up a larger one. 11.

12.

The correct choice is C. because it refers to an earthquake striking Istanbul and the following paragraph discusses the possibility of this happening.

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CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 1 - Reading

You are going to read some reviews for festivals in the UK. For questions 20 - 34, choose from the reviews (A-F). The reviews may be chosen more than once.


40

In which review is the following mentioned? a cheap way to learn how to do an activity

20

D

good Asian food

21

C

22

A

art reflecting life

23

E

a way of seeing the city from above

24

B

watching a film in the fresh air

25

C

watching professionals fighting

26

D

the chance to make a long-term investment

27

A

someone who did quite well in a competition

28

F

spending time with contemporary literary celebrities

29

B

finances for a good cause

30

D

improving your skills in the kitchen

31

C

a chance to learn about the local sights

32

D

music in a religious building

33

E

people pretending to be dolls

34

B

an event opened by young people

CAE Practice Test 1

A

Brighton

Paper 1 - Reading

D

Liverpool

The Mersey River Festival is the largest maritime event The Brighton festival runs from 1-23 May this year, and in England this year and will take place around Albert some 300,000 visitors are expected. More than 700 Dock and Pier Head on 18-21 June. Visiting tall ships will dance, theatre, music, art and literature events will take be open to the public. Blue Badge guides will lead tours place throughout the city, ranging from outdoor events in the Lanes and by the seafront, to theatre and dance 32 around Liverpool landmarks such as the Cunard building, and voices will unite for the International Sea Shanty in the Dome auditorium. The festival kicks off on May festival. Day in Sydney Street with the “Children's’ Classics” 22 Get into the festival spirit by trying out kayaking, 20 parade of 4,000 children; they’ll be dressed as characwater polo and a variety of other water sports for free ters from the books of authors such as one-time Brighton resident Lewis Carroll. Other events include at the Watersports Centre. If you sign up for a course exhibitions and street performances. There will be a of watersports lessons which start after the festival, special exhibition of work by recent graduates of the you will receive a 50% discount. There will also be 26 University of Brighton Fine Art Department. All the work unarmed combat displays by the Royal Marines to raise will be for sale so it’s a good chance to pick up a 27 30 money for charity, a river parade, an illuminated narrow potential masterpiece. boat parade through the docks, and an historic diving exhibition.

B

Norfolk and Norwich

This year’s offerings combine tradition with modern events such as a comedy evening. To help warm up for the festival, which runs from May 5th to the 23rd, a free street festival will take place on 24 April, with human mannequin window displays at Jarrod’s depart- 34 ment store, acrobatic skateboarders and life-size garden gnomes. There will also be a beer festival with over 100 real ales and wine tasting offering a selection of British wines. For those people who are more adventurous there will be the opportunity to have a ride in a 24 hot air balloon, weather permitting. There will also be a book exhibition in the park and special storytelling 29 afternoons for children by some of Britain’s leading authors. Or your child can borrow a book and read for himself or herself.

C

Preston

Promoting its status as one of England’s newest cities, Preston’s International City Festival takes place 11-20 June. The festival will have an international flavour because this year the Preston Caribbean Festival will be incorporated into the proceedings with a lively carnival and Preston’s Asian community will stage dance, art 21 and music events. The festival will have a gastronomic theme, with demonstrations from some of Europe’s top chefs and cookery workshops given by the city’s Indian 31 and Chinese communities. There will also be a “proms in the park”, an open-air cinema in Avenham Park and a 25 street theatre.

E


City of London

This year’s festival, 21 June - 13 July, celebrates the 10th anniversary of democratic elections in South 33 Africa. Events include a performance by Ladysmith black Mambazo at St Paul’s Cathedral, a varied programme of South African music at the Spitz Club and a range of free dance events in Guildhall Yard. There will also be performances of Beethoven’s string quartets by the Borodin Quartet at various concert halls, as well as many other classical offerings, dance, theatre and literary events. There will also be an exhibition of art by local youths. The images all illustrate life in the city of 23 London and provide some interesting insights into how London is viewed by its young inhabitants.

F

Exeter

The summer festival in Devon’s principal city takes place 2-18 July. Hot tickets are likely to be the audiences with Joan Bakewell and director Ken Russell at the Northcott Theatre and a concert given by Mercury music Prize 2000 nominee Nitin Sawhney. 28 Theatrical offerings include hit comedy Art , directed by Nigel Havers at Escot House, and a world premiere of the English Chamber Theatre’s production of Chekov’s Leading Lady . The 4th of July will also resound to a Latin beat, with dance performances from the Jaleo Flamenco Dance Company taking place around Exeter Quay. The London Community Gospel Choir, the Brodsky Quartet and the New Berlin Chamber Orchestra will also perform during the festival.

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CAE Practice Test 1

You 1


Paper 2 - Writing

answer this question. Write your answer in

words in an appropriate style.

Last year you visited a European city that you had never been to before. Your cousin has written to you asking you about it. Read the extract from your cousin’s letter and from a postcard you sent to your parents below. Write a letter to your cousin saying whether or not you would recommend him spending three months in the city and give reasons to justify your advice. .......Do you think there will be enough things to interest me there for a whole summer and is there an area that would be best for me to stay in? I don’t have a lot of money saved up so I was hoping to get some kind of job, what do you think? Will it inspire my painting? Finally, do you think it will be easy for me to meet people of my own age? I don’t want to be lonely. Love to your family, Andy

Dear Mum and Dad Can hardly believe I’ve been here a week already. It’s more expensive than I had expected but I am hoping to move to the suburbs where it’s cheaper. Made some friends at a sports centre and am planning to visit all the fantastic museums and galleries here. It’s beautiful walking along the river bank and there are some amazing old buildings in the city centre. Just wish I could speak the language better so that I could get some part-time work. Miss you lots .........

Write your letter . You do not need to include postal addresses.

Write an answer to of the questions in an appropriate style. 2

in this part. Write your answer in

words

You see the following announcement in a magazine. One Hundred Years of Heroes - Competition

We are planning a series of radio programmes to celebrate heroes of the last one hundred years. Who do you recommend should be honoured in this series? Write to us naming the person you think most deserves to be discussed. Describe the person’s character and achievements and justify your choice of them as a hero-like figure. Write your competition entry. 3

You see this advert in a newspaper. Tour guides needed for summer season

We need a hard-working team of people to work as tour guides throughout the summer period. Applicants must be at least 18 years old. A good knowledge of your local area is required as well as the ability to get on with people and to communicate clearly. If you think this could be the job for you, write to us and tell us about your character and interests. Say why you think you would make a good tour guide. We would also like you to say what you think is one of the highlights of your area and why. Letters of application must be in by Friday 23rd May

Write your letter .

4

42

You are the arts review writer for a magazine. Your editor has asked you to review a film. Choose a film that you have seen. Describe the plot and the characters involved. Say who the film is suitable for and why. Mention any special effects or aspects of the film that stood out in some way. Would you recommend the film? Why, why not? Write your review

CAE Practice Test 1

Paper 3 - Use of English Justifications of the Answers for Use of English: SELF-STUDY GUIDE - page 25

For questions , read the text below and decide which answer ( , , or There is an example at the beginning .

make

take

do

) best fits each gap.

have

Long hours and health don’t mix Women are much healthier when they (0) ............ it easy, (1) ............ a new survey. Those who work long hours are more likely than men to (2) ............ in unhealthy behaviour such as eating snacks, smoking and drinking caffeine. (Long hours have no such (3) ............ on men.) One positive benefit of long hours for both sexes, however, is that alcohol (4) ............. is reduced.


The study, funded by the Economic and Social Research Council, is part of a wider study by psychologists from the University of Leeds, into the effects of stress on eating. ‘Stress causes people to (5) ............ for unhealthy high-fat and high-sugar snacks in (6) ............ to healthier food choices,’ says researcher Dr Daryl O’Connor of the University of Leeds. ‘People under stress eat less than usual in their main meals, including their vegetable (7) ............, but shift their preference to high-fat, high-sugar snacks instead. ‘Our (8)............. are disturbing in that they show stress produces harmful changes in diet and (9) ............. to unhealthy eating behaviour,’ continues Dr O’Connor. ‘An overwhelming (10) ............ of evidence shows the importance of maintaining a balanced diet in (11) ............. of reducing the risk of cancer and cardiovascular diseases and that means eating a low-fat diet and five (12) ............ of fruit and vegetables a day .

1

A betrays

B sustains

C reveals

D conceals

2

A indulge

B satisfy

C yield

D tempt

3

A contact

B clash

C conflict

D impact

4

A beverage

B consumption

C expenditure

D acceptance

5

A choose

B select

C design

D opt

6

A difference

B option

C preference

D priority

7

A intake

B influx

C emission

D immersion

8

A instructions

B rulings

C findings

D institutions

9

A sends

B makes

C guides

D leads

10

A lump

B body

C sack

D packet

11

A moments

B sessions

C terms

D senses

12

A segments

B slices

C portions

D plates

43

CAE Practice Tests - KEY Practice Test 1 1.C 2.A 3.D 4.C 5.A 6.B 2: 7.F 8.B 9.D 10.G 11.A 12.C 3: 13.C 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.A 18.D 19.B 4: 20.D 21.C 22.A 23.E 24.B 25.C 26.D 30.D 31.C 32.D 33.E 34.B

READING - Part 1: READING - Part READING - Part READING - Part

27.A

28.F

29.B

2.A

3.D

4.B

5.D

1.B , 2.A , 3.C , 4.B , 5.C , 6.A

LISTENING - Part 2

7. council estate 8. qualifications 9. volunteer 10. deadline 11. emotional barriers 12. the court 13. domestic violence/ pressure 14. sentence LISTENING - Part 3: 15.B 16.A 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.C LISTENING - Part 4

USE OF ENGLISH - Part 1

1.C

LISTENING - Part 1:

6.C

7.A

8.C

9.D

10.B

11.C

12.C

21.F

22.B

23.D

24.H

25.A

26.D

27.G

28.A

29.H

30.C


13. on 14. each/every 15. take 16. fact/short 17. yet 18. aware 19. precisely/exactly 20. could/should 21. getting/ doing 22. include 23. some 24. such 25. means 26. actually/really 27. on USE OF ENGLISH - Part 3

28. variation 29. unaccountable 30. increasingly 31. findings 32. absorption 33. measurements 34. worldwide 35. unbelievable 36. problematic 37. eruptions

Practice Test 3 1.D 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.C 2: 7.F 8.B 9.E 10.G 11.D 12.A 3: 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.C 17.B 18.A 19.C 4: 20.C 21.E 22.B 23.D 24.A 25.D 26.F 30.D 31.F 32.B 33.F 34.E


27.C

28.F

29.A


38. account

39. block

40. part

41. manage

42. serve


43. 45. 47. 49.

in the habit of playing 44. have every/a good chance of winning so much a career as 46. goes without saying that I did strike you as (being) 48. no matter how hard I tried to cook for myself, let alone 50. such was the force of

LISTENING - Part 1:

1.C

2.B

3.B

4.C

5.C

7. public finance 8. competing 9. continuous link 10. natural habitats 11. circular walks 12. reservoirs 13. rod licence 14. considerate LISTENING - Part 3: 15.D 16.A 17.B 18.D 19.C 20.A 23.G

24.A

25.B

26.C

27.H

28.G

29.F

2.C

3.A

4.B

5.B

6.D

7.A

8.D

9.B

10.A

11.B

12.C


13. with 14. such 15. before 16. behind 17. Although/While 18. thanks/due 19. on 20. According 21. first 22. away 23. only/just 24. rate/class 25. either 26. second 27. few USE OF ENGLISH - Part 3


38. count

39. hold

40. head

41. sank

42. threw


LISTENING - Part 4

22.C

1.D

28. spectacular 29. mountainous 30. exception 31. favourable 32. unforgettable 33. reality 34. unreliable 35. surroundings 36. uncomfortable 37. illegal

6.B

LISTENING - Part 2

21.D


30.B

Practice Test 2 1.B 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.C 2: 7.G 8.F 9.D 10.A 11.C 12.E 3: 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.A 18.A 19.C 4: 20.C 21.E 22.A 23.D 24.F 25.B 26.B 30.B 31.E 32.C 33.A 34.F

43. is reputed to be one 44. announcement of her engagement took us 45. come to terms with losing 46. utmost importance that we find 47. no circumstances will I ever 48. trying for/having tried for months did 49. wasn’t in the mood for 50. made no/did not make any reference to


27.A

28.D

29.F


1.D

2.A

3.B

4.B

5.A

6.D

7.D

8.C

9.B

10.C

11.B

12.A

LISTENING - Part 1:

1.C

2.A

5.C

6.A

7. 15 percent/significant 8. Television programmes 9. better climate 10. low(er) interest rate(s) 11. minority 12. cheapest 13. investment 14. tax and inheritance LISTENING - Part 3: 15.B 16.D 17.D 18.C 19.A 20.C LISTENING - Part 4

21.F

13. led 14. just 15. those 16. which 17. for 18. another 19. Since/As/Because 20. waste 21. of 22. only 23. right 24. straight/immediately/right/ just 25. Unless 26. yet/but/whose 27. such

Practice Test 4

28. infallible 29. conviction 30. enthusiasm 31. pleasure 32. explanation 33. incomprehensible 34. confusion 35. endless 36. reality 37. suspicious

4.B

LISTENING - Part 2



3.B

22.A

23.D

24.H

25.C

26.D

27.C

28.G

29.H

30.A

1.C 2.D 3.A 4.D 5.B 6.C 7.G 8.F 9.C 10.A 11.E 12.D READING - Part 3: 13.D 14.A 15.D 16.B 17.B 18.C 19.A READING - Part 4: 20.E 21.F 22.C 23.D 24.A 25.D 26.B 27.F 28.A 29.E 30.C 31.C 32.B 33.E 34.F READING - Part 1:

READING - Part 2:


38. back

39. tip

40. mark

41. produced

42. move


43. no intention of giving 44. congratulated her on choosing such 45. no problem picking 46.would appear that the thieves got 47. apologised for not turning/showing [or having turned/shown] 48. in case she wanted to buy 49. wished that he’d taken 50.difference to me if she stays/ keeps


1.C

2.B

3.A

4.B

5.A

6.D

7.A

8.C

9.B

10.D

11.C

12.B


13. about 14. making 15. up/around 16. could 17. still 18. without 19. Who 20. all 21. even 22. if 23. ourselves 24. again 25. such 26. own/actual/real 27. if/though

20.D 21.B 22.F 23.A 24.B 30.D 31.A 32.B 33.E 34.C


READING - Part 4:

28. apparently 29. acceptable 30. informality 31. anxiety 32. indication 33. ritualistic 34. interaction 35. presentation 36. courtesy 37. laziness

27.E


1.B

38. end

39. counts

40. lot

41. track

42. stake

43. made a good impression on 44. not in the mood to go/in no mood to go 45. was a complete lack of trust 46. is subject to alteration/change 47. take part in/be (a) part of 48. shed some light on 49. gave me his word that we/I 50. came to the conclusion that 1.B

2.C

3.C

4.A

5.A

29.F

2.D

3.A

4.D

5.C

6.C

6.B

26.D

27.G

28.A

12.B

10.C


LISTENING - Part 4

25.F

9.A

28. extraordinary 29. location 30. neighbouring 31. picturesque 32. idiosyncratic 33. essentially 34. perfectionism 35. unrealistic 36. charitable 37. ongoing


24.A

8.A


38. far

23.H

7.B

13. rarely/never 14. rather 15. once 16. go 17. many 18. themselves 19. even 20. take 21. across 22. at 23. matter 24. After 25. among 26. turning/showing 27. put

7. over-tutoring 8. five applications 9. unpredictable 10. 75,000 11. disadvantaged 12. free school meals 13. materials 14. contradictory LISTENING - Part 3: 15.C 16.D 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.B 22.C

11.D


LISTENING - Part 2

21.E

26.D



LISTENING - Part 1:

28.A

25.C

29.B

30.E

39. hand

40. heart

41. break

42. touch

43. fell short of my expectations 44. takes any notice of what is 45. nowhere (near) as good at playing 46. not been for the timely arrival 47. did not strike me as being 48. twice as many men as women 49. is of no consequence to 50. only a matter of time until/before LISTENING - Part 1:

1.C

2.B

3.B

4.A

5.C

6.A

LISTENING - Part 2

Practice Test 5 1.D 2.B 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.D 2: 7.D 8.G 9.F 10.A 11.B 12.E 3: 13.D 14.A 15.B 16.D 17.C 18.C 19.B 4: 20.B 21.F 22.C 23.A 24.E 25.C 26.F 30.D 31.C 32.D 33.A 34.B


27.E

28.F

29.D

2.A

3.D

4.B

5.A

6.C

LISTENING - Part 4

21.G

22.D

23.B

24.F

25.A

7.B

8.C

9.D

10.B

11.A

12.A

13. other 14. before 15. what 16. of 17. from/after 18. but/however/although 19. though/if 20. or 21. up 22. somebody/someone 23. did 24. into 25. not 26. made/found 27. except/only

READING - Part



30. unpredictability 31. widened 34. coastal 35. reclamation

40. ear

29.F

30.C

41. broke

READING - Part

27.E

1.B

28.B

2.D

29.C

3.A

4.A

5.C

6.B

7.C

8.A

9.C

10.D

11.D

12.B


13. only 14. times 15. need/begin/start 16. especially 17. most 18. ability 19. who 20. although 21. cases 22. nothing 23. into 24. more 25. quite/very 26. While 27. tend


39. note

28.H

1.B 2.D 3.B 4.A 5.C 6.D 2: 7.C 8.G 9.E 10.A 11.F 12.B 3: 13.B 14.D 15.A 16.D 17.A 18.C 19.B 4: 20.D 21.B 22.C 23.C 24.E 25.A 26.F 30.F 31.A 32.F 33.B 34.D

READING - Part

38. pick

27.A

READING - Part 1:


28. serenity 29. unimaginable 32. fascination 33. awareness 36. urbanisation 37. fragility

26.D

Practice Test 7


1.D

7. Revolutionary changes 8. Citizens and Kings 9. poets 10. exhibition curator 11. executed 12. two historic books 13. political changes 14. fossils and shells LISTENING - Part 3: 15.C 16.A 17.C 18.D 19.B 20.D

42. short



43. little chance of Jim being 44. lost no time in phoning his 45. the power of the government 46. ever do I get (the chance) 47. no circumstances is the baby to/should the baby 48. ended up doing 49. prides herself on having 50. has a tendency to mistrust

28. resistance 29. intake 30. addictive 31. obesity 32. dependence 33. inexpensive 34. irresistible 35. adulthood 36. indulgence 37. associations USE OF ENGLISH - Part 4

38. still

39. cross

40. drew

41. light

42. rate

USE OF ENGLISH - Part 5 LISTENING - Part 1:

1.B

2.A

3.B

4.C

5.C

6.A

LISTENING - Part 2

7. overfishing 8. Pink coral 9. Legislation 10. 0.002 11. network 12. inadequate 13. integrated 14. strategy LISTENING - Part 3: 15.B 16.D 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.A LISTENING - Part 4

21.D

22.H

23.B

24.E

43. strike you as (being) 44. is not so much 45. high time Ben cleaned 46. for fear of waking 47. are rumoured to have split 48. given that he only 49. to keep to themselves 50. practising every day do LISTENING - Part 1:

25.G

26.B

27.F

28.A

29.H

30.D

1.B

2.A

3.A

4.C

5.C

6.A

LISTENING - Part 2

READING - Part 1:

7. threatening situation 8. the heart 9. negative thoughts 10. run away 11. muscles 12. paper bag 13. Holding your breath 14. Natural remedies LISTENING - Part 3: 15.A 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.C 20.C

READING - Part 2:

LISTENING - Part 4

Practice Test 6 1.B 2.D 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.G 9.B 10.F 11.A 12.C READING - Part 3: 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.D 17.A 18.C 19.B

21.D

22.F

23.E

24.A

25.H

26.G

27.A

28.E

29.B

30.F

LISTENING - Part 3:

Practice Test 8 1.D 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.C 6.B 2: 7.C 8.G 9.D 10.A 11.F 12.B 3: 13.D 14.B 15.B 16.A 17.C 18.C 19.D 4: 20.B 21.F 22.B 23.E 24.C 25.F 26.D 30.C 31.A 32.E 33.A 34.D


27.A

28.D

29.F

1.B

2.D

3.B

4.C

5.A

6.A

7.D

8.A

9.C

10.C

11.A

12.B


13. in 14. With 15. right 16. indeed 17. One 18. on 19. himself 20. unlike 21. rest 22. rather/almost 23. by 24. around 25. something 26. coming 27. partly/mainly USE OF ENGLISH - Part 3

40. short

41. book

43. no fault of mine did we 44. least they can do is 45. left many passengers seriously 46. is little prospect of John getting 47. came as no surprise to 48. have been brought about by 49. no intention of replying 50. been on Andrew’s mind 1.C

2.B

3.C

4.A

5.B

7. concealed 8. screen out 9. fog 10. pacemaker 11. voyeuristic 12. security guards 13. natural materials 14. illegal immigrants LISTENING - Part 3: 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.D 19.A 20.C 23.B

24.D

25.C

26.H

27.C

28.E

29.A

30.G

1.C 2.B 3.D 4.B 5.A 6.B 2: 7.B 8.G 9.E 10.A 11.D 12.C 3: 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.A 17.B 18.C 19.B 4: 20.A 21.F 22.B 23.D 24.C 25.F 26.E 30.E 31.B 32.C 33.D 34.D

READING - Part 1: READING - Part READING - Part

27.F

28.E

29.A


1.A

2.D

3.B

4.A

5.B

6.C

7.C

8.D

9.D

10.B

11.A

12.C


13. it/magic/magicians 14. not 15. what 16. For 17. more 18. rather 19. one 20. tend 21. do 22. to 23. those 24. nor 25. use 26. were 27. that USE OF ENGLISH - Part 3

28. environmental 29. alternative 30. community 32. Controversially 33. especially 34. practicality 35. enforcement 36. opposition 37. ongoing

31. particularly


38. page

39. handle

40. part

41. fine

42. still


43. 46. 47. 49.

Do you think 44. barely remembered 45. Many things have go to the store on foot/on foot to the store decision doesn’t matter 48. no chance of winning has not changed 50. unless I came early

LISTENING - Part 1:

1.C

22.D

23.F 24.E

2.A

3.A

4.C

5.B

6.B

LISTENING - Part 2

7. challenging 8. water 9. towards the corner 11. painful 12. sight 13. uphill 14. monster

25.B

26.C 27.G

28.F

29.B 30.E

Practice Test 10 1.C 2.A 3.C 4.A 5.A 6.B 2: 7.C 8.G 9.A 10.B 11.D 12.E 3: 13.B 14.C 15.D 16.B 17.A 18.C 19.C 4: 20.D 21.B 22.A 23.C 24.C 25.B 26.E 30.D 31.C 32.D 33.A 34.E

READING - Part 1: READING - Part READING - Part

27.B

28.A

29.E


1.C

2.D

3.A

4.B

5.B

6.D

7.A

8.C

9.D

10.B

11.A

12.C

28. various 29. scientific 30. harmful 31. productivity 32. attractive 33. acceleration 34. Additional 35. restrictions 36. explosive 37. enjoyable USE OF ENGLISH - Part 4

38. fit

39. state

40. bank

41. frame

42. beat


1.C

2.B

3.A

4.C

5.B

6.C

LISTENING - Part 2

Practice Test 9 READING - Part

21. A

LISTENING - Part 1:

LISTENING - Part 4

22.H

20.B

43. not having talked to her 44. showed up at/to/for 45. have hardly any 46. the best of my knowledge 47. no point (in) 48. Never before had 49. had better make 50. want to have it towed

6.A

LISTENING - Part 2

21.E

19.C


42. sharp


LISTENING - Part 1:

18.C

13. from 14. that/who 15. through 16. was 17. had 18. having 19. does/can 20. of 21. by 22. similar 23. on 24. such 25. only 26. according 27. said


39. part

17.A


28. satisfyingly 29. arguably 30. revelation 31. endless 32. remarkably 33. doubtless/undoubtedly 34. traceable 35. development 36. refinements 37. awareness 38. catch

16.C

LISTENING - Part 4

READING - Part


15.B

10. sandy holes

7. self-employed / his own boss 8. multimedia skills 9. animation(s) 10. new and upcoming 11. a spaceship 12. most 3D animators/most people in animation 13. (a bit) older than 14. the (lousy) economy LISTENING - Part 3: 15.B 16.C 17.D 18.B 19.A 20.C LISTENING - Part 4

21.H

22.C

23.F

24.D

25.B

26.B

27.A

28.C

29.G

30.H

176487296 Succeed in CAE Practce Tests Samplepages

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